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PRE-MEDICAL

ZOOLOGY
ENTHUSIAST | LEADER | ACHIEVER

EXERCISE

Human health and Disease

ENGLISH MEDIUM
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 Biology : Human Health and Disease
Pre-Medical

EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) Build Up Your Understanding

IMMUNITY 8. Immune system retains the memory of

1. First line of defence of body is :- which response in vaccination process :-
(1) Skin and Mucous membrane (1) Passive immunization response
(2) Neutrophils and Monocytes (2) Primary immune response
(3) Fever (3) Secondary immune response
(4) Interferon (4) All the above
HD0002 HD0009
2. Antigen is :- 9. Number of polypeptide chains present in a
(1) Substances which stimulates the molecule of antibody :-
production of venom (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

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(2) Vaccine HD0011
(3) Antibody production stimulating agent 10. Colostrum, the first milk secretion of
(4) Part of the body defence system mammary gland is rich in immunoglobulin
HD0003 (1) IgE (2) IgM
3. Which cell is not phagocytic in nature ?
(3) IgA (4) IgG
(1) Monocyte (2) Macrophage
HD0012
(3) Neutrophil (4) N.K. cell
11. An antibody is a :-
HD0004
(1) Component of blood
4. Cell mediated immunity is provided by :-
(2) Secretion of mammalian erythrocyte
(1) B–lymphocytes (2) Plasma cells
(3) Molecule that specifically reacts to an
(3) Mast cells (4) T-lymphocytes
HD0005 antigen
5. Which is a primary lymphoid organ ? (4) White corpuscle which attack invading
(1) Bone marrow and spleen bacteria
(2) Spleen and thymus HD0013
(3) Bone–marrow and tonsils 12. Surgical removal of thymus of a new born
(4) thymus gland and bone marrow shall result in failure to mature -
HD0006 (1) Monocytes
6. Which antibody is called secretory (2) B - lymphocytes
antibody? (3) T – lymphocytes
(1) IgE (2) IgA (3) IgG (4) IgM (4) Basophils
HD0007 HD0014
7. Neutrophils and monocytes are important 13. Substances that regulate or coordinate
cells participating in :- other leucocytes are called :-
(1) Phagocytosis (1) Interferon
(2) Perforin production (2) Cytokine
(3) Passive immunity (3) Phagocytic chemical
(4) Antibody production (4) Enzyme
HD0008
HD0015
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GRAFTING AND VACCINES 21. Thalassemia is due to :-
14. Vaccination is a part of :- (1) Increased consumption of sea food
(1) Treatment (2) Decreased synthesis of β-polypeptide
(2) Passive immunisation chain of Haemoglobin
(3) Diagnosis (3) Decreased production of R.B.C. that
(4) Prophylaxis (Prevention) cause anemia
HD0016 (4) All of the above
15. Vaccine is :- HD0029
(1) Type of antibody 22. Trisomic autosomal congenital disease is :-
(2) Inactivated antigen (1) Criminal syndrome
(3) Inactivated pathogen (2) Down's syndrome
(4) Activated pathogen (3) Klinefelter's syndrome

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HD0017 (4) Turner's syndrome
16. BCG vaccine is a preventive measure HD0030
against :- 23. Klinefelter's syndrome is denoted by :
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Typhoid (1) 44 + XXY (2) 44 + XO
(3) AIDS (4) Cholera (3) 44 + XXX (4) 44 + YY
HD0018 HD0031
17. Now a days, Cornea transplant is very 24. Autoimmunity against the synovial
popular. The reason is that :– membrane at joint is called :-
(1) It is easy to preserve. (1) Multiple sclerosis
(2) It transplants very easily. (2) I.D.D.M.
(3) It can be easily obtained. (3) Hashimoto disease
(4) Cornea is avascular. (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
HD0020 HD0032
18. D.P.T. vaccine in an example of :-
COMMON HUMAN DISEASES
(1) Passive immunity (2) Active immunity
(3) Both (4) Interferon 25. Widal test is employed for detecting –
HD0021 (1) Pneumonia (2) Malaria
19. Immunisation is based on :- (3) Typhoid (4) Cholera
(1) Memory of individuals HD0033
(2) Pathogenic power 26. Which is an infectious disease ?
(3) Phagocytosis (1) Coronary thrombosis
(4) Memory of immune system (2) Diphtheria
HD0022 (3) Diabetes mellitus
20. Congenital diseases are – (4) Hypertension
(1) Diseases present by birth HD0034
(2) Deficiency diseases 27. Diphtheria is connected with –
(3) Spread from one individual to another (1) Lungs (2) Throat
(4) Occur during life (3) Blood (4) Liver
HD0024
HD0035
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28. Which disease is caused by Yersinia pestis ? 33. Incorrect about Entamoeba histolytica or
(1) Plague amoebiasis is :-
(2) Black fever (a) Parasite of small intestine
(3) Xenopsylla cheopsis (b) Causes dysentery
(4) All of these (c) Houseflies are mechanical carriers
HD0036 (d) Symptoms include constipation,
29. Dengue fever is transmitted by :-
abdominal pain and cramp.
(1) Aedes aegypti (Tiger mosquito)
(1) a (2) c
(2) Culex fatigaus
(3) a, c (4) All are correct
(3) Anopheles
HD0042
(4) Ascaris
34. Diagram showing ringworm affected area
HD0038

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of skin. Which given pathogen is not
30. "Diagram" showing inflammation of lower
related with disease?
limb is due to :-

(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) Wuchereria
HD0043
35. Haemophilus influenzae causes :-
(1) Filariasis (1) Typhoid (2) Plague
(2) Elephantiasis (3) Pneumonia (4) Influenza
(3) Ascariasis HD0044
(4) 1 and 2 both 36. Match the columns with regards to Vector
HD0039 and Disease
31. Plasmodium enters the human body as :- Column-I Column-II
(1) Female Anopheles mosquito p. Culex i. Dengue
(2) Sporozoite q. Anopheles ii. Filariasis
(3) Trophozoite r. Aedes iii. Malaria
(4) Haemozoin (1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii (2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i
HD0246 (3) p-ii, q-i, r-iii (4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii
32. Toxin which is responsible for chill and high HD0045
fever during malaria :- 37. House flies are mechanical carriers of :-
(1) Haematin (2) Haemoglobin (1) Amoebiasis (2) Malaria
(3) Haemozoin (4) Heam (3) Common cold (4) Plague
HD0041 HD0046
56
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AIDS AND CANCER 45. Causative factor of cancer is called :–
38. AIDS is characterised by :- (1) Oncogenes (2) Radiogen
(1) Reduction in number of helper T-cells (3) Estrogen (4) Carcinogen
(2) Lack of interferon HD0056
(3) Reduction in number of killer T-cells 46. Nucleic acid in HIV :-
(4) Autoimmunity (1) ss RNA (2) ds RNA
HD0047 (3) ss DNA (4) ds DNA
39. Carcinoma is a cancer of :- HD0057
(1) Lymphocytes 47. Sarcoma is cancer of –
(2) Connective tissue (1) Epithelial tissue
(3) Erythrocytes (2) Mesodermal tissue
(4) Ectoderm and endoderm (3) Blood

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HD0049 (4) Endodermal tissues
40. Cancer cells are characterized by :
HD0058
(1) Uncontrolled growth
48. Which is not cancer –
(2) Invasion of local tissue
(1) Leukaemia (2) Glaucoma
(3) Spreading to other body parts
(3) Carcinoma (4) Sarcoma
(4) All the above
HD0059
HD0050
49. Blood cancer is –
41. Which of the following is used in the
(1) Leukemia (2) Thrombosis
treatment of Thyroid cancer ?
(3) Haemophilia (4) Hemolysis
(1) I131 (2) U238 (3) Ra224 (4) C14
HD0060
HD0051
42. Carcinoma refers to :- DRUGS AND ALCOHOL ABUSE
(1) Malignant tumours of the connective 50. Tobacco chewing results in :-
tissue (1) Mouth cancer (2) Lung cancer
(2) Malignant tumours of the skin (3) Bone cancer (4) Leukaemia
(3) Benign tumours of the colon HD0061
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue 51. In drunk person, the part of brain to be
HD0052 affected first is :-
43. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally (1) Cerebellum (2) Pons varolli
infects :- (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Cerebrum
(1) all lymphocytes (2) activator B cells HD0062
(3) T-4 lymphocytes (4) Cytotoxic T cells 52. Opium is obtained from :-
HD0054 (1) Thea sinensis
44. Treatment of cancer is :– (2) Coffea arabica
(1) Surgery (2) Radiation (3) Oryza sativa
(3) Chemotherapy (4) All (4) Papaver somniferum
HD0055 HD0063
57
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53. Marijuana, Ganja, and LSD are :- 58. Cocaine is derived from :-
(1) Narcotics (2) Hallucinogens (1) Erythroxylum coca (2) Coffea arabica
(3) Stimulants (4) Medicines (3) Thea sinensis (4) Cannabis sativa
HD0064 HD0069
54. In alcoholics, liver gets damaged as it :- 59. (a) Smack (b) Diacetylmorphine
(1) Accumulates excess of fats (c) White (d) Odourless
(2) Stores excess of glycogen (e) Bitter crystalline compound
(3) Secretes more bile Above statements/informations are correct
(4) Has to detoxify alcohol for:-
HD0065 (1) Morphine (2) Heroin
55. LSD is obtained from :- (3) Coccain (4) Barbiturates
(1) Cannabis (2) Claviceps HD0071

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(3) Fusarium (4) Nostoc 60. Which measure would be particularly
HD0066 useful for prevention and control of alcohol
56. Cannabis sativa (Hemp) yields:- and drug abuse among adolescents ?
(1) Bhang (2) Charas (a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(3) Ganja (4) All the above (b) Seeking professional and medical help
HD0067 (c) Looking for danger sign
57. In the liver, alcohol is converted into which (d) Education and counselling
toxic substance ? (e) Seeking help from parents and peers
(1) Formic acid (2) Acetaldehyde (1) a, b, d only (2) a, c, d, e only
(3) Nicotine (4) Urea (3) c, e only (4) a, b, c, d, e
HD0068 HD0074

EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 4 4 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 1 4 3 2 2 1 1 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 2 3 4 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 2 1 1 4 4 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 4

58
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EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET

AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2008

1. Cri–du–chat syndrome in humans is caused 7. Which one of the follwing conditions in
by the :- humans is correctly matched with its
(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal chromosomal abnormality/linkage ?
Y–bearing sperm (1) Erythroblastosis foetalis –X linked
(2) Loss of half of the short arm of
(2) Down syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO
chromosome 5
(3) Loss of half of the long arm of (3) Klinefelter's syndrome –44 autosomes
chromosome 5 +XXY
(4) Trisomy of 21st chromosome (4) Colour blindness – Y linked
HD0075 HD0083
2. Antibodies in our body are complex – 8. The most active phagocytic white blood

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(1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids
cells are:-
(3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins
HD0076 (1) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
3. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts (2) Neutrophils and monocytes
destroying:- (3) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(1) B–lymphocytes (4) Lymphocytes and macrophages
(2) Leucocytes HD0084
(3) Thrombocytes 9. Match the disease in Column I with the
(4) Helper T–lymphocytes
HD0077 appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/
4. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's treatment) in Column II
chorea are Column I Column II
(1) Bacteria–related diseases (a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(2) Congenital disorders (b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized
(3) Pollutant–induced disorders food and water
(4) Virus–related diseases
(c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
HD0079
(d) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration
AIPMT 2007 therapy
5. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain (1) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
seasons are related to :- (2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
(1) Low temperature (3) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(2) Hot and humid environment (4) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii)
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
HD0085
(4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
10. To which type of barriers under innate
HD0081
immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and
6. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration,
the tears from the eyes, belong?
saliva and tears, destroys :
(1) Physiological barriers
(1) Most virus - infected cells
(2) Physical barriers
(2) Certain fungi
(3) Cytokine barriers
(3) Certain types of bacteria
(4) Cellular barriers
(4) All viruses
HD0086
HD0082
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11. Which one of the following is the correct 15. A person likely to develop tetanus is
statement regarding the particular immunised by administering :-
psychotropic drug specified ? (1) Weakened germs
(1) Morphine leads to delusions and (2) Dead germs
disturbed emotions (3) Preformed antibodies
(2) Barbiturates cause relaxation and (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
temporary euphoria HD0091
(3) Hashish alters thought perceptions and 16. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a
causes hallucinations quick relief from :-
(1) headache (2) Allergy
(4) Opium stimulates nervous system and
(3) Nausea (4) Cough
causes hallucinations
HD0092
HD0087
17. The genetic defect - adenosine deaminase

®
AIPMT 2009
12. In a standard ECG, which one of the (ADA) deficiency may be cured
following alphabets is the correct permanently by :-
representation of the respective activity of (1) Enzyme replacement therapy
the human heart ? (2) Periodic infusion of genetically
engineered lymphocytes having
(1) P – depolarisation of the atria
functional ADA cDNA
(2) R – repolarisation of ventricles
(3) Administering adenosine deaminase
(3) S – start of systole
activators
(4) T – end of diastole
(4) Introducing bone marrow cells
HD0088
producing ADA into cells at early
13. Which one of the following statements is
embryonic stages
correct? HD0093
(1) Malignant tumours may exhibit 18. The letter "T" in T-lymphocyte refers to :
metastasis (1) Thymus (2) Thyroid
(2) Patients who have undergone surgery (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
are given cannabinoids to relieve pain HD0094
(3) Benign tumours show the property of AIPMT 2010-Pre
metastasis 19. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of :
(4) Heroin accelerates body functions (1) Typhoid
HD0089 (2) Malaria
14. Which of the following is a pair of viral (3) Pneumonia
diseases? (4) Tuberculosis
(1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis HD0095
(2) Ringworm, AIDS 20. Ringworm in humans is caused by :
(3) Common Cold, AIDS (1) Viruses (2) Bacteria
(4) Dysentery, Common Cold (3) Fungi (4) Nematodes
HD0090 HD0096

60
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21. Consider the following four statements AIPMT 2010-Main
(a-d) regarding kidney transplant and select 24. Which one of the following techniques is
the two correct ones out of these. safest for the detection of cancers ?
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the (1) Radiography (X–ray)
recipient may need to take immuno-
(2) Computed tomography (CT)
suppresants for a longtime
(3) Histopathological studies
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is
responsible for the graft rejection (4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for HD0100
rejection of the graft AIPMT 2011-Pre
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney 25. At which stage of HIV infection does one
transplant depends on specific usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
interferons (1) When the infecting retrovirus enters

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The two correct statements are : host cells
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
(2) (b) and (c)
transcriptase
(3) (c) and (d)
(3) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
(4) (a) and (c)
HD0097 T-lymphocytes and damages large
22. Which one of the following statements is number of these
correct with respect to AIDS ? (4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters infected person.
helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing HD0103
their numbers
26. A certain patient is suspected to be
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through
suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency
eating food together with an infected
person Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV you recommend for its detection ?
infection (1) ELISA
(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent (2) MRI
per cent with proper care and nutrition
(3) Ultra sound
HD0098
(4) WIDAL
23. Select the correct statement from the ones
given below : HD0104
(1) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it AIPMT 2011-Main
stimulates recovery 27. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
(2) Barbiturates when given to criminals because it is:
make them tell the truth (1) not an infectious disease
(3) Morphine is often given to persons who have (2) caused by a virus
undergone surgery as a pain killer (3) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(4) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and (4) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
heart rate HD0105
HD0099
61
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28. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. AIPMT 2012-Pre
Which one of its components is correctly 31. Select the correct statement regarding the
interpreted below? specific disorder of muscular or skeletal
R system :-
(1) Myasthenia gravis-Auto immune
disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin
P T
Q S filaments
(1) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction (2) Gout-inflammation of joints due to
only extra deposition of calcium
(2) Complex QRS-One complete pulse (3) Muscular dystrophy - age related
(3) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac shortening of muscles
contraction (4) Osteoporosis-decrease in bone mass and
(4) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic higher chances of fractures with

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and diastolic blood pressures. advancing age
HD0106 HD0110
29. Which one of the following options gives 32. Common cold differs from pneumonia in,
the correct matching of a disease with its that :
causative organism and mode of infection? (1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while
Causative Mode of the common cold is caused by the
Disease
Organisms Infection bacterium Haemophilus influenzae
Plasmodium
Bite of male (2) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
(1) Malaria Anopheles whereas the common cold affects nose
vivax
Mosquito
and respiratory passage but not the
Salmonella With inspired
(2) Typhoid lungs.
typhi air
(3) Pneumonia is a communicable disease
Streptococcus Droplet
(3) Pneumonia whereas the common cold is a
pneumoniae infection
Wuchereria With infected nutritional deficiency disease.
(4) Elephantiasis
bancrofti water and food (4) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
HD0107 attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas
30. Select the correct statement with respect the common cold has no effective
to diseases and immunisation : vaccine.
(1) Injection of snake antivenom against HD0111
snake bite is an example of active 33. Widal Test is carried out to test :
immunisation. (1) HIV/AIDS
(2) If due to some reason B-and (2) Typhoid fever
T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body (3) Malaria
will not produce antibodies against a (4) Diabetes mellitus
pathogen. HD0112
(3) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens 34. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic
causes passive immunity intake of:
(4) Certain protozoans have been used to (1) Tobacco (Chewing) (2) Cocaine
mass produce hepatitis B vaccine (3) Opium (4) Alcohol
HD0108 HD0113

62
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35. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in : Options :
(1) Human RBCs Molecule Source Use
(2) Human liver (1) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces
(3) Gut of female Anopheles belladona hallucinations
(4) Salivary glands of Anopheles (2) (a) Morphine Papaver Sedative and
HD0114 somniferum pain killer
36. In which one of the following options the (3) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates
two examples are correctly matched with coca the transport
their particular type of immunity? of dopamine
Examples Type of (4) (b) Heroin Cannabis Depressant
immunity sativa and slows
(1) Saliva in mouth and Physical barriers down body
Tears in eyes functions
(2) Mucus coating of Physiological HD0117

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epithelium lining the barriers 39. Which one of the following statements is
urinogenital tract and correct with respect to immunity?
the HCl in stomach
(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each
(3) Polymorpho nuclear Cellular barriers
of which has four light chains
leukocytes and
monocytes (2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the
(4) Anti-tetanus and anti- Active immunity function of B-lymphocytes.
snake bite injections (3) Preformed antibodies need to be
HD0115 injected to treat the bite by a viper
AIPMT 2012-Main snake.
37. The first clinical gene therapy was given for (4) The antibodies against small pox
treating :
pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency HD0118
(3) Diabetes mellitus NEET-UG 2013
(4) Chicken pox 40. The cell-mediated immunity inside the
HD0116 human body is carried out by :
38. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown (1) Erythrocytes
below and select the right option giving
their source and use. (2) T-lymphocytes
HO (3) B-lymphocytes
(4) Thrombocytes
(a) O HD0247
H
N–CH3 41. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
HO (1) mosquito bite
OH (2) drinking water containing eggs of
Ascaris
(b)
O (3) eating imperfectly cooked pork.
H (4) Tse-tse fly
HD0123
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AIPMT 2014 45. At which stage of HIV infection does one
42. The diagram given here is the standard ECG usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
of a normal person. The P- wave represents (1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with
the : an infected person.
(2) When the infected retro virus enters
host cells.
(3) When HIV damages large number of
helper
T-Lymphocytes.
(1) End of systole
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by
(2) Contraction of both the atria reverse transcriptase.

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(3) Initiation of the ventricular contraction HD0128
AIPMT 2015
(4) Beginning of the systole
46. Which of the following is not a sexually
HD0125 transmitted disease ?
43. A human female with Turner's syndrome :- (1) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS)
(1) has 45 chromosomes with XO.
(2) Trichomoniasis
(2) has one additional X chromosome. (3) Encephalitis
(3) exhibits male characters. (4) Syphilis

(4) is able to produce children with normal HD0131

husband. 47. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts

destroying:
HD0126
(1) Leucocytes
44. Which is the particular type of drug that is (2) Helper T- Lymphocytes
obtained from the plant whose one (3) Thrombocytes
flowering branch is shown below ? (4) B- Lymphocytes
HD0132
48. Which of the following viruses is not
transferred through semen of an infected
male?
(1) Human immunodeficiency virus
(1) Hallucinogen
(2) Chikungunya virus
(2) Depressant
(3) Ebola virus
(3) Stimulant
(4) Hepatitis B virus
(4) Pain - killer
HD0133
HD0127

64
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49. Match each disease with its correct type of 54. Which of the following immunoglobulins
vaccine: does constitute the largest percentage in
(a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus human milk?
(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin
(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria (1) IgG (2) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgA
(d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria HD0139
(a) (b) (c) (d) NEET-I 2016
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 55. Name the chronic respiratory disorder
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) caused mainly by cigarette smoking :-
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (1) Emphysema
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) Asthma
HD0134 (3) Respiratory acidosis
50. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex
(4) Respiratory alkalosis
chromosomes was born due to :
HD0140

®
(1) formation of abnormal ova in the
mother 56. Asthma may be attributed to :
(2) fusion of two ova and one sperm (1) bacterial infection of the lungs
(3) fusion of two sperms and one ovum (2) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the
(4) formation of abnormal sperms in the lungs
father (3) inflammation of the trachea
HD0135 (4) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
Re-AIPMT 2015 HD0142
51. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient 57. In higher vertebrates, the immune system
due to :- can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If
(1) Innate immune response this property is lost due to genetic
(2) Humoral immune response abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it
(3) Cell-mediated immune response leads to :-
(4) Passive immune response (1) Allergic response
HD0136 (2) Graft rejection
52. If you suspect major deficiency of (3) Auto-immune disease
antibodies in a person, to which of the (4) Active immunity
following would you look for confirmatory HD0143
evidence? 58. Pick out the correct statements :
(1) Serum globulins (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
(2) Fibrinogin in plasma disease
(3) Serum albumins (b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(4) Haemocytes
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
HD0137 recessive gene disorder.
53. Name the pulmonary disease in which (d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked
alveolar surface area involved in gas recessive gene disorder
exchange is drastically reduced due to (1) (a) and (d) are correct
damage in the alveolar walls.
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(1) Asthma (2) Pleurisy
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
HD0138 HD0144
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 Biology : Human Health and Disease
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59. Antivenom injection contains preformed 63. Which of the following is correct regarding
antibodies while polio drops that are AIDS causative agent HIV ?
administered into the body contain :- (1) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
(1) Activated pathogens (2) HIV does not escape but attacks the
aquired immune response.
(2) Harvested antibodies
(3) HIV is enveloped virus containing one
(3) Gamma globulin molecule of single-stranded RNA and
(4) Attenuated pathogens one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
HD0145 (4) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two
identical molecules of single-stranded
60. Lack of relaxation between successive
RNA and two molecules of reverse
stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is transcriptase.
known as :- HD0149

®
(1) Spasm 64. Which of the following sets of diseases is
(2) Fatigue caused by bacteria?
(3) Tetanus (1) Tetanus and mumps
(4) Tonus (2) Herpes and influenza
HD0146 (3) Cholera and tetanus

61. Which of the following statements is not (4) Typhoid and smallpox

true for cancer cells in relation to HD0150

mutations ? NEET(UG) 2017
65. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are
(1) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate
caused due to a problem in globin molecule
the cell cycle. synthesis. Select the correct statement :
(2) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor. (1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in
(3) Mutations inactive the cell control. globin chain synthesis
(4) Mutations inhibit production of (2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of
globin molecules
telomerase.
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative
HD0147
problem of globin molecules
NEET-II 2016 (4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in
62. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a globin chain synthesis
four year old girl with adenosine deaminase HD0153
(ADA) deficiency ? 66. A disease caused by an autosomal primary
(1) Immunotherapy non-disjunction is :
(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome
(2) Radiation therapy
(2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Gene therapy
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia
(4) Chemotherapy
(4) Down's Syndrome
HD0148
HD0154

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Biology : Human Health and Diseases ®
Pre-Medical
67. Match the following sexually transmitted 70. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
diseases (Column-I) with their causative pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
agent (Column-II) and select the correct lymphatic vessels?
option : (1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
Column-I Column-II
(3) Ringworm disease
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV (4) Amoebiasis
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria HD0161
71. Match the items given in Column I with
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
those in Column II and select the correct
(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus option given below:-
(a) (b) (c) (d) Column I Column II

®
(1) iii iv i ii a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
(2) iv ii iii i
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism
(3) iv iii ii i
a b c
(4) ii iii iv i (1) iii ii i
HD0155 (2) i ii iii
68. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails (3) i iii ii
(4) ii iii i
often due to non-acceptance by the
HD0162
patient's body. Which type of immune-
NEET(UG) 2019
response is responsible for such rejections?
72. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by
(1) Cell - mediated immune response mother during the initial days of lactation is
(2) Hormonal immune response very essential to impart immunity to the
newborn infants because it contains :-
(3) Physiological immune response
(1) Natural killer cells
(4) Autoimmune response
(2) Monocytes
HD0156 (3) Macrophages
NEET(UG) 2018 (4) Immunoglobulin A
69. Which of the following is not an autoimmune HD0235
disease? 73. Which of the following sexually transmitted
(1) Psoriasis diseases is not completely curable ?
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis (1) Gonorrhoea

(3) Alzheimer's disease (2) Genital warts

(3) Genital herpes
(4) Vitiligo
(4) Chlamydiasis
HD0160
HD0236

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74. Which of the following immune responses (3) has natural killer cells which can
is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? phagocytose and destroy microbes.
(1) Auto- immune respones (4) provides passive immunity.
(2) Humoral immune response HD0241
(3) Inflammatory immune response 79. Which of the following diseases is an
autoimmune disorder?
(4) Cell-mediated immune response
(1) Myasthenia gravis
HD0237
(2) Arthritis
75. Which of the following muscular disorders
(3) Osteoporosis
is inherited?
(4) Gout
(1) Tetany HD0242
(2) Muscular dystrophy 80. Which of the following sexually transmitted

®
(3) Myasthenia gravis diseases do not specifically affect
reproductive organs ?
(4) Botulism
(1) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
HD0238 (2) Syphilis and Genital herpes
76. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by : (3) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(1) methylation of morphine (4) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
(2) acetylation of morphine HD0243
(3) glycosylation of morphine 81. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
affected person has three sex chromosomes
(4) nitration of morphine
XXY ?
HD0239
(1) Thalassemia
77. Identify the correct pair representing the
(2) Kleinfelter's Syndrome
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
(3) Phenylketonuria
confirmatory test for typhoid.
(4) Turner's Syndrome
(1) Plasmodium vivax/UTI test.
HD0244
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
82. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:
(3) Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test
(1) Papaver somniferum
(4) Salmonella typhi/Widal test
HD0240 (2) Atropha belladona
(3) Erythroxylum coca
NEET(UG) 2019 (Odisha)
(4) Datura
78. Humans have acquired immune system
HD0245
that produces antibodies to neutralize
NEET(UG) 2020
pathogens. Still innate immune system is
83. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
present at the time of birth because it
represents :
(1) is very specific and uses different
(1) Repolarisation of ventricles
macrophages.
(2) Repolarisation of auricles
(2) produces memory cells for mounting
(3) Depolarisation of auricles
fast secondary response.
(4) Depolarisation of ventricles
HD0248
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84. Select the correct match. 88. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Thalassemia - X linked correct option :
(2) Haemophilia - Y linked Column - I Column - II
(3) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant
(i) Typhoid (a) Haemophilus
trait
influenzae
(4) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive
trait, chromosome - 11 (ii) Malaria (b) Wuchereria bancrofti
HD0249 (iii) Pneumonia (c) Plasmodium vivax
85. Select the option including all sexually
(iv) Filariasis (d) Salmonella typhi
transmitted diseases.
(1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(2) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Gential herpes
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)

®
(4) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
HD0250 (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
86. Match the following diseases with the HD0253
causative organism and select the correct 89. Cyclosporin A, used as immuno suppression
option. agent, is produced from :
Column - I Column - II (1) Monascus purpureus
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Penicillium notatum
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(4) Trichoderma polysporum
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
HD0254
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus 90. The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by
(a) (b) (c) (d) mammary glands of mother during the
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) initial days of lactation has abundant
antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) type of immunity is called as :
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Passive immunity (2) Active immunity
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (3) Acquired immunity (4) Autoimmunity
HD0251 HD0255
NEET(UG) 2020 (COVID-19) NEET(UG) 2021
87. Which of the following STDs are not 91. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting
curable ? neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
(1) Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection is called as:
(2) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts (1) Arthritis
(3) HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B
(4) Gout
HD0252
HD0256

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92. Veneral diseases can spread through : NEET(UG) 2021 (Paper-2)
(a) Using sterile needles 95. Find the correct statement about chemical

(b) Transfusion of blood from infected which is obtained from given plant.
person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below.
(1) Excessive doses causes hallucination
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

®
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) Abused by some sport person

(3) (b) and (c) only (3) Producing a sense of euphoria

(4) (a) and (c) only
(4) These are known for their effects on
HD0257
cardiovascular system of the body
93. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency
HD0280
results into :
(1) Dysfunction of Immune system 96. Which of the following is incorrect
(2) Parkinson's disease matching ?
(3) Digestive disorder
(1) Pneumonia – Air borne disease
(4) Addison's disease
HD0258 (2) Amoebiasis – Transmitted through
94. Match List - I with List -II. contaminated food
List-I List-II (3) Chikungunya – Vector borne disease
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton (4) Common cold – Water borne disease
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica HD0281

Choose the correct answer from the 97. Which of the following acts as physiological
options given below. barrier?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Natural killer cells
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (2) Interferons
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Tears from eyes
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Mucus coating of the epithelial lining of
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
urogenital tracts
HD0259
HD0282

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NEET(UG) 2022 NEET(UG) 2022 (OVERSEAS)
98. Given below are two statements: 100. Immuno-suppressants are administered to
Statement I: burn-patients or during organ

Autoimmune disorder is a condition where transplantation to suppress :

body defense mechanism recognizes its (1) Cytokine storm

own cells as foreign bodies. (2) Humoral immunity
Statement II:
(3) Cell-mediated immunity
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where
(4) Innate immunity
body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, HD0285

®
choose the most appropriate answer from 101. Given below are two statements :
the options given below: Statement-I : When an infected female
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are Anopheles mosquito bites, it releases
incorrect gametocytes of Plasmodium into the
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II healthy person.
is incorrect Statement-II : The female Anopheles
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II mosquito takes up sporozoites of
is correct Plasmodium with blood meal from an

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are infected person, suffering from malaria.

correct In the light of the above statements,

HD0283
99. Select the incorrect statement with respect
to acquired immunity.
(1) Anamnestic response is elicited on
subsequent encounters with the same
pathogen.
(2) Anamnestic response is due to memory
of first encounter.
(3) Acquired immunity is non-specific type
of defense present at the time of birth.
(4) Primary response is produced when our
body encounters a pathogen for the
first time.
HD0284
choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below :
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
HD0286

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Re-NEET(UG) 2022 104. Match List - I with List - II :
102. If a female individual is with small round
List - I List - II
head, furrowed tongue, partially open
mouth and broad palm with characteristic (a) Cellular barrier (i) Interferons
palm crease. Also the physical, (b) Cytokine barrier (ii) Mucus
psychomotor and mental development is
(c) Physical barrier (iii) Neutrophils
retarded. The karyotype analysis of such an
individual will show : (d) Physiological (iv) HCI in gastric
(1) 47 chromosomes with XXY sex barrier juice
chromosomes
Choose the correct answer from the
(2) 45 chromosomes with XO sex
chromosomes options given below :

®
(3) 47 chromosomes with XYY sex (1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
chromosomes
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4) Trisomy of chromosome 21
HD0287 (3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
103. Which of the following reasons in mainly (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
responsible for graft rejection in
HD0289
transplantation of organs ?
(1) Inability of recipient to differentiate
between 'self and 'non–self' tissues/cells
(2) Humoral immune response only
(3) Auto–immune response
(4) Cell–mediated response
HD0288

EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 4 2 4 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 2 4 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 1 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 2 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 2 3 4 4 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 4 3 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 4 4 3 4 2
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 1 1 4 1
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104
Ans. 3 3 1 2 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 4
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Biology : Human Health and Diseases
EXERCISE-III
EXERCISE-III(A) (NCERT Based QUESTIONS)
1. Diagram is showing chemical structure of
Morphine, which is a natural opiate like
codeine. Morphine is a strong analgesic,
also has sedative & calming effect. It
depresses respiratory centre, BP, heart
beat. It is obtained from
HO
O
H
N–CH3
®
Pre-Medical
Master Your Understanding
4. Opioids are the drugs which bind to specific
opioid receptors present in our CNS and
GIT. Heroin, commonly called smack is
chemically....., which is white, odourless,
bitter crystalline compound, obtained
by.......of morphine.
(1) Diacetylmorphine, methylation
(2) Diacetylmorphin, acetylation
(3) Benzodiazepines, amination
(4) Amphetamines, acetylation

®
HO
HD0177
(1) Cannabis sativa
5. Match the following :-
(2) Datura
(3) Erythroxylum coca Column–A Column–B
(4) Papever sominiferum I. Allergy (i) Typhoid fever
HD0174 II. T-helper cells (ii) Single stranded
2. The given diagram is showing skeletal RNA
structure of cannabinoid molecule. III. Hallucinogens (iii) Wuchereria
IV. Liver (iv) IgE
Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid
V. Widal test (v) Cirrhosis
receptors present principally in the brain.
VI. Filariasis (vi) Atropa belladona
Natural cannabinoids are obtained from
VII. ELISA test (vii) Activation of
inflorescences of the plant cannabis sativa. B-cells
Nature of cannabinoids is :- VIII. AIDS virus (viii) Carcinogens
OH
IX. Treatment of (ix) AIDS
cancer
X. X-rays (x) Immunotherapy
OH

(1) Aliphatic (1) I-(iv), II-(vi), III-(viii), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(iii),

(2) Phenolic
VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(vii)
(3) Ketonic
(4) Ether (2) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(iii),
HD0175 VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(viii)
3. Nicotine :-
(3) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(v), IV-(ii), V-(i), VI-(iii),
(1) stimulates adrenal gland
(2) is an alkaloid VII-(ix), VIII-(vi), IX-(x), X-(viii)
(3) is present in tobacco (4) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(ix),
(4) All of these
VII-(x), VIII-(ii), IX-(iii), X-(viii)
HD0176
HD0178
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6. Match the Column I with Column II :- 9. Mark the correct statement :-
Column I Column II (a) Yoga has been practised to achieve
A. Peyer's patches (i) Aedes physical and mental health
B. Rheumatoid (ii) Neoplastic (b) Infectious diseases are very common
arthritis transformation
and everyone of us suffers from these
C. IgA (iii) Cancer
treatment at sometime or other
D. Interferon (iv) Allergy (c) AIDS is an infectious disease
E. Gambusia (v) Secondary (d) Cancer is non-infectious disease
lymphoid (e) Healthy persons bring economic
organ prosperity
F. Chikungunya (vi) Metastasis (1) a, b and c only (2) b, c, d and e only
G. Tetanus (vii) Colostrum
(3) c and d only (4) a, b, c, d and e
H. IgE (viii) Autoimmunity

®
I. Malignant tumor (ix) Antitoxin HD0182
J. Carcinogen (x) Mosquito 10. Below are some statements related to life
larvae cycle of plasmodium. Which of the
(1) A-(v), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(x), F-(i), following is correct?
G-(ix), H-(iv), I-(vi), J-(ii) (1) Gametocyte stage infects human body
(2) A-(vi), B-(viii), C-(vii), D(iii), E-(x), F-(ii), (2) It multiplies by sexual method of
G-(ix), H-(iv), J-(iii) reproduction in human liver
(3) A-(iv), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(x), F-(i), (3) human RBC are ruptured and releases a
G-(ix), H-(v), I-(vi), J-(ii) toxin hemozoin
(4) A-(x), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(v), F-(i), (4) development of gametocyte possible
G-(ix), H-(iv), I-(vi), J-(ii) only in female culex mosquito
HD0179 HD0183
7. Most cancers are treated by combination 11. The factor which has effect on health is :-
of:-
(1) Genetic disorders
(a) Surgery
(2) Infections
(b) Radiotherapy
(3) Life style
(c) Chemotherapy
(4) All of the above
(1) a and b only (2) a and c only
HD0260
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
HD0180 12. Mark correct about a healty person.
8. Which radiations cause DNA damage (i) More efficient
leading to neoplastic transformation ? (ii) High productivity
(a) Ionising radiations (iii) Longevity of people
(b) X-rays (iv) Brings economic prosperity
(c) Non-ionising radiations (1) Both (i) and (ii) only
(d) UV-rays (2) Only (iv)
(1) a and c only (2) b and d only (3) Both (iii) and (iv) only
(3) a and b only (4) a, b, c and d (4) All are correct
HD0181 HD0261
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13. Mark the correct statement 20. In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections
(i) Health is state of complete physical, are especially caused by :-
mental and social well being (1) Mycobacterium (2) Toxoplasma
(ii) Common cold is infection of nose and (3) Viruses and fungi (4) All of the above
upper respiratory tract HD0269
(iii) Hepatitis is infectious diseases 21. Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by:-
(iv) Cancer is non-infectious disease (a) Anxiety (b) Shakiness
(v) Healthy persons bring economic (c) Nausea (d) Sweating
prosperity (1) a, c only (2) b, c only
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) a, c, d only (4) a, b, c and d
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
HD0270
(3) (iii) and (iv)
22. (a) Salmonella is pathogenic bacterium
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(b) Sustained high fever (39°C to 40°C)

®
HD0262
(c) Intestinal perforation in severe cases
14. Find out the incorrect matching with
(d) Confirmed by "widal test"
regards to innate immunity :-
(1) Physical barriers = Skin, mucosa (e) "Marry Mallon" was a carrier
(2) Cytokine barriers = Interferons Above statements are true for :-
(3) Cellular barriers = PMNL, neutrophils (1) Plague (2) Diphtheria
(4) Physiological barriers = Epithelial lining (3) Typhoid (4) Dysentery
HD0263 HD0271
15. H2L2 represents ............ molecule :- 23. Which of the following is not included in
(1) Antibody (2) Antigen cellular barrier of innate immunity ?
(3) Pathogen (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Monocyte
HD0264 (2) P.M.N.L. neutrophils
16. Which immune response / immunity is (3) T killer cell
mainly responsible for graft rejection ? (4) Macrophage
(1) Cell-mediated (2) Humoral HD0272
(3) Antibody mediated (4) All of the above 24. Which of the following statement is true
HD0265 for interferons ?
17. AIDS does not spread due to :-
(1) Secreted by non infected cells
(1) Mere touch (2) Physical touch
(2) Protect virus infected cells
(3) Body fluids (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Protect non-infected cells
HD0266 (4) They are lipid in nature.
18. Incubation period for AIDS is usually :- HD0273
(1) 5–10 month (2) 5–10 years 25. A certain patient is suspected to be
(3) 2–12 month (4) 2–12 weeks suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency
HD0267 Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will
19. Which cell acts as factory of HIV ? you recommend for its detection ?
(1) Macrophage (2) TH cells (1) ELISA (2) MRI
(3) TK cells (4) N.K. cells (3) Ultrasound (4) WIDAL
HD0268 HD0274
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26. Treatment of which disease is only partially 32. Reason for trisomy in Down's syndrome :-
effective and can not prevent death, which (1) Non disjuction during sperm formation
is inevitable :- (2) Non disjunction during egg formation
(1) Cancer (2) AIDS (3) Non disjunction at the time of egg or
(3) SCID (4) Tuberculosis sperm formation
HD0275 (4) Addition of one extra chromosome
27. Cancer patients are given biological during mitosis
response modifiers such as _________ HD0185
which activates their immune system and 33. Penicillin is bacteriolytic because :-
help in destroying the tumour: (1) It checks spindle formation
(1) α-interferons (2) Cannabinoids (2) It destroys chromatin
(3) It inhibit cell wall formation
(3) Sedative (4) Opiate
HD0276 (4) It inhibit protein systhesis
HD0186

®
28. Which of the following STD is not caused by
34. Most radiosensitive tissue of body is :
bacteria ?
(1) bone marrow (2) platelet
(1) Trichomoniasis (2) Syphilis
(3) nervous tissue (4) lymphocyte
(3) Gonorrhoea (4) Chlamydiasis
HD0187
HD0277
35. BCG vaccine contains :-
29. Which disease is completely curable if
(1) killed mycobacteria
detected early and treated properly ?
(2) live attenuated mycobacteria
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) Gonorrhoea
(3) recombinant protein of mycobacteria
(3) AIDS (4) Genital herpes
(4) antibody against mycobacteria
HD0278
HD0188
30. Find the correct statement about tobacco
36. Primary response which is of ____(A)____
smoking-
intensity. Subsequent encounter with the
(A) Nicotine inhibits secretion of adrenal same pathogen elicit a ___(B)___
medulla. intensified ___(C)___ response, which is
(B) Smoking is associated with increased based on ___(D)___.
incidence of cancer of lungs and throat.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(C) Smoking increases carbon monoxide
content in blood and decreases the (1) High Low Anamnestic Specificity
concentration of haembound oxygen. (2) Low High Primary Diversity
(D) Smoking decreases blood pressure. (3) Low High Secondary Memory
(1) A and D (2) B and D
(4) High Low Primary Memory
(3) A and B (4) B and C
HD0279 HD0189
EXERCISE-III(B) (ANALYTICAL QUESTIONS) 37. Read the following list carefully ....
31. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is Neutrophils, erythrocytes, monocytes,
associated with lysis of :- macrophages, B lymphocyte, NK cells,
T lymphocytes , thrombocytes
(1) Leucocytes (2) Lymphocytes
How many of the above cells constitute
(3) Platelets (4) RBCs
cellular barrier of innate immunity ?
HD0184 (1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six
HD0190

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Biology : Human Health and Diseases ®
Pre-Medical
38. Which of the following option is true 39. In a sterile female, Barr body is absent,
related to production and functions of a ovary is underdeveloped . In this female ,
molecule which is a glycoprotein and total number of chromosomes are :-
(1) 46 (2) 47
represented as H2L2 ?
(3) 45 (4) 44
Produced by Functions HD0192
(1) T-killer cell cellular immunity 40. A plant, native of South America is a source
of a drug of addiction which is CNS
(2) B cells inflammation
stimulant. This drug inhibits transport of
(3) NK cells phagocytosis (1) Acetylcholine (2) Dopamine
(4) Plasma cells opsonization (3) Serotonin (4) Adrenaline
HD0191 HD0193

EXERCISE-III ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 4 2 2 1 4 4 4 3 4 4 4 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 2 1 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 2 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 2

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