Merged

TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Serial Page
No. TOPICS No.
Contents 1. Basic Mathematics used in Physics
& Vectors
01
2. Units, Dimensions & Measurement 21
3. Kinematics 30
4. Laws of motion & Friction 50

PHYSICS
5. Work, Energy & Power 71

CLASS-XI
6. Circular Motion 89
7. Collisions & Centre of Mass 100
8. Rotational Motion 113
9. Gravitation 135
10. Properties of Matter & Fluid Mechanics 147
11. Thermal Physics 170
12. Oscillations 202
13. Wave Motion & Doppler's Effect 220
14. Solution 243

E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Pre-Medical : Physics
ALLEN
BASIC MATHEMATICS USED IN PHYSICS AND VECTORS EXERCISE
1 1 1 dy
1. Find sum of 1 + + + - - - -¥ 9. If y = x sin x then find
2 4 8 dx
1 3 2
(1) x sin x + cos x
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) (2) sin x + x cos x
2 2 3
(3) x cos x
(4) cos x
1
2. Find ò 2x - 3 dx
ò cos
2
10. Find qdq
-2
(2x - 3) log e (2x - 3)
(1) +c (2) +c
2 2 q sin 2q sin 2q
(1) + +c (2) +c
(2x - 3)
2 4 4
(3) log e (2x - 3) + c (4) 2e
q cos 2q q sin 2q
(3) - +c (4) -
-2 4 4 2 4
æ hö
3. Find ç 1 + ÷ if h << R 11. The greatest value of the function –5 sinq + 12 cosq
è Rø
is
h2 2h 2h (1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 7 (4) 17
(1) 1 + - (2) 1 +
R2 R R
dy
2h h 12. Find if y = sin(4x – 3)
(3) 1 - (4) 1 - dx
R R
(1) - cos(4x - 3)
4. Find sum and product of roots of equation
2x2 – 3x + 5 = 0 cos(4x - 3)
(2)
4
3 5 2 5
(1) , (2) ,
2 2 3 2 sin(4x - 3)
(3)
5 2 4
(3) , (4) 3, 5
2 5 (4) 4 cos(4x - 3)
Find the value of ( 0.996 )

1/ 4
5. 13. Graph of equation 3x – 2y + 4 = 0 is–
y y
(1) 0.992 (2) 0.996
(3) 0.249 (4) 0.999
(1) (2)
6. ò sin 4x dx is– x
x
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\01-BASIC MATHS_VECTOR.P65
(1) -4 cos 4x + c (2) -4 sin 4x + c

y y
cos 4x tan 4x
(3) - +c (4) +c
4 4
7. Magnetic flux is given by f = 2t2 – 3t + 4, then find (3) x (4) x

æ df ö
induced emf at t = 2 çèQ e = - ÷ø
dt
(1) –5 unit (2) 5 unit 14. The graph between x and y is given in the figure then,
(3) 6 unit (4) 3 unit x and y are related as–
8. The value of sin 480° is– (1) y 2 µ x y
1 3 (2) y µ x 2
(1) (2)
2 2 (3) y µ x parabola
1 3 1
(3) - (4) - (4) y µ
2 2 x
x
E 15
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
15. In which part slope of graph is continuously increasing– 19. The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1,
2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively then
y
y
3
A E
2
D 1
B x
C x
o
(1) m1 > m2 > m3 (2) m1 < m2 < m3
(1) only in OA (2) only in AB (3) m1 = m2 = m3 (4) m1 = m3 > m2
20. Frequency f of a simple pendulum depends on its
(3) in BCD (4) only at E
length l and acceleration g due to gravity according
16. Velocity of a body is given by v = 4t2 – 2t then the
correct a-t graph is– 1 g
to the following equation f = . Graph
2p l
a a
between which of the following quantities is a straight
line ?
(1) t (2) t (1) f on the ordinate and l on the abscissa
(2) f on the ordinate and Öl on the abscissa
(3) f2 on the ordinate and l on the abscissa
(4) f2 on the ordinate and 1/l on the abscissa
a a 21. In the given figure, each box represents a
function machine. A function machine illustrates
what it does with the input.
(3) t (4) t
Input (x) Double the Square root Output (z)
input and of
add three the input
17. For the given graph the point of local minima is/are–
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) z=2x+3 (2) z=2(x+3)
y
(3) z = 2x + 3 (4) z = 2 ( x + 3)
x2 x3 x5
x 22. If velocity of a particle is given by v = (2t + 3) m/s,
x1 x4
then average velocity in interval 0 £ t £ 1s is : Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\01-BASIC MATHS_VECTOR.P65
7 9
(1) m/s (2) m/s
(1) only at x3 (2) only at x2 2 2
(3) at both x3 and x5 (4) only at x5 (3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s
23. The kinetic energy of a particle of mass m moving
18. The graph of equation y = 2x – 4x2 is–
y y
1
with speed v is given by K = mv 2 . If the kinetic
2
(1) x (2) x
energy of a particle moving along x-axis varies with
x as K(x) = 9 – x2. then the region in which particle
y y lies is :
x
(1) x ³ 9 (2) –3 £ x £ 3
(3) (4)
(3) 0 £ x £ 9 (4) –¥ < x < ¥
x
16 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
24. If 3 cosq + 4 sinq = A sin(q + a), then values of A and 31. A vector of length l is turned through the angle q
a are about its tail. What is the change in the position
vector of its head ?
-1 æ 3 ö -1 æ 3 ö (1) l cos (q/2) (2) 2l sin (q/2)
(1) 5, cos ç ÷ (2) 5, sin ç ÷
è5ø è5ø (3) 2l cos (q/2) (4) l sin(q/2)
32. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a
æ4ö
-1 point is 16N. If the resultant force is 8N and its
(3) 7, sin ç ÷ (4) None of these
è5ø
direction is perpendicular to smaller force, then the
25. What is the maximum number of rectangular forces are :
components into which a vector can be split in (1) 6N & 10N (2) 8N & 8N
space ? (3) 4N & 12N (4) 2N & 14N
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) Infinite r r r
33. Given that P = Q = R. If P + Q = R then the angle
26. Which of the following sets of concurrent forces may
r r r r r r
be in equilibrium ? between P & R is q1. If P+Q+R = 0 then the angle
(1) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 1N r r
between P & R is q2. What is the relation between
(2) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 9N
q1 and q2 ?
(3) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 6N
(4) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 =15N q2
(1) q1 = q2 (2) q1 =
27. How many minimum number of coplanar vectors 2
having different magnitudes can be added to give
(3) q1 = 2q2 (4) None of the above
zero resultant ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 34. Two billiard balls are rolling on a flat table. One has
28. What is the maximum number of components into the velocity components vx = 1 m/s, vy = 3 m/s
which a vector can be split ? and the other has components v'x=2 m/s, v'y=2m/s. If
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) Infinite both the balls start moving from the same point, the
r angle between their paths is
29. In vector diagram shown in figure where ( R ) is the
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 15°
r r
resultant of vectors ( A ) and ( B ). 35. Two vectors, both equal in magnitude, have their
resultant equal in magnitude of the either vector. The
B angle between the vectors is :-
R
(1) 90° (2) 120° (3) 180° (4) zero
q
36. The length of a second's hand in a watch is 1 cm.
A
The change in velocity in 15 sec is :-
B p
If R = , then value of angle q is : (1) zero (2) cm / s
2 30 2
(1) 30o (2) 45o (3) 60o (4) 75o
r r p p
30. Six vectors, a through f have the magnitudes and (3) cm / s (4) 2cm / s
30 30
directions indicated in the figure. Which of the
following statements may be true ? r r
37. The angle between two vectors A and B is q.
b r q
a c Resultant of these vectors R makes an angle with
2
r
d e f A which of the following is true :-
r
r r r r r r r B
(1) b - er = f (2) b + cr = f (1) A = 2B (2) A =
2
r r r r
(3) d - cr = f (4) d - er = f r r
(3) |A||B|
= (4) AB = 1
E 17
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
r r r r r r
38. Two vectors A and B are such that A + B = C 45. The components of a = 2iˆ + 3jˆ along the direction
r r r r r
and |A|+|B||C|. = Then the vectors A and B of vector (iˆ + ˆj) is :-
are :-
(1) parallel (2) perpendicular 1ˆ ˆ
(1) î + ˆj (2) (i + j)
(3) anti-parallel (4) null vectors 2
r r r r
39. Four forces P, 2P, 3P and 4P act along sides of a 5 ˆ ˆ 5 ˆ ˆ
(3) (i + j) (4) (i - j)
square taken in order. Their resultant is :- 2 2
r
(1) 2 2P (2) 2P 46. The angle that the vector A = 2$i + 3$j makes with
(3) P / 2 (4) zero y-axis is :

r r r r r r (1) tan-1 (3/2) (2) tan-1 (2/3)
40. If |v 1 + v 2 | = |v 1 - v 2 | and v 1 and v 2 are finite,
(3) sin-1 (2/3) (4) cos-1 (3/2)
then :-
r r 47. The direction cosines of a vector î + ˆj + 2 kˆ are :-
(1) v 1 is parallel to v 2
r r
(2) v1 = v 2 1 1 1 1 1
r r (1) , ,1 (2) , ,
(3) |v 1 | = |v 2 | 2 2 2 2 2
r r
(4) v 1 and v 2 are mutually perpendicular
41. ˆ and
The vector that is added to (iˆ - 5ˆj + 2k) 1 1 1 1 1 1
(3) , , (4) , ,
2 2 2 2 2 2
ˆ to give a unit vector along the x-axis
(3iˆ + 6ˆj - 7k)
48. The magnitude of resultant of three unit vectors can
is:-
be :-
(1) 3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ (2) î + 3jˆ + 5kˆ (1) zero (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) All of these
(3) -3iˆ - ˆj + 5kˆ (4) 3iˆ + ˆj - 5kˆ
49. The following sets of three vectors act on a body,
r r whose resultance can be zero. These are :-
42. The two vectors A and B that are parallel to each
other are :- (1) 10, 10, 10 (2) 10, 10, 20
r r (3) 10, 20, 20 (4) All of these
(1) A = 3iˆ + 6ˆj + 9kˆ B = î + 2jˆ + 3kˆ
50. Which of the following vectors is/are not perpendicular
r r
(2) A = 3iˆ - 6jˆ + 9kˆ B = î + 2jˆ + 3kˆ to the vector 5kˆ ?
r r
(1) 4iˆ + 3jˆ
(3) A = 2iˆ + 6jˆ - 9kˆ B = î + 2jˆ - 3kˆ (2) 6iˆ
r r (3) 7kˆ (4) 3iˆ + 4jˆ
(4) A = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 3kˆ B = î - 2jˆ - 3kˆ
r r 51. A bird moves with velocity 20 m/s in a direction making
43. If A = 3iˆ + 4ˆj and B = 7iˆ + 24jˆ , the vector having
an angle of 60° with the eastern line and 60° with
r r
the same magnitude as B and parallel to A is :- vertical upward. The velocity vector in rectangular
(1) 15i + 20j (2) 3i + 4j form.
(3) 7i + 24j (4) none of these (1) 10iˆ + 10jˆ + 10kˆ (2) 10iˆ + 10 2jˆ + 10kˆ
r
44. A vector A makes an angle 240° with the positive x-
(3) -20iˆ + 10 2jˆ + 20kˆ (4) 10 2iˆ + 10jˆ + kˆ
axis, its components along x-axis and y-axis are :-
A A A 52. ˆ is perpendicular to the

If a vector (2iˆ + 3jˆ + 8k)
(1) A and 3 (2) - and 3
2 2 2
ˆ , then the value of a is :
vector (4ˆj - 4iˆ + a k)
A A A
(3) - and - 3 (4) - and 3A
2 2 2 (1) –1 (2) 1/2 (3) –1/2 (4) 1
18 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
r r r r r r
53. The vector P = aiˆ + ajˆ + 3kˆ and Q = aiˆ - 2jˆ - kˆ are 59. The angle between (A ´ B) and (A + B) is :-
perpendicular to each other. The positive value of p p

a is : (1) 0 (2) (3) (4) p
4 2
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) zero
r
60. Let A = î A cos q + ˆj A sin q , be any vector. Another
54. If vectors
r r
r r wt wt vector B which is normal to A is :
A = cos wtiˆ + sin wtjˆ and B = cos î - sin ˆj
2 2
are functions of time, then the value of t at which (1) îB cos q + ˆjB sin q (2) îB sin q + ˆjB cos q
they are orthogonal to each other is :
(3) îB sinq - ˆjB cosq (4) îA cosq - ˆjA sinq
p
(1) t = 0 (2) t = r r r r r r
w
61. If A ´ B = 3 A . B , then the value of A - B
p p
(3) t = (4) t = is :
2w 3w
55. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to F

(1) G A
ABI 1/ 2
their vector difference. In that case, the force :

H
2
+ B2 + J
3K
(1) Are equal to each other.
(2) Are equal to each other in magnitude. (2) (A2 + B2 – AB)1/2
(3) Are not equal to each other in magnitude.
1/2
(3) (A2 + B2 + 3 AB)
(4) Cannot be predicted.
56. If î, ˆj and k̂ represent unit vectors along the x, y (4) (A2+B2+AB)1/2
and z-axes respectively, then the angle q between 62. Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are
the vectors ( î + ˆj + kˆ ) and ( î + ˆj ) is equal to : 3iˆ + ˆj - 2kˆ and î - 3jˆ + 4kˆ will be :
-1 æ 1 ö æ 2ö (1) 14 unit (2) 5 3 unit

(1) sin ç
-1
÷ (2) sin ç ÷
è 3ø è 3ø
(3) 10 3 unit (4) 20 3 unit
r r r
æ 1 ö
-1 63. The resultant of A and B is perpendicular to A .
(3) cos ç ÷ (4) 90° r r
è 3ø
What is the angle between A and B ?
r r
57. A vector A points vertically upward and B points

-1 æ A ö -1 æ Aö
r r (1) cos ç ÷ (2) cos ç - ÷
towards north. The vector product A ´ B is èBø è Bø
(1) zero
(2) along west -1 æ A ö -1 æ Aö
(3) sin ç ÷ (4) sin ç - ÷
(3) along east èBø è Bø
(4) vertically downward r
r r r r r r 64. What is the angle between A and the resultant of
58. If A ´ B = 0 and B ´ C = 0 , then the angle between r r
r r (A+B )
ˆ and A - B
(ˆ ?
)
A and C may be :
-1 æ A ö
p (1) 0° (2) tan ç ÷
(1) zero (2) èBø
4
p -1 æ B ö -1 æ A - B ö
(3) (4) None (3) tan ç ÷ (4) tan ç ÷
2 èAø èA+Bø
E 19
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
65. What is the projection of 3iˆ + 4kˆ on the y-axis ?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) zero
r r r r
66. Given |A1 |= 2,|A 2 |= 3 and |A1 + A2 |= 3 . Find
r r r r
the value or |(A1 + 2A 2 ) × (3A1 - 4A 2 )| :-
(1) 64 (2) 60 (3) 62 (4) 61
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 3 4 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 1 3 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. 2 2 2 1 4 1
20 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
UNITS, DIMENSIONS AND MEASUREMENTS EXERCISE
1. If the time period (T) of vibration of a liquid drop 8. If dimension of critical velocity nc, of liquid flowing
depends on surface tension (S), radius (r) of the drop through a tube is expressed as (hx ry rz), where h,
and density (r) of liquid, then the expression of T is r and r the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density
rr 3 r1 / 2 r 3 of liquid and radius of the tube respectively, then
(1) T = k (2) T = k the values of x, y and z are given by :
S S
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 1, –1, –1
rr 3 (3) –1, –1, 1 (4) –1, –1, –1
(3) T = k (4) none of these
S1 / 2
9. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that
r A 2ˆ
2. The electric field is given by E = 3 î + Byjˆ + Cz k . e2
x can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity
4 pe0
The SI units of A, B anc C are respectively.
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and
N - m3
(1) , V/m2, N/m2-C e is charge] :-
C
1/ 2 1/2
(2) V-m2, V/m, N/m2-C 2 é e2 ù 1 é e2 ù
(3) V/m2, V/m, N-C/m2 (1) c êG ú (2) 2 ê ú
ë 4pe0 û c ë G 4pe0 û
(4) V/m, N-m3/C, N-C/m
3. What are the dimensions of A/B in the relation 1/2
1 e2 1é e2 ù
F = A x + Bx , where F is the force, x is the dis-
2
(3) c G 4pe (4) 2 êG ú
0 c ë 4pe0 û
tance and t is time?
(1) L1/2 (2) L3/2 (3) L–3/2 (4) L–1/2 10. Which one of the following does not have the same
4. The potential energy of a particle is given by the dimensions
x (1) work and energy
expression U(x) = -ax + b sin . A dimensionless
g (2) angle and strain
combination of the constants a,b and g is :- (3) relative density and refractive index
(4) plank constant and energy
a a2 g ag 11. If unit of length and force incresed 4 times. The unit
(1) (2) (3) (4)
bg ba ab b of energy.
1 (1) is increased by 4 times
5. The dimensions of is that of :- (2) is increased by 16 times
e0µ 0
(3) is increased by 8 times
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\02-UNITS, DIMENSIONS, ERROR.P65
(1) velocity (2) time (4) remains unchanged

(3) capacitance (4) distance 12. The density of a material in CGS system is 8 g/cm 3.
6. The dimensional formula for Planck's constant h and In a system of a unit in which unit of length is 5 cm
gravitational constant G respectively are :- and unit of mass is 20 g. The density of material is :-
(1) [ML3T–2], [M–1L2T–3] (1) 8 (2) 20 (3) 50 (4) 80
13. In a new system the unit of mass is a kg, unit of
(2) [ML2T–1], [M–1L3T–2]
length is b m and unit of times of g s. The value of 1J
(3) [ML3T–2], [M–1L2T2] in this new system is :-
(4) [MLT–3], [M–1L3T–3]
g2 ga
7. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as (1) (2) (3) abg (4) ag2/b2
ab2 b2
the fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula
of surface tension will be : 14. Which of the following has the highest number of
significant figures ?
(1) [EV–1T–2] (2) [EV–2T–2]
(1) 0.007 m2 (2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(3) [E–2V–1T–3] (4) [EV–2T–1]
(3) 0.0006032 m2 (4) 6.3200 J
E 27
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
15. The density of a material in CGS system of units is 21. A quantity is represented by X = Ma Lb Tc. The
4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of length percentage error in measurement of M, L and T
is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of are a%, b % and g % respectively. The percentage
density of material will be :- error in X would be
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4 (3) 40 (4) 400 (1) (a a + bb + gc) %
1 (2) (aa – bb + gc) %
16. The least count of a stop watch is s . The time of
5 (3) (a a – bb– gc) %
20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25s. (4) None of these
What is the maximum percentage error in this
measurement? 22. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in
(1) 8% (2) 1% (3) 0.8% (4) 16% an experiment is recorded as 2.63s, 2.56s, 2.42s,
17. The refractive index of water measured by the relation 2.71s and 2.80s respectively. The average absolute
error is
real depth
m= is found to have values of 1.34, (1) 0.1s (2) 0.11s
apparent depth
(3) 0.01s (4) 1.0s
1.38, 1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive
index with percentage error :- 23. The length of a cylinder is measured with a metre
(1) 1.35 ± 1.48% (2) 1.35 ± 0% rod having least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is
(3) 1.36 ± 6% (4) 1.36 ± 0% measured with vernier callipers having least count
18. Choose the incorrect statement out of the following :- 0.01 cm. Given the length is 5.0 cm. and radius is
(1) Every measurement made by any measuring 2.00 cm. The percentage error in the calculated
instrument has some error. value of volume will be –
(2) Every calculated physical quantity that is based (1) 2% (2) 1%

on measured values has some error. (3) 2.5% (4) 4%
24. A physical quantity e is calculated by using the
(3) A measurement can have more accuracy but
less precision and vice versa. xy2
fo rmula e= where x, y an d z are
(4) The percentage error is different from relative 10z1 / 3
error.
experimentally measured quantities. If the fractional
19. A student measures the distance traversed in free percentage error in the measurements of x,y and z
fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses are 2%, 1% and 3% respectively, then the
this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to fractional percentage error in e will be :-
gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in
(1) 0.5 % (2) 5 % (3) 6 % (4) 7 %
measurement of the distance and the time are e1
and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the 25. A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003) g, radius
estimation of g is :- (0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm. The
(1) e1 + 2e2 (2) e1 + e2 maximum percentage error in the measurement
of its density is–
(3) e1 – 2e2 (4) e2 – e1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
20. If a set of defective weights are used by a student
to find the mass of an object using a physical 26. The resistance of a metal is given by R = V/I, where
balance, a large number of reading will reduce :- V is potential difference and I is the current. In a
circuit the potential difference across resitance is
(1) random error
V =(10 ± 0.5)V and current in resistance,
(2) random as well as systematic error I = (2 ± 0.2)A. The value of resitance in W with
(3) systematic error percentage error is :-
(4) neither random nor systematic error (1) 5 ± 10% (2) 5 ± 15%
(3) 5 ± 20% (4) 5 ± 25%
28 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
27. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given 29. A student measured the diameter of a small steel
l ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm.
by T = 2p , where l is about 100 cm and is known The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular
g
to have 1 mm accuracy. The period is about 2 s. The scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the
time of 100 oscillations is measured by a stop watch reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of
of least count 0.1 s. The percentage error in g is :- – 0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is :-
(1) 0.1% (2) 1% (3) 0.2% (4) 0.8%
28. In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is (1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.525 cm
x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide (3) 0.053 cm (4) 0.529 cm
with (n –1) divisions of the main scale. The least
count (in cm) of the callipers is :-
æ n -1ö nx x x
(1) ç ÷ x (2) (3) (4)
è n ø (n - 1) n (n - 1)
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 3 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 4
E 29
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
KINEMATICS EXERCISE
1. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed 6. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 20
and 3/5th distance with v2, then average speed is :- second after starting from rest. If it travels a distance
s1 in 10 second and distance s2 in the next 10 sec,
1 v1 + v 2
(1) v1 v 2 (2) then :-
2 2
s2
2v 1 v 2 5v1 v 2 (1) s1 = s2 (2) s1 =
(3) v + v (4) 3v + 2v 3
1 2 1 2
s2 s2
(3) s1 = (4) s1 =
2. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the 2 4
distance with speed of 3m/s. The other half of the
distance covered in two equal time intervals with speed 7. A point moves with uniform acceleration and v 1, v2
of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. The average speed and v3 denote the average velocities in three successive
of the particle during this motion is :- intervals of time t1, t2 and t3. Which of the following
(1) 4.0 m/s (2) 5.0 m/s relations is correct :-
(3) 5.5 m/s (4) 4.8 m/s (1) v1 – v2 : v2 – v3 = t1 – t2 : t2 + t3
(2) v1 – v2 : v2 – v3 = t1 + t2 : t2 + t3
3. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts (3) v1 – v2 : v2 – v3 = t1 – t2 : t1 – t3
moving along the positive x–direction with a velocity (4) v1 – v2 : v2 – v3 = t1 – t2 : t2 – t3
'v' which varies as v = a x , then velocity of particle 8. Speed of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific
varies with time as : (a is a constant) instant. The ratio of the respective distances in which
(1) v µ t (2) v µ t2 the two cars are stopped from that instant is :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) v µ t (4) v = constant (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16
4. A train accelerates from rest at a constant rate a
9. A particle is dropped vertically from rest from a height.
for distance x1 and time t1. After that is retards
The time takes by it to fall through successive of 1
at constant rate b for distance x2 and time t2 and meter each will then be :-
comes to the rest. Which of the following relations
is correct ? 2
(1) all equal, being equal to second
g
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\03-KINEMATICS AND PROJECTILE.P65
x1 a t1 x1 b t1 (2) in the ratio of square roots of integers 1, 2, 3,...

(1) = = (2) = = (3) in the ratio of the dirrence in the square roots of
x2 b t2 x2 a t2
integers ( 1 - 0 ),( 2 - 1),( 3 - 2),( 4 - 3 )
x1 a t2 x1 b t2 1 1 1 1
(3) = = (4) = = (4) in the ratio : : :
x2 b t1 x2 a t1 1 2 3 4
5. Which of of the following represents uniformly 10. Two ball A and B of same mass are thrown from the
acceleated motion :- top of the building. A thrown upward with velocity v
and B, thrown down with velocity v, then :-
t-a t-a (1) velocity A is more than B at the ground
(1) x = (2) x =
b b (2) velocity of B is more than A at the ground
(3) both A and B strike the ground with same velocity
x-a (4) none of these
(3) t = (4) x = t + a
b
E 41
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
11. A stone is thrown vertically upward. On its way up it 17. An elevator is accelerating upward at a rate of
passes point A with speed of v, and point B, 3m 6 ft/sec2 when a bolt from its ceiling falls to the
highter than A, with speed V/2 The maximum height floor of the lift (Distance = 9.5 feet). The time (in
reached by stone above point B is :- seconds) taken by the falling bolt to hit the floor is
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (take g = 32 ft/ sec2)
(3) 3 m (4) 5 m 1
(1) 2 (2)
2
12. A body is projected vertically upwards. If t1 and t2 be
the times at which it is at hight h above the projection 1
(3) 2 2 (4)
while ascending and descending respectively, then h 2 2
is :-
18. The velocity versus time curve of a moving point is as
1 given below. The maximum acceleration is :-
(1) gt1 t 2 (2) gt1t2
2
60
v(cm/s) ®
(3) 2gt1t2 (4) 2hg
40
13. A body A starts from rest with an accelertion a1. After
2 seconds, another body B starts from rest with an
20
acceleration a2. If they travel equal distances in the
5th seconds, after start of A, then the ratio a1 : a2 is
equal to :-
(1) 5 : 9 (2) 5 : 7
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
(3) 9 : 5 (4) 9 : 7
t(second) ®
14. Two balls are dropped to the ground from different
(1) 1 cm/s2 (2) 2 cm/s2
heights. One ball is dropped 2s after the other but
(3) 3 cm/s2 (4) 4 cm/s2
they both strike the ground at the same time. If the
first ball takes 5s to reach the ground, then the 19. The graph of displacement v/s time is, then its
difference in initial heights is (g = 10 ms ) :-
–2 corresponding velocity time graph will be :-
(1) 20 m (2) 80 m (3) 170 m (4) 40 m s
15. The initial velocity of particle is u and the acceleration

at the time t is at, a being a constant. Then the v at
the time t is given by :- Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\03-KINEMATICS AND PROJECTILE.P65
(1) v = u t
(2) v = u + at v
v
(3) v = u + at2
1 2 t
(4) v = u + at
2 (1) (2)
t
16. The displacement-time graph for two particles A and
B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30° and 60°
v v
with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB
is :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) (4) t
t
(3) 3 :1 (4) 1 : 3
42 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
20. The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure.
t1 + t2 t1 – t 2
The slope of the line is 'm'. The distance travels by (1) t = (2) t =
2 2
body in time T s :-
t1
v (3) t = t1 t2 (4) t = t2
v0
25. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional
motion such that its velocity varies according to
T t
v(x) = bx–4n
2 2
mv 0 v 0
(1) (2)
2T 2T where b and n are constants and x is the position
v 20 of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as

(3) 2mv20 (4)
2m a function of x, is given by :
21. Position of a particle moving along x–axis is given
(1) –4nb2x–8n–1 (2) –4b2x–8n+1
by x = 2 + 8t – 4t2. The distance travelled by the
particle from t = 0 to t = 2 is : (3) –4nb2e–8n+1 (4) –4nb2x–8n–1
(1) 0 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16
22. A ball is thrown upwards. Its height varies with time 26. A particle moves a distance y in time t according
as shown in figure. If the acceleration due to gravity to equation y = (t + 10)–1. The acceleration of
is 7.5 m/s2, then the height h is particle is proportional to :-
(1) (velocity)2/3 (2) (velocity)3/2
Height (m)
(3) (distance)2 (4) (distance)–2
27. A body starting from rest is moving under a constant

h
acceleration up to 40 sec. If it moves S1 distance in
first 20 sec., and S2 distance in next 20 sec. then S2
will be equal to :
1 2 5 6 time (s)
(1) S1 (2) 2S1 (3) 3S1 (4) 4S1
(1) 10 m (2) 15 m (3) 20 m (4) 25 m
28. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time
23. A body is projected upwards with a velocity u. It
t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle
passes through a certain point above the ground

after t1 second. The time after which the body passes from O is given by x = 50 + 12t – t3. How long
through the same point during the return journey would the particle travel before coming to rest ?
is: (1) 66 m (2) 56 m (3) 26 m (4) 16 m
u 2 u 29. A particle shows distance-time curve as given in
(1) ( - t1 ) (2) 2( - t1 )
g g this figure.The maximum instantaneous velocity of
u2 u2 the particle is around the point :-

(3) 3( - t1 ) (4) 3( - t1 )
g g2
24. A body is thrown vertically upwards from the top A D
Distance
of a tower. It reaches the ground in t1 seconds. If it S

C
is thrown vertically downwards from A with the same
speed it reaches the ground in t2, seconds. If it is A B
t Time
allowed to fall freely from A, then the time it takes
to reach the ground is given by : (1) D (2) A (3) B (4) C
E 43
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
30. If a body starts from rest and travels 120cm in the
6th second then what is the acceleration ?
velocity
(1) 0.526 m/s2 (2) 0.218 m/s2
(3) 0.109 m/s2 (4) 0.056 m/s2 (1) T 2T t
31. A ballon rises from ground with an acceleration of

2 m/s2 after 10 second, a stone is released from the
ballon the stone will
(1) have a displacement of 150 m
velocity
(2) cover a distance of 140 m in reaching the ground T 2T
(2) t
(3) reach the ground in 4 second
(4) begin to move downward after being released
32. A person walks along an east-west street and a graph

of his displacement from home is shown in figure.
His average velocity for the whole time interval is:
velocity
T 2T
(3) t
40
20
x (meter)
15 18 19 21
0
3 6 9 12 t (sec)
velocity
–20
2T
–40 (4) T t
(1) 0 (2) 23 ms–1 35. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. The

(3) 8.4 ms–1 (4) None of above corresponding velocity-time graph is :
33. A rocket is launched upward from the earth is

a
surface whose velocity time graphs shown in figure.
Then maximum height attained by the rocket is:
t Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\03-KINEMATICS AND PROJECTILE.P65
A
1000
v(ms–1)
B 140 v v
0 t(s)
20 40 60 80 100 120
C (1) (2)
(1) 1 km (2) 10 km t t
(3) 100 km (4) 60 km

v v
34. A ball is dropped from the certain height on the
surface of glass. It collides elastically and comes back
(3) (4)
to its initial position. If this process it repeated then
t t
the velocity time graph is :
(Take downward direction as positive)
44 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
36. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at time 42. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h, in still water
t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as shown in crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible
the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will path in 15 minute. The velocity of the river water in
be : km/h is :-
a 5 m/s
2
(1) 7.5 m/s (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 41
(2) 15 m/s
43. A man is running up hill with a velocity (2i$ + 3j)
$ m/ s
(3) 30 m/s
w.r.t. ground. He feels that the rain drops are falling
0 t
(4) 37.5 m/s 6s vertically with velocity 4 m/s. If he runs down hill with
same speed, find vrm.
37. Two trains A and B, each of length 100m, are running
on parallel tracks. One overtakes the other in 20 s (1) 2 2 m/s (2) 2 3 m/s
and one crosses the other in 10 s. The velocity of
(3) 2 5 m/s (4) 2 10 m/s
trains are :-
(1) 5 m/s, 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s, 15 m/s
44. A man is going east in a car with a velocity of
(3) 15 m/s, 5 m/s (4) 15 m/s, 30 m/s
20 km/hr, a train appears to move towards north to
38. A ball A is thrown up vertically with a speed u and at
him with a velocity of 20 3 km/hr. What is the
the same instant another ball B is relased from a
actual velocity and direction of motion of train ?
height h. At time t, the speed of A relative of B is :-
(1) 40 m/s, 60° N of W (2) 40 m/s, 60° W of N
(1) u (2) 2u
(3) 40 m/s, 60° N of E (4) 40 m/s, 60° E of N
(3) u – 2gt (4) (u 2 - gt) 45. Four persons P, Q, R and S of same mass travel with
same speed u along a square of side 'd' such that
39. A stone is dropped from a hight h, simultaneously each one always faces the other. After what time will
another stone is thrown up from the ground which they meet each other ?
reaches at a height 4h, the two stones cross each u
P Q
other after time :- u
h h d
(1) (2) (3) 8hg (4) 2hg u
2g 8g
S u R
40. A car moves on a straight track from station A to the

d 2d 2d
station B, with an acceleration a = (b – cx), where b (1) (2) (3) (4) d 3u
u 3u u
and c are contants and x is the distance from station A.
The maximum velocity between the two stations is :- 46. Six persons of same mass travel with same speed
b c u along a regular hexagon of side 'd' such that each
b
(1) (2) b/c (3) (4) one always faces the other. After how what will they
c a c
meet each other ?
41. A car, start from rest, accelerates at the rate 'f' through
u u
a distance s, then continues at constant speed for
time t and then decelerates at the rate
f/2 come to rest. If the total distance traversed is 5 s, u u d
then :-
u u
1 2 1 2
(1) s = ft (2) s = ft
4 2
d 2d 2d
1 2 (1) (2) (3) (4) d 3u
(3) s = ft (4) s = ft u 3u u
6
E 45
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
47. A boy is running on a levelled road with velocity (v) 52. A ship A is moving Eastward with a speed of
with a long hollow tube in his hand. Water is falling 10 km h–1 and a ship B 100 km North of A, is
vertically downwards with velocity (u). At what angle moving Sorthward with a speed of 10 km h –1. The
to the vertical, should ve incline the tube so that the time after which the distance between them
water drops enters without touching its side : becomes shortest, is :-
-1 æ vö -1 æ vö
(1) tan çè u ÷ø (2) sin ç ÷ (1) 5 h (2) 5 2 h (3) 10 2 h (4) 0 h
è uø
æ vö 53. Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities

æ uö -1
r r
-1
(3) tan çè v ÷ø (4) cos çè u ÷ø v1 and v 2 . At the initial moment their position vectors
48. A river 2 km wide is flows at the rate of 2km/h. A r r
are r1 and r2 respectively. The condition for particle
boatman who can row a boat at a speed of
A and B for their collision is :-
4 km/h in still water, goes a distance of 2 km
upstream and then comes back. The time taken by r r r r
(1) r1 - r2 = v1 - v 2
him to complete his journey is
r r r r
(1) 60 min (2) 70 min (3) 80 min (4) 90 min r1 - r2 v 2 - v1
r
(2) r - rr = r r
49. Two towns A and B are connected by a regular 1 2 v 2 - v1
bus service with a bus leaving in either direction
r r r r
every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of (3) r1 × v1 = r2 × v 2
20 km h–1 in the direction A to B notices that a
r r r r
bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction (4) r1 ´ v1 = r2 ´ v 2
of his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite
direction. What is the period T of the bus service 54. Two cars A and B start from a point at the same
and with what speed (assumed constant) do the buses time in a straight line and their positions are
represented by xA(t) = at + bt2 and xB(t) = ft + t2.
ply on the road?
(1) T = 9 min., Speed = 40 km h–1 At what time do the cars have the same velocity?
(2) T = 10 min., Speed = 40 km h–1 a+f f-a
(1) (2)
(3) T = 9 min., Speed = 20 km h–1 2(1 + b) 2(1 - b)
(4) T = 10 min., Speed = 20 km h–1 a-f a+f
(3) (4)
1+ b 2(b - 1)
50. Rain drops are falling with velocity ( 2iˆ – 4ˆj ) m/s.
55. Priya reached the metro station and found that the
What should be the velocity of a man so that rain escalator was not working. She walked down the
drops hit him with speed 5m/s ? stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\03-KINEMATICS AND PROJECTILE.P65
(1) –iˆ (2) 5iˆ remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the
escalator takes her down in time t2. The time taken
(3) 2iˆ (4) Both (1) & (2) by her to walk down on the moving escalator will
51. A man runs at a speed of 4.0 m/s to overtake a be
standing bus. When he is 6.0 m behind the door (at t1 t2 t1 t 2 t1 + t2
(1) t - t (2) t + t (3) t1 – t2 (4)
t = 0), the bus moves forward and continues with a 2 1 2 1 2
constant acceleration of 1.2 m/s2. The man shall
56. A stone is just released from the window of a train
access the door at time t equal to moving along a horizontal striaght track. The stone
(1) 5.2 s will hit the ground following :-
(2) 4.3 s (1) straight path
(2) circular path
(3) 2.3 s
(3) parabolic path
(4) the man shall never access the door (4) hyperbolic path
46 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
57. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the 63. A particle is projected from the ground with a velocity
acceleration is :- of 25 m/s. After 2 second, it just clears a wall 5 m
(1) maximum (2) minimum height. Then angle of projection of particle is
(3) zero (4) g [g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75°
58. The range of a projectile which is the launched at an
angle of 15° with the horizontal is 1.5 km. What is 64. The horizontal and vertical components of the velocity
the range of the projectile if it is projected of an angle of a projectile are 10 m/s and 20 m/s, respectively.
45° to the horizontal ? The horizontal range of the projectile will be [g = 10
(1) 1.5 km (2) 3 km m/s2] :-
(3) 6 km (4) 0.75 km (1) 5 m (2) 10 m (3) 20 m (4) 40 m
59. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of
65. A cart is moving horizontally along a straight line with
600 km/h at a height of 1960 m. When it is vertically
constant speed 30 m/s. A projectile is to be fired from
at a point A on the ground, a bomb is released from
the moving cart in such a way what it will return to
it. The bomb strikes the ground at point B. The
the cart after the cart has moved 80 m. At what
distance AB is :-
speed (relative to the cart) must the projectile be fired
(1) 1200 m (2) 0.33 km
(Take g = 10 m/s2) :-
(3) 3.33 km (4) 33 km
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 8 m/s
60. A body is projected with velocity v 1 from point A. At
the same time another body is projected vertically 40
upwards with velocity v2. The point B lies vertically (3) m/s (4) None of these
3
below the highest point. For both the bodies to collide
v2 66. For an object thrown at 45° to horizontal, the
v1 should be :- maximum height (H) and horizontal range (R) are
related as :-
v1 v2
(1) R = 16 H (2) R = 8 H
30°
A B (3) R = 4 H (4) R = 2 H
67. A ball is thrown up at an angle 45° with the horizontal.

3 Then the total change of momentum by the instant it
(1) 2 (2) (3) 0.5 (4) 1
2 returns to ground is :-
61. A boy throws a ball with a velocity u at an angle q

mv
with the horizontal. At the same instant he starts (1) zero (2) 2 mv (3) 2 mv (4) 2
running with uniform velocity to catch the ball before
it hits the ground. To achieve this he should run with 68. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle q with
a velocity of :- the horizontal reaches maximum height H1. When it
(1) u cos q (2) u sin q
æp ö
(3) u tan q (4) u2 tan q is projected with velocity u at an angle ç - q ÷ with
è 2 ø
62. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The
distance of d. How high above the ground can the relation between the horizontal range R of the
cricketer throw the same ball? projectile. H1 and H2 is :-
d (1) R = 4 H1H2 (2) R = 4(H1 – H2)

(1) (2) d
2
H12
5d (3) R = 4(H1 + H2) (4) R =
(3) 2d (4) H22
2
E 47
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
69. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of that the boy jumps horizontally, then calculate
minimum velocity with which he has to jump to land
v = a $i + b $j . If range of the projectile is double
®
safely on building B.
the maximum height attained by it then :
(1) a = 2 b (2) b = a
(3) b = 2a (4) b = 4a
25 m
70. Two stones are projected with the same speed but
making different angles with the horizontal. Their A B 5m
4m
ranges are equal. If the angle of projection of one
p (1) 6 m/s (2) 8 m/s

is and its maximum height is y1, then the (3) 4 m/s (4) 2 m/s
3
75. A ball was thrown from height H and the ball hit the
maximum height of the other will be :
(1) 3y1 (2) 2y1 floor with velocity 10(iˆ - ˆj) after 1.5 sec of its pro-
y1 y1 jection. Find initial speed of ball.

(3) (4) y
2 3
71. A particle is projected with a velocity v, so that its x
range on a horizontal plane is twice the greatest H

height attained. If g is acceleration due to gravity,
then its range is :
v = 10 ( i – j )
4v 2 4g
(1) (2) (1) 10 5 m/s (2) 5 5 m/s
5g 5v 2
(3) 15 m/s (4) 30 m/s
4v3 4v 76. Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance
(3) (4) x as shown in figure. They are projected as shown
5g2 5g2
in figure with different initial speeds. The time after
72. A projectile can have the same range R for two which the horizontal distance between them
angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of becomes zero is :
flight in the two cases, then :– u
3 u
(1) t1 t 2 µ R 2 (2) t1 t2 µ R
1 1 30° 60°
(3) t1 t 2 µ (4) t1 t2 µ
x
R R2
73. A number of bullets are fired in all possible directions x u

with the same initial velocity u. The maximum area (1) (2)
u 2x
of ground covered by bullets is :–
2 2 2u
æ 2u 2 ö æuö (3) (4) none of these
(1) p ç ÷ (2) 3p ç ÷ x
è g ø ègø
æ u ö
2
æ u2 ö
2
77. A particle has initial velocity (3iˆ + 4ˆj) and has
(3) 5p ç ÷ (4) p ç ÷
è 2g ø è g ø
acceleration (0.4iˆ + 0.3j)
ˆ . Its speed after 10s is :-
74. A boy wants to jump from building A to building B.
Height of building A is 25 m and that of building B (1) 7 unit (2) 7 2 unit
is 5m. Distance between buildings is 4m. Assume (3) 8.5 unit (4) 10 unit
48 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
78. A body starts from rest from the origin with an 81. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time
acceleration of 6 m/s2 along the x-axis and 8 m/s2 are x = 8t – 2t2 and y = 40t respectively, where
along the y-axis. Its distance from the origin after x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The
4 seconds will be :- acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is :-
(1) 56 m (2) 64 m (3) 80 m (4) 128 m (1) 5 m/s2 (2) – 4 m/s2
r
79. The position vector of a particle R as a function (3) – 8 m/s2 (4) 0
of time is given by :- 82. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
r
R = 2 sin(2pt)iˆ + 2cos(2pt)ˆj horizontal plane surface
r under the influencer of a
uniform electric field E . Due to the force qE , its
Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and î and ĵ
velocity increases from 0 to 12 m/s in one second
denote unit vectors along x and y-directions,
duration. At that instant the direction of the field is
respectively. Which one of the following statements
is wrong for the motion of particle ? reversed. The car continues to move for two more
(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 2 meter seconds under the influence of this field. The
r average velocity and the average speed of the toy
(2) Acceleration vectors is along -R car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively :-
v2
(3) Magnitude of acceleration vector is where (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s, 6 m/s
R
v is the velocity of particle. (3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is
8 meter/second
83. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where
80. A particle moves so that its position vector is given
r A and B are constants, then the distance travelled
by r = cos wt xˆ + sin wt yˆ . Where w is a constant.
by it between 2s and 3s is :-
Which of the following is true ?
(1) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular 3
(1) A + 4B (2) 3A+7B
r 2
to r .
(2) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to rr 5 19 A B
(3) A+ B (4) +
(3) Velocity is perpendicular to rr and acceleration 2 3 2 3
is directed towards the origin
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to rr and acceleration
is directed away from the origin
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 1 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 1 1 1 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 4 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 4 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 1 3 4 1 2 4 4 2
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83
Ans. 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 3
E 49
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
LAWS OF MOTION AND FRICTION EXERCISE
1. When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes 6. There are two forces on the 2.0 kg box in the overhead
the horse to move forward is the force view of figure but only one is shown. The figure also
(1) He exerts on the wagon shows the acceleration of the box. The second force
(2) The wagon exerts on him is nearly :-
(3) The ground exerts on him
(4) He exerts on the ground y
2. If the force of gravity suddenly disappears :-

(1) The mass of all bodies will become zero F1=20N
x
(2) The weight of all bodies will become zero
(3) Both mass and weight of all bodies will become
30°
zero
a = 12 m/s2
(4) Neither mass nor weight of all bodies will become
zero
3. The velocity acquired by a mass m in travelling a (1) -20jˆ N
certain distance d starting from rest under the action
of a constant force is directly proportional to :- (2) ( -20iˆ N + 20j)
ˆN
1 (3) ( -32iˆ - 21j)

ˆN
(1) m (2) m° (3) (4) m
m
(4) ( -21iˆ - 16ˆj) N
4. A water jet, whose cross sectional are is 'a' strikes a
wall making an angle ' q' with the normal and 7. A force represented as show in figure acts on a body
rebounds elastically. The velocity of water of density having a mass of 16 kg. The velocity of the body at t
'd' is v. Force exerted on wall is :- = 10 s, if the body starts from rest :-
F(N)
V
q 75
q
50
V
(1) 2 av2d cosq (2) av2d sinq t(s)

0 5 10
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\04-NLM AND FRICTION.P65
(3) 2 avd cosq (4) avd cosq

(1) 100 m/s (2) 50 m/s
5. Three forces act on a particle that moves
(3) 49 m/s (4) 39 m/s
r
with unchanging velocity v = (3iˆ - 4ˆj) m/s. 8. A player catches a ball of 200 g moving with a
r speed of 20 m/s. If the time taken to complete
ˆ and
Two of the forces are F1 = (3iˆ + 2jˆ - 4k)N
the catch is 0.5 s, the force exerted on the player's
r hand is :-
ˆ . The third force is :-
F2 = (-5iˆ + 8ˆj - 3k)N
(1) 8 N (2) 4 N (3) 2 N (4) 0
ˆ
(1) ( -2iˆ + 10jˆ - 7k)N 9. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a
frictionless plane. If struck by a jet releasing water at
ˆ
(2) (2iˆ - 10jˆ + 7k)N a rate of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial
acceleration of the block will be :-
(3) (7iˆ - 2k + 10j)N
ˆ
(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 5.0 m/s2
(4) none of these (3) 10 m/s2 (4) None of the above
62 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
10. A disc of mass 1·0 kg is kept floating horizontally in 14. A string of negligible mass going over a clamped pulley
air by firing bullets of mass 0·05 kg each vertically of mass m supports a block of mass M as shown in
at it, at the rate of 10 per second. If the bullets the figure. The force on the pulley by the clamp is
rebound with the same speed, the speed with which given by :-
these are fired will be–
(1) 2 Mg (2) 2 mg
(1) 0·098 m/s (2) 0·98 m/s (3) ( )

(M + m)2 + m2 g (4) ( )
(M + m)2 + M2 g
(3) 9·8 m/s (4) 98·0 m/s
15. Three blocks of masses 4 kg, 6 kg and 8 kg are bang-
11. If force F = 500 – 100t, then impulse as a function
ing over a fixed pulley as shown. The tension in the
of time will be :- the string connecting 4 kg and 6 kg block is :-
(1) 500t – 50t2 (2) 50t – 10 (g = 10 m/s 2)
(3) 50 – t 2
(4) 100t 2 (1) 4 N
(2) 6 N
12. Find the tension in the string which connected the
blocks as shown in the following figure :- 320
(3) N 6kg
9
10N 8kg
60° 40 4kg
2kg 3kg (4) N
9
16. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled along
(1) 2 N (2) 3 N (3) 5 N (4) 10 N
a smooth horizontal surface. The masses of the blocks
13. A block of mass M = 8 kg is connected to an empty and tension in one cord are given. The pulling force F
is :-
bucket of mass 1 kg by a massless cord running over
an ideal pulley . The coefficients of static and kientic F
60° 3N 2kg
friction between table top and block are 0.5 and 0.4 4kg 3kg 1kg
respectively. Sand is gradually added to the bucket
until the block just begin to slide. The mass of sand (1) 5 N (2) 10 N (3) 12.5 N (4) 20 N
17. Two masses, M and m are connected together by a
added is : (g = 10 m/s2)
pulley two strings and a stretched spring of force
constant k as shown. Assume that string, pulley and
spring all are massless and surface below m is smooth.
8kg The amount by which the spring is stretched:-
k
m
mMg 2mMg
(1) (2)
k(m + M) k(m + M)
(1) 5 kg (2) 6 kg (3) 7 kg (4) 10 kg Mg (m + M)g

(3) (4)
k 2k
E 63
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
18. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal smooth 22. Two masses m1 and m2 are joined by a spring as
surface by a rope of mass m. Force P is applied at shown. The system is dropped to the gorund from
one end of the rope. The force which the rope exert a certain height. The spring will be :-
on the block is :-
(1) Stretched when m2 > m1
P PM m1
(1) (2) (2) compressed when m2 < m1
(M - m) (M + m)
(3) neither compressed nor stretched only
Pm m when m1 = m2
(3) (4) P
(M + m) M (4) neither compressed nor stretched m2
regardless of the values of m1 and m2.
19. Two blocks, each having a mass M, rest on frictionless
23. The elevator shown in figure is descending, with
surface as shown in the figure. If the pulleys are light
and frictionless, and M on the incline is allowed to an acceleration of 2 ms–2. The mass of the block
move down, then the tension in the string will be :- A is 0.5 kg. The force exerted by the block A on
the block B is :
M
q M
(1) 2.3 Mg sin q (2) 1.3 Mg sin q

Mg (1) 2 N (2) 4 N (3) 6 N (4) 8 N
(3) sin q (4) 2 Mg sin q
2
24. A body kept on a smooth inclined plane of inclination
20. With what minimum acceleration can a firemman 1 in x will remain stationary relative to the inclined
slide down a rope whose breaking strength is 3/4th of plane if the plane is given a horizontal acceleration
his weight. equal to :-
g x2 - 1
(1) m / s2 (2) g m/s2 (1) (2) g
4 x 2 - 1g
x
3 gx g
(3) m / s2 (4) zero (3) (4)
4 2
x -1 2
x -1
21. A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. 25. If a parrot starts flying upwards with an acceleration
The forces acting on the sphere are shown in fig. in an air tight cage, then the boy will feel the weight
Which of the following statements is correct ? of the cage:
(1) Unchanged (2) Reduced

(3) Increased (4) Nothing can be said
26. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are
connected by a massless spring as shown in the
figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass.
At the instant shown the 10 kg mass has an
acceleration 4 m/s 2 rightwards. What is the
acceleration of 20 kg mass ?
r r r
(a) R + T + W = 0 (b) T2 = R2 + W2
(c) T = R + W (d) R = W tan q

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d (4) a, b, c, d (1) Zero (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 8 m/s2
64 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
27. The pulley arrangements shown in the figure are 30. Adjoining figure shows two blocks A and B pushed
identical, the mass of the rope being negligible. In against the wall with a force F. The wall is smooth
case (a) mass m is lifted by attaching a mass of 2m but the surfaces in contact of A and B are rough.
to the other end of the rope. In case (b) the mass Which of the following is true for the system of blocks
m is lifted by pulling the other end of the rope with to be at rest against the wall ?
a constant downward force F = 2mg, where g is
the acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration
of mass m in case (a) is :-
(1) F should be be more than the weight of A and B

(2) F should be equal to the weight of A and B
(3) F should be less than the weight of A and B
(4) system cannot be in equilibrium
31. In the set-up shown, a 200 N block is supported
in equilibrium with the help of strings and a spring.
all knotted at ponit O. Extension in the spring is 4
(1) Zero cm. Force constant of the spring is closest to [g =
(2) More than that in case (b) 10 m/s2]
(3) Less than that in case (b)
(4) Equal to that in case (b)
37° 53°
28. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the
help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as
shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block
is : O
200 N
(1) 30 N/m (2) 2500 N/m

(3) 3000 N/m (4) 4000 N/m
32. A lift of mass 100 kg starts moving from rests in the
upward direction. Fig shows the variation if speed
v v of the lift, T1, T2 and T3 stand for tension in the
(1) v (2) (3) v sinq (4)
sin q cos q rope form zero to two seconds, two to six seconds,
29. In the fig., the ends P and Q of an unstrechable six to seven seconds respectively then :-
string move downward with uniform speed v. Mass

M moves upwards with speed.
v v
t(s)
(1) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 1 : 1 : 1
(2) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 3
(1) v cosq (2) v/cosq (3) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 3 : 5 : 6
(3) 2v cosq (4) 2/v cosq (4) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 6
E 65
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
33. All surfaces are assumed to be frictionless. Calculate 36. Same spring is attached with 2 kg, 3 kg and
the horizontal force F that must be applied so that 1 kg blocks in three different cases as shown in
m1 and m2 do not move relative to m3 is :– figure. If x1, x2 and x3 be the respective extensions
in the spring in these three cases, then :-
m2g m2g
(1) (m1 + m2 + m3) (2) (m1 + m2)
m1 m1
2kg 2kg 3kg 2kg 1kg 2kg

m1 g m1 g
(3) (m2 + m3) m (4) (m1 + m3) m
2 2
34. Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are attached to the (1) x 1 = 0, x 3 > x 2

ends of a massless string passing over a pulley of (2) x 2 > x 1 > x 3
negligible weight. The pulley itself is attached to a
(3) x 3 > x 1 > x 2
light spring balance as shown in figure. The masses
(4) x 1 > x 2 > x 3
start moving; during this interval the reading of spring
balance will be:- 37. Two weights w1 and w2 are connected by a light
thread which passes over a light smooth pulley. If
(1) More than 3 kg.
the pulley is raised upwards with an acceleration
(2) Less than 3 kg. equal to g, then the tension in the thread will be :-
(3) Equal to 3 kg.
1kg
2w1w2 w1w 2
(4) None of the above 2kg (1) (2)
w1 + w2 w1 + w2
35. As shown in figure a monkey of 20 kg mass is
holding a light rope that passes over a frictionless
pulley. A bunch of bananas of the same mass 20
4w1w2 4w1w2
(3) (4)
kg is tied to the other end of the rope. In order to w1 + w2 w1 - w2
get access to the bananas the monkey starts
38. Three blocks of masses m, 3m and 5m are
climbing the rope. The distance between the
connected by massless strings and pulled by a force
monkey and the bananas :-
F on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure

below. The tension P in the first string is 16N.
F P Q
m 3m 5m
If the point of application of F is changed as given below,

the values of P' and Q' shall be :-
P' Q'
m 3m 5m F
(1) Decreases (1) 16N, 10N (2) 10N, 16N

(2) Increases
(3) 8 N, 2N (4) None of these
(3) remains unchanged
(4) Nothing can be stated
66 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
39. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 48 m/s strikes 42. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60° and
a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall. It is gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the
reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the
If the ball is in contact with the wall for wall on the ball will be :-
0.5 seconds, the average force acting on the wall m
V/2
is :-
30°
30°
V/2
mV mV
(1) 2mV (2) mV (3) (4)
2 3
(1) 24 N (2) 48 N (3) 72 N (4) 96 N
43. Two blocks A and B of masses m and 3m
40. A person used force (F), shown in figure to move a respectively are connected by a massless and
load with constant velocity on a given surface. inextensible string. The whole system is suspended
Identify the correct surface profile :- by a massless spring as shown in figure. The
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately
F after the string is cut, are respectively :-
O
X
L
(1)
A m
B 3m
(2)
g
(1) 3g, g (2) g,g (3) 3g, 3g (4) g
3
(3)
44. A force F = kt is applied to a block A as shown in
figure, where t is time in second. The force is applied
at t = 0, when the system was at rest. Which of the
(4) following graphs correctly gives the frictional force on
block A as a function of time ?

41. The force 'F' acting on a particle of mass 'm' is F=kt
A
indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The
change in momentum of the particle over the time µs > µk
interval from zero to 6 s is :- f f
6
3 (1) (2)
0 t t
F (N)
2 4 6 8
–3 f f
t (s)
(1) 24 Ns (2) 12 Ns (3) (4)
(3) 6 Ns (4) 3 Ns t t
E 67
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
45. A 20 kg body is pushed with just enough force to 49. In the figure given, the system is in equilibrium.
start it moving across a floor and the same force What is the maximum value W can have if the
continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction force on the 40 N block cannot exceed
and kinetic friction are 0.6 and 0.2 respectively. The 12.0 N ?
acceleration of the body is :- (g = 10 m/s 2)
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 30
0
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2

40 N
46. A 2.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal surface.

r W
A 6.0 N horizontal force and a vertical force P are
applied to the block as shown in figure. (1) 3.45 N (2) 6.92 N
The coefficient of friction for the block and surface is (3) 10.35 N (4) 12.32 N
0.4. The magnitude of friction force when P = 9N (g 50. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as
= 10 m/s2) shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the cart is µ. The acceleration
®
P a of the cart that will prevent the block from falling
statisfies :-
6.0 N a
C m
(1) 6.0 N (2) 6.4 N (3) 9.0 N (4) zero
47. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an

g mg
angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of (1) a < (2) a >
m m
static friction between the block and the plane is 0.8.
g g
If the frictional force on the block is 10 N, the mass (3) a > (4) a ³
mm m
of the block (in kg) is (take g = 10 m/s2) :-
51. Which one of the following statements is
(1) 2.0 (2) 4.0 (3) 1.6 (4) 2.5 incorrect ?
48. A block of mass m lying on a rough horizontal plane (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction
is acted upon by a horizontal force P and another (2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
force Q inclined at an angle q to the vertical. The proportional to normal reactions
block will remain in equilibrium if the coefficient (3) Frictional force opposes the relative motion
of friction between it and the surface is :- (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\04-NLM AND FRICTION.P65
force
52. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
Q q wedge ABC of inclination q as shown in the figure.
The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the
P right. The relation between a and q for the block
to remain stationary on the wedge is :-
A
m
P + Q sin q P cos q + Q
(1) (2) a
mg + Q cos q mg - Q sin q q
C B
g g
P + Q cos q P sin q + Q (1) a = (2) a =
(3) (4) cosec q sin q
mg + Q sin q mg - Q cos q
g g
(3) a = (4) a =
tanq cot q
68 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
53. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. 56. A block slides with constant velocity on a plane
inclined at an angle q. The same block is pushed
A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless
up the plane with an initial velocity v0. The distance
pulley at the edge of table and from its other end covered by the block before coming to rest is :-
another block B of mass m2 is suspended. The v 20 v 20

(1) (2)
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and 2g sin q 4g sin q
the table is µ k. When the block A is sliding on the

v 20 sin2 q v 20 sin2 q
(3) (4)
table, the tension in the string is :- 2g 4g
(m2 – mk m1 )g m1m2 (1 + m k )g
(1) (2) 57. m=0.3
(m1 + m2 ) (m1 + m2 ) 4kg
Smooth 10kg F
m1m2 (1 – m k )g (m2 + mk m1 )g
(3) (m1 + m2 ) (4) (m + m )
1 2 Find maximum force for which both the block will
54. Three blocks, of masses m1 = 2.0, m2 = 4.0 and move with same acceleration.
m3 = 6.0 kg are connected by strings on a (1) 12N (2) 24N
frictionless inclined plane of 600, as shown in the (3) 36N (4) 42N
figure. A force F = 120 N is applied upwards along 58. Find the minimum value of m that should placed on
the incline to the uppermost block, causing an 10kg. So that system remain at rest.
upward movement of the blocks. The connecting
cords are light. The values of tensions T1 and T2 in
the cords are m
m=0.5 10kg
F
m3
T2
m2
T1
m1
0
60 10kg
(1) T1 = 20 N, T2 = 60 N
(2) T1 = 60 N, T2 = 60 N (1) 5kg (2) 10kg
(3) T1 = 30 N, T2 = 50 N (3) 15kg (4) 20kg

(4) T1 = 20 N, T2 = 1 00 N 59. Find acceleration of block A and B. If m1 = 0.8 and
55. A given object takes n times as much time to slide m2 = 0.4
down a 450 rough incline as it takes to slide down a
perfectly smooth 450 incline. The coefficient of A
m1 =0.8
kinetic friction between the object and the incline is 5kg F=50N
given by : m2 =0.4 10kg B
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
(1) ç 1 - 2 ÷ (2) ç 2 ÷
è n ø è1 - n ø (1) 0 m/s2 and 0 m/s2
(2) 1 m/s2 and 1/2 m/s2
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö (3) 2 m/s2 and 0 m/s2
(3) ç1 - 2 ÷ (4) ç 2 ÷
è n ø è1 - n ø (4) 1/2m/s2 and 1/4 m/s2
E 69
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
60. Two blocks (A) 2 kg and (B) 5 kg rest one over the 61. Two blocks of masses M1 = 4 kg and M2 = 6 kg are
other on a smooth horizontal plane. The coefficient connected by a string of negligible mass passing
of static and dynamic friction between (A) and (B) is over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure
the same and equal to 0.60. The maximum below. The coefficient of friction betwen the block
horizontal force F that can be applied to (B) in order M1 and the horizontal surface is 0.4. When the
that both (A) and (B) do not have any relative system is released, the masses M1 and M2 start
motion is : accelerating. What additional mass m should be
placed over M1 so that the masses (M1 + m) slide
with a uniform speed ?
2 kg
m
5 kg
M1
(1) 42 N (2) 42 kgf

M2
(3) 5.4 kgf (4) 1.2 N
(1) 12 kg (2) 11 kg (3) 10 kg (4) 9 kg
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 3 3 1 3 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 1 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 4 2 3 1
Que. 61
Ans. 2
70 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
WORK, POWER AND ENERGY EXERCISE
1. A body of mass m is displaced from point A(3, 1, 2) 4. A force F = Kx2 acts on a particle at an angle of
to point B(4, 2, 1) under the effect of a force 60° with the x–axis. the work done in displacing the
r
( )
F = î + 2ˆj + 3kˆ N , calculate W.D. by the force. particle from x1 to x2 will be –
kx 2 k 2
(1) 57 J (2) 11 J (3) 0 (4) 22 J
(1)
2
(2)
2
e
x 2 - x12 j
2. Find work done by friction for displacement 'S' ?
k 3 k 3
F
(3)
6
e
x 2 - x13 j (4)
3
e
x 2 - x13 j
q
µK m S 5. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that
the position of the particle as a function of time is
(1) µ K(mg + Fsinq).S (2) –µ K(mg + Fsinq).S
given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in metres and
(3) µ K(mg – Fsinq).S (4) –µ K(mg – Fsinq).S
t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4
3. Calculate the work done for following F-d curves
second is :-
(1) 5.28 J (2) 450 mJ (3) 490 mJ (4) 530 mJ
100

r
F(N)
6. A force F = (3x2+2x–7) N acts on a 2 kg body as
4 6
(A) 2 d(m) (P) 100 J a result of which the body gets displaced from x=0
®
to x=5m. The work done by the force will be–
–50
(1) 35 J (2) 70 J (3) 115 J (4) 270 J
15 7. A person of mass m is standing on one end of a plank
10 of mass M and length L and floating in water. The
F(N)
person moves from one end to another and stops.
5
(B) (Q) 13.5 J Work done by normal force is –
1 2 3 4 5
d(m)
®
mMgL
(1) MgL (2) mgL (3) (4) 0
M+m
–15
8. A body of mass M tied to a string is lowered at a constant
acceleration of (g/4) through a vertical distance h. The
15 work done by the string will be..............
F(N)
5
3 1 -3 -1
4 5 (1) Mgh (2) Mgh (3) Mgh(4) Mgh Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\05-WORK POWER ENERGY.P65
1 2 3 d(m) 4 4 4 4
(C) ®
(R) 15 J
9. A body of mass 6 kg under a force which causes
–15
t2
displacement in it given ‘S = ’ metres where ‘t’ is
4
time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is :-
3
F(N) 2 (1) 12J (2) 9J (3) 6J (4) 3J
(D) 1
10. A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length l
1 2 3 4 5 6
d(m) at one end and by holding second end it is
® whirled into a horizontal circle, then work done
will be :–
(1) (A - P); (B - Q); (C - Q); (D - R)
F mv I 2
(2) G l J 2pl
(2) (A - P); (B - R); (C - R); (D - Q) (1) 0
H K
(3) (A - P); (B - P); (C - Q); (D - R)
F mv I 2
(4) G l J l
(4) (A - P); (B - P); (C - R); (D - Q) (3) (mg)·2pl
H K
84 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
11. As shown in the diagram a particle is to be carried 15. For the path PQR in a conservative force field the
from point A to C via paths (I), (II) and (III) in amounts work done in carrying a body from P to
gravitational field, then which of the following
Q and from Q to R are 8 Joule and 2 Joule
statements is correct :–
respectively. The work done in carrying the body
from P to R will be –
(1) 10 J (2) 6 J (3) 68 J (4) Zero

(1) Work done is same for all the paths
16. If K.E. increases by 4%. Then momentum will
(2) Work done is minimum for path (II)
increase by :-
(3) Work done is maximum for path (I) (1) 1.5% (2) 9%
(4) None of the above (3) 3% (4) 2%
12. A particle moves from a point ( -4iˆ + 6j)

ˆ to 1
17. The graph between E k and is
ˆ when a force of (2iˆ + 3j)
ˆ N is applied. p
(5ˆj + 3k)
(EK = kinetic energy and p = momentum) –
How much work has been done by the force ?
(1) 5 J (2) 2 J (3) 8 J (4) 11 J
13. The mass of a bucket full of water is 15 kg. It is being (1) (2)
pulled up from a 15m deep well. Due to a hole in
the bucket 6 kg water flows out of the bucket. The
work done in drawing the bucket out of the well will
be (g = 10m/s2)–
(1) 900 Joule (2) 1500 Joule (3) (4)

(3) 1800 Joule (4) 2100 Joule
14. A particle is moved from (0, 0) to (a, a) under

Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\05-WORK POWER ENERGY.P65
18. If the momentum of a body is increased n times,

r
a force F = (3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ from two paths. Path 1 is its kinetic energy increases.
OP and path 2 is OQP. Let W1 and W2 be the work (1) n times (2) 2n times
done by this force in these two paths. Then : (3) n times (4) n2 times
19. If K.E. body is increased by 100%. Then % change
y in 'P'.
P(a, a) (1) 50% (2) 41.4% (3) 10% (4) 20%
20. Velocity–time graph of a v (m/s)
45° particle of mass 2 kg 20

x
O Q moving in a straight line is
as shown in figure. Work
(1) W1 = W2 (2) W1 = 2W2 done by all the forces on t (s)
the particle is : 2
(3) W2 = 2W1 (4) W2 = 4W1
(1) 400 J (2) –400 J (3) –200 J (4) 200 J
E 85
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
21. The only force Fx acting on a 2.0 kg body as it (1) 1.96 mJ
moves along the x-axis varies as shown in the figure. (2) 3.92 mJ
The velocity of the body along positive x-axis at
x = 0 is 4 m/s. The kinetic energy of the body (3) 4.90 mJ
at x = 3.0 m is :- (4) 5.88 mJ
+4
(1) 4 J
Fx,(N) 1 2 3 4 5 26. A body is dropped from a height h. When loss in
(2) 8 J
0 its potential energy is U then its velocity is v. The
(3) 12 J x(m)
mass of the body is –
(4) 16 J –4
22. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on U2 2v 2v 2U

(1) (2) (3) 2 (4)
2v U U v2
2
a smooth table and of its length is hanging down
3
over the edge of the table. If g is the acceleration 27. A 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with an initial speed
due to gravity, the work done to pull the hanging 14 m/s and reaches a maximum height of 8.0 m.
part on the table is :- How much energy is dissipated by air drag acting
MgL MgL 2MgL on the ball during the ascent ?

(1) MgL (2) (3) (4)
3 9 9
(1) 19.6 joules (2) 4.9 joules
23. A particle in a certain conservative force field has (3) 10 joules (4) 9.8 joules
20xy
a potential energy given by U = . The force 28. A ball of mass 4 kg and another of mass 8 kg are
z
dropped together from a 100 feet tall building.
exerted on it is
After a fall of 50 feet each towards earth, their
æ 20y ö ˆ æ 20x ö ˆ æ 20xy ö ˆ respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of:-
(1) ç ÷i +ç ÷j+ç ÷k
è z ø è z ø è z2 ø (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2: 1
æ 20y ö ˆ æ 20x ö ˆ æ 20xy ö ˆ
(2) – ç ÷i -ç ÷j+ç ÷k
è z ø è z ø è z2 ø 29. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal ciricle
of radius R under a centripetal force equal to –
æ 20y ö ˆ æ 20x ö ˆ æ 20xy ö ˆ A
(3) – ç ÷i -ç ÷ j -ç ÷k (A = constant). The total energy of the particle
è z ø è z ø è z2 ø r2
is :- Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\05-WORK POWER ENERGY.P65
æ 20y ö ˆ æ 20x ö ˆ æ 20xy ö ˆ

(4) ç ÷i +ç ÷j -ç ÷k (Potential energy at very large distance is zero)
è z ø è z ø è z2 ø
24. If the potential energy of two molecules is give by, A A A A

(1) (2) - (3) (4) -
R R 2R 2R
A B
U= - then at equilibrium position, its
r12 r6 30. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling
potential energy is equal to : from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed
of 50 m/s. Take 'g' constant with a value
A2 B2 2B
(1) (2) - (3) (4) 3A 10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force
4B 4A A
and the (ii) resistive force of air is :-
25. A 2 g ball of glass is released from the edge of (1) (i) 1.25 J (ii) – 8.25 J
a hemispherical cup whose radius is 20 cm. How
(2) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
much work is done on the ball by the gravitational
(3) (i) 10 J (ii) – 8.75 J
force during the ball's motion to the bottom of the
cup ? (4) (i) – 10 J (ii) – 8.25 J
86 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
31. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s 36. Calculate power generated by tension in the string
on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a in first 4 seconds of motion :-
nearly weightless spring of force constant (1) 250 W
k=50N/m. The maximum compression of the
(2) 750 W a=
g
spring would be :- 2
(3) 1500 W
10
(4) 1000 W
37. A body of mass m starting from rest from origin
moves along x-axis with constant power (P).
(1) 0.12 m (2) 1.5 m Calculate relation between velocity and distance :-
(3) 0.5 m (4) 0.15 m (1) x µ v1/2 (2) x µ v 2

(3) x µ v (4) x µ v3
32. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on
38. A pump is used to deliver water at a certain rate
a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the
from a given pipe. To obtain n times water from
free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the
the same pipe in the same time, by what factor, the
spring, so that the spring is compressed by a distance
d. The net work done in the process is: force of the motor should be increased?
(1) n times (2) n2 times
1 2
(1) mg(h + d) + kd 1
2 (3) n3 times (4) times
n
1 2 39. Water is falling on the blades of a turbine at a rate
(2) mg(h + d) - kd
2 of 100 kg/s from a certain spring. If the height
1 2 of the spring be 100 metres, the power transferred
(3) mg(h - d) - kd
2 to the turbine will be :-
1 2 (1) 100 kW (2) 10 kW
(4) mg(h - d) + kd
(3) 1 kW (4) 1000 kW
2
r
33. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end 40. A constant force F is acting on a body of mass
of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling m with constant velocity nr as shown in the figure.
and has force constant value k. The mass is released The power P exerted is
from rest with the spring initially unstretched. the
F
maximum extension produced in the length of the
spring will be :- q v
(1) Mg/2k (2) Mg/k
(3) 2 Mg/k (4) 4 Mg/k

F cos q
(1) Fv cosq (2)
34. If a spring extends by x on loading then energy mg
stored by the spring is :- (T is tension in the spring,
Fmg cos q mg sin q
K = spring const.) (3) (4)
v F
T2 T2 2k 2T2 41. An engine pumps water continuously through a
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2x 2k T2 k hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and
m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What
35. Two men with weights in the ratio 2 : 3 run up a
is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to
staircase in times in the ratio 10 : 7. The ratio of
water :-
power of first to that of second is –
1 1
(1) m2v2 (2) mv3
2 2
7 15 10 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
15 7 7 10 (3) mv3 (4) mv2
2
E 87
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
42. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that 46. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which
delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as
starts from rest the force on the particle at time a function of time t is given by :-
t is :-
1 v 2 v 2
-1 -1 (1) 2 m t t (2) m t t
(1) mk t 2 (2) 2mk t 2
1 1
2
1 -1 mk - 12 1 æ mv ö 2 1 v2 2
(3) mk t 2 (4) t (3) ç t t (4) 2 m t 2 t
2 2 2 è t1 ÷ø 1
43. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest 47. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates
to v1 in time t1. The instantaneous power delivered so that the instantaneous power delivered to the
to the body as a function of time t is- car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous
acceleration of this car is proportional to :-
mv1 t mv12 t mv1 t2 mv12 t
(1) t (2) (3) (4) (1) t1/2 (2) t/ m
1 t12 t1 t1
44. A body of mass 4 kg is moving up an inclined plane (3) t2P0 (4) t–1/2
rising 1 in 40 with velocity 40 m/sec if efficiency 48. The heart of a man pumps 10 litres of blood through
is 50% the calculate power required. th e arteri es per minut e at a press ure of
(1) 38.4 W (2) 55 W 75 mm of mercury. If the density of mercury be 13.6
×103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2 then the power of heart
(3) 78.4 W (4) 108 W
in watt is:
45. A 1.0 hp motor pumps out water from a well of (1) 1.50 (2) 1.70 (3) 2.35 (4) 3.0
depth 20 m and fills a water tank of volume 2238
liters at a height of 10 m from the ground. The 49. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action
r
running time of the motor to fill the empty water of a time dependent force F = (2t î + 3t 2ˆj)N , where
tank is (g = 10ms–2)
î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What
(1) 5 minutes (2) 10 minutes power will be developed by the force at the
time t ?
(3) 15 minutes (4) 20 minutes
(1) (2t2 + 3t3)W (2) (2t2 + 4t4)W
(3) (2t3 + 3t4)W (4) (2t3 + 3t5)W
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 4 1 1 1 3 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 4 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 2 4 2 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49
Ans. 4 4 2 4
88 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
CIRCULAR MOTION EXERCISE
1. If the equation for the displacement of a particle 6. A particle moving along a circular path. The angular
moving on a circular path is given by (q) = 2t3+0.5, velocity, linear velocity, angular acceleration and
where q is in radian and t in second, then the angular centripetal acceleration of the particle at any instant
velocity of the particle after 2 s from its start is :- respectively are w r , r , r , r . Which of the
v a ac
(1) 8 rad/s (2) 12 rad/s following relation is/are correct :–
(3) 24 rad/s (4) 36 rad/s ® ®

(a) w ^ v
2. The angular speed of second hand in a mechanical
watch is :- ® ®
(b) w ^ a
p
(1) rad / s (2) 2p rad/s ® ®
30 (c) v ^ a c
® ®
60 (d) w ^ a c
(3) p rad/s (4) rad / s
p
(1) a,b,d (2) b,c,d
r
3. What is the value of linear velocity, if w = 3iˆ - 4ˆj + kˆ (3) a,b,c (4) a,c,d
r 7. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in

and r = 5iˆ - 6ˆj + 6kˆ :-
horizontal circles, the heavier one in a radius r and
(1) 6iˆ + 2jˆ - 3kˆ the lighter one in radius 2r. The tangential speed
of lighter stone is n times that of the value of heavier
(2) -18iˆ - 13jˆ + 2kˆ stone when they experience same centripetal forces.
The value of n is :
(3) 4iˆ - 13jˆ + 6kˆ (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
8. A particle is going in a spiral path as shown in figure,

(4) 6iˆ - 2jˆ + 8kˆ with constant speed.
4. A particle moves along a circle of radius R with

constant angular velocity w. Its displacement
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\06-CIRCULAR MOTION.P65
magnitude in time t is :-
(1) wt (2) 2R sin wt
wt
(3) 2R cos wt (4) 2R sin
2
5. A particle of mass 'm' describes a circle of radius
4 (1) The velocity of particle is constant

(r). The centripetal acceleration of the particle is .
r2
(2) The acceleration of particle is constant
The momentum of the particle :–
(3) The magnitude of acceleration is constant
2m 2m 4m 4m (4) The magnitude of acceleration is increasing

(1) (2) (3) (4)
r r r r continuously
96 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
9. A point mass m is suspended from a light thread of 12. A motor cyclist moving with a velocity of 72 km/h on
length l, fixed at O, is whirled in a horizontal circle at a flat road takes a turn on the road at a point where
constant speed as shown. From your point of view, the radius of curvature of the road is 20 m. The
stationary with respect to the mass, the forces on the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/sec 2. In order to
mass are avoid skidding, he must not bend with respect to the
vertical plane by an angle greater than :-
O
(1) q = tan–16 (2) q = tan–12
(3) q = tan 25.92
–1
(4) q = tan–14
13. A ball is suspended by thread of length l. What

minimum horizontal velocity has to be imparted to
l
the ball for it to reach the height of suspension ?
(1) (gl ) (2) (2gl ) (3) 2gl (4) gl

m
14. A tube of length L is filled completely with an
incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both
T T the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal
plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular
velocity w. The force exerted by the liquid at the other
F
end is :-
(1) (2)
MLw 2
(1) (2) MLw2
W W 2
T MLw 2 ML2w2
T (3) (4)
4 2
F F F 15. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius

(3) (4) 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A plumb bob
is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid
W
W rod of length 1 m. The angle made by the rod with
track is :-
10. A car is travelling with linear velocity v on a circular
(1) zero (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°
road of radius R. If its speed is decreasing at the rate
a m/s2, then the net acceleration will be :- 16. Figure shows a small mass connected to a string, which
v2 v2 is attached to a vertical post. If the mass is released

(1) +a (2) -a when the string is horizontal as shown, the magnitude
R R
of the total acceleration of the mass as a function of
2 2
æ v2 ö æ v2 ö the angle q is :-
çè R ÷ø + a çè R ÷ø - a
2 2
(3) (4)
11. One end of a string of length l is connected to a particle q

of mass m and the other to a small peg on a smooth
horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with
speed v, the net force on the particle (directed towards
the centre) is :-
(1) g sin q (2) g cos q
mv 2 mv 2
(1) T (2) T - (3) T + (4) zero (3) g 3 cos 2 q + 1 (4) g 3 sin2 q + 1
l l
E 97
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
17. A block follows the path as shown in the figure from 21. Keeping the banking angle of the road constant, the
height h. If radius of circular path is r, then relation maximum safe speed of passing vehicles is to be
that holds good to complete full circle is :- increased by 10%. The radius of curvature of the
road will have to be changed from 20 m to :-
(1) 16 m (2) 18 m
(3) 24.20 m (4) 30.5 m
h 22. Three identical particles are joined together by a

thread as shown in figure. All the three particles are
moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the
r outermost particle is v0, then the ratio of tensions in
the three sections of the string is :-
5r 5r
(1) h < (2) h >
2 2 O A B C
l l l
5r 5r
(3) h = (4) h ³ (1) 3 : 5 : 7 (2) 3 : 4 : 5
2 2
18. Radius of the curved road on national highway is (3) 7 : 11 : 6 (4) 3 : 5 : 6
R. Width of the road is b. The outer edge of the 23. A mass m is attached to the end of a rod of length
road is raised by h with respect to inner edge so l. The mass goes around a verticle circular path
that a car with velocity v can pass safely over it. The with the other end hinged at the centre. What should
value of h is :– be the minimum velocity of mass at the bottom of
the circle so that the mass completes the circle ?
v2 b v v2R v2 b
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Rg Rgb bg R (1) 4gl (2) 3gl (3) 5gl (4) gl
19. A boy holds a pendulum in his hand while standing 24. A stone is tied to a string of length ‘ l’ and is whirled
at the edge of a circular platform of radius r rotating in a vertical circle with the other end of the string as
at an angular speed w. The pendulum will hang at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is
an angle q with the vertical so that :– at its lowest position and has a speed ‘u’. The
w2 r 2 magnitude of the change in velocity as it reaches a
(1) tan q = 0 (2) tan q = position where the string is horizontal (g being
g
acceleration due to gravity) is :–
rw2 g
(3) tan q = (4) tan q =
g w2 r (1) u2 - gl (2) u – u2 - 2gl

20. A body tied to a string of length L is revolved in a
vertical circle with minimum velocity, when the body (3) 2gl (4) 2(u 2 - gl)
reaches the upper most point the string breaks and
25. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular
the body moves under the influence of the
velocity w. A coin is placed at a distance r from the
gravitational field of earth along a parabolic path.
centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction
The horizontal range AC of the body will be :–
is µ. The coin will revolve with the record if :-
(1) x = L
P v mg
(2) x = 2L (1) r ³ (2) r = mgw2
w2
m L
O
(3) x= 2 2L w2 mg
(3) r < (4) r £
x mg w2
A C
(4) x= 2L
98 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
26. A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track 29. In the given figure, a = 7.5 m/s2 represents the total
of radius R. If ms represents the static friction acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise
between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum direction in a circle of radius R = 5 m at a given
speed of the car in circular motion is given by :- instant of time. The speed of the particle is :-
(1) mRg / m s (2) ms Rg
°
30
R
O a
(3) ms mRg (4) Rg / m s
27. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius

6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What (1) 5.7 m/s (2) 6.2 m/s
is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic
(3) 4.5 m/s (4) 5.0 m/s
energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10–4
J by the end of the second revolution after the
beginning of the motion?
(1) 0.1 m/s2 (2) 0.15 m/s2
(3) 0.18 m/s2 (4) 0.2 m/s2
28. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The
road is banked at an angle q. The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the car and the road
is µ s. The minimum safe velocity on this road is :-
tan q + µ s tan q - µ s
(1) gR 2 (2) gR
1 - ms tan q 1 + m s tan q
g µ s + tan q g µ s + tan q
(3) R 1 -ms tan q (4) 2
1 +ms tan q
R
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 2 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 4 4 1 3 2 3 4 1 4 4 2 1 2 1
E 99
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
COLLISION AND CENTRE OF MASS EXERCISE
1. The coordinate of the centre of mass of a system as 3a ˆ 3a ˆ
(1) aiˆ + ajˆ (2) i+ j
shown in figure :– 2 2
4a ˆ
Y (3) 2aiˆ + j (4) 2aiˆ + 2ajˆ
3
solid M
sphere 5. Find the position of centre of mass from the base of
(0,a)
a uniform solid cone of height 20 cm.
hollow M M disk
sphere 20
(1) 5 cm (2) cm
(0,0) (a,0)
3
(3) 12 cm (4) lie outside the cone
æa ö æa aö 6. If the linear density of a rod of length L varies as

(1) ç , 0 ÷ (2) ç , ÷
è3 ø è2 2ø l = kx2, determine the position of its centre of mass
æa aö æ aö (where x is the distance from one of its ends and k is
(3) ç , ÷ (4) ç 0, ÷ constant) :-
è 3 3ø è 3ø
2. The centre of mass of a system of three particles L L 2L 3L
(1) (2) (3) (4)
of masses 1g, 2g and 3g is taken as the origin of 2 3 3 4
a coordinate system. The position vector of a fourth 7. The variation of density of a cylindrical thick and
particle of mass 4g such that the centre of mass
of the four particle system lies at the point (1, 2, x2
long rod, is r = r0 , then position of its centre
ˆ , where a is a constant. The value
3,) is a (iˆ + 2jˆ + 3k) L2
of a is :- of mass from x = 0 end is :-
10 2 (1) 2L/3 (2) L/2 (3) L/3 (4) 3L/4

5 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 2 5 8. Find the position of centre of mass from base for
3. A rigid body consists of a 5 kg mass connected to a a solid hemisphere of radius 24 cm,
10 kg mass by a massless rod. The 5 kg mass is (1) 4 cm (2) 9 cm (3) 8 cm (4) 12 cm
r
located at r1 = (5iˆ + 4j)
ˆ m and the 10 kg mass at
r 9. Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards
r2 = (4iˆ + 3j)
ˆ m. Find the coordinates of the centre
each other under the action of their internal
of mass. attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant,
æ 13 10 ö then the speed of centre of mass of the system will
(1) (11, 10) (2) ç , ÷
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\07-COM AND COLLISION.P65
è 3 3 ø be :-
æ 11 10 ö (1) v (2) 2v (3) Zero (4) 1.5 v
(3) ç 15 , 15 ÷ (4) (3, 4)
è ø
10. Two bodies of masses 15 kg and 5 kg are connected
4. Find the position of centre of mass of given figure :- to the ends of a mass less cord and allowed to move
y as shown in figure. The pulley is massless and friction
less. Calculate the acceleration of the centre of mass:-
square plate
(1) 5 m/s2
(2) –5 m/s2
2a s
5
(3) m/s2
2
2a 2s 3s 5kg
5
(4) - m/s2 15 kg
2
x
108 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
11. If the system is released, then the acceleration of 15. A uniforme sheet is shown below if the shaded area
the centre of mass of the system :- is removed find new position of centre of mass.
g a
(1) (1) + a
4 6
g a
(2) (2) -
2 6
m
3m 2a
(3) g a O
(4) 2g (3) +
3
12. A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of
mass as shown. Then :- a
(4) - 2a
3
16. A circular disc of radius R has a uniform thickness.
A circular hole of diameter equal to radius of disc has
been cut out as shown. Distance of centre of mass of
(1) The two pieces will have the same mass remaining disc from O is :-
(2) The bottom piece will have larger mass R
(3) The handle piece will have larger mass (1)
14
(4) Mass of handle piece is double the mass of
bottom piece R
(2) R
12
13. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii
R and 2R are released in free space with initial R
separation between their centres equal to 12R. If (3)
8
they attract each other due to gravitational force
only, then the distance covered by the smaller body R
(4)
before collision is :- 6
(1) 9.5R (2) 7.5R 17. A circular plate of uniform thickness has a diameter
(3) 4.5R (4) 3.5R 56 cm. A circular
14. A uniform solid sphere as shown below has a portion of diameter 42
spherical hole in it. Find the position of its centre of cm is removed from one
28 cm
mass. edge as shown in the 21 cm
figure. The centre of O2 O O1

y
mass of the remaining

b
portion from the centre
of plate will be :
(1) 5 cm (2) 7 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 11 cm
a
x
18. A 1 kg stationary bomb is exploded in three parts
having mass ratio 1 : 1 : 2. Parts having same mass
R
move in perpendicular directions with velocity 30
z m/s, then the velocity of bigger part will be :-
-a 3 b2 -a 3 b 10
(1) (2)
R 3 - a3 R 3 - a3 (1) 3 2 m/s (2) m/s
2
15
-a 3 b 3 - b3 a (3) 15 2 m/s (4) m/s
(3) (4) 2
R 3 - a3 R 3 - a3
E 109
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
19. A big ball of mass M, moving with velocity u strikes
æ m ö æ m+M ö
a small ball of mass m, which is at rest. Finally small (1) ç ÷v (2) ç ÷v
ball attains velocity u and big ball v. What is the èM–mø è M ø
value of v :-
æ M–m ö æ m ö
M-m m (3) ç ÷v (4) ç ÷v
(1) u (2) u è M ø è m+M ø
M M+m
2m M
(3) (4) v 25. A bullet of mass 10g moving horizontally with a
M+m M+m
velocity of 500 m/s strikes a wooden block of mass
20. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments
which fly off with velocities 8 : 1. The ratio of radii 2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string
of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of
of the fragments is :-
the block is found to rise a vertical distance of
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
horizontally from the block will be :-
21. A person of mass m is standing on one end of a plank
(1) 220 m/s (2) 200 m/s
of mass M and length L and floating in water. The
person moves from one end to another and stops. (3) 160 m/s (4) 120 m/s
The displacement of the plank is –
26. A 10 gm lump of clay, moving with a velocity of
Lm 10 cm/s towards east, collides head–on with another
(1) (2) Lm(M + m)
(m + M) 20 gm lump of clay moving with 15cm/s towards
west. After collision, the two lumps stick together.
(M + m ) LM The velocity of the compound lump will be –
(3) (4)
Lm (m + M) (1) 5 cm/s towards east
(2) 5 cm/s towards west
22. Two man of mass 50 kg and 100 kg are standing on (3) 6.6 cm/s towards east
a 150 kg plank. Find the displacement of plank if (4) 6.6 cm/s towards west
both interchange their positions on 10 m long plank.
27. Two identical balls, one moves with 6 m/s and
50 kg 100 kg
second is at rest, collides elastically. After collision
velocity of second and first ball will be :
(1) 6m/s, 6m/s (2) 12m/s, 12m/s
Plank
(3) 6m/s, 0m/s (4) 0m/s, 6m/s
5 28. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of
(1) 5m, Right (2) m , Right Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\07-COM AND COLLISION.P65
3 5 m/s and –3 m/s respectively collide elastically in
(3) 3m, Left (4) 0 one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the
23. A bullet of mass m is fired from a gun of mass M. collision respectively will be :-
The recoiling gun compresses a spring of force (1) –3 m/s and 5 m/s
constant k by a distance d. Then the velocity of the
(2) 3 m/s and 5 m/s
bullet is :-
(3) –5 m/s and 3 m/s
d
(1) kd M/m (2) km
M (4) 5 m/s and –3 m/s
d kM
(3) kM (4) d 29. A 1 Kg ball falls from a height of 25 cm and
m m
rebounds upto a height of 16 cm. The co–efficient
24. A bullet of mass m is fired into a large block of wood
of restitution is –
of mass M with velocity v. The final velocity of the
(1) 0·8 (2) 0·32 (3) 0·40 (4) 0·56
system is :-
110 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
30. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If 60% of 36. If two masses m1 and m2 collide, the ratio of the
its energy is lost on collision with the earth then changes in their respective velocities is proportional
after collision the ball will rebound to a height of– to :-
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m
m1 m1
(3) 4 m (4) 6 m (1) m (2)
2 m2
31. Two balls of equal masses undergo a head-on collision
with speeds 6 m/s moving in opposite direction. If m2 m2
(3) m (4) m1
1
the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, find the speed of
each ball after impact in m/s. 37. In the diagrams given below the horizontal line
(1) 3 (2) 6 represents the path of a ball coming from left and
(3) 2 (4) 4 hitting another ball which is initially at rest. The other
32. Identify the wrong statement. two lines represents the paths of the two balls after
the collision. Which of the diagram shows a physically
(1) A body can have momentum without energy
impossible situation ?
(2) A body can have energy without momentum
(3) The momentum is conserved in an elastic
(1)
collision only.
(4) Kinetic energy is not conserved in an inelastic
collision
(2)
33. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity
collides with another stationary sphere of same
(3)
mass. The ratio of velocities of two spheres after
collision will be, if the co-efficient of restitution is e-
(4)
1- e e -1
(1) (2) 38. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on
1+ e e +1
a plane, where the acceleration due to gravity is
1+ e e +1 not shown. On bouncing it rises to 1.8 m. The ball
(3) (4)
1- e e -1 loses its velocity on bouncing by a factor of :-
34. A ball is dropped from height h on the ground level. 16 2
(1) (2)
If the coefficient of restitution is e then the height 25 5
upto which the ball will go after nth jump will be –
3 9
h e 2n (3) (4)
5 25
(1) (2)
e2n h
39. Two masses m1 = 2kg and m2 = 5kg are moving
(3) he n
(4) he 2n on a frictionless surface with velocities 10m/s
35. A particle falls from a height ‘h’ upon a fixed and 3 m/s respectively. m2 is ahead of m 1. An
horizontal plane and rebounds. If ‘e’ is the coefficient ideal spring of spring constant k = 1120 N/m is
of restitution the total distance travelled before attached on the back side of m2. The maximum
rebounding has stopped is :- compression of the spring will be :-
F1+ e I2 F1- e I2
(1) h GH 1 - e JK
2 (2) h GH 1 + e JK
2
F
h 1 - e2 I F
h 1 + e2 I (1) 0·51 m (2) 0·062 m
(3) 2 GH
1 + e2
JK (4) 2 GH
1 - e2
JK (3) 0·25 m (4) 0·72 m
E 111
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
40. Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m 2 41. A ball moving with velocity of 9m/s collides with
respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is another similar stationary ball. After the collision
moving with velocity 2v along x-axis. After collision both the balls move in directions making an angle
B has a velocity v in a direction perpendicular to the of 30° with the initial direction. After the collision
original direction. The mass A moves after collision their speed will be –
in the direction.
5
(1) q = tan–1(1/2) to the x-axis (1) m/s (2) 3 3 m/s
3
(2) q = tan–1(–1/2) to the x-axis
(3) same as that of B
10
(4) opposite to that of B (3) m/s (4) 52 m/s
3
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 3 1 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 4 1 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. 1 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 3 1,2 2
112 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
ROTATIONAL MOTION EXERCISE
1. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its 5. Four point masses (each of mass m) are arranged
own axis is the same as its moment of inertia about in the X-Y plane. The moment of inertia of this
an axis passing through its centre of gravity and array of masses about Y-axis is
perpendicular to its length. The relation between (1) ma2 Y
a (a,a)
its length L and radius R is
(2) 2ma 2
a (2a,0)
O a X
(1) L = 2 R (2) L = 3 R (3) 4ma 2
(0,0) a
(4) 6ma2 (a,–a)
(3) L = 3R (4) L = R
6. If the radius of gyration of a solid disc of mass 10 kg
2. Four similar point masses (each of mass m) are about an axis is 0.20 m, then the moment of inertia
placed on the circumference of a disc of mass M of the disc about that axis is
and radius R. The M.I. of the system about the (1) 0.4 kg m2 (2) 0.8 kg m2
normal axis through the centre O will be:-
(3) 1.6 kg m2 (4) 1 kg m2
7. Two rods each of mass m and length l are joined

O at the centre to form a cross. The moment of inertia
of this cross about an axis passing through the
common centre of the rods and perpendicular to
the plane formed by them, is :–
1
(1) MR2 + 4mR2 (2) MR2 + 4mR2 ml2 ml2 ml2 ml2
2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
12 6 3 2
8
(3) MR2 + mR2 (4) none of these 8. Three particles, each of mass m are situated at the
5
vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l
3. The axis X and Z in the plane of a disc are mutually (as shown in the figure).
perpendicular and Y-axis is perpendicular to the The moment of inertia of the system about a line
plane of the disc. If the moment of inertia of the AX perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC,
body about X and Y axes is respectively 80 kg will be :-
m2 and 100 kg m2 then M.I. about Z-axis in will X m C
(1) 2 ml2
be :-
l l
(1) 180 kg m2 (2) 40 kg m2 5
(2) ml2
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\08-ROTATIONAL MOTION.P65
(3) 20 kg m2 (4) Zero 4

l m
3 m
4. The curve for the moment of inertia of a sphere (3) ml2 A B
2
of constant mass M versus its radius will be :-
3
(4) ml2
I
4
I
9. Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length
(1) (2)
l, form a square frame. Moment of inertia of this
R R frame about an axis through the centre of the square
and perpendicular to its plane is :-
I 1 4
(3) (4) I
(1) Ml2 (2) Ml2
3 3
2 13
R R (3) Ml2 (4) Ml2
3 3
128 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
10. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and 14. A particle performs uniform circular motion with
radius r are placed as shown in figure. Consider an an angular momentum L. If the frequency of
axis XX' which is touching to two shells and passing
particle's motion is doubled and its kinetic energy
through diameter of third shell. Moment of inertia
halved, the angular momentum becomes
of the system consisting of these three spherical
L L
shells about XX' axis is :- (1) 2L (2) 4L (3) (4)
2 4
(1) 3 mr2 X 15. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite
16 ends of a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass.
(2) mr 2 The rod is to be set rotating about an axis
5
perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this
(3) 4 mr2 rod through which the axis should pass so that the
X' work required to set the rod rotating with angular
11 2
(4) mr velocity w0 is minimum, is given by :-
5
11. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same m2 L
(1) x = m + m w0
mass have the same M.I. about their respective 1 2
diameters. The ratio of their radii will be :- m1L

(2) x = m + m m1 P m2
1 2
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3: 5 x (L–x)
m1
(3) x = m L
(3) 5: 3 (4) 5 : 4 2
m2
12. The moment of inertia of a ring of mass M and (4) x = m L
1
radius R about PQ axis will be :- r
16. If F is the force acting on a particle having position
r r
D P vector r and t be the torque of this force about the
M origin, then :-
R r r r r
O O' (1) r · t =0 and F · t ¹ 0
r r r r
(2) r · t ¹ 0 and F · t =0
D' Q
r r r r
(3) r · t >0 and F · t < 0
MR 2 r r r r
(1) MR2 (2) (4) r · t = 0 and F · t = 0
2
r
17. A force F = 2iˆ - 3kˆ acts o n a part icle at
3 r r
(3) MR2 (4) 2MR2 r = 0.5ˆj - 2kˆ . The torque t acting on the particle
2
relative to a point with co-ordinat es
13. In the rectangular lamina shown in the figure, (2.0 m, 0, –3.0 m) is
AB = BC/2. The moment of inertia of the lamina
ˆ -m
(1) ( -3.0iˆ - 4.5ˆj - k)N
is minimum along the axis passing through :-
(1) AB A E D ˆ -m
(2) (3iˆ + 6jˆ - k)N
(2) BC
F H
O ˆ -m
(3) ( -20iˆ + 4.0ˆj + k)N
(3) EG
B G C
(4) FH ˆ -m
(4) ( -1.5iˆ - 4.0jˆ - k)N
E 129
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
18. A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free to 22. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel
rotate about A. The rod is released from rest in the changes its angular momentum from A0 to 4 A0
horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia in 4 seconds. The magnitude of this torque is :–
ml2
of the rod about A is , the initial angular 3A 0
3 (1) (2) A0 (3) 4A0 (4) 12 A0
4
acceleration of the rod will be :–
23. If a ladder is not in balance against a smooth
l vertical wall, then it can be made in balance by :-
A B
(1) Decreasing the length of ladder
(2) Increasing the length of ladder
3g 2g l 3
(1) (2) (3) mg (4) gl (3) Increasing the angle of inclination
2l 3l 2 2
(4) Decreasing the angle of inclination
19. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is
24. The figure shows a horizontal block of mass M
free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless
suspended by two wires A and B. The centre of
string is wound round the cylinder with one end
mass of the block is closer to B than A. (i) Is the
attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in
magnitude of the torque due to wire A is greater,
the string required to produce an angular
less or equal to that due to B w.r.t. centre of mass
acceleration of 2 revolutions s–2 is :-
? (ii) Which wire A or B exerts more force on the
(1) 25 N (2) 50 N (3) 78.5 N (4) 157 N block ?
20. A ladder rests against a frictionless vertical wall, with

its upper end 6m above the ground and the lower A B
end 4m away from the wall. The weight of the ladder
is 500 N and its centre of gravity at (1/3)rd distance
from the lower end. Wall’s reaction will be, in N :- (1) (i) greater (ii) B (2) (i) equal (ii) B
(3) (i) less (ii) A (4) (i) greater (ii) A
(1) 111 N (2) 333 N (3) 222 N (4) 129 N
25. If a street light of mass M is suspended from the end
21. In the fig. (a) half of the meter scale is made of of uniform rod of length L in the different possible
wood while the other half of steel. The wooden patterns as shown in figure, then :-
part is pivoted at O. A force F is applied at the
end of steel part. In figure (b) the steel part is
pivoted at O' and the same force is applied at the
wooden end (In horizontal plane) :- Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\08-ROTATIONAL MOTION.P65
wood steel steel wood

(1) Pattern C is least sturdy
O P O' P' (2) Pattern B is least sturdy
(a) F (b) F (3) Pattern A is least sturdy
(4) All will have same sturdiness
(1) more angular acceleration will be produced 26. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg–m2 about
in (a) its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about
(2) more angular acceleration will be produced the axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s
in (b) rotation in one minute would be :–
(3) same angular acceleration will be produced p p
(1) N–m (2) N–m
in both conditions 12 15
(4) information is incomplete p 2p
(3) N–m (4) N–m
18 15
130 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
27. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife 32. A small steel sphere of mass m is tied to a string
edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal of length r and is whirled in a horizontal circle with
position. The knives are at a distance d from each a uniform angular velocity 3w. The string is suddenly
other. The centre of mass of the rod is at pulled, so that radius of the circle is halved. The new
distance x from A. The normal reaction on A is :-
angular velocity will be
Wd W(d – x) (1) 3w (2) 6w (3) 8w (4) 12w
(1) (2)
x x
33. A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless
W(d – x) Wx vertical axle. Its radius R = 2m and its moment of
(3) (4) inertia about the axle is 200 kg m2. It is initially at
d d
rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the
28. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free
platform and begins to walk along the edge at the
to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its
speed of 1 ms–1 relative to the ground.Time taken
plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected
by the man to complete one revolution is :-
to a torque which produces a constant angular
acceleration of 2.0 rad/s2. Its net acceleration in m/
p 3p
s2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately : (1) 2p s (2) s (3) p s (4) s
2 2
(1) 8.0 (2) 7.0 (3) 6.0 (4) 3.0
29. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass
34. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity
3 kg and radius 50 cm. What is the angular
v making an angle 45° with the horizontal. The
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with
magnitude of the angular momentum of the
a force of 30 N ?
projectile about the point of projection when the
(1) 0.20 rad/s2 (2) 20 rad/s2 particle is at its maximum height h, is :
2 2
(3) 4 m/s (4) 20 m/s
30. A rotating table completes one rotation in 2 sec. mv3

and its moment of inertia is 100 kg-m2. A person (1) zero (2)
4 2g
of 50 kg. mass is standing at the centre of the
rotating table. If the person moves 2m. from the
centre, the angular velocity of the rotating table
will be: mv 3
(3) (4) m2 2gh3
2g
p p
(1) rad/sec (2) rad/sec

3 2
35. The graph between the angular momentum J and
2p angular velocity w for a body will be :-
(3) rad/sec (4) 2p rad/sec
3
31. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius ‘r’ is

J J
rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity (1) (2)
w. Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently
w w
to the opposite ends of two perpendicular diameters
of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will be:–
Mw Mw
(1) (2) J J
4m M + 4m (3) (4)
(M + 4m)w (M + 4m)w
(3) (4) w w
M M + 4m
E 131
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
36. A particle of mass m is rotating in a plane in a 41. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry
circular path of radius r. Its angular momentum is axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is
L. The centripetal force acting on the particle is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the
following physical quantities would remain constant
L2 L2 m L2 L2
(1) (2) (3) (4) for the sphere ?
mr r mr 2 mr 3
(1) Angular velocity
37. If the earth loses its atmosphere sudeenly, then the
duration of day will :- (2) Moment of inertia
(1) increase (3) Rotational kinetic energy
(2) decrease
(4) Angular momentum
(3) remain unchanged
(4) nothing can be definitely said
42. The rotational kinetic energy of a body is Krot and
38. An ant is sitting at the edge of a rotating disc. If
its moment of inertia is I. The angular momentum
the ant reaches the other end, after moving along
of body is
the diameter, the angular velocity of the disc will:-
(1) remain constant (1) IKrot (2) 2 IK rot
(2) first decreases and then increases
(3) first increases, then decrease (3) 2IK rot (4) 2IKrot
(4) Increase continuously
43. A thin rod of length L is suspended from one end
39. A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about its axis
and rotated with n rotations per second. The
perpendicular to its plane and passing through its
rotational kinetic energy of the rod will be :
centre is placed over another disc of moment of inertia
I1 rotating with an angular velocity w about the same 1
(1) 2mL2p2n2 (2) mL2p2n2
axis. The final angular velocity of the combination 2
of discs is :–
2 1
Iw (3) mL2p2n2 (4) mL2p2n2
(1) w (2) 1 3 6
I1 + I2
44. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m
(I + I ) w I2 w
(3) 1 2 (4) with moments of inertia IA and IB (IB > IA) have equal
I1 I1 + I2
kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their
40. A small mass attached to a string rotates on a
frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in the angular momenta respectively, then :- Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\08-ROTATIONAL MOTION.P65
string is decreased by relasing the string causing

(1) LB > LA (2) LA > LB
the radius of the circular motion to increase by a
factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will :- LB
(3) LA = (4) LA = 2LB
2
45. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating

r
about its diameter. A disc of the same mass and same
radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with
an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio
(1) Increase by a factor of 2 of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere / Edisc)

will be :-
(2) Remain constant
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 3 : 1
(3) Increase by a factor of 2
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 5
(4) Decrease by a factor of 4
132 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
46. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about 51. A body of mass m slides down an inclined plane
their regular axis passing through centre and and reaches the bottom with a velocity v. If the same
perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular mass were in the form of a ring which rolls down
velocities w1 and w2 . They are brought into contact this incline, the velocity of the ring at the bottom
face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The would have been
expression for loss of energy during this process is:-
v æ 2ö
1 (1) v (2) v 2 (3) (4) çç 5 ÷÷ v
(1) I ( w1 - w2 )
2
(2) I ( w1 - w2 )
2 2 è ø
4
52. A ring is rolling without slipping. Its energy of
translation is E. Its total kinetic energy will be :-
I 1
(3) ( w1 - w2 )2 (4) I ( w1 + w2 )
2
(1) E (2) 2E (3) 3E (4) 4E
8 2
53. If rotational kinetic energy is 50% of total kinetic
47. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular energy then the body will be :–
disk) and C = (a circular ring), each have the same (1) ring (2) cylinder
mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same (3) hollow sphere (4) solid sphere
angular speed w about their own symmetry axes. 54. A disc rolls down a plane of length L and inclined
at angle q, without slipping. Its velocity on reaching
The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to
the bottom will be :-
rest, would satisfy the relation :-
(1) WC > WB > WA (2) WA > WB > WC 4gL sin q 2gL sin q
(1) (2)
(3) WB > WA > WC (4) WA > WC > WB 3 3
48. A disc is rolling on an inclined plane without slipping 10gL sin q

then what fraction of its total energy will be in form (3) (4) 4gL sin q
7
of rotational kinetic energy :–
55. A ring takes time t1 and t2 for sliding down and
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 rolling down an inclined plane of length L
respectively for reaching the bottom. The ratio of
(3) 2 : 7 (4) 2 : 5
t1 and t2 is :-
49. A wheel is rolling along the ground with a speed of
5 ms–1. The magnitude of the linear velocity of the (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
points at the extermities of the horizontal diameter (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

of the wheel is equal to 56. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without
slipping down an inclined plane of length L and height

(1) 5 10 ms -1 (2) 5 3 ms -1 h. What is the speed of its centre of mass when the
cylinder reaches its bottom :–
(3) 5 2 ms -1 (4) 5 ms–1 3
(1) 2 gh (2) gh
4
50. Calculate the ratio of the times taken by a uniform 4
(3) gh (4) 4 gh
solid sphere and a disc of the same mass and the 3
same diameter to roll down through the same 57. A sphere and a disc of same radii and mass are
distance from rest on a inclined plane. rolling on an inclined plane without slipping. as &
ad are acceleration and g is acceleration due to
(1) 15 : 14 (2) 15 : 14
gravity. Then which statement is correct ?
(3) 152 : 142 (4) 14 : 15 (1) as > ad > g (2) g > as > ad
(3) as > g > ad (4) ad > as > g
E 133
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
58. A disc of mass M and radius R rolls on a horizontal 59. A solid cylinder of mass 12 kg is rolling on a rough
surface and then rolls up an inclined plane as shown horizontal surface with velocity 4 ms–1. It collides with
in the figure. If the velocity of the disc is v, the height a horizontal spring of force constant 200 Nm–1. The
to which the disc will rise will be :- maximum compression produced in the spring will
be :-
(1) 0.7 m (2) 0.4 m
(3) 0.6 m (4) 1.2 m

h
v 60. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different
masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same
altitude and length. Which one of the two objects
3v 2 3v 2 gets to the bottom of the plane first ?

(1) (2) (1) Disk
2g 4g
(2) Sphere
v2 v2 (3) Both reach at the same time

(3) (4)
4g 2g (4) Depends on their masses
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 3 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 1 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 1 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 1 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 2 4 2
134 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
GRAVITATION EXERCISE
1. Three identical point masses, each of mass 1 kg lie 6. Mars has a diameter of approximately 0.5 of
in the x–y plane at points (0,0) (0, 0.2m) and (0.2m, that of earth, and mass of 0.1 of that of earth.
0) respectively. The gravitational force on the mass The surface gravitational field strength on mars
as compared to that on earth is a factor of –
at the origin is :–
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
(1)1.67 x 10–11 (iˆ + ˆj) N
(3) 2.0 (4) 0.4
(2) 3.34 x 10–10 (iˆ + ˆj) N
(3) 1.67 x 10–9 (iˆ + ˆj) N 7. A stone dropped from a height 'h' reaches the
(4) 3.34 x 10–10 (iˆ – ˆj) N Earth's surface in 1 s. If the same stone is taken to
Moon and dropped freely from the same height then
2. Four particles of masses m, 2m, 3m and 4m are
it will reach the surface of the Moon in a time (The
kept in sequence at the corners of a square of side
a. The magnitude of gravitational force acting on 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times that of Earth) :–
a particle of mass m placed at the centre of the (1) 6 seconds (2) 9 seconds
square will be : (3) 3 seconds (4) 6 seconds
24m2 G 6m2 G 8. At which height from the earth's surface does the
(1) (2)
a2 a2 acceleration due to gravity decrease by 75% of its
value at earth's surface ?
4 2Gm 2
(1) 6400 Km (2) 3200 Km
(3) (4) Zero
a2 (3) 1600 Km (4) 12800 Km
9. Suppose the acceleration due to gravity at the

3. During the journey of space ship from earth to moon
earth's surface is 10m/s2 and at the surface of mars
and back, the maximum fuel is consumed :-
it is 4.0 m/s2. A 60kg passenger goes from the earth
(1) Against the gravitation of earth in return journey to the mars in a spaceship moving with a constant
velocity. Neglect all other objects in the sky. Which
(2) Against the gravitation of earth in onward journey
part of figure best represent the weight (Net
(3) Against the gravitation of moon while reaching gravitational force) of the passenger as a function
the moon of time :
(4) None of the above Weight (N)
600
4. The mass of the moon is 1% of mass of the earth.
The ratio of gravitational pull of earth on moon to A
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\09-GRAVITATION.P65
400
that of moon on earth will be : B
240
C
200
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 10 (3) 1 : 100 (4) 2 : 1
5. If the distance between the centres of earth and D Time
moon is D and mass of earth is 81 times that of

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
moon. At what distance from the centre of earth
gravitational field will be zero : 10. Acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface
is 'g' ms–2. Find the effective value of acceleration
D 2D
(1) (2) due to gravity at a height of 32 km from sea
2 3
level : (Re = 6400 Km)
(1) 0.5 g ms–2 (2) 0.99 g ms–2
4D 9D
(3) (4) (3) 1.01 g ms –2
(4) 0.90 g ms–2
5 10
E 141
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
11. The dependence of acceleration due to gravity 'g' 16. When the radius of earth is reduced by 1% without
on the distance 'r' from the centre of the earth, changing the mass, then the acceleration due to
assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform gravity will
density, is as shown in figure below :- (1) increase by 2% (2) decrease by 1.5%
(3) increase by 1% (4) decrease by 1%
g g
17. Weight of a body of mass m decreases by 1% when
it is raised to height h above the earth's surface. If
(a) (b)
the body is taken to a depth h in a mine, then in
r r its weight will
R R
(1) decrease by 0.5% (2) decrease by 2%
g g (3) increase by 0.5% (4) increase by 1%
18. Read the following statements :
(c) (d) S1 : An object shall weigh more at pole than at
r r equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
R R
S2 : It shall weigh the same at pole and equator
The correct figure is :-
when weighed by using a physical balance.
(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)
S3 : It shall weigh the same at pole and equator when
12. One can easily “weigh the earth” by calculating the
weighed by using a spring balance.
mass of earth using the formula (in usual notation)
S4 : It shall weigh more at the pole than at equator
G 2 g 2 g G 3 when weighed using a spring balance.
(1) RE (2) RE (3) RE (4) RE
g G G g
Which of the above statements is /are correct ?
13. The value of 'g' reduces to half of its value at surface
(1) S1 and S2 (2) S1 and S4
of earth at a height 'h', then :-
(3) S2 and S3 (4) S2 and S4.
(1) h = R (2) h = 2R
19. A spherical planet has a mass Mp and diameter Dp.
(3) h = ( 2 +1 R ) (4) h = ( 2 -1 R) A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface
14. If the earth stops rotating suddenly,the value of g
of this planet will experience an aceleration due to
at a place other than poles would :-
gravity, equal to :-
(1) Decrease
(2) Remain constant (1) GMp/DP2 (2) 4GMpm/Dp2
(3) Increase (3) 4GMp/Dp2 (4) GMpm/ Dp2
(4) Increase or decrease depending on the position 20. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius
of earth in the orbit round the sun R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is
shown by :-
15. Gravitation on moon is 1/6th of that on earth. When
a balloon filled with hydrogen is released on moon
then, this :- g g
æ gö
(1) Will rise with an acceleration less then ç ÷ (1) (2)
è6ø
O R r O R r
ægö
(2) Will rise with acceleration ç ÷
è6ø
æ 5g ö
(3) Will fall down with an acceleration less than ç ÷ g g
è 6 ø
ægö (3) (4)
(4) Will fall down with acceleration ç ÷
è6ø O r O r
R R
142 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
21. If the mass of the Earth were six times smaller and 25. At what height from the surface of earth the
the universal gravitational constant were six time gravitation potential and the value of g are
larger in magnitude, which of the following is not –5.4 × 107 J/kg2 and 6.0 m/s 2 respectively ?
correct ? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km :
(1) Raindrops will fall faster (1) 1600 km (2) 2600 km
(3) 1400 km (4) 2000 km
(2) Walking on the ground would become more
26. If Me is the mass of earth and Mm is the mass of
difficult
moon (Me = 81 Mm). The potential energy of an
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth object of mass m situated at a distance R from the
would decrease centre of earth and r from the centre of moon, will
(4) 'g' on the Earth will not change be :-
22. The intensity of gravitational field at a point situated æ R ö 1 æ 81 1 ö
at a distance 8000 km from the centre of Earth is (1) -GmM m ç + r÷ 2 (2) -GmM e ç + ÷
è 81 øR è r Rø
6.0 N/kg. The gravitational potential at that point
in N-m/kg will be :– æ 81 1 ö æ 81 1 ö
(3) -GmM m ç + ÷ (4) GmM m ç - ÷
(1) 6 (2) 4.8 × 107 è R rø è R rø
(3) 8 × 105 (4) 4.8 × 102 27. A body of mass m is situated at a distance 4Re above
23. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a the Earth's surface, where Re is the radius of Earth.
spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The What minimum energy should be given to the body
a so that it may escape ?
gravitational potential at a point situated at (1) mgRe (2) 2mgRe
2
distance from the centre, will be :- mgR e mgR e
(3) (4)
5 16
4GM 3GM 2GM GM
(1) - (2) - (3) - (4) - 28. The ratio of radii of two satellites is p and the ratio
a a a a
of their acceleration due to gravity is q. The ratio
24. Which of the following curve expresses the variation
of their escape velocities will be :
of gravitational potential with distance for a hollow
sphere of radius R :
1 1
æqö 2
æpö 2
(1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷ (3) pq (4) pq
èpø èqø
R
29. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field
V
(1) is so strong that even light cannot escape from it.
r To wha t approximate radius wou ld e arth
(mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be compressed to
R r be a black hole ?
(1) 10–9 m (2) 10–6 m (3) 10–2 m (4) 100 m

(2) 30. A particle falls on earth :
V
(i) from infinity, (ii) from a height 10 times the radius
of earth. The ratio of the velocities gained on
R r reaching at the earth's surface is :
(1) 11 : 10 (2) 10 : 11
(3) V
(3) 10 : 11 (4) 11 : 10
31. Escape velocity of a body from earth is 11.2 km/s.
Escape velocity, when thrown at an angle of 45°
R
from horizontal will be :-
r (1) 11.2 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s
(4) V
(3) 11.2/ 2 km/s (4) 11.2 2 km/s
E 143
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
32. The escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s the 38. The relay satellite transmits the television
mass of another planet is 100 times of mass of earth programme continuously from one part of the world
and its radius is 4 times the radius of earth. The to another because its :
(1) Period is greater than the period of rotation of
escape velocity for the planet is :-
the earth about its axis
(1) 56.0 km/s (2) 280 km/s (2) Period is less than the period of rotation of the
(3) 112 km/s (4) 11.2 km/s earth about its axis
(3) Period is equal to the period of rotation of the
33. A projectile is fired verticaly upward from the sur-
earth about its axis
face of earth with a velocity KVe, where Ve is the (4) Mass is less than the mass of earth
escape velocity and K < 1. Neglecting air resistance, 39. Two identical satellites are at the heights R and 7R
the maximum height to which it will rise measured from the earth's surface. Then which of the following
from the centre of the earth is : (Where are R = radius statement is incorrect :–
of earth) :- (R = Radius of the earth)
(1) Ratio of total energy of both is 5
R R
(1) (2) (2) Ratio of kinetic energy of both is 4
1 - K2 K2
(3) Ratio of potential energy of both 4
(4) Ratio of total energy of both is 4
1 - K2 K2
(3) (4) 40. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are moving in
R R
the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass
of S2. Which one of the following statements is true ?
34. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape
velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean (1) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are
density are thrice as that of earth is :- equal
(2) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 3 (3) The potential energies of earth and satellite in
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : the two cases are equal
3
(4) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
35. If the gravitational force were to vary inversely as 41. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and
mth power of the distance, then the time period of B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the
a planet in circular orbit of radius r around the Sun speed of satellite A is 3v, then the speed of satellite
B will be :-
will be proportional to :-
(1) 3v/2 (2) 3v/4 (3) 6v (4) 12v
(1) r–3m/2 (2) r3m/2 42. A remote - sensing satellite of earth revolves in a
(3) r m+1/2
(4) r (m+1)/2 circular orbit at a height of 0.25 ×106 m above the
surface of earth. If earth's radius is 6.38 × 106 m
36. Two satellites A and B, having ratio of masses

and g=9.8 ms–2, then the orbital speed of the
3 : 1 are in circular orbits of radius r and 4r.
satellite is :
Calculate the ratio of total mechanical energies of
(1) 6.67 km s–1 (2) 7.76 km s–1
A to B.
(3) 8.56 km s–1 (4) 9.13 km s–1
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 12 : 1 (3) 1 : 12 (4) 6 : 1 43. Two solid spherical planets of equal radii R having
37. A satellite of earth of mass 'm' is taken from orbital masses 4M and 9M their centre are separated by
radius 2R to 3R, then minimum work done is :- a distance 6R. A projectile of mass m is sent from
the planet of mass 4 M towards the heavier planet.
GMm GMm What is the distance r of the point from the centre
(1) (2)
6R 12R of lighter planet where the gravitational force on
the projectile is zero ?
GMm GMm
(3) (4) (1) 1.4 R (2) 1.8 R (3) 1.5 R (4) 2.4 R
24R 3R
144 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
44. An earth's satellite is moving in a circular orbit with 49. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a
a uniform speed v. If the gravitational force of the circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v0. The
earth suddenly disappears, the satellite will :- orbital velocity of satellite orbiting at an altitude of
half of the radius is :-
(1) vanish into outer space
(2) continue to move with velocity v in original orbit 2
3
(1) v0 (2) v0
(3) fall down with increasing velocity 2 3
(4) fly off tangentially from the orbit with velocity v
2 3
45. One projectile after deviating from its path starts (3) v0 (4) v0
3 2
moving round the earth in a cirular path of radius
equal to nine times the radius of earth R. Its time 50. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth
period will be :-
(of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total
R R energy of the satellite in terms of g0, the value of
(1) 2p (2) 27 ´ 2p acceleration due to gravity at the earth's surface, is:-
g g
R R 2mg0 R2 2mg 0 R 2
(3) p (4) 0.8 ´ 3p (1) (2) -
g g R+h R +h
46. Potential energy and kinetic energy of a two particle mg0 R 2 mg0 R2
system under imaginary force field are shown by (3) (4) -
2(R + h) 2(R + h)
curves KE and PE. respectively in figure. This system
is bound at : 51. A planet is revolving round the sun. Its distance from
(1) only point A the sun at Apogee is rA and that at Perigee is rp.
The mass of planet and sun is m and M respectively,
Energy
(2) only point D KE Distance

® vA and vP is the velocity of planet at Apogee and
(3) only point A B C Perigee respectively and T is the time period of
D
A, B, and C revolution of planet round the sun.
PE
(4) All points A,
p2 p2
( rA + rP ) ( rA + rP )
2 2 2 3
B, C and D (a) T = (b) T =
2Gm 2GM
47. If the length of the day is T, the height of that TV (c) vArA = vPrP (d) vA < vP , rA > rP
satellite above the earth's surface which always
appears stationary from earth, will be : (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d
1 1
(3) b, c, d (4) all
é 4p2 GM ù
3
é 4p2 GM ù 2
(1) h = ê ú (2) h = ê ú -R
2 2 52. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about
ë T ë T û
û
the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded
1 1
é GMT 2 ù 3 é GMT2 ù
3
area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move
(3) h = ê 2 ú
-R (4) h = ê 2 ú
+R
ë 4p û ë 4p û from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A to
48. A communication satellite of earth which takes 24 B then :-
hrs. to complete one circular orbit eventually has
v
to be replaced by another satellite of double mass. (1) t1 = t2 m
If the new satellites also has an orbital time period B C
of 24 hrs, then what is the ratio of the radius of the (2) t1 < t2
S
new orbit to the original orbit ?
A D
(3) t1 = 4t2
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(4) t1 = 2t2
(3) 2 :1 (4) 1 : 2
E 145
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
53. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest
to the sun at a distance r 1 and farthest away at a(aphelion)
a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities
ra
v1
at these points respectively, then the ratio v
2
rp earth
is :-
(1) (r1/r2)2 (2) r2/r1 (3) (r2/r1)2 (4) r1/r2 P(perihelion)
54. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around r r r r
(i) L a = L P (ii) L a = –L P
the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
compared to the mass of the earth. Then, r r r r
(iii) ra ´ L a = rP ´ L P
(1) the acceleration of S is always directed towards
Which of the above relations is/are true ?
the centre of the earth.
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only
(2) the angular momentum of S about the centre of
(3) (iii) only (4) (i) and (iii)
the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude
57. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free
remains constant.
space after having lost contact with their spaceship.
(3) the total mechanical energy of S varies
The two will :-
periodically with time.
(1) Move towards each other.
(4) the linear momentum of S remains constant in
(2) Move away from each other.
magnitude.
(3) Will become stationary
55. The maximum and minimum distances of a comet
(4) Keep floating at the same distance between them.
from the sun are 8 × 1012 m and 1.6 × 1012 m
58. The speed of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the
respecting. If its velocity when it is nearest to the
Sun, at positions A, B and C are VA, VB and VC
sun is 60 m/sec then what will be its velocity in
m/s when it is farthest ? respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is
(1) 12 (2) 60 (3) 112 (4) 6 perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S
56. Consider a satellite orbiting the earth as shown in as shown in the figure. Then
B
the figure below. Let La and Lp represent the
angular momentum of the satellite about the earth
A C
when at aphelion and perihelion respectively. S
Consider the following relations.
(1) VA < VB < VC (2) VA > VB > VC
(3) VB < VA < VC (4) VB > VA > VC
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 2 1 4 4 1 1 3 2 4 2 4 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 4 3 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 1 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 4 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 2 1 1 1 4 2
146 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
PROPERTIES OF MATTER AND FLUID MECHANICS EXERCISE
1. The breaking stress of steel is 15.8 ´ 108 N/m2 6. One end of uniform wire of length L and of weight
and density is 7.9 ´ 103 kg/m3. What should be W is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a
the maximum length of a steel wire so that it may weight W1 is suspended from its lower end. If s is
not break under its own weight ? the area of cross-section of the wire, the stress in
(1) 2 km (2) 20 km (3) 1 km (4) 10 km the wire at a height (L/4) from its lower end is
2. A mass of 4 kg is suspended from a steel wire of é Wù
length 5 meter to form a pendulum arrangement. W1 ê W1 + 4 ú
(1) (2) ë û
If the mass is moved to one side and released from s s
the horizontal position of wire then find the maximum é 3W ù
extension in the length of the wire. ê W1 + 4 ú W1 + W
(3) ë û (4)
s 4
Fixed end 7. The dimensions of two wires A and B are the same.
But their materials are different. Their load-
l=5m extension graphs are shown. If YA and YB are the
values of Young's modulus of elasticity of A and B
respectively then
(Given Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2 and area of cross– A
section of wire = 2 mm2, g = 10 m/s2)
load
B
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.8 mm
(3) 1.5 mm (4) 0.9 mm
extension
3. Young modulus of elasticity of brass is 1011 N/m2.
The increase in its energy on pressing a rod of length (1) YA > YB (2) YA < YB
0.2 m and cross–sectional area 4 cm2 made of brass (3) YA = YB (4) YB = 2YA
with a force of 40 N along its length, will be ............ 8. Two wires of the same material and length but
(1) 4 µJ (2) 3 µJ (3) 2 µJ (4) 1 µJ diameters in the ratio 1 : 2 are stretched by the
4. A fixed volume of iron is drawn into a wire of length same force. The potential energy per unit volume
l . The extension produced in this wire by a constant for the two wires when stretched will be in the ratio.
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\10-PROPERTIES OF MATTER AND FLUID MECHANICS.P65

force F is proportional to - (1) 16 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
1 1 9. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of

(1) 2 (2) (3) l 2 (4) l the same material and same length is shown in the
l l
figure. The thinnest wire is represented by the line.
5. In determination of young's modulus of elasticity of
D
wire, a force is applied and extension is recorded. C
load
B
Initial length of wire is '1m'. The curve between
A
extension and stress is depicted then Young's
O elongation
modulus of wire will be :-
8mm
(1) OA (2) OB (3) OC (4) OD
10. Copper of fixed volume 'V; is drawn into wire of
Extension length 'l'. When this wire is subjected to a constant
1mm force 'F', the extension produced in the wire is 'Dl'.
Which of the following graphs is a straight line ?
1000 8000
Stress 1
(KN/m )
2 (1) Dl versus (2) Dl versus l2
l
(1) 2 × 109 N/m2 (2) 1 × 109 N/m2 1
(3) Dl versus 2 (4) Dl versus l
(3) 2 × 10 10
N/m 2
(4) 1 × 1010 N/m2 l
162 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
11. Two wires are made of the same material and have 18. A U-tube contains two liquids in static equilibrium:
the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional Water of density rw (=1000 kg/m3) is in the right
area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area arm, oil of unknown density r is the left arm as
2A. If the length of the first wire is increased by Dl shown in figure. Measurement give l = 135 mm and
on applying a force 2F, how much force is needed d = 12.5 mm. The density of oil is :-
to stretch the second wire by the same amount ?

(1) 8F (2) 6F (3) 4F (4) 2F d
12. An increase in pressure required to decrease the
Oil
200 litres volume of a liquid by 0.004% in container Water l
is : (Bulk modulus of the liquid = 2100 MPa) Interface
(1) 188 kPa 2) 8.4 kPa

(3) 18.8 kPa (4) 84 kPa (1) 1092 kg/m3 (2) 961 kg/m3
13. A ball falling in a lake of depth 400 m shows 0.01% (3) 915 kg/m3 (4) 843 kg/m3
decrease in its volume at the bottom. What is the 19. A 800 g solid cube having an edge of length
bulk modulus of the material of the ball : 10 cm floats in water. What volume of the cube is
(1) 19.6 × 108 N/m2 (2) 39.2 × 109 N/m2 outside water ?
(3) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (4) 19.6 × 10–8 N/m2 (1) 200 cm3 (2) 300 cm3
14. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is 'B'. If it is (3) 500 cm3 (4) 800 cm3
20. A sphere is floating in water its 2/3rd part is outside
subjected to uniform pressure 'p', the fractional the water and when sphere is floating in unknown
decrease in diameter is :-
3
liquid, its th part is outside the liquid then density
4
B 3p p p
(1) (2) (3) (4) of liquid is
3p B 3B B (1) 4/9 gm/c.c. (2) 9/4 gm/c.c.
15. For a given material, the Young's modulus is (3) 4/3 gm/c.c. (4) 3/8 gm/c.c.
2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson's 21. The spring balance A read 2 kg. with a block m
ratio is : suspended from it. A balance B reads 5 kg. when a
beaker with liquid is put on the pan of the balance.
(1) 2.4 (2) 1.2 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.2
The two balances are now so arranged that the

16. Two vessels A and B have the same base area and
hanging mass is inside the liquid in the beaker as
contain water to the same height, but the mass of
shown in fig. In this situation :–
water in A is four times that in B. The ratio of the
liquid thrust at the base of A to that at the base of B
is :-
A
A B
m
H B
l l
(1) The balance A will read more than 2 kg.
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(2) The balance B will read more than 5 kg.
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 (3) The balance A will read less than 2 kg. and B
17. Hydraulic press is based upon will read more than 5 kg.
(1) Archimede's principle (2) Bernoulli's theorem (4) The balance A and B will read 2 kg. and 5 kg.
(3) Pascal's law (4) Reynold's number respectively.
E 163
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
22. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liqudis 1 and 2 26. A solid uniform ball having volume V and density r
having densities r1 and r2 , respectively. floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids as
shown in figure.
A solid ball, made of a material of density r3, is
dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the
position shown in the figure. Which of the following

is true for r1, r2 & r3 The densities of the upper and the lower liquids are
r1 and r2 respectively, such that r1 < r < r2 . What
(1) r3 < r1 < r2
Liquid 1
fraction of the volume of the ball will be in the lower
(2) r1 > r3 > r2 liquid :–
(3) r1 < r2 < r3 r - r2 r1
Liquid 2
(1) r - r (2) r - r
(4) r1 < r3 < r2 1 2 1 2
r1 - r r1 - r2
23. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats (3) r - r (4)
1 2 r2
in water as shown in figure. The distance l and
h are shown there. After sometime the coin falls 27. Two syringes of different cross section (without
into the water. Then :– needes) filled with water are connected with a tightly
fitted rubber tube filled with water. Diameter of
coin
smaller and larges piston are 1.0 cm and 3.0 cm
respectively. Find the force exerted on the larger
piston when a force of 10 N is applied to the smaller
l
h piston.
(1) 10 N (2) 30 N (3) 90 N (4) 60 N
(1) l decreases and h increases 28. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a radius
(2) l increases and h decreases R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius
(3) both l and h increase r. If the speed of flow of the liquid in the tube is v,

(4) both l and h decrease the speed of ejection of the liquid through the hole
is :-
24. An object of weight W and density r is submerged 1
væRö væRö 2
in a fluid of density r1 . Its appearent weight will be (1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷

nè r ø nè r ø
3 2
( r - r1 ) væRö 2
v æ Rö
(1) W (r - r1 ) (2) (3) ç ÷ (4) ç ÷
W nè r ø nè r ø
æ r ö 29. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius

(3) W ç1 - 1 ÷ (4) W( r1 - r)
è rø R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of
radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V,
25. A wooden block is taken to the bottom of a lake of
the speed of the ejection of the liquid through
water and then released. it rise up with a
the holes is :-
(1) Constant acceleration
V2R VR 2
(2) Decreasing acceleration (1) (2)
nr n2r 2
(3) Constant velocity
VR 2 VR 2
(3) (4)
(4) Decreasing velocity nr 2 n3 r 2
164 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
30. Fire is caught at height of 125 m from the 34. The flow speeds of air on the lower and upper
fire brigade. To extinguish the fire, water is
surfaces of the wing of an aeroplane are v and 5v
coming out from the pipe of cross section
respectively. The density of air is r and surface area
12.8 cm with rate 3800 litre/min. Find out
of wing is A. The dynamic lift on the wing is :
minimum velocity of water exiting from fire
brigade tank (g = 10m/s 2) (1) rv2A (2) 2 rv2A
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 25 m/s (4) 50 m/s (3) (1/2) rv2A (4) 2rv2A
31. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards 35. A tank is filled upto a height h with a liquid and is
with an in it ial speed o f 5. 0 m/s. The placed on a platform of height h fromt he ground
cross–sectional area of tap is 10–4 m2. Assume that To get maximum range xm a small hole is punched
the pressure is constant throughout the stream of at a distance of y from the free surface of the liquid.
water and that the flow is steady, the cross–sectional Then :-
area of stream 3.75 m below the tap is :–
(1) 5.0 × 10–4 m2
(2) 1.0 × 10–4 m2
y
h
(3) 5.0 × 10–5 m2
(4) 2.0 × 10–5 m2
32. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof
of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m 2. h
Assuming that the pressure inside the house is
xm
atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind
on the roof and the direction of the force will be:
(rair = 1.2 kg/m3)
(1) xm = 3h (2) xm = 1.5h
(1) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards
(3) y = h (4) y = 0.75 h
(2) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards
36. A tank of height 5 m is full of water. There is a hole
(3) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards
of cross sectional area 1 cm2 in its bottom. The initial
(4) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards
volume of water that will come out from this hole
33. Water flows through a frictionless duct with a

per second is
cross-section varying as shown in figure. Pressure P
(1) 10–3 m3/s (2) 10–4 m3/s
at points along the axis is represented by
(3) 10 m3/s (4) 10–2 m3/s.
37. Scent sprayer is based on
(1) Charle's law
(2) Archimede's principle
(3) Boyle's law
(4) Bernoulli's theorem
P P
38. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One
(1) (2) is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the
x x top and the other is a circular hole of radius R
at a depth 4y from the top. When the tank is
completely filled with water, the quantities of water
P P
flowing out per second from the holes are both
(3) (4) same. Then, R is equal to :–
L L
(1) (2) 2pL (3) L (4)
2p 2p
E 165
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
39. A metal block of film area 0.10 m2 is connected to 44. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold
a 0.010 kg mass via a string that passes over an (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid
ideal pulley (considered massless & frictionless). A (density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of
a sphere of silver (density=10.5 kg/m3) of the same
liquid with a film thickness of 0.30 mm is placed
size in the same liquid.
between the block and the table. When released
(1) 0.4 m/s (2) 0.133 m/s
the block moves to the right with a constant speed
(3) 0.1 m/s (4) 0.2 m/s
of 0.085 m/s. Find the coefficient of viscosity of
the liquid. (g = 9.8 m/s2) 45. If a ball of steel (density r = 7.8 g cm–3) attains a
terminal velocity of 10 cm s –1 when falling
Film
in a tank of water (coefficient of viscosity
hwater = 8.5 × 10–4 Pa.s) then its terminal velocity
0.01 kg
in glycerine (r = 1.2 g cm–3, h = 13.2 Pa.s) would
be nearly :-
(1) 6 × 10–2 Pa.s (2) 3.45 × 10–5 Pa.s
(1) 1.6 × 10–5 cm s–1 (2) 3.98 × 10–4 cm s–1
(3) 3.45 × 10–3 Pa.s (4) 3.45 × 10–6 Pa.s
(3) 6.25 × 10–4 cm s–1 (4) 1.5 × 10–5 cm s–1
40. A square plate of 1m side moves parallel to a
46. A non-viscous fluid of constant density of 1000 kg/m3
second plate with velocity 4 m/s. A thin layer of
flows in a stream line motion along a tube of variable
water exists between plates. If the viscous force is
cross-section.
2 N and the coefficient of viscosity is 0.01 poise
then find the distance between the plates in mm.
P
(1) 2 mm (2) 4 mm (3) 6 mm (4) 8 mm
41. An air bubble of radius 1 mm is allowed to rise 5m Q
through a long cylindrical column of a viscous liquid
of radius 5 cm and travels at a steady rate of 3m
2.1 cm per second. If the density of the liquid is
1.47 g/cc, find its viscosity. Assume g=980 cm/s2 The area of cross-section at two P and Q at lengths
and neglect the density of air.
5 m and 3 m are 80 cm2 and 40 cm2 respectively.
(1) 2 poise (2) 3 poise

If velocity of fluid at P is 3 m/s then find velocity
(3) 4 poise (4) 1.52 poise
42. A small ball is left in a viscous liquid from very much of fluid at Q.
height. Correct graph of its velocity with time after (1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s
it enters in liquid is :
(3) 5 m/s (4) 6 m/s
B
A 47. A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped wire
an d a light slider suppor ts a weight of
velocity
C 1.5 × 10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is

D 60 cm and its weight negligible. The surface tension
time of the liquid film is :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
43. A small drop of water falls from rest through a large Film
height h in air. The final velocity is
(1) almost independent of h
w
(2) proportional to h
(1) 0.025 Nm–1 (2) 0.0125 Nm–1
(3) proportional to h
(3) 0.1 Nm–1 (4) 0.05 Nm–1
(4) inversely proportional to h
166 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
48. The potential energy U of two atoms of a diatomic 53. Consider a soap film on a rectangular frame of wire
molecule as a function of distance r between the of area 5 × 5 cm2 . If the area of the soap film is
atoms is shown in the given figures. increased to 6 × 5 cm2, the work done in the
process will be (The surface tension of the soap film
(+)
is 3 × 10–2 N/m)
U
r (1) 12 × 10–6 J (2) 24 × 10–6 J
r1
r2 (3) 30 × 10–6 J (4) 96 × 10–6 J
(–) r3
54. A liquid drop of diameter D breaks into 27 tiny
Read the following statements carefully. drops. The resultant change in energy is –
A. The equilibrium separation distance between
the atoms is equal to r2. (1) 2p TD2 (2) 4p TD2
B. At r = r1, the force between the atoms is
(3) p TD2 (4) None of these
repulsive.
C. For r > r3, the force between the atoms is 55. If the surface tension of a liquid is T and its surface
attractive. area is increased by A, then the surface energy of
Which of the above statements is true ? that surface will be increased by –
(1) A only (2) B only
(1) AT (2) A/T (3) A2T (4) A2T2
(3) C only (4) B and C
49. Spiders and insects move and run about on the 56. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble A is twice
surface of water without sinking because : that in another soap bubble B. The ratio of volumes
(1) Elastic membrane is formed on water due to of A and B is
propery of surface tension
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16
(2) Spiders and insects are ligther
(3) Spiders and insects swim on water 57. A certain number of sphereical drops of a liquid of
(4) Spiders and insects experience up-thrust radius 'r' coalesce to form a single drop of radius 'R'
50. Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty and volume 'V'. If 'T' is the surface tension of the
greasy stains. This is because liquid, then :
(a) It increases the oil-water surface tension
(b) It decreases the oil-water surface tension æ1 1 ö

(1) energy = 4VT ç - ÷ is released
(c) It increases the viscosity of the solution èr Rø
(d) Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent

molecules æ1 1 ö
(2) energy = 3VT ç + ÷ is absorbed
èr Rø
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) only
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (d) only
æ1 1 ö
51. Find the work done in increasing the volume of a (3) energy = 3VT ç - ÷ is released
èr Rø
soap bubble by 700% if its radius is R and surface
tension is T. (4) Energy is neither released nor absorbed
(1) 24pR2T (2) 12pR2T
58. Consider a soap film on a rectangular frame of wire
(3) 6pR2T (4) pR2T
of area 4× 4 cm2 . If the area of the soap film is
52. Two small drops of mercury, each of radius R,
increased to 4 × 5cm2, the work done in the
coalesce to form a single large drop. The ratio of
process will be (The surface tension of the soap film
the total surface energies before and after the
is 3 × 10–2 N/m)
change is :–
(1) 1 : 21/3 (2) 21/3 : 1 (1) 12 × 10–6 J (2) 24 × 10–6 J
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(3) 60 × 10–6 J (4) 96 × 10–6 J
E 167
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
59. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from 64. Th ree liquids of densities r 1 , r 2 and r 3
(7 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done (with r1 > r2 > r3), having the same value of surface
is 1.5 × 10–4 J, the value of the surface tension of
tension T, rise to the same height in three identical
the liquid is :-
capillaries. The angles of contact q1, q2 and q3 obey:-
(1) 0.2 Nm–1 (2) 8.0 Nm–1
p
(3) 0.250 Nm–1 (4) 0.125 Nm–1 (1) < q1 < q2 < q3 q1 > q2 > q3 >
2
16 mm. What is the surface tension in dynes
per cm. p
(3) > q1 > q2 > q3 ³ 0
2
(1) 117.6 (2) 256
(3) 378 (4) 160 p
(4) 0 £ q1 < q2 < q3 <
61. Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4cm 2
and 5 cm are touching each other over a common 65. On dipping one end of a capillary in a liquid and
surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its radius will be :– inclining the capillary at angles 37° and 60° with
the vertical, the lengths of liquid columns in it are
S1
4cm 5cm
found to be l1 and l2 respectively. Find the ratio of
l1 and l2 ?
S2
(1) 4/5 (2) 8/5 (3) 5/8 (4) 1/2
(1) 4 cm. (2) 20 cm. 66. When a capillary tube is dipped inside water, water
(3) 5 cm. (4) 4.5 cm. rises inside the capillary tube up to 0.030 m. If the
62. A glass tube of uniform internal radius (r) has a valve surface tension of water is 75 × 10–3 N/m calculate
separating the two identical ends. Initially, the valve the radius of the capillary tube ?
is in a tightly closed position. (1) 0.5 mm (2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm (4) 4 mm
67. If a capillary of radius r is dipped in water, the height

of water that rises in it is h and its mass is M. If the
radius of the capillary is doubled the mass of water
that rises in the capillary will be
2 1
M
End 1 has a hemispherical soap bubble of radius r. (1) 4M (2) 2M (3) M (4)
2
End 2 has sub–hemispherical soap bubble as shown
in figure. Just after opening the valve, 68. A liquid flows through two capillary tubes connected
(1) Air from end 1 flows towards end 2. No change in series. Their lengths are l and 2l and radii r and
in the volume of the soap bubbles. 2r respectively, then the pressure difference across
the first and second tubes are in the ratio......
(2) Air from end 1 flows towards end 2. Volume of
the soap bubble at end 1 decreases. (1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1
(3) No change occurs (3) 16 : 1 (4) 64 : 1
(4) Air from end 2 flows towards end 1. Volume of 69. In a capillary tube expertiment, a vertical 50 cm
the soap bubble at end 1 increases. long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water
63. Shape of meniscus for a liquid of zero angle of rises up to a height of 20 cm due to capillary action.
contact is - If this experiment is conducted in a freely falling
(1) plane (2) parabolic elevator, the length of the water column becomes :
(3) hemi-spherical (4) cylindrical (1) 50 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 30 cm (4) Zero
168 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
70. On dipping a capillary of radius 'r' in water, water 71. A capillary tube of radius r can support a liquid of
rises upto a height H and potential energy of water weight 6.28 × 10–4 N. If the surface tension of the
is u1. If a capillary of radius 2r is dipped in water, liquid is 5 × 10–2 N/m. The radius of capillary
u1 must be :-
then the potential energy is u2. The ratio
u 2 is
(1) 2 × 10–3 m (2) 2 × 10–4 m
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
(3) 1.5 × 10–3 (4) 12.5 × 10–4 m
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 3 2 2 1 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 1 3 3 4 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 4 3 1 4 1 3 1 4 3 1 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 2 4 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 4 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 1
E 169
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
THERMAL PHYSICS EXERCISE
1. Using which of the following instrument, the 5. A new scale of temperature (which is linear) called
temperature of the sun can be determined ? the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water
(1) Platinum thermometer are 39°W and 239°W respectively. What will be the
temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a
(2) Gas thermometer
temperature of 39°C on the Celsius scale ?
(3) Pyrometer
(1) 200° W (2) 139° W (3) 78° W (4) 117°W
(4) Vapour pressure thermometer 6. At STP a rod is hung from a frame as shown in
figure, leaving a small gap between the rod and
2. Which of the curves in figure represents the relation
floor. The frame and rod system is heated uniformly
between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperature?
upto 350 K. Then
(1) Curve a (2) Curve b
e
m
(3) Curve c (4) Curve d rf a
Rod
C
c
b
(1) The rod will never touch the floor in any case.
F
(2) If arod > aframe, then rod may touch the floor.
d a (3) If arod < aframe, then rod may touch the floor.
(4) None of the above
7. The figure below shows four isotropic solids having

3. The graph AB shown in figure is a plot of positive coefficient of thermal expansion. A student
temperature of a body in degree Celsius and predicts that on heating the solid following things
degree Fahrenheit. Then can happen. Mark true (T) or False (F) for comments
made by the student.
100°C B
A
Centigrade
a
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\11-HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS.P65
B
32°F 212°F Fahrenheit (i) The angle a in figure (1) will not change.
A
(ii) The length of line in figure (2) will decrease.

(1) slope of line AB is 9/5
(iii) The radius of inner hole will decrease.
(3) slope of line AB is 1/9 (iv) The distance AB will increase.
(1) T F F T (2) F T T F (3) T T T T (4) F F T F
4. Two thermometers X and Y have ice points marked
8. Suppose there is a hole in a copper plate. On
at 15° and 20° and steam points marked as 75°
and 100° respectively. When thermometer X heating the plate, diameter of hole, would :
measures the temperature of a bath as 60° on it, (1) always increase
what would thermometer Y read when it is used to (2) always decrease
measure the temperature of the same bath ? (3) always remain the same
(1) 60° (2) 75° (3) 80° (4) 90° (4) none of these
186 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
9. The table gives the initial length l 0, change in
L 5L
temperature DT and change in length Dl of four rods. (1)
5g
(2)
g
Which rod has greatest coefficient of linear expansion
Rod l0(m) D T(°C) D l(°C) gL mL

(3) (4)
5m 5g
A1 1 100 1
A2 1 100 2 16. A bullet of mass 10 g moving with a speed of

A3 1.5 50 3 20 m/s hits an ice block of mass 990 g kept on a
A4 2.5 20 4 frictionless floor and gets stuck in it. How much ice
will melt if 50% of the lost KE goes to ice ? (initial
(1) A1 (2) A2 (3) A3 (4) A4
temperature of the ice block and bullet = 0°C)
10. Two rods one of aluminium of length l1 having
coefficient of linear expansion aa, and other steel (1) 0.001 g (2) 0.002 g
of length l2 having coefficient of linear expansion (3) 0.003 g (4) 0.004 g
as are joined end to end. The expansion in both the 17. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts
rods is same on variation of temperature. Then the
completely. Only half of the heat produced is
l1
value of l + l is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets
1 2
converted into heat during its fall. The value
as as
(1) a + a (2) a - a of h is :
a s a s
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and
aa + as
(3) as (4) None of these g = 10 N/kg]
11. An iron bar (Young’s modulus = 1011 N/m2 , (1) 34 km (2) 136 km
a = 10–6 /°C) 1 m long and 10–3 m2 in area is (3) 68 km (4) 544 km
heated from 0°C to 100°C without being allowed to
18. The amount of heat required to convert 1 gm of ice at
bend or expand. Find the compressive force
0°C into steam at 100°C, is
developed inside the bar.
(1) 10,000 N (2) 1000 N (1) 716 cal. (2) 500 cal.
(3) 5000 N (4) 105 N (3) 180 cal. (4) 100 cal.
12. A rod of length 2m rests on smooth horizontal floor. 19. The graph shown in the figure represent change in
If the rod is heated from 0°C to 20°C. Find the the temperature of 5 kg of a substance as it abosrbs
longitudinal strain developed? heat at a constant rate of 42 kJ min–1. The latent
(a = 5 × 10–5/°C)
heat of vapourazation of the substance is :

(1) 10–3 (2) 2 × 10–3 (3) Zero (4) None
13. 4
An ideal gas is expanding such that PT = constant.
The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is :
1 3 5 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Temperature
T T T T
14. A bullet moving with velocity v collides against wall.
consequently half of its kinetic energy is converted
into heat. If the whole heat is acquired by the bullet,
the rise in temperature will be:–
(1) v2/4S (2) 4v2 / 2S (3) v2 / 2S (4) v2 / S
15. A block of ice with mass m falls into a lake. After
(1) 630 kJ kg–1
impact, a mass of ice m/5 melts. Both the block of
ice and the lake have a temperature of 0°C. If L (2) 126 kJ kg–1
represents the heat of fusion, the minimum distance (3) 84 kJ kg–1
the ice fell before striking the surface is (4) 12.6 kJ kg–1
E 187
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
20. Figure shows the temperature variation when heat 24. 1 kg of ice at – 10°C is mixed with 4.4 kg of water
is added continuously to a specimen of ice (10 g) at at 30°C. The final temperature of mixture is :
–40 °C at constant rate. (1) 2.3°C (2) 4.4°C (3) 5.3°C (4) 8.7°C
(Specific heat of ice = 0.53 cal/g °C and Lice = 80 25. 2 kg ice at – 20°C is mixed with 5 kg water at
cal/g, Lwater= 540 cal/g) 20°C. Then final amount of water in the mixture
would be;
Temp. (°C) Given specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g°C,
100 Specific heat of water = 1 cal/g°C,
Latent heat of fusion for ice = 80 cal/g.
(1) 6 kg (2) 5 kg (3) 4 kg (4) 2 kg
0 26. Equal volume of H2, O2 and He gases are at same
Q(cal) temperature and pressure. Which of these will have
-40
large number of molecules :-
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4
(1) H2
Column–I Column–II (2) O2
(A) Value of Q1 (in cal) (P) 800 (3) He
(B) Value of Q2 (in cal) (Q) 1000 (4) All the gase will have same number of
molecules
(C) Value of Q3 (in cal) (R) 5400
27. The equation of state for 22g of CO2 at a pressure
(D) Value of Q4 (in cal) (S) 212
P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V,
(T) 900
will be :– (where R is the gas constant.)
(1) A®S; B®P; C®Q; D®T (1) PV = 5 RT (2) PV = (5/2) RT
(2) A®P; B®S; C®Q; D®R (3) PV = (5/16) RT (4) PV = (1/2)RT
(3) A®P; B®S; C®R; D®Q 28. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases
(4) A®S; B®P; C®Q; D®R A and B at the same temperature, the pressure of
21. A 2100 W continuous flow geyser (instant geyser) A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the
has water inlet temperature = 10°C while the water density of A is found to be 2.5 times the density of
flows out at the rate of 20 g/sec. The outlet B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B
temperature of water must be about is:
(1) 20°C (2) 30°C
1 3
(3) 35°C (4) 40°C (1) (2)
2 4

22. Two identical bodies are made of a material for
which the heat capacity increases with temperature. 5 4
One of these is at 100 °C, while the other one is (3) (4)
4 3
at 0°C. If the two bodies are brought into contact,
29. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume
then, assuming no heat loss, the final common
V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The
temperature is :-
mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the
(1) less than 50 °C but greater than 0 °C following gives the density of the gas ?
(2) 0 °C (1) P/(kTV) (2) mkT
(3) 50 °C (3) P/(kT) (4) Pm/(kT)
(4) more than 50 °C 30. A balloon contains 500 m of helium at 270C and
3
23. Steam at 100°C is added slowly to 1400 gm of 1 atmosphere pressure. The volume of the helium
water at 16°C until the temperature of water is raised at –3 0C temperature and 0.5 atmosphere
to 80°C. The mass of steam required to do this is pressure will be-
(LV = 540 cal/gm) : (1) 500 m3 (2) 700 m3
(1) 160 gm (2) 125 mg (3) 250 gm (4) 320 gm
(3) 900 m3 (4) 1000 m3
188 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
31. On increasing the temperature of a gas filled in a 37. An ideal gas mixture filled inside a balloon expands
closed container by 10C its pressure increases by according to the relation PV2/3 = constant. The
0.4%, then initial temperature of the gas is- temperature inside the balloon is
(1) increasing (2) decreasing
(1) 250C (2) 2500C (3) 250 K (4) 25000C
(3) constant (4) can’t be said
32. 28 gm of N2 gas is contained in a flask at a pressure 38. An ideal gas follows a process PT = constant. The
10 atm. and at a temperature of 57°C. It is found correct graph between pressure & volume is :-
that due to leakage in the flask, the pressure is
reduced to half and the temperature reduced to
27°C. The quantity of N2 gas that leaked out is –
(1) (2)
(1) 11/20 gm (2) 80/11 gm
(3) 5/63 gm (4) 63/5 gm
33. A vessel has 6g of oxygen at pressure P and
temperature 400 K. A small hole is made in it so (3) (4)
that oxygen leaks out. How much oxygen leaks out
if the final pressure is P/2 and temperature is
300 K ? 39. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in P–T diagram.
When presented on P–V, it would
(1) 3g (2) 2g (3) 4g (4) 5g
34. Two closed containers of equal volume filled with air
at pressure P 0 and temperature T 0. Both are
connected by a narrow tube. If one of the container
is maintained at temperature T 0 and other at
temperature T, then new pressure in the conainers
will be :-
(1) (2)
2P0 T P0 T
(1) T + T (2) T + T
0 0
P0 T T + T0
(3) 2(T + T ) (4) P0 (3) (4)
0
35. Two identical glass bulbs are interconnected by a 40. For P-V diagram of a thermodynamic cycle as shown
thin glass tube at 0ºC. A gas is filled at N.T.P. in in figure, process BC and DA are isothermal. Which
these bulb is placed in ice and another bulb is placed of the corresponding graphs is correct ?
in hot bath, then the pressure of the gas becomes P
1.5 times. The temperature of hot bath will be :– A B
C
D
V
Ice Hot water P A B P A B
(1) 100°C (2) 182°C (3) 256°C (4) 546°C (1) C (2) C
D D
36. An ideal gas expands according to the law (0,0)
(0,0) T T
P2V = constant. The internal energy of the gas :-
V D C V C B
(1) Increases continuously
(2) Decreases continuously B A
(3) (4)
(3) Remains constant A D
(4) First increases and then decreases (0,0) T (0,0) T
E 189
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
41. Figure shows the isotherms of a fixed mass of an 47. Two containers of same volume are filled with atomic
ideal gas at three temperatures TA, TB and TC then Hydrogen and Helium respectively at 1 and 2 atm
pressure. If the temperature of both specimen are
1 A same then average speed V for hydrogen atoms
V will be -
B
(1) VH = 2 VHe
C
(2) VH = VHe
O P (3) VH = 2 VHe
(1) TA > TB > TC

VHe
(2) TA < TB < TC (4) VH =
2
(3) TB < TA < TC 48. The root mean square (rms) speed of oxygen
(4) TA = TB = TC molecules O2 at a certain temperature T (absolute)
42. Consider a gas with density r and c as the root is v. If the temperature is doubled and oxygen gas
mean square velocity of its molecules contained in dissociates into atomic oxygen. The rms speed :
a volume. If the system moves as whole with velocity (1) becomes v/ 2 (2) remains v
v, then the pressure exerted by the gas is
(3) becomes 2v (4) becomes 2v
1 1
(1) r ( c)2 (2) r( c + v)2
3 3 49. The molecules o f a given mass o f a gas
have r.m.s. velocity of 200 m/s at 127°C and
1 1
(3) r( – v)2 (4) r(c–2 – v)2 1.0 × 105 N/m2 pressure. When the temperature
3 c 3
and pressure of the gas are respectively, 227°C and
43. Three particles have speeds of 2u , 10u and 11u.
0.05 ×105 N/m2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules
Which of the following statements is correct?
in m/s is :
(1) The r.m.s. speed exceeds the mean speed by
about u. (1) 100 2 (2) 100 5
(2) The mean speed exceeds the r.m.s. speed by 200 500 2
(3) (4)
about u. 3 3
(3) The r.m.s. speed equals the mean speed. 50. A gas is equilibrium at T kelvin. If mass of one

(4) The r.m.s. speed exceeds the mean speed by molecule is m and its component of velocity in
more than 2u.
y direction is vy. Then mean of its vy2 is
44. For the molecules of an Ideal gas, Which of the
following velocity average can not be zero 3kT 2kT
(1) (2)
m m
(1) < v > (2) < v4 >
(3) < v3 > (4) < v5 > kT
(3) (4) zero
45. The speeds of 5 molecules of a gas (in arbitary m
units) are as follows 2,3,4,5,6 The root mean square 51. According to Maxwell's law of distribution of
speed for these moecules is - velocites of molecules, the most probable velocity
(1) 2.91 (2) 3.52 (3) 4.00 (4) 4.24 is :-
46. If the root mean square speed of hydrogen (1) greater than the mean velocity
molecules is equal to root mean square speed of
(2) equal to the mean velocity
oxygen molecules at 470C, the temperature of
hydrogen is- (3) equal to the root mean square velocity
(1) 20 K (2) 47 K (3) 50 K (4) 80 K (4) less than the root mean square velocity
190 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
52. The reason for the absence of atmosphere on moon 58. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius 'r')
is that the : is inversely proportional to :-
(1) Value of vrms of the molecules of gas is more
(1) r3 (2) r2 (3) r (4) r
than the value of escape velocity
(2) Value of vrms of gas is less than escape velocity 59. The ratio of number of collisions per second at the
(3) Value of vrms is negiligible walls of containers by He and O 2 gas molecule kept
(4) None of the above at same volume and temperature, is (assume normal
53. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 incidence on walls)
moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
(3) 2 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 2
system is
(1) 4 RT (2) 15 RT (3) 9 RT (4) 11 RT 60. The specific heat of an ideal gas depends on
54. N molecules of an ideal gas at temperature T1 and temperature is -
presseure P1 are contained in a closed box. If the
molecules in the box gets doubled, Keeping total 1
(1)
kinetic energy as same then if new pressure is P2 T
and temperature is T2, Then :
(2) T
(1) P2 = P, T2 = T1
(2) P2 = P1, T2 = T1 / 2 (3) T
(3) P2 = 2 P1, T2 = T1
(4) P2 = 2P1, T2 = T1 / 2 (4) Does not depends on temperature
55. Relation between pressure (P) and energy density 61. The equation of state of a gas is given by
(E) of an ideal gas is -
(1) P = 2/3 E (2) P = 3/2 E æ aT2 ö C
çP + ÷ V = (RT + b), where a, b, c and R are
è V ø
(3) P = 3/5 E (4) P = E
56. Three monoatomic perfect gases at absolute constants. This isotherms can be represented by
temperature T1, T2 and T3 are mixed. If number of P = AVm – BVn, where A and B depend only on
molecules of the gases are n1, n2 and n3 respectively temperature and
then temperature of mixture will be (assume no loss
(1) m = – c and n = – 1
of energy)
(2) m = c and n = 1
T1 + T2 + T3 2 2 2
n T1 + n T2 + n T3 (3) m = – c and n = 1
1 2 3
(1) (2)
3 3 (4) m = c and n = – 1
n1 T1 + n2 T2 + n 3 T3 T1 + T2 + T3 62. For hydrogen gas cP – cV = a and for a oxygen gas

(3) n1 + n2 + n3 (4) n + n + n cP – cV = b then the relation between a and b is
1 2 3
(where cP & cV are gram specific heats)

57. Which of the following statement is true according
(1) a = 16 b (2) b = 16 a
to kinetic theory of gases?
(3) a = b (4) None of these
(1) The collision between two molecules is inelastic
and the time between two collisions is less than R
63. For a gas = 0.4. This gas is made up of
the time taken during the collision. CV
(2) There is a force of attraction between the
molecules which are :
molecules
(1) Monoatomic
(3) All the molecules of a gas move with same
(2) Mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules
velocity
(3) Diatomic
(4) The average of the distances travelled between
(4) Polyatomic
two successive collisions is mean free path.
E 191
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
64. If 2 gm moles of a diatomic gas and 1 gm mole of a 71. In an isometric change :
mono-atomic gas are mixed then the value of g (= (1) dQ = dU (2) dW = dU
Cp/Cv) for mixture will be :–
(3) dQ + dW = dU (4) None of these
13 19 7 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) 72. Calculate the work done for B ® A, :-
19 13 5 3
V(L)
65. For a certain process, pressure of diatomic gas varies
A
according to the relation P = aV2, where a is 4
constant. What is the molar heat capacity of the gas
for this process ?
2 B
C
17R 6R 13R 16R
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
6 17 6 7 0 1 5 P(N/m )
66. Molar specific heat at constant volume, for a non- (1) 6 × 10–3 J (2) 12 × 10–3 J
linear triatomic gas is (vibration mode neglected) (3) 3 × 10–3 J (4) 4 × 10–3 J
(1) 3R (2) 4R (3) 2R (4) R 73. In a cyclic process shown on the P – V diagram the
67. Relation between the ratio of specific heats (g) of magnitude of the work done is :
gas and degree of freedom 'f'' will be
P
1 1 1 P2
(1) g = f + 2 (2) = +
g f 2
P1
(3) f = 2 / (g-1) (4) f = 2( g-1) V
O V1 V2
68. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a
process described by the equation PV5 = constant. 2 2
æ P2 - P1 ö æ V2 - V1 ö
The heat capacity of the gas during this process is (1) p ç ÷ (2) p ç ÷
è 2 ø è 2 ø
3 5 3 5
(1) R (2) R (3) R (4) R p
2 4 4 2 (3) (P – P1) (V2 – V1) (4) p (P2V2 – P1V1)
4 2
69. Consider the process on a system shown in figure.
74. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process
During the process, the work done by the system.
ABCDA as shown in fig. The work done by the
system in the cycle is :-
Pressure
1 2 P
C B

3P 0
2P 0
P0 D
Volume A
(1) Continuously increases V0 2V 0 V

(2) Continuously decreases
(3) First increases then decreases P0 V0
(1) P0V0 (2) 2P0V0 (3) (4) Zero
(4) First decreases then increases 2
70. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T1 expends 75. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant
P pressure to that at constant volume is g, the change
according to the law 2 = a (constant). The work
V in internal energy of gas, when the volume changes
done by the gas till temperature of gas becomes T2 from V to 2V at constant pressure P, is:-
is :
PV
1 1 (1) (2) PV
(1) R(T2 – T1) (2) R(T2 – T1) ( g - 1)
2 3
1 1 R gPV
(3) R(T2 – T1) (4) R(T2 – T1) (3) (4)
4 5 ( g - 1) ( g - 1)
192 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
76. A system is taken along the paths A and B as shown. 81. A thermodynamical process is shown in figure with
If the amounts of heat given in these processes are PA = 3 ×104 Pa; VA = 2 ×10–3 m3; PB = 8 ×104 Pa,
DQA and DQB and change in internal energy are VC = 5 ×10–3 m3. In the processes AB and BC, 200
DUA and DUB respectively then :- J and 600 J of heat is added to the system
respectively. The change in internal energy of the
(1) DQA = DQB; DUA < DUB A system in process AC would be :-
(2) DQA ³ DQB; DUA = DUB P i f
(3) DQA < DQB; DUA > DUB B P
B C
(4) DQA > DQB; DUA = DUB V
77. The amount of heat energy required to raise the
temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from T1 K
to T2 K at constant volume is :- A
5 æ T2 ö 5 V
(1) Na kB ç T ÷ (2) N k (T – T1)
4 è 1ø 8 a B 2
(1) 560 J (2) 800 J (3) 600 J (4) 640 J
5 5
(3) N k (T – T1) (4) N k (T – T1) 82. When a system is taken from state ‘a’ to state
2 a B 2 4 a B 2
‘b’ along the path ‘acb’, it is found that a quan-
78. 1 kg of a gas does 20 kJ of work and receives
tity of heat Q = 200 J is absorbed by the system
16 kJ of heat when it is expanded between two
and a work W = 80J is done by it. Along the
states. A second kind of expansion can be found
path ‘adb’, Q = 144J. The work done along the
between the same initial and final state which
path ‘adb’ is
requires a heat input of 9 kJ. The work done by the
gas in the second expansion is :
p
(1) 32 kJ (2) 5 kJ (3) –4 kJ (4) 13 kJ c b
79. A P-T graph is shown for a cyclic process. Select
correct statement regarding this
P
C a d
V
B (1) 6J (2) 12 J (3) 18 J (4) 24 J

D
A 83. A gas for which g = 4/3 is heated at constant
O T
pressure. The percentage of total heat given that

(1) During process CD, work done by gas is negative
will be used for external work is :
(2) During process AB, work done by gas is positive
(3) During process BC internal energy of system
(1) 40% (2) 25% (3) 60% (4) 20%
increases
(4) During process BC internal energy of system 84. For monoatomic gas the relation between pressure
decreases of a gas and temperature T is P2 a TC where C is.
80. In the diagram shown Q ia f = 80 cal and (For adiabatic process)
Wiaf = 50 cal. If W = –30 cal for the curved path
fi, value of Q for path fi, will be :- 5 5 3 10
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 5 2
P
a f 85. An ideal monatomic gas at 300 K expands
adiabatically to 8 times its volume. What is the final
i temperature ?
(0, 0) V
(1) 75 K (2) 300 K
(1) 60 cal (2) 30 cal (3) –30 cal (4) –60 cal (3) 560 K (4) 340 K
E 193
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
91. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken through
æ 4ö
86. The volume of a poly-atomic gas ç g = ÷ a cycle ABCDA as shown in the P-V diagram.
è 3ø
Column-II gives the characteristics involved in the
1
compressed adiabatically to of the original cycle. Match them with each of the processes given
27th
volume. If the original pressure of the gas is P0 the in Column-I.
new pressure will be

P
(1) 8 P0 (2) 81 P0 B
3P A
(3) 16 P0 (4) 2 P0
87. A diatomic gas undergoes adiabatic compression
and its volume reduces to half of initial volume then 1P
C D
its final pressure would be if gas initial pressure P
(1) 21.4P (2) P/2 0 1V 3V 9V V
(3) 2P (4) 3.07 P
Column-I Column-II
88. The molar heat capacity in a process of a diatomic (A) Process A ® B (p) Internal energy decreases
Q (B) Process B ® C (q) Internal energy increases
gas, if it does a work of when a heat of Q is
4 (C) Process C ® D (r) Heat is lost
supplied to it, is :-
(D) Process D ® A (s) Heat is gained
2 5 (t) Work is done on the gas
(1) R (2) R
5 2
(1) A ® p,r,t ; B ® p,r ; C ® q,s ; D ® r,t
10 6 (2) A ® r,t ; B ® q,r ; C ® q,s ; D ® r,s

(3) R (4) R
3 7 (3) A ® p,r,t; B ® p,q,r ; C ® s ; D ® r,t
89. Which of the following graphs correctly represents (4) A ® p,r,t ; B ® p,r ; C®q; D ® r,s
the variation of b = –(dV/dP)/V with P for an ideal
92. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state
gas at constant temperature?
A to final state B via two processes. It firstly
undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V to
3V and then its volume is reduced from 3V to V at
(1) (2) constant pressure. The correct P-V diagram
representing the two processes is :-
A A
(3) (4)
P B P B
(1) (2)
90. An ideal gas undergoes the process 1 ® 2 as shown V 3V V 3V
in the figure, the heat supplied and work done in V V
the process is DQ and DW respectively. The ratio
Q : W is
B A
(1) g : g – 1
P A P
(2) g
(3) g – 1 (3) (4) B
V 3V V 3V
(4) g – 1g V V
194 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
93. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the 96. A gas speciman in one vessel is expended
following diagram : isothermally to double its volume and a simillar
specimen in the second vessel is expanded
P adiabatically the same extent, then :
(1) In the second vessel, both pressure and work
i IV f
I III
done are more
II f (2) In the second vessel, pressure in more, but the
f 900K
f 700K work done isless.
500K
V (3) In the first vessel, both pressure & work done
are more.
Match the following
(4) In the first vessel, pressure is more, but work
Column-1 Column-2 done is less
97. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
volume. The same gas is compressed separately
Q. Process II b. Isobaric through an adiabatic process until its volume is again
reduced to half. Then :-
R. Process III c. Isochoric
(1) Compressing the gas isothermally will require
S. Process IV d. Isothermal more work to be done.
(2) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process
(1) P ® c, Q ® a, R ® d, S ® b will require more work to be done.
(2) P ® c, Q ® d, R ® b, S ® a (3) Co mpre ssin g th e ga s i soth erma lly or
adiabatically will require the same amount of
(3) P ® d, Q ® b, R ® a, S ® c
work.
(4) P ® a, Q ® c, R ® d, S ® b (4) Which of the case (whether compression through
isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires
94. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes
more work will depend upon the atomicity of
are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should
the gas.
correspond respectively to 98. A closed container is fully insulated from outside.
One half of it is filled with an ideal gas X separated
by a plate P from the other half Y which contains a
vacuum as shown in figure. When P is removed, X
moves into Y. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) He and O2 (2) O2 and He X Y

(3) He and Ar (4) O2 and N2 gas vacuum
p
95. In which of the figure no heat exchange between
(1) No work is done by X
the gas and the surroundings will take place, if the
(2) X decreases in temperature
gas is taken along curve:
(3) X increases in internal energy
(curves are isothermal and adiabatic) (4) X doubles in pressure
99. According to the second law of thermodynamics :
(1) heat energy cannot be completely converted
to work
Pressure
A C
(2) work cannot be completely converted to heat
B D
energy
Volume (3) for all cyclic processes we have dQ/T < 0
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (4) the reason all heat engine efficiencies are less
than 100% is friction, which is unavoidable
E 195
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
100. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal of heat from 107. A refrigerator transfer 360 joule of energy in one
reservoir at 627°C and gives it to a sink at 27°C. second from temperature –3°C to 27°C. Calculate
Then work done by the engine is the average power consumed, assuming no energy
(1) 4.2 × 106 J (2) 8.4 × 106 J losses in the process.
(3) 16.8 × 106 J (4) zero (1) 18 W (2) 54 W
101. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and (3) 40 W (4) 120 W
600 K has a work output of 800 J per cycle. The 108. A reversible refrigerator operates between a low
amount of heat energy supplied to engine from the temperature reservoir at TC and a high temperature
source in each cycle is :- reservoir at TH. Its coefficient of performance is
(1) 800 J (2) 1600 J (3) 3200 J (4) 6400 J given by :
102. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working (1) (TH – TC)/TC (2) TC/(TH – TC)
between the freezing point and boiling point of
(3) (TH – TC)/TH (4) TH/(TH – TC)
water, is :-
(1) 26.8% (2) 20% (3) 6.25% (4) 12.5% 109. A refrigerator transfer 180 joule of energy in one
103. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an second from temperature –0°C to 30°C. Calculate
efficiency of 40%. By how much amount should the the average power consumed, assuming no energy
temperature of source be increased so as to increase losses in the process. (approx)
its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency? (1) 18 W (2) 54 W (3) 20 W (4) 120 W
(1) 150 K (2) 250 K (3) 300 K (4) 450 K
110. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is
104. A Carnot engine takes 3000 kcal of heat from a 5. If the temperature inside freezer is –20°C, the
reservoir at 627°C and gives a part of it to a sink temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects
at 27°C. The work done by the engine is :- heat is :
(1) 4.2 × 106 J (1) 21°C (2) 31°C (3) 41°C (4) 11°C
(2) 8.4 × 106 J 111. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is
required to remove 300 calories of heat every
(3) 16.8 × 106 J
second in order to keep the temperature of the
(4) Zero refrigerated space constant. The power required is:
105. The efficiency of a Carnot's engine at a particular
(Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
1 (1) 1.182 W (2) 11.82 W
source and sink temperature is . When the sink
2
(3) 118.25 W (4) 1182 W
temperature is reduced by 100°C, the engine
112. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2°C and the
2
efficiency becomes . Find the source temperature. room temperature is t1°C. The amount of heat
3
delivered to the room for each joule of electrical
(1) 300 K (2) 600 K (3) 900 K (4) 1200 K energy consumed ideally will be :-
106. The efficiency of carnot engine is 50% and

t2 + 273 t1 + t2
temperature of sink is 500K. If temperature of (1) t1 - t 2 (2) t + 273
1
source is kept constant and its efficiency raised to
60%, then the required temperature of the sink
t1 t1 + 273
will be :- (3) t - t (4)
1 2 t1 - t 2
(1) 100 K (2) 600 K (3) 400 K (4) 500 K
196 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
119. The figure shows the face and interface
1
113. A carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat temperature of a composite slab containing of four
20
layers of two materials having identical thickness.
engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on Under steady state condition, find the value of
the system is 20 J, the amount of energy absorbed temperature q.
from the reservoir at lower temperature is :-
(1) 380 J (2) 399 J (3) 400 J (4) 10 J

114. The P-V diagram represents the thermodynamic
cycle of an engine, operating with an ideal
monoatomic gas. The amount of heat, extracted
from the source in a single cycle is :
(1) 5°C (2) 10°C (3) –15°C (4) 15°C
P
120. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal
2p0 B C conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as
shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The
p0 temperature of their junction is :-
A D
50°C
V 2K
v0 2v0 3K
100°C
13 K
(1) p0v0 (2) æç ö÷ p0 v 0 0°C
è 2 ø
200 100
æ 11 ö (1) 75°C (2) °C (3) 40°C (4) °C
(3) ç ÷ p0 v 0 (4) 4p0v0 3 3
è 2 ø
121. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is
115. In the above question efficiency of cycle ABCDA is nine times that of steel. In the composite cylindrical
nearly : bar shown in the figure what will be the temperature
(1) 12.5% (2) 15.2% (3) 9.1% (4) 10.5% at the junction of copper and steel ?
116 On a cold morning, a metal surface will feel colder
to touch than a wooden surface because (1) 80°C 100°C 20°C
(1) Metal has high specific heat (2) 67°C copper iron
(2) Metal has high thermal conductivity (3) 33°C 18cm 6cm
(3) Metal has low specific heat (4) 25°C

(4) Metal has low thermal conductivity 122. A Cylinder of radius R made of material of thermal
117. The ratio of cofficient of thermal conductivity of two conductivity K1 is surrounded by a cylindrical shell
different materials is 4:9. If the thermal resistance of inner radius R and outer radius 2 R made of a
of rods of same thickness of these material is same, meterial of thermal conductivity K2. The two ends
then what is ratio of length of these rods - of combined system are maintained at two different
(1) 3:5 (2) 4:9 (3) 25:9 (4) 9:25 temp there is no loss of heat across cylindrical surface
118. Which of the following cylindrical rods will conduct and system is in steady state calculate effective
most heat, when their ends are maintained at the thermal conductivity of system.
same steady temperature
K1 + 3K 2
(1) Length 1 m; radius 1 cm (1) (2) K1 + K
4
(2) Length 2 m; radius 1 cm
(3) Length 2 m; radius 2 cm K1 + 8K 2 8K1 + K 2
(3) (4)
(4) Length 1 m; radius 2 cm 9 9
E 197
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
123. Two conductors having thickness d 1 and d 2, 126. Two identical square rods of metal are welded end
thermal conductivity k 1 and k2 are placed one to end as shown in figure (1), 20 calories of heat
above the another. Find the equivalent thermal flows through it in 4 minutes. If the rods are welded
conductance :- as shown in figure (2), the same amount of heat will
flow through the rods in -
T1
d1
d2 0°C 0°C 100°C
100°C
T2 l l
l
(a) (b)
(d1 + d2 )(k1d 2 + k 2 d1 )
(1) 2(k1 + k2 )
(1) 1 minute
(d1 - d2 )(k1 d2 + k2 d1 ) (2) 2 minutes
(2) 2(k1 + k 2 )
(3) 4 minutes
k1k2 (d1 + d2 ) (4) 16 minutes
(3) d k + d k
1 2 2 1 127. In natural convection, a heated portion of a liquid
(4) None of these moves because :
(1) Its molecular motion becomes aligned
124. The three rods shown in figure have identical
dimensions. Heat flows from the hot end at a rate (2) Of moleuclar collisions within it
of 40 W in the arrangement (a). Find the rates of (3) Its density is less than that of the surrounding
heat flow when th e rods are jo ined as in fluid
arrangement (b). (Assume KAl = 200 W/m °C and
(4) Of currents of the surrounding fluid
KCu = 400 W/m °C)
128. It is hotter at the same distance over the top of a
0°C Al Cu Al 100°C fire than it is in the side of it, mainly because
(a) (1) Air conducts heat upwards
Al (2) Heat is radiated upwards
0°C Cu 100°C (3) Convection takes more heat upwards
Al
(4) Convection, conduction and radiation all
(b)
contribute significantly transferring heat upward
(1) 75 W (2) 200 W (3) 400 W (4) 4 W 129. The power radiated by a black body is P and it Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\11-HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS.P65
125. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded radiates maximum energy at wavelength l0. If the
together as shown in figure. Their thermal temperature of the black body is now changed so
conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength
conductivity of the composite rod will be :-
3
l 0 , the power radiated by it becomes nP. The
5
T1 T2 value of n is :-
3 4
(1) (2)
d 5 3
3(K1 + K 2 )
(1) (2) K1 + K2 625 81
2 (3) (4)
81 625
K1 + K 2
(3) 2 (K1 + K2) (4)
2
198 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
130. Two stars appear to be red and blue, what is true 135. Three objects coloured black, gray and white can
about them - withstand hostile conditions upto 2800°C. These
(1) The red star is nearer objects are thrown into a furnace where each of
(2) The blue star is nearer them attains a temperature of 2000°C. Which
object will gloss brightest :-
(3) The temperature of red star is more
(1) The white object
(4) The temperature of blue star is more
(2) The black object
131. The um – T curve for a perfect black body is – (3) All glow with equal brightness
(um ® frequency corresponding to maximum (4) Gray object
emission of radiation)
136. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes
dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns
to white hot. The correct explanation for the above
D
B observation is possible by using :-
C
um (1) Newton's Law of cooling
(2) Stefan's Law
A
(3) Wein's displacement Law
T
(4) Kirchoff's Law
137. The rectangular surface of area 8cm × 4 cm of a
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D black body at a temperature of 127°C emits energy
132. The spectral emissive power El for a body at at the rate of E per second. If the length and breadth
temperature T1 is plotted against the wavelength of the surface are each reduced to half of the initial
and area under the curve is found to be A. At a value and the temperature is raised to 527°C, the
different temperature T2 the area is found to be rate of emission of energy will become.
625A. Then l1/l2 =
81 9
(1) 4E (2) E (3) E (4) 16 E
16 16
138. A black body, at a temperature of 227°C, radiates
heat at a rate of 7 cal cm–2 s–1. At a temperature
of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same
units will be :–
(1) 80 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4) 112
(1) 5 (2) 1/5 (3) 1 5 (4) 5 139. A spherical black body with a radius of 10 cm
radiates 810 watt power at 900 K. If the radius were
133. The temperature of a furnace is 23240C and the
halved and the temperature doubled, the power
intensity is maximum in its radiation spectrum nearly
radiated in watt would be :-
at 12000 A0. If the intensity in the spectrum of a
star is maximum nearly at 4800 A0, then the sur- (1) 450 (2) 1000
face temperature of star is (3) 3240 (4) 225
(1) 8400 C
0
(2) 7200 C 0 140. Cooling rate of a sphere of 600 K at external
(3) 6219.5 C 0
(4) 59000C environment (200 K) is R. When the temperature
of sphere is reduced to 400 K then cooling rate of
134. Two stars A and B of surface area Sa and Sb & the sphere becomes :
temperature T a an d T b glow red an d blue
respectively. Choose the correct option. 3 16
(1) R (2) R
16 3
(1) Ta > Tb (2) Ta < Tb
(3) TaSa = TbSb (4) TaSb = TbSa 9

(3) R (4) None
27
E 199
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
141. A solid cube and sphere are made of same 145. A liquid in a beaker has temperature q at time t
substance and both have same surface area. If the and q0 is temperature of surroundings, then
temperature of both bodies 1200 C then : according to Newton's law of cooling, correct graph
between loge(q – q0) and t is:
(1) Both will loss of Heat by same rate
loge (q – q0)
loge (q – q0)
(2) Rate of loss of Heat of cube will be more than
that of the sphere
(3) Rate of loss of Heat of the sphere will be more (1) (2)
than that of the cube t t
(4) Rate of loss of Heat will be more for that whose
mass is more
loge (q – q0)
loge (q – q0)
142. Two spheres of radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and densities
in the ratio 2 : 1 and of same specific heat, are (3) (4)
heated to same temperature and left in the same 0
0 t
t
surrounding. Their rate of falling temperature will
be in the ratio : 146. A body cools down from 80°C to 60°C in 10 minutes
when the temperature of surroundings is 30°C. The
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1 : 1
temperature of the body after next 10 minutes will
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4 be :-
(1) 30°C (2) 48°C (3) 50°C (4) 52°C
143. Newton's law of cooling is used in laboratory for the
determination of the 147. A body cool from 90°C to 70°C in 5 minutes if
(1) Specific heat of the gases temperature of surrounding is 20°C find the time
(2) The latent heat of gases taken by body to cool from 60°C to 30°C. Assuming
(3) Specific heat of liquids Newton's law of cooling is valid.
(4) Latent heat of liquids (1) 10 min (2) 12 min (3) 18 min (4) 5 min
144. If a piece of metal is heated to temperature q and 148. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in
then allowed to cool in a room which is at 15 min. The room temperature is T. Assume that
temperature q 0 , the graph between the Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The
temperature T of the metal and time t will be closest
temperature of the body at the end of next

to
15 min will be :-
4 7 3
(1) T (2) T (3) T (4) T
3 4 2
(1) (2) 149. The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to
the direction of incidence, received at a distance R
from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer
surface radiates as a black body at a temperature
T Kelvin is given by :-
4psr2 T 4 sr 2 T 4
(3) (4) (1) (2)
R2 R2
sr2 T 4 sr 4 T 4
(3) (4)
4 pr 2 r4
(Where s is Stefan's Constant)
200 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
150. If el and al be the emissive power and absorption 151. If E is the total energy emitted by a body at a
power respectively of a body and El be the emissive temperature T K and Emax is the maximum energy
power of an ideal black body, then from Kirchhoff's emitted by it at the same temperature, then -
laws (1) E µ T4; Emax µ T5 (2) E µ T4; Emax µ T–5
(1) al = El / el (2) al / el = El (3) E µ T–4; Emax µ T4 (4) E µ T5; Emax µ T4
(3) el / al = El (4) el = El / al
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 3 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 1 4 1 4 4 3 4 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 1 2 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 4 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 1 3 2 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 4 1
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 2 4 3 4 1 4 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 1
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2
Que. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 4 1 2
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
Ans. 1 1 3 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 2 1 3 2 2
Que. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans. 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 3
Que. 151
Ans. 1
E 201
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
OSCILLATIONS EXERCISE
1. A particle of mass m is executing S.H.M. If amplitude 6. A particle executes SHM of type x = asinwt. It takes
is a and frequency n, the value of its force constant a a
time t1 from x = 0 to x = and t2 from x = to
will be : 2 2
x = a. The ratio of t1 : t2 will be :
(1) mn2 (2) 4mn2a2 (3) ma2 (4) 4p2mn2
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 1
2. The equation of motion of a particle executing
S.H.M. where letters have usual meaning is : 7. The period of a particle is 8s. At t = 0 it is at the
mean position. The ratio of distance covered by the
d2 x k d2 x particle in first second and second will be-
(1) =– x (2) = +w2x
dt2 m dt2
2 -1 1
(1) (2)
2 2
d2 x d2 x
(3) 2 = –w2x2 (4) 2 = –kmx
dt dt 1
(3) (4) éë 2 - 1ùû
2 -1
3. The equation of motion of a particle executing 8. A particle is executing SHM with time period T.
simple harmonic motion is a+16p2x = 0. In this Starting from mean position, time taken by it to
equation, a is the linear acceleration in m/s2 of the 5
complete oscillations, is :-
particle at a displacement x in metre. Find the time 8
period. T T 5T 7T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 0.50 (2) 0.15 12 6 12 12
(3) 0.155 (4) 0.25 9. Two bodies performing S.H.M. have same amplitude
and frequency. Their phases at a certain instant
4. Out of the following functions representing motion are as shown in the figure. The phase difference
of a particle which represents SHM : between them is
(A) y = sinwt – cos wt (B) y = sin3wt 0.5 A

(-x) + (+x)
0
æ 3p ö A A
(C) y = 3 cos ç - 5wt ÷ (D) y = 1 + wt + w2t2
è 4 ø
(-x) + (+x)
(1) Only (A) 0.5 A 0
(2) Only (D) does not represent SHM

11 p 3
p (2) p p
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\12-OSCILLATION(SHM).P65
(1) (3) (4)

(3) Only (A) and (C) 6 3 5
(4) Only (A) and (B) 10. The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic oscillator
is shown in the adjoining figure. The frequency of
5. The phase of a particle in SHM at time t is p/6. oscillation is :
The following inference is drawn from this:
(1) The particle is at x = a/2 and moving in
V(m/sec)
+ X-direction +4
+2
(2) The particle is at x = a/2 and moving in 0.02 0.04
0
– X-direction 0.01 0.03 t (in sec.)
–2
(3) The particle is at x = –a/2 and moving in –4
+ X-direction
(4) The particle is at x = –a/2 and moving in (1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz
– X-direction (3) 12.25 Hz (4) 33.3 Hz
E 215
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
11. The plot of velocity (v) versus displacement (x) of 16. Two identical pendulums oscillate with a constant
a particle executing simple harmonic motion is
p
shown in figure. The time period of oscillation of phase difference and same amplitude. If the
4
particle is :-
maximum velocity of one is v, the maximum velocity
v(m/s) of the other will be
0.4
v
(1) v (2) 2v (3) 2v (4)
x(cm)
2
–10 0 10
17. The acceleration of a particle in SHM at 5 cm from
–0.4 its mean position is 20 cm/sec2. The value of angu-
lar velocity in radian/second will be :
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 10 (4) 14
p 18. If the displacement, velocity and acceleration of a
(1) s (2) p s (3) 2p s (4) 3p s
2
particle in SHM are 1 cm, 1cm/sec, 1cm/sec 2
12. A particle is executing S.H.M. of frequency respectively its time period will be (in seconds) :
300 Hz and with amplitude 0.1 cm. Its maximum (1) p (2) 0.5p (3) 2p (4) 1.5p
velocity will be : 19. The variation of acceleration (a) and displacement
(1) 60p cm/s (2) 0.6p cm/s (x) of the particle executing SHM is indicated by
(3) 0.50p cm/s (4) 0.05p cm/s the following curve :
13. Average velocity of a particle performing SHM in a a
one time period is :-
Aw (1) x (2) x
(1) Zero (2)
2
Aw 2Aw a a
(3) (4)
2p p
14. A particle performing S.H.M. is found at its (3) x (4) x

equilibrium at t = 1 s and it is found to have a speed
of 0.25 m/s at t = 2 s. If the period of oscillation
20. A body oscillates with SHM according to the
is 6s. Calculate amplitude of oscillation
equation x = 5.0 cos(2pt + p). At time t = 1.5 s,
3 3 it s di splacement, spee d an d acceleration
(1) m (2) m respectively is :
2p 4p
(1) 0, –10p, + 20p2 (2) 5, 0, –20p2

6 3 (3) 2.5, +20p, 0 (4) –5.0, +5p, –10p2
(3) m (4) m
p 8p 21. Two simple Harmonic Motions of angular frequency
15. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by 500 and 5000 rads–1 have the same displacement
amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations
æ pö is:-
the equations y 1 = 0.1 sin çè 100pt + ÷ø and
3 (1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104 (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1: 102
y2 = 0.1 cos100pt. The phase difference of the 22. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion.
velocity of particle 1, with respect to the velocity Its maximum acceleration is a and maximum velocity
of particle 2 is- is b. Then its time period of vibration will be :-
–p p –p p a
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2pb b2 b2
6 3 3 6 (1) (2) (3) (4)
a a2 b a
216 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
23. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion 28. The total energy of a harmonic oscillator of mass
with an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 2kg is 9 joules. If its potential energy at mean position
3 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its is 5 joules, its K.E. at the mean position will be :
velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its
(1) 9J (2) 14J (3) 4J (4) 11J
time period in seconds is :-
29. The particle executing simple harmonic motion has
2 3p 2p 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) a kinetic energy Ko cos2 wt. The maximum values
3p 2 3 2p of the potential energy and the total energy are
respectively :-
24. A body executes S.H.M. with an amplitude A. At (1) Ko and Ko (2) 0 and 2Ko
what displacement from the mean position, is the
Ko
potential energy of the body one-fourth of its total (3) and Ko (4) Ko and 2Ko
2
energy?
30. If <E> and <V> denotes the average kinetic and
A
(1) average potential energies respectively of mass
4
describing a simple harmonic motion over one
A
(2) period then the correct relation is:
2
(1) <E> = <V> (2) <E> = 2<V>
3A
(3) (3) <E> = –2<V> (4) <E> = – <V>
4
(4) Some other fraction of A 31. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator
at mean position is 3 joules. If its mean K.E. is
25. A particle of mass 4 kg moves simple harmonically
4 joules, its total energy will be :
such that its PE (U) varies with position x, as shown.
The period of oscillations is :- (1) 7J (2) 8J (3) 10J (4) 11J
32. Simple pendulum of large length is made equal to the

U(x)joule radius of the earth. Its period of oscillation will be :
(1) 84.6 min. (2) 59.8 min.
1.0 (3) 42.3 min. (4) 21.15 min.
33. A lift is ascending with acceleration g/3. What will

O 0.2
be the time period of a simple pendulum suspended
x(m)® from its ceiling if its time period in stationary lift is
T?
2p p 2 T 3T 3T T
(1) s (2) s (1) (2) (3) (4)
25 5 2 2 4 4
4p 2p 2 34. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic

(3) s (4) s
5 5 motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time
period T. The speed of the pend ulum at
26. The force acting on a 4gm mass in the energy region x = a/2 will be :-
U = 8x2 at x = –2cm is :
pa 3 pa 3 pa 3p 2 a
(1) 8 dyne (2) 4 dyne (1) (2) (3) (4)
T 2T T T
(3) 16 dyne (4) 32 dyne
35. The period of oscillation of simple pendulum of
27. A particle describes SHM in a straight line about O.
length L suspended from the roof of the vehicle
O P
which moves without friction, down on an inclined
If the time period of the motion is T then its kinetic plane of inclination a, is given by :-
energy at P be half of its peak value at O, if the time
L L
taken by the particle to travel from O to P is (1) 2p (2) 2p
g cos a g sin a
1 1 1 1
(1) T (2) T (3) T (4) T
2 4 2 2 8 L L
(3) 2p (4) 2p
g g tana
E 217
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
36. The time period of oscillations of a simple pendulum 42. As shown in the figure, two light springs of force
is 1 minute. If its length is increased by 44%, then constant K1 and K2 oscillate a block of mass M. Its
its new time period of oscillation will be :- effective force constant will be :
(1) 96 s (2) 58 s (3) 82 s (4) 72 s
37. Two pendulums of length 1.21 m and 1.0 m start
vibrating. At some instant, the two are in the mean
K1 K2
position in same phase. After how many vibrations
M
of the longer pendulum, the two will be in phase?
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 20 (4) 21
38. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently
(1) K1K2 (2) K1 + K2
high building and is moving freely to and fro like a
simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the 1 1 K 1K 2
(3) + (4)
bob of the pendulum is 16 m/s2 at a distance of 4 K1 K 2 K1 + K 2
m from the mean position. The time period of
43. Two springs of force constant k and 2k are
oscillation is :-
connected to a mass as shown below. The frequency
(1) 2p s (2) p s (3) 2 s (4) 1 s of oscillation of the mass is :
39. Some springs are combined in series and parallel
arrangement as shown in the figure and a mass M
is suspended from them. The ratio of their
frequencies will be :
K K K
1 k 1 2k
(1) (2)
2p m 2p m
K
K
1 3k 1 m
M (3) (4)
M 2p m 2p k
44. In an artificial satellite, the use of a pendulum watch

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3)
3 : 2 (4) 4 : 1 is discarded, because :
40. Two particles A and B of equal masses are (1) The satellite is in a constant state of motion
suspended from two massless springs of spring
(2) The effective value of g becomes zero in the
constants k1 and k2, respectively. If the maximum
velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of artificial satellite Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\12-OSCILLATION(SHM).P65
amplitudes of A and B is- (3) The periodic time of the pendulum watch is re-
duced
(1) k1 / k 2 (2) k1/k2
(4) None of these
(3) k 2 / k1 (4) k2/k1
45. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of
41. A block of mass m is suspended separately by two a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has
different springs have time period t1 and t2. If same
negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled
mass is connected to parallel combination of both
down and released, it oscillates with a time period
springs, then its time period is given by :-
of 3s. When the mass m is increased by 2 kg, the
t1 t 2 t1 t2 time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value
(1) t + t (2) of m in kg is :-
1 2 t12 + t 22
8 9 9 16
t1 t 2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
9 8 16 9
(3) t1 + t 2 (4) t1 + t2
218 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
46. The amplitude of a SHM reduces to 1/3 in first 20 49. A block is resting on a piston which executes simple
second then in first 40 second its amplitude becomes: harmonic motion with a period 2.0 s. The maximum
velocity of the piston, at an amplitude just sufficient
1 1 1 1 for the block to separate from the piston is :- (g =
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 9 27 3 10 m/s2)
(1) 1.57 ms–1 (2) 3.14 ms–1
47. Amplitude of vibrations remains constant in case of (3) 1 ms –1 (4) 6.42 ms–1
(i) free vibrations
50. A simple pendulum has time period T 1. The point
(ii) damped vibrations
of suspension is now moved upward according to
(iii) maintained vibrations the relation y = Kt2, (K = 1 m/s2) where y is the
(iv) forced vibrations vertical displacement. The time period now
(1) i, iii, iv (2) ii, iii
T12
(3) i, ii, iii (4) ii, iv becomes T2. The ratio of is : (g = 10 m/s2)
T22
48. In the following four : 6 5 4
(i) Time period of revolution of a satellite just (1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
5 6 5
above the earth’s surface (Tst)
(ii) Time period of oscillation of ball inside the
tunnel bored along the diameter of the earth
(Tma)
(iii) Time period of simple pendulum having a
length equal to the earth’s radius in a uniform
field of 9.8 newton/kg (Tsp)
(iv) Time period of an infinite simple pendulum in
the earth’s gravitational field (Tis)
Which of the following is true
(1) Tst > Tma (2) Tma > Tst
(3) Tsp > Tis (4) Tst = Tma = Tsp = Tis
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 1 3 1 2 3 4 3 1 1 1 1 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 3 1 2 4 1 2 2 4 4 4 3 1 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 2 4 3 2 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 1 4 2 1
E 219
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
WAVE MOTION & DOPPLER'S EFFECT EXERCISE
1. Water waves are of the nature : 9. The graph between wave number ( n ) and angular
(1) Transverse frequency (w) is :
(2) Longitudinal
(3) Sometimes longitudinal and some times
frequency (w)
frequency (w)
transverse and longitudinal both
Angular
Angular
(4) Neither transverse nor longitudinal
(1) (2)
2. Sound wave are not polarized because :
(1) Their speed is less Wave no. (–
n) Wave no. (–
n)
(2) A medium is needed for their propagation

(3) These are longitudinal
frequency (w)
frequency (w)
(4) Their speed depands on temperature
Angular
Angular
3. Transverse waves can propagate (3) (4)
(1) only in solids
Wave no. (–
n) Wave no. (–
n)
(2) both in solids and gases
(3) neither in solids nor in gases 10. The figure shows an instantaneous profile of a rope
(4) only in gases carrying a progressive wave moving from left to
4. Transverse elastic waves can be propagate in right, then
(1) Both solid & gas
(2) In solid but not gas y
(3) Neither solid nor gas
(4) None
5. Th e eq uati on o f progressive wave is A x
B
ì æ t xö p ü
Y = 4 sin í p ç - ÷ + ý where x and y are
î è 5 9 ø 6 þ
(a) the phase at A is greater than the phase at B
in cm. Which of the following statement is true ?
(b) the phase at B is greater than the phase at A
(1) l = 18 cm
(2) amplitude=0.04 cm (c) A is moving upwards
(3) velocity v =50 cm/s (d) B is moving upwards
(4) frequency f = 20 Hz (1) a & c (2) a & d (3) b & c (4) b & d
6. The equation y = 4 + 2 sin (6t – 3x) represents a 11. An earthquake generates both transverse (S) and
wave motion with longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth. The speed
(1) amplitude 6 units of S waves is about 4.5 km/s and that of P waves
(2) amplitude 4 units is about 8.0 km/s. A seismograph records P and
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\13-WAVE MOTION.P65
(3) wave speed 2 units S waves from an earthquake. The first P wave
(4) wave speed 1/2 units arrives 4.0 min before the first S wave. The
7. Due to propagation of longitudinal wave in a epicenter of the earthquake is located at a distance
medium, the following quantities also propagate in of about
the same direction :
(1) 25 km (2) 250 km
(1) Energy, Momentum and Mass
(3) 2500 km (4) 5000 km
(2) Energy
12. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by
(3) Energy and Mass
(4) Energy and Linear Momentum p
y = 3 sin (50 t – x), where x and y are in metres
8. A wave of frequency 500 Hz travels between X and 2
Y and travel a distance of 600 m in 2 seconds and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle
velocity to the wave velocity is :-
between X and Y. How many wavelength are there
in distance XY : 2 3
(1) 3p (2) p (3) 2p (4) p
(1) 1000 (2) 300 (3) 180 (4) 2000 3 2
236 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
13. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2cm. The 19. A man standing on a cliff claps his hand and hears
wave travels in the + ve direction of x axis with a its echo after one second. If the sound in reflected
speed of 128 m/s an d it is no ted th at
from another mountain then the distance between
5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string.
the man & reflection points is Vsound = 340 m/sec.
The equation describing the wave is :-
(1) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x – 1005t) (1) 680 m (2) 340 m
(2) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t) (3) 170 m (4) 85 m
(3) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x – 2010t) 20. If at some point the amplitude of the sound
(4) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x + 2010t) becomes double and the frequency becomes one
14. The velocities of sound at the same pressure in two fourth then at that point the intensity of sound will
monoatomic gases of densities r1 and r2 are v1 and be :-
r1 v (1) Become double
v2 respectively. If = 4 , then the value of 1
r2 v2 (2) Be half
is :
(3) Become one fourth
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 4 (4) Remain unchanged
4 2
21. What is your observation when two source are
15. A sound is produced in water and moves towards emitting sound with frequency 499 Hz & 501 Hz:
surface of water and some sound moves in air
(1) Frequency of 500 Hz is heard with change in
velocity of sound in water is 1450 m/s and that in intensity takes place twice.
air is 330 m/s. When sound moves from water to
(2) Frequency of 500 Hz is heard with change in
air then the effect on frequency f and wave length
intensity takes place Once.
l will be:
(3) Frequency of 2Hz is heard with change in intensity
(1) f and l will remain same
takes place Once.
(2) f will remain same but l will increase
(4) Frequency of 2Hz is heard with change in intensity
(3) f will remain same but l will decrease
takes place twice.
(4) f will increase and l will decrease
22. 16 tuning forks are arranged in increasing order
16. If um is the velocity of sound in moist air and ud is of frequency. Any two consecutive tuning forks when
the velocity of sound in dry air then : sounded together produce 8 beats per second. If
(1) um < ud (2) um > ud the freqency of last tuning fork is twice that of first
(3) ud >> um (4) um = ud then the frequency of first tuning fork is –
17. The equation of a wave on a string of linear density (1) 60 (2) 80 (3) 100 (4) 120
0.04 kg m–1 is given by
23. Frequency of tuning fork A is 256 Hz. It produces
four beats/sec with tuning fork B. When wax is

é æ t x öù
y = 0.02(m) sin ê2p ç - ÷ú. applied at tuning fork B then 6 beats/sec are
ë è 0.04(s) 0.50(m) ø û
heard. Frequency of B is :
The tension in the string is : (1) 252 (2) 260 Hz
(1) 6.25 N (2) 4.0 N (3) (1) & (2) both (4) 264
(3) 12.5 N (4) 0.5 N 24. Frequency of tuning fork A is 256 Hz. It produces
18. A uniform rope of mass 0.1 kg and length 2.5 m four beats/sec with tuning fork B. When wax is
hangs from ceiling. The speed of transverse wave applied at tuning fork B then 6 beats/s are heard.
in the rope at upper end and at a point 0.5 m By reducing little amount of wax 4 beats/s are
distance from lower end will be : heard. Frequency of B is :
(1) 5 m/s, 2.24 m/s (2) 10 m/s, 3.23 m/s (1) 250 Hz (2) 260 Hz
(3) 7.5 m/s, 1.2 m/s (4) 2.25 m/s, 5 m/s (3) 252 Hz (4) 256 Hz
E 237
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
25. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec. with another 31. An organ pipe closed at one end has fundamental
tuning fork B of frequency 288 Hz. If fork is loaded frequency of 1500 Hz. The maximum number of
overtones generated by this pipe which a normal
with little wax no. of beats per sec decreases. The
person can hear is
frequency of the fork A, before loading is
(1) 14 (2) 13 (3) 6 (4) 9
(1) 290 Hz (2) 288 Hz
32. A wave y = 10 sin (ax + bt) is reflected from a dense
(3) 292 Hz (4) 284 Hz medium at an origin. If 81% of energy is reflected
26. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, then the equation of reflected wave is:
are emitting progressive waves given by (1) y = –8.1 sin (ax - bt) (2) y = 8.1 sin (ax+bt)
y1 = 4 sin 500pt and y2 = 5 sin 508pt (3) y = –9 sin (bt - ax) (4) y = 10 sin (ax - bt)
An observer located near these two sources will 33. If the air column in a pipe which is closed at one
hear :- end, is in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of
(1) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 frequency 260 Hz, then the length of the air column
between waxing and waning is :
(2) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 (1) 35.7 cm (2) 31.7 cm
between waxing and waning (3) 12.5 cm (4) 62.5 cm
(3) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 34. An open resonating tube has fundamental
between waxing and waning frequency of n. When half of its length is dipped
(4) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 into water, then its fundamental frequency will be:
between waxing and waning
(1) n (2) n/2 (3) 2n (4) 3/2 n.
27. Two waves of wave length 2 m and 2.02 m
35. For a certain organ pipe three successive resonable
respectively moving with the same velocity
frequencies are observed at 425, 595 and 765 Hz
and superimpose to produce 2 beats per second.
respectively. Taking the speed of sound in air to be
The velocity of the waves is:
340 m/sec (i) whether the pipe is closed end or open
(1) 400.0 m/s (2) 402 m/s
end (ii) determine the length of pipe.
(3) 404 m/s (4) 406 m/s
(1) closed end, 1 m (2) open end, 1 m
28. A tube closed at one end and containing air
(3) closed end, 2m (4) open end, 1 m
produces, when excited, the fundamental note of
frequency 512 Hz. If the tube is open at both 36. A cylindrical tube (L = 120 cm.) is resonant with
ends,the fundamental frequency that can be excited a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz. If it is filling by
is (in Hz) water then to get resonance minimum length of
(1) 1024 (2) 512 (3) 256 (4) 128 water column is (Vair = 330 m/s)
29. An air column in pipe,which is closed at one end (1) 45 cm. (2) 60 cm.
will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of (3) 25 cm. (4) 20 cm.
frequency 264 Hz if the length of the column in cm 37. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the
is : [v = 330 m/s] same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe
(1) 31.25 (2) 62.50 (3) 110 (4) 125 50 cm long. The length of the open pipe will be
30. A hollow metallic tube of length L and closed at one (1) 25 cm (2) 200 cm
end produce resonance with a tuning fork of (3) 50 cm (4) 100 cm
frequency n . The entire tube is then heated 38. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one
carefully so that at equilbrium temperature its end and open at other end are 460 Hz and
length changes by l . If the change in velocity V of 500 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the
sound is v, the resonance will now be produced by system?
tuning fork of frequency.
(1) 20 Hz (2) 30 Hz
(1) (V +v) / [4(L + l)] (2) (V +v) / [4(L - l)]
(3) 40 Hz (4) 10 Hz
(3) (V -v) / [4(L + l)] (4) (V -v) / [4(L - l)]
238 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
39. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass 44. Two identical piano wires, kept under the same
tension T have a fundamental frequency of
tube. The length of the air column in this tube can
600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of
be adjusted by a variable piston. At room one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of
temperature of 27°C two successiv resonances are 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together
produced at 40 cm and 93 cm column length. If the would be :-
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04
frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity
45. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s,
of sound in air at 27°C is :-
when sounded with a source of known frequency
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of
unknown frequency gives five beats per second,
(3) 350 m/s (4) 300 m/s
when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz.
40. An air column, closed at one end and open at the The unknown frequency is
other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest (1) 260 Hz (2) 254 Hz (3) 246 Hz (4) 240 Hz
length of the column is 40 cm. The next larger length 46. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of
of the column resonating with the same tuning fork three segments into which a string is divided, then
is : the original fundamental frequency n of the string
(1) 66.7 cm (2) 80 cm is given by :-
(3) 120 cm (4) 150 cm 1 1 1 1

(1) n = n + n + n
1 2 3
41. A wave of frequency 100 Hz travels along a string
towards its fixed end. When this wave travels back, 1 1 1 1
(2) = + +
after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of n n1 n2 n3
10 cm from the fixed end. The speed of the wave
(3) n = n 1 + n2 + n 3
(incident and reflected) is :
(4) n = n1 + n2 + n3
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4) 40 m/s
47. A string is stretched between two fixed points
42. A second harmonic has to generated in a string of
separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have
length l stretched between two rigid supports. The
resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There
points where the string has to be plucked and
are no other resonant frequencies between these
touched are –
two. The lowest resonant frequencies for this string
l 3l is :-
(1) Pluck at touch at
2 4 (1) 105 Hz (2) 155 Hz
l l (3) 205 Hz (4) 10.5 Hz

2 4 48. The tension in a stretched string fixed at both ends

is changed by 2%, the fundamental frequency is
l 3l found to get changed by 15 Hz. Select the incorrect
4 4 statement
(1) Wavelength of the string of fundamental
l l
(4) Pluck at touch at frequency does not change
4 2
(2) Velocity of propagation of wave changes by 2%
43. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats (3) Velocity of propagation of wave changes by 1%
per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The
(4) Original frequency is 1500 Hz
beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per seconds
when the tension in the piano string is slightly 49. A string is rigided by two ends and its equation is
increased. The frequency of the piano string before given by y = cos2pt sin2px
increasing the tension was : Then minimum length of string is
(1) 508 Hz (2) 510 Hz (3) 514 Hz (4) 516 Hz (1) 1m (2) 1/2m (3) 5m (4) 2p m
E 239
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
50. A wave represented by the equation y = a cos 56. A uniform rope of length L and mass m hangs
(wt – kx) is superposed by another wave to form a vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass
2m is attached to the free end of the rope.
stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node.
A transverse pulse of wavelength l1 is produced
The equation for other wave is – at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of
(1) y = a sin (wt + kx) (2) y = – a cos (wt – kx) the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is
l2 . The ratio l2 /l1 is :
(3) y = – a cos (wt + kx) (4) y = – a sin (wt – kx)
51. A stretched string is 1 m long. Its mass per unit 3
(1) 1 (2)
length is 0.5 g/m. It is stretched with a force of 2
20 N. It plucked at a distance of 25 cm from one (3) 2 (4) 3

end. The frequency of note emitted by it will be: 57. A source and an observer moves away from each
(1) 400 Hz (2) 300 Hz other, with a velocity of 15 m/s with respect to
ground. If observer finds the frequency of sound
(3) 200 Hz (4) 100 Hz
coming from source as 1950 Hz. Then actual
52. Two wires are fixed in a sonometer. Their tensions frequency of source will be
are in the ratio 8:1. The lengths are in the ratio (velocity of sound = 340 m/s) :
36:35. The diameters are in the ratio 4:1. (1) 1785 Hz (2) 1968 Hz
Densities of the materials are in the ratio 1:2. If the (3) 1950 Hz (4) 2130 Hz
higher frequency in the setting is 360 Hz, the beat 58. Sound source of frequnecy 170 Hz is placed near
frequency when the two wires sounded together is: a wall. A man walking from the source towards the
(1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 6 wall finds, that there is periodic rise and fall of sound
53. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork inte nsity. If the s peed o f sound i n air is
forming standing waves with five antinodes 340 m/s, then the distance separating the two
between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is adjacent portions of minimum intensity is:
suspended from the wire. When this mass is (1) (1/2) m (2) (3/2) m
replaced by mass M, the wire resonates with the
(3) 1 m (4) 2 m
same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the
59. A whistle revolves in a circle with angular speed
same positions of the bridges. Then find the value
w = 20 rad/sec using a string of length 50 cm. If
of square root of M.
the frequency of sound from the whistle is 385 Hz,
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 25 (4) None then what is the minimum frequency heard by an
54. When a guitar string is sounded with a 440 Hz tuning observer which is far away from the centre:
(Vsound = 340 m/s)
fork a beat frequency of 5 Hz is heard. If the
(1) 385 Hz (2) 374 Hz
experiment is repeated with a tuning fork of 436
(3) 394 Hz (4) 333 Hz

Hz the beat frequency is 9 Hz. The string frequency
60. A source of frequency 200 Hz is moving towards
(Hz) is – an observer with a velocity equal to the sound
(1) 445 (2) 435 (3) 429 (4) 448 velocity V. If observer also moves away from the
55. A string of linear mass density 4 g/cm is vibrating source with same velocity then apparent frequency
according to equation :- heard by observer will be :
(1) 50 Hz (2) 160 Hz
æ 4p ö
y = A sin(240pt) cos ç x÷ (3) 150 Hz (4) 200 Hz
è 5 ø
61. A bus is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s towards
where x is in centimeters.
a huge wall. The driver sounds a horn of frequency
Find the tension in the string
165Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 335 m/s, No.
(1) 3.6 N (2) 36 N of beats heared by a passenger on bus will be–
(3) 7.2 N (4) 72 N (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4
240 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
62. A body is walking away from a wall towards an 66. Doppler effect for light differs from that for sound
in regards that :
observer at a speed of 1 m/s and blows a whistle
(1) the relative frequency shift is smaller for light
whose frequency is 680 Hz. The number of beats than for sound.
heard by the observer per second is :- (2) the velocity addition valid for sound is not true
(velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s) for light waves.
(3) velocity of light is very large as compared to
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) zero sound.
63. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 900 Hz moves (4) light waves are electromagnetic waves but
sound waves are mechanical.
away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed
67. An observer moves towards a stationary source of
of 30ms–1. Then, the frequency of sound that the sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of sound.
observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff The wavelength and frequency of the source are
l and f respectively. The apparent frequency and
is :
wavelength recorded by the observer are
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms–1) respectively :–
(1) 930 Hz (2) 960 Hz (1) 1.2f, 1.2l (2) 1.2f, l
(3) f, 1.2l (4) 0.8f, 0.8l
(3) 990 Hz (4) 1000 Hz
68. An astronomical object is moving with such a
64. The wavelength of the light received from a galaxy is speed that red shift of 1nm is observed in
0.4% greater than the wave length on the earth then wavelength of 600 nm of wave received from it,
the velocity of galaxy relative to the earth will be: the speed of wave is :-
(1) 1.2x107 m/sec (2) 1.2 x 106 m/sec (1) 5× 105 m/s (2) 4 × 105 m/s
(3) 1.2 x 10 m/sec
5
(4) 1.2 x 104 m/sec (3) 3 × 10 m/s
5
(4) 2 × 105 m/s
65. Doppler effect for sound depends upon the
relative motion of source and listener and it also
depends upon that which one of these is in
motion. Whereas in doppler effect for light it only
depends upon the relative motion of the source of
light and observer. The reason for it is :
(1) Einstein's mass energy relation
(2) Einstein's theory of relativity
(3) Photo electric effect
(4) none of above
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 2 2 3 4 1 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 1 1 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 1 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 3 2 1 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 1 1 1 2 4 3 2 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 1
E 241
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Serial Page
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
No. No.
Contents
1. Some Basic concepts of Chemistry 01-14
2. Atomic structure 15-29
3. Chemical equilibrium 30-41
4. Ionic equilibrium 42-61

CHEMISTRY
(Class - XI & XII)
5. Thermodynamics 62-83
6. Redox Reactions 84-94
7. Behaviour of gases 95-99
8. Solid State 100-118
9. Solution 119-134
10. Chemical Kinetics 135-153
11. Electrochemistry 154-172
12. Surface Chemistry 173-189
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN Pre-Medical : Chemistry 11
SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY EXERCISE

1. No. of atoms in 4.25 g. of NH3 is approx :– 10. If V mL of the vapours of substance at NTP weight
(1) 1 ´ 10 23
(2) 1.5 ´ 10 23 W g. Then molecular weight of substance is:-
(3) 2 ´ 10 23
(4) 6 ´ 1023 V
(1) (W/V) × 22400 (2) × 22.4
W
2. Which of the following contains maximum number
of atoms ? W ´1
(3) (W - V) × 22400 (4)
V ´ 22400
(1) 4 g of H2 (2) 16 g of O2
(3) 28 g of N2 (4) 18 g of H2O 11. If 3.01 ´ 1020 molecules are removed from
98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of
3. 5.6 L of oxygen at STP contains - H2SO4 left are :–
(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms (2) 3.01 × 1023 atoms (1) 0.1 ´ 10–3 (2) 0.5 ´ 10–3
(3) 1.505 × 1023 atoms (4) 0.7525 ×1023 atoms (3) 1.66 ´ 10–3 (4) 9.95 ´ 10–2
4. Sum of number of protons, electrons and neutrons in 12. Vapour density of gas is 11.2. Volume occupied by
12
12g of 6 C is :- 2.4 g of this at STP will be -
(1) 1.8 (2) 12.044 × 1023 (1) 11.2 L (2) 2.24 L
(3) 22.4 L (4) 2.4 L
(3) 1.084 × 1025 (4) 10.84 × 1023
13. A person adds 1.71 gram of sugar (C12H22O11) in
5. Which of the following has the highest mass ?
order to sweeten his tea. The number of carbon
(1) 1 g atom of C atoms added are (mol. mass of sugar = 342)
(2) 1/2 mole of CH4 (1) 3.6 × 1022 (2) 7.2 × 1021
(3) 10 mL of water (3) 0.05 (4) 6.6 × 1022
(4) 3.011 × 1023 atoms of oxygen 14. A hydrocarbon contains 80% of carbon, then the
hydrocarbon is -
6. Which of the following contains the least number of
molecules ? (1) CH4 (2) C2H4
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\01.SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY.P65
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H2

(1) 4.4 g CO2 (2) 3.4 g NH3
(3) 1.6 g CH4 (4) 3.2 g SO2 15. An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of oxygen.
Metal M has atomic mass of 24. The emperical
7. Elements A and B form two compounds B2A3 and formula of the oxide
B 2A. 0.05 moles of B 2A 3 weight 9.0 g and (1) M2O (2) M2O3 (3) MO (4) M3O4
0.10 mole of B2A weight 10 g atomic weight of A
16. A compound contains 38.8% C, 16.0% H and
and B are-
45.2% N. The formula of the compound would be
(1) 20 and 30 (2) 30 and 40
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3CN
(3) 40 and 30 (4) 30 and 20 (3) C2H5CN (4) CH2(NH)2
8. 4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 L of volume 17. 2.2 g of a compound of phosphorous and sulphur
at STP. The gas may be :- has 1.24 g of 'P' in it. Its emperial formula is -
(1) N2O (2) CO (1) P2S3 (2) P3S2
(3) CO2 (4) 1 & 3 both (3) P3S4 (4) P4S3
9. Which contains least no. of molecules :– 18. The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 ×1010 and
9.6 × 1010 respectively. Its empirical formula is –
(1) 1 g CO2 (2) 1 g N2
(1) Cr2O3 (2) CrO2
(3) 1 g O2 (4) 1 g H2 (3) Cr2O4 (4) CrO5
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
12 Pre-Medical : Chemistry ALLEN

19. A giant molecule contains 0.25% of a metal whose 24. If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of
atomic weight is 59. Its molecule contains one atom
Na 3PO 4 the maximum number of moles of
of that metal. Its minimum molecular weight is -
Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is -
(1) 5900 (2) 23600
3BaCl2 + 2Na3 PO4 ® Ba3 (PO4)2 + 6NaCl
100 ´ 59
(3) 11800 (4) (1) 0.7 (2) 0.5
0.4
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.1
20. 9 g of Al will react, with
3 25. If 8 mL of uncombined O2 remain after exploding
2Al + O ® Al2 O3
2 2 O2 with 4 mL of hydrogen, the number of mL of O2
(1) 6 g O2 (2) 8 g O2 originally were -
(3) 9 g O2 (4) 4 g O2 (1) 12 (2) 2
21. The equation : (3) 10 (4) 4
3 26. 4 g of hydrogen are ignited with 4 g of oxygen.

2Al(s) + O (g)
2 2
® Al2O3(s) shows that :-
The weight of water formed is -
3 (1) 0.5 g (2) 3.5 g
(1) 2 mole of Al reacts with mole of O2 to produce
2 (3) 4.5 g (4) 2.5 g
7
mole of Al2O3 27. If 1.6 g of SO2 and 1.5 × 1022 molecules of H2S
2
are mixed and allowed to remain in contact in a
3 closed vessel until the reaction
(2) 2g of Al reacts with g of O2 to produce one
2
2H2S + SO2 ¾® 3S + 2H2O,
mole of Al2O3
proceeds to completion. Which of the following
3
(3) 2 g of Al reacts with litre of O2 to produce 1 statement is true ?
2
mole of Al2O3 (1) Only 'S' and 'H2O' remain in the reaction vessel.

(2) 'H2S' will remain in excess
3
(4) 2 mole of Al reacts with mole of O2 to produce
2 (3) 'SO2' will remain in excess
1 mole of Al2O3 (4) None
22. 1L of CO2 is passed over hot coke. When the volume

28. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give
of reaction mixture becomes 1.4 L, the composition
of reaction mixture is– 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The
hydrocarbon is -
(1) 0.6 L CO
(1) C4H5 (2) C8H10
(2) 0.8 L CO2
(3) C4H8 (4) C4H10
(3) 0.6 L CO2 and 0.8 L CO
(4) None 29. 500 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in
excess of O2 gave 2.5 L of CO2 and 3.0 L of water
23. The number of litres of air required to burn 8 litres
of C2H2 is approximately- vapours under same conditions. Molecular formula
of the hydrocarbon is -
(1) 40 (2) 60
(1) C4H8 (2) C4H10
(3) 80 (4) 100
(3) C5H10 (4) C5H12
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

30. Molecular weight of tribasic acid is W. Its equivalent 39. 2.8 g of iron displaces 3.2 g of copper from a
weight will be : solution of copper suphate solution. If the equivalent
mass of iron is 28, then equivalent mass of copper
W W
(1) (2) will be –
2 3
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 64
(3) W (4) 3W
40. A metal oxide is reduced by heating it in a stream
31. Which property of an element is not variable : of hydrogen. It is found that after complete reduction
(1) Valency (2) Atomic weight 3.15 g of the oxide have yielded 1.05 g of the
(3) Equivalent weight (4) None metal. We may conclude that.
(1) Atomic weight of the metal is 4
32. 0.45 g of acid (molecular wt. = 90) was exactly
(2) Equivalent weight of the metal is 8
neutralised by 20 mL. of 0.5 N NaOH. Basicity of
the acid is - (3) Equivalent weight of the metal is 4
(1) 1 (2) 2 (4) Atomic weight of the metal is 8
(3) 3 (4) 4
41. If 2.4 g of a metal displace 1.12 litre hydrogen at
33. 0.126 g of an acid requires 20 mL of 0.1 N NaOH normal temperature and pressure equivalent weight
for complete neutralisation. Equivalent weight of of metal would be:-
the acid is – (1) 12 (2) 24
(1) 45 (2) 53 (3) 40 (4) 63 (3) 1.2 × 11.2 (4) 1.2 ¸ 11.2
34. 2g of a base whose equivalent weight is 40 reacts 42. 1.6 g of Ca and 2.60 g of Zn when treated with an
with 3 g of an acid. The equivalent weight of the
acid in excess separately, produced the same
acid is :
amount of hydrogen. If the equivalent weight of Zn is
(1) 40 (2) 60 32.6, what is the equivalent weight of Ca:-
(3) 10 (4) 80
(1) 10 (2) 20
35. 0.84 g of a metal carbonate react's exactly with 40 (3) 40 (4) 5
mL of N/2 H2SO4. The equivalent weight of the
metal carbonate is - 43. 74.5 g of a metallic chloride contains 35.5 g of
chlorine. The equivalent mass of the metal is –
(1) 84 (2) 64
(3) 42 (4) 32 (1) 19.5 (2) 35.5

(3) 39.0 (4) 78.0
36. H3PO 4 is a tribasic acid and one of its salt is
NaH2PO4 What volume of 1M NaOH solution should 44. The equivalent weight of an element is 4. It's chloride
be added to 12 g NaH2PO4 to convert it into has a V.D. 59.25. Then the valency of the element
Na3PO4 ? (at.wt of P=31) is –
(1) 100 mL (2) 200 mL (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 80 mL (4) 300 mL
37. When an element forms an oxide in which oxygen 45. The carbonate of a metal is isomorphous with
is 20% of the oxide by mass, the equivalent mass MgCO3 and contains 6.091% of carbon. Atomic
of the element will be – weight of the metal is nearly -
(1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 60 (4) 128
(1) 48 (2) 68.5
38. One g of hydrogen is found to combine with (3) 137 (4) 120
80 g of bromine. One g of calcium (valency = 2)
46. The atomic weight of a metal (M) is 27 and its
combines with 4 g of bromine. The equivalent weight
equivalent weight is 9, the formula of its chloride will
of calcium is –
be:-
(1) 10 (2) 20
(1) MCl (2) MCl2
(3) 40 (4) 80
(3) M3Cl (4) MCl3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

47. The specific heat of a metal M is 0.25. Its eq. wt. is 49. One litre of a certain gas weighs 1.16 g at STP.
12. What is it's correct at wt. :– The gas may posibly be -
(1) 25.6 (2) 36 (3) 24 (4) 12 (1) C2H2 (2) CO (3) O2 (4) NH3
48. Vapour density of a gas is 16. The ratio of specific 50. The oxide of an element possess the molecular
heat at constant pressure to specific heat at constant formula M2O3. If the equivalent mass of the metal is
volume is 1.4, then its atomic weight is - 9, the molecular mass of the oxide will be –
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 32 (1) 27 (2) 75 (3) 102 (4) 18
SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 1 2 4 1 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 2 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 4 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 4 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 3 2 1 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ATOMIC STRUCTURE EXERCISE

1. Angular momentum in second Bohr orbit of 8. Potential energy is – 27.2 eV in second orbit of
H-atom is x. Then find out angular momentum in He+ then calculate, double of total energy in first
Ist excitetd state of Li+2 ion :
excited state of hydrogen atom :–
x
(1) 3x (2) 9x (3) (4) x (1) – 13.6 eV
2
(2) – 54.4 eV
2. Multiplication of electron velocity and radius for a (3) – 6.8 eV
orbit in an atom is :- (4) – 27.2 eV
(1) Proportional to mass of electron 9. Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for the
(2) Proportional to square of mass of electron transition :–
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2
(3) Inversely proportional to mass of electron
(3) n = 1 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 6
(4) Does not depend upon mass of electron
10. Which of the following electron transition will require
3. In Bohr's atomic model radius of Ist orbit of Hydrogen the largest amount of energy in a hydrogen atom :-
is 0.053 nm then radius of 3rd orbit of Li+2 is : (1) From n = 1 to n = 2 (2) From n = 2 to n = 3
(1) 0.159 (2) 0.053 (3) From n = ¥ to n = 1 (4) From n = 3 to n = 5
(3) 0.023 (4) 0.026
11. If the potential energy (PE) of hydrogen electron is
4. The velocity of electron in third excited state of –3.02 eV then in which of the following excited
Be3+ ion will be :– level is electron present :-
(1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) 4th
3
(1) (2.188 ´ 108) ms–1
4 12. The radiation of low frequency will be emitted in
which transition of hydrogen atom :–
3
(2) (2.188 ´ 106)ms–1 (1) n = 1 to n = 4 (2) n = 2 to n = 5
4
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 5 to n = 2
(3) (2.188 ´ 106) Kms–1
(4) (2.188 ´ 103) Kms–1 13. A single electron orbits a stationary nucleus (z = 5).
The energy required to excite the electron from
5. According to Bohr theory, the radius (r) and velocity third to fourth Bohr orbit will be :-
(v) of an electron vary with the increasing principal (1) 4.5 eV (2) 8.53 eV
quantum number 'n' as :- (3) 25 eV (4) 16.53 eV
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\02.ATOMIC STRUCTURE.P65
(1) r increases, v decreases

(2) r and v both increases 14. Which of the following is a correct relationship :-
(3) r & v both decreases (1) E 1 of H = 1/2 E 2 of He + = 1/3 E 3 of
(4) r decreases, v increases Li+2 = 1/4 E4 of Be+3
(2) E1 (H) = E2 (He+) = E3 (Li+2) = E4 (Be+3)
6. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
(3) E1 (H) = 2 E2 (He+) = 3 E3 (Li+2) = 4 E4 (Be+3)
atom is –328 KJ/mol. Hence the energy of fourth
Bohr orbit should be : (4) No relation
(1) –41 KJ/mol (2) –1312 KJ/mol 15. First excitation potential of H atom is :
(3) –164 KJ/mol (4) –82 KJ/mol (1) 10.2 eV (2) 3.4 eV
(3) 0 (4) – 3.4 eV
7. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in
ground state is –13.6 eV, then engery in the 2nd 16. The ionisation energy for excited hydrogen atom in
excited state is :- eV will be :–
(1) -1.51 eV (2) -3.4 eV (1) 13.6 (2) Less than 13.6
(3) -6.04 eV (4) -13.6 eV (3) Greater than 13.6 (4) 3.4 or less
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

17. The ionisation energy for the H– atom is 13.6 eV, 27. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the fourth Bohr orbit
then the required energy to excite it from the of hydrogen atom is 4Å, the circumference of the
ground state to next higher state will be :- orbit will be :-
( in eV) (1) 4Å (2) 4 nm (3) 16 Å (4) 16 nm
(1) 3.4 (2) 10.2 (3) 12.1 (4) 1.5
28. What is the ratio of the De-Broglie wave lengths
18. Third line of Balmer series is produced by which for electrons accelerated through 200 volts and
transition in spectrum of H–atom 50 volts :-
(1) 5 to 2 (2) 5 to 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 to 2 (4) 4 to 1 (3) 3 : 10 (4) 10 : 3
19. The ratio of minimum frequency of Lyman & Balmer 29. A particle X moving with a certain velocity has a
series will be :– debroglie wavelength of 1Å. If particle Y has a
(1) 1.25 (2) 0.25 (3) 5.4 (4) 10 mass of 25% that of X and velocity 75% that of
X, debroglies wavelength of Y will be :-
20. The wavelength of photon obtained by electron (1) 3Å (2) 5.33 Å
transition between two levels in H– atom and singly (3) 6.88 Å (4) 48 Å
ionised He are l1 and l2 respectively, then :- 30. The uncertainity in position of an electron & helium
(1) l2 = l1 (2) l2 = 2l1 atom are same. If the uncertainity in momentum
(3) l2 = l1/2 (4) l2 = l1/4 for the electron is 32 × 105 , then the uncertainity
in momentum of helium atom will be
21. The first Lyman transition in the hydrogen spectrum
(1) 32 × 105 (2) 16 × 105
has DE = 10.2 eV. The same energy change is (3) 8 × 10 5
(4) None
observed in the second Balmer transition of :-
(1) Li2+ (2) Li+ (3) He+ (4) Be3+ 31. The uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass
9.1 × 10 –28 gm) moving with a velocity of
22. If the shortest wavelength of Lyman series of 3 ×104 cm sec–1, uncertainity in velocity is 0.011%
H atom is x, then the wave length of first line of will be:-
Balmer series of H atom will be :- (1) 1.92 cm (2) 7.68 cm
9x 36x 5x 5x (3) 0.175 cm (4) 3.84 cm
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 9 36
32. The following quantum no. are possible for how
23. In H–atom, electron transits from 6th orbit to 2nd many orbitals n = 3, l = 2, m = +2
orbit in multi step. Then total spectral lines (without (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Balmer series) will be :– 33. Nodal plane is found in which orbital.
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 0
(1) n = 2, l = 0 (2) n = 3, l = 0
24. A certain electronic transition from an excited state (3) n = 2, l = 1 (4) n = 1, l = 0
to ground state of the H2 atom in one or more step
gives rise to three lines in the ultra violet region of 34. Number of orbitals in h sub-shell is
the spectrum. How many lines does this transition (1) 11 (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 19
produce in the infrared region of the spectrum :–
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 35. Which of the following is correct for a 4d–electron
25. If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H atom, the no. 1

(1) n = 4, l = 2, s = +
of spectral lines emitted is equal to :- 2
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (2) n = 4, l = 2, s = 0
26. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with (3) n = 4, l = 3, s = 0

the hydrogen electron in its third orbit :- 1
(1) 9.96 × 10–10 cm (2) 9.96 × 10–8 cm (4) n = 4, l = 3, s = +
2
(3) 9.96 × 10 cm
4
(4) 9.96 × 108 cm
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

36. Spin angular momentum for electron :- 44. n and l values of an orbital 'A' are 3 and 2, of
another orbital 'B' are 5 and 0. The energy of
h h (1) B is more than A
(1) s (s + 1) (2) 2s (s + 1)
2p 2p (2) A is more than B
(3) A and B are of same energy
h
(3) s (s + 2) (4) None (4) None
2p
45. No. of all subshells of n + l = 7 is:-
37. The total value of m for the electrons (n = 4) is - (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32 46. For Na (Z = 11) set of quantum numbers for last
electron is:–
38. In an atom, for how many electrons, the quantum 1
(1) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +
1 2
numbers will be , n = 3, l = 2, m = + 2, s = + :-
2 1
(2) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
(1) 18 (2) 6 (3) 24 (4) 1 2
1
39. A neutral atom of an element has 2K, 8L, 11 M and (3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 1, s = +
2
2N electrons. The number of s-electron in the atom are
1
(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 6 (4) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = –
2
40. If l = 3 then type and number of orbital is :– 47. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is
correct for the 19th electron of Chromium
(1) 3p, 3 (2) 4f, 14 (3) 5f, 7 (4) 3d, 5
n l m s
41. Which configuration does not obey pauli's exclusion (1) 3 0 0 1/2
principle :- (2) 3 2 –2 1/2
(3) 4 0 0 1/2
(1) (2)
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯¯
¯ ¯ (4) 4 1 –1 1/2
48. An atom of Cr [Z = 24] loses 2 electrons.
(3) (4)
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ How many unpaired electrons shall be there in Cr+2:
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
42. Which of the following configuration follows the
49. The atomic number of an element is 17, the number
Hund's rule :– of orbitals containing electron pairs in the valance
2s 2p 2s 2p shell is:-
¯ ¯ ¯ (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6
(1) [He] ¯
¯ ¯ ¯
(2) [He] ¯ ¯
50. What is the electronic configuration of an element in
2s 2p 2s 2p its first excited state which is isoelectronic with O2
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
(3) [He] ¯ ¯ (4) [He] ¯ ¯ (1) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 3d1 (2) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
(3) [Ne] 3s1 3p3 3d2 (4) [Ne] 3s1 3p5

43. The orbital with maximum energy is
51. The number of electrons in the M-shell of the element
(1) 3d (2) 5p (3) 4s (4) 6d
with atomic number 24 is :-
(1) 24 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 13
ATOMIC STRUCTURE ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 1 4 1 4 1 3 1 1 2 4 4 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 1 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 1 3 1 1 1 3 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51
Ans. 2 3 1 3 1 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM EXERCISE
1. x
y reaction is said to be in equilibrium, when:- 9. For the reaction

CuSO4.5H2O(s) CuSO4 . 3H2O(s) + 2H2O(g)
(1) Only 10% conversion x to y takes place.
(2) Complete conversion of x to y takes place Which one is correct representation :–
(3) Conversion of x to y is only 50% complete (1) Kp = p2H2O (2) Kc = [H2O]2
(4) The rate of change of x to y is just equal to the (3) Kp = Kc(RT)2 (4) All
rate of change of y to x in the system
Kp
2. Ratio of active masses of 22g CO2, 3g H2 and 7g 10. For which reaction at 298 K, the value of is
Kc
N2 in a gaseous mixture :-
maximum and minimum respectively:-
(1) 22 : 3 : 7 (2) 0.5: 3 : 7
(a) N2O4
2NO2
(3) 1 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 : 0.5
(b) 2SO2 + O2
2SO3
3. Select the correct statement from the following :
(c) X + Y
4Z
(1) Equilibrium constant changes with addition of
catalyst (d) A + 3B
7C
(2) Catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction. (1) d, c (2) d, b (3) c, b (4) d, a
(3) The ratio of mixture at equilibrium does not
11. Consider the two gaseous equilibrium involving SO2 and
changed by catalyst
the corresponding equilibrium constants at 299 K
(4) Catalyst are active only in solution.
1
SO2 (g) + O2 (g)
SO3 (g) ; K1
4. In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constant for the 2
backward reaction is 7.5 ×10–4 and the equilibrium

4SO3 (g) 4 SO2 (g) + 2O2 (g) ; K2
constant is 1.5. The rate constant for the forward
reaction is:- The value of the equilibrium constant are related by :-
(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 5 × 10–4 1
(3) 1.12 × 10–3 (4) 9.0 × 10–4 (1) K2 = (2) K2 = K14
(K 1 )4
5. In this reaction Ag+ + 2NH3

Ag(NH3)2+ at
1
æ 1 ö4 1
298K molar concentration of Ag+ , Ag(NH3)2+ and (3) K2 = ç ÷ (4) K2 = K
NH3 is 10-1, 10-1 , and 103. The value of KC at è K1 ø 1
298K for this equilibrium :-

(1) 10-6 (2) 106 (3) 2 × 10-3 (4) 2 × 106
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\03.CHEMICAL EQUILIRBIUM.P65

12. If A B (Kc = 3), B C (Kc = 5),
6. At 1000 K, the value of KP for the reaction :

C D (Kc = 2)

A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g) + D(g)
The value of equilibrium constant for the above
reaction are given, the value of equilibrium constant
is 0.05 atm The value of KC in terms of R would be
(1) 20000 R (2) 0.02 R for D
A will be:-
(3) 5 × 10–5 R (4) 5 × 10–5 × R–1 (1) 15 (2) 0.3 (3) 30 (4) 0.03
7.
For the reaction C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO(g) the partial 13. Which Oxide of Nitrogen is most stable :-
pressure of CO and CO2 are 2.0 and 4.0 atm.
(1) 2NO2 (g) N2 (g) + 2O2 (g)
respectively at equilibrium. The KP for the reaction is
(1) 0.5 (2) 4.0 (3) 8.0 (4) 1 K = 6.7 × 1016 mol L–1
(2) 2 NO(g)
N2 (g) + O2 (g)
8. For which reaction is Kp = Kc :-
K = 2.2 × 1030
(1) 2NOCl(g)
2NO(g) + Cl2(g)

(3) 2 N2O5 (g) 2N2(g) + 5O2 (g)
(2) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)
K = 1.2 × 10 34 mol 5 L–5
(3) H2(g) + Cl2(g)
2HCl(g)
(4) 2N2O(g)
2N2 (g) + O2 (g)
(4) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
2SO3(g) K = 3.5 × 1033 mol L–1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

14. Which one of the following statements is correct 19. The dissociation of CO 2 can be expressed as
about equilibrium constant:-
2CO2 2CO + O2. If the 2 mol of CO2 is taken
(1) Equilibrium constant of a reaction changes with initially and 40% of the CO2 is dissociated com-
temperature. pletely. What is the total number of moles at equi-
(2) Equilibrium constant of a reaction depends upon librium:-
the concentration of reactants with which we
(1) 2.4 (2) 2.0 (3) 1.2 (4) 5
start.
(3) Equilibrium constant of a reaction, 20.
In the reaction 2P(g) + Q(g) 3R(g) + S(g). If
2 mol each of P and Q taken initially in a
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) is same
whether, the reaction is carried out in an open 1 L flask. At equilibrium which is true:-
vessel or a closed vessel. (1) [P] < [Q] (2) [P] = [Q]
(4) Equilibrium constant of a reaction becomes (3) [Q] = [R] (4) None of these
double if the reaction is multiplied by 2
21. The reaction A + B C + D is studied in a one
throughout.
litre Vessel at 250°C. The initial concentration of A
15. For a reaction N2 + 3H2 was 3n and of B was n. After equilibrium was at-
2NH3, the value of
KC does not depends upon :- tained then equilibrium concentration of C was
(a) Initial concentration of the reactants found to be equal to equilibrium concentration of
(b) Pressure B. What is the concentration of D at equilibrium :-
(c) Temperature n æ nö
(d) Catalyst (1) (2) ç 3n - ÷
2 è 2ø
(1) Only c (2) a, b, c
æ nö
(3) a, b, d (4) a, b, c, d (3) ç n + ÷ (4) n
è 2 ø
16. In an experiment the equilibrium constant for the 22. X2 + Y2 2XY reaction was studied at a cer-
tain temperature. In the beginning 1 mole of X2
reaction A + B C + D is K when the initial
was taken in a one litre flask and 2 moles of Y2 was
concentration of A and B each is 0.1 mol L–1 Under taken in another 2 litre flask. What is the equilib-
the similar conditions in an another experiment if rium concentration of X2 and Y2 ? (Given equilib-
the initial concentration of A and B are taken 2 rium concentration of [XY] = 0.6 mol L–1).
and 3 mol L–1 respectively then the value of
equilibrium constant will be:- æ1 ö æ2 ö
(1) ç - 0.3 ÷ , ç - 0.3 ÷
è3 ø è3 ø
K 1
(1) (2) K (3) K2 (4)
2 K æ1 ö æ2 ö
(2) ç - 0.6 ÷ , ç - 0.6 ÷
è3 ø è3 ø
17. The equilibrium constant (KP) for the reaction
(3) (1 – 0.3), (2 – 0.3)

PCl 5 (g) PCl 3(g) + Cl 2(g) is 16. If the
(4) (1 – 0.6), (2 – 0.6)
volume of the container is reduced to one-half its
original volume, the value of KP for the reaction at 23. In a 20 litre vessel initially 1 - 1 mole CO, H2O,
the same temperature will be :- CO2 is present, then for the equilibrium of
(1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 16 (4) 4 CO + H2O CO2 + H2 following is true:-
(1) H2, more then 1 mole
18. If some He gas is introduced into the equilibrium
(2) CO, H2O, H2 less then 1 mole

PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 at constant pressure and
(3) CO2 & H2O both more than 1 mole
temperature then equilibrium constant of reaction : (4) All of these
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease 24.
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(3) Unchange In above reaction, at equilibrium condition mole
fraction of PCl5 is 0.4 and mole fraction of Cl2 is
(4) Nothing can be said
0.3. Then find out mole fraction of PCl3
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.7 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.6
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

25. In the reaction PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 the partial 32. 1.50 mol each of hydrogen and iodine were placed
pressure of PCl3, Cl2 and PCl5 are 0.3, 0.2 and in a sealed 10 L container maintained at 717 K. At
0.6 atm respectively at equilibrium. If partial equilibrium 1.25 mol each of hydrogen and iodine
pressure of PCl3 and Cl2 was increased twice, what were left behind. The equilibrium constant, Kc for
will be the partial pressure of PCl5 is in atm at new
the reaction
equilibrium condition :-

H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI (g) at 717 K is
(1) 0.3 (2) 1.2 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.15
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.16
26. 'a' mol of PCl5, undergoes, thermal dissociation as : (3) 25 (4) 50

PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2, the mole fraction of PCl3 at
33.
AB dissociates as 2AB (g) 2A (g) + B2 (g)
equilibrium is 0.25 and the total pressure is
2.0 atm. The partial pressure of Cl2 at equilibrium When the initial pressure of AB is 500 mm, the
is :- total pressure becomes 625 mm when the equilib-
(1) 2.5 (2) 1.0 (3) 0.5 (4) None rium is attained. Calculate KP for the reaction as-
suming volume remains constant.
27. In a 0.25 L tube dissociation of 4 mol of NO is take
(1) 500 (2) 125
place. If its degree of dissociation is 10%. The value
(3) 750 (4) 375
of KP for reaction 2 NO N2 + O2 is :-
34.
Cis -2- pentene Trans -2- pentene for the
1 1 1 1
(1) 18 2 (2) 8 2 (3) (4) above equilibrium the value of standard free en-
( ) ( ) 16 32
ergy change at 400 K is –3.67 kJ/mol. If excess
of trans -2- pentene is added to the system then :-
28. Evaluate KP for the reaction : H2 + I2 2HI. If
2 moles each of H2 and I2 are taken initially. At (1) Additional trans -2- pentene will form
equilibrium moles of HI are 2. (2) Excess of cis -2- pentene will form
(1) 2.5 (2) 4 (3) Equilibrium will proceed in the forward
(3) 0.25 (4) 1.0 (4) Equilibrium will remain unaffected
29. 4 moles of A are mixed with 4 moles of B, when 35.

The equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) shifts
2 mol of C are formed at equilibrium, according to forward if :-

the reaction, A + B C + D. The equilibrium (1) A catalyst is used.
constant is :- (2) An adsorbent is used to remove SO3 as soon as
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) (4)

2 4 it is formed.
(3) Small amounts of reactants are used.
30. Two moles of ammonia is introduced in a evacuated
(4) None
500 mL vessel at hi gh temperature. The
decomposition reaction is : 36. In which of the following equilibrium reactions, the

2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) equilibrium would shift to right side, if total pres-
At the equilibrium NH3 becomes 1 mole then the K sure is decreased :-
would be :-
(1) N2 + 3H2
2NH3 (2) H2 + I2 2HI
(1) 0.42 (2) 6.75

(3) N O 2NO
2 4 2
(4) H + Cl 2 2 2HCl
(3) 1.7 (4) 1.5
37. For the manufacture of ammonia by the reaction
31. 4.5 mol each of hydrogen and iodine heated in a
N + 3H
2NH + 21.9 K cal, the favour-
se aled 10 litre vessel. At eq uili brium, 2 2 3
3 mol of HI were found. The equilibrium constant able conditions are :-

for H2(g) + I2(g) (1) Low temperature, low pressure & catalyst
2HI(g) is:-
(1) 1 (2) 10 (2) Low temperature, high pressure & catalyst
(3) 5 (4) 0.33 (3) High temperature, low pressure & catalyst
(4) High temperature, high pressure & catalyst
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

41. In a vessel containing SO3, SO2 and O2 at equilib-
38.
In the reaction 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) + 362 kcal.
rium, some helium gas is introduced so that the
Which combination of pressure and temperature total pressure increases while temperature and vol-
gives the highest yield of C at equilibrium:-
ume remain constant. According to Le-Chatelier
(1) 1000 atm and 500°C
principle, the dissociation of SO3 ,
(2) 500 atm and 500°C
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) 1000 atm and 50°C
(3) Remains unaltered (4) None of these
(4) 500 atm and 100°C
42.
For the equilibrium reaction, H2O (l) H2O(g),
39.
aA bB + cC, DH = - x kcal.
What happens, if pressure is applied:-
If high pressure and low temperature are the
(1) More water evaporates
favourable condition for the formation of the product
(2) The boiling point of water is increased
in above reaction, hence:-
(3) No effect on boiling point
(1) a > b + c (2) a < b + c (4) None of the above
(3) a = b + c (4) None of them
40. The reaction in which yield of production cannot be

increased by the application of high pressure is :-

(1) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g)

(2) N (g) + O (g) 2NO (g)
2 2

(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

(4) 2SO (g) + O (g)
2SO (g)
2 2 3
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 3 3 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 3 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
IONIC EQUILIBRIUM EXERCISE

1. Find out pH of solution having 2 × 10–3 moles of 10. At 373 K, temp. the pH of pure H2O can be:-
OH– ion's in 2 litre solution :- (1) < 7 (2) > 7 (3) = 7 (4) = 0
(1) pH = 3 (2) pH = 3 + log2
(3) pH = 3 – log2 (4) pH = 11 11. Basic strength of NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl
(1) Increases
2. If a is the degree of dissociation of weak dibasic (2) Remains unchanged
organic acid and y is the hydrogen ion concentration, (3) Decreases
what is the initial concentration of acid :- (4) Some times increases or sometimes decreases
a(y)-1
(1) M (2) y(a)–1M 12. If it is known that H2S is a weak acid and it is ionised
2
into 2H+ and S–2. Then in this solution HCl is added
y(a )-1 so, pH becomes less, then what will happen :-
(3) M (4) None of them (1) Decrease in S–2 ion concentration
2
(2) Concentration of S–2 is not affected
3. The degree of dissociation of acetic acid is given by (3) Increase in S–2 ion concentration
the expression a = 0.1 ×C–1 (where C = concentration (4) It is not possible, to add HCl in solution
of the acid) What is the pH of the solution :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 13. Which is a basic salt :–
4. Find out Ka for 10–2 M HCN acid, having pOH is (1) PbS (2) PbCO3
10 :- (3) PbSO4 (4) 2PbCO3 Pb(OH)2
(1) Ka = 10–4 (2) Ka = 10–2
14. Which of the following is an acid salt :-
(3) Ka = 10 –5
(4) None of them
(1) Na2S (2) Na2SO3
5. The pH of 0.15 M so lution o f HO Cl (3) NaHSO3 (4) Na2SO4
(Ka = 9.6 × 10–6) is:-
(1) 4.42 (2) 2.92 (3) 3.42 (4) None 15. What will be the pH of 1.0 M ammonium formate
solution, If Ka=1 × 10–4 acid Kb =1× 10–5:-
6. The extent of ionisation increases (weak electrolytes) (1) 6.5 (2) 7.5 (3) 8.0 (4) 9.0
(1) With the increase in concentration of solute
(2) On decreasing the temp. of solution 16. Which salt will not undergo hydrolysis :-
(3) On addition of excess of water to the solution (1) KCl (2) Na2SO4 (3) NaCl (4) All
(4) On stirring the solution vigorously
17. If pKb for CN– at 25oC is 4.7. The pH of 0.5M
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\04.IONIC EQUILIBRIUM.P65
7. Correct statement for HCN weak acid at 25 C 0

aqueous NaCN solution is :-
temperature.:- (1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 11.5 (4) 11
Ka K a ´ [OH - ] 18. For anionic hydrolysis, pH is given by:-

(1) a = (2) a =
[H + ] Kw
1 1 1
(1) pH = pKW - pKb - logc
2 2 2
(3) (1) & (2) both (4) Kb = Ca2 1 1 1
(2) pH = pKW + pKa – pKb
8. Ionic product of water is equal to :- 2 2 2
(1) Dissociation constant of water × [H2O] 1 1 1
(2) Dissociation constant of water × [H+] (3) pH = pKW + pKa + logc
2 2 2
(3) Product of [H2O] and [H+] (4) None of above
(4) Product of [OH–]2 and [H+]
19. A weak acid react with strong base, ionisation
9. At 900C, pure water has [H3O+] =10–6.7 mol L–1 what constant of weak acid is 10–4. Find out equilibrium
is the value of KW at 900C:- constant for this reaction :-
(1) 10–6 (2) 10–12 (1) 10–10 (2) 1010 (3) 10–9 (4) 109
(3) 10 –67
(4) 10–13.4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

20. Ka for cyano acetic acid is 3.5 × 10–3. Then the 28. At 300C, In which of the one litre solution, the
degree of hydrolysis of 0.05 M. sodium cyano solubility of Ag2CO3 (solubility product = 8 × 10–12)
acetate solution will have the following value :- will be maximum :-
(1) 0.05 M Na2CO3 (2) Pure water
(1) 4.559 × 10–6 (2) 5.559 × 10–6
(3) 0.05 M AgNO3 (4) 0.05 M NH3
(3) 6.559 × 10–6 (4) 7.559 × 10–6
29. Solubility of AgBr will be minimum in :-
N (1) Pure water (2) 0.1 M CaBr2
21. Degree of Hydrolysis of solution of KCN is (3) 0.1 M NaBr (4) 0.1 M AgNO3
100
(Given Ka = 1.4 ´ 10–9) 30. If the maximum concentration of PbCl2 in water
(1) 2.7 ´ 10 –3
(2) 2.7 ´ 10 –2
is 0.01 M at 298 K, Its maximum concentration
(3) 2.7 ´ 10 –4
(4) 2.7 ´ 10–5 in 0.1 M NaCl will be:-
(1) 4 × 10–3 M (2) 0.4 × 10–4 M
22. In solubility of salts M2X, QY2 and PZ2 equal, then (3) 4 × 10–2 M (4) 4 × 10–4 M
the relation between their Ksp will be :-
31. The solubility product of three sparingly soluble salts
(1) Ksp(M2X) > Ksp (QY2) > Ksp (PZ2)
are given below :
(2) Ksp(M2X) = Ksp (QY2) < Ksp (PZ2) No. Formula Solubility product
(3) Ksp(M2X) > Ksp (QY2) = Ksp (PZ2) 1 PQ 4.0 × 10–20
(4) Ksp(M2X) = Ksp (QY2) = Ksp (PZ2) 2 PQ2 3.2 × 10–14
3 PQ3 2.7 × 10–35
23. Concentration of Ag+ ions in saturated solution of The correct order of decreasing molar solublity is:-
Ag2CrO4 at 200C is 1.5 × 10–4 mol L–1. At 200C, (1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 2, 1, 3 (3) 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 3, 1
the solubility product of Ag2CrO4 is :-
(1) 3.3750 × 10–12 (2) 1.6875 × 10–10 32. If the solubility product of AgBrO3 and Ag2SO4 are
(3) 1.68 × 10–12 (4) 1.6875 × 10–11 5.5 ×10–5 and 2 ×10–5 respectively, the relationship
between the solubilities of these can be correctly
24. How many grams of CaC2O4 will dissolve in distilled represented as:-
water to make one litre saturated solution? solubility (1) sAgBrO3 > sAg2SO4
product of CaC2O4 is 2.5 × 10–9 mol2 L–2 and its (2) sAgBrO3 = sAg2SO4
molecular weight is 128. (3) sAgBrO3 < sAg2SO4
(1) 0.0064 g (2) 0.0128 g (4) Can't predict
(3) 0.0032 g (4) 0.0640 g
33. Solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 1 × 10–11. At what
25. If the solubility of AgCl (formula mass=143) in water pH, precipitation of Mg(OH)2 will begin from 0.1 M

at 25°C is 1.43 ´10–4 g/100 mL of solution then Mg2+ solution :-
the value of Ksp will be :– (1) 9 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 7
(1) 1 ´ 10–5 (2) 2 ´ 10–5
34. What is the molar concentration of chloride ion in
(3) 1 ´ 10–10 (4) 2 ´ 10–10
the solution obtained by mixing 300 mL of 3.0M
26. If the salts M2X, QY2 and PZ3 have the same NaCl and 200 mL of 4.0 M solution of BaCl2 :-
solubilities, their Ksp values are related as - (S < 1) (1) 5.0 M (2) 1.8 M
(1) Ksp (M2X) = Ksp (QY2) < Ksp (PZ3) (3) 1.6 M (4) None of these
(2) Ksp (M2X) > Ksp (QY2) = Ksp (PZ3) 35. Minimum pH is shown by aqueous solution of :-
(3) Ksp (M2X) = Ksp (QY2) > Ksp (PZ3) (1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (2) 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2
(4) Ksp (M2X) > Ksp (QY2) > Ksp (PZ3) (3) 0.1 M BeCl2 (4) 0.1 M Ba(OH)2
27. One litre of saturated solution of CaCO 3 is 36. Given :-
evaporated to dryness, when 7.0 g of residue is (a) 0.005 M H2SO4 (b) 0.1 M Na2SO4
left. The solubility product for CaCO3 is:- (c) 10–2 M NaOH (d) 0.01 M HCl
(1) 4.9 × 10–3 (2) 4.9 × 10–5 Choose the correct code having same pH :-
(3) 4.9 × 10–9 (4) 4.9 × 10–7 (1) a, c, d (2) b, d (3) a, d (4) a, c
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

37. A metal hydroxide of molecular formula M(OH)4 N
is 50% ionised. Its 0.0025M solution will have the 45. For H SO , pH value is :-
10 2 4
pH :-
(1) 1 (2) 0.586 (3) 0.856 (4) None
(1) 12 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 11.7
38. In the following solutions, the conc. of different acids 46. H2X is a dibasic acid which dissociates completely
are given, which mixture of the acid has highest in water. Which one of the following is the molarity
pH :- of an aqueous solution of this acid which has a pH
M M M of 1 :-
(1) H SO , HNO3, HClO4
10 2 4 20 10 (1) 0.1 (2) 0.05 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.5
M M M 47. One litre solution contains 1M HOCl [Ka= 10–8] and

(2) H2SO4, HNO3, HClO4
20 10 20 1 M NaOH. What is the pH of the
M M M solution : -
(3) H2SO4, HNO3, HClO4
20 10 40 (1) 8 (2) 11 (3) 5 (4) 2
M M M 48. 0.001 mol of the strong electrolyte M(OH)2 has been

(4) H SO , HNO3, HClO4
20 2 4 5 5 dissolved to make a 20 mL of its saturated solution.
Its pH will be : - [Kw = 1 × 10–14]
39. If 100 mL of pH = 3 and 400 mL of pH = 3
(1) 13 (2) 3.3 (3) 11 (4) 9.8
is mixed, what will be the pH of the mixture
(1) 3.2 (2) 3.0 (3) 3.5 (4) 2.8 49. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts
increases in order :-
40. 10–6 M HCl is diluted to 100 times. Its pH is :-
(1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(1) 6.0 (2) 8.0 (3) 6.95 (4) 9.5
(2) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
41. The pH of solution is increased from 3 to 6. Its (3) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
H+ ion concentration will be :- (4) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(1) Reduced to half
50. In a buffer solution the ratio of concentration of
(2) Doubled
NH4Cl and NH4OH is 1 : 1 when it changes in
(3) Reduced by 1000 times
2 : 1 what will be the value of pH of buffer :-
(4) Increased by 1000 times
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
42. The pOH of beer is 10.0. The hydrogen ion (3) No effect (4) N.O.T.
concentration will be :–
Kw Kw 51. To a 50 mL of 0.05M formic acid how much volume

(a) 10–10 (b) -10 (c) (d) 10–4
10 10-8 of 0.10M sodium formate must be added to get
(1) a, d (2) b, c (3) a, b, c (4) None
a buffer solution of pH = 4.0 ? (pKa of the acid
43. An aqueous solution whose pH = 0 is :- is 3.8)
(1) Basic (2) Acidic (1) 50 mL (2) 4 mL (3) 39.6 mL (4) 100 mL
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric
52. What is the suitable indicator for titration of NaOH
44. Following five solution of KOH were prepare as– and oxalic acid:-
First ® 0.1 moles in 1 L (1) Methyl orange (2) Methyl red
Second ® 0.2 moles in 2 L (3) Phenolphthalein (4) Starch solution
Third ® 0.3 moles in 3 L
53. Which can act as buffer :-
Fourth ® 0.4 moles in 4 L
(1) NH4OH + NaOH
Fifth ® 0.5 moles in 5 L
(2) HCOOH + CH3COONa
The pH of resultant solution is :–
(3) 40 mL 0.1 M NaCN + 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 13 (4) 7
(4) None of them
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

54. Buffering action of a mixture of CH3COOH and 62. 500 mL of 0.2 M acetic acid are added
CH3COONa is maximum when the ratio of salt to to 500 mL o f 0. 30 M sodium acet ate
acid is equal to - solution. If the dissociation constant of acetic acid
(1) 1.0 (2) 100.0 (3) 10.0 (4) 0.1 is 1.5 × 10–5 then pH of the resulting solution
is :-
55. Which indicator works in the pH range 8 – 9.8
(1) 5.0 (2) 9.0 (3) 3.0 (4) 4.0
(1) Phenolphthalein (2) Methyl orange
(3) Methyl red (4) Litmus 63. Half of the formic acid solution is neutralised on
additio n of a KOH solution to it. If
56. A basic - buff er will obey th e equati on
Ka (HCOOH) = 2 × 10 then pH of the solution
–4
pOH - pKb = 1 only under condition:-

is : (log 2 = 0.3010)
(1) [Conjugate acid] : [base] = 1 : 10
(1) 3.6990 (2) 10.3010
(2) [Conjugate acid] = [base]
(3) 3.85 (4) 4.3010
(3) [Conjugate acid] : [base] = 10 : 1
(4) N.O.T 64. Henderson equation pH – pKa = 1 will be
applicable to an acidic buffer when :-
57. From the following in which titration methyl orange
(1) [Acid] = [Conjugate base]
is a best indicator :-
(2) [Acid] × 10 = [Conjugate base]
(1) CH3COOH + NaOH (2) H2C2O4 + NaOH
(3) [Acid] = [Conjugate base] × 10
(3) HCl + NaOH (4) CH3COOH + NH4OH
(4) None of these
58. The H+ ion concentration in 0.001 M acetic acid
65. When 0.02 moles of NaOH are added to a litre
is 1.34 × 10–4 g ion L–1. The H+ ion concentration
of buffer solution, its pH changes from 5.75 to 5.80.
of 0.164 g of CH3COONa is added to a litre of
What is its buffer capacity :-
0.001 M CH3COOH will be :-
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.05 (3) – 0.05 (4) 2.5
(1) 9 × 10–6 (2) 18 × 10–6
(3) 4.5 × 10–6 (4) 5 × 10–6 66. Calculate the pH of a buffer prepared by mixing
300 cc of 0.3 M NH3 and 500 cc of 0.5 M NH4Cl.
59. When 1.0 mL of dil. HCl acid is added to 100 mL
Kb for NH3 = 1.8 × 10–5 :-
of a buffer solution of pH 4.0. The pH of the solution
(1) 8.1187 (2) 9.8117
(1) Becomes 7 (2) Does not change
(3) 8.8117 (4) None of these
(3) Becomes 2 (4) Becomes 10

67. What amount of sodium propanoate should
60. Which of the following solutions does not act as
be added t o on e litre of an a queo us
buffer :–
solution containing 0.02 mole of propanoic acid
(1) H3PO4 + NaH2PO4
(Ka = 1.34 ×10–5 at 25°C) to obtain a buffer solution
(2) NaHCO3 + H2CO3
of pH 4.75 :-
(3) NH4Cl + HCl
(1) 4.52 × 10–2 M (2) 3.52 × 10–2 M
(4) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(3) 2.52 × 10–2 M (4) 1.52 × 10–2 M
61. On addition of NaOH to CH3COOH solution, 60%
68. What will be the pH of the solution, if 0.01 moles
of the acid is neutralised. If pKa of CH3COOH is
of HCl is dissolved in a buffer solution containing
4.7 then the pH of the resulting solution is :-
0.02 moles of propanoic acid (Ka = 1.34 × 10–5)
(1) More than 4.7 but less than 5.0
and 0.0152 moles of salt, at 25°C :
(2) Less than 4.7 but more than 4.0
[log(0.173) = –0.76]
(3) More than 5.0
(1) 3.11 (2) 4.11 (3) 5.11 (4) 6.11
(4) Remains unchanged
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

69. Calculate the ratio of pH of a solution containing N N
70. acetic acid was titrated with NaOH. When
1 mole of CH3COONa + 1 mole of HCl per litre 10 10
25%, 50% and 75% of titration is over then the
and of other solution containing 1 mole CH3COONa
pH of the solution will be :- [Ka = 10–5]
+ 1mole of acetic acid per litre :- (1) 5 + log 1/3, 5, 5 + log 3
(2) 5 + log 3, 4, 5 + log 1/3
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 5 – log 1/3, 5, 5 – log 3
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 (4) 5 – log 1/3, 4, 5 + log 1/3
IONIC EQUILIBRIUM ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 1 4 2 3 3 1 4 1 3 1 4 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 1 4 2 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 3 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 1 2 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. 1 1 1 2 1 3 4 2 3 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS EXERCISE

1. q = –w is not true for :- 9. Which is true for the combustion of sucrose
(1) Isothermal process (2) Adiabatic process (C12H22O11) at 25°C :-
(3) Cyclic process (4) 1 and 3 both (1) DH > DE (2) DH < DE
2 A system has internal energy equal to E1, 450 J of (3) DH = DE (4) None
heat is taken out of it and 600 J of work is done on 10. The heat of combustion of ethanol determined in a
it. The final energy of the system will be - bomb calorimeter is – 670.48 K. Cals mole–1 at 25°C.
(1) (E1 + 150) (2) (E1 + 1050) What is DH at 25°C for the reaction :–
(3) (E1 – 150) (4) None of these (1) – 335.24 K. Cals. (2) – 671.08 K. Cals.
3. The difference between heats of reaction at constant (3) – 670.48 K Cals. (4) + 670.48 K. Cals.
pressure and constant volume for the reaction 11. For a reaction 2X(s) + 2Y(s) ® 2C(l) + D(g)
2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) ¾® 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) at 250C The qp at 27°C is – 28 K Cal. mol–1.
in KJ is
The qV is ----------- K. Cal. mol–1 :–
(1) + 7.43 (2) +3.72
(3) – 7.43 (4) – 3.72 (1) – 27.4 (2) + 27.4
(3) – 28.6 (4) 28.6
4. Which of the following statements is correct for the
reaction ;CO(g) + ½ O2(g) ¾® CO2(g) at constant 12. The work done in ergs for a reversible expansion of
temperature and pressure one mole of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 litres
(1) DH = DE (2) DH < DE to 20 litres at 250C is :
(3) DH > DE (4) None of the above (1) –2.303 × 8.31 × 107 × 298 log2
(2) –2.303 × 0.0821 × 298 log2
5. For the reversible isothermal expansion of one mole
(3) –2.303 × 0.0821 × 298 log 0.5
of an ideal gas at 300 K, from a volume of 10 dm 3
to 20 dm3, DH is - (4) –2.303 × 2 × 298 log2
(1) 1.73 KJ (2) –1.73 KJ 13. Two litre of N2 at 0°C and 5 atm are expanded
(3) 3.46 KJ (4) Zero isothermally against a constant external pressure
of 1 atm until the pressure of gas reaches 1 atm.
6. Heat of reaction for , CO(g) + ½ O2(g) ® CO2(g) at
constant V is –67.71 K cal at 17°C. The heat of Assuming the gas to be ideal calculate work of
reaction at constant P at 17°C is :- expansion ?
(1) –68.0 K cal (2) + 68.0 K cal (1) –504.2 joule (2) –405.2 joule
(3) – 67.42 K cal (4) None (3) +810.4 joule (4) –810.4 joule
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\05.THERMODYNAMICS.P65
7. The reaction :- 14. Two moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneouly

into vacuum. The work done is :–
3
NH2CN(S) + O ® N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) (1) Zero (2) 2 J
2 2(g)
was carried out in a bomb caloriemeter. The heat (3) 4 J (4) 8 J
released was 743 KJ mol–1. The value of DH300k 15. For which reaction from the following, D S will be
maximum ?
for this reaction would be :-
(1) – 740.5 KJ mol–1 (2) – 741.75 KJ mol–1 (1) Ca(s) + ½ O2(g) ¾® CaO(s)
(3) – 743.0 KJ mol–1 (4) – 744.25 KJ mol–1 (2) CaCO3(s) ¾® CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) C(s) + O2(g) ¾® CO2 (g)
8. The enthalpy of vaporisation of water at 1000C is
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) ¾® 2NO(g)
40.63 KJ mol–1. The value DE for this process would
be:- 16. Entropy means
(1) 37.53 KJ mol–1 (2) 39.08 KJ mol–1 (1) Disorderness (2) Randomness
(3) 42.19 KJ mol–1 (4) 43.73 KJ mol–1 (3) Orderness (4) both 1 & 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

17. In which reaction DS is positive :- 26. For a reaction at 250C enthalpy change (DH) and
(1) H2O (l) ® H2O (s) entropy change (DS) are –11.7 × 103 Jmol–1 and
(2) 3O2 (g) ® 2O3 (g) –105 J mol–1 K–1 respectively. The reaction is :
(3) H2O (l) ® H2O (g) (1) Spontaneous
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 2NH3 (g) (2) Non spontaneous
(3) At equilibrium
18. If S 0 for H 2, Cl 2 and HCl are 0.13, 0.22 and (4) Can't say anything
0.19 KJ K–1 mol–1 respectively. The total change in
standard entropy for the reaction 27. The spontaneous nature of a reaction is impossible if :
(1) D H is +ve, D S is also +ve
H2 + Cl2 ¾® 2HCl is :
(2) D H is – ve; D S is also – ve
(1) 30 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 40 JK–1 mol–1
(3) D H is –ve ; D S is +ve
(3) 60 JK mol
–1 –1
(4) 20 JK–1 mol–1
(4) D H is +ve; D S is –ve
19. If 900J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of
28. Which of the following is true for the reaction
water, then what is increase in entropy?
(1) 43.4 J/K-mole (2) 87.2 J/K mole H2O(l) H2O(g) at 1000C and 1 atmosphere
(3) 900 J/K-mole (4) Zero (1) D S = 0 (2) D H = 0
(3) D H = D E (4) D H = TD S
20. 5 mole of an ideal gas expand reversibly from a
volume of 8 dm3 to 80dm3 at a temperature of 29. For the reaction Ag2O(s) ¾® 2Ag(s) + ½O2(g) the value
270C. The change in entropy is :– of DH = 30.56 KJ mol–1 and DS=66 JK–1 mol–1. The
(1) 41.57 JK–1 (2) – 95.73 JK–1 temperature at which the free energy change for
(3) 95.73 JK–1 (4) – 41.57 JK–1 the reaction will be zero is :–
(1) 373 K (2) 413 K
21. The total entropy change for a system & its (3) 463 K (4) 493 K
surroundings increases if the process is :
(1) Reversible (2) Irreversible 30. For hypothetical reversible reaction
(3) Exothermic (4) Endothermic ½ A2(g) + 3
2 B2 (g) ¾® AB3(g); D H = –20 KJ if
22. Calculate the entropy of Br2(g) in the reaction standard entropies of A2, B2 and AB3 are 60, 40
H2(g) + Br2(g) ® 2HBr(g), DS° =20.1JK–1 given, and 50 JK–1 mole–1 respectively. The above reaction
entropy of H 2 and HB r is 130.6 an d 198.5 will be in equilibrium at :–
J mol–1 K–1 :- (1) 400 K (2) 500 K
(1) 246.3 JK–1 (2) 123.15 JK–1 (3) 250 K (4) 200 K
(3) 24.63 JK –1
(4) 20 KJK–1 31. What is the sign of D G for the process of ice melting

23. Ammonium chloride when dissolved in water leads at 283 K ?
to cooling sensation. The dissolution of NH4Cl at (1) D G > 0 (2) D G = 0
constant temperature is accompanied by :– (3) D G < 0 (4) None of these
(1) Increase in entropy
32. What is the free energy change DG, when 1.0 mole
(2) Decrease in entropy
of water at 100ºC and 1 atm pressure is converted
(3) No change in entropy
into steam at 100°C and 1 atm pressure :–
(4) No change in enthalpy
(1) 540 Cal (2) –9800 Cal
24. In which of the following case entropy decreases– (3) 9800 Cal (4) 0 Cal
(1) Solid changing to liquid
33. If the equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10, then
(2) Expansion of a gas
the value of D G0 will be
(3) Crystals dissolve
(R = 8JK–1 mol–1, T = 300 K)
(4) Polymerisation
(1) + 5.527 KJ mol–1
25. Entropy of an adiabatic reversible process is:- (2) – 5.527 KJ mol–1
(1) Positive (2) Zero (3) +55.27 KJ mol–1
(3) Negative (4) Constant (4) – 55.27 KJ mol–1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

34. For the process, CO2(s) ¾® CO2(g) : 42. The heat evolved during the combustion of
(1) Both DH and DS are +ve 112 litre of water gas at STP (mixture of equal
(2) DH is negative and DS is +ve volume of H2 and CO) is : Given
(3) DH is +ve and DS is –ve
H2(g) + ½ O2(g) = H2O (g) ; D H = –241.8 KJ
(4) Both DH and DS are –ve
CO(g) + ½O2(g) = CO2(g) ; D H = – 283 KJ
35. The heat change during the reaction 24g C and 128g S (1) 241.8 KJ (2) 283 KJ
following the change C+S2®CS2 ; DH=22K cal
(3) 1312 KJ (4) 1586 KJ
(1) 22 K cal (2) 11 K cal
(3) 44 K cal (4) 32 K cal 43. A person requires 2870 Kcal of energy to lead
36. Since the enthalpy of the elements in their normal daily life. If heat of combustion of cane sugar
standard states is taken to be zero. The heat of is –1349 Kcal, then his daily consumption of sugar
formation (D H f ) of compounds : is :
(1) Is always negative (1) 728 g (2) 0.728 g
(2) Is always positive (3) 342 g (4) 0.342 g
(3) Is zero
(4) May be positive or negative 44. X gm of ethanal was subjected to combustion in a
bomb calorimeter and the heat produced is YJoules.
37. At 300K the standard enthalpies of formation of
Then -
C6H5COOH(s) , CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –408, –393
and –286 kJ mol–1 respectively. Calculate the heat (1) DE(combustion) = –XJ
of combustion of benzoic acid at contant volume : (2) DE(combustion) = –YJ
(1) +3201 kJ
44Y
(2) +3199.75 kJ (3) DE(combustion) = - J mol–1
X
(3) –3201 kJ
(4) –3199.75 kJ 44Y
(4) DH(combustion) = - J mol–1
38. T h e e n t h alpy o f f o rma t io n o f a mmo n i a i s X
–46.0 KJ mol–1. The enthalpy change for the
reaction 2NH3(g) ® N2(g) + 3H2(g) is : 45. The following are the heats of reactions -
(1) 46.0 KJ mol–1 (2) 92.0 KJ mol–1 (i) DHof of H2O(l) = –68.3 K cal mol–1
(3) – 23.0 KJ mol–1 (4) – 92.0 KJ mol–1
(ii) DHocomb. of C2H2 = –337.2 K cal mol–1
39. Given that standard heat enthalpy of CH4, C2H4 and
C3H 8 are –17.9, 12.5, –24.8 Kcal/mol. The D H (iii) DHocomb. of C2H4 = –363.7 K cal mol–1
for CH4 + C2H4 ® C3H8 is :
Then heat change fo r th e reaction

(1) – 55.2 Kcal (2) – 30.2 Kcal C2H2 + H2 ® C2H4 is -
(3) 55.2 KCal (4) – 19.4 Kcal (1) –716.1 K cal (2) + 337.2 K cal
(3) –41.8 K cal (4) –579.5 K cal
40. Heat of combustion of CH 4,C 2H 6, C 2H 4 and
C 2H 2 gases are –212.8, –373.0, –337.0 and 46. In the combustion of 0.4 g. of CH4, 0.25 Kcal. of heat is
–310.5 Kcal respectively at the same temperature. liberated. The heat of combustion of CH4 is
The best fuel among these gases is : (1) – 20 K. Cals. (2) – 10 K. Cals.
(1) CH4 (2) C2H6 (3) C2H4 (4) C2H2 (3) – 2.5 K. Cals. (4) – 5 K. Cals.
41. The enthalpy of formation for C2H4(g), CO2(g) and 47. If C6H12O6(s) + 9O2(g) ® 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) ;
H2O(l) at 250C and 1 atm. pressure are 52, - 394 DH= - 680 Kcal The weight of CO2(g) produced
when 170 Kcal of heat is evolved in the combustion
and - 286 KJ mole-1 respectively. The enthalpy of
of glucose is:-
combustion of C2H4 will be:-
(1) 265 gm (2) 66 gm
(1) + 1412 KJ mole-1 (2) - 1412 KJ mole-1
(3) 11 gm (4) 64 gm
(3) + 142.2 KJ mole-1 (4) - 141.2 KJ mole-1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

48. The amount of heat liberated when one mole of 56. Bond dissociation enthalphies of H2(g) and N2(g) are
NH4OH reacts with one mole of HCl is 436.0 kJ mol–1 and 941.8 kJ mol–1 respectively and
(1) 13.7 Kcal (2) More than 13.7 Kcal enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is –46 kJ mol–1.
(3) Less than 13.7 Kcal (4) Cannot be predicted What is enthalpy of atomization of NH3(g) ?
(1) 390.3 kJ mol–1 (2) 1170.9 kJ mol–1
49. Heat of neutralisation of a strong dibasic acid in
(3) 590 kJ mol–1 (4) 720 kJ mol–1
dilute solution by NaOH is nearly :
(1) – 27.4 Kcal/eq (2) – 13.7 Kcal / eq 57. The enthalpy changes at 298 K in successive
(3) 13.7 Kcal / eq. (4) – 13.7 Kcal/mol breaking of O–H bonds of water are
H2O ¾® H(g) + OH(g); D H = 498 KJ mol–1
50. The heat of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is
OH(g) ¾® H(g) + O(g) ; D H = 428 KJmol–1
–55.9 KJ/ mol. If the heat of neutralization of HCN
the bond enthalpy of O–H bond is
by NaOH is – 12.1 KJ/mol. The energy of
(1) 498 KJ mol–1 (2) 428 KJ mol–1
dissociation of HCN is
(3) 70 KJ mol–1
(4) 463 KJ mol–1
(1) – 43.8 KJ (2) 43.8 KJ
(3) 68 KJ (4) – 68 KJ 58. From the thermochemical reactions,
C(graphite) + ½ O2 ¾® CO ; D H = – 110.5 KJ
51. Heat of neutralisation of oxalic acid is –106.7 KJmol-1
CO + ½ O2 ¾® CO2 ; D H = – 283.2 KJ
using NaOH hence DH of :
the heat of reaction of C(graphite) + O2 ¾® CO2
H2C2O4 ® C2 O24- + 2H+ is :- is :
(1) 5.88 KJ (2) –5.88 KJ (1) 393.7 KJ
(3) –13.7 K cal (4) 7.5 KJ (2) – 393.7 KJ
(3) – 172.7 KJ
52. The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, (4) + 172.7 KJ
cyclohexene and H 2 are respectively – 3920,
– 3800 and – 241 KJ mol -1 . The heat of 59. From the following data, the heat of formation of
hydrogenation of cyclohexene is:- Ca(OH)2(s) at 180C is ...... Kcal.
(1) –121 KJ mol–1 (2) 121 KJ mol–1 (i) CaO(s) + H 2O (l) = Ca(OH) 2 (s) ;
(3) –242 KJ mol–1 (4) 242 KJ mol–1 D H 18 0C = – 15.26 Kcal......
53. Bond energy of a molecule : (ii) H2O(l) = H2(g) + ½ O2(g) ;
(1) Is always negative D H180C = 68.37 Kcal ...
(2) Is always positive (iii) Ca(s) + ½ O2(g) = CaO(s) ;
(3) Either positive or negative D H180C = –151.80 Kcal ......
(4) Depends upon the physical state of the system (1) – 98.69 (2) – 235.43

(3) 194.91 (4) 98.69
54. Heat evolved in the reaction H2 + Cl2 ¾® 2HCl is
182 KJ. Bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are 430 60. (i) S(s) + 3/2 O2(g) = SO3(g) + 2x Kcal
and 242 KJ/ mol respectively. The H – Cl bond (ii) SO2(g) + ½O2(g) = SO3(g) + y Kcal find out the
energy is : heat of formation of SO2 :
(1) 245 KJ mol–1 (1) (2x + y) (2) –(2x – y)
(2) 427 KJ mol–1 (3) x + y (4) 2x / y
(3) 336 KJ mol–1
61. If S + O2 ¾® SO2 ; DH = –298.2
(4) 154 KJ mol–1 SO2 + ½ O2 ¾® SO3 ; DH = –98.7
55. The enthalpy change for the reaction SO3 + H2O ¾® H2SO4 ; DH = –130.2
H2(g) + C2H4(g) ® C2H6(g) is........... . The bond H2 + ½ O2 ¾® H2O ; DH = –287.3
energies are, Then the enthalpy of formation of H2SO4 at 298 K
H – H = 103, C – H = 99, C – C = 80 & is -
C = C =145 K cal mol–1 (1) –814.4 KJ (2) –650.3 KJ
(1) –10 K cal mol–1 (2) +10 K cal mol–1 (3) –320.5 KJ (4) –433.5 KJ
(3) – 30 K cal mol–1 (4) +30 K cal mol–1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

62. Find the heat change in the reaction : 64. Using the following thermochemical data:
NH3(g) + HCl(g) ® NH4Cl(s)
C(S) + O2(g) ® CO2(g), DH = - 94.0 Kcal
from the following data
NH3(g) + aq ® NH3(aq), DH = –8.4 K. Cal. H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) ® H2O(l), DH = - 68.0 Kcal
HCl(g) + aq ® HCl(aq), DH = –17.3 K. Cal. CH3COOH (l) + 2O2(g) ® 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l),
NH3(aq)+HCl(aq)®NH4Cl(aq),DH = –12.5 K. Cals. DH = - 210.0 Kcal
NH4Cl(s) + aq ® NH4Cl(aq), DH = +3.9 K.Cal.
The heat of formation of acetic acid is:-
(1) – 42.1 (2) – 34.3
(1) 116.0 Kcal (2) - 116.0 Kcal
(3) + 34.3 (4) + 42.1
(3) - 114.0 Kcal (4) + 114.0 K cal
63. The heat of reaction for
65. H2(g) + ½O2(g) ® H2O (l) ; D H298K = –68.32Kcal.
1
A + O2 ® AO is - 50 K cal and Heat of vapourisation of water at 1 atm and 250C
2
is 10.52 Kcal. The standard heat of formation
1
AO + O2 ® AO2 is 100 Kcal. The heat of (in Kcal) of 1 mole of water vapour at 250C is
2
(1) 10.52 (2) –78.84
reaction for A + O2 ® AO2 is:-
(1) - 50 K cal. (2) + 50 K cal. (3) +57.80 (4) –57.80
(3) 100 K cal. (4) 150 K cal.
CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 4 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 1 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 2 4 4 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 2 1 3 4 4 2 4 1 2 3 1 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 3 2 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65
Ans. 1 1 2 3 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

REDOX REACTION EXERCISE
1. The oxidation number of C in CH4, CH3Cl, CH2Cl2, 8. Match List - I (compound) with list - II (Oxidation
CHCl3 and CCl4 are respectively : state of N) and select the correct answer using the
(1) +4, +2, 0, –2, –4 codes given below the list:-
List - I List-II
(2) +2, +4, 0, –4, –2
(A) KNO3 (a) – 1/3
(3) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4
(B) HNO2 (b) – 3
(4) –2, –4, 0, +4,. +2 (C) NH4Cl (c) 0
(D) NaN3 (d) + 3
2. Oxidation number of C in HNC is :
(e) + 5
(1) +2 (2) –3 (3) +3 (4) Zero
Codes are:-
3. Oxidation number of Fe in Fe0.94 O is : A B C D
(1) 200 (2) 200/94 (1) e d b a
(2) e b d a
(3) 94/200 (4) None
(3) d e a c
4. Two oxidation states for chlorine are found in the (4) b c d e
compound :
9. Oxidation state of cobalt in [Co(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]SO4 is
(1) CaOCl2 (2) KCl (3) KClO3 (4) Cl2O7
(1) 0 (2) +4 (3) –2 (4) +3
5. Compounds O.N.
10. Oxidation number of carbon in graphite is :-
(A) KMn*O4 (1) +4
(1) Zero (2) +1 (3) +4 (4) +2
(B) Ni*(CO)4 (2) +7
(C) [Pt*(NH3)Cl2]Cl2 (3) 0 11. The oxidation number of arsenic atom in H3AsO4 is :-
(D) Na2O2* (4) –1 (1) –1 (2) –3 (3) +3 (4) +5
The correct code for the O.N. of asterisked atom
would be : 12. The oxidation number of iron in potassium
A B C D ferricyanide [K3Fe (CN)6] is :–
(1) 1 2 3 4 (1) Two (2) Six
(2) 4 3 2 1 (3) Three (4) Four
(3) 2 3 1 4
13. The oxidation number of phosphorus in PH4+ ,
(4) 4 1 2 3
PO23–, PO43– and PO33– are respectively :– Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\06.REDOX.P65
6. –1/3 oxidation state of nitrogen will be obtained in (1) –3, +1, +3, +5 (2) –3, +3, +5, +1
case of : (3) +3, –3, +5, +1 (4) –3, +1, +5, +3
(1) Ammonia (NH3)
(2) Hydrazoic acid (N3H) 14. Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam is
(3) Nitric oxide (NO) (1) +1 (2) 0
(4) Nitrous oxide (N2O) (3) –1 (4) +2
7. The oxidation state of + 1 for phosphorous is found 15. Th e re acti on H 2S + H 2 O 2 ® S + 2H 2 O

in:- manifests :
(1) Phosphorous acid (H3PO3) (1) Oxidising action of H2O2
(2) Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4) (2) Reducing nature of H2O2
(3) Hypo phosphorous acid (H3PO2) (3) Acidic nature of H2O2
(4) Hypo phosphoric acid (H4(P2O6) (4) Alkaline nature of H2O2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

16. If an element is in its lowest oxidation state, under 23. Molecular weight of KBrO 3 is M. What is its
proper conditions it can act as : equivalent weight, if the reaction is :
(1) Reducing agent BrO3– ® Br– (acidic medium)
(2) An oxidising agent
(1) M (2) M/4
(3) Oxidising as well as reducing agent
(3) M/6 (4) 6M
(4) Neither oxidising nor reducing agent
24. What will be n-factor for Ba(MnO4)2 in acidic
17. Reaction (A) S–2 + 4 H2O2 ® SO42– + 4 H2O
medium? (Where it behaves as oxidant)
(B) Cl2 + H2O2 ® 2HCl + O2 (1) 5 (2) 10
The true statement regarding the above reactions (3) 6 (4) 3
is :
25. The number of mole of oxalate ions oxidised by
(1) H2 O2 acts as reductant in both the reactions. one mole of MnO4– is :
(2) H 2O 2 acts as oxidant in reaction (A) and (1) 1/5 (2) 2/5
reductant in reaction (B). (3) 5/2 (4) 5
(3) H2O2 acts as an oxidant in both the reactions. 26. In a reaction 4 mole of electrons are transferred to
(4) H2O 2 acts as reductant in reaction (A) and one mole of HNO3 when it acts as an oxidant. The
oxidant in reaction(B) possible reduction product is :
(1) (1/2) mole N2 (2) (1/2) mole N2O
18. A compound contains atoms A, B and C. The
(3) 1 mole of NO2 (4) 1 mole NH3
oxidation number of A is +2, of B is +5 and of
C is –2. The possible formula of the compound 27. How many moles of KMnO4 are reduced by 1 mole
is : of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium:-
(1) ABC2 (2) B2(AC3)2 1 5 1 3

(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 3 5
(3) A3(BC4)2 (4) A3(B4C)2
19. Equivalent weight of NH3 in the change N2 ® NH3 28. Which of the following is not a redox change ?
is : (1) 2H2S + SO2 ® 2H2O + 3S
(2) 2BaO + O2 ® 2BaO2
17 17 17
(1) (2) 17 (3) (4) (3) BaO2 + H2SO4 ® BaSO4 + H2O2
6 2 3
(4) 2KClO3 ® 2KCl + 3O2
20. In the reaction, 2S2O32– + I2 ® S4O62– + 2I–, the
eq. wt. of Na2S2O3 is equal to its : 29. How many electrons should X2H4 liberate so that
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\06.REDOX.P65
in the new compound X shows oxidation number

(1) Mol. wt. (2) Mol. wt./2
of -½ (E.N. X > H)
(3) 2 x Mol. wt. (4) Mol. wt./6 (1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
21. In the reaction, VO + Fe2O3 ® FeO + V2O5 , the
30. In the reaction -
eq. wt. of V2O5 is equal to its :
MnO -4 + SO32– + H+ ® SO4–2 + Mn+2 + H2O
(1) Mol. wt. (2) Mol. wt./8
(3) Mol .wt./6 (4) None of these (1) MnO -4 and H+ both are reduced
22. The eq. wt. of iodine in, I2 + 2S2O32– ® 2I– + S4O62– (2) MnO -4 is reduced and H+ is oxidised
is :
(3) MnO -4 is reduced and SO32– is oxidised
(1) Its Mol. wt. (2) Mol. wt./2
(3) Mol. wt./4 (4) None of these (4) MnO -4 is oxidised and SO32– is reduced
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

31. Balance the following given half reaction for the 35. For the redox reaction
unbalanced whole reaction : Zn + NO-3 ® Zn2+ + NH4+ in basic medium,
CrO42– ® CrO2– + OH– is :
–
coefficients of Zn, NO-3 and OH– in the balanced
(1) CrO + 2H2O + 3e ® CrO + 4OH
–2
4
– –
2
equation respectively are :
– (1) 4, 1, 7 (2) 7, 4, 1
(2) 2CrO4–2 + 8H2O ® CrO2– + 4H2O + 8OH
(3) 4, 1, 10 (4) 1, 4, 10
–
(3) CrO4–2 + H2O ® CrO2– + H2O + OH
36. In the balanced equation-
–
(4) 3CrO4–2 + 4H2O + 6 e– ® 2CrO2–1 + 8OH [Zn + H+ + NO3– ® NH4+ + Zn+2 + H2O] coefficient
32. Choose the set of coefficients that correctly balances of NH4+ is:-
the following equation : (1) 4 (2) 3
x Cr2O72– + yH+ + z e– ® a Cr+3+ + bH2O (3) 2 (4) 1
x y z a b
(1) 2 14 6 2 7 37. In the following reaction the value of 'X' is
(2) 1 14 6 2 7 H2O + SO32– ® SO42– + 2H+ + X
(3) 2 7 6 2 7 (1) 4e– (2) 3e–
(4) 2 7 6 1 7 (3) 2e –
(4) 1e–
33. The number of electrons required to balance the
38. The number of electrons required to balance the
following equation –
following equation are:
NO3– + 4H+ + e– ¾® 2H2O + NO is
(1) 5 (2) 4 NO3– + 4H+ ® 2H2O + NO
(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) 2 on right side (2) 3 on left side
(3) 3 on right side (4) 5 on left side
34. The value of n in : MnO -4 +8 H++ ne ® Mn2+ + 4 H2O
is
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\06.REDOX.P65
REDOX REACTION ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 4 1 4 3 4 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. 1 2 3 1 3 4 3 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

BEHAVIOUR OF GASES EXERCISE
1. The increasing order of effusion among the gases, 9. A bottle of dry ammonia and a bottle of dry hydrogen
H2, O2, NH3 and CO2 is – chloride connected through a long tube are opened
simultaneously at both ends, the white ammonium
(1) H2, CO2, NH3, O2 (2) H2, NH3, O2, CO2
chloride ring first formed will be :
(3) H2, O2, NH3, CO2 (4) CO2, O2, NH3, H2 (1) at the centre of the tube
2. Gas A having molecular weight 4 diffuses thrice as (2) near the hydrogen chlrodie bottle
fast as the gas B at a given T. The molecular weight (3) near the ammonia bottle
of gas B is : (4) throughout the length of the tube
(1) 36 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 24 10. 50 ml of a gas A diffuse through a membrane in
the same time as for the diffusion of 40 ml of a gas
3. Four rubber tubes are respectively filled with H2,
B under identical pressure temperature conditions.
O2, N2 and CO2. The tube which will be reinflated If the Molecular weight of A = 64, that of B would
first is : be :
(1) H2 filled tube (2) O2 filled tube (1) 100 (2) 250
(3) N2 filled tube (4) CO2 filled tube (3) 200 (4) 80
4. A balloon filled with methane CH4 is pricked with a 11. 50 ml of hydrogen diffuses through a small hole
sharp point and quickly plunged into a tank of from vessel in 20 minutes time. Time taken for
40 ml of oxygen to diffuse out under similar
hydrogen at the same pressure. After sometime the
conditions will be :
balloon will have :
(1) 12 min. (2) 64 min
(1) Enlarged
(3) 8 min (4) 32 min
(2) Collapsed
(3) Remained unchanged in size 12. The rate of diffusion of a gas having molecular
(4) Ethylene (C2H4) inside it weight just double of nitrogen gas is 56 ml per sec
the ratio of diffusion of nitrogen gas will be :
5. A football bladder contains equimolar proportions (1) 79.19 ml/sec. (2) 112 ml/sec
of H2 and O2. The composition by mass of the (3) 56 ml/sec (4) 90 ml/sec
mixture effusing out of punctured football is in the
ratio (H2 : O2) 13. If the four tubes of a car are filled to the same
pressure with N2, O2, H2 and CO2 separately then
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 2 : 1
which one will be filled first :
(3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 4 : 1
(1) N2 (2) O2
6. A gas X diffuses three times faster than another
(3) H2 (4) CO2
gas Y the ratio of their densities i.e., Dx : Dy is
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/9
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\07.BEH-GES.P65
14. Under identical conditions of temperature and

(3) 1/6 (4)1/12 pressure the ratio of the rates of effision of O2 and
CO2 gases is given by :
7. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas
(molecular weight = 128) as compared to oxygen is rate of effusion of oxygen
(1) = 0.87
(1) 2 times (2) 1/4 rate of effusion of CO 2
(3) 1/8 (4) 1/2
rate of effusion of oxygen
(2) = 1.17
8. Since the atomic weights of carbon, nitrogen and rate of effusion of CO 2
oxygen are 12, 14 and 16 respectively, among the
following pairs of gases, the pair that will diffuse at rate of effusion of oxygen
(3) = 8.7
the same rate is : rate of effusion of CO2
(1) Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide
(2) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen peroxide rate of effusion of oxygen
(4) = 0.117
(3) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide rate of effusion of CO 2
(4) Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

15. When does a real gas show behaviour same as ideal 19. Which gas can be easily liquefied ?
gas: given 'a' for NH3 = 4.17, CO2 = 3.59, SO2= 6.71,
(1) At low temperature and low pressure Cl2 = 6.49
(2) At high temperature and high pressure (1) NH3 (2) Cl2
(3) At low temperature and high pressure (3) SO2 (4) CO2
(4) At high temperature and low pressure
20. At relatively high pressure, van der waals' equation
16. In van der Waal's equation of state of the gas law, the reduces to :
constant 'b' is a measure of : a
(1) intermolecular repulsions (1) PV = RT (2) PV = RT +
V
(2) intermolecular attraction
(3) volume occupied by the molecules a
(3) PV = RT + Pb (4) PV = RT -
(4) intermolecular collisions per unit volume V2
17. The term that accounts for intermolecular force in
21. A real gas most closely approaches the behaviour
van der Waals' equation for non ideal gas is :
of an ideal gas at :
(1) RT (2) V – b
(1) 15 atm and 200 K (2) 1 atm and 273 K
æ a ö (3) 0.5 atm and 500 K (4) 15 atm and 500 K
(3) ç P + 2 ÷ (4) [RT]–1
è V ø 22. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is :
18. Pressure of real gas is less than the pressure of (1) 0 (2) 1
ideal gas because :
(3) 2 (4) 4
(1) No. of collisions increases
(2) Difinite shape of molecule 23. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at
(3) K.E. of molecule increases STP therefore :
(4) Inter molecular forces (1) Vm > 22.4 lit (2) Vm < 22.4 lit
(3) Vm = 22.4 lit (4) Vm = 44.8 lit
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\07.BEH-GES.P65
BEHAVIOUR OF GASES ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A ns. 4 1 1 1 1 2 4 1 2 1 2 1 3 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
A ns. 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
SOLID STATE EXERCISE

1. a ¹ b ¹ c, a = g = 900 b ¹ 900 represents 10. A compound formed by elements A and B has cubic
(1) tetragonal system structure in which A atoms are at the corners of the
(2) orthorhombic system cube and B atoms are at the face centres. The
(3) monoclinic system formula of the compound will be
(4) triclinic system (1) A4B3 (2) A2B
(3) AB3 (4) A2B3
2. The most unsymmetrical crystal system is :
(1) Cubic (2) Hexagonal 11. Sodium metal crystallises in bcc lattice with the cell
(3) Triclinic (4) Orthorhombic edge a = 42.29 Å. What is the radius of sodium
atom ?
3. Bravais lattices are of (1) 1.86 Å (2) 1.90 Å
(1) 10 types (2) 8 types (3) 18.3 Å (4) 1.12 Å
(3) 7 types (4) 14 types
12. An element has bcc structure having unit cells
4. The crystal system of a compound with unit cell 12.08 ×1023. The number of atoms in these cells is
dimensions a = 0.387, b = 0.387 and c=0.504 nm (1) 12.08 × 1023 (2) 24.16 × 1023
and a=b =90° and g=120° is : (3) 48.38 × 1023 (4) 12.08 × 1022
(1) Cubic (2) Hexagonal
(3) Orthorhombic (4) Rhombohedric 13. A metal has bcc structure and the edge length of its
unit cell is 3.04 Å. The volume of the unit cell in
5. In a simple cubic cell, each point on a corner is
cm3 will be
shared by
(1) 1.6 × 10–21 cm3 (2) 2.81 × 10–23 cm3
(1) 2 unit cells (2) 1 unit cell (3) 6.02 × 10—23 cm3 (4) 6.6 × 10–24 cm3
(3) 8 unit cells (4) 4 unit cells
14. An element having bcc geometry has atomic mass
6. In a body centred cubic cell, an atom at the body 50. Calculate the density of the unit cell, if its edge
centre is shared by length is 290 pm.
(1) 1 unit cell (2) 2 unit cell (1) 6.81 g cm–3 (2) 3.40 g cm–3
(3) 3 unit cells (4) 4 unit cells (3) 13.62 g cm–3 (4) 1.23 g cm–3
7. The number of atoms present in a unit cell of a 15. A metal (atomic mass = 50) has a body centred
monoatomic element of a simple cubic lattice, body- cubic crystal structure. The density of metal is
centred cubic and face centred cubic respectively 5.96 g cm–3 . Find the volume of the unit cell.
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\08.SOLID STATE.P65
are (1) 13.9 × 10–24 cm3 (2) 27.8 × 10–24 cm3

(1) 8, 9 and 14 (2) 1, 2 and 4 (3) 6.95 × 10–24 cm3 (4) 55.6 × 10–24 cm3
(3) 4, 5 and 6 (4) 2, 3 and 5
16. An element crystallises in bcc structure. The edge
8. In a body centred cubic unit cell, a metal atom at length of its unit cell is 288 pm. If the density of the
the centre of the cell is surrounded by how many crystal is 7.2 g cm–3 , what is the atomic mass of the
other metal atoms : element?
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 4 (1) 51.8 (2) 103.6
(3) 25.9 (4) 207.2
9. A compound is formed by elements A and B. This
crystallises in the cubic structure when atoms A are 17. An element, density 6.8 g cm–3 occurs in bcc
at the corners of the cube and atoms B are at the structure with cell edge 290 pm. Calculate the
centre of the body. The simplest formula of the number of atoms present in 200 g of the element.
compound is (1) 2.4 × 1042 (2) 1.2 × 1042
(1) AB (2) AB2 (3) A2B (4) AB4 (3) 1.2 × 10 24
(4) 2.4 × 1024
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

18. An element A crystallises in fcc structure. 200 g of 28. In a closest packed lattice, the number of octahedral
this element has 4.12 × 1024 atoms. The density of sites as compared to tetrahedral ones will be
A is 7.2 g cm–3 . Calculate the edge length of the (1) Equal (2) Half
unit cell. (3) Double (4) One fourth
(1) 26.97 × 10–24 cm (2) 299.9 pm
29. The coordination number of a cation occupying an
(3) 5 × 10–12 cm (4) 2.99 cm
octahedral hole is
19. The coordination number of hexagonal closest (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
packed(hcp) structure is
30. The coordination number of a cation occupying a
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 6
tetrahedral hole is
20. The ABAB close packing and ABC ABC close (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
packing are respectively called as
31. Number of tetrahedral voids per atom in a crystal
(1) hexagonal close packing(hcp) and cubic close
lattice is :
packing (ccp)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
(2) ccp and hcp
(3) body centred cubic (bcc) packing and hexagonal 32. A compound contains P and Q elements. Atoms Q
close packing (hcp) are in ccp arrangement while P occupy all
(4) hcp and bcc tetrahedral sites. Formula of compound is :
(1) PQ (2) PQ2 (3) P2Q (4) P3Q
21. The vacant space in bcc unit cell is
(1) 32% (2) 10% (3) 23% (4) 46% 33. If ‘Z’ is the number of atoms in the unit
cell t hat represen ts t he close st packing
22. The space occupied by spheres of equal size in
sequence ABCABC---, the number of tetrahedral voids
t h r ee d i me ns io n s in b o th h cp an d cc p
in the unit cell is equal to
arrangement is
(1) 74% (2) 70% (3) 60.4% (4) 52.4% (1) Z (2) 2Z (3) Z/2 (4) Z/4
23. Which one of the following is not a close packing ? 34. For an octahedral arrangement the lowest radius
(1) hcp (2) ccp (3) bcc (4) fcc ratio limit is
(1) 0.155 (2) 0.732 (3) 0.414 (4) 0.225
24. Close packing is maximum in the crystal lattice of
(1) Simple cubic 35. If the radius ratio is in the range of 0.414 - 0.732
(2) Face centred then the co-ordination number will be :
(3) Body centred (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
(4) Simple cubic and body centred 36. In NaCl crystal r+/r– ratio is :
25. All noble gases crystallise in the ccp structure except (1) 0.4 (2) 0.98 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.52 Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\08.SOLID STATE.P65
(1) Helium (2) Neon 37. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
(3) Argon (4) Krypton about rock salt type ?
26. If the coordination number of an element in its (1) It has fcc arrangement of Na+
crystal lattice is 8, then packing is : (2) Na+ and Cl– ions have a co-ordination number
(1) fcc (2) hcp of 6 : 6
(3) bcc (4) None of the above (3) A unit cell of NaCl consists of four NaCl units
(4) All halides of alkali metals have rock-salt type
27 A tetrahedral void in a crystal implies that structure
(1) shape of the void is tetrahedral
(2) molecules forming the void are tetrahedral in 38. In sodium chloride, Cl– ions form ccp arrangement.
shape Which site does Na+ ions will occupy in this
(3) the void is surrounded tetrahedrally by four structure ?
spheres (1) Cubic (2) Tetragonal
(4) the void is surrounded by six spheres (3) Octahedral (4) Trigonal bipyramidal
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

39. The positions of Cl– ions in NaCl structure are 50. A binary solid (A+B–) has a rock salt structure if the
(1) Corners of the cube edge length is 400 pm and radius of cation (A+) is
(2) Centres of faces of the cube 75 pm, the radius of anion (B–) is
(3) Corners as well as centres of the faces of the cube (1) 100 pm (2) 125 pm
(4) Edge centres of the cube (3) 250 pm (4) 325 pm
40. The tetrahedral voids formed by ccp arrangement 51. A solid XY has a bcc structure. If the distance of
of Cl– ions in rock salt structure are closest approach between the two atoms is
173 pm, the edge length of the cell is
(1) Occupied by Na+ ions
(2) Occupied by Cl– ions 3
(1) 200 pm (2) pm
(3) Occupied by either Na+ or Cl– ions 2
(4) Vacant (3) 142.2 pm (4) 2 pm
41. The structure of MgO is similar to NaCl. The 52. If the distance between Na+ and Cl– ions in NaCl
co-ordination number of Mg is crystal is 'a' pm, what is the length of the cell edge?
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8 (1) 2a pm (2) a/2 pm
42. A unit cell of CsCl consists of (3) 4a pm (4) a/4 pm
(1) one CsCl unit (2) two CsCl units 53. Potassium fluoride has NaCl-type structure. What
(3) four CsCl units (4) eight CsCl units is the distance between K+ and F– ions if it's cell
43. TlCl has structure similar to CsCl. The co-ordination edge 'a' cm ?
number of Tl+ is (1) 2a cm (2) a/2 cm
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 8 (3) 4a cm (4) a/4 cm
44. The co-ordination number of Zn2+ and S2– ions in 54. KF has NaCl structure. What is the distance between
the zinc blende (ZnS) type structure is K+ and F– in KF if density is 2.48 g cm–3 ?
(1) 4 : 4 (2) 6 : 6 (3) 8 : 8 (4) 4 : 8 (1) 268.8 pm (2) 537.5 pm
(3) 155.3 × 10–24 cm (4) 5.375 cm
45. The number of formula units in an unit cell of fluorite
is 55. The density of crystalline sodium chloride is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 5.85 g cm–3. What is the edge length of the unit
cell.
46. 4 : 4 Co-ordination is found in (1) 4.06 × 10–8 cm. (2) 1.32 × 10–14 cm
(1) ZnS (2) CuCl (3) Agl (4) All (3) 7.8 × 10 –23
(4) 9.6 × 10–24
47. A binary solid (A+B–) has a zinc blend structure with 56. A unit cell of sodium chloride has four formula units.
B– ions constituting the lattice and A+ ions occupying The edge length of unit cell is 0.6 nm. What is the
25% tetrahedral holes. The formula of solid is. density of sodium chloride ?
(1) AB (2) A2B (3) AB2 (4) AB4 (1) 7.60 g cm–3 (2) 1.80 g cm–3
(3) 9.60 g cm–3 (4) 6.38 g cm–3
48. The radius of Na+ is 95 pm and that of Cl– ion is
181 pm. Hence the co-ordination number of Na+ 57. At zero kelvin, most of the ionic crystals posses
will be (1) Frenkel defect (2) Schottky defect
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12 (3) Metal excess defect (4) No defect
49. The ionic radii of Rb+ and I– are 1.46 and 2.16 Å 58. As a result of Schottky defect
respectively. The most probable type of structure (1) there is no effect on the density
exhibited by it is (2) density of the crystal increases
(1) CsCI type (2) NaCl type (3) density of the crystal decreases
(3) ZnS type (4) CaF2 type (4) any of the above three can happen
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

59. Which one of the following is correct ? 64. In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the
(1) Schottky defect lowers the density
corner positions only and atom B occupies the face
(2) Frenkel defect increases the dielectric constant
of the crystals centre positions. If one atom of B is missing from
(3) Stoichiometric defects make the crystals good one of the face centred points, the formula of the
electrical conductors compound is :-
(4) All the three
(1) A2B3 (2) A2B5
60. Frenkel defect is generally observed in
(1) AgBr (2) Agl (3) ZnS (4) All of these (3) A2B (4) AB2
61. F-centres in an ionic crystal are 65. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to have
(1) lattice sites containing electrons copper constituting the fcc lattice. If silver atoms
(2) interstitial sites containing electrons occupy the edge centres and gold is present at body
(3) lattice sites that are vacant
centre, the alloy has a formula
(4) interstitial sites containing cations
(1) Cu4Ag2Au (2) Cu4Ag4Au
62. The correct statement regarding F-centre is
(1) Electrons are held in the lattice site of crystals (3) Cu4Ag3Au (4) CuAgAu
(2) F-centre imparts colour to the crystal
(3) Conductivity of the crystal increases due to 66. Expermentally it was found that a metal oxide has
F-centre formula M0.98O. Metal M, is present as M2+ and M3+
(4) All the three above in its oxide. Fraction of the metal which exists as
M3+ would be :-
63. Coordination number in hcp is :-
(1) 7.01% (2) 4.08%
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 18 (3) 6.05% (4) 5.08%
SOLID STATE ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 2 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 1 4 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 4 3 4 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. 1 4 3 2 3 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

SOLUTIONS EXERCISE
1. The molarity of a solution of sodium chloride 10. The normality of 10 ml of a '20 V' H 2O2 solution is
(mol wt. = 58.5) in water containing 5.85 gm of (1) 1.79 (2) 3.58 (3) 60.86 (4) 6.086
sodium chloride in 500 ml of solution is :-
11. H 2O 2 solution used for hair bleaching is sold as
(1) 0.25 (2) 2.0 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.2
a solution of approximately 5.0 gm H 2O 2 per
2. For preparing 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 in one 100 mL of the solution. The molecular mass of
litre, we need H2SO4 : H 2O 2 is 34. The molarity of this solution is
(1) 0.98 g (2) 4.9 g approximately:-
(3) 49.0 g (4) 9.8 g (1) 0.15 M (2) 1.5 M (3) 3.0 M (4) 3.4 M
3. 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO 3 contains 10 g

of calcium carbonate concentration of the solution 12. Two bottles of A and B contains 1M and 1m aqueous
is : solution (d ; 1g / mL) of sulphuric acid respectively-
(1) 10 ppm (2) 100 ppm (1) A is more concentrated than B

(2) B is more concentrated than A
(3) 1000 ppm (4) 10,000 ppm
(3) Concentration of A = conc. of B
4. Normality of 0.3 M phosphorous acid is:-
(4) It is not possible to compare the concentration
(1) 0.15 (2) 0.6
13. Molar concentration of a solution in water is :
(3) 0.9 (4) 0.1
(1) Always equal to normality
5. Molarity of 720 gm of pure water -
(2) More than molality of the solution
(1) 40M
(3) Equal to molality of the solution
(2) 4M
(4) Less than the molality of the solution
(3) 55.5M
14. The molarity of 98% H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g/ml) by wt. is
(4) Can't be determined
(1) 6 M (2) 18 M (3) 10 M (4) 4 M
6. Equal weight of NaCl and KCl are dissolved 15. Henry's law constant for dissolution of CH 4 in
separately in equal volumes of solutions molarity of benzene at 298 K is 2 × 10 5 mm of Hg. Then
the two solutions will be – solubility of CH 4 in benzene at 298 K under
(1) Equal 760 mm of Hg is :
(2) That of NaCl will be less than that of KCl (1) 1.2 × 10–5 (2) 3.8 × 10–3
(3) That of NaCl will be more than that of KCl (3) 4 × 10–7 (4) 1 × 10–2 Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\09.SOLUTION.P65
Solution
(4) That of NaCl will be half of that of KCl solution 16. 1 mole of heptane (V. P. = 92 mm of Hg) was mixed
with 4 moles of octane (V. P. = 31mm of Hg). The
7. The mole fraction of oxygen in a mixture of 7g of vapour pressure of resulting ideal solution is :
nitrogen and 8g of oxygen is : (1) 46.2 mm of Hg (2) 40.0 mm of Hg
8 (3) 43.2 mm of Hg (4) 38.4 mm of Hg
(1) (2) 0.5 (3) 0.25 (4) 1.0
15
17. At 88 °C benzene has a vapour pressure of 900
8. An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has torr and toluene has a vapour pressure of 360
mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value of X is:- torr. What is the mole fraction of benzene in
(1) 14 (2) 3.2 (3) 1.4 (4) 2 the mixture with toluene that will boil at
9. Mole fraction of ethanol in ethanol water mixture is 88 °C at 1 atm. pressure, benzene - toluene
0.25. Hence percentage concentration of ethanol form an ideal solution :
by weight of mixture is :– (1) 0.416 (2) 0.588
(3) 0.688 (4) 0.740
(1) 25% (2) 75% (3) 46% (4) 54%
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

26. The vapour pressure of pure A is 10 torr and at
18. If PA0 and PB0 are 108 and 36 torr respectively.
the same temperature when 1 g of B is dissolved in
What will be the mole fraction of A is vapour phase
20 gm of A, its vapour pressure is reduced to 9.0
if B has mole fraction in solution 0.5.
torr. If the molecular mass of A is 200 amu, then
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.75 (3) 0.60 (4) 0.35
the molecular mass of B is :
19. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution (1) 100 amu (2) 90 amu
(1) D H mixing = 0 (3) 75 amu (4) 120 amu
(2) D V mixing = 0
27. The boiling point of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and
(3) D S mixing = 0 C6H 5NO 2 are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212 0C
(4) Obeyance of Raoult's law
respectively. Which will show highest vapour
20. Among the following, that does not form an ideal pressure at room temperature :
solution is : (1) C6H6 (2) CH3OH
(1) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 (2) C2H5Cl and C6H5OH (3) C6H5NH2 (4) C6H5NO2
(3) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br (4) C2H5Br and C2H5I
28. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid 'A' is 70 torr
21. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has b.p. lower at 270C. It forms an ideal solution with another liquid
than either of them when it :- B. The mole fraction of B is 0.2 and total vapour
(1) shows a (+ve) deviation from Raoult's law
pressure of the solution is 84 torr at 270C. The
(2) shows no deviation from Raoult's law
vapour pressure of pure liquid B at 270C is -
(3) shows (+ve) deviation from Henry's law
(4) shows (–ve) deviation from Henry's law (1) 14 (2) 56 (3) 140 (4) 70
29. The boiling point of an aqueous solution of a non

22. Which is not a colligative property ? volatile solute is 100.15 °C. What is the freezing
(1) Osmotic pressure point of an aqueous solution obtained by diluting
(2) Relative lowering in vapour pressure the above solution with an equal volume of water ?
(3) Depression in freezing point The values of Kb and Kf for water are 0.512 and
(4) Refractive index 1.86 K molality–1 :
(1) –0.544 °C (2) –0.512 °C
23. Which one of the following is the incorrect form of
(3) –0.272 °C (4) –1.86 °C
Raoult's law
Ps N P0 N 30. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the
(1) = (2) =1+
P 0
n+N
0
P - Ps n elevation in B.P. to :
P 0 - Ps n Ps N (1) Molarity
(3) = (4) o =
Ps n+N P - Ps n (2) Molality
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\09.SOLUTION.P65
(3) Mole fraction of solute

24. The vapour pressure of a solution having solid as
(4) Mole fraction of solvent
solute and liquid as solvent is :
(1) Directly proportional to mole fraction of the 31. An aqueous solution containing 1g of urea boils at
solvent 100.25 °C. The aqueous solution containing 3g of
(2) Inversely proportional to mole fraction of the
glucose in the same volume will boil at -
solvent
(3) Directly proportional to mole fraction of the solute (1) 100.75 °C (2) 100.5 °C
(4) Inversely proportional to mole fraction of the (3) 100 °C (4) 100.25 °C
solute
32. An aqueous solution freezes at – 0.186 °C
25. The vapour pressure of water at room temperature (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 ; Kb = 0.512 K kg mol–1).
is 23.8 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure of an What is the elevation in boiling point ?
aqueous solution of sucrose with mole fraction 0.1
(1) 0.186 (2) 0.512
is equal to :
(1) 23.9 mm Hg (2) 24.2 mm Hg
0.512
(3) 21.42 mm Hg (4) 31.44 mm Hg (3) (4) 0.0512
1.86
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

33. Camphor is used as solvent to determine the 39. Which of the following solutions at the same
molecular weight of nonvolatile solute by Rast temperature will be isotonic :
method because for camphor - (1) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and
(1) Molal depression constant is high 0.18 g of glucose in one litre water.
(2) Melting point is high (2) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and
(3) Being cheap 0.18 g of glucose in 0.1 litre water.
(4) All (3) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and
0.585g of NaCl in one litre water.
34. In the depression of freezing point experiment, it is
found that :- (4) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and
(1) The vapour pressure of solution is more than of 1.17 g of NaCl in one litre water.
pure H2O.
40. If density of 2 molal sucrose solution is 1.4 gm/mL
(2) The vapour pressure of solution is more than
at 25°C, find osmotic pressure.
that of pure solute
(1) 4.06 atm (2) 2 atm
(3) Only solute molecules solidify at of freezing point
(3) 40.6 atm (4) 3.4 atm
(4) Only solvent molecules solidify at freezing point
41. Equal volume of 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M glucose are
35. A solution of 1.25 g of a non-electrolyte in 20 g of mixed. The mixture will have :-
water freezes at 271.94 K. If Kf = 1.86K molality–1 (1) Lower osmotic pressure
then the molecular wt. of the solute is : (2) Same osmotic pressure
(1) 207.8 g/mol (2) 179.79 g/mol. (3) Higher osmotic pressure
(3) 209.6 g/mol. (4) 96.01 g/mol. (4) None of these
36. In osmosis phenomenon net flow of : 42. A solution containing 4 g of a non volatile organic
(1) Solvent molecules occurs from higher solute per 100 ml was found to have an osmotic
concentration to lower concentration pressure equal to 500 cm of mercury at 270C. The
(2) Solvent mo lecules occurs from lower molecular weight of solute is :
concentration to higher concentration (1) 14.97 (2) 149.7 (3) 1697 (4) 1.497
(3) So lute molecules occurs f rom higher
43. If a 6.84% (w/V) solution of cane-sugar
concentratioin to lower concentration
(mol. wt. 342) is isotonic with 1.52% (w/V)
(4) Solute molecule s occurs fro m lower
solution of thiocarbamide, then the molecular
concentration to higher concentration
weight of thiocarbamide is :
37. If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.1 M urea (1) 152 (2) 76 (3) 60 (4) 180
solution are placed on two sides of a semipermeable
membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct 44. The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.65 atm. at
to say that : 310 K. an aqueous solution of Glucose that will be
(1) There will be not net movement across the isotonic with blood is .............wt/Vol :
membrane (1) 5.41% (2) 54.1% (3) 3.5% (4) 4.53%
(2) Glucose will flow towards urea solution
(3) Urea will flow towards glucose solution 45. Equimolal solutions of A and B show depression in
(4) Water will flow from urea solution towards freezing point in the ratio of 2 : 1. A remains in
glucose solution. normal state in solution. B will be in ......... state in
solution :
38. If mole fraction of the solvent in solution decreases
(1) Normal (2) Associated
then :
(3) Hydrolysed (4) Dissociated
(1) Vapour pressure of solution increases
(2) B. P. decreases 46. The Vant Hoff factor (i) for a dilute solution of
(3) Osmotic pressure increases K3[Fe(CN)6] is :
(4) All are correct (1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 0.25
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

47. The experimental molecular weight of an 55. Which one of the following solutions will have highest
electrolyte will always be less than its calculated value osmotic pressure ? (Assume that all the salts are
because the value of vant Hoff factor, 'i' is :
(1) Less than 1 (2) Greater than 1 equally dissociated)
(3) One (4) Zero (1) 0.1M Al2(SO4)3
(2) 0.1M BaCl2
48 The substance A when dissolved in solvent B shows
the molecular mass corresponding to A3. The vant (3) 0.1 M Na2SO4
Hoff's factor will be - (4) The solution obtained by mixing equal volumes
1 of (2) and (3)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4)
3
56. Which one of the following pairs of solutions will be
49. The lowering of vapour pressure of 0.1M aqueous expected to be isot onic under the s ame
solutions of NaCl, CuSO4 and K2SO4 are : temperature ?
(1) All equal (1) 0.1M urea and 0.1 M NaCl
(2) In the ratio of 1 : 1 : 1.5 (2) 0.1M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) In the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 0.1M NaCl and 0.1M Na2SO4
(4) In the ratio of 1.5 : 1 : 2.5 (4) 0.1M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1M Na2SO4
50. The molal elevation constant of water is 0.51. The 57. Two solutions of KNO 3 and CH 3COOH are
boiling point of 0.1 molal aqueous NaCl solution is prepared separately. Molarity of both is 0.1M and
nearly : osmotic pressures are P1 and P2 respectively. The
(1) 100.05 °C (2) 100.1 °C
correct relationship between the osmotic pressures is
(3) 100.2° C (4) 101.0° C (1) P2 > P1 (2) P1 = P2
51. Solute A is ternary electrolyte and solute B is P1 P2
(3) P1 > P2 (4) =
non-electrolyte. If 0.1 M solution of solute B P1 + P2 P1 + P2
produces an osmotic pressure of 2P, then 0.05M
solution of A at the same temperature will 58. The correct relationship between the boiling points
produce an osmotic pressure equal to : of very dilute solutions of AlCl3(T1) and CaCl2(T2),
(1) P (2) 1.5 P (3) 2 P (4) 3 P having the same molar concentration is :
(1) T1 = T2 (2) T1 > T2 (3) T2 = T1 (4) T2 > T1
52. Phenol associates in benzene as
1
C6H5OH (C6H5OH)2 59. If a is the degree of dissociation of K4[Fe(CN)6], then
2
If degree of association of phenol is 40%. Van't Hoff abnormal mass of complex in the solution will be :-
factor i is :- (1) Mnormal (1+2a)–1 (2) Mnormal (1+3a)–1
(1) 1 (2) 0.8 (3) 1.4 (4) 0.6 (3) Mnormal (1+a)–1 (4) Mnormal (1+4a)–1
53. A 0.004M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.010M 60. Which solution will have least vapour pressure :
solution of glucose at the 25°C temperature. The (1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (2) 0.1 M urea
apparent degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is (3) 0.1 M Na2SO4 (4) 0.1 M Na3PO4
(1) 25% (2) 50%
61. The freezing point of 1% aqueous solution of calcium
(3) 75% (4) 85%
nitrate will be :
54. A 5.8% (wt./vol.) NaCl solution will exert an (1) 00C (2) Above 00C
osmotic pressure closest to which one of the (3) 10C (4) Below 00C
following :
62. Which of the following solutions will have highest
(1) 5.8% (wt./vol) sucrose solution
boiling point ?
(2) 5.8% (wt./vol) glucose solution
(1) 1% Glucose in water (2) 1% Sucrose in water
(3) 2 M sucrose solution
(3) 1% NaCl in water (4) 1% Urea in water
(4) 1 M glucose solution
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

63. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution 66. 0.1 M solution of K2SO4 is dissolved to the extent
will be highest for : of 90%. What would be its osmotic pressure at
(1) C6H5NH3Cl (2) Ca(NO3)2 27°C :-
(3) La(NO3)3 (4) C6H12O6(Glucose) (1) 6.89 atm (2) 0.689 atm
64. When mercuric Iodide is added to the aqueous (3) 0.344 atm (4) 3.4 atm
solution of potassium iodide ? 67. Which one has same Van't Hoff factor i as that of
(1) The boiling point does not change Hg2Cl2 :-
(2) Freezing point is raised (1) NaCl (2) Na2SO4
(3) The freezing point is lowered (3) Al(NO3)3 (4) Al2(SO4)3
(4) Freezing point does not change
65. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as

determined by depression in freezing point method
corresponds to :
(1) Ionisation of benzoic acid
(2) Dimerization of benzoic acid
(3) Trimerization of benzoic acid
(4) Solvation of benzoic acid
SOLUTIONS ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 4 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 4 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67
Ans. 4 3 4 2 2 1 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

CHEMICAL KINETICS EXERCISE
1. In a catalytic reaction involving the formation of 6. For gaseous reaction, rate = k [A] [B]. If volume
ammonia by Haber's process N2 + 3H2 ® 2NH3
1
the rate of appearance of NH3 was measured as of container is reduced to of initial, then the
2.5 × 10–4 mole L–1 s–1 The rate of disappearance 4
of H2 will be – rate of the reaction will be....... times of initial:-
(1) 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
1 1
(2) 1.25 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 (1) (2) 8 (3) (4) 16
8 16
(3) 3.75 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 7. Which of the following rate law has an overall order
2. Which of the following statement is correct for a of 0.5 for reaction involving substances x,y and z ?
reaction X + 2Y ® Product (1) Rate = K (Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
(1) The rate of disappearance of X = twice the rate (2) Rate = K (Cx)0.5(Cy)0.5(Cz)0.5
of disappearance of Y.
(3) Rate = K (Cx)1.5 (Cy)–1(Cz)°
(2) The rate of disappearance of X = ½ rate of
(4) Rate = K(Cx)(Cz)° / (Cy)2
appearance of products
(3) The rate of appearance of products = ½ the 8. A chemical reaction involves two reacting species.
rate of disappearance of Y The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the
(4) The rate of appearance of products = ½ the conc. of one of them and inversely proportional
rate of disappearance of X to the concentration of the other. The order of
3. For the reaction, N2O5 ¾® 2NO2 + ½ O2 reaction is –
(1) 1 (2) 2
d[N2 O5 ] d[NO2 ] (3) Zero (4) Unpredictable
Given - = K1 [N2 O5 ] , =K2[N2O5]
dt dt
9. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data
d[O2 ] shown for the following reaction A + B ® C
=K3[N2O5]
dt
Exp. [A] [B] Initial rate
The relation between K1 , K2 and K3 is – 1. 0.012 0.035 0.10
(1) 2K1 = K2 = 4K3 (2) K1 = K2 = K3 2. 0.024 0.070 1.6
(3) 2K1 = 4K2 = K3 (4) None 3. 0.024 0.035 0.20
4. 0.012 0.070 0.80
4. Rate of formation of SO3 according to the reaction
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\10.CHEMICAL KINETICS.P65
2SO2+O2 ® 2SO3 is 1.6 × 10–3 kg min–1 Hence (1) Rate = K [B]3
rate at which SO2 reacts is :– (2) Rate = K[B]4
(1) 1.6 × 10–3 kg min–1
(3) Rate = K[A][B]3
(2) 8.0 × 10–4 kg min–1
(4) Rate = K[A]2[B]2
(3) 3.2 × 10–3 kg min–1
(4) 1.28 × 10–3 kg min–1 10. Calculate the order of the reaction in A and B :
5. In a reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ¾¾® 2NH3(g) the rate [A] [B] Rate
of appearance of NH3 is 2.5×10-4mol L-1s-1. The Rate –1
(mol L )
–1
(mol L )
of reaction & rate of disappearance of H2 will be (In –3
0.05 0.05 1.2 ×10
mol L-1 sec.-1) –3
0.10 0.05 2.4 ×10
(1) 3.75 × 10–4, 1.25 × 10–4 0.05 0.10 1.2 ×10
–3
(2) 1.25 × 10–4, 2.5 × 10–4

(3) 1.25 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4
(1) 1 and 0 (2) 1 and 1
(4) 5.0 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4
(3) 0 and 1 (4) None
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

11. For a chemical reaction A + B ® product, the order 18. For a chemical reaction A ® B, the rate of reaction
is one with respect to each A and B. Value of x doubles when the conc. of A is increased 8 times.
and y from the given data is :– The order of reaction w.r.t. A is :–
Rate [A] [B] 1 1
(mol L–1s–1) (1) 3 (2) (3) (4) Zero
2 3
0.10 0.20 M 0.05 M
0.40 x 0.05 M 19. The chemical reaction 2O3 ® 3O2 proceeds as
0.80 0.40 M y follows
(1) 0.20, 0.80 (2) 0.80, 0.40

O3 O2 + O ............. (fast)
(3) 0.80, 0.20 (4) 0.40, 0.20 O + O3 ® 2O2 ............. (slow)
12. Time required to complete a half fraction of a The rate law expression should be –
reaction varies inversely to the concentration of (1) r = K[O3]2 (2) r = K[O3]2 [O2]–1
reactant then the order of reaction is – (3) r = K[O3] [O2] (4) Unpredictable
(1) Zero (2) 1
20. The hypothetical reaction A2 + B2 ® 2AB follows
(3) 2 (4) 3
the mechanism as given below –
13. The rate law for the single step reaction
A A + A ............. (fast)
2
2A + B ® 2C, is given by – A + B2 ® AB + B ............. (slow)
(1) Rate = K[A][B] (2) Rate = K[A]2[B] A + B ® AB ............. (fast)
(3) Rate = K[2A][B] (4) Rate = K[A]2[B]° The order of the over all reaction is –
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 1½ (4) Zero
14. For a reaction of the type A + B ® products, it
is observed that doubling the concentration of A 21. The rate for the reaction
causes the reaction rate to be four times as great, RCl + NaOH (aq) ® ROH + NaCl is given by
but doubling the amount of B does not effect the rate = K1[RCl] The rate of the reaction is –
rate. The rate equation is – (1) Doubled on doubling the concentration of NaOH
(1) Rate = K [A][B] (2) Rate = K [A]2 (2) Halved on reducing the concentration of RCl
(3) Rate = K[A] [B]
2
(4) Rate = K[A]2[B]2 to half
(3) Decreased on increasing the temperature of
15. Point out incorrect statement. reaction
(1) Rate law is an experimental value (4) Unaffected by increasing the temperature of
(2) Law of mass action is a theoretical proposal the reaction
(3) Rate law is more informative than law of mass
22. For reaction NO2 + CO ® CO2 + NO, the rate
action for developing mechanism
expression is, Rate = K [NO2]2

(4) Rate law is always different from the expression
The number of molecules of CO involved in the
of law of mass action. slowest step will be –
16. For an elementary process 2X + Y ® Z + W, the (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
molecularity is – 23. The rate law of the reaction A + 2B ® product
(1) 2 (2) 1
d [ P]
(3) 3 (4) Unpredictable = K [ A ] [ B ] . If A is taken in large
2
is given by
dt
17. The rate law for a reaction A + B ® product is excess, the order of the reaction will be –
rate = K[A]1 [B]2. Then which one of the following (1) Zero (2) 1
statement is false :– (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) If [B] is held constant while [A] is doubled, the
reaction will proceed twice as fast 24. In the sequence of reaction
(2) If [A] is held constant while [B] is reduced to one A ¾¾¾
K1
® B ¾¾¾ K2
® C ¾¾¾K3
® D ;
quarter, the rate will be halved K3 > K2 > K1, then the rate determining step of
(3) If [A] and [B] are both doubled, the reaction will the reaction is :–
proceed 8 times as fast (1) A ® B (2) C ® D
(4) This is a third order reaction (3) B ® C (4) A ® D
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

25. The reaction mechanism for the reaction P® R is 31. In a first order reaction the concentration of the
as follows :– reactant is decreased from 1.0 M to 0.25 M in
K1 20 min. The rate constant of the reaction would

P 2Q(fast) ; 2Q + P ¾¾¾
® R(slow) K2
be –
the rate law for the main reaction (P ® R) is
(1) 10 min–1 (2) 6.931 min–1
[where K1 is an equilibrium constant]
(3) 0.6931 min–1 (4) 0.06931 min–1
(1) K1[P] [Q] (2) K1k2[P]
(3) K1k2[P]2 (4) K1k2[a] 32. A first order reaction has a half life period of
69.3 sec. At 0.10 mol L–1 reactant concentration,
26. The rate constant is numerically the same for three the rate will be –
reactions of first, second and third order (1) 10–4 M sec–1
respectively. Which one is true at a moment for (2) 10–3 M sec–1
rate of all three reactions if concentration of (3) 10–1 M sec–1
reactants is same and greater than 1 M. (4) 6.93 × 10–1 M sec–1
(1) r1 = r2 = r3 (2) r1 > r2 > r3
33. The half life for the first order reaction
(3) r1 < r2 < r3 (4) All
N2O5 ® 2NO2 + ½ O2 is 24 hrs. at 30°C. Starting
27. K for a zero order reaction is with 10g of N2O5 how many grams of N2O5 will
2 × 10–2 mol L–1 sec–1. If the concentration of the remain after a period of 96 hours ?
reactant after 25 sec is 0.5 M, the initial (1) 1.25 g (2) 0.63 g
concentration must have been. (3) 1.77 g (4) 0.5 g
(1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M (3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M
34. For a given reaction of first order it takes 20 minute
28. The accompanying figure depicts the change in for the concentration to drop from 1 M to 0.6 M.
concentration of species X and Y for the reaction The time required for the concentration to drop
X ® Y as a function of time the point of intersection from 0.6 M to 0.36 M will be :

(1) More than 20 min
of the two curves reperesents.
(2) Less than 20 min
(3) Equal to 20 min
Concentration
X (4) Infinity
35. In the following first order competing reactions.

Y A + Reagent ® Product, B + Reagent ® Product
Time The ratio of K1 / K2 if only 50% of B will have
been reacted, When 94% of A has been reacted
(1) t1/2
(2) t3/4 is –
(3) t2/3 (1) 4.06 (2) 0.246
(4) Data are insufficient to predict (3) 2.06 (4) 0.06
29. Plot of log(a – x) vs time t is straight line. This 36. The reaction L ® M is started with 10 g/L. After
indicates that the reaction is of – 30 and 90 minute, 5 g and 1.25 g/L are left
(1) Second order (2) First order respectively. The order of reaction is
(3) Zero order (4) third order (1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 3
30. The rate constant of a first order reaction is
4 × 10–3 sec–1. At a reactant concentration of 37. If doubling the initial concentration of a reactant doubles
0.02 M, the rate of reaction would be– t½ of the reaction, the order of the reaction is–
(1) 8 × 10–5 M sec–1 (2) 4 × 10–3 M sec–1 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 2 × 10–1 M sec–1 (4) 4 × 10–1 M sec–1 (3) 1 (4) 0
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

38. The rate co nstant (K) f or t he 45. Which is incorrect :–
reaction 2A + B ® product, was found to be (1) Half life of a first order reaction is independent
2.5 × 10 –5 litre mo l –1 sec –1 after 15 sec, of initial concentration
2.60 × 10 –5 lit mol –1 sec –1 after 30 sec and (2) Rate of reaction is constant for first order reaction
2.55 × 10–5 lit mol–1 sec–1 after 50 sec. The order (3) Unit of K for second order reaction is
mol–1 lit sec–1
of reaction is
(4) None
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Zero (4) 1 46. Hydrolysis of ester in alkaline medium is :–
(1) First order reaction with molecularity one
39. In the first order reaction 75% of the reactant (2) Second order reaction with molecularity two
disappeared in 1.388 h. Calculate the rate constant (3) First order reaction with molecularity two
of the reaction :– (4) Second order reaction with molecularity one
(1) 1 s–1 (2) 2.8 × 10–4 s–1
(3) 17.2 × 10–3 s–1 (4) 1.8 × 10–3 s–1 1
47. The expression which gives th life of Ist order
4
40. In the case of first order reaction, the ratio of time
reaction is :–
required for 99.9 % completion to 50 % completion
is :– K 4 2.303
(1) log (2) log 3
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) None 2.303 3 K
41. From different sets of data of t1/2 at different initial 2.303 3 2.303 4
(3) log (4) log
concentrations say 'a' for a given reaction, the K 4 K 3
[t1/2 ´ a] is found to be constant. The order of
reaction is :– 48. The rate constant of a zero order reaction is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 0.2 mol dm-3h-1. If the concentration of the reactant
after 30 minutes is 0.05 mol dm-3. Then its initial
42. The reaction
concentration would be :-
2N2O5(g) ® 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
(1) 6.05 mol dm-3
is first order with respect to N2O5.
Which of the following graph would yield a straight (2) 0.15 mol dm-3
line :– (3) 0.25 mol dm-3
(4) 4.00 mol dm-3
(1) log ( PN2O5 ) v/s time with negative slope
-1
49. According to collision theory of reaction rates –
(2) PN2O5 v/s time
(1) Every collision between reactants leads to
(3) PN2O5 v/s time chemical reaction

(2) Rate of reaction is proportional to velocity of
(4) log ( PN2O5 ) v/s time with positive slope molecules
(3) All reactions which occur in gaseous phase are
43. The following data were obtained at a certain
zero order reaction
temperature for the decomposition of ammonia
(4) Rate of reaction is directly proportional to collision
p (mm) 50 100 200
t 1/2 3.64 1.82 0.91 frequency.
The order of the reaction is :–
50. The rate constant K1 of a reaction is found to be
(1) 0 (2) 1
double that of rate constant K2 of another reaction.
(3) 2 (4) 3
The relationship between corresponding activation
44. A reaction is found to have the rate constant energies of the two reactions at same temperature
x sec–1 by what factor the rate is increased if initial
(E1 & E2) can be represented as
conc. of A is tripled
(1) E1 > E2 (2) E1 < E2
(1) 3 (2) 9
(3) x (4) Remains same (3) E1 = E2 (4) E1 = 4E2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

51. At room temperature the reaction between NO and 58. The rate constant, the activation energy and the
O2 to give NO2 is fast while that between CO and arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at 250C
O2 is slow it is due to – are 3 × 10 –4 sec –1 ; 104. 4 kJ mo l –1 and
(1) CO is smaller in size than that of NO 6.0 × 1014 sec–1 respectively, the value of the rate
(2) CO is poisonous constant as T® ¥ is.
(3) The activation energy for the reaction (1) 2 × 108 sec–1 (2) 6 × 1014 sec–1
2NO + O2 ® 2NO2 is less than (3) Infinity (4) 3.6 × 1030 sec–1
2CO + O2 ® 2CO2
(4) None 59. The rate of reaction increases to 2.3 times when
the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K.
52. An endothermic reaction A ® B have an activation
If K is the rate constant at 300 K then the rate
energy 15 k cal/mol and the heat of the reaction
constant at 310 K will be equal to –
is 5 k cal/mol. The activation energy of the reaction
(1) 2K (2) K
B ® A is –
(3) 2.3 K (4) 3K2
(1) 20 k cal/mol (2) 15 k cal/mol
(3) 10 k cal/mol (4) Zero 60. If concentration of reactants is increased by 'x' then
53. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise the K becomes –
in temperature is due to – K K
(1) Increase in the number of collisions (1) ln (2)
x x
(2) Increase in the number of activated molecules
(3) K + x (4) K
(3) Lowering of activation energy
(4) Shortening of the mean free path 61. Which is used in the determination of reaction rates.
(1) Reaction Temperature
54. Rat e of which reactions increases with
temperature (2) Reaction Concentration
(1) Of any reaction (3) Specific rate constant
(2) Of exothermic reaction
(4) All of these
(3) Of endothermic reaction
(4) Of None 62. The energy of activation of a forward reaction is
50 kcal. The energy of activation of its backward
55. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every reaction is:–
100C rise in temperature. If the temp is increased
(1) Equal to 50 kcal.
by 600C the rate of reaction increases by :
(1) 20 times (2) 32 times (2) Greater than 50 kcal.

(3) 64 times (4) 128 times (3) Less than 50 kcal.
56. Given that K is the rate constant for some order (4) Either greater or less than 50 kcal.
of any reaction at temp T then the value of 63. An exothermic reaction X ® Y has an activation
lim logK _________. energy 30 kJ mol–1. If energy change (DE) during
T ®¥
the reaction is – 20 kJ, then the activation energy
(1) A@2.303 (2) A for the reverse reaction is :–
(3) 2.303 A (4) log A (1) 10 kJ (2) 20 kJ
57. From the following data; the activation energy for (3) 50 kJ (4) – 30 kJ
the reaction (cal/mol) H2 + I2 ® 2HI 64. The rate of reaction increases by the increase of
–1
temperature because :–
T (in K) 1/T(in K ) log10K
(1) Collision is increased
769 1.3 ×10 –3
2.9 (2) Energy of products decreases
667 1.5 ×10–3 1.1
(3) Fraction of molecules possessing energy ³ ET
(1) 4 × 10 4
(2) 2 × 10 4
(Threshold energy) increases
(3) 8 × 104 (4) 3 × 104 (4) Mechanism of a reaction is changed
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

65. For a certain gaseous reaction rise of temperature 66. For producing the effective collisions, the colloiding
from 25° C to 35° C doubles the rate of reaction. molecules must posses:-
What is the value of activation energy :– (1) A certain minimum amount of energy
(2) Energy equal to or greater than threshold energy
10 (3) Proper orientation
(1)
2.303R ´ 298 ´ 308 (4) Threshold energy as well as proper orientation
of collision
2.303 ´ 10
(2) 67. The half life for a reaction is --------of temperature:-
298 ´ 308R
(1) Independent
(2) Increased with increase
0.693R ´ 10
(3) (3) Decreased with increase
290 ´ 308
(4) Increased or decreased with increase
0.693R ´ 298 ´ 308

(4)
10
CHEMICAL KINETICS ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 4 1 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 3 3 1 3 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67
Ans. 4 4 3 3 4 4 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ELECTROCHEMISTRY EXERCISE
1. Strong electrolyte are those which : 9. The value of molar conductivity of HCl is greater
(1) dissolve readily in water than that of NaCl at a particular temperature
(2) conduct electricity because :
(3) dissociate into ions even at high concentration (1) Molecular mass of HCl is less than that of NaCl.
(4) dissociate into ions at high dilution. (2) Velocity of H+ ions is more than that of Na+ ions
2. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to (3) HCl is strongly acidic
the presence of : (4) Ionisation of HCl is larger than that of NaCl
(1) free electrons
10. Which statement is not correct :–
(2) free ions
(1) Conductance of an electrolytic solution increases
(3) free molecules
(4) free atoms of Na and Cl with dilution
(2) Conductance of an electrolytic solution decreases
3. Electrolytic conduction is due to the movement of : with dilution
(1) molecules (2) atoms (3) Specific conductance of an electrolytic solution
(3) ions (4) electrons decreases with dilution
4. Which of the following solutions of KCl has the lowest (4) Equivalent conductance of an electrolytic solution
value of equivalent conductance ? increases with dilution.
(1) 1 M (2) 0.1 M
(3) .01 M (4) .001 M 11. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte
was found to be 210 ohm at 298 K using a
5. In the equation L = sp. cond. ×V, If V is the volume conductivity cell of cell constant 0.66 cm–1. The
in cc containing 1 equivalent of the electrolyte then
equivalent conductance of solution is :–
N (1) 314.28 mho cm2 eq–1
V for a solution will be :
10
(2) 3.14 mho cm2 eq–1
(1) 10 c.c. (2) 100 c.c.
(3) 1000 c.c. (4) 10,000 c.c. (3) 314.28 mho–1 cm2 eq–1
(4) 3.14 mho–1 cm2 eq–1
6. If the specific resistance of a solution of
concentration C g equivalent litre–1 is R, then its
12. Electrolytic conduction differs from metallic
equivalent conductance is :
conduction from the fact that in the former
100R RC (1) The resistant increases with increasing
(1) (2)
C 1000 temperature
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\11.ELECTROCHEMISTRY.P65
(2) The resistance decreases with increasing

1000 C
(3) (4) temperature
RC 1000R
(3) The resistance remains constant with increasing
7. The specific conductances in ohm–1 cm–1 of four temperature
electrolytes P, Q, R and S are given in brackets : (4) The resistance is independent of the length of
P (5.0 × 10–5) Q (7.0 × 10–8) the conductor
R (1.0 × 10 )–10
S (9.2 × 10–3)
The one that offers highest resistance to the passage 13. At infinite dilution, the equivalent conductances of
of electric current is CH3COONa, HCl and CH3COOH are 91, 426 and
(1) P (2) S 391 mho cm2 eq–1 respectively at 25 °C. The eq.
(3) R (4) Q conductance of NaCl at infinite dilution will be :
(1) 126 (2) 209
8. The specific conductance of a salt of 0.01 M (3) 391 (4) 908
concentration is 1.061 × 10–4 S cm–1. Molar
conductance of the same solution will be : 14. The equivalent conductivity of 0.1 N CH3COOH at
(1) 1.061 × 10 –4 (2) 1.061 25 °C is 80 and at infinite dilution it is 400. The
(3) 10.61 (4) 106.1 degree of dissociation of CH 3COOH is :
(1) 1 (2) 0.2
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.5
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

15. For HCl solution at 250C, equivalent conductance 22. Which is not true for a standard hydrogen electrode ?
at infinite dilution, is 425 ohm–1 cm2 equiv–1. The (1) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 M
specific conductance of a solution of HCl is (2) Temperature is 25°C
3.825 ohm–1 cm–1. If the apparent degree of
(3) Pressure of hydrogen is 1 bar
dissociation is 90% the normality of the solution
is :- (4) It contains a metallic conductor which does not
(1) 0.90 N (2) 1.0 N adsorb hydrogen.
(3) 10 N (4) 1.2 N
23. The chemical reaction,
2AgCl(s) + H2(g) ¾® 2HCl (aq) + 2Ag(s)
16. The molar conductivities Ù0NaOAc and Ù0HCl at infinite
taking place in a galvanic cell is represented by the
dilutio n in wat er at 25°C are 91.0 and notation.
426.2 S cm2/mol respectively. To calculate Ù0HOAc
the additional value required is : (1) Pt(s) H2 (g).1bar 1M KCl(aq) AgCl(s) Ag(s).
(1) Ù 0NaCl
0
(2) Ù H2O (2) Pt(s) H2 (g).1bar 1M HCl(aq) 1M Ag(aq) Ag(s).
(3) Ù0KCl (4) Ù0NaOH (3) Pt(s) H2 (g).1bar 1M HCl(aq) AgCl(s) Ag(s).
17. The conductivity of a saturated solution of BaSO4 is

(4) Pt(s) H2 (g).1bar 1M HCl(aq) Ag(s) AgCl(s).
3.06 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1and its molar conductance
is 1.53 ohm–1 cm–1 mol–1. The Ksp of BaSO4 will be 24. Cu | Cu+2(1M) | |Zn+2(1 M) | Zn
(1) 4 × 10–12 (2) 2.5 × 10–9 A cell represented above should have emf.
(3) 2.5 × 10–13 (4) 4 × 10–6 (1) Positive
(2) Negative
18. In the galvanic cell Cu |Cu2+ (1M) || Ag+ (1M) | Ag (3) Zero
the electrons will travel in the external circuit : (4) Cannot be predicted
(1) from Ag to Cu
25. Given electrode potentials :
(2) from Cu to Ag
Fe3+ + e ¾® Fe2+ ; E° = 0.771 volts
(3) electrons do not travel in the external circuit
(4) in any direction I2 + 2e ¾® 2I– ; E° = 0.536 volts
E° cell for the cell reaction
19. The passage of electricity in the Daniell cell when 2Fe3+ + 2I– ® 2Fe2+ + I2 is -
Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is : (1) (2 × 0.771 – 0.536) = 1.006 volts
(1) from Cu to Zn in the cell (2) (0.771 – 0.5 × 0.536) = 0.503 volts
(2) from Cu to Zn out side the cell (3) 0.771 – 0.536 = 0.235 volts

(3) from Zn to Cu outside the cell (4) 0.536 – 0.771 = –0.235 volts
(4) in any direction in the cell
26. Which of the following is not an anodic reaction–
20. The equation representing the process by which (1) Ag+ ® Ag – e–
standard reduction potential of zinc can be defined is (2) Cu ® Cu2+ + 2e–
(1) Zn 2+
(s) + 2e ¾¾® Zn
–
(3) Fe2+ ® Fe3+ + e–
(2) Zn (g) ¾¾® Zn 2+
(g) + 2e –
(4) 4OH– ® 2H2O + O2 + 4e–
(3) Zn 2+
(g) + 2e ¾¾® Zn
–
27. Which of the following statements is correct :–

(4) Zn2+ (aq.) + 2e– ¾¾® Zn (s)
(1) Oxidation occur at anode in both galvanic and
21. A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode electrolytic cell
potential because : (2) Reduction occurs at anode in both galvanic and
electrolytic cell
(1) Hydrogen is easiest to oxidize
(3) Reduction occur at anode in electrolytic cell where
(2) This electrode potential is assumed to be zero
as oxidation occur at cathode in galvanic cell
(3) Hydrogen atom has only one electron (4) Oxidation occur at anode in electrolytic cell where
(4) Hydrogen is the lightest element as reduction occur at anode in a galvanic cell
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

28. Other things being equal, the life of a Daniell cell 35. The oxidation potential of Zn, Cu, Ag, H2 and Ni
may be increased by :– are 0.76, –0.34, –0.80, 0, 0.55 volt respectively.
(1) Keeping low temperature Which of the following reaction will provide
(2) Using large copper electrode maximum voltage ?
(3) Decreasing concentration of copper ions
(1) Zn + Cu2+ ¾® Cu + Zn2+
(4) Using large zinc electrodes
(2) Zn + 2Ag+ ¾® 2Ag + Zn2+
29. Zn can not displace following ions from their (3) H2 + Cu2+ ¾® 2H+ + Cu
aqueous solution :
(1) Ag+ (2) Cu2+ (3) Fe2+ (4) Na+ (4) H2 + Ni2+ ¾® 2H+ + Ni
30. Red hot carbon will remove oxygen from the oxide 36. The following facts are available :–
XO and YO but not from ZO. Y will remove oxygen 2X– + Y2 ® 2Y– + X2
from XO. Use this evidence to deduce the order of
2W– + Y2 ® NO reaction
activity of the three metals X, Y and Z putting the
2Z– + X2 ® 2X– + Z2
most active first.
(1) XYZ (2) ZYX (3) YXZ (4) ZXY Which of the following statements is correct :–
(1) E°W - / W2 > E°Y- / Y2 > E°X - / X2 > E°Z- / Z2

31. Adding powdered Pb and Fe to a solution containing
1.0 M in each of Pb+2 and Fe+2 ions would result (2) E°W - / W2 < E°Y- / Y2 < E°X - / X2 < E°Z- / Z2
into the formation of :–
(1) More of Fe and Pb2+ ions (3) E°W - / W2 < E°Y- / Y2 > E°X - / X2 > E°Z- / Z2
(2) More of Fe+2 and Pb2+ ions
(4) E°W - / W2 > E°Y- / Y2 < E°X - / X2 < E°Z- / Z2
(3) More of Pb and Fe+2 ions
(4) More of Fe and Pb 37. The standard reduction potential at 25 °C of
Li+ / Li, Ba2+ / Ba, Na+ / Na and Mg2+ / Mg are
32. Which one will liberate Br2 from KBr ? –3.05, –2.73, –2.71 and –2.37 volt respectively.
(1) HI (2) I2 (3) Cl2 (4) SO2 Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising
agent ?
33. Using the standard electrode potential values given
(1) Na+ (2) Li+
below, decide which of the statements, I, II, III and
(3) Ba2+ (4) Mg2+
IV are correct. Choose the right answer from (1),
(2), (3) and (4). 38. A gas X at 1 atm. is bubbled through a solution
co ntaining a mixt ure of 1M Y – an d
Fe2+ + 2e– l Fe ; E° = –0.44 V

1M Z– at 25 °C. If the reduction potential of
Cu2+ + 2e– l Cu ; E° = +0.34 V Z > Y > X then :
Ag+ + e– l Ag ; E° = +0.80 V (1) Y will oxidise X and not Z
I. Copper can displace iron from FeSO4 solution. (2) Y will oxidise Z and not X
II. Iron can displace copper from CuSO4 solution. (3) Y will oxidise both X and Z
III. Silver can displace copper from CuSO4 solution. (4) Y will reduce both X and Z
IV. Iron can displace silver from AgNO 3 solution.
39. Each of the three metals x, y and z were put in turn
(1) I and II (2) II and III into aqueous solution of the other two. x + salt of y
(3) II and IV (4) I and IV (or z) ® y (or z) + salt of x
Which one of the following observation is incorrect?
34. The standard electrode potential value of the
(1) y + salt of x ® no action observed
elements A, B and C are 0.68, –2.50 and 0.50 V
(2) y + salt of z ® z + salt of y
respectively. The order of their reducing power is :
(3) z + salt of x ® x + salt of z
(1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B
(4) z + salt of y ® no action observed
(3) C > B > A (4) B > C > A
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

40. A standard reduction electrode potentials of four 47. Which of the following represents the potential of
elements are silver wire dipped into 0.1 M AgNO3 solution at
A = – 0.250 V , B = – 0.140 V 25° C ?
C = – 0.126 V , D = – 0.402 V (1) E°red (2) (E°red + 0.059)
The element that displaces A from its compounds (3) (E°ox – 0.059) (4) (E°red – 0.059)
aqueous solution is :–
(1) B 48. Consider the reaction
(2) C Cl2(g) + 2Br–(aq) ¾® 2Cl– (aq) + Br2
(3) D The emf of the cell when
(4) None of the above [Cl–] = [Br2] = [Br–] = 0.01 M and Cl2 gas at 1 atm
41. The following four colourless salt solutions are placed pressure will be (E° for the above reaction is = 0.29 volt)
in separate test tubes and a strip of Cu is placed in (1) 0.54 volt (2) 0.35 volt
each solution which finally turns blue :– (3) 0.24 volt (4) –0.29 volt
(1) Zn(NO3)2 (2) Mg(NO3)2
49. E° for F2 + 2e– ® 2F– is 2.8 V,
(3) KNO3 (4) AgNO3
E° for ½F2 + e– ® F– is ?
42. Which of the following displacement does not occur (1) 2.8 V (2) 1.4 V (3) –2.8 V (4) –1.4 V
(1) Zn + 2H+ ® Zn2+ + H2
50. D G° of the cell reaction
(2) Fe + 2Ag+® Fe2+ + Ag ¯
AgCl(s) + ½H2(g) ® Ag(s) + H+ +Cl– is –21.52 KJ
(3) Cu + Fe2+ ® Cu2+ + Fe ¯
DG° of 2AgCl(s) +H2(g) ® 2Ag(s) +2H+ +2Cl– is :
(4) Zn + Pb2+ ® Zn2+ + Pb ¯ (1) –21.52 KJ (2) –10.76 KJ
(3) –43.04 KJ (4) 43.04 KJ
43. E°(Ni2+/Ni) = –0.25 volt,
E° (Au3+ / Au) = 1.50 volt. 51. How much will the potential of a hydrogen electrode
The emf of the voltaic cell. change when its solution initially at pH = 0 is
Ni / Ni2+ (1.0 M) | | Au3+ (1.0 M) | Au is : neutralised to pH = 7 ?
(1) 1.25 volt (2) –1.75 volt (1) increases by 0.059 V
(3) 1.75 volt (4) 4.0 volt (2) decreases by 0.059 V
44. The emf of the cell in which the following reaction (3) increases by 0.41 V
Zn(s) + Ni2+ (a = 0.1) Zn2+ (a = 1.0) + Ni(s) (4) decreases by 0.41 V
occurs, is found to be 0.5105 V at 298 K. The
52. Which of the following will increase the voltage of
standard e.m.f. of the cell is :-
the cell with following cell reaction

(1) –0.5105 V (2) 0.5400 V
Sn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) ® Sn+2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(3) 0.4810 V (4) 0.5696 V
(1) Increase in the size of silver rod
45. The emf of the cell (2) Increase in the concentration of Sn+2 ions
Tl/Tl+ (0.0001 M) || Cu2+(0.01M)/Cu is 0.83 V (3) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
The emf of this cell will be increased by :– (4) Decrease in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(1) Increasing the concentration of Cu++ ions
53. E° for the reaction Fe + Zn2+ ® Zn + Fe2+ is
(2) Decreasing the concentration of Tl+ –0.35V. The given cell reaction is :
(3) Increasing the concentration of both (1) feasible (2) not feasible
(4) (1) & (2) both (3) in equilibrium (4) can't say anything
46. The potential of hydrogen electrode 54. For a reaction - A(s) + 2B+ ® A2+ + 2B(s)
(PH = 1 atms; CH+ = 0.1 M) at 25°C will be -
2 KC has been found to be 1012. The E°cell is:
(1) 0.00 V (2) –0.059 V
(1) 0.354 V (2) 0.708 V
(3) 0.118 V (4) 0.059 V
(3) 0.0098 V (4) 1.36 V
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

55. The standard electrode potential (E°) for OCl–/Cl– 62. Two electrolytic cells one containing acidified ferrous
and Cl / ½ Cl2 respectively are 0.94 V and
– chloride and another acidified ferric chloride are
–1.36V. The E° value of OCl / ½ Cl2 will be :
– connected in series. The ratio of iron deposited at
(1) –2.20 V (2) –0.42 V cathodes in the two cells when electricity is passed
(3) 0.52 V (4) 1.04 V through the cells will be :

(1) 3 :1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
56. The standard reduction potentials of Cu /Cu and
2+
63. A current of 9.65 amp. flowing for 10 minute

Cu2+/Cu+ are 0.337 and 0.153 V respectively. The
deposits 3.0 g of a metal. The equivalent wt. of the
standard electrode potential of Cu+/Cu half cell is :
metal is :
(1) 0.184 V (2) 0.827 V
(1) 10 (2) 30 (3) 50 (4) 96.5
(3) 0.521 V (4) 0.490 V
64. The same amount of electricity was passed through
57. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of two separate electrolytic cells containing solutions
pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the cell would of nickel nitrate [Ni(NO3)2]and chromium nitrate
be : [Cr(NO 3)3] respectively. If 0.3 g of nickel was
(1) 0.177 (2) – 0.177 V deposited in the first cell, the amount of chromium
(3) 0.087 V (4) 0.059 V deposited is :
(at. wt. of Ni = 59, at. wt. of Cr = 52)
58. What is the potential of the cell containing two
(1) 0.1 g (2) 0.17 g
hydrogen electrodes as represented below
(3) 0.3 g (4) 0.6 g
Pt; H2(g) | H+(10–8)M || H+(0.001 M) | H2(g).Pt ;
(1) – 0.295 V (2) – 0.0591 V 65. How many coulombs of electricity are required for
(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.0591 V the oxidation of 1 mole of H2O to O2 ?
(1) 9.65 × 104 C (2) 4.825 × 105 C
+2 +
59. Consider the cell Cu/Cu ||Ag /Ag. If the (3) 1.93 × 105 C (4) 1.93 × 104 C
+2 +
concentration of Cu and Ag ions becomes ten
66. 10800 C of electricity through the electrolyte
times the emf of the cell :–
deposited 2.977 g of metal with atomic mass
(1) Becomes 10 times
106.4 g mol–1. The charge on the metal cation is -
(2) Remains same
(1) +4 (2) +3 (3) +2 (4) +1
(3) Increase by 0.0295 V
67. On passing electricity through dil. H2SO4 solution
(4) Decrease by 0.0295 V

the amount of substance librated at the cathode
60. The emf of the cell and anode are in the ratio :
Ni/Ni+2 (1.0 M) | | Au+3 (0.1M)/Au (1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 1
[E° for Ni+2/Ni = - 0.25 V, E° for Au+3/Au = 1.50V] (3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16
is given as:-
68. A silver cup is plated with silver by passing
(1) 1.25 V (2) – 1.75 V
965 ampere current for one second, the mass of
(3) 1.75 V (4) 1.73 V
Ag deposited is :–(At. wt. of Ag = 107.87)
(1) 9.89 g. (2) 107.87 g.
61. When an electric current is passed through acidified
(3) 1.0787 g. (4) 100.2 g.
water, 112 ml. of hydrogen gas at STP collects at
the cathode in 965 seconds. The current passed, 69. When electricity is passed through a solution of
in ampere is : AlCl3, 13.5 g. Al are deposited. The number of
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.5 Faradays must be :–
(3) 0.1 (4) 2.0 (1) 5.0 (2) 1.0 (3) 1.5 (4) 3.0
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

70. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed 73. What would be the ratio of moles each of
using inert electrodes. The product at the cathode Ag+, Cu+2, Fe+3 ions would be deposited by passage
and anode are respectively :– of same quantity of electricity through solutions of
(1) H2, SO2 (2) O2, H2 their salts :–
(3) O2, Na (4) H2, O2
1 1
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : :
71. When 96500 coulombs of electricity are passed 2 3
through barium chloride solution, the amount of
barium deposited will be :- 1 1
(3) : :1 (4) 1 : 2 : 3
(1) 0.5 mol. (2) 1.0 mol. 3 2
(3) 1.5 mol. (4) 2.0 mol. 74. Electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 causes :–
(1) An increase in pH
72. A factory produces 40 kg of calcium in two hours
(2) A decrease in pH
by electrolysis. How much aluminium can be
(3) Either decrease or increase
produced by the same current in two hours :–
(4) None
(At wt. of Ca = 40, Al = 27)
(1) 22 kg (2) 18 kg 75. The passage of current liberates H2 at cathode and
(3) 9 kg (4) 27 kg
Cl2 at anode the solution is :–
(1) CuSO4 (aq) (2) CuCl2 (aq.)
(3) NaCl (aq.) (4) Water
ELECTROCHEMISTRY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 2 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 1 1 4 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 4 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 2 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
SURFACE CHEMISTRY EXERCISE

1. Physical adsorption is appreciable at :– 8. Sorption is the term used when :
(1) Higher temperature (2) Lower temperature (1) Adsorption takes place
(3) At room temperature (4) 1000 C (2) Absorption takes place
(3) Both takes place
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of (4) Desorption takes place
chemi–sorption :–
(1) Adsorption is irreversible 9. The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid de-
pends on :
(2) DH is of the order of 40 kJ
(1) The nature of gas
(3) Adsorption is specific
(2) Pressure of gas
(4) Adsorption increases with increase of surface
(3) Temperature of the system
area
(4) All
3. The amount of gas adsorbed on charcoal increases
10. Which forms multi molecular layers during
with :–
adsorption :
(1) Temperature & pressure
(1) Physical adsorption
(2) Temperature & decreases with pressure (2) Vader Waals' adsorption
(3) Pressure & decreases with temperature (3) Freundlich adsorption
(4) None (4) All
4. Which is correct :-
11. The number of phases present in colloidal solution
(1) Langmuir adsorption is highly specific
is :–
(2) Vander-waal's adsorption is reversible
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) Both 1 & 2 are exothermic (3) 3 (4) 1
(4) All are correct
12. Butter is a colloid formed when :–
5. Adsorption is accompanied by :- (1) Fat is dispersed in fat
(1) Decrease in entropy of the system (2) Fat is dispersed in water
(2) Decrease in enthalpy of the system (3) Water is dispersed in fat
(3) TDS for the process is negative (4) Suspension of casein in water
(4) All
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\PHYSICAL\XI & XII\12.SURFACE CHEMISTRY.P65
13. Lyophobic colloids are :–

6. Which charateristic of adsorption is wrong :- (1) Reversible (2) Irreversible
(1) Physical adsorption in general decreases with (3) Water loving (4) Solvent loving
temperature
14. When freshly precipitated Fe(OH)3 is boiled with
(2) Physical adsorption in general increases with
water in the presence of few drops of dil HCl, a
temperature hydrated ferric hydroxide sol is obtained. This
(3) Physical Adsorption is a reversible process method is termed as :–
(4) Adsorption is limited to the surface only (1) Dialysis (2) Peptization
(3) Ultrafiltration (4) Electrodispersion
æxö
7. Graph between log ç ÷ and log p is a straight 15. The capacity of an ion to coagulate a colloidal
èmø
solution depends on :–
line at an angle 45° with intercept on y-axis 0.3010. (1) Its shape
Calculate the amount of gas adsorbed in gram per
(2) The amount of its charge
gram of the adsorbent when pressure is 0.2 atm
(3) The sign of the charge
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.2
(4) Both, the amount and the sign of the charge
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

16. All collodial solutions show :– 26. A negatively charged suspension of clay in water
(1) Very high osmotic pressure needs for precipitation the minimum amount of:
(2) High osmotic pressure
(1) Aluminium chloride (2) Potassium sulphate
(3) Low osmotic pressure
(3) Sodium hydroxide (4) Hydrochloric acid
(4) No osmotic pressure
17. The charge of As2S3 sol is due to the absorbed :– 27. Which is not a colloidal solution :
(1) H+ (2) OH– (1) Smoke (2) Ink
(3) O2– (4) S2– (3) Air (4) Blood
18. A freshly prepared Fe(OH)3 precipitate is peptized 28. Which one is natural colloid :
by adding FeCl3 solution. The charge on the colloidal
(1) NaCl (2) Blood
particle is due to preferential adsorption of :–
–
(1) Cl ions (2) Fe+++ ions (3) RCOONa (4) Sugar
–
(3) OH ions (4) None
29. Gelatin protects :-
19. In electrophoresis :- (1) Gold sol (2) As2S3 sol
(1) Sol particles move towards opposite electrodes (3) Fe(OH)3sol (4) All
(2) Medium moves towards opposite electrodes
(3) Neither (1) nor (2) 30. Hardy-schulze rule states that :-
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Non-electrolytes have better coagulating action
on colloids than electrolytes
20. Emulsifiers are generally :-
(1) Soap (2) Synthetic detergent (2) Sols are coagulated by effective ions whose
(3) Lyophilic sols (4) All of the above charge is opposite to that of sol & the ions of
higher charge are much more effective than the
21. Which of the following is most effective in causing
ions of lower charge
the coagulation of ferric hydroxide sol :-
(1) KCl (2) KNO3 (3) Charge of the ions has no effect on the coagula-
(3) K2SO4 (4) K3[Fe (CN)6] tion of a sol
(4) Sols are coagulated only by those ions whose
22. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a nega-
charges is similar to that of the sol
tively charged colloidal sol is obtained when they
are in : 31. To coagulate gelatin sol, which of the following is
(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.1 M KI
most effective :–
(1) NaCl (2) Na3PO4

(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.15 M KI (3) AlCl3 (4) Alcohol
23. Micelles have : 32. The gold number of A, B, C & D are 0.04, 0.002,
(1) higher colligative properties as compared to 10 & 25 respectively. The protective powers of A,
common colloidal sols B, C & D are in the order :–
(2) lower colligative properties (1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C > D
(3) same colligative properties (3) D > C > B > A (4) C > A > B > D
(4) All of the above
33. Gold number is a measure of :–
24. Which of the following Sol is formed due to
(1) The amount of gold present in the colloidal
following reaction :- SnO2 + HCl (Excess) :-
(1) [SnCl4] Cl– (2) [SnCl4]O–2 solution.
(3) [SnCl4]H+ (4) None (2) The amount of gold required to break the colloid.
(3) The amount of gold required to protect the
25. Which of followig ion has minimum flocculation value
colloid.
(1) Cl– (2) SO4–2
(3) PO43– (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

34. Some of the following are true solutions : 38. Efficiency of the catalyst depends on its :–
I : Air II : Sea water (1) Molecular weight
III : Glucose solution IV : Gem stone (2) Number of free valencies
V : Pearl VI : Blood (3) Physical state
Select true solutions : (4) Amount of reactant used
(1) I,II,III (2) II,III,IV,V
39. Which of the following types of metals make the
(3) I,IV,V,VI (4) II,IV,VI
most efficient catalysts :–
35. Gold number of haemoglobin is 0.03. Hence, (1) Transition metals (2) Alkali metals
100mL of gold sol will require haeomoglobin (3) Alkaline earth metals (4) Radioactive metals
so that gold is not coagulated by 10 mL of 10%
40. In the Habers process of synthesis of NH3 :–
NaCl solution.
(1) Mo acts as a catalyst and Fe as a promoter
(1) 0.03 mg (2) 30 mg
(2) Fe acts as a catalyst and Mo as a promoter
(3) 0.30mg (4) 3 mg
(3) Fe acts as inhibitor & Mo as a catalyst
36. Which is not the correct matching of emulsions: (4) Fe acts as promoter & Mo as auto–catalyst
(1) Milk : O/W
41. Zeolites :-
(2) Cold cream : W/O
(1) Are microporous aluminosilicates
(3) Butter : O/W
(2) Have general formula Mx/n[(AlO2)x(SiO2)y ]mH2O
(4) Vanishing cream: O/W (3) Have pore sizes between 260 pm to 740 pm
(4) All
37. Which of the following statement is more correct :–
(1) Catalyst only accelerates the rate of a chemical 42. Shape selective catalysts are so called because of :
reaction (1) The shape of the catalysts
(2) A catalyst can retard the rate of a chemical (2) The specificity of the catalysts
reaction only (3) The size of the pores of the catalysts which can
(3) A catalyst can control the speed of a reaction trap only selective molecules
(4) A catalyst alters the speed of a reaction (4) Their use for only some selected reactions
SURFACE CHEMISTRY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 3 4 4 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 2 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 1 4 4 4 2 1 4 1 3 2 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. 4 2 4 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Serial Page
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
No. No.
Contents
1. Classification of Elements and 1-12
Periodicity in Properties
2. Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure 13-47
3. Hydrogen & it’s compounds 48-55

CHEMISTRY
(Class - XI & XII)
4. s-Block Elements 56-64
5. Principles and Processes 65-79

Involving Extraction (Metallurgy)
6. p-Block Elements 80-120
7. d & f-Block Elements 121-134
8. Coordination Compound 135-158
and Organometallics
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Pre-Medical : Chemistry
ALLEN
PERIODIC TABLE EXERCISE
1. If atomic numbers 117, 120 are discovered 8.
then their blocks will be: Column-I Column-II
(Elements) (Periodic Properties)
(1) s, p (2) p, s
(3) p, d (4) d, p (A) F (P) Maximum ionization
energy
2. Increasing order of metallic character will be
(B) Cl (Q) Maximum
(1) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
electronegativity
(2) P > Si > Be > Mg > Na
(C) Fe (R) Maximum electron
(3) P < Si < Be > Mg < Na
affinity
(4) P > Si < Be < Mg < Na
(D) He (S) Variable oxidation
3. Which of following statement concerning
state
element with atomic number 10 is false?
(1) Element is monoatomic Select the correct Match :-
(2) It has a almost zero electron affinity (1) (A) ® (P), (B) ® (Q), (C) ® (R), (D) ® (S)
(3) If forms a covalent network solid (2) (A) ® (R), (B) ® (Q), (C) ® (P), (D) ® (S)
(4) If has extremely high value of I.E. in own (3) (A) ® (Q), (B) ® (R), (C) ® (S), (D) ® (P)
period (4) (A) ® (Q), (B) ® (P), (C) ® (S), (D) ® (R)
4. Following are configuration of 4 atom :- 9. Highest floroanion of Boron and Aluminium is:
P = (Ne)3s2 3p3 (1) BF63– , AlF63– (2) BF4–, AlF6–
Q = (Ar)3d10 4s2 4p 3 (3) BF4–, AlF63– (4) BF4–, AlF4–
R = (He)2s 22p 5
10. Which of the following order is wrong :-
S = (Ne)3s1
Incorrect statement is :- (1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 — Acidic
(1) EA : Q > R (EA = electron affinity) (2) Li < Be P (EN = electro negativity)
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2 O — Basic
(3) IP : P > S (IP = Ionisation potential)
(4) Atomic radius : S > R (4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ — Ionic Radius
5. Among P, S, Cl, F most and least negative DHeg 11. e– configuration of 90
Th-
will be respectively of: (1) (n–2)f2 , (n–1)d1 ns1
(1) Cl, P (2) P, Cl
(2) (n–2)f1 , (n–1)d1 ns2
(3) Cl, F (4) F, Cl
Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\INORGANIC\XI & XII\01-47.P65
(3) (n–2)f0 , (n–1)d2 ns2

6. Which of the following order is valid for
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne (4) (n–2)f2 , (n–1)d0 ns2
(1) IE (2) EGE 12. Which property decreases from left to right
(3) EN (4) size across the periodic table and increases from
7. Which of the following represents the correct top to bottom?
order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for (i) Atomic radius
Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar ? (ii) Electronegativity
(1) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (iii) Ionisation energy
(2) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar (iv) Metallic character
(3) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (1) (i) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) Ca < Ba S < Se < Ar (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
E 7
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
13. Which of the following statements are not 19. Correct statements among the following is/are:-
correct:- (1) 2nd electron gain enthalpy is always
(1) The electron affinity of 'Si' is greater than endothermic for neutral atoms.
that of C (2) Electronegativity is the property of bonded
(2) BeO is amphoteric while B2O3 is acidic atoms
(3) Al 2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxide
(3) The ionisation energy of 'Tl' is less than that
(4) None of these are incorrect
of Al
20. Which has maximum number of unpaired e–?
(4) The ionisation energy of elements of 'Cu'
(1) Na (2) Mn
group is less than that of the respective
(3) Cr (4) Fe+2
elements of Zn-group
21. In which of the following pairs, first member
14. Which order for atomic radii is incorrect? has higher first IP
(1) H– > Li+ ³ Mg+2 > Al+3 (a) N,O (b) B, Be (c) Al, Ga
(2) MnO2 > KMnO4 (d) F, Cl (e) Zn, Ga (f) F–, Cl–
(3) O–2 > F– > Na+ > Mg+2 Correct option is
(4) B > Al ; Ga < In ; Tl (1) a,c,f,d (2) a,d,e
15. Which is not incorrect for acidic strength? (3) b, d, e, f (4) a, d, e, f
(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te 22. Among the following statement identify not
(2) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO correct statement?
(3) P4O10 > SiO2 (1) O has least electron affinity in its group.
(2) I has largest E.A. among halogen.
(4) All are correct
(3) S – has higher I.E then O–
16. Which is incorrect?
(4) None of these
(1) Na < Al < Mg < Si IP1 Order
23. The electron affinity values in Kjmol –1 of
(2) V < Cr < Fe < Mn IP3 Order
halogen x, y and z are respectively –348,
(3) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na Metallic Character –331 and –312 then x, y and z are respectively:-
(4) Yb > Ce > Lu > Sm Order of atomic radius (1) F, Cl, Br (2) Cl, F, Br
17. Which is correct for DHeg ? (3) Cl, Br, F (4) Br, Cl, F
(1) Cl > F > Br > I > S 24. Which given order is wrong according to given
(2) O– > O > O+ property :-
(3) S– > O– (1) K2O > CaO basic nature
(4) Cl > F > S > O > N > P (2) NH3 > H2O basic nature
18. Match the column - (3) H2O < H2S Acidic nature
(4) KH > NaH acidic nature
Column I Column II
(a) N2 O (P) Normal Oxide 25. Incorrect match ?
(b) Na2 O (Q) Neutral Oxide
I.P. Reason
(c) Ga2 O3 (R) Sub Oxide
Half filled
(d) C3O2 (S) Basic Oxide (A) N>O
configuration
(e) V3O4 (T) Amphoteric Oxide
(B) Zr < Hf Lanthanoid contraction
(U) Mixed Oxide
(C) Na > K Zeff
(1) (a) - Q, (b) - P,S (c) - R, (d) - T, (e) - U
(2) (a) - Q (b) - P,S (c) - T, (d) - R, (e) - U (D) Al < Ga Transition contraction
(3) (a) - R,P (b) - Q,S (c) - U, (d) - T, (e) - R (1) only A (2) A, B, D
(4) (a) - P,Q (b) - R,S (c) - T, (d) - U, (e) - R (3) Only C (4) Only C, D
8 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
26. The smallest cation and the smallest anion are 33. A = 1s2 2s2 2p4 B = 1s2 2s2 2p5
respectively C = 1s2 2s2 2p6
(1) H+ and H– (2) H+ and F– (One of A/B/C is neutral atom)
(3) Li+ and H– (4) Li+ and F– A, B & C are atoms/anion of same element.
27. Which among the following statement is wrong Then:-
(1) Electronic configuration of Gd64 is 4f75d16s2 (1) B(g) + e– ® C(g) is exothermic
(2) Ce4+ is a good reductant (2) A(g) ® A(g)
+
+ e– is exothermic
(3) Actinoids exhibit higher oxidation states than (3) C(g) ® A(g) + 2e is exothermic
Lanthanoids (4) B(g) ® A(g) + e– is exothermic
(4) Actinoids contraction is greater from element 34. Correct order of increasing atomic size is
to element than Lanthanoid contraction (1) N < F < Si N Mg+ (2) Mg+2 > Mg+
(1) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(3) He > Li+ (4) Be > B (2) Na > Mg < Al > Si
29. Consider the following values of IE(ev) for (3) Na > Mg > Al < Si
elements W and X :- (4) Na > Mg > Al > Si
36. Select the correct order of first ionisation
Element IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4 potential
W 10.5 15.5 24.9 79.8 (1) O22+ > O2 (2) O22+ < O2
(3) O2 » O2+ (4) None of these
X 8 14.8 78.9 105.8
37. The required energy will be maximum for the
Other two elements Y and Z have outer process
electronic configuration ns 2 np 4 and ns 2 np 5 (1) Ba ® Ba+2 (2) Be®Be+2
respectively. According to given information (3) Cs ® Cs+ (4) Li ® Li+
which of the following compound (s) is/are not 38. Which of the following molecule has highest
possible. E.N. of Xe ?
(1) XeF 2 (2) XeF 4
(a) W2Y3 (b) X2Y 3
(3) XeO3 (4) None of these
(c) WZ2 (d) XZ2
39. The compound X – O – H is likely to act as a
(1) a, b (2) b, c
base, if compared to hydrogen, X has :-
(3) c, d (4) a, d
(1) higher ionization potential
30. Which represents the electronic configuration
of the most electropositive element (2) lower electron negativity
(1) [He]2s1 (2) [Xe]6s1 (3) higher electronegativity

(4) lower atomic radius
(3) [He] 2s2 (4) [Xe]6s2
40. Among the following hydroxides which are is
31. IP and EA of 'F' are 17.42 and 3.45 ev/atom
most basic?
resp. EN of 'F' will be :-
(1) Lu(OH)3 (2) La(OH)3
(1) 2.7 (2) 3.7
(3) Pm(OH)3 (4) Yb(OH)3
(3) 4.07 (4) 6.7
41. Amongst the following elements whose
32. The correct order of first electron affnity of O, electronic configuration is given below, the one
S and Se is having highest ionisation enthalpy is
(1) O > S > Se (2) S > O > Se (1) [Ne]3s 2 3p1 (2) [Ne]3s 2 3p3
(3) Se > O > S (4) S > Se > O (3) [Ne]3s 2 3p2 (4) [Ar]3d10 4s 24p 3
E 9
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
42. Group number and period no.of element 49. Correct trend of first ionisation energy in
having configuration [Kr]4d10 5s° are: group-13 is:
(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(1) X, 4th (2) X,5th
(2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In
(3) VIII,4th (4) VIII, 5th
(3) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
43. Block, group and period number of element,
(4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl
A. respectively. when electronic configuration
of A is [Rn] 6d27s2 : 50. Which of the following EA order is not correct?
(1) d-block, IV B, 7th (1) B < Al < C < Si (2) Mg < C < S < F
(2) d-block, II B, 7 th
(3) O < F < S < Cl (4) N < C < Si < S
(3) f-block, II B, 6 th
51. Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
(4) f-block, III B, 7th (1) SeO2 (2) Al2O3
44. Column-I Column-II (3) Sc2O3 (4) Bi2O3
(Type of Elements) (outer electronic
52. Considering the elements B, C, N, F and Si,
configuration)
the correct order of their non-metalic character
(A) Inert gas elements (i) ns1-2 np0-5 is
(B) Representative (ii) 1s2 and ns2 np6 (1) B > C > Si > N > F
elements (2) Si > C > B > N > F
(C) Transition (iii) (n – 2)f 1–14
and
(3) F > N > C > B > Si
elements (n – 1) d 0–1
ns2
(4) F > N > C > Si > B
(D) Inner transition (iv) (n – 1)1–10 ns1or2
53. Considering the elements F, Cl, O and N, the
elements
correct order of their chemical reactivity in
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
terms of oxidizing property is
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv (1) F > Cl > O > N (2) F > O > Cl > N
(3) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
(3) Cl > F > O > N (4) O > F > N > Cl
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
54. Electronic configurations of some elements are
45. Correct order of spin magnetic moment of
given in column I and their electron gain
trivalent Lanthanoids ions is : enthalpies are given in column II. Match the
(1) Gd+3 < Ce+3 < Lu+3 (2) Lu+3 < Ho+3 < Gd+3 electronic configuration with electron gain
(3) Gd+3 < Yb+3 < Tb+3 (4) Pr+3 > Sm+3 > Eu+3 enthalpy.
46. Incorrect order of radius is : Column (I) Column (II)
(1) H– > Li+ > Mg2+ (2) P–3 > S–2 > K+ Electronic Electron gain
(3) Br– > S–2 > CI– > F– (4) Ni > Cu > Zn Configuration enthalpy/kJ mol –1
47. Incorrect order of ionic radius is : (i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (A) –53
(1) La > Gd > Eu > Lu
+3 +3 +3 +3
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (B) –328
(2) Na > Li > Mg > Al > Be
+ + +2 +3 +2
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (C) –141
(3) In > Sn > Sb
+ +2 +3
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (D) +48
(4) K+ > Sc+3 > V+5 > Mn+7
(1) i ® D, ii ® A, iii ® B, iv ® C
48. Which of the following order of I.P. is
(2) i ® A, ii ® B, iii ® C, iv ® D
incorrect?
(3) i ® D, ii ® B, iii ® A, iv ® C
(1) Al > Mg > Be > B (2) S Y > La (4) Ni < Pd < Pt
10 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
55. In which of the following options order of 63. Group number and valency has no relation in?
arrangement does not agree with the variation
(1) Zero group (2) First group
of property indicated against it?
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (3) IIIrd group (4) VII group
(increasing ionic size) 64. Order of atomic radius is correct of the elements
(2) B < C < N < O given below ?
(increasing first ionisation enthalpy) (1) Fe ; Co ; Ni (2) Ni > Co > Fe
(3) I Ni > Fe (4) Co > Fe > Ni
(increasing electron gain enthalpy)
65. Which pair show less similarity in their
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb
properties than the other three :-
(increasing metallic radius)
56. The process requiring the absorption of energy (1) Li–Mg (2) Be–Al
is: (3) Na–Ca (4) B–Si
– –
(1) F ¾® F (2) H ¾® H 66. Element 'X' having electronic configuration 1s2
–
(3) Cl ¾® Cl (4) O ¾® O2– 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 forms compound with Ca. The
57. Select the correct order of ionic radii: compound is :-
(1) Ti2+ > Ti3+ > Ti4+ (2) Ti4+ > Ti2+ (1) Ca2 X3 (2) Ca3 X
(3) Ti3+ > Ti2+ > Ti4+ (4) Ti4+ > Ti3+ > Ti2+ (3) Ca3 X2 (4) CaX
67. Which of the following in increasing order of
58. Europium belongs to :
paramagnetism ?
(1) s-block (2) p-block
(1) Al < Mg < O < N (2) Mg < Al < N < O
(3) d-block (4) f-block
(3) Mg < Al < O < N (4) N < O < Al < Mg
59. The ionic radius of Cr is minimum in which of
68. Set containing isoelectronic species is :-
the following compounds ?
(1) CrF3 (2) CrCl3 (1) C2–
2
, NO+, CN–, O22+
(3) Cr2O3 (4) K2 CrO4 (2) CO, NO, O2, CN
60. Which of the following is/are Doberiners triad- (3) CO2, NO2, O2, N2O5
(i) P, As, Sb (ii) Cu, Ag, Au (4) CO, CO2, NO, NO2
(iii) Fe, Co, Ni (iv) S, Se, Te 69. The correct order of second ionization potential
Correct answer is - of C, N, O and F is :-
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) C > N > O > F (2) O > N > F > C
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) All
(3) O > F > N > C (4) F > O > N > C
61. First, second and third IP values are 100eV,

70. The correct values of ionization enthalpies
150eV and 1500eV. Element can be :-
(in kJ mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are:-
(1) Be (2) B
(3) F (4) Na (1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256
62. The increasing thermal stability of the hydrides (2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
of group 16 following the sequence :- (3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(1) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te (4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256
(2) H2Te, H2Se, H2S, H2O 71. On the Pauling's electronegativity scale, which
(3) H2S, H2O, H2Se, H2Te element is next to F.

(1) Cl (2) O (3) Br (4) Ne
(4) H2Se, H2S, H2O, H2Te
E 11
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
72. Which of the following sequence regarding the 76. The atomic radius of elements of which of the
first ionisation potential of coinage metal is following series would be nearly the same :-
correct? (1) Na, K, Rb, Cs (2) Li, Be, B, C
(1) Cu > Ag > Au (2) Cu < Ag < Au
(3) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu (4) F, Cl, Br, I
(3) Cu > Ag < Au (4) Ag > Cu < Au
77. What is the total number of valence electrons
73. The size of the following species increases in in the peroxydisulphate, S2 O82–, ion ?
the order :- (1) 58 (2) 60
(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < Al (3) 62 (4) 64
(2) F– < Al < Na+ > Mg2+
78. Which of the following electronic configuration
(3) Al < Mg2+ < F– < Na+
would be associated with the highest spin only
(4) Na+ < Al < F– < Mg2+ magnetic moment ?
74. Which is not correct order for the stated (1) d2 (2) d4
property? (3) d5 (4) d7
(1) Ba > Sr > Mg : Atomic radius 79. In which pair do both speices have the same
electronic configuration ?
(2) F > O > N : First ionisation energy
(1) Se2–, Kr (2) Mn2+, Cr3+
(3) Cl > F > I : Electron affinity
(3) Na+, Cl– (4) Ni, Zn2+
(4) O > Se > Te : Electronegativity
75. In which of the following arrangements, the 80. Comment on the E.N. of Sb in SbF3 and SbF5:-
sequence is not strictly according to the (1) E.N. of Sb (SbF3) > E.N. of Sb (SbF5)
property written against it ?
(1) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing (2) E.N. of Sb (SbF3) < E.N. of Sb (SbF5)
oxidising power (3) E.N. of Sb is identical in both cases

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acid
(4) No comment can be predicted
strength
(3) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 : increasing
Lewis basic strength
(4) B < C < O < N : increasing first ionisation
enthalpy
PERIODIC TABLE ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 2 4 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 4 4 4 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 1 2 4 1 4 4 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 2 3
Que. 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 3 3 1 2
12 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
CHEMICAL BONDING EXERCISE
1. Which of the following molecule/species have 10. Correct match is :-
a same bond order as that of O+2 ? Bond order of
Ion
M-O bond
(1) NO (2) N-2 1
(a) ClO4_
+
4
(3) N 2
(4) All of these 3
(b) PO4–3
2. Which of the following molecule/species are 4
(c) NO2 – 2
iso-structural with N3- ion? 3
(1) I3+ (2) I3- (d) CO3–2
5
3
(3) NH-2 (4) HCO-2 (1) d (2) a, b (3) c, d (4) None
3. Which of the following pair of species are 11. Which is iso-structural?
iso-electronic? (1) XeF2 , ICl2- ,ClF3 (2) ClF3, PCl3, NCl3
(1) CN– & NO+ (2) N-2 & N +2 (3) CO 2 ,XeF2 , I3- (4) PCl5, XeOF2, ICl5
(3) HÅ2 & H 2- (4) CO & NO– 12. Which of the following molecule have both
4. Which of the following molecule is pp – pp and pp – dp bonding?
hypovalent? (1) ClO +2 (2) NO+2 (3) SO32- (4) ClO -4
(1) AlF3 (2) ICl-2 13. Select correct order out of given options :-
(1) BeCO3 < BaCO3 ® Covalent character
(3) BCl3 (4) ICl+2
(2) BeO > SrO ® Lattice energy
5. Determine the bond order & formal charge on (3) Be2+ < Li+ ® Hydration energy
each oxygen atom in HCO-2 respectively? 2+ +
(4) Be(aq.) > Li(aq.) ® Ionic Mobility
(1) 1.5, –0.5 (2) 2, –0.5
14. Which of the following statement are true and
(3) 1.33, –1.5 (4) 1.5, –1.33
false ?
6. Determine the incorrect order of bond angle?
(a) In PCl 5 hybridisation is sp3d and it has a
(1) NH3 < NF3 < NCl3
trigonal pyramidal structure.
(2) OF2 < OH2 < OCl2 (b) The angle between the P-Cl bonds is 90º,
(3) SF2 < SCl2 < SBr2 < SI2 which is same for all the P and Cl present
(4) ClO2 > ClO-2 1 > OCl2 in PCl5
7. Which of the following molecule is (c) The bond length of P-Cl in axial position is
non-polar & planar? higher than in equitorial position
(1) XeF4 (2) NH-2 (d) PCl5 have zero dipole moment
(3) PF3Cl2 (4) PCl3F2 Choose the correct option.
8. Which of the following is covalent solid. (1) TFTT (2) FTTT
(1) Solid CO2 (2) SiO2 (3) FFTT (4) TFFT
(3) Diamond (4) 2 & 3 both 15. Bond length and bond energy order is same
9. The percentage of p-character in the orbitals for :
forming P–P bonds in P4 is (1) C - C > Si - Si > Ge - Ge
(1) 25 (2) 33 (2) N - N > O - O > F - F
(3) C - N > C - O > C - F
(3) 50 (4) 75
(4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
E 37
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
16. Which halide has highest melting point ? correct option are –
(1) NaCl (2) LiCl (1) a, b, d (2) b, d
(3) LiBr (4) NaI (3) b, c, d (4) a, d, e
17. If ABn4 , type species are tetrahedral, then which 23. Which is correct?
of the following is incorrectly matched ? (1) PbS > ZnS (Solubility)

A B n (2) Li2CO3 > Na2CO3 (Thermal stability)
(1) Xe O Zero (3) NaF > KF (Lattice energy)
(2) Se F Zero
(4) BaSO4 > MgSO4 (Solubility)
(3) P O –3
(4) N H +1 24. Which among the following attractions is
18. The species having no pp – pp bond but its strongest?
bond order equal to that of O-2 (1) HF ....H2O (2) Na+....H–Cl
(3) H2O...Cl2 (4) Cl–Cl...Cl–Cl
(1) ClO3- (2) PO34- 25. Among the following, the pair in which the two
(3) SO 2-
(4) XeO3 species are not iso-structural is
4
19. How many p-bond does C2 have? (1) IO3- and NH 3 (2) BH -4 and NH 4+
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0 (4) 3 (3) PF6- and SF6 (4) SiF4 and SF4
20. Which of the following is not true about H2O 26. Which of the following is correct statement ?
molecule ? (a) AlCl 3 is conducting in fused state
(1) The molecule has m = 0
(b) Mobility of Li+ ion in water is greater than
(2) The molecule can act as a base
Cs+ ion
(3) Shows abnormally high boiling point in
comparison to the hydrides of other (c) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4
elements of oxygen group (d) BeSO4 is more soluble in water than BaSO4
(4) The molecule has a bent shape (1) a, b (2) b, c, d
21. Match the following and choose the correct (3) b, d (4) Only d
option given below. 27. Which of the following order is not correct :-
+
(a) N2 ® N (p) bond order increases
2
(1) SO4–2 = PO4–3 = ClO4– Bond angle
(b) N2 ® N -2 (q) bond order decreases (2) OCl2 < ClO2 Bond angle
(3) ZnCl2 < CdCl2 < HgCl2 ionic character
(c) O2 ® O2+ (r) paramagnetism increases
(4) CH3–Cl > CH3F > CH3–Br > CH3–I Dipole
(d) O2 ® O-2 (s) paramagnetism decreases moment
(t) No change in bond order 28. Statement-1 : p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a

lower boiling point than o-hydroxybenzoic
(1) a - (q, r), b - (q, r), c - (p, s), d - (q, s) acid.
(2) a - (q, s), b - (q, s), c - (p, s), d - (q, r) Statement-2 : o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has
(3) a - (p, q), b - (q, s), c - (p, r), d - (q, t) intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(4) a - (p, s), b - (q, p), c - (q, t), d - (q, t) (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
22. Which pair(s) has same bond angle?
Statement-1.
(a) BF3, BCl3 (b) PO-4 3 ,SO-4 2 (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(c) BF3, PF3 (d) NO2+ ,N 2 O
Statement-1.
(e) N3- ,NO2 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is False.
38 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
29. Hydration energy of Mg2 + is higher than 34. Match the column
(1) Be2+ (2) Na Å Compound Shape
(a) XeO2F 2 (P) Linear
(3) Al3+ (4) All of these
(b) XeF5- (Q) Square planar
30. Total number of sp-hybridised C-atoms in the
following Hydrocarbon will be: (c) I -3 (R) See-saw
H 3C - C º C - CH = CH 2 (d) XeF4 (S) Pentagonal planar
(1) (a) R (b) S (c) P (d) Q
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
(2) (a) R (b) S (c) Q (d) P
31. Match the column
(3) (a) P (b) S (c) Q (d) R
Column I Column II (4) (a) S (b) Q (c) P (d) R
(a) C2H2 (P) sp3d hybridisation 35. Which is incorrect?
(b) SO2 (Q) sp hybridisation
3
(1) Dipole moment order ® CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
(c) I -
3
(R) sp hybridisation
2 (2) For PCl5 molecule ® B.L.equatotial < B.L.Axial
+
(d) NH 4
(S) sp hybridisation (3) Melting point order ® H2O(s) > NH3(s) > HF(s)
(1) (a) S (b) P (c) R (d) Q (4) no. of unpaired e– in H2O2 = 1
(2) (a) P (b) S (c) R (d) Q
36. Which is correct?
(3) (a) S (b) R (c) P (d) Q
(4) (a) R (b) S (c) P (d) Q (1) Bond order ® CO > CO32-
32. Match the column (2) Bond angle ® PH3 > PF3
Column I Column II (3) Bond energy ® Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2
(Solid) (Examples) (4) Bond length order ® C–C < N–N < O–O < F–F
(a) Covalent (P) SiO2
37. Which is not correct?
(b) Molecular (Q) CaO
(1) White vitriol and epsom salt are isomorphous
(c) Ionic (R) CCl4
(2) Thermal stability
(d) Metallic (S) Bronze
® BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3
(1) (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
(3) Solubility
(2) (a) R (b) P (c) Q (d) S
® NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < RbHCO3 < CsHCO3
(3) (a) S (b) P (c) Q (d) R
(4) Melting point ® Al2O3 < MgF2
(4) (a) P (b) R (c) Q (d) S
38. Which molecule does not exist?

33. Match the column
(1) MnF4 (2) SH6
Compound No. of s & p Bonds
(3) (BCl3)2 (4) 2 & 3 both
(a) H2S 2O3 (P) 6 s & 2 p
39. Which is correct?
(b) H2 SO5 (Q) 11 s & 4 p
(1) Ionic mobility in aqueous medium
(c) H2S 2O8 (R) 9 s & 4 p
® Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+
(d) H2S 2O6 (S) 7 s & 2 p
(2) Covalant character
(1) (a) S (b) P (c) Q (d) R
® KCl > CaCl2 > AlCl3> SnCl4
(2) (a) P (b) S (c) Q (d) R
(3) Boiling point order ® H2O > H2Se > H2Te > H2S
(3) (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S (4) Dipole – dipole attraction ® KCl + H2O
(4) (a) Q (b) S (c) P (d) R
E 39
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
40. Which is correct? 45. In which molecule / ion there are more than
(1) Stability order one type of XO bond lengths
O (a) NO3 – (b) Cr2O72–
O
= = (c) HCOO– (d) HClO3
H–O–S–O–H < H–O–S–O–H
O ¯ (e) PO4 3–
(f) SO42–
O
correct code is
(2) In XeF6(s) hybridisation of anion ® sp3 d
(1) a,b,d (2) b,d
(3) For O2 molecule bond order is 2.0
(3) b,c,d,f (4) a,b,c,f
(4) Bond angle order CF4 < CH4
46. Correct order of dipole moment is (decreasing
41. Match column-I and Column-II
order)
Column-I Column-II
(1) CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3F
(A) SF4 (1) Tetrahedral
(2) CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3Br
(B) BrF3 (2) Pyramidal
(3) CH3Cl, CH3F, CH3Br
(C) BrO3 – (3) See-saw
(4) CH3Br, CH3Cl, CH3F
(D) NH4 + (4) Bent-T 47. Correct order of stability of species
Code : N2, N2+, N2 –
(1) A (3), B (2), C (1), D (4) (1) N2 > N2+ = N2– (2) N2 > N2+ > N2–
(2) A (3), B (4), C (2), (D) 1 (3) N2 > N2– > N2+ (4) N2+ > N2 > N2–
(3) A (2), B (4), C (3), (D) 1 48. Isostructural species are those which have same
(4) A (1), B (4), C (2), D (3) shape. Among the following pairs identify
42. Consider the following order isostructural pairs.
(1) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 (basic character) (1) [NF3 & BF3] (2) [BF4– & NH4+]
(2) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3(boiling point) (3) [BCl3 & BrCl3] (4) [NH3 & NO3–]
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 49. Which is not stable
(oxidising property) (1) KHF2 (2) KI3
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (acidic) (3) CH3–CH(OH)2 (4) Cl 3 C–CH(OH)2
(5) H2O > H2S > H2Se (bond angle) 50. Which of the following compound will give
(6) H2SO4 > H3PO4 > H2CO3 (acidic character) metal and oxygen gas at high temperature
correct order(s) are (1) NaNO3 (2) Ag2CO3
(1) 1,2,4,5 (2) 2,3,5,6 (3) K2CO3 (4) Li2CO3
51. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90
(3) 3,5,6 (4) 4,5,6
degree F–Br–F angles in BrF5 is
43. Which solubility order is correct ?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(1) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4
(3) 0 (4) 1
(2) ZnS > Na2S > CoS
52. Which of the following represent most
(3) BaCO3 > MgCO3 > Na2CO3 effective p-bond
(4) KOH > NaOH > Mg(OH)2 (1) 2pp-3pp (2) 3dp-3dp
44. What is incorrect about reaction of NH3 and (3) 2pp-3dp (4) 3dp-3pp
BF 3 ? 53. In which reaction hybridisation of underlined
(1) hyrbridisation of both N & B change atom does not change.
(2) It is an example of redox change (1) BF3+F– ®BF4–
(3) In the final adduct formed, back bonding (2) NH3 + H+ ® NH4+
appears between B & N (3) BF3 + NH3®BF3.NH3
(4) All (4) SiF4 + 2F– ® SiF62–
40 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
X 63. Back bonding always changes
(1) bond angle
54. Dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole (2) hybridisation of central atom
(3) planarity
X (4) bond length
64. Bond angle in H2O is
(1) 104.5° (2) 120° (3) 109.5° (4) 107°
moment of will be
X X 65. The correct stability order of N2 and its given
X ions is
(1) 1.5 D (2) 3.0 D (1) N2 > N2+ > N2– > N22–
(3) 1.0 D (4) 2.35 D (2) N2– > N2+ > N2– > N22–
55. Which of the following compound has non- (3) N2+ > N2– > N2 > N22–
zero dipole moment (4) N2 > N2+ = N2– > N22–
66. Which of the following have same bond
(1) XeF4 (2) B2H6 (3) PF3Cl2 (4) PCl3F2
order:-
56. Which of the following molecule is planar due (I) CO (II) CN– (III) O2+ (IV) NO+
to back bonding (1) I, II, III (2) I, II, IV
(1) NCl3 (2) PF3 (3) BF3 (4) None (3) I, III, IV (4) II, III, IV
57. Amongst the following, molecule having 67. In XeF 2, XeF 4 and XeF 6 the number of lone
maximum bond angles of 90° is pairs of electron on Xe are respectively
(1) XeF4 (2) XeF6 (3) SF6 (4) IF7 (1) 2, 3, 1 (2) 1,2,3 (3) 4,1,2 (4) 3,2,1
58. Which of the following statement is incorrect 68. Which one is most soluble in water
(1) Removal of an electron is easier from O2 in
(1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Sr(OH)2
comparison to O2+2
(2) In the double bond of C 2 molecule, both (3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Ba(OH)2
are p-bonds 69. The correct order of N–O bond length is
(3) NO is more stable than NO+ (1) NO3– > NO2+ > NO2–
(4) NO 2 + and CO 2 are isoelectronic and
isostructural (2) NO3– > NO2– > NO2+
59. The coordinate bond is absent in (3) NO2+ > NO3– > NO2–
(1) NaNO3 (2) CaCO3 (4) NO2– > NO3– > NO2+
(3) O3 (4) KNC 70. The correct order of A–O–A bond angle of
60. Which of the following is least stable (A=H, F or Cl)
(1) H2O > Cl2O > F2O (2) Cl2O > H2O > F2O
(1) O– (2) C– (3) B– (4) Be–
(3) F2O > Cl2O > H2O (4) F2O > H2O > Cl2O
61. The true statements from the following are
71. There are some species given below :-
(1) PH5 , NCl5 and BiCl5 do not exist
(a) O+2 (b) CO
(2) I3– has bent geometry (c) B2 (d) O-2
(3) XeF 4 is polar molecule (e) NO + (f) He2+

(4) O2 and O2–2 has same bond order (g) C+2 2 (h) CN–
62. The bond order for NO and NO+, respectively (i) N2-
are
Total no. of species which have their fractional
(1) 3.0, 2.5 (2) 2.5, 3.0 bond order.
(3) 3.0, 3.0 (4) 2.5, 2.5 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
E 41
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
72. Which of the following has fractional bond 80. Which of the following molecule is polar and
order non-planar
(1) O22+ (2) O22– (1) XeF4 (2) XeF5 –
(3) F22– (4) H2 – (3) CH2F 2 (4) ClF3
73. When AgNO3 is heated strongly, the product 81. Dipole moment of NH 3 is more than NF 3
formed are because
(1) NO and NO2 (2) NO2 and O2 (1) N–F bond is more polar than N–H bond
(3) NO2 and N2 O (4) NO and O2 (2) NH3 is pyramidal while NF3 is planar
74. Which of the following carbonate of a metals (3) In NH3 orbital dipole due to lone pair is in
has the least thermal stability the same direction as the resultant dipole
moment of N–H bonds while in NF3 orbital
(1) Li2CO3 (2) K2CO3
dipole due to lone pair is opposite direction
(3) Cs2 CO3 (4) Na2CO3 of the resultant dipole moment of N–F
75. Which of the following order is not correct :- bonds
(1) N2 < N2+ (Bond length) (4) None of these
82. Which of the following pairs of ions are
(2) O2 < O2+ (Bond strength)
isoelectronic and isostructural
(3) O2 < O (IP) (1) CO3–2 , NO2 – (2) ClO3–, CO3–2
(4) NO < NO+ (Magnetic moment) (3) SO3 –2, NO3 – (4) ClO3–, SO3–2
76. The state of hybridisation for the transition state 83. Which of the following pair is having planar
structure
of hydrolysis mechanism of BCl3 and SF4 are
(1) SF4, XeF4 (2) H3O+, SO2
respectively
(3) BF3, XeOF2 (4) XeF4, NO3 –
(1) sp2, sp3 d (2) sp3, sp2
84. Ammonia is soluble in water but phosphine is
(3) sp3, sp3 (4) sp3, sp 3d2
insoluble because
77. The dipole moment of AX3, BX3 and CY3 are
(1) phsophine has higher molecular mass than
4.97 × 10 –30 , 0.60 × 10 –30 and 0.00 Cm
ammonia
respectively then the shape of molecule may
(2) ammonia is polar while phosphine is non polar
be
(3) Ammonia forms inter molecular H-bond
(1) pyramidal, T-shape, trigonal planar with water but phosphine does not
(2) pyramidal, trigonal planar, T-shape (4) Ammonia is ionic while phosphine is covalent
(3) T-shape, pyramidal, trigonal planar 85. Which of the following resist hydrolysis at room
(4) pyramidal, T-shape, linear temperature
78. The bond strength in O 2 +, O 2 , O 2 – & O 2 2– (1) PCl3, SF6 (2) CCl4, NO2
follows the order (3) PCl5, XeF6 (4) SF6, CCl4
(1) O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+ 86. Which of the following is polar
(2) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22– (1) p-dichlorobenzene
(2) trans-1-chloropropene
(3) O2 > O2– > O22– > O2+
(3) boron tri fluoride
(4) O2– > O22– > O2+ > O2
(4) xenon tetra fluoride
79. A compound which leaves behind no residue
87. Which molecule / ion out of the following does
on heating is not contain unpaired electrons?
(1) Cu(NO3 )2 (2) KNO3 (1) N2 + (2) O2
(3) NH4 NO3 (4) None of these (3) O2 2–
(4) B2
42 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
88. Which of following molecule is having shortest 95. The correct order of dipole moment is:
bond length (1) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
(1) O2 + (2) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(2) O2 2–
(3) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O
(3) O2 (4) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
(4) All have same bond length 96. Which of the following is not a best
89. Which of the following attraction is strongest? representation of the H-bond?
(1) C l – H –– C l H H
(1) O H N H
(2) CHCl3 CHCI3 H
(3) CCl4 H2 O O
(2) H
Cl
(4) Cl
–
H2 O
90. How many sp2 and sp-hybridised carbon atoms H

are present respectively in the following (3) H N
compound? H
H
H H H
(Benzyne) (4) O H O H
H
97. Which order are correct?
H
(1) 4, 2 (2) 6, 0 (3) 3, 3 (4) 5, 1 (I) Thermal stability :
91. Phosphorus pentachloride in the solid exists as: BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < BaSO4
(1) PCl5 (2) PCl 4+Cl- (II) Basic nature :

ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO
(3) PCl +4 PCl6- (4) PCl5·Cl2
92. Least stable hydride is : (III) Solubility in water :
(1) stannane (2) silane LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH > CsOH
(3) plumbane (4) germane (IV) Melting point :

93. Solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl
because: (1) (I), (IV) (2) (I), (II) and (IV)
(1) In solid NaCl there are no ions
(3) (II), (III) (4) All correct
(2) Solid NaCl is convalent
(3) In solid NaCl there is no mobility of ions 98. In which of the following diatomic molecule,
(4) In solid NaCl there are no electrons bond dissociation energy is maximum?
94. Which of the following halides is inert towards (1) H2 (2) F2 (3) Cl2 (4) l2
hydrolysis at room temperature? 99. Which of of the following carbonate is
maximum stable to heat?
(1) SiCl4 (2) PCl3
(1) CaCO3 (2) Li2CO3
(3) NCl3 (4) NF3
(3) Na2CO3 (4) BaCO3
E 43
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
100. The most stable structure of NO is Para.: The electronic configurations of three
elements, A, B and C are given below. Answer
(1) N = O (2) N = O
the questions 187-190 on the basis of these
(3) N = O (4) N = O configurations.
101. What is/are true about CO2 and SO2? A 1s2 2s2 2p6
(1) Both turn acidified K2Cr2O7 solution green B 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
C 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
(2) Both turn lime water milky
107. Stable form of A may be represented by the
(3) Both are oxidising agents not the reducing formula
agents (1) A (2) A2 (3) A3 (4) A4
(4) All of these 108. Stable form of C may be represented by the
102. Which of the following is most stable? formula
(1) Na3 N (2) Li3N (1) C (2) C2 (3) C3 (4) C4
(3) Rb3 N (4) K3 N 109. The molecular formula of the compound
103. Consider the following statements formed from B and C will be
(1) BC (2) B2C (3) BC2 (4) BC3
I. PCl 3 on hydrolysis in the presence of
moisture gives fumes of HCl. 110. The bond between B and C will be
(1) ionic (2) covalent
II. PCl5 exists as [PCl4](–) [PCl6](+) in solid state.
(3) hydrogen (4) coordinate.
III. All the five bonds in PCl 5 molecule are
111. Which of the following order of energies of
equivalent.
molecular orbitals of N2 is correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) : (1) (p2py ) < (s2pz) < (p* 2px) » (p*2py )
(1) II & III (2) I, II & III (2) (p2py) > (s2pz) > (p* 2px) » (p*2py )
(3) Only I (4) I & II (3) (p2py) < (s2pz) > (p* 2px) » (p*2py )
104. According to Fajan's Rule, ionic character (4) (p2py) > (s2pz) < (p* 2px) » (p*2py )
increases for : 112. Formation of PH4+ is difficult as compared to
(1) Small cation and small charge on cation NH4+ because :-
(2) Large cation and small anion (1) Lone Pair of Phosphorus is optically inert
(3) Small cation and large anion (2) Lone Pair of phosphorus resides in almost
(4) Large anion and small charge on anion pure p - orbital

105. Which molecule/ion out of the following does (3) Lone pair of phosphorus resides in sp 3
not contain unpaired electrons? orbital
(1) N2 + (2) O2 (4) Lone pair of phosphorus resides in almost
(3) O22– (4) B2 pure s - orbital
106. In which of the following molecule/ion all the 113. The incorrect order of solubility in water :-
bonds are not equal? (1) Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2
(1) XeF4 (2) BF4– (2) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3
(3) C2H4 (4) SiF4 (3) AgF<AgCl<AgBr
(4) BaSO4 < MgSO4
44 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
114. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 122. The correct order of decreasing polarisability
(1) In O2–, O2+, the magnetic behavior is not of ions is:
changed (1) Cl– > Br– > I– > F–
(2) In N2+, N2-, the magnetic moment remains (2) F– > I– > Br– > Cl–
unchanged (3) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
(3) If z-axis is the overlapping axis, the P x (4) F– > Cl– > Br– > I–
orbital of one atom and dxy orbital of
123. Among the following which species has same
another atom result antibonding M.O.
number s and p-bonds?
(4) None of these
(1) C2H6 (2) C2(CN)4
115. Which of the following is planar in monomer
as well as in dimer form ? (3) C2H4 (4) HCºCH
(1) AlCl3 (2) ICl3 (3) BH3 (4) All 124. In which of the following pairs, the two species
are isostructural?
116. Which statement is correct in the following :-
(1) NH3 > NF 3 : bond angle (1) SO32- and NO-3
(2) NH3 > NF 3 : reactivity towards lewis acid (2) BF 3 and NF 3

(3) NH3 > NF 3 : Dipole moment (3) BrO3- and XeO3
(4) All are correct
(4) SF 4 and XeF 4
117. The species having no. pp-pp bond but has
bond order equal to that of O2 :- 125. The hybridisation of P in phosphate ion (PO34- )
(1) XeO 3 (2) ClO3– is the same as in:
(3) PO43– (4) SO42–
(1) I in ICI-4 (2) S in SO3
118. Which has a giant covalent structure?
(1) PbO2 (2) SiO2 (3) N in NO3- (4) S in SO32-
(3) NaCl (4) AlCl3 126. In POCl 3 compound. P shows which multiple
119. A molecule which cannot exist theoretically is: bond :
(1) SF4 (2) OF 2 (3) OF 4 (4) O2F 2 (1) pp–pp (2) dp–dp
120. Select the isomers given below, which have (3) No p bond (4) pp–dp
non-zero dipole moment? 127. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in:
(1) Salicylaldehyde (2) Water

H H H Cl
(1) C C (2) C C (3) Acetaldehyde (4) Phenol
Cl Cl Cl H
128. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other and
Cl Cl unite to form one cube. Which force is
(3) C C (4) All of these
responsible for holding them together?
Cl Cl
(1) van der Waals' forces
121. Select the correct relation:
(2) Covalent attraction
(1) mCH3OH = mCH3SH (2) mCH3OH > mCH3SH
(3) Hydrogen bond formation
(3) mCH3OH < mCH3SH (4) can't compare (4) Dipole-dipole attraction
E 45
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
129. The most suitable method of separation of 136. Which type of shape is found in SF2 molecule?
mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenol in the (1) V-shaped
ratio 1 : 1 is: (2) Bipyramidal
(1) Distillation (2) Crystallisation (3) Linear

(4) Irregular tetrahedron
(3) vaporisation (4) Colour spectrum
137. In XeF 2, XeF 4 and XeF 6 the hybridisation of
130. The forces present in the crystals of naphthalene
central atom is ?
are:
(1) sp3d3, sp 3d2, sp 3d
(1) van der Waal's forces
(2) sp3d, sp3d3, sp 3d2
(2) Electrostatic forces
(3) sp3, sp 3 sp3
(3) Hydrogen bonding
(4) sp3d, sp3d2, sp 3d3
(4) Ionic bond
138. The correct sequence of decrease in bond
131. If d represents the bond length, then select the
angles of following hydrides is:
correct relation.
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(1) d N 2 = d N +2 and d O2 = d O+2
(2) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(2) d N 2 < d N+2 and d O2 > d O+2 (3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(3) d N 2 < d N+2 and d O2 < d O+2
139. Which of the following is soluble in water?
(4) d N 2 > d N +2 and d O2 > d O+2
(1) CS2 (2) C2H5OH
132. Which of the following conducts electricity: (3) CCl4 (4) CHCl3
(1) Diamond (2) NaCl 140. Correct order is :-
(3) KCl(fused) (4) BaSO4 (
(1) SOF2 > SOCl2 > SOBr2 (B.A.) : X - Sˆ - X )
X =F / Cl / Br
133. What hybridization is expected on the central (2) SF 4 > XeF 4 (Dipole moment)
atom of each of the following molecules?
(3) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 (Bond angle)
(i) BeH2 (ii) CH2Br2
(iii) PF6- (iv) BF3 (4) PO34- < SO24- < ClO4- (Bond length)
(1) sp2, sp, sp3, sp2 (2) sp,sp3,sp 3d,sp2 141. Among the following, the molecule with
(3) sp, sp3, sp 3d2, sp 2 (4) sp2, sp, sp2, sp 3 highest dipole moment is:
(1) CH 3Cl (2) CH2Cl2
134. What is the value of 1 debye in SI units?
(3) CHCl3 (4) CCl4
(1) 3.336 × 10–30 C.m. (2) 33.36 × 10–30 C.m.
142. Which of the following is least volatile?
(3) 333.6 × 10–30 C.m. (4) None of these
(1) HF (2) HCl (2) HBr (4) HI
135. Which of the following molecule has a planar
143. Which of the following has the shortest carbon-
structure?
carbon bond length?
(1) O2SF 2 (2) OSF2
(1) C6H6 (2) C2H6
-
(3) XeF 4 (4) ClO 4 (3) C2H4 (4) C2H2
46 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
144. Carbon atoms in C2(CN)4 are: 146. Compare F ¾ Î ¾ O and F axial ¾ Î ¾ Faxial
(1) sp-hybridized bond angle in IOF 3 molecule:
(2) Sp2-hybridized (1) F¾Î¾O > Faxial¾Î¾Faxial
(3) sp-and sp2-hybridized (2) Faxial¾Î¾Faxial > F¾Î¾O
(4) sp, sp2, and sp3-hybridized (3) Faxial¾Î¾Faxial = F¾Î¾O
145. Two elements X and Y have following (4) None of these

electronic configurations: 147. How many bondings pairs and lone pairs
X = 1s2, 2s2 2p6,3s 2 3p6, 4s2 and surround the central atom in the I3- ion?
Y = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5 Bonding pairs Lone pairs

The compound formed by the combination of (1) 2 2
X and Y is:
(2) 2 3
(1) XY2 (2) X5Y2
(3) 3 2
(3) X2Y5 (4) XY5
(4) 4 3
CHEMICAL BONDING ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 1 3 1 1 1 4 4 4 3 1 2 3 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 2 1 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 3 4 4 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 2 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 2 4 1 1 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 1 4
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 1 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 2 3 1 4 2
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. 3 3 3 4 1 3 1 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 3
Que. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 1 2 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 4 1 2 3 1
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
Ans. 2 3 2 3 4 4 1 3 1 1 2 3 3 1 3
Que. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147
Ans. 1 4 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 1 2 2
E 47
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
HYDROGEN & IT'S COMPOUNDS EXERCISE
1. The hydride ion H – is a stronger base than 9. Permanent hardness can be removed by addding
hydroxide ion. Which of the following reaction (1) Cl2 (2) Na2CO3
will occur if NaH is dissolved in water. (3) CaOCl2 (4) K2CO3
- +
(1) H + H 2 O( l ) ¾¾
aq ® H 3O aq 10. Calgon used as water softner is?
- -
(2) H + H 2O( l) ¾¾
aq ® OH + H2(g)
aq
(1) Na6 P 6O18 (2) Na4 P 6O18
-
(3) Haq + H 2 O( l) ¾¾
® no reaction (3) Na6 P 4O18 (4) Na6 P 5O10
(4) None of these 11. Which is not present in clear hard water
2. Hydrogen peroxide is reduced by (1) Mg(HCO3)2 (2) CaCl2
(1) Ozone (3) MgSO4 (4) MgCO3
(2) Barium peroxide 12. What is formed when calcium carbide reacts
(3) Acidic solution of KMnO4 with heavy water ?
(4) Lead sulphide (1) C2D2 (2) CaD2
3. Water softening by Clark's process uses (3) Ca2D2 O (4) CD2
(1) Calcium bicarbonate 13. The adsorption of hydrogen by metals is called:
(2) Sodium bicarbonate (1) Dehydrogenation (2) Hydrogenation
(3) Potash alum (3) Occlusion (4) Absorption
(4) Calcium hydroxide (Slaked lime) 14. Which of the following produces hydrolith with
4. Which of the following isotope of hydrogen is dihydrogen?
radioactive? (1) Mg (2) Al (3) Cu (4) Ca
(1) 1 H1 (2) 1 H2 (3) 1 H3 (4) Both 2 & 3
15. An ionic compound is dissolved
5. Which reaction is not used in the preparation
simultaneously in heavy water and simple
of H2 ?
water. Its solubility is:
(1) Zn + NaOH ® (2) Mg + NaOH ®
(1) Higher in heavy water
(3) Al + NaOH ® (4) Be + NaOH ®
(2) Lesser in heavy water
6. Which of the following is water gas shift
reaction? (3) Same in both
(1) CO + H2O ® CO2 + H2 (4) Lesser in simple water
(2) C + H2O ® CO 16. Hydrogen can be prepared by mixing steam
(3) CO + O2 ® CO2 and water gas at 673 K in the presence of Fe2O3
(4) CO + H2 ® CH3OH and Cr2O3. This process is called:
7. Which cannot be oxidised by H2O2 ? (1) Nelson's process
(1) Na2SO3 (2) PbS (2) Serpeck's process

(3) KI (4) O3 (3) Bosch's process
8. Which of the following reaction represents the (4) Parke's process
oxidising property of H2 O2 ?
17. Temporary hardness of water is due to the
(1) KMnO4 + H 2SO 4 + H 2 O 2 presence of:
® K 2SO4 + MnSO 4 + H 2 O + O 2
¾¾ (1) Magnesium bicarbonate
(2) K3[Fe(CN)6] + KOH + H2O2 (2) Calcium chloride
¾¾® K4[Fe(CN)6] + H2O + O2 (3) Magnesium sulphate
(3) PbO2 + H2O2 ¾¾® PbO + H2O + O2
(4) Calcium carbonate
(4) None of these
54 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
18. Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular 21. Which of the following equation depict the
in nature among LiH, NaH, KH, RbH, CsH, oxidizing nature of H2 O2 ?
the correct order of increasing ionic character (1) MnO4– +6H+ +5H2O2® 2Mn2+ +8H2O +5O2
is:
(2) 2Fe3+ + 2H+ + H2O2 ® 2Fe2+ + 2H2O +O3
(1) LiH > NaH > CsH > KH > RbH –
(3) 2I + 2H+ + H2O2 ® I2 + 2H2O
(2) LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CsH
(4) KIO4 + H2O2 ® KIO3 + H2O + O2
(3) RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiH
22. Which of the following equation depicts
(4) NaH > CsH > RbH > LiH > KH
reducing nature of H2 O2 ?
19. Which of the following hydride is electron
(1) 2[Fe(CN)6]4–+2H++H2O2®2[Fe(CN)6]3– +2H2O
precise hydride?
(2) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– ® 2I– + 2H2O + O2
(1) B2 H 6 (2) NH3 (3) H2 O (4) CH4
(3) Mn2+ + H2O2 ® Mn4+ + 2OH–
20. The compound that gives H2 O2 on treatment
with dilute H2SO4 is : (4) PbS + 4H2O2 ® PbSO4 + 4H2O
(1) PbO2 (2) BaO2.8H2 O

(3) MnO2 (4) TiO2
HYDROGEN & IT'S COMPOUNDS ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 4 3 2 1 4 4 2 1 4 1 3 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
Ans. 3 1 2 4 2 3 2
E 55
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS EXERCISE
1. Which of the following isn't considered as an 9. Which of the following alkali metal doesn't
alkaline earth metal? form ethynide on reaction with ethyne?
(1) Be (2) Mg (1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Rb
(3) Ca (4) Sr 10. Which of the following compound is thermally
2. The alkali metals & their salts impart most stable?
characteristic colour to an: (1) LiNO3 (2) NaNO3 (3) KNO3 (4) RbNO3
(1) Oxidising flame (2) Reducing flame 11. What is the order of relative degree of hydration
(1) Cs+ (aq) > Rb+ (aq) > K+ (aq) > Na+(aq) > Li+(aq)
(3) Both a & b (4) None of these
(2) Li+ (aq) > Na+(aq) > K+ (aq) > Rb + (aq) > Cs+ (aq)
3. The pair of most abundant alkali metals is?
(3) Na+(aq) > K+ (aq) > Rb+ (aq) > Cs+ (aq) > Li+ (aq)
(1) Li & Na (2) Na & K (4) Cs+ (aq) > Na+ (aq) > Rb+ (aq) > Li+(aq) > K+ (aq)
(3) K & Rb (4) Na & Rb 12. Least mobile ion is
(1) [Be(H2O)n]+2 (2) [Na(H2 O)n ]+
4. When alkali metals react with liquid ammonia
(3) [Mg(H2O)n]+2 (4) [Li(H2 O)n]+
the solution obtained is
13. Which is most soluble in water ?
(1) Blue & non-conducting (1) CaF2 (2) BaF2
(2) Blue & conducting (3) SrF2 (4) BeF2
(3) Colourless & non-conducting 14. A solid compound X on heating gives CO2 gas
and a residue. When mixed with water it forms
(4) Colourless & conducting
Y. On passing excess of CO2 through Y in water
5. The products obtained on hydrolysis of a clear solution of Z is obtained. On boiling Z
superoxide compound X is reformed. Compound X is
® M+ + OH - + H 2O 2
(1) MO2 + H 2O ¾¾ (1) CaCO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) K2CO3 (4) Ca(HCO3)2
® M+ + OH - + H 2 O
(2) MO 2 + H 2 O ¾¾
15. An element of s-block forms an oxide of 'MO'
(3) MO 2 + H 2 O ¾¾ + -
® M + OH + H 2 O2 + O2 type which is amphoteric in nature. Correct
statetement regarding element is
® M + + OH -
(4) MO2 + H 2O ¾¾ (1) It's hydroxide is most soluble in its group
6. Milk of magnesia is: hydroxides
(1) Suspension of Mg(OH)2 in water (2) It forms peroxide
(2) Colloid of Mg(OH)2 in water (3) Its sulphate is most soluble in its group sulphates
(3) True solution of Mg(OH)2 in water (4) Its carbonate is most stable in its group
(4) Pure Mg(OH)2 carbonates

7. The tendency to form halide hydrates in group 16. Correct order is
2 elements?
(1) LiH < NaH < CsH ¾¾
® ionic character
(1) increases down the group
(2) decreases down the group (2) F–F < H–H < D–D ¾¾
® bond energy
(3) remains constant (3) NH3 < H2O < H2O2 ¾¾
® acidic character
(4) first decreases then increases down the group
(4) all the above
8. For slowing down the process of setting of
cement so that it gets sufficiently hard, the 17. Which of the following reacts most vigrously
with water ?
compound added is:
(1) Limestone (2) Dicalcium silicate (1) Na (2) Be
(3) Gypsum (4) Tricalcium aluminate (3) Li (4) Mg
62 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
18. Consider the following chemical reaction 24. The chloride that can be extracted with ether
Z + 3LiAlH4 ® X + 3LiF + 3AlF3 is:
X + H2O ® Y + 6H2 (1) NaCl (2) LiCl (3) BaCl2 (4) CaCl2
D
3X + O2 ¾¾ ® B2O3 + 3H2O 25. In the manufacture of sodium hydroxide,
X, Y, Z are respectively byproduct obtained is:
(1) B, BF3, H3BO3 (1) O2 (2) Cl2
(2) B2H6, BF3, H3BO3 (3) Na2CO3 (4) NaCl
(3) B2H6, H3BO3, BF3 26. The compound used in photography is:
(4) Na2 B4O7, B2H6 (1) Na2SO5 (2) Na2 S2 O8
19. Which of the following carbides produces (3) Na2 S2 O6 (4) Na2 S2 O3
propyne on reaction with water?
27. The ashes of plants contain alkali metals, 90%
(1) CaC2 (2) Be2 C of which is :
(3) Al4C3 (4) Mg2C3 (1) Li (2) K (3) Na (4) Rb
20. Which one of the following reactions is not 28. The most electropositive element among the
associated with the Solvay process of alkaline earth metals is :
manufacture of sodium carbonate?
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Cs (4) Ba
(1) NaCl + NH4HCO3 ¾® NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
29. Chile-salt peter is the ore of:
(2) 2NaOH + CO2 ¾® Na2CO3 + H2O
(1) Iodine (2) Bromine
D
(3) 2NaHCO3 ¾¾
® Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 (3) Sodium (4) Magnesium
(4) NH3 + H2CO3 ¾® NH4HCO3 30. Which one of the following electrolytes used
21. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous in Down's process of extracting sodium metal?
solution is: (1) NaCl + KCl + KF (2) NaCl
(1) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+ (3) NaOH + KCl + KF (4) NaCl + NaOH
(2) Na > K > Rb > Cs
+ + + +
31. Sodium peroxide which is a yellow solid, when
(3) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+ exposed to air becomes white due to formation
of:
(4) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(1) H2O2 (2) Na2 O
22. Thermal stability of hydrides of first group
elements follows the order is: (3) Na2O and O3 (4) NaOH and Na2CO3
(1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH 32. Which of the following is best CO2 absorber as
well as source of O2 in space capsule?
(2) LiH > KH > NaH > RbH
(1) KO2 (2) K2O2
(3) LiH > RbH > KH > NaH
(3) KOH (4) LiOH
(4) LiH > KH > RbH > NaH
33. A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia
23. One mole of magnesium nitride on reaction
is strongly reducing due to the presence of:
with an excess of water gives
(1) Sodium hydride
(1) One mole of ammonia
(2) Sodium amide
(2) One mole of nitric acid
(3) Sodium
(3) Two moles of ammonia
(4) Solvated electrons
(4) Two moles of nitric acid
E 63
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
34. In the following sequence of reactions. Identify 37. Which of the following reaction/s are correct
(E): here?
D ,ZnCl (I) B + NaOH ¾® Na3BO3 + H2
Na 2 CO 3 + H 2 O + CO 2 ¾¾
® (A) ¾¾ ¾ ¾
2 ® (B)
D NaOH (II) P4 + NaOH + H2O ¾® NaH2PO2 + PH3

¾¾ ®(C) + (D) ¾¾¾ ¾®(E)
excess
(III) S + NaOH ¾® Na2S2O3 + Na2S + H2O
(1) NaHCO3 (2) Na2 O2 (1) I only
(3) Na2ZnO2 (4) ZnCO3
(2) III only
35. By adding gypsum to cement:
(3) II and III
(1) Setting time of cement becomes less.
(4) I, II, and III
(2) setting time of cement increase
38. Select the correct basic character:
(3) Color of cement becomes light
(1) NiO < MgO < SrO < K2O < Cs2O
(4) Shining surface is obtained
(2) NiO < MgO < K2O < SrO < Cs2O
36. The reaction of Cl 2 with X gives bleaching
(3) MgO < NiO < SrO < K2O < Cs2O
powder. X is:
(1) CaO (2) Ca(OH)2 (4) SrO < NiO < MgO < K2O < Cs2O
(3) Ca(OCl2 ) (4) Ca(CIO3)2
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 2 1 4 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 3 4 2 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 4 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. 4 1 4 3 2 2 4 1
64 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
METALLURGY EXERCISE
1. In which of the following metallurgy, self 5. Match the column
reduction is not possible Column-I Column-II
(1) ZnS ® Zn (2) PbS ® Pb (a) Zone refining (P) Ge, Si, Ga
(3) Cu2S ® Cu (4) HgS ® Hg (b) Mond process (Q) Cu
2. Which reaction(s) occurs during calcination (c) Van arkel method (R) Zr, Ti
(a) CaCO3 ¾¾
® CaO + CO 2 (d) Electrolytic refining(S) Ni
(1) (a) P (b) S (c) R (d) Q
11 (2) (a) S (b) Q (c) P (d) R
(b) 2FeS2 + O 2 ¾¾
® Fe 2 O3 + 4SO2
2
(3) (a) R (b) Q (c) P (d) S
(c) Al2 O3 .x H2 O ¾¾
® Al2 O3 + x H2 O (4) (a) Q (b) R (c) P (d) S
6. Match the column-
3
(d) ZnS + O2 ¾¾
® ZnO + SO2 Column – I Column – II
2
(a) Copper pyrites (P) ZnCO3
correct option are
(b) Malachite (Q) CuCO3 .Cu(OH)2
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(c) Calamine (R) CuFeS2
(3) a and c (4) b and d
(d) Sphalerite (S) ZnS
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect.
(1) (a) Q (b) R (c) S (d) P
On the basis of following structure.
+ve (2) (a) R (b) Q (c) P (d) S
(3) (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
0
(4) (a) S (b) P (c) R (d) Q
DG M' xO y
7. Which of the following is incorrectly matched:-
M xO y
(1) Electrolytic Reduction – Extraction of Al
–ve
T1 T2 T3 (2) Cyanide process – Reduction of Pb
Temp. (3) Leaching – Extraction of Ag
(1) T 1 & T 2 are M.P. & B.P. of metal M (4) Zone refining – Ultra pure Ge
respectively
8. Sheelite (CaWO4) is an ore of tungsten which
(2) Above T3 M' is more reducing than M contain tungestate ion, Tungestate ion is also
(3) MxOy & M'xOy are unstable at DG > 0 present in
(4) Below T3 M is less reducing than M' (1) Limonite (2) Dolomite
4. During the extraction of Ag and Au using a (3) Wolframite (4) Siderite
KCN solution and Zn, cyanide ions and Zn 9. Which of the following pair is incorrectly
react with metal ion as respectively matched
(1) a reducing Agent, an oxidising Agent (1) Kroll's process – Titanium
(2) a complexing Agent, a reducing Agent (2) Froth floatation – Cerussite
(3) an oxidising Agent, a complexing Agent (3) Distillation – Zinc
(4) a reducing Agent, a complexing Agent (4) Depressants – NaCN
76 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
10. Which of the following metals cannot be 17. Which of the following metal is leached by
extracted by carbon reduction process? cyanide process
(1) Pb (2) Al (3) Hg (4) Zn
(1) Ag (2) Na
lime
O2 water (3) Al (4) Cu
A B milky
11. (i) air
(Amorphous
solid)
18. Which of the following is concentrated by
froth-floatation method?
roasting KMnO4/H+
(ii) Metal B decolorisation (1) cassiterite (2) magnetite
(gas)
sulphide of KMnO4
(3) malachite (4) galena
Fe3+ 2+ 19. List-I List-II
(iii) B Fe
(gas)
(a) Cyanide process (P) Ultra pure 'Ge'
Correct statement is (b) Froth floatation process (Q) Pine oil
(1) A is FeO (2) B is CO2 (c) Electrolytic reduction (R) extraction of Al
(d) Zone refining (S) extraction of Au
(3) B is SO2 (4) A is ZnS
a b c d
12. Correct match is (1) R P S Q
Purification by Method (2) S Q R P
(1) Zr Polling (3) R Q S P
(4) S P R Q
(2) Zn Van Arkel
20. The substance used as froth stablisers in froth-
(3) Ni Distillation floatation process is :
(1) Copper sulphate
(4) Ge Zone refining
(2) Aniline
13. Extraction of silver from argentiferous lead is (3) Sodium cyanide
done by (4) Potassium ethyl xanthate
(1) Parkes process 21. In the froth floatation process, for the
(2) Serpeck process benefaction of ores, the ore particles float
because:
(3) Down's process
(1) They are light
(4) Castner-Kellner process
(2) Their surface is not easily wetted by water
14. Thermite is a mixture of (3) They bear electrostatic charge
(1) Zn + Mg (2) Fe + Al (4) They are insoluble
(3) Fe2O3 + Al (4) Cu + Mg 22. Cassiterite is an ore of:

15. Sulphide ore is (1) Mn (2) Ni
(1) copper pyrites (2) malachite (3) Sb (4) Sn
(3) haematite (4) magnesite 23. Pyrolusite is a/an:
16. Which of the following term is not related to (1) Oxide ore (2) Sulphide ore
Al extraction (3) Carbide ore (4) Not an ore
(1) Serpeck's process 24. Which of the following metal is not extracted
(2) Hall - Heroult process by electrolysis?
(3) Thermite process (1) Na (2) Mg
(4) Hoop's process (3) Al (4) Fe
E 77
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
25. Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of: 32. Calcination is the process of heating the ore:
(1) Bauxite (1) In inert gas

(2) In the presence of air
(2) Alumina
(3) In the absence of air or limited supply of air
(3) Alumina mixed with molten cryolite
(4) In the presence of CaO and MgO
(4) Molten cryolite
33. The slag obtained during the extraction of
26. The function of flux during the smelting of the copper from copper pyrites is composed of:
ore is: (1) Cu2 S (2) CuSiO3
(1) To make the ore porous (3) FeSiO3 (4) SiO2
(2) To remove gangue 34. Zone-refining has been employed for preparing
(3) To facilitate reduction ultrapure samples of:
(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Ge (4) Ag
(4) To facilitate oxidation
35. Which method of purification is represented
27. Complex formation method is used for the by the equations:
extraction of : Ti ¾¾¾
500K
® TiI4 ¾¾¾
1675K
® Ti + 2I 2
(Impure) (Pure)
(1) Zn (2) Ag (3) Hg (4) Cu
(1) Cupellation (2) Poling
28. In alumino-thermite process, aluminium is used
(3) Van Arkel (4) Zone refining
as:
36. When copper ore is mixed with silica in a
(1) Oxidizing agent
reverberatory furnace, copper matte produced
(2) Reducing agent is?
(3) Dehydrating agent (1) Sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II)
(4) Complex formation agent (2) Sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)
29. Generally self-reduction of the sulphide ore (3) Sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)
takes place during: (4) Sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)
(1) Roasting 37. Which of the following reactions is an example
(2) Smelting of autoreduction?
(3) Calcination (1) Fe3O4 + 4CO ® 3Fe + 4CO2
(4) Cupellation (2) Cu2O + C ® 2Cu + CO
30. Purest form of iron is: (3) Cu2+ (aq) + Fe(s) ® Cu(s) + Fe2
(1) Cast iron 1 1

(4) Cu2O + Cu2S ® 3Cu + SO2
(2) Wrought iron 2 2
38. Zone refining is based on the principle
(3) Pig iron
that_____.
(4) None of these
(1) Impurities of low boiling metals can be
31. In the extraction of nickel by Mond's process, separated by distillation
the metal is obtained by: (2) Impurities are more soluble in molten metal
(1) Electrochemical reduction than in solid metal
(2) Thermal decomposition (3) Different components of a mixture are
(3) Chemical reduction by aluminium differently adosrbed on an adosrbent
(4) Vapours of volatile compound can be
(4) Reduction by carbon
decomposed in pure metal
78 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
39. Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of 40. Which of the following oxides can not be
the following metals? reduced by carbon (coke) ?
(1) Cu and Zn (2) Ge and Si (1) CaO, K2 O (2) Cu2O, K2 O
(3) Zr and Ti (4) Zn and Hg (3) Fe2 O3 , ZnO (4) PbO, Fe3O4
METALLURGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 4 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 1 4 2 2 2 4 1 4 3 2 2 2 1 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 1 1
E 79
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
P-BLOCK ELEMENTS EXERCISE
1. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present 11. PH3 can be formed in
in P4 O10 ? (1) hydrolysis of calcium phosphide
(1)6 (2)4 (3) 2 (4) 5 (2) heating H3PO3
2. Which of the following phosphorus is the most (3) reaction of P 4 & NaOH in inert atmosphere
reactive? (4) All
(1) Scarlet phosphorus(2) White phosphorus 12. A (black compound) ¾¾¾¾¾
ha logen acid
®B
(3) Red phosphorus (4) Violet phosphorus (green yellow gas)
3. Which of the following can be hydrolysed? B(excess) ¾¾¾
NH 3
® C (unstable trihalide)
(1)TeF 6 (2) NCl3 Correct statement is
(3) SF6 (4) Both 1 & 2 (1) C is PCl3 (2) halogen acid is HI
4. Which of the following methyl diboranes does (3) B is Cl2 (4) A is KMnO4
not exist ? 13. Beryl is a type of
(1) B2H4(CH3)2 (2) B2H5(CH3) (1) chain silicate (2) cyclic silicate
(3) B2H2(CH3)4 (4) B2H(CH3)5 (3) sheet silicate (4) 3-D silicate
5. Which of the following is a sesquioxide? 14. Order of pKa
(1) N2O4 (2) N2O3 (1) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(2) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
(3) N2 O (4) N2O5
(3) HOCl > HClO3 > HClO4 > HOCl
6. Which of the following does not form during
(4) HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl > HClO4
hydrolysis of XeF6 ?
15. Which of the following compound will not give
(1) XeO3 (2) XeOF4 NH3 on heating
(3) XeO2F 2 (4) XeOF3 (1) (NH4)2SO4 (2) (NH4)2CO3
7. Mixture used in Holme's signal is? (3) NH4 NO2 (4) NH4Cl
16. On hydrolysis CaC 2 gives a gas which on
(1) CaC2 and CaCl2 (2) CaCl2 and Ca3P 2
trimerisation gives
(3) CaC2 and Ca3N2 (4) CaC2 and Ca3P 2 (1) C2H2 (2) C6H6
8. HNO2 acts as an/a (3) C2H4 (4) C3H8
17. P+Cl2 ®A, P + Excess Cl2 ®B
(1) acid (2) oxidising agent
Hydrolysis products of A and B are respectively

(3) reducing agent (4) All (1) H3PO2, H3PO3 (2) H3PO4, H3PO3
9. The nitrogen oxide that does not contain N-N (3) H3PO3, H3PO4 (4) H3PO2, H3PO4
18. Which among the following order of given
bond are-
properties is incorrect
(1) N2 O (2) N2O3 (1) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
– oxidising nature
(3) N2O4 (4) N2O5 (2) Cl > F > Br > I
– electron affinity
10. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to–
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2
(1) reduction (2) oxidation – bond dissociation energy
(4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
(3) hydrolysis (4) acidic nature – acidic nature
E 115
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
19. Amongst the following the central atoms are 30. In which of the following oxy acid of sulphur
directly bonded in sulphur atoms has different oxidation states
(1) N2O5 (2) S2O52– (1) H2S 4O6 (2) H2S 2O8
(3) P4O10 (4) Mn 2O7 (3) H2S 2O4 (4) All
20. The chain length of silicones can be controlled
31. Which of the following is most acidic?
by
(1) (CH3)3SiCl (1) Cl2O7 (2) SO3
(2) Addition of Cu powder (3) P2O5 (4) SiO2
(3) Elevation of tempeature 32. Which of the following is not peroxide
(4) None of these (1) Na2 O2 (2) CaO2
21. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(3) PbO2 (4) H2O2
regarding B 2 H6 ?
(1) On methylation it gives B2H(CH3)5 33. In which of the following reaction, phosphine
(2) It has two 2e–3C bonds is not obtained as product
(3) There can be maximum six atoms in a plane (1) Ca3P2 + HCl ¾¾
® (2) P4 + NaOH ¾¾
®
(4) It has four 2e–2C bonds (3) H3 PO4 ¾¾
D
® (4) H3 PO3 ¾¾
D
®
22. Red and white phosphorus are similar in
34. Correct statement about boric acid is
(1) smell (2) solubility in CS2
(1) boron is sp3 hybridised
(3) Hybridisation of P (4) Stability
(2) boric acid is triprotic acid
23. Which of the following is strongest oxidizing
agent (3) it is used in the treatement of eye infection
(1) HOCl (2) HClO2 (4) It forms covalent network
(3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
35. Which of the following oxide is acidic in
24. In which species O–O bond is present
nature?
(1) S2 O8-2 (2) S 4 O6-2 (1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3 (3) Ga2 O3 (4) In2 O3
(3) SO -2
3 (4) S2 O -2
7
36. The most commonly used reducing agent is
25. Glass is soluble in (1) AlCl3 (2) PbCl2 (3) SnCl4 (4) SnCl2
(1) aqua ragia (2) H2 SO4 37. Which of the following are peroxy-acid of
(3) HF (4) HClO4 sulphur
26. Paramagnetic oxide is (1) H2SO5 and H2S2O8
(1) NO (2) N2O4 (2) H2SO5 and H2S2O7
(3) P4O6 (4) N2O5
(3) H2S 2O7 and H2 S2O8
27. Which oxide does not act as a reducing agent
(4) H2S 2O6 and H2 S2O7

(1) NO (2) NO2
38. The element which forms neutral as well as
(3) N2 O (4) N2O5
acidic oxide is :-
28. Borax bead test is not given by
(1) Sn (2) Si (3) C (4) P
(1) An aluminium salt (2) A cobalt salt
(3) A copper salt (4) A nickel salt 39. P 4 O 10 has short and long P–O bonds. The
29. The reaction showing endothermic nature and number of short P–O bonds in this compound
reduction of halogen is is :-
(1) F2 + ½O2® F2O (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Cl2 + O2 ® Cl2O 40. Nitrogen dioxide can be obtained by heating:-
(3) F2 + H2O ® 2HF + ½O2
(1) KNO3 (2) Pb(NO3)2
(3) NH4NO 3 (4) All of these
116 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
41. MF + XeF4 ® 'A' (M – alkali metal) 52. In the hydrolysis of ICl, the products are:
hybridisation of A and shape of A is :- (1) HI + HCI (2) HI + HOCI
(1) sp3d, Trigonal bipuramidal (3) HCI + HOI (4) HOCI + HOI
(2) sp3d3, distoted octahedral 53. Which of the following compounds are the
common products obtained in the hydrolysis
(3) sp 3d3, pentagonal planer
of XeF6 and XeF4 ?
(4) No compound formed at all
(1) XeO2 F 2 (2) HF
42. Which oxide is most acidic :- (3) XeO3 (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Al2O3 (2) Na2O 54. Find the incorrect match:
(3) MgO (4) CaO (1) Al2 Cl6 : 3C-4e
43. Cl2O6 is an anhydride of :- bond is present
(1) HClO3 (2) Al2(CH3)6 : All carbon atoms are
(2) HClO2 sp3 -hybridized
(3) HClO4 (3) I2Cl6 : Nonplanar
(4) Al2Br6 : Nonpolar
(4) Mixed anhydride of HClO3 & HClO4
55. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?
44. Carbogen is a mixture of
(1) SiF4 (2) FeCl3 (3) BF3 (4) C2H4
(1) O2 & H2 (2) CO2 & O2
56. Thallium shows different oxidation states
(3) O2 & Air (4) O2 & Ne
because:
45. A black sulphide when treated with ozone (1) Of its high reactivity
becomes white, the white compound is :- (2) Of inert pair of electrons
(1) ZnSO4 (2) CaSO4 (3) Of its amphoteric nature
(3) BaSO4 (4) PbSO4 (4) It is a transition metal
46. An example of tetrabasic acid is :- 57. H3BO3 is :
(1) Orthophosphorus acid (1) Monobasic and weak Lewis acid
(2) Orthophophoric acid (2) Monobasic and weak bronsted acid
(3) Metaphosphoric acid
(3) Monobasic acid and strong Lewis acid
(4) Pyrophosphoric acid
(4) Tribasic acid and weak bronsted acid
47. The reducing power of divalent species
decreases in the order is :- 58. What is formula for carbon suboxide?
(1) Ge > Sn > Pb (2) Sn > Ge > Pb (1) CO (2) CO2
(3) Pb > Sn > Ge (4) None of these (3) C2O4 (4) C3O2
48. Basicity of phosphinic acid is 59. CCl4 is used as fire extinguisher because:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) Its m.pt. is high
49. Empirical formula of Bleaching powder is :- (2) It forms covalent bond

(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) CaOCl2 (3) Its b.pt. is low
(3) Ca(OCl)2 (4) CaClO3 (4) It gives incombustible vapours
60. Marsh gas contains:
50. Which of the following silicate is called
disilicate? (1) CH 4 (2) CO2
(1) Orthosilicate (2) Pyrosilicate (3) C2H6 (4) N2
(3) Single-chain silicate(4) None of these 61. Carborundum is:
51. The cationic part of solid XeF 6 is having the (1) Al 2 O 3 (2) SiC (3) BF3 (4) B4C
"_______" shape: 62. The acid which contains a peroxo linkage is:
(1) Linear (2) Angular (1) Sulphurous acid (2) Pyrosulphuric acid
(3) Square pyramidal (4) Tetrahedral (3) Dithionic acid (4) Caro's acid
E 117
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
63. In SiF62- and SiCl26- , which one is known and 71. Polar oxide of carbon is :-
why? (1) CO (2) CO2
2-
(1) SiF 6
because of small size of F (3) C3O2 (4) Both 1 and 3
2-
(2) SiF because of large size of F
6 72. Aqueous solution of ammonia consists of :-
(3) SiCl26- because of small size of Cl (1) H+ only (2) OH– only
2-
(4) SiCl 6
because of large size of Cl (3) NH4+ only (4) NH4+ and OH–
64. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn, and Pb 73. Phosphine, acetylene and ammonia can be
increase stability in the sequence: formed by treating water with:
(1) PbX2 < SnX2 < GeX2 < SiX2 (1) Mg3P2, Al4C3, Li3 N
(2) GeX2 < SiX2 < SnX2 < PbX2 (2) Ca3P2, CaC2, Mg3N2
(3) SiX2 < GeX2 < PbX2 < SnX2 (3) Ca3P2 , Be2 C, NH4NO3
(4) SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2 (4) Ca3P 2 ,Mg 2C3,NH4 NO3
74. Atoms in P4 molecule of white phosphorus are
65. Products formed when Pb(NO3)2 is heated are:
arranged regularly in the following way:
(1) PbO, N2 ,O2 (2) Pb(NO2 )2,O2
(1) At the corners of a cube
(3) PbO,NO2,O2 (4) Pb, N2, O2
(2) At the corners of an octahedron
66. Silver chloride dissolves in excess of NH4OH. (3) At the corners of a tetrahedron
The cation present in solution is:
(4) At the center and corners of a tetrahedron
(1) Ag + (2) [Ag(NH3)4 ]+ 75. Which is formed when K2 Cr2O 7, CaCl 2 , and
(3) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+ (4) [Ag(NH3 )6 ]+ conc. H2 SO4 are heated?
67. The catalyst used in the manufacture of (1) Cr2(SO4)3 (2) CrCl3
ammonia by Haber's process is: (3) CrO2Cl2 (4) K2 CrO4
(1) Pt (2) Fe2O3 (3) CuCl2 (4) V2O5 76. Which one of the following reactions does not
68. Industrial preparation of nitric acid by occur ?
Ostwald's process involves: (1) F2 + 2Cl– ¾® 2F– + Cl2
(1) Oxidation of NH3 (2) Cl2 + 2F– ¾® 2Cl– + F2
(2) Reduction of NH3 (3) Br2 + 2I– ¾® 2Br– + l2

(4) Cl2 + 2Br– ¾® 2Cl– + Br2
(3) Hydrogenation of NH3
77. BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exists as

(4) Hydrolysis of NH3
dimer (B 2H6) because:
69. When zinc reacts with very dilute nitric acid it (1) Chlorine is more electronegative than
produces: hydrogen
(1) NH 4 NO 3 (2) NO (2) There is pp – pp back bonding in BCl3, but
(3) NO2 (4) H2 BH3 does not contain such multiple bonding
(3) Large sized chlorine atoms do not fit in
70. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is
between the small boron atoms, whereas
the an-hydride of nitrous acid?
small-sized hydrogen atoms fit between
(1) NO (2) N2O3 boron atoms
(3) N2O4 (4) N2O5 (4) None of these
118 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
78. Red lead is : 88. Which one is not an acid salt?
(1) PbO (2) Pb3O4 (1) NaH2 PO 2 (2) NaH2PO3
(3) PbO2 (4) HgS (3) NaH2PO4 (4) None of these
79. The most stable and basic hydride of 15th group 89. The most thermodynamically stable allotropic
form of phosphorus is:
is :
(1) Red (2) White
(1) NH 3 (2) PH3 (3) AsH3 (4) BiH3
(3) Black (4) Yellow
80. C –– C bond length is maximum in:
90. Identify the incorrect statement among the
(1) Diamond (2) Graphite following:
(3) Napthalene (4) Fullerene (1) Ozone reacts with SO2 to give SO3
81. N forms NCl3 , whereas P can form both PCl3 (2) Silicon reacts with NaOH(aq.) in the
and PCl5. Why? presence of air to give Na2SiO3
(1) P has vacant d-orbitals which can be used (3) Cl 2 reacts with excess of NH3 to give N2
for bonding but N does not have and NH4Cl.
(4) Br 2 reacts with hot and strong NaOH
(2) N atom is larger in size than P
solution to give NaBr, NaBrO4 and H2O.
(3) P is more reactive towards Cl than N
91. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO4– in
(4) None of the above alkaline medium is:
82. Which is in the decreasing order of boiling (1) IO 3 – (2) I2 (3) IO– (4) IO4 –
points of VA group hydrides? 92. The chemical formula of feldspar is :
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (1) KAlSi 3 O8 (2) Na3AIF 6
(2) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (3) NaAlO2 (4) K2 SO4
(3) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 93. Which of the following is correct match:
(4) SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (1) Gun metal ® Cu, Sn & Zn
83. Which compound acts as an oxidizing as well (Red brass)
as a reducing agent? (2) White metal ® Contains Li
(1) SO2 (2) Mn 2O7 (3) Stainless Steel ® Fe, Cr, Ni, Carbon
(3) Al2O3 (4) CrO3 (4) All
94. Which is used for estimation of
84. The most powerful oxidizing agent is :
carbonmonooxide ?
(1) Fluorine (2) Chlorine
(1) I2 O 5 (2) ClO2 (3) BrO3 (4) Cl3O7
(3) Bromine (4) Iodine
95. There is no S––S bond in
85. Which one of the hydracids does not form any
(1) S2O42- (2) S2O52-
precipitate with AgNO3 ?
(1) HF (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI (3) S2O32- (4) S2O72-
86. Which of the following structure is non-planar? 96. Total number of lone pairs of electron and
(1) Na3B3 O6 P–O–P linkage present in dimer of P2O5 are :
(2) I2Cl6
(1) 16 (2) 22 (3) 26 (4) 30
(3) Sheet silicates
97. The number of S––S bonds in polythionic acid
(4) Inorganic graphite layer
(H2S n O6):
87. In the reaction LiH + AlH3 ¾® LiAlH4 AlH3
and LiH act as: (1) n (2) n – 1
(1) Lewis acid and Lewis base (3) n – 2 (4) None of these
(2) Lewis base and Lewis acid 98. Which of the following halogen oxides is
(3) Bronsted base and Bronsted acid ionic?
(4) None of these (1) I4O9 (2) I2O5 (3) BrO2 (4) ClO3
E 119
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
99. Antichlor is a compound: 104. The possible oxidation state of Tl are:
(1) Which absorbs chlorine (1) + 1 and +2 (2) +2 and +3
(2) Which removes excess of Cl2 from a material (3) +1 and – 1 (4) + 1 and + 3
(3) Which liberates Cl2 from bleaching powder 105. Nitrogen gas is liberated by thermal decomposition
(4) Which acts as a catalyst in the manufacture of Cl2 of :
100. Which of the following statements regarding (1) NH 4 NO 2 (2) NaN3
orthoboric acid (H3BO3) is false? (3) (NH4)2Cr2 O7 (4) All
(1) It acts as a weak monobasic acid
(2) It is soluble in hot water R.T. ® BX × NH + Heat of
106. BX 3 + NH 3 ¾¾¾ 3 3
(3) It has a planar structure
(4) It acts as a tribasic acid adduct formation (DH), DH is maximum for
101. Which of the following oxides is acidic in (Numerical value)
nature? (1) BF3 (2) BCl3
(1) B2 O 3 (2) Al2O3 (3) Ga2 O3 (4) ZnO (3) BBr3 (4) BI3
102. Catenation i.e., linking of similar atoms 107. Which of the following oxyacid contains both
depends on size and electronic configuration P–H and P–P bond simultaneously?
of atoms. The tendency of catenation in group (1) H4 P 2 O 5 (2) H4P 2O7
14 elements follows the order (3) H4P 2O6 (4) None
(1) C > Si > Ge > Sn (2) C > > Si > Ge » Sn Heat
108. Na2B4O7 ·10H2O ¾¾¾® X + NaBO2 + H2O,
(3) Si > C > Sn > Ge (4) Ge > Sn > Si > C
Heat®
X + Cr2O3 ¾¾¾ Y X and Y are :
103. Cement, the important building material is a (Green coloured)
mixture of oxides of several elements. Besides (1) Na3BO3 and Cr(BO2)3
calcium, iron and sulphur, oxides of elements (2) Na2B4O7 and Cr(BO2)3
of which of the group(s) are present in the (3) B2O3 and Cr(BO2)3
mixture? (4) B2O3 and CrBO3
(1) Group 2
(2) Groups 2, 13 and 14
(3) Groups 2 and 13
(4) Groups 2 and 14
P-BLOCK ELEMENTS ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 4 4 2 4 4 4 4 1 4 3 2 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 3 3 3 1 4 1 3 4 2 3 1 4 2 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 2 1 4 4 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 4 1 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 3
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 3 2 1 1 1 4 1 1 1 3 1 1 3 4
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. 1 1 4 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 1 2 2 4 4
Que. 106 107 108
Ans. 4 4 3
120 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
COORDINATION COMPOUND EXERCISE
1. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is 8. Which complex is optically active?
(1) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (II) (1) [Co(en)3]+3
(2) trans – [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(2) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)
(3) Cis – [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(3) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (0) (4) (1) and (3) both
(4) Dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV) 9. Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed
2. When CrCl3 .6H2 O is treated with excess of by the reaction of Ni+2 with Cl –, CN– and H2O
AgNO 3 , 3 Mol of AgCl are obtained. The respectively are.
formula of the complex is: (1) Octahedral, tetrahedral and sq. planar
(2) Tetrahedral. sq. planar and octahedral
(1) [CrCl3(H2O)3] . 3H2 O
(3) Square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral
(2) [CrCl2(H2 O)4]Cl . 2H2 O
(4) Octahedral, tetrahedral and square pyrimidal
(3) [CrCl(H2 O)5]Cl2 . H2 O 10. How many EDTA molecules are requried to
(4) [Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl 3 make an octahedral complex with a Ca+2 ion?
3. Indicate the complex ion which shows (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
geometrical isomerism. 11. For the given complex [Co(en)2(NH3 )2 ]+3 , the
number of geometrical isomers, optical isomers
(1) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+ (2) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]
and total number of isomers of all type possible
(3) [Co(NH3)6] +3
(4) [Co(CN)5 (NC)]–3 respectively are :
4. Which of the following option is correct for (1) 2, 2, 4 (2) 2, 2, 3 (3) 2, 0, 2 (4) 0, 2, 2
K4 [Fe(CN)6] complex? 12. The value of effective atomic number of Cr in
(1) d sp Hybridisation, diamagnetic
2 3 [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is
(2) sp3d2 Hybridisation (1) 35 (2) 27 (3) 33 (4) 36
13. A complex has a composition corresponding
(3) Paramagnetic
to the formula CoBr 2Cl.4NH 3. What is the
(4) None of these structural formula if conductance measurements
5. Which of the following complex formed by show two ions per formula unit ? Silver nitrate
Cu+2 ions is most stable? solution given an immediate precipitate of
(1) Cu+2 + 4NH3 ¾¾® [Cu(NH3)4]+2 AgCl but no AgBr :-
(1) [CoBrCl(NH3)4]Br (2) [CoCl(NH 3)4]Br2
(2) Cu+2 + 4CN – ¾¾® [Cu(CN)4]–2
(3) [CoBr2Cl(NH3)4] (4) [CoBr2(NH3)4]Cl
(3) Cu+2 + 2en ¾¾® [Cu(en)2]+2 14. How many ions are produced from the
(4) Cu+2 + 4H2O ¾¾® [Cu(H2O)4]+2 complex, [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl2 ?
6. The compounds [Co(SO 4 )(NH 3 ) 5 ]Br and (1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
[Co(SO4)(NH3)5]Cl represent :- 15. Ziegler - Naata catalyst is an organometalic
(1) Linkage isomerism compound of metal?
(2) Ionisation isomerism (1) Fe (2) Zr (3) Rh (4) Ti
(3) Coordination isomerism 16. Which of the following is p-acid ligand?
(4) no isomerism (1) NH3 (2) CO (3) F– (4) (en)
7. Which of the following species is not expected
17. In Cu-ammonia complex the state of
to be a ligand?
hybridization of Cu+2 is
(1) NO
(1) sp3 (2) spd2 (3) sp3 d2 (4) dsp2
(2) NH+4
18. The value of n in the carbonyl is
(3) H 2 N – CH 2 – CH 2 – NH 2
(CO)n — Co – Co — (CO)n
(4) CO
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8
152 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
19. Which of the following doesn't follow effective 27. Which of the following have maximum
atomic number rule? number of isomers
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]+2 (2) [Zn(OH)4]–2 (1) [Co(NH3 )4Cl2 ]+ (2) [Ni(en)(NH3 )4]+2
(3) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2 ]0 (4) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]+
(3) [HgI4]2– (4) Fe(CO)5
28. Which among the following can exhibit
20. Which complex has highest paramagnetism?
cis-trans isomerism
(1) [Cr(H2 O)6]+3 (2) [Fe(H2 O)6]+2
(1) CoCl3.4NH3 (2) CoCl3.6NH3
(3) [Cu(H2O)6]+2 (4) [Zn(H2O)6]+2
(3) CoCl3.5NH3 (4) All of these
21. Same number of unpaired electron is observed 29. Out of the following coordination entities which
in which of the following complexes is chiral (optically active)
(a) [MnCl6]3– (b) [Fe(CN)6 ]3– (1) [Cr(H2 O)6]3+
(c) [CoF6 ]3– (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (2) trans-[CrCl2 (OX)2]3–
(1) a and b (2) a & c (3) cis-[CrCl2 (NH3)4]+
(3) b & d (4) c & d (4) cis-[CrCl2 (OX)2 ]3–
30. Amongst the following the most stable
22. Which of the following statement is correct
compound is
about ethane 1,2 diamine?
(1) [Fe(H2 O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(C 2 O4)3]3–
(1) It is a neutral ligand (3) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (4) [FeCl6]3–
(2) It is a bidentate ligand 31. Which of the following is an organometallic
(3) It is a chelating ligand compound
(4) All of the above (1) cis-platin (2) Zeise salt
23. Which is correctly matched (3) Tollen's reagent (4) Sodium nitroprusside
Compound Total stereoisomer 32. Which of the following system has maximum
(1) [Co(en)3 ]Cl 3 3 value of m (only spin magnetic moment)?
(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl 2 (1) d5 (D0 > P) (2) d8 (tetrahedral)
(3) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] 2 (3) d6 (high spin) (4) d9 (octahedral)
(4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ] 3 33. The IUPAC name for [Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)Cl]Cl is
(1) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum(IV)
24. Which of the following complex species is not
chloride
expected to exhibit optical isomerism (2) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum(IV)
(1) [Co(en)(NH3)2 Cl2 ]+ chloride
(2) [Co(en)3]+3 (3) Tri am mi nechl orobr omo pl ati num (IV)
chloride
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2 ]+
(4) Triamminechloronitrobromoplatinum(IV)
(4) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] chloride
25. When excess of ammonia is added to CuSO 4 34. Which of the following cannot act as an
solution. The deep blue colour complex is electrolyte
formed. The complex is (1) CoCl3.6NH3 (2) CoCl3.5NH3
(1) Tetrahedral & paramagnetic (3) CoCl3.4NH3 (4) CoCl3.3NH3
(2) Tetrahedral & diamagnetic 35. In brown ring complex, the oxidation state of
(3) Square planar & diamagnetic iron will be
(4) Square planar & paramagnetic (1) +2 (2) +3 (3) +1 (4) 0
26. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] is 36. Hexafluoroferrate(III) ion is an outer orbital
(1) Platinum diamminechloronitrite complex the number of unpaired electrons
(2) Chloronitrito-N-ammineplatinum(II) present in it is
(3) Diammine chloridonitrito-N-Platinum(II) (1) 1 (2) 5
(4) Diamminechloronitrito-N-Platinum(II) (3) 4 (4) unpredictable
E 153
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
37. Formula of Tris (ethylendiamine) cobalt (III) 47. Total number of possible isomers of complex
(1) [Co(en)3]SO4 (2) [Co(en)3]2 (SO4 )3 [Pd(NH3 )2(SCN)2 ]
(3) [Co(en)3 SO4 ] (4) [Co(en)2]SO4 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6
38. Which of the following species can act as 48. Which of the following will have three
reducing agent ? stereoisomeric forms :-
(1) [Co(CO)4]– (2) Mn(CO)6 (i) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3] (ii) K3[Co(C 2O4)3]
(3) Mn(CO)5 (4) Cr(CO)6 (iii) K3 [CoCl2(C2O4)2] (iv) [Co BrCl(en)2]
39. The geometry of [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] (1) iii, iv (2) i, ii and iv
are (3) Only iv (4) All
(1) both are square planar 49. The IUPAC name for ionisation isomers of
(2) tetrahedral and square planar [Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)(I)] Cl is
(3) both tetrahedral (1)Triamminebromidochloridonitro platinum
(IV) iodide
(4) square planar and tetrahedral
(2)Triamminebromidochloridoiodido
40. Geometrical isomerism can be shown by
platinum(IV) nitrite
(1) [Ag(CN)(NH3 )] (3) Triamminechloridoiodidonitro platinum
(2) Na2[Cd(NO2)4 ] (IV) bromide
(3) [PtCl4 I2]–2 (4) All are possible
(4) [PtCl(NH3)3][Au(CN)4 ] 50. Which ion would you expect to have the
41. Which of the following will give a pair of maximum splitting of d-orbitals
enantiomorphs (1) [Fe(CN)6 ]–4 (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]–3
(1) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6 ] (3) [Fe(H2 O)6]+2 (4) [Fe(H2 O)6]+3
(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl 51. Indicate the complex ion which shows
(3) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6 ] geometrical isomerism
(4) [Co(NH3 )4Cl2]NO2 (1) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+ (2) [Pt(NH3)3 Cl]+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co(CN)5 (NC)]3–
42. Wh ic h o f t he me tal s h as m ost st ab le
52. Compound Total stereoisomer
carbonate +
(A) [Co(en)2 Cl2] (P) 2
(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) Si
(B) [Co(en)3] Cl3 (Q) 3
43. Spin only magnetic moments of a d8 ion in an
(C) [Pt(NH3)2 Cl2] (R) 4
octahedral, square planar and tetrahedral
(D) [Pt(NH3)3 Cl3]+ (S) 5
complex, respectively are
Correct code :-
(1) 2.8 BM, 0.4 B.M., 2.8 BM
(1) A = R, B = P, C =R, D = R
(2) 2.8 BM, 0 BM, 2.8 BM (2) A = Q, B = P, C = P, D = P
(3) 0, 0 & 0 B.M. (3) A = P, B = R, C = P, D = P

(4) None of these (4) A = Q' B = Q, C = P, D = P
44. Among the following the colored compound is 53. A brown ring is formed in the ring test of NO3–
(1) CuCl (2) K3[Cu(CN)4 ] ion. It is due to the formation of
(3) CuF2 (4) [Cu(CH3–CN)4 ]BF 4 (1) [Fe(H2 O)5(NO)]2+ (2) FeSO4.NO2
45. [NiCl4 ] and [Ni(CN)4]–2 resemble in
–2 (3) [Fe(H2O)4(NO)2]2+ (4) FeSO4.HNO3
(1) geometry (2) magnetic nature 54. The correct formula of diammine
(3) hybridisation (4) oxidation state dichlorodicyano chromate(III) is :-
46. CFSE of high spin d complex is
4 (1) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]3+
(2) [CrCl 2(CN)2(NH3)2]3–
(1) –0.6 D0 (2) –1.8 D0
(3) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
(3) –1.6 D0 + P (4) –1.2 D0
(4) [CrCl 2(CN)2(NH3)2]–
154 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
55. Select the correct order of E.A.N: 63. In the complex [Pt(O 2 ) (en) 2 (Br)] 2+ ,
(1) [Cr(CO)6] > [Cr(CO)6] Θ > [Cr(CO)6]Å coordination number and oxidation number of
(2) [Cr(CO)6]+ > [Cr(CO)6] Θ
> [Cr(CO)6] platinum are:
(3) [Cr(CO)6] Θ
> [Cr(CO)6] > [Cr(CO)6]Å (1) 4, 3 (2) 4, 5 (3) 6, 2 (4) 6, 4
(4) [Cr(CO)6] Θ = [Cr(CO)6] > [Cr(CO)6]+ 64. If Hx [Pt y6 ], y is a monodentate negatively
56. Select the correct I.U.P.A.C. name for charged ligand then find out the value of x:
[Cr(C6 H6 ) (CO)3: ]. (1) 5 (2) 3
(1) (h6 -benzene) tricarbonylchromate (0) (3) 6 (4) None of these
(2) Tricarbonyl (h -benzene) chromate (0)
6 65. The bond length of C––O bond in CO is 1.128
(3) Tricarbonyl (h -benzene) chrominum (0)
6 Å. The C––O bond length in [Fe(CO5)] is :
(4) (h -benzene) tricarbonylchromium (0)
6 (1) 1.115 Å (2) 1.128 Å
57. Zeise's salt is: (3) 1.178 Å (4) 1.150 Å
(1) Fe(h5 - C5H5)2 (2) Cr(h6 - C6H6)2 66. The most stable ion is:
(3) K[Pt (h2 - C2H4)Cl3] (4) K[Pt(h2 - C2H4)2Cl2] (1) [Fe(C 2 O4)3]3– (2) [Fe Cl6]3–
58. Coordination number of calcium is six in : (3) [Fe(SCN)6]3– (4) [Fe(H2 O)6]3+
(1) [Ca(EDTA)]2– (2) CaC2O4 67. The increasing order of the crystal field splitting
(3) [Ca(C2 O4 )2] 2–
(4) CaSO4. 2H2 O power of some common ligands is :
59. Hybridization, shape, and magnetic moment Θ
of K3 [Co(CO3)3] are: (1) H2O < NO2– < C N < NH3

(1) d2sp3, octahedral, 4.9 B.M. Θ
(2) NH3 < NO2– < C N < H2O
(2) sp d , octahedral, 4.9 B.M.
3 2
Θ
(3) dsp2, square planar, 4.9 B.M.
(3) H2O < NH3 < NO2– < C N
(4) sp3, tetrahedral, 4.9 B.M.
Θ
60. Consider the following complexes :- (4) H2O < NH3 < C N < NO2
(a) K2PtCl6 (b) PtCl4.2NH3
68. Which of the following does not have optical
(c) PtCl4.3NH3 (d) PtCl4.5NH3
isomers?
Their electrical conductance in aqueous
(1) [Co(en)3 ]Cl3
solutions are :-
(2) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ]
(1) 404, 0, 97, 256 (2) 256, 97, 0, 404
(3) [Co(en)(NH3)2 Cl2]Cl
(3) 404, 97, 256, 0 (4) 256, 0, 97, 404
(4) None
61. The number of s and p - bonds in Fe2(CO)9 ,
respectively are: 69. Mg is an important component of which
biomolecule occurring extensively in living

(1) 22s and 15p (2) 23s and 15p
world?
(3) 22s and 16p (4) 15s and 8p
(1) Hemoglobin (2) Chlorophyll
62. Which of the following statement is correct?
(3) Vit B12 (4) ATP
(1) With d2sp3 hybridization [FeCl(CN)4(O2)]4–
70. The hybridization and geometry of [Fe(CO)4]2–
complex is diamagnetic
are:
(2) [NiCl 4 ] 2– complex is more stable than
[Ni(dmg)2 ] (1) sp3d,TBP (2) sp3 ,tetrahedral
(3) [V(CO)6 ] is not very stable and easily (3) dsp2,square planar (4) sp3,TBP
reduces to [V(CO)6]– 71. Which of the following organometallic
(4) Ligands such as CO, CN – , NO + are compound is s and p-bonded?
pie– donar due to the presence of filled (1) [Fe(h5 – C5H5)2] (2) K[PtCl3(h2–C2H4)]
p-molecular orbital (3) [Co(CO)5 NH3]2+ (4) Fe(CH 3)3
E 155
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
72. Which of the following reagent is used for test 82. In solid CuSO4 · 5H2O copper is co-ordinated
of Ni ? to :
(1) Pot. ferrocynaide
(1) 4 water molecules
(2) Dimethyl glyoxime
(2) 5 water molecules
(3) EDTA
(4) Sod. nitroprusside (3) one sulphate molecule
73. According to crystal field theory, octahedral (4) one water molecule
splitting and tetrahedral splitting of d orbitals 83. The correct IUPAC name of the complex:
caused by the same ligands are related through
the expression: O
(1) Do = Dt (2) 4Do = 9Dt H3C–C= N:
(3) 9Do = 4Dt (4) Do = 2Dt CoCl2 is:
74. Which of the following will show optical H3C–C= N:
isomerism? OH
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) [ZnCl4 ]2– (1) dichloridodimethylglyoximatocobalt (II)
(3) [Cr(C2 O4)3]3– (4) [Co(CN)6]3– (2) bis(dimethylglyoxime) dichlorido cobalt (II)
75. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (atomic number of Cr = 24) has (3) dimethylglyoximecobalt (II) chloride
a magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. the correct (4) dichloridodimethylglyoxime-N,N-cobalt (II)
distribution of 3d-electrons in the chromium
84. The two complexes given below are:
present in the complex is:
A
(1) 3d1xy ,3d1yz ,3d1zx (2) 3d1xy ,3d1yz ,3d1z 2 en
A
(3) 3d1(x 2 - y2 ) ,3d1z2 ,3d1zx (4) 3d1xy ,3d1(x 2 - y2 ) ,3d1xz en M en and M
76. The total number of coordination isomer for A
en
the given compound [Pt(NH3)4Cl2][PtCl4] is:
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 3 A
(1) geometrical isomers(2) ionisation
77. Pick a poor electrolytic conductor complex in
solution. (3) optical isomers (4) identical
(1) K2 [PtCl6 ] (2) [Co(NH3)3](NO2 )3 85. Among [Ni(CN)4]2– ,[NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CO)4]:
(3) K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (4) [Co(NH3)4]SO4 (1) [NiCN)4]2– is square planar and [NiCl 4 ]2–
78. CuSO 4 solution reacts with excess of KCN and [Ni(CO)4] are tetrahedral
solution to form: (2) [NiCl4 ] 2–
is square planar and [Ni(CN)4 ]2–
(1) Cu(CN)2 (2) K2[Cu(CN)4 ] and [Ni(CO)4 ] are tetrahedral
(3) K3[Cu(CN)4 ] (4) K[Cu(CN)2 ]
(3) [Ni(CO)4] is square planar and [Ni(CN)4]2–

79. The number of ions formed on dissolving one
and [NiCl4]2– are tetrahedral
molecule of FeSO4 · (NH4)2SO4·6H2O in water
(4) None of these
is:
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 6 86. Which one is the most likely structure of
80. NH2 –NH2 may serves as: CrCl3 · 6H2 O if 1/3 of total chlorine of the
(1) monodenatate ligand compound is percipitated by adding AgNO3 to
(2) chelating ligand its aqueous solution?
(3) Flexidentate ligand (1) CrCl3 · 6H2O
(4) both (1) and (3) (2) [Cr(H2O)Cl3 ]·(H2O)3
81. EDTA is a..........ligand :
(3) [CrCl2(H2 O)4]Cl · 2H2 O
(1) monodenatate (2) hexadentate
(4) [CrCl(H2 O)5]Cl2 · H2 O
(3) bidentate (4) tridentate
156 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
87. The colour of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is due to : 95. K3[CoF6] is high spin complex. What is the
(1) transfer of an electron from one Ti to hybrid state of Co-atom in this complex?
(1) sp3 d (2) sp3 d2 (3) d2 sp3 (4) dsp2
another
96. The structure of iron pentacarbonyl is:
(2) excitation of electrons from d ® d (1) square planar (2) trigonal bipyramidal
(3) intramolecular vibration (2) triangular (4) None of these
(4) None 97. Ruthenium carbonyl is :
88. Which statement is not correct in the case of (1) Ru(CO)4 (2) Ru(CO)5
[Co(NH3 )6] 3+ complex? (3) Ru(CO)8 (4) Ru(CO)6
(1) It is octahedral in shape 98. Which of the following is double salt?
(1) Carnallite (2) Mohr's salt
(2) It involves d 2 sp3-hybridisation
(3) Alum (4) All are correct
(3) It has diamagnetic nature
99. Carbon donor ligands are strong ligands and
(4) All are correct usually forms low spin complexes, Among the
89. Which ion is paramagnetic? complexes given below, select the high spin
(1) [Ni(H2 O)6] 2+
(2) [Fe(CN)6 ] 4– complex:
(3) [Ni(CO)4 ] (4) [Ni(CN)4 ]2– (1) Fe(CN)6 ]3– (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]4–
(3) [Fe(C 2 O4)3]3– (4) None of these
90. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the
number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ 100. Crystal field splitting energy (D) for transition
metals belonging to different transition series
will be :
lies in the order:
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 3d > 4d > 5d (2) 3d»4d»5d
91. For which transition metal ions are low spin (3) 3d < 4d < 5d (4) 3d > 4d < 5d
complexes possible? 101. Select the correct order of CFSE (D) for the
(1) Rh3+ (2) Pt+2 ions given below:
(3) Ru2+ (4) All are correct (1) V2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ < Co2+ < Ni2+
92. Which ligand produces a high crystal field (2) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ < V2+
splitting (i.e. are strong ligand field): (3) Mn2+ < V2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ Ni2+
(1) CO (2) NO-2 (4) V2+ » Mn2+ » Fe2+ » Co2+ » Ni2+
(3) CN - (4) All of these 102. The compound [CoCl2 (NH3)2(en)] can form :
(1) Linkage isomers
93. Which order is correct in spectrochemical series
(2) Coordination isomers

of ligands? (3) Optical isomers
(1) Cl– < F– < C2O42- < NO-2 < CN– (4) Linkage as well as optical isomers
103. Colour of Halogen is due to :
(2) CN– < C2O42- <Cl– > NO-2 < F– (1) Polarisation
(2) H.O.M.O. to L.U.M.O. transition
(3) C2O42- < F– < Cl– > NO-2 < CN–
(3) Charge transfer
(4) F– < Cl– < NO-2 < CN– < C2O42- (4) d-d transition
104. For which of the following species d-d
94. Which is high spin complex? transition does not account for its colour ?
(1) CoCl36- (2) FeF63- (1) Cr2O7–2 (2) CrO4–2
(3) CrO2Cl2 (4) All of the above
(3) [Cr(H2 O)6 ]+3 (4) All are correct
E 157
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN
105. Which of the following ion is not coloured? 110. Spliting energy of [Cr(X) 6 ] 3+ , [Cr(Y) 6 ] 3+ ,
(1) [Ni(DMG)2 ] (2) [Co(SCN)4 ]2– [Cr(Z) 6 ] 3+ are 315, 210 and 184 kJ/mole
(3) [Al(OH)4]– (4) [Fe(H2 O)5(SCN)]+2 respectively, then their colour are :
(1) Yellow, Red and Green respectively
106. What will be the correct order of absorption of
(2) Red, Yellow and Green respectively
wavelength of light in the visible region, for (3) Green, Red and Yellow respectively
the complex, [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ] 3+, [Co(CN) 6 ] 3– , (4) Yellow, Green and Red respectively
[Co(H2O)6]3+ ? 111. Na2S forms violet colour complex when reacts
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ with :
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (1) Brown ring complex
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (2) Sodium nitroprusside
(4) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ (3) K4[Fe(CN)6 ]
107. Which of the following compound is coloured (4) Hypo Solution
and paramagnetic? 112. Which of the following complex can represent
(1) KMnO4 (2) AgI
both turn bull blue and prussian blue?
(3) CuSO4 ·5H2 O (4) [Ni(CN)4 ]2– (1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2
108. In which of the following complex, cis form is (3) K4[Fe(CN)6 ] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)6 ]
optically active? 113. Which of the following reactions represent
(1) [Co(en) (NH3)3Cl] Br
developing in photography?
(2) [Pt (NH3)4Cl Br]SO4
(3) [Pt (NH3)2Cl2Br2 ] (1) AgNO3 + NaBr ¾® AgBr + NaNO3
(4) [Pt(NH3 )2(NO2)2 ] (2) AgBr+2Na2S2 O3¾®Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]+ NaBr
+ -
109. AgBr and AgI are coloured because of : (3) AgBr ¾¾ hn
® Ag + Br
(1) d — d transition (4) C 6H4(OH)2+2AgBr¾®C6H4O2+2HBr+2Ag
(2) Charge transfer
(3) Polarisation of halide by metal ion 114. Which is used in cancer-chemotherapy ?
(4) HOMO to LUMO transition (1) Cis-platin (2) Zeise's salt
(3) both 1 and 2 (4) None of these
COORDINATION COMPOUND ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 1 1 3 4 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 4 1 4 2 1 2 1 4 3 4 3 1 2 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 1
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 4 3 2 1 2 1 1 4 1 3 2 4 1 4
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. 4 4 1 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 3
Que. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114
Ans. 3 3 3 3 1 2 4 2 1
158 E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Serial Page
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
No. No.
Contents 1.
2.
Classification & Nomenclature
Isomerism
1-7
8-22
3. General Organic Chemistry 23-46

CHEMISTRY
4. Hydrocarbon 47-57
(Class - XI & XII)
5. Halogen Derivatives 58-66
6. Alcohol, Ether & Phenol 67-90
7. Carbonyl Compounds, Acids and 91-120
It's Derivatives
8. Nitrogen containing compounds 121-134
9. Biomolecules, Polymers & Chemistry 135-153
In Everyday Life
10. Qualitative and Quantitative 154-161
analysis of organic compound
11. Solutions 162-166

E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE EXERCISE

1. The hybrid state of C-atoms which are attached to 8. The number of C-atoms in second member of an
a single bond with each other in the following ester is/are :
structure are : CH2 CH—C CH (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) sp , sp
2
(2) sp , sp
3
9. Which of the following is an example of symmetrical
(3) sp , sp
2 2
(4) sp , sp
2 3 or simple ether :
2. The third member of the homologous series of (1) CH3 C CH3
aliphatic aldehydes has the structure :-
O
(1) CH3CH2CHO
(2) CH3—O—CH2—CH3
(2) CH3(CH2)2CHO
(3) CH3—CH2—O—CH2—CH2—CH3
(3) CH3COCH2CH3
(4) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3 CH O CH CH3
3. Molecular formula C4H8O2 represents :- CH3 CH3
(1) An acid only 10. The number of hetero atoms present in the following
(2) An ester only compound is/are :
(3) An alcohol only
NH2
(4) An acid and an ester also
N
4. The higher homo logue of dimethylamine
(CH3—NH—CH3) has the structure :- N
(1) CH3–N–CH3 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4

CH3 11. Which of the following compound has sp-hybridised
(2) CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2 carbon atom :-
(3) CH3—NH—CH2—CH3 (1) CH3COOH

(2) CH3COCH3
(4) CH3 CH CH3
(3) CH3CH2CN
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\01 CLASSIFICATION OF NOMENCLATURE.P65
NH2
(4) CH2=CH–CH=CH2
5. The third member of the family of alkenynes 12. In compound HC C—CH2—CH CH—CH3, the
has the molecular formula :- C2—C3 bond is the type of :-
(1) C6H6 (2) C5H6 (1) sp – sp2 (2) sp3 – sp3
(3) C6H8 (4) C4H4 (3) sp – sp3 (4) sp2 – sp2
6. The number of olefinic bonds in the given 13. Which of the following pair of compounds are
compound is/are :- homologues :-
CH2 CH C CH CH C N (1) 1–Propanol & 2–Propanol

(2) Ethanol & Propanal
O
(3) Acetone & Acetaldehyde
(1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Acetic acid & Butyric acid
(3) 1 (4) 4
14. Which of the following homologous series has
7. The number of acetylinic bonds in the given
incorrect general formula :-
compound is/are :
(1) Alkyne CnH2n–2
HC C C CH CH C N
(2) Alkanol CnH2n+2O
O
(3) Alkanal CnH2n+1O
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 (4) Carboxylic acid CnH2nO2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

15. Minimum number of carbon atoms present in a (1) A is tertiary alcohol while B is tertiary amine
carboxylic acid anhydride. (2) A is primary alcohol while B is primary amine
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3 (3) A is tertiary alcohol while B is primary amine
16. Which of the following has general formula CnH2n (4) A is primary alcohol while B is tertiary amine
(1) Only Alkyne
22. Which of the following is not a correct match
(2) Only Alkane
(3) Aromatic hydrocarbon CH3
(4) Alkene & cycloalkane (1) H3C C CH2 Þ Neopentyl
17. Which of the following are tertiary radicals :–
CH3
CH3
(a) CH3–C– (b) CH3–CH–
CH3
CH3 CH3
(2) H3C C Þ Neobutyl
CH3 CH3 CH3
(c) CH3–C–C2H5 (d) CH3–C–CH2–
CH3 (3) HC C CH2 Þ Propargyl
(1) a and b (2) b and c (4) CH2=CH–CH2– Þ Allyl
(3) a and c (4) b and d
23. The IUPAC name for isobutyl chloride is :-
18. Common name of the given compound is :-
(1) 2–Methyl-2–chlorobutane
CH3 C O CH CH2
(2) 2–Chloro–2–methylbutane
O (3) 1–Chloro–2–methylpropane
(1) vinyl acetate
(4) 2–Methyl–3–chloropropane
(2) acryl acetate
24. The IUPAC name of given compound is :-
(3) methyl acrylate
(4) Vinyl ethanoate CH3CH=C–CH2CH3

19. A primary amine has amino group (–NH2) attached to:- COOH
(1) A primary carbon atom only (1) 3–Carboxy–2–pentene
(2) A secondary carbon atom only (2) 2–Ethylidenebutanoic acid
(3) A tertiary carbon atom only
(3) 2–Ethyl–2–butenoic acid
(4) A primary, secondary or tertiary carbon atom
(4) 3–Ethyl–2–buten–4–oic acid
20. Which of the following are secondary radicals :–
25. The IUPAC name for the given structure is :-
(a) CH3 CH C2H5 (b) CH2 C CH3

CH3
(c) CH2 CH— (d) (CH3)2CH—
CH3 CH CH2 CH CH2 CH3
(1) a, b, c (2) a, d, c
H3C CH CH3
(3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d
21. Examine the following structures :– (1) 3–Isopropyl–4–methylhexane
(2) 4–Isopropyl–3–methylhexane
(A) ; (B) (3) 3–Ethyl–2,5–dimethylhexane
(4) 2–Ethyl–3–isopropylpentane
Which of the following statement is correct :-
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

26. The IUPAC name for 32. The IUPAC name of the structure is :-
CH3 C NH2 and CH3 C Cl are :-
CH3
O O
CH3 CH C CH2 C CH2 CH3
(1) 1–Amino–1–oxo ethane,1–chloro ethanal
CH3 CH CH3 CH3
(2) 1–Amino ethanal, acetoyl chloride
(3) 1–Oxoethanamine, ethanoyl chloride
(1) 3–Isopropyl–5,5–dimethylhept-2-ene
(4) Ethanamide, Ethanoyl chloride
(2) 5–Ethyl–3,3,6–trimethylhept-2-ene
27. The number of carbon atoms in the principle chain
(3) 3,3–Dimethyl–5–isopropylhept-5-ene
of the given compound are :-
(4) 3–Ethyl–2,5,5–trimethylhept-2-ene
CH3 CH2 CH2 C COOH
OHC C CH2 CH3 Cl
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6 CH3
33. has the IUPAC name :-
28. The IUPAC name of given compound is :-
C2H5
CH3
CH3–Cº C–C–CH3
CH3 (1) 3–Chloro–1–ethyl–2–methylcyclopentane
(1) Methyltertiarybutyl acetylene (2) 1–Chloro–3–ethyl–2–methylcyclopentane
(2) t–Butylpropyne (3) 4–Chloro–1–ethyl–5–methylcyclopentane
(3) 4,4–Dimethyl–2–pentyne (4) All are correct
(4) 1,3,3,3–Tetramethylethyne CH3
29. The IUPAC name of CH3—CH2—NH—CH3 is :- 34. The IUPAC name of CH2CH3 is :-
(1) Methylethylamine
(2) 1–methylaminoethane (1) 1–Methyl–5–ethylcyclohex–2–ene
(3) N–methylethanamine (2) 5–Ethyl–3–methylcyclohex–1–ene

(4) N–ethylmethanamine (3) 4–Ethyl–6–methylcyclohex–1–ene
30. The IUPAC name for the compound is :- (4) 1–Ethyl–5–methylcyclohex–3–ene
35. The IUPAC name for the compound is :-
O
C
Cl
O
(1) Cyclohexanoyl chloride
(1) 2-Acetyl prop-1-ene
(2) Cyclohexane carbonyl chloride
(2) Pent-1-en-4-one
(3) 1–Chloro cyclohexanal
(3) Pent-4-en-2-one
(4) Chloro cyclohexyl methanal
(4) Formyl propene
31. The IUPAC name of HC C C CH CH3 is
36. Which is incorrect IUPAC name :-
(1) 3–Methyl–2–penten–4–yne CH3
(1) 3–Pentyne
(2) 3–Methyl–3–penten–1–yne
(2) 3–Methyl–2–butanone
(3) 3–Methyl–4–pentyn–1–ene
(3) 2–Ethyl–3–methyl–1–butene
(4) 3–Methyl pentenyne
(4) 3–Ethyl-2-methyl pentane
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

42. The IUPAC name of given compound is :
37. The IUPAC name of is :–
(1) 1–Methoxy–4–aminobenzene
(2) Aminophenyl methyl ether
(1) 3,3–Dimethyl–1–hydroxycyclohexane
(3) 4–Methoxy aniline
(2) 1,1–Dimethyl–3–hydroxycyclohexane
(3) 3,3–Dimethyl–1–cyclohexanol
38. The IUPAC name of the given compound is :– (4) 1,1–Dimethyl–3–cyclohexanol
43. IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2 is :-
(1) 2,2–Dimethylbutane (2) 2,3–Dimethylbutane
(3) 2,4–Dimethylbutane (4) 1–Methylpentane
44. IUPAC name of CH2 CH—CH2—Cl is :–
(1) 1,2,3–Tricarbonitrilepropane (1) Allyl chloride
(2) Propane–1,1,1–tricarbylamine (2) 1–Chloro–3–propene
(3) Propane–1,2,3–tricarbonitrile (3) 3–Chloro–1–propene
(4) 3–Cyano pentane dicyanide (4) Vinyl chloride
39. Number of carbon atoms in the principle carbon 45. The IUPAC name of the following group
chain in the given compound are :- CH 2=C– is :-
–
CH 3
(1) Isopropenyl
(2) 1–Methylethenyl
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2–Methylethylnyl
(3) 2 (4) 5 (4) None of the above
40. Wrong IUPAC name is :- 46. CH3—CH CH—C CH has IUPAC name :-

(1) CH3CH2CONH2 Propanamide (1) Pent–2–en–4–yne
(2) CH3CH2COOCH3 Methyl propanoate (2) Pent–4–yn–2–ene

(3) Pent–1–yn–3–ene
(4) Pent–3–en–1–yne
(3) 2–Methyl pent–3– ene
47. The IUPAC name of the following compound
(4) 2–Ethoxy butane CH3CH2–CH–CH2–CH3

CH3CH2–CH–CH2–CH3
(1) 3, 4 – Dimethyloctane
(2) 3–sec pentylpentane
41. The IUPAC name of is :– (3) 3, 4 – Diethylhexane
(4) 3, 4 – Dimethylhexane
(1) Acetic anhydride
48. Correct IUPAC name is :-
(2) Formyl ethanoate
(1) 3-Methyl-2- ethylpentane
(3) Butane– 2, 4–dione
(2) 2-Ethyl- 3-methylpentane
(4) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride (3) 3–Ethyl– 2-methylpentane
(4) 2-Ethyl- 2-methylpentane
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

49. Which is hetero alicyclic ? 51. Which of the following is non-benzenoids ?
CH3
(a) (b)
O N (1) (2)
OH
(c) (d)
O (3) (4)
:
: :
O N
NH2
H
(e) (f)
N
Correct choice is :
(1) a ,b, d and e (2) c and e
(3) d and e (4) only f
50. Incorrect statement is :
H
(1) C I Iodine atom is away from observer
Cl
Br
and –Cl is on the plane of paper
(2) Alicyclic are those compounds which have similar
properties of aliphatic compounds
(3) is benzenoid structure
O
(4) Naphthalene is example of fused benzene ring
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 1 3 3 4 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51
Ans. 4 3 3 3 3 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

ISOMERISM EXERCISE
1. CH 3CHOHCH 2CHO and CH 3CH 2CH 2COOH 8. How many structural isomer are possible for C 5H8
constitute a pair of :- having one triple bond ?
(1) Position isomers (2) Metamers (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) Optical isomers (4) Functional isomers (3) 5 (4) 1
2. The minimum number of carbon atoms present in

H3C H
an organic compound to show chain isomerism is C C H
9. H3C C Exhibits :-
(1) 2 (3) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4 H3C COOH
3. CH3—NH—C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of (1) Tautomerism

isomerism :- (2) Optical isomerism
(1) Position (2) Functional (3) Geometrical isomerism
(3) Chain (4) None (4) Geometrical and optical isomerism
COOH
4. CH3 CH CH2 C O and H OH
10. Meso–tartaric acid H OH is optically
Cl H
COOH
CH3 CH2 CH2 C Cl inactive due to the presence of :-
O (1) Molecular symmetry
(2) Molecular asymmetry
are constitute a pair of :-
(3) External compensation
(1) Position isomers
(4) Two asymmetric carbon atoms
(2) Metamers
(3) Optical isomers 11. Identify R configuration :
(4) Functional group isomers
COOH CN
5. Which are metamers :-
(1) H (2) CH3 C CH
(1)CH3–O–CH2CH2CH3, CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
(2)C2H5–O–C2H5, CH3CH2CH2CH2OH CH3 CH2OH
(3)CH3–O–C2H5, CH3–CH2–O–CH3
CHO COOH
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\02 ISOMERISM.P65
(4)CH3– C –CH3, CH3–CH2– C –H
O O (3) H OH (4) H2N H
6. Which similarity is necessary for isomerism– CH2OH CH3

(1) Molecular formula
(2) Structure formula 12. Among the following structure I to III
(3) Physical formula , ,
(4) Chemical formula
7. HCºC–CH2–CH–CH3 & CH3–CºC–CH–CH3 are

It is true that :-
CH3 CH3
(1) All three are chiral compounds
(1) Chain isomer (2) Homologous (2) Only I and II are chiral compounds
(3) Position isomer (4) None (3) Only II is chiral compound
(4) Only I and III are chiral compounds
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

13. Which one of the following is a meso–compound. 18. Which of the following does not contain any
asymmetric carbon but can show enantiomerism:-
(1) Lactic acid (2) 1,3-pentadiene
(1) (2) (3) Tartaric acid (4) 2,3-pentadiene
19. Which of the following represents the structure
having cis arrangement around each double
bond :-
(3) (4) (1)
(2)
14. Which compound is optical active –
(3)
H OH
(1) CH3 C COOH (2) CH3 C COOH

H H
(4)
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3 C COOH (4) CH3 C COOH 20. The complete IUPAC name of the compound :-
OH Cl
15. Which conformation of butane will have the minimum

energy :-
(1) (R)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane
(1) Gauche
(2) (S)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane
(2) Anti/staggered
(3) (E)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane
(3) Eclipsed
(4) None (4) (Z)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane
16. Which of the following are true statements. 21. Which one of the following is the most stable
(a) Alkanes have infinite no. of conformation conformation of 2, 3–butanediol :–
(b) The rotation is hindered due to repulsive
interaction called torsional strain
(c) The barrier is about 50 kJ/mole
(1) (2)
(d) The barrier is about 1-20 kJ/mole
(1) a, b, d (2) a, b, c
(3) only b (4) only a, d
17. Which of the following has minimum steric strain?
(3) (4)
H CH3
H H H H
(1) (2)
H CH3 H H
CH3 CH3 22. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary
alcohols (exclude stereoisomers) :–
H H (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
H H H H
(3) (4) 23. The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone
H H H
H to show metamerism :–
CH3 H
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

24. The total number of configurational isomers of the 27. How many compounds among the following are
given compound are :- chiral ?
CH3–CH=CHCHOHCHOHCH3 H HO H
H3C H3C
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
OH Br
Br Br
COOH COOH
H OH H 3C OH Br
25. and are :- H OH Br
HO CH3 HO H
COOH COOH (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Enantiomers (2) Position isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers (4) Homomers
26. Which of the following is not a metamer of C4H10O

(1) Diethyl ether
(2) Methyl n-propyl ether
(3) 2–Methoxy propane
(4) Isobutyl alcohol
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 4 4 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY EXERCISE
1. Which of the following species is an electrophile 9. Most stable carbanion is :-
(1) RNH2 (2) SO3 (3) NO3Q (4) ROH 1 1
(1) HC C (2) H2C CH
2. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile?
CH3
Å Θ 1 1
(1) N O2 (2) :CCl2 (3) N H2 (4) CH3
·
(3) CH3–C CH2 (4) CH3–C CH
CH3 CH3
3. Which of the following contains only three pair of
10. The correct order of stability of given carbanions will
electrons :
be :-
(1) Carbanion (2) Carbocation
(3) Carbon free radical (4) None CH3–CH 2 CH 2=CH HC º C
4. Carbanion is a :- (I) (II) (III)
(1) Base (2) Nucleophile (1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(3) Both the above (4) None (3) I > III > II (4) II > I > III
5. In which structure carbon does not act as a 11. Which is most basic among the following :-
electrophile.
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3CH2NH2
(1) CH3–CH2–Cl (2) CH3–CO–CH3
(3) NH3 (4) (CH3)2CHNH2
12. Which of the following has maximum pKa :-
(3) (4) CH3–CN
(1) CH2FCOOH (2) CH2ClCOOH
6. Wrong statement regarding methyl carbonium ion (3) CH3COOH (4) HCOOH
Å 13. Which of the following is most acidic ?
(C H3 ) .
(1) Methoxy acetic acid (2) Acetic acid
(1) It is sp2 hybridised
(3) Chloro acetic acid (4) Trifluoroacetic acid
(2) Vacant orbital is sp2 hybridised
14. Which of the following show + I-effect :-
(3) Vacant orbital is perpendicular to molecular
(1) – OH (2) – OCH3 (3) – CH3 (4) – Cl
planar and in pure p-orbital
(4) It is electrophile with sextet of electron 15. Among the following the most highly ionised in water is:
1 (1) CH3CH2CHClCOOH
7. CH 3 is less stable than :-
(2) CH3CH2CCl2COOH
1 1
(1) CH3— CH2 (2) CH3— CH —CH3 (3) CH3CHClCH2COOH
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\03 GOC.P65
1 1 (4) CH2ClCH2CH2COOH
(3) CH2 —NO2 (4) CH3— CH —C2H5
16. The strongest acid amongst the following compounds
8. Decreasing order of –I effect of the triad [–NO2, is ?
Å
– N H3 , –CN] is :- (1) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CO2H
(2) ClCH2CH2CH2COOH
Å
(1) – N H3 > –NO2 > –CN (3) CH3COOH
Å (4) HCOOH
(2) – N H3 > –CN > NO2
17. Which of the following acids is stronger than acetic
Å
acid :-
(3) –CN > –NO2 > – N H3
(1) Propanoic acid (2) Formic acid
Å
(4) –NO2 > –CN > – N H3 (3) Butyric acid (4) Iso butyric acid
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

18. Which of the following acids have the lowest pKa 24. The stabilization due to resonance is maximum in
value :-
Cl (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) CH3 CH COOH
(2) Cl 25. In which of the following compounds carbon–chlorine
CH2 CH2 COOH
bond distance is minimum :-
(3) CCl3COOH
(1) CH 3—Cl
(4) CHCl2COOH
(2) C6H5—CH2—Cl
19. In which s bond, the inductive effect is minimum ?
(3) CH2 CH—Cl
C—C—C—C—Cl
(d) (c) (b) (a) (4) CH2 CH—CH2—Cl
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d 26. Consider the following carbocations
20. Arrange the following in the acidic strength Å Å
order : (a) CH3O CH2 (b) CH2
(a) NO2CH2COOH (b) NC–CH2COOH
(c) CCl3COOH (d) CHCl2COOH Å Å
(c) CH3 CH2 (d) CH3— C H2
(1) a > b > c > d (2) c > d > a > b
(3) b > a > d > c (4) c > a > b > d The relative stabilities of these carbocations are such
21. Most stable carbocation is :- that :-
(1) d < b < c < a (2) b < d < c < a
Å Å Å Å
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 (3) d < b < a < c (4) b < d < a < c
27. Arrange in decreasing order of basic strength :
(1) (2) (3) (4) ..
NH2
Cl NO2 OCH3 ..
NH2
22. Most acidic compound is :- (I) (II)
OH NO2
(1)
.. ..
NH2 NH2
(2) CO2H
(III) (IV)
(3) H3C CO2H CHO CH3

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > III > I > IV
(4) O2N CO2H (3) IV > I > III > II (4) IV > I > II > III
28. The most stable carbanion among the following is
23. Which resonating structure of vinyl chloride is least
1 1
stable :- CH2 CH2 CH2
. .. (1) (2)
(1) CH2 . ..
CH— Cl
1 1
(2) —CH CH2 CH2
(3) (4)
(3) — —Cl
(4) All have equal stability OCH3 NO2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

29. Which of the following is most stable carbocation:- 36. Select the correct option for stability of following
carbanions :
Å
(1) (2) Å
CH3
;
CH3 C6H5CH2 ; CH3–C
Å Å (I) (II) CH3
(3) CH2 (4) CH 2=CH–CH2 (III)
30. The oxygen atom in phenol – (1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(1) exhibits only inductive effect (3) III > II > I (4) II > III > I
(2) exhibits only resonance effect 37. The non aromatic compound among the following
(3) has more dominating resonance effect than is :-
inductive effect
(4) has more dominating inductive effect than
resonance effect (1) (2)
S
31. Which is incorrect stability order :-
Å Å
(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 > CH3 – CH – CH3
(3) (4)
Å Å
(2) CH2 = CH < CH3 – CH2
38. The correct order of acidic strength of the following
(3) > compounds is :-
A. Acetylene B. Ammonia
Å Å
(4) CH3 – CH2 > CH3O – CH2 C. Phenol D. Carbonic acid
32. Mesomeric effect is due to :- (1) C > B > A > D (2) D > C > A > B
–
(1) Delocalization of s es (3) B > D > A > C (4) A > B > D > C
(2) Delocalization of p es– 39. Which one of the following compounds is most
(3) Migration of H – atom acidic:-
(4) Migration of proton
OH OH
33. Among the following the pKa is minimum for :–
(1) (2)
(1) C6H5OH (2) HCOOH NO2 CH3
(3) C2H5OH (4) CH3CºCH OH

34. Among the following the aromatic compound is – (3) (4) ClCH2CH2OH
(1) (2) 40. Which of the following is most acidic :-

(1) phenol (2) benzyl alcohol

(3) m-chloro phenol (4) cyclohexanol
41. Which of the following is the strongest base :-
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
35. Which is aromatic compound among the following
Å (3) (4)
(1) (2)
42. The least carbon-chlorine bond length present in –

(3) (4) All the above (1) Methyl chloride (2) Allyl chloride
N (3) Ethyl chloride (4) Vinyl chloride
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

43. Which one of the following resonating structures of 48. Which statement is incorrect.
1–methoxy–1,3–butadiene is least stable :– (1) the energy of actual structure of the molecule is
lower than that of any canonical structure
(1) H2–CH=CH–CH= –CH3 (2) The energy difference between actual structure
and least energy resonance structure is called
(2) CH2=CH– H–CH= –CH3 as resonance energy
(3) More number of resonating structure, more
(3) H2– H–CH=CH–O–CH3 resonance
(4) In equivalent resonance structure of acetate ion
(4) CH2=CH–CH=CH–O–CH3
of C=O bond length are unequal
44. Four structures are given in options (a) to (d). Examine 49. Increasing order of basic strength is :-
them and select the aromatic strucutures.
NH2 NH2
(a) (b)
(1) Ph – NH2 > >
(c) (d) CH3 NO2
NH2 NH2 NH2

(1) a and d (2) b and c
(3) a and b (4) a and c > >
(2)
45. Order of acidic strength of the following compound
will be : CH3 NO2
NH2 NH2 NH2

OH OH
(A) (B) (3) > >

Cl
CH3 NO2 CH3
NH2 NH2 NH2
OH OH
(4) > >
(C) (D)
COOH CH3 NO2
SO3H
50. Phenol are ortho para directing due to :
(1) —OH groups shows +M & –I

(1) C > D > B > A (2) D > C > B > A
(2) —OH does not show hinderance
(3) A > B > C > D (4) B > A > C > D (3) The resonance effect increases the e– density at
46. Phenol is less acidic than o & p position
(4) The I-effect decreases the e– density at meta
(1) Ethanol (2) o-Nitrophenol
position
(3) o-Methylphenol (4) o-Methoxyphenol 51. Which of the following is not aromatic ?
47. Temporary electron displacement effect in a
molecule that occurs when a reagent approaches (1) (2)
to attack if, is called as -
–
(1) Inductive effect (2) Resonance effect –
(3) Mesomeric effect (4) Polarisability effect (3) (4)
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

52. Arrange the following in their acidic strength order 56. Which of the following will lead to maximum
H enolisation :–
CH3–CH2–CH2–H H–CºC–H O
(b) (c) (1) CH3–C–CH3
(a)
(1) a > b > c (2) c > a > b (2) CH3–C–CH2–C–H
O O
(3) b > a > c (4) a > c > b
53. Which of the following compounds exhibits (3) CH3 C CH C CH3
hyperconjugation : O Br O
(1) Phenol (2) Ethyne O
(4)
(3) Ethanol (4) Propene
54. Which of the following is least stable :–
57. Urea H2N–C–NH2 molecule exhibits (isomerism):-
(1) (2) O
(1) Chain (2) Position

(3) (4) (3) Geometrical (4) Tautomerism
58. Tautomerism is not observed in :–
55. Which of the following is most stable alkene :-
(1) (2) Ph–CH=CH–OH
(1)
(2) (3) CH3–NO2 (4)
(3)
(4)
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 4 3 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 1 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 1 3 4 4 3 4 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 2 4 4 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

HYDROCARBONS EXERCISE
1. The order of reactivity of alkyl halides in Wurtz 8. Which of the following reactions does not involve
reaction is a C—C bond formation
(1) R–I > R–Br > R–Cl (2) R–I < R–Br < R–Cl (1) Hydrolysis of a Grignard reagent
(2) Combination of two alkyl free radicals
(3) R–Br > R–I < R–Cl (4) R–I > R–Cl > R–Br
(3) Corey-House synthesis of alkanes
2. Kolbe's electrolysis of a mixture of pot. Propanoate (4) RNa + R–Br ¾ ¾® R–R + NaBr
and pot. 3-Methylbutanoate gives 9. Which of the following reactions of methane is
(1) Butane and isobutane incomplete combustion :-
(2) Butane and 2,5–dimethylhexane (1) 2CH4 + O2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
Cu / 523K / 100atm.
® 2CH3OH
(3) Butane, 2,5-dimethylhexane and isohexane
(4) Butane and isohexane (2) CH4 + O2 ¾¾¾¾
Mo2O 3
® HCHO + H2O
3. The Corey-House alkane synthesis is carried out by (3) CH4 + O2 ¾¾® C(s) + 2H2O(l)
treating an alkyl halide with (4) CH4 + 2O2 ¾¾® CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
(1) Lithium metal
10. Which is correct about Wurtz reaction ?
(2) Copper metal
(a) It can proceed through free radical mechanism
(3) Lithium metal followed by reaction with cuprous
iodide and then treating the product with an (b) Alkanes having even no. of C-atom can be
alkyl halide prepared
(4) Cuprous iodide followed by reaction with alkyl (c) Sodium in Ammonia is used
halide (d) Sodium in dry ether is used
(1) c, d (2) a, b, d
4. Which of the following compound is not suitable (3) b,c (4) a, b, c, d
to obtain from wurtz reaction ?
(1) ethane (2) butane +
Zn, H
(3) isobutane (4) hexane 11. C2H5–Cl (A)
H2
5. When ethyl chloride and n-propyl chloride undergoes Na H2/pt
(B) (C) or (D)
wurtz reaction which is not obtained Dry ether
(1) n-butane (2) n-pentane
(3) n-hexane (4) isobutane The incorrect statement is :
(1) (A) is C2H6 (2) (C) can be 1-butene
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\04 HYDROCARBON.P65

(3) (A) and (B) are alkane (4) (D) is ethene
CH3
12. Arrange the following in their boiling points.
6. CH3 CH MgCl + CH3 C OH ¾¾® 'Q'; (i) n-butane (ii) iso-butane
CH3 CH3 (iii) n-pentane (iv) iso-pentane
(v) neopentane
What is 'Q' ? (1) iii > i > ii > iv > v (2) v > iv > ii > i > iii
(1) isobutane (2) isopropane (3) iii > iv > v > i > ii (4) ii > i > v > iv > iii
(3) tert. butyl chloride (4) propane
O
Electrolysis
13. For CH3–C–ONa (A) alkane
7. O can not be converted to by :
Which is incorrect ?
(1) Red P + HI (1) A is ethane
(2) Wolf Kishner reduction (2) (A) is formed at anode
(3) Clemmensen reaction (3) CO2 evolves at cathode
(4) pH near cathode increases during the process
(4) LiAlH4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

14. Ozonolysis of 3–Methyl–1–butene gives a mixture of (c) Carbocation formed in A is less stable than that
(1) Propanal and ethanal formed in B
(2) Propanone and ethanal (d) Formation of B follows markovnikov rule
(3) 2–Methylpropanal and methanal The correct statements are :
(4) Butanone and methanal
(1) c, d (2) a, b, c, d
15. Oxidation of isobutylene with acidic potassium (3) a, b (4) a, d
permanganate gives
(1) Acetone + CO2 (2) Acetic acid 21. For the reaction
(3) Acetic acid + CO2 (4) Acetic acid + acetone
Br2
CH2=CH2 (A) alc. KOH (B)
( i ) O3 CCl4
CH3CH2CH2Br ¾ ¾¾® A ¾ ¾
¾® B + C
alc . KOH
16.
NaNH2
D ( ii ) Zn , H2O
In the above reaction A, B and C are given by the set

(1) Propylene, acetone, formaldehyde (C)
(2) Propene, ethanal, methanal
(3) Propyne, acetaldehyde, formaldehyde The product (C) is :
(4) Propylene, propionaldehyde, formaldehyde
(1) CH2=CH2 (2) CH2=CH
17. Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis give a Br
mixture of ketones only?
(3) H–CºC–H (4) CH2 CH3
(a) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 (b) CH3–CH–CH=CH2
CH3 Br
CH3 CH3 22. An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal
(c) C (d) (CH3)2C=C
CH3 CH3 and pentan-3-one. The IUPAC name of A is.
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(1) 3-ethyl-3-pentene
(3) b and d (4) c and d
18. Which react ion will not happen at room (2) 3-ethylidene pentane
temperature: (3) 3-ethyl pent-2-ene
(1) CH2=CH2 ¾¾¾
® CH3–CH3
H 2 /Pt
(4) 1,1-diethyl prop-1-ene
(2) CH2=CH2 ¾¾¾® CH3–CH3
H / Pd
2
23. For the reaction :
(3) CH2=CH2 ¾¾¾

2
® CH3–CH3
H / Ni HBr
CH3–CH–CH=CH 2 (A) (major)
H2O2
(4) CHºCH ¾¾¾® CH3–CH3
H /Pt
2
CH3 HBr
(B) (major)
19. Which of the following is not electrophilic addition
reaction ? The incorrect statement is :
(1) A and B are chain isomers
(1) Addition of H+/H2O on alkene
(2) A and B are position isomers
(2) Addition of dihydrogen on alkenes (3) A is 1-bromo-3-methyl butane
(4) B is 2-bromo-2-methyl butane
(3) Addition of halogen on alkenes
24. For the reaction
(4) Addition of hydrogen halides on alkenes
H3C O3
Br C=CH–CH3 (A) + (B)
H3C Zn/H2O
20. CH3–CH=CH2 HBr
CH3–CH–CH3 Products
(A)
+ (1) One of the product only show positive tollens test
CH3–CH2–CH2–Br
(B) (2) Both product shows positive tollen's test
(3) Both product shows positive haloform test
(a) The product A is major
(4) Both 1 & 3 are correct
(b) Formation of A follows markovnikov rule
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

25. Which of the following compound will not give a 31. For the reaction :
precipitate with Tollen's reagent
HBr
CH3–CºCH (A)
(1) ethyne (2) 1-butyne
2+ +
Hg /H
(3) 3-methyl -1-butyne (4) 1-pentene (B)
333 K
BH / THF HgSO / H SO Consider statements :-

26. B ¬¾¾¾¾¾¾
3
CH3—C CH ¾¾¾¾¾
4
¾
® A,
2 4
–
H2 O 2 / OH
Br
A and B are (a) Product A is CH3–CH2–CH
(1) CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3 Br
(2) CH3COCH3,CH3 CH2CHO
Br
(3) CH3COCH3 both
(b) Product A is CH3–C–CH3
(4) CH3COCH3 , CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
Br
NH3 / NaNH2 Et Br
27. MeCH2C CH ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® A ¾¾¾® B,
(c) Product B is CH3–CH2–CH=O
A and B are
(1) MeCH2C CNa, MeCH2C C—Et (d) Product B is CH3–C–CH3
(2) MeCH2CH CH2, MeCH2—CHEt—CH3 O
(3) MeCH2CH CHNH2,MeCH2CH CH–NHBr The correct statements are :

(4) MeCH2C C—NH2, MeC C—NH—Br (1) b, d (2) a, c
(3) only b (4) only a
Na
28. CH3 ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾®
L iq .N H 3 product will be :
CH CH2
CH2 CH3
(1) C C 32. A ¬¾¾
Br2
¾
KMnO4
¾¾¾¾ ® B ; A and B
H H
CH2 H
(2) C C respectively are
H CH3 (1) o-bromo styrene, benzoic acid
H (2) p-bromostyrene, benzaldehyde
(3) m-bromostyrene, benzaldehyde
(3)
H CH3 (4) Styrene dibromide, benzoic acid.
CH3 33. The ozonolysis product of 1, 2-dimethyl benzene

(4) C C
H is/are :-
H
(1) Only CH3 C C CH3
29. To distinguish between propene and propyne, the
reagent would be - O O
(1) Bromine
(2) Alkaline KMnO4 (2) CH3 C C H + CH3 C C CH3
(3) Ammonical silver nitrate O O O O
(4) Ozone
(3) H C C H + CH3 C C CH3
30. The most suitable reagent to differentiate ethyne
and ethene is : O O O O
(1) Br2 in CCl4 (2) NaHCO3
(4) CH3C CCH3 + H C CH + CH3C C H
(3) NaOH (4) NaNH2
O O O O O O
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

34. For the reaction :
39. CH3—CH CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾
dil / H2 SO4
®A
CH3CH2–CH2–Cl H O
(A) CH3—CH CH2 ¾¾¾¾
B2 H 6
® ¾¾¾¾
2 2
®B
AlCl3 —
OH
Correct statement is :- Wrong statement about the product is

(1) A is n-propyl benzene (1) A and B have the same functional group
(2) It is a friedel craft alkylation (2) A and B are position isomers.
(3) A is iso propyl benzene (3) A and B show chain isomerism
(4) Both 2 & 3 (4) Mixed ether is the isomer of both A and B
40. Which of the following alkene is most reactive for
hydration
6Cl2 (1) ethene
(A)
AlCl3(excess) (2) propene
(3) 1–butene
Cl2(excess)
(B) (4) 2–methyl propene
hv 500 K
41. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) A is not aromatic
(i ) Hg(OAc)2 ,H2O
(2) B is aromatic CH CH CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾ (ii) NaBH

¾
®
4
(3) A is aromatic
(4) B is hexachlorobenzene (1) CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
36. Correct reactivity order for EAR of following
compounds is CH2 CH CH3
(2)
CH3 OH
Ph—CH CH2 Ph C CH CH3
I II OH
Ph2C CH—CH3 CH2 CH—NO2 (3) CH CH2 CH3
III IV
(1) IV > I > II > III
(4) HO CH CH CH3
(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) II > III > I > IV

OH
(4) II > III > IV > I 42. ¾¾®
A ; Reagent 'A' is
CH3
CH3
37. The intermediate during the addition of HCl to
propene in the presence of peroxide is (1) BH3,H2O2/
· Å (2) H2O/HÅ
(1) CH3 CH CH2Cl (2) CH3 C H —CH3 (3) Hg(OCOCH3)2,H2O/NaBH4
Å ·
(4) Cl2/aq. NaOH
(3) CH3—CH2— CH2 (4) CH3 C HCH3
43. Which of the following alkenes on hydration gives
a tertiary alcohol
38. CH CH COOH + Br2 ¾® A
(1) 2–Butene
the number of chiral carbons in 'A' are (2) Isobutylene
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Ethene
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) a–Butylene
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

44. The predominant product formed when HBr
49. Isobutylene ¾ ¾¾® "product". The product is
3–methyl–2–pentene reacts with HOCl is H2O2
Cl OH (1) Isobutyl bromide (2) Tert. butyl bromide

(1) CH3 CH2 C CH CH3 (3) Tert. butyl alcohol (4) isobutyl alcohol
CH3 50. The nitrating agent for the nitration of alkanes is:
CH3 OH (1) Conc. HNO3
(2) CH3 C CH CH3 (2) Mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4
CH3 (3) Acetyl nitrate
(4) HNO3 vapours at high temperature
Cl Cl
51. The chain propagating step is fastest in the reaction
(3) CH3 CH2 C CH CH3
of an alkane with
CH3
(1) Fluorine free radical (2) Chlorine free radical
OH
(3) Iodine free radical (4) Bromine free radical
(4) CH3 CH2 C CH CH3 52. In the nitration of propane, the product obtained
CH3 Cl in maximum yield is
(1) 1–nitropropane (2) 2-nitropropane
45. Propene on addition with HI, gives (3) Nitroethane (4) Nitromethane
(1) CH3—CHI—CH3 (2) CH3—CH2—CH2I 53. Only two isomeric monochloro derivatives are
(3) CH3—CHI—CH2I (4) None of the above possible for (exclude stereo isomers)
(1) n-butane (2) 2, 4-dimethyl pentane
46. What is the main product of this reaction?
(3) benzene (4) 2-methyl butane
HCl ( g )
CH3 – C º CH ¾¾¾¾
® ? Excess 54. What is the chief product obtained when n-butane
Cl is treated with bromine in the presence of light at
(1) CH3 – C = CH2 130°C ?
(1) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—Br
(2) CH3 – CH – CH2
Cl Cl (2) CH3 CH2 CH Br
Cl CH3
(3) CH3 – CH 2 – CH
Cl (3) CH3 CH CH2 Br
Cl
CH3
(4) CH3 – C – CH3
Cl CH3
(4) CH3 C CH2 Br
47. 3–Phenyl propene on reaction with HBr gives (as
a major product) CH3
(1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3 55. The strongest deactivating effect on aromatic ring is

(2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3 (1) –CH2Cl (2) –OCH3
(3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (3) –CH3 (4) –CCl3
(4) C6H5CH(Br)CH CH2 56. Which of the following is maximum reactive towards
E.S.R. :-
48. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence
of peroxide gives (1) (2)
(1) 3–bromo propane (2) Allyl bromide
(3) n–propyl bromide (4) Isopropyl bromide (3) (4)
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

57. Correct order of reactivity of following compound 62. The function of anhydrous AlCl3 in the Friedel craft's
with an electrophile :- reaction
(I) p—CH3—C6H4—CH3 (1) To absorb water
(2) To absorb HCl
(II) C6H5—CH3
(3) To produce electrophile
(III) p—CH3—C6H4—NO2
(4) To produce Nucleophile
(IV) p—O2N—C6H4—NO2 63. In which of the following compound the electrophile
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > IV > III attack on o– and p– positions :
(3) III > II > I > IV (4) IV > III > II > I NO2 Cl
(1) (2)
58. Toluene is more reactive than benzene towards
electrophilic reagents due to :- COOH
(1) Inductive effect only CCl3
(2) Hyperconjugative effect only (3) (4)
(3) Both inductive as well as hyperconjugative effects
CH2–CH3
(4) Strong mesomeric effect H
+
64. + CH2=CH2
59. Nitration of benzene is
Incorrect statement about this reaction
(1) nucleophilic substitution
(1) Benzene is substrate
(2) nucleophilic addition
(2) Ethene is reagent
(3) electrophilic substitution (3) Reaction is EAR with respect to ethene
(4) electrophillic addition (4) Reaction is NSR for benzene
60. Consider the following compounds :
CH3Cl Cl2
CH3 OH NO2 (A) (B)
AlCl3 FeCl3 (major)
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
Product B is :
CH2Cl CH3
Correct order of their reactivity in electrophilic Cl
substitution reactions would be :- (1) (2)
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > II > I > IV (4) III > IV > I > II CH3 CH3
61. The active species in the nitration of benzene is (3) (4)

(1) NO2
+
(2) HNO3 (3) NO3
–
(4) NO2
– Cl
Cl
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 3 3 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 3 4 3 1 2 4 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 2 3 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 2 1 3 3 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65
Ans. 1 3 2 4 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
HALOGEN DERIVATIVES EXERCISE

1. Alkyl halides can be obtained by all methods excepts 7. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
order of reactivity in SN1 reaction :-
(1) CH 3—CH2—OH + HCl ¾¾¾¾
ZnCl2
®
Cl
(2) CH2 CH—CH3 + HBr ¾¾®
(3) C2H5OH + NaCl ¾¾® (a) Ph–CH2–Cl (b)
(4) CH3COOAg + Br2 / CCl4 ¾¾¾

hn
®
Cl
CH3
2. Which of the following will not give iodoform test
(c) (d) CH3–C–CH2–Cl
(1) CH3 C CH3
CH3
O (1) a > c > b > a (2) c > d > b > a
(3) a > b > c > d (4) b > a > c > d
(2) C2H5 C C2H5
8. The purity of CHCl3 can be checked by
O
(1) treating CHCl3 by NaOH
(3) H CH2 CH C2H5 (2) treating CHCl3 by HCl
OH (3) treating CHCl3 with aq. AgNO3
(4) I CH2 C CH2 H (4) treating CHCl3 by C2H5–OH
O 9. Pure CHCl3 and pure CHI3 can be distinguished by

(1) treating with litmus paper
3. Which of the following product is obtained when
(2) treating with aq. KOH
bleaching powder is distilled with acetone
(1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3 (3) treating with HCl
(3) CH3—CH3 (4) All (4) treating with aq. AgNO3
4. Which will give yellow ppt. with iodine and alkali 10. Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis most
(1) Propan–2–ol easily
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\05_HALOGEN DERIVATIVES.P65
(2) Benzophenone Cl
Cl
(3) Methyl acetate (1) (2)
(4) Acetamide NO2
5. Which of the following has the highest boiling point NO2

Cl Cl
(1) CH3CH2I (2) CH3Cl
(3) (4)
(3) CH3I (4) CH3Br NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
6. A compound containing two –OH groups attached
with one carbon atoms is unstable but which one of 11. Which of the following is used as insecticide
the following is stable (1) D.D.T. (2) Chloretone
OH (3) CHCl3 (4) All of them
OH
(1) CH3CH (2) CH3 C OH
OH 12. Which of the following when heated with KOH and
OH primary amine gives carbylamine test
OH (1) CHCl3 (2) CH2Cl2
(3) Cl3C CH (4) All
OH (3) CH3OH (4) CCl4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

13. Which reaction gives elimination as a major product 19. Which of the following pair is differentiated by
CH3 iodoform test?
Å O O
(1) CH3–C–ONa + CH3–Br ¾®
(1)
,
CH3
O O
DMSO
(2) CH3–CH2–Br + NaCN ¾¾¾¾ ® (2)
H ,H H
Dry acetone
(3) CH3–CH2–Br + NaI ¾¾¾¾¾
® O
O
(3) C
CH3 Ph H,H–C–H
Å
(4) CH3–C–Br + CH3ONa ¾® O O
I
CH3 (4) CH2 , CH
I
I
14. When alkyl magnesium halide reacts with R'-NH2, 20. Identify z in the following series
the product is
(1) R—R (2) R— H
CH2=CH2 ¾¾
HBr
D
¾® x ¾¾¾¾
Hydrolysis
® y I2 /NaOH z
(3) R2NH (4) R—X (1) C2H5I (2) C2H5OH
15. Chloroform on reaction with acetone gives:– (3) CHI3 (4) CH3CHO
(1) Acetylene (2) Chloretone
Cl
C6H5CCl3 ¾¾
¾2®
(3) Nitrochloroform (4) Chloroacetone 21. X
Fe
16. Chloroform reacts with aniline and aqueous KOH
gives :- In the above reaction X is
(1) Ph – N ®= C (Phenyl isocyanide) CCl3

(2) Benzene CCl3
(3) Phenyl cyanide
(4) None of these (1) (2)
17. Which reaction product is wrong (major) product Cl Cl
Br
Zn(dust)
¾¾¾® CCl3
(1)

D Cl
Br
(3) (4) None of these
(2) CH3 CH2CH2 Br ¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH 3 CH 2CH 2 I

NaI
dry Acetone
Cl
Zn(dust)
(3) CH3CHCHCH3 ¾¾® CH3CH=CHCH3
D NaOH
Br Br 22. :-
D & pressure
(i)NaNH 2 (excess) G
(4) CH3CH2CHCl2 ¾¾¾¾¾®
+ CH3CºCH Rate of reaction is maximum if G is :-
(ii) H
18. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic (1) –OCH3 (2) –CH3
substitution by SN1 mechanism at fastest rate : (3) –NO2 (4) –H
CH3–CH–Cl 23. Hydrolysis of optically active 2-bromobutane gives-
(1) CH3–CH2–Cl (2)
CH3 (1) d-butan-2-ol (2) l-butan-2-ol
–CH2–Cl –Cl (3) (dl)-butan-2-ol (4) either of these

(3) (4)
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

24. When a haloalkane with b-hydrogen is heated with 28. The correct reaction is -
alcoholic solution of KOH the product and the type
of mechanism is- Cl Cl
(1) Alcohol, SN1 (2) Alkene, a-elimination conc. HNO 3
(1)
(3) Alcohol, SN2 (4) Alkene, b-elimination conc. H2SO4
25. In RMgX, C–Mg bond is- NO2
(major)
(1) Non polar covalent
(2) Polar covalent
(3) Ionic Cl Cl
(4) Coordinate
(2) Anhyd. AlCl3
26. The incorrect reaction is- + CH3Cl
Cl OH CH 3
(major)
(i) NaOH, 280 K
(1) +
(ii) H
Cl Cl
Cl OH Anhyd. AlCl3
(3) + CH3COCl
(i) NaOH , 443 K
(2) + COCH 3
(ii) H
(major)
NO2 NO2
(4) All of these
Cl OH 29. Which of the following is correct
NO2 NO2 wurtz reaction
(i) NaOH , 358 K
(3) +
(1) 2RX + 2Na R–R + 2NaX
(ii) H
X R
NO2 NO2
wurtz-fittig
(2) + Na + R–X reaction + NaX
Cl OH
O2N NO2 O2 N NO2 X
Warm H2O
(4)
Fittig reaction
+ 2Na
(3) 2 + 2NaX
NO2 NO2
(4) All of these

Cl
30. Incorrect match is-
Conc. H2SO4
27. Q (1) Iodoform - Antiseptic
(major)
(2) Pyrene - Fire extinguisher
Cl Cl (3) Freon 12 - aerosol propellants

SO3H (4) DDT - Fat insoluble
(1) (2)
31. Which is most reactive for SN1 reaction :-
SO3H
Cl
(1) Ph Cl (2)
Cl Cl Cl
Ph Me
Cl Cl
(3) (4) +
(3) (4)
SO3H Me Et Et Et
SO3H SO3H
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

32. Which is most reactive for SN1? 35. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing
order of their SN2 reactivity?
(1) (2) CH3

CH3–C–X , CH3–CH–X , CH3–CH2–X , CH3–X
CH3 CH3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (4)
(1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(2) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b)
33. The reaction ,CH3Br + OH– ¾¾® CH3OH + Br– (3) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a)
obeys the mechanism (4) (b) < (d) < (c) < (a)
(1) SN1 (2) SN2
36. Which of the following alkyl halides gives a mixture
(3) E 1
(4) E2
of alkenes on dehydrohalogenation
34. SN1 reaction on an optically active substrate having (1) n–Propyl halide (2) Isopropyl halide
only one chiral centre which is also reaction centre, (3) s–Butyl bromide (4) t–Butyl bromide
gives :-
(1) Retention in configuration
(2) Inversion in configuration
(3) Partially racemised product
(4) Complete racemised product
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 1 4 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 3 2 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 2 2 2 3 1 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALCOHOL, ETHER & PHENOL EXERCISE

1. The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence 6. Select the incorrect option for the following
reaction:
PBr3
CH3CH2OH ¾¾¾ ® A ¾¾D¾¾
® B ¾¾¾
Bralc .KOH
®C 2
+
CH3– CH= CH2 + H2O ¾¾
H
® CH3 – CH – CH3
are given by the set
OH
(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2.
(1) This is an example of NAR of alkene
(2) C2H5Br, CH CH, CH2 CHBr (2) In the first step, protonation of alkene takes
place to form carbocation
(3) C2H5Br, CH2 CH2, CH2Br—CH2Br
(3) In the second step, Nucleophilic attack of water
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, BrCH2—CH2Br takes place on carbocation
2. Which of the following alcohols gives a red colour (4) In the last step deprotonation takes place to form
an alcohol
in Victor Meyer test
7. For the reduction of aldehydes and ketones into
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
alcohol the reagent which can be used is/are :
(2) CH3–CH–OH (1) H2 in presence of Ni, Pt or Pd
CH3
(2) NaBH4
(3) (CH3)3C–OH (3) LiAlH4
(4) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 (4) All of these
OH 8. Which of the following does not reduces the
carboxylic acids into alcohol ?
3. Which of the following does not turn orange colour
of chromic acid to green 1.LiAlH4/ether 1.B 2H6
(1) 1° alcohol (2) 2° alcohol (1) (2)
2.H3O+ 2.H 3O+
(3) 3° alcohol (4) Allyl alcohol
ROH H2
(3) NaBH4 (4)
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\06_ALCOHOL, ETHER AND PHENOL.P65
4. p, s and t-alcohols can be distinguished by :- H +

Catalyst
(1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction H2SO4
A
443K
(2) Tollen's reagent
9. CH3CH2OH A and B are
(3) Lucas test
H2SO4
B
(4) Lassaigne's test 413K
(respectively)
5. Consider the following reaction :
(1) O
, CH2 = CH2
C2H5OH + H2SO4 ® Product
Among the following, which one cannot be formed (2) O
, O
as a product under any conditions ?
(3) CH2 = CH2, CH2 = CH2
(1) C2H5OSO3H
(4) CH2 = CH2,
(2) H2C=CH2 O
10. Which of the following is insoluble in water ?
(3) HCºCH
(1) Ethanol (2) Ethoxyethane
(4) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 (3) Phenol (4) Pentane
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

11. Nitration of phenol with conc. H2SO4 followed by 16. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by
nitric acid gives :-
reactions with the following except :-
OH OH (1) Iodine and alkali
NO2 (2) Ferric chloride
(1) (2)
NO2 (3) Acetyl chloride
(4) Bromine water
OH OH
17. Phenol on treatment with methyl chloride in the
O2N NO2
presence of anhydrous AlCl3 gives chiefly :-
(3) (4)
NO2 NO2 (1) o–cresol (2) m–cresol
(3) anisole (4) p–cresol
12. Deoxygenation of phenol can be achieved by distil- 18. Phenol on heating with NaNO2 and a few drops of
lation with :-
conc. H2SO4 mainly gives :-
(1) Raney nickel
(2) Lithium aluminium hydride (1) p–nitrophenol (2) p–nitrosophenol
(3) Sodium borohydride (3) o–nitrophenol (4) m–nitrosophenol
(4) Zinc dust 19. Phenol and benzoic acid are distinguished by :-
13. Which of the following compounds shows
(1) Lucas reagent (2) Victor Meyer test
intramolecular hydrogen bonding :-
(3) Caustic soda (4) Sodium bicarbonate
(1) p–Nitrophenol (2) Ethanol
(3) o–Nitrophenol (4) Methanamine 20. Phenol on treatment with dil HNO3 at low temp
(298 K) gives two products P and Q. P is steam
Å volatile but Q is not. P and Q are respectively.
O Na O
14.
+ CH3–C–Cl ¾® ? OH OH
NO2
Sodium phenate
(1) and
O
C–OCH3 OH O NO2
C–CH3

(1) (2)
OH OH
O
(2) and
Cl
O–C–CH3
NO2
(3) (4)
NO2
15. The reaction OH OH

OH OH
1Å 1 Å NO2
140° C
O Na + CO2 ¾¾¾¾ ® COONa (3) and
is called :- NO2 OH
(1) Schotten Bauman reaction
(2) Kolbe Schmidt reaction OH OH
(3) Reimer–Tiemann reaction
(4) and
(4) Lederer–Manasse reaction
NO2
NO2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

21. The preparation of ethers from alcohols by using 26. Which of the following does not react with aq.
sulphuric acid is called :- NaOH :-
(1) Williamson's ether Synthesis (1) Phenol
(2) Williamson's continuous etherification process (2) Benzoic acid
(3) Ziesel's method
(3) CH3COOH
(4) Zerewitinoff method
(4) CH3–O–C6H5
+
22. PBr3 Mg/ether H2O/H
CH3–CH–CH3 X Y 27. A student tried two reactions for preparing tert-butyl
OH ethyl ether :
The final product is :- CH3
(1) CH3–CH–OH (2) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH (I) C2H5ONa + CH 3 – C – Cl

CH3
CH3
CH 3
(3) CH3–CH–O–CH–CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–CH3
(II) CH3 – C – ONa +CH3 – CH2– Cl
CH3 CH3
CH 3
23. In the reaction sequence
Which reaction will give better yield of tert butyl
A ¾¾® B
HBr C2 H5 ONa
¾¾¾¾¾
® Ethoxyethane, ether ?
A and B are :- (1) Only I (2) Only II

(3) Both I & II (4) Neither I nor II
(1) C2H6, C2H5Br
28. The correct reactivity order towards H–X will be
(2) CH4, CH3Br
(3) CH2 CH2, C2H5Br (I) OH (II)CH2 CH—CH2OH

(4) CH CH,CH2 CHBr
(III) CH3—CH2—OH (IV) CH3 CH CH3
HÅ
24. ® of which
CH3–CH2–OH + Ph–CH2–OH ¾¾¾¾ 140° C OH
is not obtained? (1) II > I > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
(1) CH3–CH2–OCH2–CH3 (3) II > IV > I > III (4) II > IV > III > I
(2) Ph–CH2–OCH2–Ph 29. Which of the following product will be obtained when
neopentyl alcohol is treated with conc. HCl in
(3) Ph–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
presence of ZnCl2.
(4) Ph–CH2–O–CH2–O–CH3 (1) t– butyl chloride (2) isobutylene
(3) t– pentyl chloride (4) Neo pentyl chloride
25. Oxonium ion of ether has the structure :-
30. For the reaction,
Å
(1) C2H5 O CH O H
C2H 5OH + HX ¾¾® C2H 5X, the order of
CH3 H
reactivity is
(1) HI > HCl > HBr (2) HI > HBr > HCl
(2) CH3 CH2 O Å CH2 CH3
(3) HCl > HBr > HI (4) HBr > HI > HCl
H
31. Which alcohol produces turbidity with Lucas reagent
(3) (C2H5)2O ® O
most slowly
(4) (1) 2–Butanol (2) t–Butyl alcohol
(3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Diphenylcarbinol
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

32. Arrange the following alkanols A, B and C in order
of their reactivity t oward s acid catalysed
dehydration:-
(A) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 OH

CH3
OH
(B) CH3 C CH2 CH3

CH3
CH3 OH
(C) CH3 CH CH CH3
(1) A > B > C (2) B > A > C

(3) B > C > A (4) C > B > A
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 3 3 3 1 4 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 4 1 2 4 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 2
Que. 31 32
Ans. 3 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

CARBONYL COMPOUNDS, ACIDS AND IT'S DERIVATIVES EXERCISE
1. Acetaldehyde on warming with Fehling's solution 7. Which does not react with NaHSO3.
gives a red precipitate of :- (1) Ph–C–H
(1) Elemental copper O

(2) Cuprous oxide (2) CH3–O– –C–H
(3) Cupric oxide O
(4) Mixture of all of the above (3) CH3– –CH2–C–Ph
2. Acetone does not form :- O
(1) A phenylhydrazone with phenylhydrazine CHO
(4)
(2) A sodium bisulphite adduct with sodium bisulphite CH3
(3) A silver mirror with Tollen's reagent 8. Ketones can be prepared by :-
(4) An oxime with hydroxylamine (1) Rosenmund reduction

(2) Etard reaction
3. CH3CHO and CH3COCH3 can not be distinguished
(3) Cannizzaro reaction
by :-
(4) Friedel-Craft reaction
(1) Fehling solution
9. Carbonyl compounds are best purified by :-
(2) Grignard reagent (1) Steam distillation
(3) Schiff's reagent (2) Hydrolysis of sodium bisulphite adducts
(4) Tollen's reagent (3) Fractional crytallisation
4. Acetone is obtained by the hydrolysis of the addition (4) Sublimation
product of methyl magnesium iodide and :- 10. Carbonyl compounds readily undergo :-
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\07_CARBONYL COMPOUNDS, ACIDS AND IT'S DERIVATIVES.P65

(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO (1) Nucleophilic substitutions
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3–CºN (2) Electrophilic addition reactions
Cl (3) Nucleophilic addition reactions

KCN B
Ph–C–CH3 + aq. KOH ® A ¾¾® (4) Free radical substitution reactions
5. ?
H
Cl O O
11. CH3–C–CH3 an d CH3–C–H are readily
(1) 50% d + 50% l (2) 80% d + 20% l
distinguished by their reaction with :-
(3) Meso compound (4) optically active
(1) Iodine and alkali
O
6. –C– can be obtained by :- (2) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
O (3) Tollen's reagent

(1) –C–Cl + (Ph)2Cd (4) All the above
12. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following
O OH
conversion
(2) –C–Cl +
O O
CH3–CH=CH–CH2–C–CH3 CH3–CH=CH–CH2–C–OH
(3) + CO + ZnCl2 + HCN (i) Tollen ' s reagent (i) Benzoyl peroxide
(1) ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ (ii)HÅ
¾
® (2) ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾(ii)H Å
®
(i) I2 and NaOH KMnO / HÅ , D
(3) ¾¾¾¾¾¾ (ii)HÅ
¾
® (4) ¾¾¾¾¾¾
4
¾
®
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

13. Formaldehyde reacts with conc. alkali to form :- 21. Carbonyl group is converted into methylene group
by -
(1) A resinous mass
(1) Acidic reduction
(2) Formic acid
(2) Raney Ni
(3) A mixture of methanol and sodium formate
(3) Basic hydrolysis
(4) Methanol
(4) Normal Hydrogenation
14. Which of the following compounds does not
22. When acetaldol is treated with excess of acid then
give aldol condensation :-
unsaturated product will be :-
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3CH2CHO
(1) Alcohol (2) Aldehyde
(3) HCHO (4) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(3) Acid (4) Alkyl halide
15. Cannizzaro reaction is given by :-
23. The reagent used for the separation of acetaldehyde
(1) Aldehydes containing a-hydrogen atoms from acetophenone is -
(2) Aldehydes as well as ketones containing (1) NaHSO3 (2) C6H5NHNH2
a-hydrogen atoms
(3) NH2OH (4) NaOH + I2
(3) Aldehydes not containing a-hydrogen atoms
24. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of
(4) Aldehydes containing b-hydrogen atoms
RCH2OH ¾¾® RCHO
16. Which of the following can be converted to
(1) KMnO4
CH3–CH=CH–CHO :-
(2) K2Cr2O7
(1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) CrO3/H2SO4
(3) Propanaldehyde (4) Formaldehyde
(4) PCC (Pyridinium chloro chromate)
17. The product of reaction with primary amine and
25. The major organic product formed from the
aldehyde is -
following reaction is :–
O
O ( i ) CH NH
(1) R–C–OH (2) R–ONO 3 2
¾ ¾¾¾¾¾ ¾®
( ii ) LiAlH4 ( iii ) H 2O
(3) R'–CH=N–R (4) R–NO2
18. Brady's reagent is NHCH3 NHCH3
(1) (2)
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (2) KMnO4/NaIO4 OH
NO2 NO2 NHCH3 NHCH3

(3) O2N (3) (4)
NH.NH2 (4) O N F OH OCH3
2
19. A compound with molecular formula C3H6O, not O

gives silver mirror with Tollen's reagent but forms
26. + CH3MgBr ¾¾¾¾
H /H O
® P ¾¾¾
HBr
® Q ¾¾¾
Å Mg
2
Ether
®R
oxime with hydroxyl amine. Compound will be -
(1) CH 2 CH—CH2—OH
¾¾¾¾
HCHO
HÅ / H2 O
® S, S is:
(2) CH3CH2CHO
OH
(3) CH 2 CH—O—CH3 OH
(1) (2)
(4) CH3COCH3
20. Aldehyde and ketone are distinguished by reagent
(1) Fehling solution (2) H2SO4 (3) OH (4) OH
(3) NaHSO3 (4) NH3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

O O 31. CH3CH3 ¾¾®
Cl2
hv
(A) ¾¾¾¾
aq.KOH
® (B) ¾¾¾
PCC
® (C)
1
OH D
27. H– C –CH 2CH 2CH 2CH 2– C –H ¾¾¾ ® Product
OH
(A) is :- (D)
D
The product D is :-
O=C–CH3 (1) CH2 = CH2
(1)
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–CHO
OH
CH=O
(2) (3) CH3–C–CH3
O
(3) CH2–CH2CH2CH2CH2–COOH (4) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
OH 32. Select the correct statement for C=O and C=C
bond.
(4) CH2–CH2CH2CH2 CH2–CH2 (1) Carbon–Oxygen double bond is polar but carbon-
OH OH carbon double bond is non-polar
(2) Carbon–Oxygen bond length is 123 pm than
28. Which of the following reaction will not give ketone? that of carbon-carbon bond length is 134 pm
R–COCl (3) carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophilic
(1) R – MgX +
addition reaction but compounds containing
H3O
+ ethylenic double bonds undergo electrophilic
(2) R – CN + R – MgX ¾® addition reaction
anhy.AlCl3 (4) All of these

(3) +RCOCl
33. Select the structure of chromium complex formed

by the reaction of toluene with chromylchloride
CS2 H3O+ followed by hydrolysis to give benzaldehyde and also
(4) CH3 + CrO2Cl2
the name of the reaction.
29. Select the incorrect option : CH(OCrCl2)2

(1) and Etard reaction
Conversion Reagent
(1) Hexan-1-ol¾® hexanal C5H5NH+CrO3Cl– CH(OCrOHCl2)2

(2) and Etard reaction
(2) Ethanenitrile¾® Ethanal DIBAL–H
(3) p-fluorotoluene, ¾® K2Cr2O7, H+ CH2(OCrOHCl2)

(3) and Rosenmund reaction
p-fluorobenzaldehyde
(4) But-2-ene ¾® Ethanal O3,H2O-Zn dust CH(OCrOH2Cl)2

(4) and Rosenmund reaction
30. True statement about acetone is
(1) a– H of acetone is acidic due to strong electron 34. The methanal, ethanal and propanone are miscible
withdrawing carbonyl group with water because they form
(1) Vander waal's forces with water
(2) a–H of acetone is acidic due to resonance
(2) H-bond with water
stabilisation of conjugate base
(3) dipole-dipole bond with water
(3) It gives b-Hydroxy ketone with dilute alkali
(4) ion-dipole bond with water
(4) All
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

35. The correct increasing order of carbonyl compounds 39. The compounds A and B in the reaction sequence
towards nucleophilic addition reaction. Phenol CH3COONa
B CH3COCl ¾¾¾¾¾® A
¾¾®
(1) Butanone < Propanone < Propanal < Ethanal
are given by the set respectively :-
(2) Butanone < Propanal < Propanone < Ethanal
(1) CH3CO–O–COCH3, C6H5CH2OH
(3) Butanone < Ethanal < Propanone < Propanal
(2) CH3CO–O–COCH3, C6H5OCOCH3
(4) Butanone < Ethanal < Propanal < Propanone (3) CH3COCH3, C6H5OCOCH3
36. Which of the following carbonyl group give the
(4) CH3 C O O C CH3 ,
positive fehling test ?
O O
(1) Aliphatic aldehydes (2) Aromatic aldehydes
(3) Ketones (4) Both (1) and (2) CH3 C O C6H5
37. When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous O
sodium bicarbonate, CO2 is liberated. The C of CO2
Alc.
comes from :- 40. CH3–CH2–COOH ¾¾¾¾¾
Re d P/Cl 2
® A ¾¾¾
KOH
®B
(1) methyl group structure of B is :-

(2) carboxylic acid group (1) CH2=CH–COOH (2) CH3–CH–COOH
(3) methylene group Cl
(4) bicarbonate
O
38. In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D (3) CH2–CH2–COOH (4) CH3–CH2–C–Cl
Cl
SOCl2 Benzene 41. Which is most reactive towards hydrolysis.
CH3COOH ¾ ¾¾ ¾® A ¾ ¾¾ ¾® B
Anhy. AlCl 3
(1) CH3– –C–NH–CH3

NaCN H OÅ
¾¾¾¾ ® C ¾ ¾¾® D
3
O
The structure of D would be –
(2) O2N– –C–NH–CH3
OH
O
C COOH
(1)
CH3
(3) Cl– –C–NH–CH3
O
COOH
(2) CH 2 C CH3 (4) –C–NH–CH3

OH O
42. Which of the following reagents may be used to
CN distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid ?
(3) C CH3 (1) Victor-Mayer test (2) Neutral FeCl3
OH (3) Aqueous NaOH (4) Tollen's reagent
43. Acyl chlorides undergo :-
OH (1) Nucleophilic addition reactions

(2) Nucleophilic substitution reactions
(4) CH 2 C CH3
(3) Electrophilic substitution reactions
CN
(4) Electrophilic addition reactions
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

44. The reaction of ethanol on acetic anhydride is an 49. Arrange the following for reactivity towards
example of :- nucleophilic addition reaction in decreasing order
(1) Nucleophilic addition H CH 3

I. C O II. C O
(2) Nucleophilic substitution H H
(3) Electrophilic addition CH 3

III. C O
(4) Free radical substitution CH3
45. The reduction of acetamide gives :- (1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(1) CH3CH2NH2 (3) III > II > I (4) None of these

50. Arrange the following for reactivity towards
(2) (CH3)2CHNH2
nucleophilic addition reaction in decreasing order
(3) (CH3)3CNH2
I. ClCH 2 CHO II. NO 2 CH 2 CHO
(4) (CH3CH2)2NH
III. CH 3 CHO IV. CH 3 CH 2 CHO
46. Which is used in preparation of aldehyde by
rosenmund reduction (1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > III > IV
(1) Ester (2) Acid (3) IV > III > II > I (4) IV > I > II > III
(3) Acid halide (4) Alcohol
PO I. CH 3 CHO II. ClCH 2 CHO
47. CH3–C–NH 2 ¾¾®
2
D
5
?
O III. HCCl 2 CHO IV. CCl 3 CHO
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3–CN (1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > III > IV
(3) CH3–CH3 (4) CH3–CHO (3) IV > III > II > I (4) IV > I > II > III

CHO NaOH
48. A H
D ?
CHO
CH 3 C H 3C H 2
I. C O II. C O
CH2OH CH3 CH3
(1) (2) O
COOH
(CH3)2CH CCl3
O C O C O
III. IV.
CH3 CH3
(3) O (4) O (1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > III > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) IV > I > II > III
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 2 4 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 3 4 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 4 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 3 2 2 1 2 3 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NITROGEN CONTAINING COMPOUNDS EXERCISE

1. Among the following which one is not formed in 9. The reaction : [C2H5Br + NH3] is in fact an example
Hoffmann degradation of
··
(1) RNCO (2) R – N H2 (1) Ammonolysis only
··
(3) RCONHBr (4) RNC (2) Nucleophilic substitution only
(3) Ammonolysis as well as nucleophilic substitution
NaOH (4) None
2. CH3CH2CONH2 ¾¾¾¾
Br2
® A,
Aqueous solution of A 10. Melting points are normally the highest for
(1) Turns blue litmus to red (1) Tertiary amides (2) Secondary amides
(2) Turns red litmus to blue (3) Primary amides (4) Amines
(3) Does not affect the litmus
11. Solubility of ethylamine in water is due to
(4) Decolourise the litmus
(1) Low molecular weight
3. Ethanamine can be obtained if the following (2) Ethyl group is present in ethyl alcohol
compound is heated with [KOH + Br2] (3) Formation of H–bonding with water
(1) Ethanamide (2) Methanamide
(4) Being a derivative of ammonia
(3) Propionamide (4) All the above
12. Which of the following compound liberates CO2
P2O5 Na / EtOH
4. CH3CONH2 ¾¾¾I ® A ¾¾¾¾¾ II ® B when treated with NaHCO3
Reaction II is called (1) CH3COCH2NH2 (2) CH3NH2
(1) Clemensen Å 1 Å 1
(3) (CH3 )4NOH (4) CH3NH3Cl
(2) Stephen
(3) Mendius 13. The product obtained by the alkaline hydrolysis of
(4) Bauveault–blank reduction C2H 5—N C O when treated with t–butyl
magnesiumbromide, the compound obtained will be
5. Tertiary amine is obtained in the reaction :-
(1) t–butylamine (2) n–butylamine
(1) Aniline ¾¾¾®
CH3 I CH3 I
¾¾¾®
(3) Isobutane (4) n–butane
(2) Aniline ¾¾¾®
CH3 I
HNO 2
a
C6 H5 CHO
(3) Nitrobenzene ¾¾¾¾®
Sn / HCl b
14. C2H5NH2 ¾¾® NOCl
c
(4) None of the above C6H5SO 2Cl d
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\08_AMINES.P65
6. C2H5NH2 cannot be prepared by the reduction of Which product is a Schiff's base :-

(1) C2H5NO2 (2) CH3CH NOH
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
(3) C2H5NC (4) CH3CN
7. Gabriel reaction for the synthesis of amines, involves 15. Acidic nature of amino group is shown by the
the use of reaction :-
(1) 1° amide (2) 2° amide (1) R–NH2 + NOCl ® RCl + N2 + H2O
(3) Imides (4) Aliphatic amide (2) 2RNH2 + 2Na ® 2RNH.Na + H2
(3) R.CH2NH2 + HNO2 ® R.CH2OH + N2+ H2O
8. Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used in the synthesis
of Å Θ
(4) R.NH2 + HCl ® RNH3 C l
(1) Primary aromatic amines
(2) Secondary amines 16. The reagent used in the conversion of C2H5NH2
to C2H5Cl would be
(3) Primary aliphatic amines
(4) Tertiary amines (1) SO2Cl2 (2) SOCl2
(3) NOCl (4) All
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

17. Hydrogen attached to nitrogen is released in the 24. Reaction C6H5NH2 + HAuCl4 ¾¾¾®
reaction Å 1
[C6H5NH3]AuCl4 shows ... behaviour of aniline :-
(1) RCONH2 + NaNH2
(1) Acidic (2) Neutral
(2) RNH2 + Na
(3) Both the above (3) Basic (4) Amphoteric
(4) None of the abvoe 25. Aniline on treatment with bromine water yields white
18. If primary amines are treated with ketones the precipitate of :-
product is (1) o–Bromoaniline
(1) Urea (2) Guanidine
(2) p–Bromonailine
(3) Amide (4) Schiff's base
(3) 2, 4, 6–Tribromoaniline
19. Reactants of reaction – I are
(4) m–Bromoaniline
CH3CONH2, KOH, Br2
Reactants of reaction–II are 26. Which compound does not show diazo coupling
CH3NH2, CHCl3, KOH reaction :-
The intermediate species of reaction–I and reaction–

(1) –NH2
II are respectively
(1) Carbonium ion, carbene
(2) H3C– –NH2
(2) Nitrene, carbene
(3) Carbene, nitrene
(3) O2N– –NH2
(4) Carbocation, carbanion
20. This compound does not respond to carbylamine
(4) –CH2–NH2
reaction :-
(1) CH3–CH–NH2 (2) C2H5–NH–C2H5 27. Which of the following amines give N–nitroso
CH3 derivative with NaNO2 and HCl :-
(1) C2H5NH2 (2) NH2

CH3
(3) CH3–C–NH2 (4) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 R
CH3 NH2 (3) (4) NH2
N H
21. Blue litmus can be turned to red by the compound 28. Which of the following does not reduce Tollen's
(1) ROH (2) RNH2 reagent :- Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\08_AMINES.P65
Å 1 Å 1 (1) CH3CHO (2) HCOOH

(3) R N H3 OH (4) R N H3 Cl
(3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NH2
22. Which one of the following amine compound gives
29. Aniline can be obtained by :-
alcohol with HNO2 :-
(1) N,N–Dimethylaniline (2) Benzylamine (1) Benzoyl chloride and ammonia
(3) N–methylaniline (4) Aniline (2) Reduction of benzamide

(3) Phenol and ammonia in presence of ZnCl2
Br / CCl
23. C6H5NH2 ¾¾¾¾¾
2 4
® ? The product is :- (4) Benzoic anhydride and ammonia
(1) Only o– bromoaniline 30. Aniline on direct nitration produces :-
(2) 2, 4, 6–triboromoaniline (1) o–Nitroaniline
(2) m–Nitroaniline
(3) o–and p–bromoaniline
(3) p–Nitroaniline
(4) Only p–bromoaniline
(4) All
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

31. Nitration of acetanilide followed by hydrolysis gives NaNO2 / HCl Water
37. f—X ¾¾¾¾¾ D ® f—Y,,
® C 6H 5N 2Cl ¾¾¾¾
¾
(1) o–Nitroaniline only
(2) p–Nitroaniline only In the above sequence X and Y are :-
(3) o– & p–Nitroaniline (1) o–, p– and m–directing
(4) o–Nitroanilinium ion
(2) o–, p– and o–, p–directing
32. NaNO2 / HCl

C6H5NH2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® A, Which is the incorrect (3) m and m directing
0- 5° C
(4) m and o, p directing
structure of the product 'A' :-
Å 1 Å 1
38. Which of the following compound gives an explosive
(1) [C6H5 N N]Cl (2) [C6H5N2]Cl on decarboxylation :-
Å 1 Å 1 (1) 2,4, 6–Trinitrobenzoicacid
(3) [C6H5 N N]Cl (4) [C6H5 N N]Cl
(2) 2, 4–Dinitrobenzoicacid
33. Chloroform and ethanolic KOH is used as a reagent
(3) o–Aminobenzoicacid
in the following reaction :-
(4) o–Hydroxybenzoicacid
(a) Hoffmann carbylamine reaction
39. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union
(b) Hoffmann degradation reaction
Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was:-
(c) Reimer–Tiemann reaction
(1) Methylisocyanate
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction (2) Methylamine
Code is :- (3) Ammonia
(1) Only for a (2) Only for a and b (4) Phosgene
(3) Only for b and d (4) Only for a and c
CH3
34. Acetanilide when treated with bromine in acetic acid reduction
40. CH3–C–NC ¾¾¾® ?
mainly gives :- CH3
(1) o–Bromoacetanilide
(2) N–Bromoacetanilide CH3 CH3
(3) p–Bromoacetanilide (1) CH3–C–NH2 (2) CH3–C–NH–CH3

CH3 CH3
(4) m–Bromoacetanilide
35. Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by CH3

reaction (3) CH3–C–NH–CH 2CH3 (4) None
CH3
(1) ArX + KCN (2) ArN+2 + CuCN
(3) ArCONH2 + P2O5 (4) ArCONH2 + SOCl2 41. Reaction of RCN with sodium and alcohol leads to
the formation of :-
36. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded end product D
(1) RCONH2 (2) RCOO–NH4+
NH2 H2 (3) RCH2NH2 (4) R(CH2)3NH2
NaNO2 + HCl
¾¾¾¾¾
0–5ºC
CuCN
® A ¾¾¾¾ ® B ¾¾¾
Ni
®
SnCl2 / HCl
42. C6H5NO2 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® A ¾¾¾¾¾
NaNO2 / HCl
0° C
® B; In the
C ¾¾¾¾
® D
HNO2
above sequence Benzene from B, is suitably

The structure of the product D would be obtained by using :-
(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH2NH2 (1) Ethanol (2) H3PO2
(3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3 (3) Both the above (4) Methanol
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

43. Which reagent is used to get iodo benzene from 45. In the Sandmeyer's reaction, —N N—X group of
benzene diazonium acid sulphate [C6H5N2HSO4] : diazonium salt is replaced by :-
(1) CuBr, D (2) Cu powder + HI (1) Halide group (2) Nitro group
(3) KI, D (4) None
(3) —OH group (4) —NHNH2 group
44. Which of the following is used as a solvent in the
Friedel–Crafts reaction :-
(1) Toluene (2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Benzene (4) Aniline
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 3 2 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
BIOMOLECULES, POLYMER & CHEMISTRY IN EVERY DAY LIFE

EXERCISE
1. The nitrogenous base having two possible hydrogen 7. The cell membranes are mainly composed of –
bonding sites is – (1) Phospholipids (2) Proteins
(1) Thymine (2) Cytosine (3) Fats (4) Carbohydrates
(3) Guanine (4) None
8. Which is simplest amino acid –
2. The correct statement in respect of protein
(1) Alanine (2) Asparagine
haemoglobin is that it –
(3) Glycine (4) Tyrosine
(1) Maintains blood sugar level
(2) Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood 9. Which of the following biomolecules is insoluble in
(3) Forms antibodies and offers resistance to water –
diseases (1) a–Keratin (2) Haemoglobin
(4) acts as a catalyst for biological reactions (3) Ribonuclease (4) Adenine
3. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose

10. The presence or absence of hydroxy group on which
to glycogen is –
carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA ?
(1) Bile acids (2) Adrenaline rd th st nd
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2
(3) Insulin (4) Cortisone
11. The change in the optical rotation of freshly
4. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by – prepared solution of glucose is known as :-
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) ether bonds (1) tautomerism (2) racemisation
(3) peptide bonds (4) dipeptide bonds (3) specific rotation (4) mutarotation
5. Which of the following structures represents the 12. Which one of the following bases is not present in
peptide chain – DNA ?
H H (1) Cytosine (2) Thymine
N C C C C N C C C (3) Quinoline (4) Adenine
(1)
O 13. Lysine; H2N–(CH2)4–CH–COOH is :-
H H H O NH2
(2) N C C N C C N C C (1) a-Amino acid
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\09_BIOMOLECULES.P65
(2) g-amino acid

O O
(3) Amino acid synthesised
H O H
(4) b-Amino acid
(3) N C C C N C C N C C C
14. In fibrous protein, polypeptide chains are held
H O toegether by :-
H O (1) H-bond
(4) N C N C NH C NH (2) Disulphide linkage
O H (3) Electrostatic forces attraction

(4) 1 and 2 both
6. Which functional group participates in disulphide
15. Which is correct in following –
bond formation in proteins –
(1) Monosaccharides also known as sugars
(1) Thioether (2) Thiol
(2) Polysaccharides are non sugars
(3) Thioester (4) Thiolactone
(3) Maltose and Lactose are reducing sugar
(4) All of these
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

16. Structure of glycogen is similar to :- (3) those which have equal number of amino acid
(1) Alylose (2) Amylopectin and carboxyl groups
(3) Cellulose (4) Glucose (4) None of these
17. Which of the following gives osazone different from 27. Which of the following is not essential amino acid –
the other three :- (1) Serine (2) Lysine
(1) Glucose (2) Mannose
(3) Threonine (4) Tryptophan
(3) Galactose (4) Fructose
28. In acidic & alkaline solution amino acids exists as a –
18. Anomers of glucose (a-form & b-form) are differ in
(1) Positive ion & negative ion respectively
the stereochemistry at which carbon –
(2) Negative ion & positive ions respectively
(1) C-1 (2) C-2
(3) C-3 (4) All of these (3) Neutral in both medium
19. Sucrose in presence of invertase on hydrolysis gave – (4) None of these

29. In which of following shapes are found in tertiary
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
structure of proteins –
(3 Ethyl alcohol (4) 1 & 2 both
(1) Fibrous (2) Globular
20. Which of the following B group vitamins can be
stored in our body. (3) Both of these (4) None of these
(1) Vitamin B1 (2) Vitamin B2 30. The example of globular protein is
(3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B12 (1) Silk (2) Collagen
21. Which of the following are polysaccharides – (3) Haemoglobin (4) All of these
31. If a native protein is subjected to physical or chemi-
(a) Starch (b) cellulose
cal treatment which may disrupt its various forms
(c) dextrins (d) glycogen
without affecting its primary structure, are called –
(1) a, b & c (2) a, b, d (1) Inactive protein
(3) a & c (4) a,b, c, d (2) Denatured protein
(3) Both of these
22. Cellulose can not be tested by followings –
(4) None of these
(1) Fehling's solution (2) Tollen's reagent
32. The coagulation of egg protein while boiling of egg
(3) Both of these (4) None of these
is called –
23. On hydrolysis of proteins, the product is/are – (1) Reversible protein denaturation
(1) Amino acids (2) Peptides (2) Irreversible protein denaturation
(3) Enzymes (4) 1 & 2 both (3) Renaturation Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\09_BIOMOLECULES.P65
(4) None of these

24. Which of the following do not have hemiacetal group:-
33. An enzyme molecule may contain protein and
(1) Fructose (2) Maltose
non-protein part. Non-protein part is known as:-
(3) Sucrose (4) Glucose
(1) Holoenzyme (2) Cofactor
25. In amino acids, more number of amino than car- (3) Inverted enzyme (4) None of these
boxyl groups makes it – 34. Cofactor which gets attached to the enzyme at the
(1) acidic (2) Basic time of reaction are known as
(3) Neutral (4) None of these (1) Coenzymes (2) Apoenzyme
(3) Prothetic group (4) None of these
26. Which amino acids are called non essential – 35. Mainly DNA is localized in –
(1) those which can be synthesized in the body. (1) Cytoplasm (2) Nucleus
(2) those which have more amino groups as com- (3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplasts
pared to carboxyl groups
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

36. RNA contains following pyrimidine bases – 47. Weakest intermolecular forces are present in :-
(a) Thymine (b) Uracil (1) Neoprene (2) Terylene
(3) Polystyrene (4) Bakelite
(c) Cytosine (d) Adenine
48. Thermosetting polymer, Bakelite is formed by the
(1) b & c (2) a, b, c reaction of phenol with :-
(3) a, b, d (4) All of these (1) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3CHO
37. DNA molecules can duplicate themselves-called –
(3) HCHO (4) HCOOH
(1) Replication (2) Translation
(3) Transcription (4) None of these 49. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer?
38. Which of the following carbohydrates are branched (1) Teflon (2) Acrylonitrile
polymer of glucose. (3) Dacron (4) Neoprene
50. Novolac is a :
(1) Glycogen (2) Amylopectin
(1) linear polymer of urea and formaldehyde
(3) Cellulose (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) crosslink polymer of urea and formaldehyde
39. Vitamin K
(3) linear polymer of phenol and formaldehyde
(1) Is phylloquinone
(4) crosslink polymer of phenol and formaldehyde
(2) Soluble in oils and fats
51. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic polymer.
(3) Deficiency lenthens the blood clotting
(1) cis-polyisoprene (2) cellulose nitrate
(4) All of these
(3) cellulose acetate (4) valcanised rubber
40. Which of the following is not an amino acid
(1) Histidine (2) Benzidine 52. Branched chain polymer is-
(3) Alanine (4) Proline (1) High density polythene
41. Vitamin C is called : (2) Low density polythene
(1) Antisterility (2) Antiscurvy (3) Poly vinyl chloride
(3) both of these (4) None of these
(4) Bakelite
42. Reducing sugars are one which :
(1) reduce fehling's solutions 53. Mechanical properties like tensile strength,
(2) not reduce tollen's reagent elasticity, toughness etc, are governed by
(3) Have bonded aldehydic or ketonic groups intermolecular forces. These intermolecular forces
(4) All of these are -
43. Multiple deficiencies caused by lack of more than (1) Hydrogen bond (2) Vander waals force
one vitamin are more common in human beings. (3) Both of these (4) None of these
This condition of vitamin deficiency is known as 54. Monomer unit of Nylon-6,6 is/are -
(1) avitaminosis (2) xerophthalmia
(1) Adipic acid
(3) convulsions (4) None of these

44. Which vitamin is synthesize in human body from (2) 1,4-butamethylene diamine
carotene (3) Caprolactum
(1) Vitamin-A (2) Vitamin-C (4) All of these
(3) Vitamin-K (4) All of these 55. Which of following polymer is used as glass
45. Which of the following is correct about H–bonding reinforcing materials in safety helmets-
in nucleotide – (1) Terylene (2) Teflon
(1) A–T G–C (2) A–G T–C
(3) Terephthalic acid (4) Ethylene glycol
(3) G–T A–C (4) A–A T–T
56. Polymer used in radio and television cabinets-
46. Which of the following is monomer unit of (1) PVC (2) Polystyrene
polystyrene :-
(3) Polypropene (4) Glyptal
(1) –CH2–CH– (2) –CF2–CF2–
CN 57. Aspirin is also known as –
(1) Methyl salicyclic acid (2) acetyl salicylate
(3) –CH2–CH– (4) –CH–CH2–
(3) Methyl salicylate (4) Acetyl salicylic acid
Cl C6H5
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

58. Paracetamol is :- 67. Which chemical is responsible for mood change.
(1) Analgesic (2) Antipyretic (1) Noradrenaline (2) Dimetapp
(3) Both (4) Antiseptic (3) Seldane (4) All
68. Which is not an example of tranquilizer
COOH
OCOCH3 (1) Iproniazid (2) Phenelzine
59. is used as (3) Ofloxacin (4) Barbiturates
69. Morphine is used in
(1) Antiseptic (2) Analgesic (1) Cardiac pain (2) Terminal cancer
(3) Antibiotic (4) Micro organism (3) Child birth (4) All
60. Which among the following is a tranquilizer ? 70. The first effective antibacterial agent discovered by
(1) Equanil (2) promethazine Ehrlich
(3) Omeprazole (4) Cimetidine (1) Prontosil (2) Azo dye
61. Which is incorrect statement ? (3) Salvarsan (4) Penicillin
(1) Drugs are chemicals of low molecular masses 71. Which is not Bactericidal antibiotic.
(100-500 m) (1) Penicillin (2) Aminoglycosides
(2) When drugs interact with macromolecular target (3) Ofloxine (4) Erythromycine
and produce a biological responce, they are
called as potential poisons 72. Which is not Bacteriostatic antibiotic.
(1) Erythromycin (2) Penicillin
(3) Use of chemicals for threrapeutic effect is called
chemotherapy (3) Tetracycline (4) Chloromphenicol
(4) Medicines are used in diagnosis, prevention and 73. Which broad spectrum antibiotic is given orally in
treatment of diseases case of typhoid and dysentery.
62. Drugs which interfere with natural action of (1) Ampicillin (2) Amoxycilline
histamine by competing with histamine are called. (3) Ofloxacin (4) Chloromphenicol
(1) Antidepressant (2) Antihistamine 74. Find incorrect match
(3) Antimicrobial (4) Antipyretic Drug Category
(1) Chlordiazepoxide Tranquilizer
63. Barbituric acid and its derivative constitutes an
important class of (2) Chloramphenicol Antibiotic
(1) Narcotic analgesic (2) Antiallergic (3) Veronal Antiseptic

(4) Sulphanilamide Antibiotic
(3) Tranquilizers (4) Antimicrobial
75. Find incorrect match
64. Drugs bind to a site (other than enzyme's active
site). This site is named is. Drug Treatment of
(1) Competitive site (2) Allosteric site (1) Salvarsan Syphilis

(2) Chloramphenicol Typhoid
(3) Non-active site (4) Super active site
(3) Morphine Cardiac pain
65. Name of drug that bind to the receptor site and
inhibit its natural function (4) Mixture of Mg(OH)2 Analgesic
(1) Antagonist and Al(OH)3

76. Which artificial sweetener is of great value to
(2) Antireceptor
diabetic person.
(3) Antacid
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin
(4) Non-additive analgesic (3) Sucrose (4) Alitame
66. First popular antacid drug was 77. Which is mild tranquilizer used in controlling
(1) Cimetidine (2) Ranitidine depression and hypertension.
(1) Meprobamate (2) Norethindrone
(3) Zantac (4) Equanil
(3) Ethynylestradiol (4) Terpineol
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

78. 0.2% solution of phenol and 0.2-0.4 ppm chlorine 84. Soap are sodium or potassium salt of fatty acid
in aqueous solution respectively behave as. unlike.
(1) Antiseptic, Disinfectant (1) Palmitic acid (2) Oleic acid
(2) Disinfectant, Antiseptic
(3) 1 & 2 (4) Maleic acid
(3) Disinfectant, Antacid
85. Which enhance lathering property of soap.
(4) Antiseptic, Antacid
(1) Sodium carbonate
79. The first popular artificial sweetening agent is.
(2) Sodium rosinate
(1) Saccharin (2) Asparfame
(3) Sodium stearate
(3) Alitame (4) Sucralose
(4) Trisodium phosphate
80. Which is stable at cooking temperature & doesn’t
provide calories. 86. To make soft soap, saponification contain.
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin (1) NaOH (2) KOH
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame (3) Glycesol (4) Glycol
81. Highest sweetness value found in 87. Hair conditioners contain which kind of detergent.
(1) Aspartame (2) Alitame (1) Cationic (2) Anionic
(3) Saccharin (4) Sucralose (3) Non ionic (4) All
82. Which sweetening agent is used in soft drinks. 88. Which is used as food preservatives
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin (1) NaCl (2) Sugar
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame (3) Vegetable oil (4) All
83. Which is unstable at cooking temperature 89. Which is added to soap to impart antiseptic
properties.
(1) Aspartame (2) Alitame
(1) Bithionol (2) Soframycin
(3) Saccharin (4) All
(3) Glycol (4) Ethanol
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 3 1 4 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 1 4 4 4 3 4 3 2 1 1 1 3 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 1 1 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 2 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 4 2 4 3 4
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89
Ans. 2 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 4 2 2 1 4 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC COMPOUND
EXERCISE
1. In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen 7. In Duma’s method and Kjeldahl’s method,
0.4 gm of an organic compound gave 60 ml of respectively nitrogen present is estimated as :
nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and (1) N2, NH3 (2) NH3, N2
720 mm pressure. Calculate the percentage
(3) NO2, NH3 (4) N2, N2
composition of nitrogen in the compound : (Aqueous
8. The sodium extract of an organic compound on
tension at 300 K = 20 mm)
acidified with acetic acid and addition of lead acetate
(1) 16.72% (2) 15.93%
solution gives a black precipitate. The organic
(3) 15.72% (4) 7.46% compound contains :
2. Carbon and hydrogen are estimated in organic (1) Nitrogen (2) Halogen
compounds by :
(3) Sulphur (4) Phosphorous
(1) Kjeldahl’s method (2) Duma’s method
9. Wh en N and S both are present in an
(3) Liebig’s method (4) Carius method organic compound, the sodium extract with FeCl3
3. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen will gives :
fail in case of : (1) Green colour (2) Blue colour
(1) NH2CONH2 (3) Yellow colour (4) Red colour
(2) NH2CONHNH2.HCl 10. During Lasaigne’s test nitrogen containing organic
(3) NH2NH2.HCl compound when fused with sodium metal forms ‘X’
(4) C6H5NHNH2.2HCl while sulphur containing organic compound. When
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\10_QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC COMPOUND.P65

4. In a Lassaigne’s test for sulphur in the organic fused with sodium metal forms ‘Y’. Then identify X
compound with sodium nitroprusside solution the and Y :
violet colour formed is due to : (1) X = NaCN ; Y = Na2S
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (2) X = NaNC, Y = Na2S
(2) Na3[Fe(CN)5S] (3) X = NaNO2, Y = Na2SO4
(3) Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS] (4) X = NaCN ; Y = Na2SO4
(4) Na3[Fe(CN)6] 11. In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is fused
5. During Lassaigne’s test, N and S present individually with sodium metal as to :
in an organic compound changes into : (1) Hydrolyse the compound
(1) Na2S and NaCN (2) Form a sodium derivative
(2) NaSCN (3) Burn the compound
(3) Na2SO4 and NaCN (4) convert nitrogen, sulphur or halogen if present
(4) Na2S and NaCNO into soluble ionic sodium compound
6. The purpose of boiling sodium extract with conc. 12. A sample of 0.5 g of an organic compound was
HNO3 before testing for halogen is : analysed using Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia
evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4.
(1) to make solution acidic
the unsused acid after neutralisation by ammonia
(2) to make solution clear consumed 80 ml of 0.5N NaOH. Then calculate
(3) to convert Fe+2 to Fe+3 percentage of nitrogen in organic compound :
(4) to convert NaCN to HCN and Na2S to H2S so (1) 28 (2) 42
that they do not interfere with AgNO3 (3) 56 (4) 26
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

13. In Kjeldahl’s method used for estimation of nitrogen, 15. 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested
ammonia evolved from 0.6 g of sample of organic according to Kjeldahl's method and the ammonia
compou nd n eutr alised evolved was absorbed in 60 mL of M/10 H2SO4
20 ml of 1 N H2SO4. Then calculate % of nitrogen solution. The excess sulphuric acid requires 20 mL
in that compound : of M/10 NaOH solution for neutralisation. The
(1) 37.33 (2) 46.67 percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(3) 45.77 (4) 43.33 (1) 3 (2) 5
14. In the estimation of sulphur by carius method (3) 24 (4) 10

0.480 g of organic compound give 0.699 g of 16. In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen
Barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 ml of
compound is (Atomic masses ; Ba = 137, nitrogen collected at 300 K temp. and 715 mm
S = 32, O =16) pressure. The percentage of nitrogen in compound is
(1) 15% (2) 35% (aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
(3) 20% (4) 30% (1) 15.45 (2) 16.45

(3) 17.45 (4) 14.45
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\10_QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC COMPOUND.P65
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 3 1 4 1 3 4 1 4 1 2 3 4
Que. 16
Ans. 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS

CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE 22. (A) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
n-Pentyl alcohol
5. CH2=CH–CºCH ¾¾¾¾
+2(CH2 )
® C6H8
(B) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–OH isopentyl alcohol
First member Third member of Alkenyne
of Alkenyne CH3
C4H4
CH3
18. CH3 C O CH CH2 (C) CH3–C–CH2–OH Neopentyl alcohol
O CH3
Vinyl acetate
(D) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–OH active pentyl alcohol
3 2 1 CH3
23. CH3–CH–CH2–Cl
CH3 24. * *
CH3–CH=CH–CH–CH–CH3
Isobutyl chloride OH OH
IUPAC Name 1-Chloro-2-methyl propane
* Þ Chiral carbon
CH3 S.I. = 23 = 8 Ö Þ G.I. center
25. H3C–CH–CH2–CH–CH2–CH3
6 5 4 3 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
H3C–CH–CH3 15. Carboxylic acid in water releases proton, so most
2 1 acidic compound will be the most highly ionized in
IUPAC : 3-Ethyl-2, 5-dimethylhexane
–I Cl
2 1
27. CH3 CH2 CH2 C COOH water i.e., CH3–CH2–C–COOH
OHC C CH2 CH3 –I Cl

3 4 5 Å
Å Å Å
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
34. CH3
3 21. (1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4
1 CH2–CH3 Cl NO2 OCH3

5
6 (–I, +M) (–I, –M) (–I, +M)
(–I > +M) (+M > –I)
IUPAC : 5-Ehyl-3-methylcyclohex-1-ene
Most stable
(CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2 « H3C–CH–CH–CH3 Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\11-SOLUTIONS.P65
43. 25. In vinyl chloride (CH2=CH–Cl) C-Cl bond is having
CH3 CH3 double bond character due to resonance, while in
IUPAC ® 2, 3-Dimethyl butane rest of the compound C-Cl bond is pure single bond.
ISOMERISM CH2–CH2 CH2
CH3 28. (1) (2)

|
2. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3 CH3–CH–CH3 No resonance Resonance
n-butane isobutane
CH2 CH 2
19. Each compound have three double bond and each
double bond in second compound show geometrical (3) (4)
isomerism and cis representation.
21. Option three have –OH group gauche (stabilised OCH3 NO2
+M –M
by H-bonding) and –CH3 group anti (minimum
(Most stable)
repulsion). So, it is most stable.
Stability of carbonion µ –M, –I
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

29. Most stable carbocation is tropylium ion i.e., 36. Reactivity µ stability of intermediate carbocation
CH3
Ph–CH=CH2
+ Ph–C=CH–CH3
(stabilised by aromaticity) (I) E +
(II) E
+
CH3
31. CH3—O—CH2 is stabilised by resonance so it is Ph–CH–CH2 Ph–C–CH–CH3
+
more stable than CH3—CH2 (a) E (b) E
49. Basic strength µ + M, + H, + I Ph–C=CH–CH3 CH2=CH–NO2

+ +
Ph E (III) (IV) E
1
µ
-M, -I, -H + +
Ph–C – CH–CH3 CH2–CH–NO2
NH2 NH2 NH2 Ph E E
(c) (d)
Stability order c > b > a > d
Reactivity order III > II > I > IV
CH3 NO2
38. A is * *
(+H) (–M) CH—CH—COOH
Br Br
55. Stability of Alkene µ H-effect µ Number of aH
OH
39. dil
HYDROCARBON CH3—CH=CH2 CH3—CH—CH3 (A)
H2SO4
Mixed kolbe OH
– + electrolysis
– + B2H6 H2O2
2. CH3–CH2–COOK + CH3–CH–CH2–COOK CH3—CH=CH2 CH3—CH2—CH2 (B)
Reaction H2SO4 –OH
CH3
A and B are not chain isomers. A and B are
isomers of CH3—CH2—O—CH3
CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3 + CH3—CH2—CH2—CH—CH3 (i.e. mixed ether)
n-Butane Isohexane CH3 Light
54. CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3 + Br2
+ CH3—CH—CH2—CH2—CH—CH3 CH3—CH2—CH—Br
CH3 CH3 CH3
56. Reactivity (ESR) µ e density in the ring
–
2,5-Dimethylhexane
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\11-SOLUTIONS.P65
—CH3
4. Isobutane is unsymmetrical alkane, so it not
(Maximum hyperconjugation)
prepared by wurtz reaction. 3 a –H
KMnO 4
15. CH3—C=CH2 CH3—C=O + [HCOOH] d–
[O] Cl
CH3 CH3 63. (Due to +M/+R of –Cl)
Acetone CO2
d– d–
27.
HALOGEN DERIVATIVES
NH 3/NaNH2 –+
Me—CH2—Cº CH Me—CH2—Cº CNa
1. Cl– can not substitute –OH because here –OH is
(A)
not a good leaving group.
Et–Br
Me—CH2—Cº C–Et 4. CH3—CH—Z or CH3—C—Z group give yellow
(B) OH O
ppt but Z should not have L.P.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Å
31. Nature of Alcohol Time with Lucas reagent
CH 3
Å
> Å > Å
> CH –C–CH to develope turbidity
7. 3 2
CH2
CH 3 1) 1° Alcohol ® after 30 minute
(isobutyl alcohol)
Aromatic
2) 2° Alcohol ® after 5 minute
carbocation
(2-Butanol)
–d +d
14. R -/ Mgx + R ' - NH2 3) 3° Alcohol ® Instant (rqjUr)
(Base) (active hydrogen compound) t-Butyl alcohol,

Acid base Rx 4) Diphenyl carbinol ® Instant (rqjUr)
R–H (Alkane)
CARBONYL COMPOUNDS, ACID AND IT'S
21. –CCl3 gp is meta-directing
DERIVATIVES
23. SN1 reaction
32. Rate of SN1 µ stability of carbocation O
H 2O
+ – 4. CH3–CºN+CH3–Mg–I CH3–C–CH3
Alc. K–OH +
¾¾¾¾¾®
E2 elimination
36. Br Cis Trans O
s-butyl bromide (i) I2
12. CH3–CH=CH–CH2–C–CH3
+NaOH
ALCOHOL, ETHER AND PHENOL

O O
+ –
(ii) H +
PBr3 Alc. KOH CH3–CH=CH–CH2–C–OH CH3–CH=CH–CH 2–C–ONa
1. CH3–CH2–OH ¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®
Nucleophilic CH3–CH2–Br Elimination +
substitution
CHI3
Br
Br2
CH2=CH2 ¾¾¾®
Electrophilic CH2–CH2 17. R–CH=O+H2N–R' ¾® R–CH=N–R'
addition
Br Imine
OH O (i) CH –NH N–CH3

6. H
Å
25.
CH3–CH=CH2 + H2O ¾® CH3–CH–CH3
3 2
RDS Å Å Nucleophilic
H H2O
Electrophile
CH3–CH–CH3 Å attack (ii) LiAlH4
–H
attack (iii) H2O Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SPARK KOTA\CHEMISTRY\ENG\ORGANIC\01-XI-XII\11-SOLUTIONS.P65
NH–CH3
This is example of electrophilic addition reaction.
H
O 26.
OH O OH
N
dil HNO
¾¾¾® 3 O +
20. O OH Br
(P)
–d +d
Steam volutile NO2 H /H O
Å
HBr
+ CH3–MgBr ¾¾® 2
¾®
Hkki ok"ih; (Q) –H2O
3° Alc. Mg
23. CH2=CH2 ¾¾¾

® CH3–CH2–Br ¾¾¾¾
®
HBr C2 H5Na
O –d +d
CH2–OH H–C–H MgBr
CH3–CH2–O–C2H5 ¬¾ ¾¾ Å
H O/H
2
Ethoxyethane
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

+ –
O NH2 N2Cl CN CH2—NH2
SOCl2
38. CH3–COOH CH3–C–Cl NaNO2 CuCN H2
Anhyd. AlCl3 36. +HCl Ni
O
OH HNO 2
HCN C–CH3
C–CH3
CH2—OH
CN
+
H3O
OH
BIOMOLECULES, POLYMERS AND
C–CH3
CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
COOH (Refer to NCERT Book)
O O QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE

44. CH3–C–O–C–CH3 + C2H5–OH ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC COMPOUND
Acetic anhydride Ethanol WN 2 700
1. PV = RT P = 720 – 20 = Atm
CH3–C–O–C2H5 + CH3–COOH 28 760
O V = 60 ml = 0.060 L
T = 300 K
47. P2O5 Þ Dehydratioin agent
O
700 0.060 ´ 28
WN2 = ´ Wcompound = 0.4 gm
CHO COONa
Å 760 0.0821 ´ 300
48. NaOH H
¾®
Å
O
CHO
Cannizaro
reaction CH2OH
D
WN2 = 0.062 gm
–H2O
Estrification 0.062
%N = × 100 = 15.72%
0.4
NITROGEN CONTAINING COMPOUNDS
PO Na/E+OH 12. Total number of = Total number of eq of acid
4. CH3CONH2 ¾®
(I)
CH3–CN 2 5
(II) eq of base in
acid base titration
Dehydration CH3CH2NH2
Mendius reduction So Meq NH3 + Meq NaOH = Meq H2SO4
alkline hydrolysis
13. C2H5—N=C=O C2H5NH2 Meq NH3 + 0.5 × 80 = 0.5 × 2 × 50
CH3 CH3
Acid base rx. Meq NH3 = 50 – 40
CH3—C—MgBr + C2H5NH2 CH3—CH
Active Hydrogen
CH3 CH3 Meq NH3 = 10 (x factor = 1)
HNO 2 WN = 10 × 10–3 × 14
C2H5OH
14. C2H5NH2 Ph–CHO
0.14
C2H5N=CH–Ph %N = × 100 = 28%
0.50
NOCl
C2H5Cl 13. Meq NH3 = Meq H2SO4
C6H 5SO2Cl
C2H5NHSO2C6H5 Meq NH3 = 20 × 1 = 20 Meq
Å Θ
32. NaNO2 /HCl
C 6 H 5 NH 2 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® C 6 H 5 N2 Cl Mmol NH3 = Meq NH3 = Mmol N = 20
0.5° C
Å Θ WN = 20 × 10–3 × 14
[C6 H5 - N º N]Cl
Trivalent nitrogen with positive 0.28
%N = × 100 = 46.67%
charge is incorrect. 0.6
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

0.699 700
14. Mole of BaSO4 = Mole of S = 16. P = 715 – 15 = Atm
233 760
= 0.003 moles V = 55 ml = 0.0552
WS = 0.003 × 32 = 0.096 gm T = 300 K
WCompound = 0.35 gm
0.48
%S = × 100 = 20%
0.096 WN2
PV = ´ RT
15. Meq NH3 + Meq NaOH = Meq H2SO4 28
700 0.055 ´ 28
1 1 WN2 = ´
Meq NH3 + ´ 1 ´ 20 = ´ 2 ´ 60 760 0.0821 ´ 300
10 10
Meq NH3 = 12 – 2 = 10 Meq WN2 = 0.057 gm
Meq NH3 = Mmol NH3 = Mmol N = 10 0.057

%N = × 100 = 16.45%
0.35
WN = 10 × 10–3 × 14 gm
0.14
%N = × 100 = 10%
1.4

Merged

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Merged

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Contents 1. Basic Mathematics used in Physics

2. Units, Dimensions & Measurement 21

4. Laws of motion & Friction 50

5. Work, Energy & Power 71

7. Collisions & Centre of Mass 100

8. Rotational Motion 113

10. Properties of Matter & Fluid Mechanics 147

11. Thermal Physics 170

12. Oscillations 202

13. Wave Motion & Doppler's Effect 220

14. Solution 243

Find the value of ( 0.996 )

(1) -4 cos 4x + c (2) -4 sin 4x + c

7. Magnetic flux is given by f = 2t2 – 3t + 4, then find (3) x (4) x

(3) P / 2 (4) zero y-axis is :

A A A 52. ˆ is perpendicular to the

perpendicular to each other. The positive value of p p

55. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to F

their vector difference. In that case, the force :

-1 æ 1 ö æ 2ö (1) 14 unit (2) 5 3 unit

57. A vector A points vertically upward and B points

Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\01-BASIC MATHS_VECTOR.P65

(1) velocity (2) time (4) remains unchanged

(2) Every calculated physical quantity that is based (1) 2% (2) 1%

x1 a t1 x1 b t1 (2) in the ratio of square roots of integers 1, 2, 3,...

15. The initial velocity of particle is u and the acceleration

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) (4) t

v 20 of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as

27. A body starting from rest is moving under a constant

passes through a certain point above the ground

u2 u2 the particle is around the point :-

of a tower. It reaches the ground in t1 seconds. If it S

31. A ballon rises from ground with an acceleration of

32. A person walks along an east-west street and a graph

(1) 0 (2) 23 ms–1 35. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. The

33. A rocket is launched upward from the earth is

t Z:\NODE02\B0AI-B0\SPARK KOTA\PHYSICS\ENG\CLASS_XI\03-KINEMATICS AND PROJECTILE.P65

(3) 100 km (4) 60 km

40. A car moves on a straight track from station A to the

æ vö 53. Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities

67. A ball is thrown up at an angle 45° with the horizontal.

61. A boy throws a ball with a velocity u at an angle q

d (1) R = 4 H1H2 (2) R = 4(H1 – H2)

p (1) 6 m/s (2) 8 m/s

y1 y1 jection. Find initial speed of ball.

range on a horizontal plane is twice the greatest H

73. A number of bullets are fired in all possible directions x u

2. If the force of gravity suddenly disappears :-

1 (3) ( -32iˆ - 21j)

(1) 2 av2d cosq (2) av2d sinq t(s)

(3) 2 avd cosq (4) avd cosq

(1) 0·098 m/s (2) 0·98 m/s (3) ( )

(1) 5 kg (2) 6 kg (3) 7 kg (4) 10 kg Mg (m + M)g

(1) 2.3 Mg sin q (2) 1.3 Mg sin q

(1) Unchanged (2) Reduced

(c) T = R + W (d) R = W tan q

(1) F should be be more than the weight of A and B

(1) 30 N/m (2) 2500 N/m

string move downward with uniform speed v. Mass

2kg 2kg 3kg 2kg 1kg 2kg

34. Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are attached to the (1) x 1 = 0, x 3 > x 2