Human Resource Management 14th Edition Mathis Test Bank

Human Resource Management 14th
Edition Mathis Test Bank

Visit to download the full and correct content document: https://testbankdeal.com/dow
nload/human-resource-management-14th-edition-mathis-test-bank/
Chapter 7—Selecting Human Resources
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The process of choosing individuals with correct qualifications to fill jobs in an organization is called
_____.
a. recruitment
b. selection
c. job matching
d. attrition
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01
NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic TOP: Selection and Placement
KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
2. The purpose of selection is _____, fitting a person to the right job.

a. placement
b. orientation
c. recruitment
d. staffing
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01
3. More than anything else, placement of human resources should be seen as a(n):
a. public relations activity.
b. operating management responsibility.
c. matching process.
d. marketing tool.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01
4. Lack of fit between a person and a job is most likely to result from:
a. mistakes in evaluating the person’s KSAs.
b. improper employee training.
c. negligence of exit interviews.
d. a lack of a positive company “brand” that attracts qualified applicants.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01
5. Mark is unhappy with his new job as a first line supervisor at a call center. Mark finds the job boring
and longs for the end of his shift every day. He wants to apply for another job either within or outside
the organization. This is an example of:
a. a realistic job preview.
b. burnout.
c. negligent hiring.
d. a poor person/job fit.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01
KEY: Bloom's: Application
6. Voltra Inc. is planning to fill a number of openings for entry-level professionals. The selection process
is quite extensive and includes several levels of individual interviews, panel interviews, psychological
tests, and general ability tests. Much of the interview time is spent on the applicant’s philosophy of life
and work. Voltra is highly concerned about:
a. defining who is an applicant.
b. complying with EEO and ADA requirements.
c. person/organization fit.
d. matching the person to the job.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01
7. Jill graduated with an MBA during a severe economic recession. She accepted a job as a trainer for a
major national bank. Jill was one of the top candidates when she was hired by the bank. Three months
into her job, she feels that the individual bank customers are not valued, and that the bank engages in
misleading advertising. This is an example of:
a. poor person/organization fit.
b. a realistic job preview.
c. negligent hiring.
d. a snap judgment.
8. Ability, intelligence, and conscientiousness are all examples of:

a. elements of job performance.
b. selection criteria.
c. predictors of selection criteria.
d. soft skills.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01
9. Measurable or visible indicators of selection criteria are called:

a. reliable estimators.
b. predictors.
c. realistic job previews.
d. validators.
10. Mary, the recruiter for Aurora Borealis Lighting Inc., decides to hire an individual who has the ability
to learn on the job. They estimate it will be two years before the new hire will be fully productive.
Consequently, they are looking to hire a person who will be with the company for at least four or five
years. Mary suggests that they only hire applicants who have been with their previous employers for at
least two years, and who have not changed their jobs too frequently. Mary’s suggestion is an example
of a:
a. KSA.
b. soft skill.
c. realistic job preview.
d. predictor of selection criteria.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-01
11. In selection, validity refers to:

a. the strength of the correlation between a test score and a predictor.
b. the consistency with which the predictor actually tests the desired construct.
c. the applicant achieving approximately the same score in a test-retest situation.
d. the correlation between a predictor and job performance.
12. Which of the following is a feature about validity?

a. The EEOC prefers concurrent validity over predictive validity studies of predictors.
b. Concurrent validity studies take much longer than do predictive studies of predictors.
c. Concurrent validity studies use the employer’s existing employees to test whether certain
predictors are tied to performance levels.
d. Both concurrent and predictive validity tests can be accurately run with as few as 15
employees.
13. For the last five years, the HR manager at Fresh Foods has been asking all applicants to appear for a
test. The HR manager now intends to study the correlation between the test scores of those employees
that were hired and their performance appraisals and promotion records, and whether they have stayed
with the firm or have left. The HR manager is conducting a:
a. content validity test.
b. concurrent validity test.
c. face-validity test.
d. predictive validity test.
14. The _____ of a test is the extent to which a predictor repeatedly produces the same results over time.
a. reliability
b. test validity
c. consistency
d. predictability
15. In the _____ approach for combining predictors, a minimum cutoff score is set on each predictor, and
to be considered, each minimum level must be “passed.”
a. universal predictor
b. compensatory
c. multiple hurdles
d. matching
16. For the position of firefighter in Redville, the physical requirements are rigorous and the selection
process involves many ability tests. Mark has a hearing impairment. This impairment alone caused
him to be disqualified, even though Mark passed all the other physical tests and pencil-and-paper tests
that were conducted earlier. This is an example of:
a. the compensatory approach to selection.
b. poor person/organization fit.
c. discrimination under the ADA.
d. the multiple hurdles approach of combining predictors.
17. How does the compensatory approach combine predictors?

a. A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor
b. A higher score on one predictor offsets a lower score on another
c. The highest predictor scores for all test takers is used to set an average cutoff
d. Multiple hurdles are set to compensate for the different predictors
18. HR professionals are least likely to make the final hiring decisions when _____ positions are filled.
a. clerical
b. contract
c. entry-level
d. middle-management
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01
KEY: Bloom's: Comprehension
19. The purpose of a _____ is to give applicants an accurate idea of the positive and negative aspects of a
job so that they can more accurately evaluate the employment situation.
a. job specification
b. realistic job preview
c. truth-in-hiring approach
d. job analysis
NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic TOP: The Selection Process
20. What is the main purpose of preemployment screening?
a. To provide a realistic job preview and discourage potential applicants who would be
dissatisfied with the job
b. To identify applicants with arrest records and convictions
c. To determine if applicants meet the minimum qualifications for job openings
d. To obtain information for EEO and affirmative action reports
21. A new Gulf Coast casino plans to hire over 1,000 employees for its new resort. The casino’s HR
department requires applicants to complete an online questionnaire which is later analyzed using
computer software and only those applicants who have previously worked in hotels and casinos are
considered eligible for the next step in the hiring process. This is an example of a:
a. compensatory approach to selection.
b. realistic job preview.
c. preemployment screening process.
d. multiple hurdles approach to selection.
22. Which of the following is a fundamental purpose of an application form?

a. It forms the basis for an organization’s EEO/affirmative action plans.
b. It can be used as a defense in an ADA discrimination case.
c. It is a record of an employer’s desire to hire someone for an open position.
d. It acts as a basic employee record for applicants who are eventually hired.
23. _____ means that the employer or applicant has the right to terminate employment at any time with or
without notice or cause (where applicable by state law).
a. Employment-at-will
b. Right-to-work
c. Free agency
d. Contingency employment
24. Greta is the new HR manager at a small company. The previous HR manager had kept every scrap of
paper that crossed his desk during the last ten years but Greta is determined to clear out the
unnecessary documents. Greta knows she should keep all applications and hiring-related documents
and records _____ before they can be discarded.
a. for one year
b. for three years
c. for five years
d. for seven years
25. Roger, a new HR manager at Charlemagne Tools Inc., examines the application form that the company
has been using for the last two years. According to the guidelines set by the EEOC and various court
decisions, which of the following is an illegal question in the application form?
a. Have you ever been convicted of a felony?
b. Can you perform the duties of the job with accommodation?
c. What is your driver’s license number?
d. Who should we contact in case of emergency?
26. In verifying the identities and credentials of job applicants, employers must use the revised form I-9
for each employee hired and must:
a. permit annual audits of HR records by ICE agents.
b. send copies of all documents submitted by employees to the Immigration and
Naturalization Service within 48 hours of hiring.
c. determine whether a job applicant is a U.S. citizen, registered alien, or illegal alien, within
72 hours of hiring.
d. contact the Department of Homeland Security within 24 hours if an illegal alien applies
for a job with a government contractor in the transportation sector.
27. Kevin, a recent college graduate, applied for a job with a firm which provides security to high-profile
individuals. During the selection process, he was given a test for visual memory. Tests such as these
are classified as:
a. psychomotor ability tests.
b. cognitive ability tests.
c. illegal tests that discriminate against the disabled.
d. work sample tests.
NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic TOP: Selection Testing
28. _____ measure dexterity, hand-eye coordination, and arm-hand steadiness.

a. Physical ability tests
b. Work sample tests
c. Aptitude tests
d. Psychomotor tests
29. Amanda has applied for a job and has taken a number of selection tests. She has not been given a
conditional job offer. Which of the following tests can she refuse to take because it will be considered
illegal under the ADA?
a. A step test for endurance
b. An English fluency test
c. A test to demonstrate her ability to use photo editing software
d. An honesty test
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-03
30. An “in-basket” test is an example of a _____ test.

a. psychological
b. psychomotor
c. work sample
d. physical ability
31. A(n) _____ is a selection and development device composed of a series of evaluative exercises and
tests in which candidates are evaluated by a panel of trained raters.
a. situational judgment test
b. assessment center
c. panel interview
d. work simulation
32. The purpose of a(n) _____ is to obtain additional information on a candidate and to clarify information
gathered throughout the selection process.
a. personality test
b. application form
c. selection interview
d. polygraph
33. Kent and Julie are both recruiters for Sunspree Corp. When both of them interview the same applicant,
they often find that they have different opinions about the applicant’s potential as a future high
performer for Sunspree. Kent and Julie demonstrate:
a. low inter-rater reliability.
b. high inter-rater reliability.
c. high intra-rater reliability.
d. low intra-rater reliability.
34. Which of the following is true of all structured interviews?

a. All candidates meet with the same interviewer.
b. A set of standardized questions are asked of all job applicants.
c. Each candidate appears before a panel of interviewers.
d. Questions are designed to address all of the Big Five personality traits.
35. The great advantage of structured selection interviews over unstructured interviews is their:
a. naturalness and ability to set the candidate at ease.
b. effectiveness at organizational branding.
c. consistency in evaluation of candidates.
d. improvisational approach to gathering information about candidates.
36. The _____ interview is more reliable and valid than the others types of interviews.
a. sequential
b. nondirective
c. stress
d. structured
37. Gerard, a job applicant, was asked to appear for an interview by an organization. Gerard spent the first
15 minutes of the job interview relating details about his education and work experience to the
interviewer. This is a _____ interview.
a. behavioral
b. competency
c. biographical
d. non-directive
38. Patrick, a job applicant, was asked by his interviewer, “In your previous job, how did you handle
employees who were poor performers?” Based on this information, what type of interview did Patrick
attend?
a. Behavioral interview
b. Biographical interview
c. Nondirective interview
d. Situational interview
39. In her interview for a position as a bartender at a luxury hotel bar, Megan was asked “What would you
do if one of the customers started slurring her words and began making off-color jokes that other
customers in the bar could hear?” Such types of questions are typically asked in _____ interviews.
a. behavioral
b. nondirective
c. situational
d. stress
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-04
40. The selection process for hiring the assistant to the mayor of a large city includes giving the finalists
three hypothetical crisis scenarios. One deals with a terrorist threat at a sporting event, another deals
with a plane crash at the airport, and the third deals with a major earthquake. Each candidate must
describe her/his approach to handling the crisis, which will be recorded and evaluated by a panel. This
is an example of a:
a. competency interview.
b. behavioral interview.
c. stress interview.
d. situational interview.
41. Gisela has just finished her interview with the managing editor of a large city newspaper. She is
shaken and upset because the editor talked about her educational background in an insulting tone. He
also pressured her to answer confusing questions without allowing her time to collect her thoughts.
Given this scenario, Gisela most likely attended a _____ interview.
a. behavioral
b. nondirective
c. biographical
d. stress
42. Which of the following types of selection interviews is unstructured?

a. Behavioral interview
b. Situational interview
c. Competency interview
d. Nondirective interview
43. Anthony was interviewing an applicant to be a volunteer docent (instructor and tour guide) for a large
art museum. During the course of the interview, the applicant began to discuss her interest in
introducing young children to great works of art. Anthony followed up with several questions about
how young children react to art, why she felt early exposure to art was important, and how she would
design situations for children to experience art. Anthony was conducting a _____ interview.
a. behavioral
b. nondirective
c. stress
d. structured
44. The position for City Manager of Scenic River attracted many applicants. As part of the selection
process, the applicants each appeared one-by-one before the entire Scenic River Board of Aldermen
for an interview. This is an example of a _____ interview.
a. panel
b. mass
c. biographical
d. situational
45. The interior decorators, designers, and architects of WorldKraft Design work together in
self-managing work groups. This structure is key to the organization’s culture, and it is important that
new hires fit in with the work group to which they are assigned. In this case, it would be wise to use:
a. multiple-hurdle interviews.
b. stress interviews.
c. biographical interviews.
d. team interviews.
46. The problem of _____ occurs when interviewers make a decision on the job suitability of applicants
within the first few minutes of the interview and spend the balance of the interview looking for
evidence to support it.
a. cultural noise
b. snap judgment
c. stereotyping
d. negative emphasis
47. Which of the following occurs when an interviewer allows a positive characteristic about a job
applicant to overshadow other evidence?
a. Halo effect
b. Cultural noise
c. Similarity bias
d. Snap judgment
48. Which of the following occurs when interviewers favor or select people whom they believe to be like
themselves on the basis of a variety of personal factors?
a. Halo effect
b. Cultural noise
c. Similarity bias
d. First impression error
49. The main legal reason for performing a thorough background check of all applicants is:
a. to comply with the Immigration and Naturalization Act.
b. to avoid résumé fraud.
c. to prevent discrimination against protected classes.
d. to protect the organization against charges of negligent hiring.
NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic TOP: Background Investigations
50. A school district hired a school bus driver without conducting a multi-state criminal background
check; a background check was conducted only in the state in which the school was located.
Subsequently, the school bus driver was convicted of kidnapping one of the children who traveled in
his bus. The prosecution in the case revealed that the driver had been convicted ten years ago for a
similar case in another state. The school district is guilty of:
a. information falsification.
b. stereotyping.
c. compensatory hiring.
d. negligent hiring.
51. Angus has been a bus driver for a tour bus company for the last 15 years and has an excellent driving
record. Last year, Angus was on medical leave for 8 weeks due to a back injury which has left him in
chronic pain. If Angus has an accident while driving one of the tour buses because of the effects of his
prescription pain medication and if passengers are injured, the company might be liable for:
a. failure to conduct a thorough background check on Angus.
b. negligent hiring.
c. criminal negligence.
d. negligent retention.
52. Which of the following statements is true about medical examinations and inquiries?
a. A company may require applicants to take a drug test even before a conditional job offer
has been made.
b. A preemployment health checklist can be required of applicants before a job offer is made,
but physical medical exams cannot be requested until a job has been conditionally offered.
c. A drug test is considered a medical exam and cannot be administered unless a conditional
job offer has been made.
d. Companies may ask questions about an applicant’s current medical condition but not
about past medical problems, even after a conditional job offer has been made.
53. Morgan, the best candidate for the position of director of marketing, has tested positive for the
presence of illegal drugs in a hair sample. Given this scenario, the HR manager should:
a. notify Morgan that he was denied the job because of a positive drug test.
b. inform Morgan that someone else has been hired.
c. hire Morgan and inform him of the company’s Employee Assistance program.
d. ask Morgan to submit to a second type of drug test at another laboratory.
54. Carrie phoned an applicant’s former supervisor for a reference. The supervisor refuses to give any
information about the former employee. What mistake may Carrie have made?
a. She did not get a signed consent form from the applicant releasing the former supervisor
from liability.
b. She limited her request for information to dates of employment, positions held, and the
applicant’s previous job title rather than asking for particular examples of good or poor
performance.
c. She contacted the supervisor by phone rather than in writing or via email, thus opening the
supervisor to a charge of slander by the applicant.
d. Former supervisors rarely provide useful information, so it is not an effective use of
Carrie’s time to pursue this contact.
55. What is the main purpose of an applicant flow form?

a. To report applicant demographic data to the EEOC
b. To document that the employer asked each applicant to voluntarily provide demographic
data
c. To use the protected class status of individuals to make hiring decisions
d. To collect EEO data that the applicant is required by law to provide
NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic TOP: Legal Concerns in the Selection Process
TRUE/FALSE
1. In selection, a predictor is a characteristic that a person must have to perform a job successfully.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01

2. Reliability is the ability of a test to produce the same results repeatedly over time.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01

3. “Aaron might not be the sharpest person I know, since his cognitive scores are pretty low. But he
showed wonderful interpersonal skills with guests in our simulations. I suggest that we hire him, and
give him some intense training on our desk procedures.” This is an example of the compensatory
approach to combining predictors of work performance.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01

4. When operating managers are allowed to select their own staff, the effectiveness of the selection
process is enhanced because the operating managers have an instinctive feel for the type of employee
who would perform well in their department.

5. The brand of an organization is clarified and sharpened by realistic job previews that focus on both the
attractive and unattractive aspects of a job.

6. Courts have ruled that disqualification questions that screen out potential job applicants before the
individuals even fill out a job application are discriminatory.

7. Albert, a top-performing district manager, was fired when his employer learned that he had not
graduated with an MBA as Albert had indicated on his application form two years ago. The
employer’s application form contained a disclosure that falsification of application information was
grounds for termination. Albert’s attorney says that the employer’s termination of Albert is illegal
because application fraud is applicable only within the first year of employment with the employer.
Albert’s attorney is correct.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-02

8. According to the EEOC, if an applicant’s résumé voluntarily furnishes some information that cannot
be legally obtained, the employer should not use that information during the selection process.

9. If employers do not use E-Verify to determine if an applicant is legally permitted to work in the U.S.,
the employer is considered to be in technical violation of federal law and can be audited by U.S.
Immigration and Customs Enforcement.
10. Ernest is applying for a carpentry apprenticeship program. He must take a test involving mathematical
calculations including working with fractions and geometry. This is illegal because carpentry is a
manual labor job and these tests are cognitive and not job-related.

11. John has a minor hand tremor which affects his ability to write legibly. This hand tremor would most
likely lower John’s score on the MacQuarie Test for Mechanical Ability and disqualify him for jobs
requiring fine manual dexterity.

12. On the Big Five personality framework, Bob has tested as broad-minded, curious, and original, which
would mean that he is extroverted.

13. Organizations can use honesty/integrity tests to communicate to applicants and employees alike that
dishonesty will not be tolerated.

14. The Employee Polygraph Protection Act prohibits employers, including federal, state, and local
government agencies, from using polygraphs for preemployment screening purposes.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-03

15. In general, the more structured a type of selection interview, the more likely it is to be statistically
valid.

16. In a situational interview, applicants are required to give specific examples of how they have handled a
problem in the past.

17. A nondirective interview allows the interviewer to improvise and pursue interesting nonroutine
discussions. Consequently, the nondirective interview is more likely to turn up critical information that
can be compared across applicants than a prepared list of questions.

18. Listening responses such as mirroring and echoing may backfire for managers doing job interviews
because these responses give feedback to the applicant.

19. Interviewers are legally allowed to ask applicants questions about their national origin and marital
status.

20. It is legal for an employer to check a person’s Social Security number, motor vehicle records, and
military records when performing a background check on an applicant.

21. Negligent hiring occurs when an employer becomes aware that an employee may be unfit for
employment but continues to employ the person, and the person injures someone on the job.

22. The ADA prohibits the use of preemployment medical exams, except for drug tests, until a job has
been conditionally offered.

23. Jennifer, the HR employee of a company, sends an offer letter to the applicant who is significantly
more promising than any of the other applicants. The letter welcomes the applicant to the company,
and reads, “We look forward to many years of a mutually-beneficial, productive relationship.” This
language is appropriate because there is no offer of a permanent job.

24. The selection process for an international assignment should provide a realistic picture of the life,
work, and culture to which the employee may be sent.

NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic TOP: Global Staffing Issues
25. Poor adaptation of an expatriate’s spouse and/or family to the overseas location is a major factor in the
failure of expatriate assignments.

26. The United States is the only country which restricts the employment of foreign nationals by requiring
work permits and visas.

27. All U.S. EEOC regulations and laws apply to foreign-owned firms operating in the United States.

28. EEO laws require employers to collect data on race, sex, and other demographics about their
applicants but, legally, employers are not allowed to use this information in making hiring decisions
except in very limited circumstances.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-06

29. Since “soft skills” are difficult to test for, and interviewing for these skills often puts women
candidates at a disadvantage, the EEOC’s guidelines require that applicants be selected for quantifiable
or measurable “hard skills” only.

SHORT ANSWER
1. In the context of selection and placement, what is meant by the term “mismatch”?
ANS:
Lack of fit between KSAs and job requirements can be classified as a mismatch. A mismatch results
from poor pairing of a person’s needs, interests, abilities, personality, and expectations with
characteristics of the job, rewards, and the organization in which the job is located. The need to match
people and jobs on multiple dimensions makes placement difficult and complex.
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic
TOP: Selection and Placement KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
2. What is the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory?
ANS:
Organizations tend to favor job applicants who effectively blend into how business is conducted. As a
result, the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory is often used to better understand the concept of
fit in companies. The ASA theory proposes that job candidates are attracted to and selected by firms
where similar types of individuals are employed, and that individuals who are different quit their jobs
to work elsewhere.

3. List the employment functions that organizations need to be concerned with.
ANS:
The employment function in any organization may be concerned with some or all of the following
activities: (1) receiving applications, (2) interviewing the applicants, (3) administering tests to
applicants, (4) conducting background investigations, (5) arranging for physical examinations, (6)
placing and assigning new employees, (7) coordinating follow-up evaluations of these employees, (8)
conducting exit interviews with departing employees, and (9) maintaining appropriate records and
reports.

4. What purposes do application forms serve?
ANS:
Application forms, which are used universally, can take on different formats. Properly prepared, the
application form serves four purposes:
1. It is a record of the applicant’s desire to obtain a position.
2. It provides the interviewer with an applicant profile that can be used during the interview.
3. It is a basic employee record for applicants who are hired.
4. It can be used for research on the effectiveness of the selection process.

TOP: The Selection Process KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
5. Define situational judgment tests.
ANS:
Situational judgment tests are designed to measure a person’s judgment in work settings. The
candidate is given a situation and a list of possible solutions to the problem. The candidate then has to
make judgments about how to deal with the situation. Situational judgment tests are a form of job
simulation.

TOP: Selection Testing KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
6. When does inter-rater reliability become important during selection interviewing?

ANS:
Inter-rater reliability (across different interviewers) becomes important when each of several
interviewers is selecting employees from a pool of applicants, or if the employer uses team or panel
interviews with multiple interviewers.

7. How does an unstructured interview differ from a semistructured one?
ANS:
An unstructured interview occurs when the interviewer improvises by asking questions that are not
predetermined, while a semistructured interview is a guided conversation in which broad questions are
asked and new questions arise as a result of the discussion.

8. Identify the sources of background information for job applicants.
ANS:
Background information can be obtained from many sources. Some of these sources include past job
records, credit history, testing records, educational and certification records, drug tests, Social Security
numbers, sex offender lists, motor vehicle records, and military records.

TOP: Background Investigations KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
9. Why are medical examinations required in the selection process?
ANS:
Medical information on applicants may be used to determine their physical and mental capabilities for
performing jobs. Physical standards for jobs should be realistic, justifiable, and linked to job
requirements. Even though workers with disabilities can competently perform many jobs, they
sometimes may be rejected because of their physical or mental limitations.

TOP: Background Investigations KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
10. What are the types of global employees that need to be considered when selecting candidates for
international assignments?
ANS:
Global organizations can be staffed in many ways, including with expatriates, host-country nationals,
and third-country nationals. Each staffing option presents some unique HR management challenges.
For instance, when staffing with citizens of different countries, different tax laws and other factors
apply. HR professionals need to be knowledgeable about the laws and customs of each country
represented in their workforce. Experienced expatriates can provide a pool of talent that can be used as
the firm expands operations into other countries.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-06 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

TOP: Global Staffing IssuesKEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
ESSAY
1. Describe the relationship among job performance, selection criteria, and predictors in the employee
selection process.
ANS:
Effective selection of employees involves using selection criteria and predictors of these criteria. At
the heart of an effective selection system must be the knowledge of what constitutes good job
performance. When one knows what good performance looks like on a particular job, one needs to
identify what it takes for the employee to achieve successful performance. These are called selection
criteria. A selection criterion is a characteristic that a person must possess to successfully perform
work. Ability, motivation, intelligence, conscientiousness, appropriate risk, and permanence might be
selection criteria for many jobs. Selection criteria that might be more specific to managerial jobs
include leading and deciding, supporting and cooperating, organizing and executing, and enterprising
and performing.
To determine whether candidates might possess certain selection criteria (such as ability and
motivation), employers try to identify predictors of selection criteria, which are measurable or visible
indicators of those positive characteristics (or criteria). Predictors of permanence might be individual
interests, salary requirements, and tenure on previous jobs. If a candidate possesses appropriate
amounts of any or all of these predictors, it might be assumed that the person would stay on the job
longer than someone without those predictors. In addition, the information gathered about an applicant
using the individual predictors included in application forms, tests, and interviews should focus on the
likelihood that the person will execute the job competently once hired, so the factors need to be valid
for the purposes of selection.

TOP: Selection and Placement KEY: Bloom's: Comprehension
2. What are the circumstances in which an employer needs to combine predictors? What are the two ways
of combining predictors?
ANS:
When an employer uses predictors such as three years of experience, possesses a college degree, and
acceptable aptitude test score, job applicants are evaluated on all of these requirements and the
multiple predictors combined in some way. Two approaches for combining predictors are as follows:
-Multiple hurdles: A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor, and each minimum level must be
“passed.” For example, to be hired, a candidate for a sales representative job must achieve a minimum
education level, a certain score on a sales aptitude test, and a minimum score on a structured interview.
-Compensatory approach: Scores from individual predictors are added and combined into an overall
score, thereby allowing a higher score on one predictor to offset, or compensate for, a lower score on
another. The combined index takes into consideration performance on all predictors. For example,
when admitting students into graduate business programs, a higher overall score on an admissions test
might offset a lower undergraduate grade point average.

3. What are the purposes of the application form? What disclaimers should application forms contain?
ANS:
An application form is the record of the applicant’s desire to obtain a position, and it provides the
interviewer with an applicant profile that can be used in the interview. If the applicant is hired, it forms
a basic employee record. Application forms can also be used for research on the effectiveness of the
selection process.
A number of disclaimers and disclosures should appear on the application form to reduce litigation.
These include an employment-at-will statement, permission to contact references, notice of
employment testing, the application’s active status time limit, and a notice that falsification of
application information can be grounds for serious reprimand or termination.

4. What are the EEOC guidelines that need to be considered when planning the content of application
forms?
ANS:
An organization should retain all applications and hiring-related documents and records for three
years. Guidelines from the EEOC and court decisions require that the data requested on application
forms must be job related. Though frequently found on application forms, questions
that ask for the following information are illegal.
-Marital status
-Height/weight
-Number and ages of dependents
-Information on spouse
-Date of high school graduation
-Contact in case of emergency
Most of the litigation surrounding application forms has involved questions regarding the gender and
age of a potential employee, so special consideration should be dedicated to removing any items that
relate to these personal characteristics. Concerns about inappropriate questions stem from their
potential to elicit information that should not be used in hiring decisions.

5. What selection tests would be appropriate to use for entry-level professional positions? Which tests
would clearly not be appropriate or even illegal?
ANS:
Appropriate tests for entry-level professional positions would include specific cognitive ability tests
that assess job-related requirements. For instance, mathematical ability and complex problem solving
might be appropriate for some positions in an investment bank. Physical ability and psychomotor tests
would not be appropriate because professional positions would not require much physical ability, and
many disabilities could be accommodated in an office setting. An assessment center to ascertain
management potential would be appropriate if the applicants are on a dual professional/managerial
career track. Personality tests such as the MMPI would be appropriate if there were job-related reasons
for certain personality characteristics, such as conscientiousness to contribute to job performance.
Honesty and integrity tests would be appropriate for some industries, if they were professionally
scored. Polygraph tests may not be legal to prescreen applicants for this job. Background checks and
drug tests would be mandatory in this industry. Medical tests would be legal only after a conditional
job offer was made according to the ADA.
PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-03 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

TOP: Selection Testing KEY: Bloom's: Comprehension
6. Discuss the usefulness of honesty and integrity tests as selection tests.
ANS:
Companies are utilizing different tests to assess the honesty and integrity of applicants and employees.
Employers use these tests as a screening mechanism to prevent the hiring of dishonest employees, to
reduce the frequency of lying and theft on the job, and to communicate to applicants and employees
alike that dishonesty will not be tolerated. Honesty/integrity tests can be valid as broad screening
devices for organizations if used properly. Research also indicates that, even though honesty tests can
be expensive to administer, much of these costs were justified by savings in workers’ compensation
claims. However, these instruments have limitations. For instance, socially desirable responding is a
key concern; some questions can be considered overly invasive, insulting, and not job related;
sometimes false-positives are generated (or an honest person is scored as “dishonest”); and test scores
might be affected by individual demographic factors such as gender and race.

7. “Interviews are the most widely used, but the least valid selection method.” Discuss this statement.
What are some of the uses and problems associated with employment interviews?
ANS:
A selection interview can integrate all information obtained from application forms, tests, and
reference checks, and investigate any conflicting information that may have emerged. The interview
tends to have high intra-rater reliability. But, typically, inter-rater reliability is only moderate to low.
Consequently, the same applicant can be evaluated differently by different raters. An interview
typically does not have statistical validity unless the interview is highly structured. Interviewing skills
must be acquired through training so that effective questioning and listening techniques are used and
that illegal questions are avoided. In addition, interviewers are susceptible to problems such as snap
judgments, negative emphasis, halo effect, stereotyping, biases, and cultural noise. The most valid and
reliable interviews are structured. Nondirective and unstructured interviews are not the best for
selection interviewing. In addition, poorly trained interviewers can ask illegal questions that make an
employer vulnerable to discrimination lawsuits.
PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-04 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

TOP: Selection Testing KEY: Bloom's: Comprehension
8. What is the purpose of conducting background investigations on job applicants? What are some of the
legal issues involved?
ANS:
A background investigation shows that the employer exercised due diligence in hiring the employee.
This can protect the employer from negligent hiring lawsuits if the employee causes harm to someone
in the course of his/her job. It can also protect the employer from someone who might commit
corporate theft or other wrongdoings such as injury to other employees or clients. Background checks
are often mandated by states for people who work with vulnerable populations such as children or the
elderly, persons who operate buses and commercial trucks, and people who deal with financial assets
or with prescription drugs. Although it is legal for employers to check social media in the course of
background checks, the information derived may not be accurate because anyone can post anything
about an individual, true or not. Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, the employer must disclose that a
credit check is being made, obtain written consent from the applicant, and provide the applicant with a
copy of the report. Credit checks are routine in financial institutions, but may be illegal for use in other
types of jobs if the credit checks are not really necessary.

TOP: Background Investigations KEY: Bloom's: Comprehension
9. What are the key competencies for successful global employees?

ANS:
The key competencies for successful global employees include the following:
-Cultural adjustment: Individuals who accept foreign job assignments need to be able to successfully
adjust to cultural differences.
-Personal characteristics: The experiences of many global firms demonstrate that the best employees in
the home country may not be the best employees in a global assignment, primarily because of personal
characteristics of individuals.
-Organizational requirements: Many global employers find that knowledge of the organization and
how it operates is important.
-Communication skills: Expatriate employees should be able to communicate in the host-country
language both orally and in writing.
-Personal/family concerns: The preferences and attitudes of spouses and other family members can
influence the success of expatriate assignments.

TOP: Global Staffing IssuesKEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
10. According to the EEOC and Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP), what is the
definition of an “applicant”?
ANS:
The EEOC and Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) have agreed on this
definition of “applicant” to be used when an application has been submitted electronically. An
applicant is a person who:
-has expressed interest through the Internet or electronically and is being considered for a specific
position by the employer;
-has identified that he or she has the basic position qualifications;
-does not remove his or her interest in the position at anytime during the selection process; and
-has been ranked using “hit features” by employer software.

TOP: Legal Concerns in the Selection Process KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge

Human Resource Management 14th Edition Mathis Test Bank

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Human Resource Management 14th Edition Mathis Test Bank

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Human Resource Management 14th

Edition Mathis Test Bank

2. The purpose of selection is _____, fitting a person to the right job.

8. Ability, intelligence, and conscientiousness are all examples of:

9. Measurable or visible indicators of selection criteria are called:

11. In selection, validity refers to:

12. Which of the following is a feature about validity?

17. How does the compensatory approach combine predictors?

22. Which of the following is a fundamental purpose of an application form?

28. _____ measure dexterity, hand-eye coordination, and arm-hand steadiness.

30. An “in-basket” test is an example of a _____ test.

34. Which of the following is true of all structured interviews?

42. Which of the following types of selection interviews is unstructured?

55. What is the main purpose of an applicant flow form?

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-02

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-02

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-02

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-02

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-03

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-03

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-03

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-03

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-03

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-04

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-04

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-04

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-04

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-04

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-05

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-05

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-05

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-05

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-06

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-06

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-06

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-06

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Challenging OBJ: LO: 07-06

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-06

2. What is the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory?

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

3. List the employment functions that organizations need to be concerned with.

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

4. What purposes do application forms serve?

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-02 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

5. Define situational judgment tests.

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-03 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

6. When does inter-rater reliability become important during selection interviewing?

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-04 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

7. How does an unstructured interview differ from a semistructured one?

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-04 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

8. Identify the sources of background information for job applicants.

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-05 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

9. Why are medical examinations required in the selection process?

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-05 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-06 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-01 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 07-01 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-02 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: LO: 07-02 NAT: BUSPROG: Analytic