Clinical Imaging With Skeletal Chest

and Abdominal Pattern Differentials 3rd

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Chapter 10: Trauma
Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Choose the fracture that results from rotational stresses and has an oblique fracture plane
encircling the long axis of the bone.
a. Spiral fracture
b. Hangman fracture
c. Teardrop fracture
d. Transverse fracture
ANS: A

2. Which of the following fractures generates more than two fragments?

a. Torus
b. Stress
c. Comminuted
d. Transverse
ANS: C

3. Repetitive applications of compressive, rotational, or tensile forces to normal bone may

lead to which of the following types of fracture?
a. Stress
b. Insufficiency
c. Impacted
d. Unstable
ANS: A

4. The most common site of stress fracture is the __________.

a. pars interarticularis of L5
b. anterior margins of the middle thoracic vertebrae
c. body of the calcaneus
d. second metatarsal shaft
ANS: A

5. Complete loss of articulation between the opposing bone ends following trauma defines a
__________.
a. subluxation
b. fracture
c. dislocation
d. distraction
ANS: C

6. Which of the following lists the five stages of bone healing, in chronological order of
development?
a. Hematoma, inflammation, callus, consolidation, remodeling
 b. Inflammation, hematoma, consolidation, remodeling, callus
c. Consolidation, inflammation, callus, hematoma, remodeling
d. Consolidation, inflammation, remodeling, hematoma, callus
ANS: A

7. At which time has a bone healing from fracture regained much of its initial strength?
a. 3 to 6 weeks
b. 1 to 3 months
c. 3 to 6 months
d. 1 to 3 weeks
ANS: C

8. Which demographic factor negatively impacts the rate of fracture healing?

a. Asian race
b. Male gender
c. Female gender
d. Increasing age
ANS: D

9. Which imaging modality most reliably demonstrates the presence of fracture during the 2-
to 6-week interval post injury?
a. Radionuclide bone scintigraphy
b. Computed tomography
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Plain film radiography
ANS: A

10. The presence of multiple fractures in various stages of healing is a classic radiographic
presentation of __________.
a. myositis ossificans
b. battered child syndrome
c. osteochondritis dissecans
d. spondylolisthesis
ANS: B

11. Which of the following is not a common finding of myositis ossificans circumscripta?
a. Detritus within the zone of provisional calcification
b. Faint tissue calcifications within 2 to 6 weeks after onset of symptoms
c. Zonal phenomenon of a radiodense ring surrounding a radiolucent center
d. Common location in the brachialis, adductor longus, and soleus
ANS: A

12. The most accurate imaging method for staging osteochondritis dissecans is __________.
a. magnetic resonance imaging
b. computed tomography
c. linear tomography
d. plain film radiography
 ANS: A

13. What is the most common site for osteochondritis dissecans?

a. The medial condyle of the distal femur
b. The medial epicondyle of the distal humerus
c. The medial malleolus of the distal tibia
d. The lateral malleolus of the fibula
ANS: A

14. Which of the following best characterizes osteochondritis dissecans?

a. Infectious etiology
b. Most commonly found at the femoral head
c. Occurs before 50 years with peak incidence during adolescence
d. Displays zonal phenomena on radiographs
ANS: C

15. Which of the following radiographic findings is not associated with slipped capital femoral
epiphysis?
a. Thickening of the lateral femoral neck (Herndon hump)
b. A small saucer defect of the articular cortex
c. Rounded deformity of the proximal femur (pistol-grip femur)
d. Breaking of the medial aspect of the involved epiphysis
ANS: B

16. Which of the following best defines spondylolisthesis?

a. An anterior displacement of a vertebra in relation to the segment immediately
below
b. A posterior displacement of a vertebra in relation to the segment immediately
below
c. An anterior displacement of a vertebra in relation to the segment immediately
above
d. A posterior displacement of a vertebra in relation to the segment immediately
above
ANS: A

17. The most common type of spondylolisthesis occurring before the age of 30 is _____, and
is most commonly found at _____.
a. type II, L5
b. type II, L4
c. type III, L5
d. type III, L4
ANS: A

18. Which of the following radiographic findings on lateral lumbar radiographs indicates
spondylolisthesis?
a. Inverted Napoleon hat sign
b. Bowline of Brailsford
 c. Collared “Scottie dog”
d. Disruption of the posterior body (George’s) line
ANS: D

19. Which of the following roentgenometric evaluations is most often used to assess the extent
of anterior displacement with spondylolisthesis?
a. Posterior body (George’s) line
b. Meyerding system
c. Cobb method
d. Lumbar spine lordosis angle
ANS: B

20. On which of the following radiographic projections would the neural arch resemble a
“Scottie dog”?
a. Oblique cervical
b. Lateral lumbar
c. Oblique lumbar
d. Lateral cervical
ANS: C

21. Which statement best describes the relationship between spondylolisthesis and low back
pain?
a. There is a direct relationship between the two.
b. There is an indirect relationship between the two.
c. There does not appear to be a correlation between the two.
d. Spondylolisthesis is always symptomatic.
ANS: C

22. Which fracture is associated with an axial compression force applied to the cervical spine?
a. Teardrop
b. Hangman
c. Jefferson
d. Transverse process
ANS: C

23. What causes a Hangman fracture?

a. Hyperextension mechanism
b. Rotational hyperflexion mechanism
c. Lateral flexion mechanism
d. Axial compression mechanism
ANS: A

24. Which of the following lists of cervical spine injuries is ordered from least stable to most
stable?
a. Flexion teardrop, Jefferson fracture, Clay shoveler fracture, Transverse atlantal
ligament rupture
b. Pillar fracture, Transverse atlantal ligament rupture, Flexion teardrop, Clay
 shoveler fracture
c. Clay shoveler fracture, Transverse atlantal ligament rupture, Jefferson fracture,
Flexion teardrop
d. Transverse atlantal ligament rupture, Flexion teardrop, Jefferson fracture, Clay
shoveler fracture
ANS: D

25. What is the term for a stress fracture of diseased bone?

a. Insufficiency fracture
b. Occult fracture
c. Torus fracture
d. Stellate fracture
ANS: A

26. Which of the following fractures is an incomplete fracture of long bones seen in children
that presents as a cortical bulge on the concave side of a bending long bone?
a. Torus
b. Greenstick
c. Pathological
d. Oblique
ANS: A

27. The most common type of Salter-Harris fracture is type ___________.

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS: B

28. A transverse fracture through a portion of the physis that extends obliquely through a
portion of the epiphysis is the following Salter-Harris type __________.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS: C

29. Which of the following is not a fracture of the skull and face?
a. Chance fracture
b. Diastatic fracture
c. LeFort fracture
d. Tripod fracture
ANS: A

30. The most mechanically stable odontoid fracture is ______ and is described as a(n) ______.
a. type II, avulsion of the tip of the odontoid process
b. type I, avulsion of the tip of the odontoid process
 c. type I, transverse fracture at the base of the odontoid process
d. type II, transverse fracture at the base of the odontoid process
ANS: B

31. Unilateral facet dislocation is usually a(n) _______ lesion that occurs most often at C4-C7
level and is usually due to a(n) _______ injury.
a. unstable, hyperflexion
b. stable, hyperextension
c. stable, flexion-rotation
d. unstable, axial compression
ANS: C

32. Which of the following fractures is an avulsion of the spinous process occurring at C6, C7,
or T1 levels?
a. Burst
b. Clay shoveler
c. Hangman
d. Jefferson
ANS: B

33. What is another name for traumatic spondylolisthesis?

a. Teardrop fracture
b. Type II
c. Hangman fracture
d. Clay shoveler fracture
ANS: C

34. Atlantodental dislocation is indicated radiographically by an atlantodental interval larger

than ______ mm in the adult or ______ mm in children.
a. 5, 3
b. 5, 7
c. 3, 5
d. 7, 5
ANS: C

35. Which of the following is a transverse fracture through the spinous process and neural arch
that extends into and possibly through the vertebral body?
a. Chance
b. Pars interarticularis
c. Golfer
d. Clay shoveler
ANS: A

36. What is the most common bone fractured during birth and childhood?
a. Radius
b. Ulna
c. Clavicle
 d. Humerus
ANS: C

37. Avulsion of the greater tuberosity of the humerus is known as __________.

a. hatchet defect
b. Bankart fracture
c. flap fracture
d. Essex-Lopresti injury
ANS: C

38. Which of the following best characterizes scapular fracture?

a. Most commonly involves the body and neck
b. Commonly fractured bone
c. Usually the result of a fall on the outstretched hand
d. Usually are isolated injuries
ANS: A

39. In 95% of glenohumeral dislocations, the humerus is displaced __________ in relation to

the glenoid.
a. anterior and inferior
b. anterior and superior
c. posterior and inferior
d. posterior and superior
ANS: A

40. Where is the humeral head most commonly positioned when dislocated?
a. Intrathoracic
b. Subcoracoid
c. Subclavicular
d. Subglenoid
ANS: B

41. Fraying of the superior margin of the glenoid labrum describes which of the following
SLAP lesion expressions?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
ANS: A

42. Which of the following muscles is a component of the rotator cuff?

a. Teres major
b. Serratus anterior
c. Teres minor
d. Levator scapulae
ANS: C
43. What is the most common childhood elbow fracture?
a. Comminuted intracondylar
b. Supracondylar
c. Olecranon
d. Coronoid process
ANS: B

44. What is the most common adult elbow fracture?

a. Olecranon process
b. Radial head
c. Coronoid process
d. Supracondylar
ANS: B

45. What is the most common joint dislocation in children?

a. Elbow
b. Shoulder
c. Interphalangeal
d. Clavicle
ANS: A

46. Which of the following is not a type of forearm fracture?

a. Essex-Lopresti
b. Nightstick
c. Monteggia
d. Malgaigne
ANS: D

47. A fracture of the distal radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint describes the
__________ fracture.
a. Monteggia
b. Galeazzi
c. Nightstick
d. Essex-Lopresti
ANS: B

48. Which of the following is an incomplete fracture occurring on the convex side of a bowing
long bone of a child?
a. Greenstick fracture
b. Torus fracture
c. Barton fracture
d. Chauffeur fracture
ANS: A

49. Which carpal bone is most often fractured?

a. Lunate
 b. Hamate
c. Scaphoid
d. Triquetrum
ANS: C

50. In which of the following fractures is there palmar (anterior) angulation of the distal
fragment?
a. Colles
b. Torus
c. Smith
d. Greenstick
ANS: C

51. Which carpal bone most often dislocates?

a. Scaphoid
b. Capitate
c. Lunate
d. Hamate
ANS: C

52. A dorsal chip fracture at the site of the extensor tendon insertion on the distal phalanx
results in a flexion deformity of the finger known as __________.
a. swan neck deformity
b. mallet finger
c. boutonniere deformity
d. buttonhole deformity
ANS: B

53. Which of the following fracture patterns involves unilateral fracture of the superior and
inferior pubic ramus and a third fracture near, or separation of, the contralateral sacroiliac
joint?
a. Malgaigne fracture
b. Bucket handle fracture
c. Duverney fracture
d. Straddle fracture
ANS: B

54. Which of the following fractures involves all four pubic rami?
a. Bucket handle
b. Malgaigne
c. Duverney
d. Straddle
ANS: D

55. Which of the following is the least likely location of a pelvic avulsion fracture?
a. ASIS
b. AIIS
 c. Ischial tuberosity
d. PSIS
ANS: D

56. What is the most common location for an intracapsular hip fracture?
a. Subcapital
b. Capital
c. Midcervical
d. Basicervical
ANS: A

57. Complete fracture of the femur without displacement of the fracture fragments describes a
Garden type __________ fracture.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS: B

58. Most hip dislocations are __________.

a. posterior
b. anterior
c. internal
d. external
ANS: A

59. Which of the following is a small fracture, typically of the posterior surface of the patella
and associated with patellar dislocation?
a. Chisel
b. Duverney
c. Flake
d. Rolando
ANS: C

60. What is the most common orientation of a patellar fracture?

a. Vertical
b. Transverse
c. Oblique
d. Stellate
ANS: B

61. Avulsion of the lateral capsular ligament secondary to internal tibial rotation while the
knee is flexed describes a __________ fracture.
a. Segond
b. trampoline
c. Dupuytren
d. Maisonneuve
 ANS: A

62. Segond fractures are found with concurrent tears of the _____ more than 90% of the time
and _____ tears more than 75% of the time.
a. posterior cruciate ligament, meniscal
b. anterior cruciate ligament, collateral ligament
c. posterior cruciate ligament, collateral ligament
d. anterior cruciate ligament, meniscal
ANS: D

63. If a patient presented with patellofemoral joint pain accentuated on flexion of the knee, a
clinician would first suspect __________.
a. chondromalacia patella
b. anterior cruciate ligament rupture
c. patellar dislocation
d. knee dislocation
ANS: A

64. A trimalleolar fracture involving the medial and lateral malleolus and posterior lip of the
distal tibia is known as a __________ fracture.
a. Dupuytren
b. Cotton
c. Maisonneuve
d. pilon
ANS: B

65. A fracture of the fibula occurring approximately 2 to 3 inches proximal to the distal tip of
the fibula with associated tear of the deltoid ligament and lateral displacement of the talus
is a __________ fracture.
a. Tillaux
b. pilon
c. Pott
d. triplane
ANS: C

66. Which tarsal bone is most commonly fractured?

a. Talus
b. Navicular
c. Calcaneus
d. Cuboid
ANS: C

67. What kind of fracture is at the base of the fifth metatarsal and appears transverse in
orientation to the long axis of the metatarsals?
a. March
b. Bedroom
c. Jones
 d. Pott
ANS: C

68. Which of the following is not a fracture located within the foot?
a. Jones
b. Bedroom
c. March
d. Cotton
ANS: D

69. A 43-year-old male pedestrian is struck in the side of the knee by the bumper of a motor
vehicle. Which type of fracture is most likely to be present in the lateral tibial plateau?
a. Insufficiency
b. Stellate
c. Torus
d. Impaction
ANS: D

70. Traumatic spondylolisthesis is most commonly observed at which of the following spinal
levels?
a. C1
b. C2
c. L1
d. L5
ANS: B

71. Which of the following cervical spine fractures is most commonly associated with
posttraumatic neurologic deficit?
a. Jefferson
b. Atlas posterior arch
c. Flexion teardrop
d. Extension teardrop
ANS: C

72. Which of the following fractures is most commonly associated with a lateral flexion
mechanism of injury?
a. Transverse process
b. Clay shoveler
c. C1 burst
d. Unilateral facet dislocation
ANS: A