Organizational Behavior An Evidence Based Approach 12th Edition Luthans Test Bank

Organizational Behavior An Evidence
Based Approach 12th Edition Luthans

Test Bank
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Chapter 08 Communication and Decision Making
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. As per the managerial communication model, the informal developer exhibits

monitoring/controlling activities.
True False
2. Communication is a personal process that involves the exchange of behaviors and

information.
True False
3. When a person does not say anything, communication does not take place.
True False
4. Time is a silent dimension of nonverbal communication.
True False
5. Paralanguage includes yawning and laughing.
True False
6. A person with the director style of communication likes to know the whole picture and thrives
on details.
True False
7. Effective feedback is evaluative rather than descriptive.
True False
8. Social cognitive theory posits that humans often evaluate themselves quite differently than
others do.
True False
9. Vertical communication is required to make a coordinated, cross functional effort in achieving

organizational goals.
True False
10. The informal system of communication has a highly impersonal orientation.
True False
11. According to Herbert A. Simon, the second phase of the decision-making process—design
activity—involves analyzing possible courses of action.
True False
12. The classical decision theory operated under the assumption of rationality and certainty,
whereas the new behavioral decision theory does not.
True False
13. Social pressures and influences may cause managers to make irrational decisions.
True False
14. A manager's ego can cause him to stick to a bad decision alternative.
True False
15. In terms of decision-making styles, ‘skeptics' are often unemotional, logical, and accurate.
True False
16. Mark is a senior manager at a multinational company. He works well with his colleagues but
has a hard time saying no to them and is not comfortable making tough decisions. Mark's
decision making style can be classified as directive.
True False
17. In the democratic form of participative decision making, managers ask for and receive
involvement from their employees, but the managers maintain the right to make the decision.
True False
18. In the process of encouraging participative decision making, some managers end up involving
employees in the task but not in the decision-making process. This is a case of
pseudoparticipation.
True False
19. Tacit knowledge is acquired through observation and experience and seems to be in the
unconscious.
True False
20. Creative ideas from both individuals and groups are scarce.
True False
21. Cognitive complexity refers to a person's ability to generate novel, but still appropriate,
responses to questions and problems.
True False
22. Empathic design relies heavily on textual information.
True False
23. Innovative observation focuses on people's body language and spontaneous comments.
True False
24. Juries often adopt the truth-wins decision scheme.
True False
25. Building checkpoints and setting limits into a plan can result in more effective group
decisions.
True False
26. According to the managerial communication model, the _____ communicates spontaneously
in all directions and exhibits activities related to developing his or her people.
A. humanistic interactor
B. mechanistic isolate
C. informal developer
D. formal controller
27. According to the managerial communication model, the _____ exhibits monitoring activities.
A. mechanistic isolate
B. formal controller
C. formal developer
D. humanistic interactor
28. When people assume that other people have the same knowledge that they do, and they
communicate on this basis, the result if often:
A. improved feedback.
B. escalation of commitment.
C. paralanguage.
D. communication breakdown.
29. Which form of communication involves facial expressions and what people do with their eyes,
feet, hands, and posture?
A. Body language
B. Interpersonal communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Paralanguage
30. The seating arrangement in a committee meeting is an example of which dimension of
nonverbal communication?
A. Space
B. Time
C. Body language
D. Posture
31. _____ includes things such as voice quality, tone, volume, speech rate, pitch, nonfluencies,
laughing, and yawning.
A. Noise
B. Context
C. Feedback
D. Paralanguage
32. Mark wants to improve his nonverbal communication. Mark should:
A. focus on obvious nonverbal signs.

B. consider the discrepancies between nonverbal behavior and verbal statements.
C. concentrate on behavior and not the situation in which the behavior takes place.
D. adopt commonly used nonverbal behaviors.
33. Allan is the type of manager who is interested in knowing the whole picture. He requires in-
depth information and does not jump from subject to subject, but instead remains focused on
the topic under consideration until it has been exhaustively reviewed. How would you
describe Allan's communication style?
A. The director
B. The free spirit
C. The humanist
D. The historian
34. Joe is a manager at multinational company. He is very fast at grasping information but has a
short attention span and prefers it when people ‘get to the point'. How would you deal with
Joe's communication style?
A. By providing several recommendation

B. By providing in-depth information
C. By providing a bulleted list of conclusions
D. By providing a thorough analysis of the information
35. _____ makes communication a two-way process.
A. Feedback
B. Information processing
C. Perception
D. Cognition
36. Carl told Eva that her work on particular assignment was not up to the standard and that if
she did not improve he would have to put her on a performance improvement program. Carl's
feedback:
A. is a personal attack on Eva.

B. does not provide any specific information about Eva's performance.
C. is inappropriate.
D. is inaccurate.
37. Anna asked Andrew to restate the various points they had discussed at the end of their
feedback session. She did this to ensure:
A. that her feedback was valid.

B. that the feedback was directed toward aspects of Andrew's job.
C. that the feedback was useful.
D. that Andrew had clearly understood the feedback he had received.
38. When Fred was told by his boss that the presentation he had prepared did not meet the
client's expectations as it lacked an in-depth analysis, he became defensive. This is probably
because:
A. the feedback was not presented in a timely fashion.

B. the feedback was directed at Fred and not his work.
C. the feedback was not specific.
D. Fred was not ready to receive the feedback.
39. 360° feedback:
A. provides managers with an external source of information designed to increase their self-
awareness.
B. is inconsistent with the social cognitive theory.
C. includes feedback from peer, coworkers, direct reports, and suppliers.
D. is less effective compared to a traditional performance review.
40. In dealing with Generation X, a manager must:
A. push them to participate.

B. offer them the flexibility to telecommute.
C. encourage face-to-face meetings.
D. encourage them to learn from Generation Y.
41. Which among the following is a disadvantage of interactive communication among peers?
A. It leads to ineffective feedback.

B. It leads to an unhealthy dependence on peers.
C. It may limit vertical communication.
D. It reduces task coordination.
42. The market research team will be meeting with members of the production department to
discuss their findings from a survey on customer product design preferences for household
appliances. This form of interactive communication serves the purpose of:
A. task coordination.
B. problem solving.
C. information sharing.
D. conflict resolution.
43. Representatives of various departments will be attending a meeting to discuss the different
ways they can help the organization reduce costs. This form of interactive communication
serves the purpose of:
A. task coordination
B. problem solving.
44. Which of the following statements is true regarding the informal system of communication?
A. It is impersonal in nature.
B. It is generally relied on for vertical coordination.
C. It tends to be much faster than the formal downward system of information flow.
D. It tends to be less effective than the formal system when information requires quick
responsive action by lower-level personnel.
45. According to Herbert A. Simon, inventing, developing, and analyzing possible courses of
action takes place in the _____ phase of decision-making.
A. intelligence activity
B. design activity
C. choice activity
D. identification activity
46. According to Herbert A. Simon, the intelligence activity phase of decision-making:
A. consists of trial-and-error processes.

B. consists of searching for existing standard procedures or solutions already in place.
C. consists of selecting a particular course of action from among those available.
D. consists of searching the environment for conditions calling for decision making.
47. According to Mintzberg, the recognition of a problem and its diagnosis is made during _____
phase of decision-making.
A. identification
B. development
C. design
D. intelligence
48. According to Mintzberg, the _____ was found to be a groping, trial-and-error process in which
the decision makers had only a vague idea of the ideal solution.
A. intelligence activity phase

B. selection phase
C. design process
D. identification phase
49. According to Mintzberg, a solution is chosen by _____ when the selection involves a group of
decision makers and all the political maneuvering that this entails.
A. bargaining
B. analysis
C. judgment
D. examination
50. _____ rationality can be applied to decisions that maximize attainment relative to knowledge
of a given subject.
A. Objective
B. Conscious
C. Subjective
D. Personal
51. Which among the following is a psychological determinant of the escalation of commitment?
A. Information-processing errors
B. Peer pressure
C. A breakdown in communication
D. Delayed return on investment
52. Dysfunctional politics can be classified as a(n) _____ that can lead to the escalation of
commitment.
A. project characteristic
B. organizational determinant
C. psychological determinant
D. defensive force
53. Scott is a manager at an accounting firm. Whenever faced with a problem, Scott likes to
gather as much information as possible. However, he tends to over think situations causing
him to take a long time to make decisions. Based on this information, Scott's decision-making
style can be classified as:
A. conceptual.
B. behavioral.
C. analytical.
D. directive.
54. Which among the following is a disadvantage of conceptual style decision-makers?
A. They can foster an idealistic and indecisive approach to decision making.

B. They have a very short-run focus.
C. They tend to have an autocratic leadership style.
D. They have difficulties making tough decisions.
55. George likes to keep his colleagues happy and is often described as warm, supportive, and
open to others ideas. However, on account of his strong concern for people, George cannot
make hard decisions. Based on this information, George's decision-making style can be
classified as:
A. conceptual.
B. behavioral.
C. analytical.
D. directive.
56. Which of the following statements is true regarding participative decision-making?
A. It is informal in nature.
B. It primarily entails physical involvement.
C. It can range from no participation to full participation.
D. It is lesser when tasks are unstructured.
57. Which among the following fosters the use of participative decision-making?
A. Hierarchical superior-subordinate relationships

B. Teams with limited experience
C. Boundary-spanning information technologies
D. Vertical structures
58. In the ____ form of participative decision-making, there is total participation, and the group
makes the final decision by consensus or majority vote.
A. shared
B. complementary
C. consultative
D. democratic
59. Margaret heads the accounting department at a small firm and has been trying to involve her
subordinates in the decision-making process. However, whenever they try to make a
suggestion, she criticizes their ideas. This is an example of:
A. empathic design.
C. pseudoparticipation.
D. autocratic leadership.
60. Researcher Teresa Amabile proposes that creativity is a function of three major components:
expertise, creative-thinking skills, and motivation. According to her:
A. expertise consists of knowledge: technical, procedural, and intellectual.

B. motivation determines how flexibly and imaginatively people can deal with problems.
C. creative-thinking skills refer to the inner passion for solving a problem at hand.
D. the creative process is generally better off when given a short span of time.
61. Divergent thinking:
A. is based on rational logic.

B. relies heavily on knowledge.
C. is the ability to develop novel but appropriate responses.
D. involves reasoning and judgment.
62. _____ refers to a person's use of and preference for elaborate, intricate, and complex stimuli
and thinking patterns.
A. Detailed complexity
B. Creative complexity
C. Cognitive complexity
D. Personal complexity
63. Creative people tend to:
A. have a narrow range of interests.

B. be independent.
C. focus on concrete problems.
D. rely on explicit knowledge.
64. _____ focuses on observing how people respond to products and services and drawing
creative conclusions from the results.
A. Empathic design
B. Cognitive complexity
C. Traditional inquiry
D. Conceptualization
65. In innovative observation:
A. the questions that are asked can bias the responses.

B. people's routines are often interrupted.
C. people make unsolicited comments.
D. people are unable to recall how they feel about a particular product or service.
66. The _____ appears to guide decision making most often when there is no objectively correct
decision.
A. truth-wins scheme
B. two-thirds majority scheme
C. majority-wins scheme
D. first-shift rule
67. A disciplinary committee is equally divided on whether or not to enforce disciplinary action
against an employee facing allegations of improper conduct in the workplace. However, after
a member changed his stance on the issue, the committee decided to suspend the employee
for a week. This situation is an example of the:
A. truth-wins scheme.
B. two-thirds majority scheme.
C. opposition scheme.
D. first-shift rule.
68. In order to overcome the status quo tendency, one should:
A. judge people based on outcomes.

B. make all groups responsible for monitoring the environment, developing new technologies,
and generating new ideas.
C. emphasize the importance of success.
D. build checkpoints and limits into any plan.
69. Explain the managerial communication model.

70. What are the major categories of communication?
71. Define and briefly explain the concept of nonverbal communication.
72. What is paralanguage?

73. Briefly explain the characteristic of effective feedback.
74. What are the purposes of interactive communication?
75. What role does the informal organization play in interactive communication in organizations?
76. Briefly explain the three major phases in the decision-making process as conceptualized by
Herbert A. Simon.
77. According to Mintzberg's phases of decision-making, the choice of a solution is made in the
selection phase. How is this done?
78. What is meant by the term escalation of commitment? What causes this phenomenon to take
place?
79. Briefly explain the conceptual style of decision-making.
80. What is the difference between the consultative and the democratic technique in group
participation?
81. What is meant by divergent thinking?

82. What is empathic design?
83. What are some of the schemes or rules that can be used to predict the final outcome of
group decision making?
Chapter 08 Communication and Decision Making Key
1. As per the managerial communication model, the informal developer exhibits

(p. 248)
monitoring/controlling activities.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
Luthans - Chapter 08 #1
2. Communication is a personal process that involves the exchange of behaviors and

(p. 249)
information.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
3. When a person does not say anything, communication does not take place.
(p. 250)
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
4. Time is a silent dimension of nonverbal communication.

(p. 251)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
5. Paralanguage includes yawning and laughing.
(p. 252)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
6. A person with the director style of communication likes to know the whole picture and
(p. 254)
thrives on details.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. Effective feedback is evaluative rather than descriptive.

(p. 255)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
8. Social cognitive theory posits that humans often evaluate themselves quite differently
(p. 256)
than others do.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
9. Vertical communication is required to make a coordinated, cross functional effort in

(p. 257)
achieving organizational goals.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
10. The informal system of communication has a highly impersonal orientation.
(p. 258)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
11. According to Herbert A. Simon, the second phase of the decision-making process—design
(p. 259)
activity—involves analyzing possible courses of action.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
12. The classical decision theory operated under the assumption of rationality and certainty,
(p. 260)
whereas the new behavioral decision theory does not.
TRUE
Difficulty: Hard
13. Social pressures and influences may cause managers to make irrational decisions.
(p. 261)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
14. A manager's ego can cause him to stick to a bad decision alternative.
(p. 261-
262)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. In terms of decision-making styles, ‘skeptics' are often unemotional, logical, and accurate.
(p. 262)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
16. Mark is a senior manager at a multinational company. He works well with his colleagues
(p. 263)
but has a hard time saying no to them and is not comfortable making tough decisions.
Mark's decision making style can be classified as directive.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
17. In the democratic form of participative decision making, managers ask for and receive
(p. 264)
involvement from their employees, but the managers maintain the right to make the
decision.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
18. In the process of encouraging participative decision making, some managers end up
(p. 265)
involving employees in the task but not in the decision-making process. This is a case of
pseudoparticipation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. Tacit knowledge is acquired through observation and experience and seems to be in the
(p. 266)
unconscious.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
20. Creative ideas from both individuals and groups are scarce.
(p. 267)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
21. Cognitive complexity refers to a person's ability to generate novel, but still appropriate,
(p. 268)
responses to questions and problems.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. Empathic design relies heavily on textual information.

(p. 268)
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
23. Innovative observation focuses on people's body language and spontaneous comments.
(p. 269)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
24. Juries often adopt the truth-wins decision scheme.
(p. 270)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
25. Building checkpoints and setting limits into a plan can result in more effective group
(p. 270)
decisions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
26. According to the managerial communication model, the _____ communicates

(p. 248)
spontaneously in all directions and exhibits activities related to developing his or her
people.
A. humanistic interactor
B. mechanistic isolate
C. informal developer
D. formal controller
Difficulty: Medium
27. According to the managerial communication model, the _____ exhibits monitoring
(p. 248)
activities.
A. mechanistic isolate
B. formal controller
C. formal developer
D. humanistic interactor
Difficulty: Medium
28. When people assume that other people have the same knowledge that they do, and they
(p. 249)
communicate on this basis, the result if often:
A. improved feedback.
C. paralanguage.
D. communication breakdown.
Difficulty: Easy
29. Which form of communication involves facial expressions and what people do with their
(p. 250)
eyes, feet, hands, and posture?
A. Body language
B. Interpersonal communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Paralanguage
Difficulty: Easy
30. The seating arrangement in a committee meeting is an example of which dimension of
(p. 251)
nonverbal communication?
A. Space
B. Time
C. Body language
D. Posture
Difficulty: Easy
31. _____ includes things such as voice quality, tone, volume, speech rate, pitch, nonfluencies,
(p. 252)
laughing, and yawning.
A. Noise
B. Context
C. Feedback
D. Paralanguage
Difficulty: Easy
32. Mark wants to improve his nonverbal communication. Mark should:

(p. 252)
A. focus on obvious nonverbal signs.

B. consider the discrepancies between nonverbal behavior and verbal statements.
C. concentrate on behavior and not the situation in which the behavior takes place.
D. adopt commonly used nonverbal behaviors.
Difficulty: Medium
33. Allan is the type of manager who is interested in knowing the whole picture. He requires
(p. 254)
in-depth information and does not jump from subject to subject, but instead remains
focused on the topic under consideration until it has been exhaustively reviewed. How
would you describe Allan's communication style?
A. The director
B. The free spirit
C. The humanist
D. The historian
Difficulty: Medium
34. Joe is a manager at multinational company. He is very fast at grasping information but has
(p. 254)
a short attention span and prefers it when people ‘get to the point'. How would you deal
with Joe's communication style?
A. By providing several recommendation

B. By providing in-depth information
C. By providing a bulleted list of conclusions
D. By providing a thorough analysis of the information
Difficulty: Medium
35. _____ makes communication a two-way process.

(p. 254)
A. Feedback
B. Information processing
C. Perception
D. Cognition
Difficulty: Easy
36. Carl told Eva that her work on particular assignment was not up to the standard and that if
(p. 255)
she did not improve he would have to put her on a performance improvement program.
Carl's feedback:
A. is a personal attack on Eva.

B. does not provide any specific information about Eva's performance.
C. is inappropriate.
D. is inaccurate.
Difficulty: Medium
37. Anna asked Andrew to restate the various points they had discussed at the end of their
(p. 255)
feedback session. She did this to ensure:
A. that her feedback was valid.

B. that the feedback was directed toward aspects of Andrew's job.
C. that the feedback was useful.
D. that Andrew had clearly understood the feedback he had received.
Difficulty: Medium
38. When Fred was told by his boss that the presentation he had prepared did not meet the
(p. 255)
client's expectations as it lacked an in-depth analysis, he became defensive. This is
probably because:
A. the feedback was not presented in a timely fashion.

B. the feedback was directed at Fred and not his work.
C. the feedback was not specific.
D. Fred was not ready to receive the feedback.
Difficulty: Medium
39. 360° feedback:

(p. 255-
256)
A. provides managers with an external source of information designed to increase their

self-awareness.
B. is inconsistent with the social cognitive theory.
C. includes feedback from peer, coworkers, direct reports, and suppliers.
D. is less effective compared to a traditional performance review.
Difficulty: Medium
40. In dealing with Generation X, a manager must:

(p. 256)
A. push them to participate.

B. offer them the flexibility to telecommute.
C. encourage face-to-face meetings.
D. encourage them to learn from Generation Y.
Difficulty: Medium
41. Which among the following is a disadvantage of interactive communication among peers?
(p. 257)
A. It leads to ineffective feedback.

B. It leads to an unhealthy dependence on peers.
C. It may limit vertical communication.
D. It reduces task coordination.
Difficulty: Medium
42. The market research team will be meeting with members of the production department to
(p. 258)
discuss their findings from a survey on customer product design preferences for
household appliances. This form of interactive communication serves the purpose of:
A. task coordination.
B. problem solving.
Difficulty: Medium
43. Representatives of various departments will be attending a meeting to discuss the

(p. 258)
different ways they can help the organization reduce costs. This form of interactive
communication serves the purpose of:
A. task coordination
B. problem solving.
Difficulty: Medium
44. Which of the following statements is true regarding the informal system of
(p. 258)
communication?
A. It is impersonal in nature.
B. It is generally relied on for vertical coordination.
C. It tends to be much faster than the formal downward system of information flow.
D. It tends to be less effective than the formal system when information requires quick
responsive action by lower-level personnel.
Difficulty: Medium
45. According to Herbert A. Simon, inventing, developing, and analyzing possible courses of
(p. 259)
action takes place in the _____ phase of decision-making.
A. intelligence activity
B. design activity
C. choice activity
D. identification activity
Difficulty: Medium
46. According to Herbert A. Simon, the intelligence activity phase of decision-making:

(p. 259)
A. consists of trial-and-error processes.

B. consists of searching for existing standard procedures or solutions already in place.
C. consists of selecting a particular course of action from among those available.
D. consists of searching the environment for conditions calling for decision making.
Difficulty: Medium
47. According to Mintzberg, the recognition of a problem and its diagnosis is made during
(p. 259)
_____ phase of decision-making.
A. identification
B. development
C. design
D. intelligence
Difficulty: Easy
48. According to Mintzberg, the _____ was found to be a groping, trial-and-error process in
(p. 259)
which the decision makers had only a vague idea of the ideal solution.
A. intelligence activity phase

B. selection phase
C. design process
D. identification phase
Difficulty: Medium
49. According to Mintzberg, a solution is chosen by _____ when the selection involves a group
(p. 259)
of decision makers and all the political maneuvering that this entails.
A. bargaining
B. analysis
C. judgment
D. examination
Difficulty: Easy
50. _____ rationality can be applied to decisions that maximize attainment relative to
(p. 261)
knowledge of a given subject.
A. Objective
B. Conscious
C. Subjective
D. Personal
Difficulty: Medium
51. Which among the following is a psychological determinant of the escalation of

(p. 262)
commitment?
A. Information-processing errors
B. Peer pressure
C. A breakdown in communication
D. Delayed return on investment
Difficulty: Easy
52. Dysfunctional politics can be classified as a(n) _____ that can lead to the escalation of
(p. 262)
commitment.
A. project characteristic
B. organizational determinant
C. psychological determinant
D. defensive force
Difficulty: Easy
53. Scott is a manager at an accounting firm. Whenever faced with a problem, Scott likes to
(p. 263)
gather as much information as possible. However, he tends to over think situations
causing him to take a long time to make decisions. Based on this information, Scott's
decision-making style can be classified as:
A. conceptual.
B. behavioral.
C. analytical.
D. directive.
Difficulty: Medium
54. Which among the following is a disadvantage of conceptual style decision-makers?

(p. 263)
A. They can foster an idealistic and indecisive approach to decision making.

B. They have a very short-run focus.
C. They tend to have an autocratic leadership style.
D. They have difficulties making tough decisions.
Difficulty: Medium
55. George likes to keep his colleagues happy and is often described as warm, supportive, and
(p. 263)
open to others ideas. However, on account of his strong concern for people, George
cannot make hard decisions. Based on this information, George's decision-making style
can be classified as:
A. conceptual.
B. behavioral.
C. analytical.
D. directive.
Difficulty: Medium
56. Which of the following statements is true regarding participative decision-making?

(p. 264)
A. It is informal in nature.
B. It primarily entails physical involvement.
C. It can range from no participation to full participation.
D. It is lesser when tasks are unstructured.
Difficulty: Easy
57. Which among the following fosters the use of participative decision-making?
(p. 264)
A. Hierarchical superior-subordinate relationships

B. Teams with limited experience
C. Boundary-spanning information technologies
D. Vertical structures
Difficulty: Easy
58. In the ____ form of participative decision-making, there is total participation, and the group
(p. 264)
makes the final decision by consensus or majority vote.
A. shared
B. complementary
C. consultative
D. democratic
Difficulty: Easy
59. Margaret heads the accounting department at a small firm and has been trying to involve
(p. 265)
her subordinates in the decision-making process. However, whenever they try to make a
suggestion, she criticizes their ideas. This is an example of:
A. empathic design.
C. pseudoparticipation.
D. autocratic leadership.
Difficulty: Medium
60. Researcher Teresa Amabile proposes that creativity is a function of three major
(p. 265)
components: expertise, creative-thinking skills, and motivation. According to her:
A. expertise consists of knowledge: technical, procedural, and intellectual.

B. motivation determines how flexibly and imaginatively people can deal with problems.
C. creative-thinking skills refer to the inner passion for solving a problem at hand.
D. the creative process is generally better off when given a short span of time.
Difficulty: Medium
61. Divergent thinking:
(p. 268)
A. is based on rational logic.

B. relies heavily on knowledge.
C. is the ability to develop novel but appropriate responses.
D. involves reasoning and judgment.
Difficulty: Easy
62. _____ refers to a person's use of and preference for elaborate, intricate, and complex
(p. 268)
stimuli and thinking patterns.
A. Detailed complexity
B. Creative complexity
C. Cognitive complexity
D. Personal complexity
Difficulty: Easy
63. Creative people tend to:

(p. 268)
A. have a narrow range of interests.

B. be independent.
C. focus on concrete problems.
D. rely on explicit knowledge.
Difficulty: Easy
64. _____ focuses on observing how people respond to products and services and drawing
(p. 268)
creative conclusions from the results.
A. Empathic design
B. Cognitive complexity
C. Traditional inquiry
D. Conceptualization
Difficulty: Easy
65. In innovative observation:

(p. 269
(Table
8.2))
A. the questions that are asked can bias the responses.
B. people's routines are often interrupted.
C. people make unsolicited comments.
D. people are unable to recall how they feel about a particular product or service.
Difficulty: Medium
66. The _____ appears to guide decision making most often when there is no objectively
(p. 270)
correct decision.
A. truth-wins scheme
B. two-thirds majority scheme
C. majority-wins scheme
D. first-shift rule
Difficulty: Easy
67. A disciplinary committee is equally divided on whether or not to enforce disciplinary action
(p. 270)
against an employee facing allegations of improper conduct in the workplace. However,
after a member changed his stance on the issue, the committee decided to suspend the
employee for a week. This situation is an example of the:
A. truth-wins scheme.
B. two-thirds majority scheme.
C. opposition scheme.
D. first-shift rule.
Difficulty: Medium
68. In order to overcome the status quo tendency, one should:

(p. 270)
A. judge people based on outcomes.

B. make all groups responsible for monitoring the environment, developing new
technologies, and generating new ideas.
C. emphasize the importance of success.
D. build checkpoints and limits into any plan.
Difficulty: Medium
69. Explain the managerial communication model.
(p. 248-
249)
The first dimension of the managerial communication model represents a continuum

ranging from the humanistic interactor (who frequently interacts both up and down the
organization system and exhibits human-oriented activities) to the mechanistic isolate
(who communicates very little, except on a formal basis). The other dimension describes a
continuum from the informal developer (who communicates spontaneously in all directions
and exhibits activities related to developing his or her people) to the formal controller (who
uses formally scheduled communication interaction and exhibits monitoring/controlling
activities).
This empirically derived model describes two major dimensions of managerial
communication. It provides a framework for how managers communicate on a day-to-day
basis and can be used as a point of departure for formally defining communication and the
interpersonal processes of communication in today's organizations.
Difficulty: Medium
70. What are the major categories of communication?
(p. 250)
The major categories of communication are electronic media and information technology,
interpersonal communication, and nonverbal communication.
Difficulty: Easy
71. Define and briefly explain the concept of nonverbal communication.

(p. 250)
Sometimes called the "silent language," nonverbal communication can be defined as

"nonword human responses (such as gestures, facial expressions) and the perceived
characteristics of the environment through which the human verbal and nonverbal
messages are transmitted." Thus, whether a person says something or not,
communication still can take place.
Difficulty: Medium
72. What is paralanguage?

(p. 251-
252)
Paralanguage refers to the ‘way' in which people verbalize and include things such as
voice quality, tone, volume, speech rate, pitch, nonfluencies, laughing, and yawning. Also,
who says a word and in what environmental context it is said make a difference.
Difficulty: Medium
73. Briefly explain the characteristic of effective feedback.
(p. 255)
Effective feedback is directed toward improving job performance and making the
employee a more valuable asset. It is designed to provide recipients with specific
information so that they know what must be done to correct the situation. Effective
feedback tells the employee what he or she has done in objective terms, rather than
presenting a value judgment. It is information that an employee can use to improve
performance. Effective feedback is also timely.
In order for feedback to be effective, employees must be ready to receive it. The feedback
must be clearly understood by the recipient. A good way of checking this is to ask the
recipient to restate the major points of the discussion. Finally, effective feedback is
reliable and valid.
Difficulty: Medium
74. What are the purposes of interactive communication?

(p. 258)
The most important purposes of interactive communication are:

1. Task coordination
2. Problem solving
3. Information sharing
4. Conflict resolution
Difficulty: Medium
75. What role does the informal organization play in interactive communication in
(p. 258)
organizations?
Because of the failure of classical structures to meet the needs of interactive

communication, not only have new organizational forms emerged, but the informal
organization and groups have also been used to fill the void. Informal contacts with others
on the same level are a primary means of interactive communication. The informal system
of communication can be used to spread false rumors and destructive information, or it
can effectively supplement the formal channels of communication. However, whether the
informal system has negative or positive functions for the organization depends largely on
the goals of the person doing the communicating. The entire informal system has a highly
personal orientation and personal goals may or may not be compatible with organizational
goals. The degree of compatibility that exists will have a major impact on the effect that
the grapevine or rumor mill has on organizational goal attainment.
Difficulty: Hard
76. Briefly explain the three major phases in the decision-making process as conceptualized
(p. 259)
by Herbert A. Simon.
1. Intelligence activity. - This phase consists of searching the environment for conditions
calling for decision making.
2. Design activity - This phase focuses on inventing, developing, and analyzing possible
courses of action.
3. Choice activity - The final phase is the actual choice—selecting a particular course of
action from among those available.
Difficulty: Medium
77. According to Mintzberg's phases of decision-making, the choice of a solution is made in
(p. 259)
the selection phase. How is this done?
There are three ways of choosing a solution: by the judgment of the decision maker, on
the basis of experience or intuition rather than logical analysis; by analysis of the
alternatives on a logical, systematic basis; and by bargaining when the selection involves a
group of decision makers and all the political maneuvering that this entails. Once the
decision is formally accepted, an authorization is made.
Difficulty: Medium
78. What is meant by the term escalation of commitment? What causes this phenomenon to
(p. 261)
take place?
Escalation of commitment refers to the tendency on the part of many decision makers to
stick with a bad decision alternative, even when it is unlikely that things can be turned
around. Escalation of commitment can be a due to factors such as the characteristics of
the project (delayed return on investment, temporary problems), psychological
determinants (information-processing errors, ego), social forces (peer pressure), and
organizational determinants (communication breakdown, dysfunctional politics, resistance
to change).
Difficulty: Medium
79. Briefly explain the conceptual style of decision-making.
(p. 263)
Decision makers with a conceptual style have a high tolerance for ambiguity and strong
people and social concerns. They take a broad perspective in solving problems and like to
consider many options and future possibilities. These decision makers discuss things with
as many people as possible in order to gather a great deal of information and then rely on
intuition in making their decisions. Conceptual decision makers are also willing to take
risks and tend to be good at discovering creative solutions to problems. At the same time,
however, they can foster an idealistic and indecisive approach to decision making.
Difficulty: Medium
80. What is the difference between the consultative and the democratic technique in group
(p. 264)
participation?
In consultative participation, managers ask for and receive involvement from their
employees, but the managers maintain the right to make the decision. In the democratic
form, there is total participation, and the group, not the individual head, makes the final
decision by consensus or majority vote.
Difficulty: Easy
81. What is meant by divergent thinking?
(p. 268)
Divergent thinking refers to a person's ability to generate novel, but still appropriate,
responses to questions and problems. This is in contrast to convergent thinking, which
leads to responses that are based mainly on knowledge and rational logic. Divergent
thinking is considered more creative.
Difficulty: Easy
82. What is empathic design?

(p. 268)
Empathic design is a technique used to help managers make more creative decisions.
It focuses on observing how people respond to products and services and drawing creative
conclusions from the results. This technique relies heavily on visual information and is
particularly useful when creating new products because it sidesteps the built-in problem
associated with customer feedback.
Difficulty: Medium
83. What are some of the schemes or rules that can be used to predict the final outcome of
(p. 270)
group decision making?
1. The majority-wins scheme - In this scheme, the group arrives at the decision that was
initially supported by the majority. This scheme appears to guide decision making most
often when there is no objectively correct decision.
2. The truth-wins scheme. In this scheme, as more information is provided and opinions
are discussed, the group comes to recognize that one approach is objectively correct.
3. The two-thirds majority scheme. This scheme is frequently adopted by juries, who tend
to convict defendants when two-thirds of the jury initially favors conviction.
4. The first-shift rule. In this scheme, the group tends to adopt the decision that reflects
the first shift in opinion expressed by any group member.
Difficulty: Medium
Chapter 08 Communication and Decision Making
Summary
Category # of Questions
Difficulty: Easy 29
Difficulty: Hard 2
Difficulty: Medium 52
Luthans - Chapter 08 83

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Organizational Behavior An Evidence

Based Approach 12th Edition Luthans

1. As per the managerial communication model, the informal developer exhibits

2. Communication is a personal process that involves the exchange of behaviors and

4. Time is a silent dimension of nonverbal communication.

5. Paralanguage includes yawning and laughing.

9. Vertical communication is required to make a coordinated, cross functional effort in achieving

10. The informal system of communication has a highly impersonal orientation.

22. Empathic design relies heavily on textual information.

24. Juries often adopt the truth-wins decision scheme.

32. Mark wants to improve his nonverbal communication. Mark should:

A. focus on obvious nonverbal signs.

A. By providing several recommendation

35. _____ makes communication a two-way process.

A. is a personal attack on Eva.

A. that her feedback was valid.

A. the feedback was not presented in a timely fashion.

40. In dealing with Generation X, a manager must:

A. push them to participate.

A. It leads to ineffective feedback.

46. According to Herbert A. Simon, the intelligence activity phase of decision-making:

A. consists of trial-and-error processes.

A. intelligence activity phase

A. They can foster an idealistic and indecisive approach to decision making.

56. Which of the following statements is true regarding participative decision-making?

A. Hierarchical superior-subordinate relationships

A. expertise consists of knowledge: technical, procedural, and intellectual.

61. Divergent thinking:

A. is based on rational logic.

63. Creative people tend to:

A. have a narrow range of interests.

65. In innovative observation:

A. the questions that are asked can bias the responses.

68. In order to overcome the status quo tendency, one should:

A. judge people based on outcomes.

69. Explain the managerial communication model.

71. Define and briefly explain the concept of nonverbal communication.

72. What is paralanguage?

74. What are the purposes of interactive communication?

81. What is meant by divergent thinking?

1. As per the managerial communication model, the informal developer exhibits

2. Communication is a personal process that involves the exchange of behaviors and

4. Time is a silent dimension of nonverbal communication.

7. Effective feedback is evaluative rather than descriptive.

9. Vertical communication is required to make a coordinated, cross functional effort in

22. Empathic design relies heavily on textual information.

26. According to the managerial communication model, the _____ communicates

32. Mark wants to improve his nonverbal communication. Mark should:

A. focus on obvious nonverbal signs.

A. By providing several recommendation

35. _____ makes communication a two-way process.

A. is a personal attack on Eva.

A. that her feedback was valid.

A. the feedback was not presented in a timely fashion.

39. 360° feedback:

A. provides managers with an external source of information designed to increase their

40. In dealing with Generation X, a manager must:

A. push them to participate.

A. It leads to ineffective feedback.

43. Representatives of various departments will be attending a meeting to discuss the

46. According to Herbert A. Simon, the intelligence activity phase of decision-making:

A. consists of trial-and-error processes.