Clinical Procedures For Medical Assistants 9th Edition Bonewit Test Bank

Clinical Procedures for Medical
Assistants 9th Edition Bonewit Test

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Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. All of the following are characteristics of a minor office surgery except

a. performed in an ambulatory care facility.
b. performed in a short period of time.
c. requires a general anesthetic.
d. does not pose a major risk to life.
ANS: C TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: I. 9
2. Which of the following requires the use of surgical asepsis?

a. Application of a bandage
b. Measurement of blood pressure
c. Insertion of sutures
d. Collection of a Pap specimen
e. All of the above
ANS: C TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: III. 8
3. The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to

a. protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms.
b. prevent the formation of a purulent discharge.
c. prevent damage to surgical instruments.
d. reduce patient discomfort.
ANS: A TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: III. 3
4. Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it

a. comes in contact with a pathogen.
b. comes in contact with a nonpathogen.
c. becomes wet.
d. touches something clean.
e. does all of the above.
ANS: E TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: III. 8
5. What should the medical assistant do if in doubt about the sterility of an article?
a. Use the article, making sure to use sterile technique.
b. Do not use the article; obtain another one.
c. Ask the physician if the article should be used.
d. Cleanse the article with a disinfectant before using.
ANS: B TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: III. 8
6. Which of the following is a violation of sterile technique?

a. Holding a sterile article above waist level
b. Facing a sterile field
c. Reaching over a sterile field
d. Placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field
ANS: C TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: III. 8
7. Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used to make
surgical incisions and divide tissue?
a. Operating scissors
b. Scalpel
c. Bandage scissors
d. Dissecting scissors
ANS: B TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11
8. Which of the following instruments has teeth that are used to grasp tissue?
a. Hemostatic forceps
b. Splinter forceps
c. Tissue forceps
d. Thumb forceps
ANS: C TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11
9. Which of the following instruments has serrated blades, ring handles, and ratchets and is used
to clamp off blood vessels?
a. Allis tissue forceps
b. Hemostatic forceps
c. Sponge forceps
d. Curette
10. Which of the following instruments is used to hold tissue aside to improve exposure of the
operative area?
a. Retractors
b. Biopsy forceps
c. Probe
d. Tenaculum
ANS: A TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11
11. When not in use, an instrument with a ratchet should be stored

a. in an open position.
b. with the tips tightly approximated.
c. in a closed position.
d. with a protective cover over the ratchet.
ANS: A
12. Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution?
a. Ensuring the solution is within its expiration date
b. Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down
c. Palming the label of the solution bottle
d. Rinsing the lip of the bottle
13. What is the term for a break in the skin surface or mucous membrane that exposes underlying
tissues?
a. Open wound
b. Contusion
c. Infection
d. Closed wound
14. What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged
and irregular edges?
a. Cut
b. Puncture
c. Laceration
d. Abrasion
15. For which of the following wounds would the physician be most likely to order a tetanus
booster?
a. Cut
b. Puncture
c. Laceration
d. Abrasion
ANS: B TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: I. 12
16. What is the first line of defense of the body?

a. Mucous membranes
b. Skin
c. Acidic secretions of the stomach
d. White blood cells
17. The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called
a. infection.
b. inflammation.
c. healing.
d. immunity.
18. The function of the healing process of a wound is to

a. restore the structure and function of damaged tissue.
b. prevent infection of the wound.
c. prevent inflammation of the wound.
d. control bleeding.
ANS: A TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: I. 5
19. Which of the following is not a local sign of inflammation?
a. Redness
b. Fever
c. Swelling
d. Pain
20. What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process?
a. New capillaries grow.
b. The tissue becomes a translucent red color.
c. Fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
d. A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound.
ANS: D TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: I. 5
21. What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process?
a. A scab forms.
b. Scar tissue forms.
c. New skin is generated.
d. Bleeding is controlled.
22. Which of the following types of exudates contains pus?

a. Serous
b. Sanguineous
c. Serosanguineous
d. Purulent
ANS: D TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11
23. Which of the following types of exudates contains both serum and blood?
a. Serous
b. Sanguineous
c. Serosanguineous
d. Purulent
24. After a sterile dressing change, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to
a. keep the dressing dry.
b. keep the dressing clean.
c. contact the office if signs of inflammation occur.
d. return for further care as directed by the physician.
e. do all of the above.
ANS: E TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: III. 3
25. The function of sutures is to

a. prevent inflammation.
b. approximate a wound.
c. prevent infection of a wound.
d. promote the formation of scar tissue.
26. What is the name given to the type of sutures that are digested gradually by the body?
a. Absorbable sutures
b. Silk sutures
c. Nonabsorbable sutures
d. Swaged sutures
27. All of the following are examples of materials used for nonabsorbable sutures except
a. silk.
b. surgical gut.
c. nylon.
d. polypropylene.
28. Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter?

a. Surgical silk, 2-0
b. Surgical silk, 4-0
c. Surgical silk, 1
d. Surgical silk, 4
29. What type of suture needle has a sharp point?

a. Noncutting
b. Curved
c. Cutting
d. Straight
30. Which of the following types of suture needles requires the use of a needle holder?
a. Straight
b. Noncutting
c. Curved
d. Swaged
ANS: C
31. What information is found on the label of a swaged suture packet?

a. Type of suture material
b. Length and gauge of the suture material
c. Type of needle point
d. Shape of suture needle
e. All of the above
ANS: E
32. Sutures inserted into the arms or legs are usually removed after
a. 24 hours.
b. 3 to 5 days.
c. 7 to 14 days.
d. 2 weeks.
33. Which of the following is an advantage of using surgical skin staples?

a. Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions
b. A local anesthetic is not required for their application
c. Better approximation of the edges of a wound
d. Faster healing of the wound
34. All of the following are characteristics of adhesive skin closures except
a. they are easy to apply.
b. a local anesthetic is not required for their application.
c. they result in less scarring than sutures.
d. they are stronger than skin sutures.
35. The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is to

a. provide comfort and warmth.
b. provide a sterile area around the operative site.
c. prevent the patient from observing the operative site.
d. protect the patient’s clothing from blood and other secretions.
36. Which of the following is a characteristic of a local anesthetic, such as Xylocaine?

a. Causes a brief stinging sensation
b. Begins working in 5 to 15 minutes
c. Has a duration of action of 1 to 3 hours
d. Produces a loss of sensation in a localized area
e. All of the above
ANS: E TOP: CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: I. 12
37. The purpose of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic is to

a. prevent an allergic reaction.
b. prolong the effect of the anesthetic.
c. increase the rate of systemic absorption of the anesthetic.
d. reduce patient discomfort during the minor surgery.
e. achieve all of the above.
38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sebaceous cyst?

a. It forms when the outlet of the sebaceous gland becomes obstructed.
b. It consists of a thin closed sac or capsule located just under the skin surface.
c. It usually occurs on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
d. It is usually painless and nontender.
39. What would a physician do if a sebaceous cyst is infected?

a. Remove the cyst.
b. Incise and drain the cyst.
c. Cauterize the cyst.
d. Perform a needle biopsy on the cyst.
40. What is an abscess?

a. A localized staphylococcal infection that originates within a hair follicle
b. Inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue
c. A collection of pus in a cavity surrounded by inflamed tissue
d. Inflammation of a sweat gland
41. What is another name for a furuncle?

a. Wart
b. Stye
c. Boil
d. Blister
42. The purpose of inserting gauze packing after incising a localized infection is to
a. facilitate drainage of the exudate.
b. prevent scar formation.
c. absorb drainage.
d. reduce pain.
43. What is the term for a mole that is present at birth?

a. Congenital nevi
b. Acquired nevi
c. Raised mole
d. Flat mole
44. The dark color of a mole is caused by

a. precancerous cells.
b. melanin.
c. dysplasia.
d. melanoma.
45. All of the following are characteristics of benign moles except
a. round or oval shape.
b. size is smaller than a pencil eraser.
c. painful and tender.
d. raised or flat.
46. Which of the following is a small, painless, benign growth that projects from the skin from a
small narrow stalk?
a. Dysplastic nevi
b. Raised mole
c. Flat mole
d. Skin tag
47. All of the following are characteristics of dysplastic nevi except

a. larger than normal moles.
b. always develop into malignant melanoma.
c. have irregular coloration.
d. have an irregular shape.
48. Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma?

a. Asymmetric
b. Irregular border
c. Color varies from one area to another
d. Diameter larger than a pencil eraser
e. All of the above
49. Shave excision is often used to remove

a. skin tags.
b. melanoma.
c. flat moles.
d. dysplastic nevi.
50. Laser mole surgery is used to remove

a. raised moles.
b. small or flat moles.
c. dysplastic nevi.
d. melanoma.
51. A biopsy is usually performed to

a. determine if an infection is present.
b. cauterize tissue.
c. determine whether a tumor is benign or malignant.
d. remove a benign tumor.
52. All of the following may cause an ingrown toenail except

a. tight shoes.
b. trauma.
c. improper nail trimming.
d. long periods of standing.
53. Which of the following is a postoperative instruction for toenail removal?

a. Elevate the foot for 24 hours.
b. Keep the area clean and dry.
c. Apply an antibiotic ointment daily.
d. Wear loose-fitting shoes.
e. All of the above are correct postoperative instructions.
54. Colposcopy is performed frequently

a. after abnormal Pap test results.
b. to evaluate vaginal lesions.
c. to evaluate cervical lesions.
d. in all of the above situations.
55. What patient position is used to perform a colposcopy?

a. Lithotomy
b. Supine
c. Sims
d. Knee-chest
56. The purpose of swabbing the cervix with acetic acid during colposcopy is to
a. allow visualization of abnormal areas.
b. kill microorganisms present on the cervix.
c. numb the cervix to reduce pain.
d. control bleeding.
57. The purpose of performing a cervical punch biopsy is to

a. detect the presence of cervical cancer or dysplasia.
b. destroy inflamed tissue.
c. treat cervical cancer.
d. prevent cervical erosion.
58. Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient after a cervical punch
biopsy?
a. Rest in bed for 24 hours.
b. Do not have intercourse for 1 week.
c. Bleeding will occur for 3 weeks after the procedure.
d. Change tampons every 4 hours.
e. All of the above are correct answers.
59. Cryosurgery operates on the basis of

a. freezing temperatures.
b. sound waves.
c. X-rays.
d. chemicals.
60. Cryosurgery is used most often for the treatment of

a. polyps.
b. vaginitis.
c. chronic cervicitis.
d. cervical dysplasia.
61. Which of the following is not a postoperative instruction for cryosurgery?

a. Normal activity can be resumed the day after surgery.
b. Abstain from intercourse for 2 to 3 weeks after the procedure.
c. A clear, watery vaginal discharge may occur for 2 to 4 weeks.
d. Use tampons to absorb drainage.
62. Cryosurgery can be used to

a. remove freckles.
b. remove warts and skin tags.
c. control bleeding.
d. treat dermatitis.
63. The function of a bandage is to

a. support a body part.
b. control bleeding.
c. immobilize a part of the body.
d. hold a dressing in place.
e. do all of the above.
64. Which of the following represents an error in bandaging technique?

a. Applying a bandage from the distal to the proximal part of the body
b. Checking to ensure the bandage is not applied too tightly
c. Applying the bandage over an open wound
d. Padding joints and prominent parts of bones
65. Which of the following bandage turns is used to anchor a bandage?

a. Recurrent turn
b. Spiral reverse turn
c. Spiral turn
d. Circular turn
66. Which of the following bandage turns is used to bandage a part that varies in width?
a. Spiral turn
b. Figure-eight turn
c. Recurrent turn
d. Spiral reverse turn
67. Which of the following is used to immobilize a sprained ankle?

a. An elastic bandage using a figure-eight turn
b. Roller gauze using a spiral turn
c. A long leg cast
d. A tubular gauze bandage

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Clinical Procedures for Medical

Assistants 9th Edition Bonewit Test

1. All of the following are characteristics of a minor office surgery except

2. Which of the following requires the use of surgical asepsis?

3. The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to

4. Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it

6. Which of the following is a violation of sterile technique?

11. When not in use, an instrument with a ratchet should be stored

16. What is the first line of defense of the body?

18. The function of the healing process of a wound is to

22. Which of the following types of exudates contains pus?

25. The function of sutures is to

28. Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter?

29. What type of suture needle has a sharp point?

31. What information is found on the label of a swaged suture packet?

33. Which of the following is an advantage of using surgical skin staples?

35. The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is to

36. Which of the following is a characteristic of a local anesthetic, such as Xylocaine?

37. The purpose of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic is to

38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sebaceous cyst?

39. What would a physician do if a sebaceous cyst is infected?

40. What is an abscess?

41. What is another name for a furuncle?

43. What is the term for a mole that is present at birth?

44. The dark color of a mole is caused by

47. All of the following are characteristics of dysplastic nevi except

48. Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma?

49. Shave excision is often used to remove

50. Laser mole surgery is used to remove

51. A biopsy is usually performed to

52. All of the following may cause an ingrown toenail except

53. Which of the following is a postoperative instruction for toenail removal?

54. Colposcopy is performed frequently

55. What patient position is used to perform a colposcopy?

57. The purpose of performing a cervical punch biopsy is to

59. Cryosurgery operates on the basis of

60. Cryosurgery is used most often for the treatment of

61. Which of the following is not a postoperative instruction for cryosurgery?

62. Cryosurgery can be used to

63. The function of a bandage is to

64. Which of the following represents an error in bandaging technique?

65. Which of the following bandage turns is used to anchor a bandage?

67. Which of the following is used to immobilize a sprained ankle?

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