MOLECULAR BIOLOGY ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS

Group-1

1) What is photoreversal repair?

a) A process in which DNA damage is repaired by removing the damaged nucleotides and
replacing them
with new ones.
b) A process in which the energy of light is used to reverse DNA damage caused by UV
radiation.
c) A process in which the DNA damage caused by ionizing radiation is repaired.
d) A process in which the DNA damage caused by chemicals is repaired.
Answer: b) A process in which the energy of light is used to reverse DNA damage caused by
UV radiation.

2) What is the primary mechanism of photoreversal repair?

a) Excision repair
b) Homologous recombination
c) Mismatch repair
d) Direct repair
Answer: d) Direct repair

3) Which enzyme is responsible for the photoreversal repair of DNA damage?

a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA helicase
c) Photolyase
d) Ligase
Answer: c) Photolyase

4) Which type of DNA damage can be repaired by photoreversal?

a) Double-stranded breaks
b) Single-stranded breaks
c) Pyrimidine dimers
d) Base modifications
Answer: c) Pyrimidine dimers

5) Which organism(s) are capable of photoreversal repair?

a) Humans
b) Bacteria
c) Plants
d) All of the above
Answer: b) Bacteria (and some other organisms like fungi and algae)
Group-2

1. Which enzyme is responsible for recognizing and removing 8-oxoguanine in the BER pathway?
a. APE1 b. DNA ligase c. OGG1 d. DNA polymerase
Answer: c. OGG1

2. What is the role of APE1 in the BER pathway?

a. Recognizes and removes the damaged base
b. Cleaves the DNA backbone at the site of the damaged base
c. Fills the nick created by the AP endonuclease
d. Seals the repaired strand with DNA ligase
Answer: b. Cleaves the DNA backbone at the site of the damaged base

3. Which type of DNA lesion is commonly repaired by BER?

a. Thymine dimers b. Single-strand breaks c. Double-strand breaks
d. 8-oxoguanine
Answer: d. 8-oxoguanine

4. What is the function of DNA ligase in the BER pathway?

a. Recognizes and removes the damaged base
b. Cleaves the DNA backbone at the site of the damaged base
c. Fills the nick created by the AP endonuclease
d. Seals the repaired strand with DNA polymerase
Answer: d. Seals the repaired strand with DNA polymerase

5. How does chromatin structure influence BER?

a. By inhibiting the activity of DNA glycosylases
b. By promoting the recruitment of repair proteins
c. By blocking the access of repair proteins to the damaged DNA
d. By inducing DNA damage signaling pathways
 Answer: b. By promoting the recruitment of repair proteins

GROUP 3
1. Which subunit of the UvrABC system identifies helical distortions in prokaryotic
Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)?
A. Uvr B
B. Uvr A
C. Uvr B or Uvr C
D. DNA helicase II (UvrD)
ANS: OPTION (B)

2. What is the role of the XPG endonuclease in the nucleotide excision repair mechanism?
A. To recognise the DNA damage
B. To recruit the TFIIH complex to the damaged site
C. To cleave the damaged strand further away from the lesion
D. To fill the gap with new nucleotides using the complementary strand as a template
ANS: OPTION (C)

3. Which of the following DNA damages can't be repaired by nucleotide excision repair?
A. Pyrimidine dimers caused by ultraviolet radiation
B. Chemical adducts caused by exposure to carcinogens
C. Single-strand breaks caused by oxidative stress
D. Intrastrand crosslinks caused by chemotherapy drugs
ANS: OPTION (C)

4. Which of the following is an application of nucleotide excision repair in biotechnology and

medicine?
A. DNA sequencing
B. Gene therapy
C. Microbial identification
D. Cancer immunotherapy
ANS: OPTION (B)
 5. Which of the following is NOT a regulator of nucleotide excision repair?
A. XPC-RAD23B complex
B. TFIIH complex
C. PCNA protein
D. 8-oxo guanine
ANS: OPTION (D)

GROUP-4

Q1) Which protein is responsible for initiating the excision and resynthesis step in single-
strand mismatch repair?
(A) MutS
(B) MutL
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) Exonuclease
Answer: (A) MutS

Q2) In eukaryotes,the mismatch repair mechanism is initiated and directed by which of the
following?
(A) Methylated DNA strand
(B) Acetylated DNA strand
(C) Strand specific nicks
(D) Double strand breaks
Answer: (C) Strand specific nicks

Q3) Which of the following proteins is not involved in the Mismatch repair mechanism in
Bacteria?
(A) MutS
(B) MutA
(C) MutL
(D) UvrD
Answer: (C) MutA

Q4) The DNA polymerase enzyme involved in the mismatch repair mechanism of E.coli is:
(A) DNA Pol-I
(B) DNA Pol-II
(C) DNA Pol-III
(D) DNA Pol-β
Answer: (C) DNA Pol-III
 Q5) Which of the following proteins exhibits Endonuclease activity in cleaving the
unmethylated daughter strand?
(A) MutS
(B) MutH
(C) MutL
(D) UvrD
Answer: (C) MutH

GROUP 5

1.Which of the following proteins recognizes and binds to the damaged DNA during
transcription-coupled DNA repair?

A. XPA
B. MutS
C. Rad51
D. DNA ligase

Correct Answer: A. XPA

2.Which of the following is responsible for transcription-coupled DNA repair in eukaryotic

cells?

A. RNA polymerase I
B. RNA polymerase II
C. RNA polymerase III
D. DNA polymerase | |

Correct Answer: B. RNA polymerase II

3.In humans, which of the following protein complexes is involved in transcription coupled
nucleotide excision repair?

A)Mfd
B) Rad 51
C) MSH2/MSH6
D) Ku70/Ku80

Answer: A

4.Which of the following is an accurate description of the mechanism of transcription-

coupled nucleotide excision repair?
 A. RNA polymerase blocks the repair machinery from accessing the damaged DNA,
requiring the polymerase to be removed first.
B. Transcription factors are recruited to the site of DNA damage, which then recruits the
nucleotide excision repair machinery.
C. The DNA damage is first recognized by general DNA damage sensors, which then recruit
the transcription machinery to the site of damage for repair.
D. The repair machinery is constitutively bound to the transcribing RNA polymerase,
allowing it to immediately detect and repair any DNA damage as soon as it occurs.

Answer: B

5.Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of CSB (Cockayne
Syndrome group B) protein in transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (TC-NER)?

A) CSB is responsible for recognizing and binding DNA lesions during TC-NER.
B) CSB functions as an endonuclease to excise the damaged DNA segment.
C) CSB is recruited to RNA polymerase II to the site of DNA damage during TC-NER.
D) CSB is involved in the unwinding of DNA to expose the lesion during TC-NER.
E) CSB interacts with XPC (Xeroderma Pigmentosum group C) to initiate TC-NER.

Correct Answer: C

Group 6: Alternative excision repair

1)Which gene in S. pombe exhibits nicking activity and is analogous to mus18 gene in N.
crassa, suggesting a conserved role of UVDE in DNA repair across organisms?
A. CPD gene
B. Rad2p gene
C. UVDE gene
D. RFC gene
Ans: C

2)In humans, the AER pathway mediated through the Endo V enzyme is initiated by the
formation of:
A. Deoxyinosine
B. CPD
C. Deoxy xanthosine
D. Both A and C
Ans:D
 3)Which of the following enhances the activity of polymerase D in the AER pathway in
S.pombe?
A. Rad2p
B. Replication factor C (RFC)
C. Proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA)
D. Both B and C
Ans: D

4) __________________ present in the wedge structure of Endo V which is an important

sensor of DNA damage like helical distortions and mismatches.

A. PCNA
B. PYIP motif
C. Rad2p
D. RFC
Ans: B

5) Which of the following is a flap endonuclease that can process damaged DNA strands
with UV lesions?
A. Rad2p
B. HaeIII
C. Hindlll
D. FEN1
Ans: A

GROUP-7

(1) Which of the following stages is not involved in single-strand base repair?

a. DNA end processing

b. DNA methylation

c. DNA gap filling

d. DNA ligation

Ans. b. DNA methylation

(2) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for detecting single-strand breaks in
DNA?
a. DNA polymerase

b. Topoisomerase

c. PARP

d. Ligase

Ans. c. PARP

(3) Which of the following steps does not involve in the indirect repair of a single-strand
break?

a. Formation of an apurinic/apyrimidinic site.

b. Formation of a processed DNA intermediate with a 3'-OH group and a 5' deoxyribose
phosphate.

c. The activity of LIG3 in both long and short patch repair.

d. Attachment of TOP-1 (Topoisomerase-1) to the damaged termini in the end processing

step.

Ans. d. Attachment of TOP-1 (Topoisomerase-1) to the damaged termini in the end

processing step

(4) Which of the following statements is not well suited for the long patch repair in single-
strand break repair (SSBR)?

a. The polymerase along with Polymerase involves in the DNA gap filling.

b. The process can only repair single-nucleotide damage.

c.LIG1 exclusively participates in the ligation of the long patch DNA repair.

d.FEN1, an accessory protein, removes the 5’-flap formed after the gap.

Ans. b. The process can only repair single-nucleotide damage.

(5) Which of the following stimulates the activity of polynucleotide kinase (PNKP) in
processing the 3’-phosphate termini of the damaged DNA?

a. XRCC1
b. DNA Polymerase

c.APE2

d.FEN1

Ans. a. XRCC1

GROUP-8

MCQ

1) Which of the enzymatic domain(s) of LigD, involved in bacterial NHEJ take the place of
multiple independent eukaryotic factors responsible for cleaning DNA ends?
a) Nuclease domain
b) Ligase domain
c) Polymerase domain
e) All of the above

2) What is the main advantage of NHEJ over homologous recombination?

a) It is faster and more efficient
b) It is more accurate and less error-prone
c) It does not require a homologous template
d) It can repair double-strand breaks only

3) What are the proteins that make up the minimum NHEJ system in bacteria?
a)Ku
b)LigD
c)LigC
d)both a and b
e)both a and c

4)What is the structure of Ku protein in bacterial NHEJ?

a)Homodimer
b)Heterodimer
c)Exist in both forms
d)None of the above

5) NHEJ is predominant in which of the following phases of cell cycle?

a)S/G2
b)S
c)G2/M
d)G1
Group 9 NHEJ in Eukaryotes

1. Binding of Ku heterodimers to the DNA strand is a key step in which process?

a) Homologous recombination
b) Single strand annealing
c) Non Homologous End Joining
d) Base excision repair

2. Ku heterodimer binds to the sugar backbone of the DNA double strand ends upon a DSB
and not to nitrogenous bases in DNA. Which of the following properties can be best
explained by the statement above?

a. Ku heterodimer has a very high binding constant of 10^9, making binding to DNA
double strand ends highly spontaneous.
b. Ku binding is independent of DNA double strand end sequence.
c. Ku binding is independent of the DNA end overhang length.
d. Ku binding to DNA Double strand ends act as a scaffold for recruitment of other
proteins involved in NHEJ repair mechanism.

3. What could be the reason(s) for the preference of NHEJ use in eukaryotes?

a. Minor loss associated with an NHEJ event is less harmful than an abnormal
recombination event by HR.
b. Efficiency and ease of the DSB repair process compared to HR.
c. Maintenance of cohesive population structures.
d. Both (a) and (b)

4. Which of the following accurately describes the role of Non-Homologous End Joining
(NHEJ) in immunology?

a. NHEJ plays a critical role in the formation of antibodies.

b. NHEJ is involved in the recognition of self and non-self antigens.

c. NHEJ is involved in the activation of T-cells.

 d. NHEJ is involved in the recombination of T-cell receptor genes during T-cell
development.

5. The Artemis protein involved in NHEJ is mutated such that it can recruit all other proteins
but not XRCC4. Which of the following would be observed in the repaired DNA?

a. Unligated DNA strands

b. Double strand break
c. Strand ends with overhangs
d. None of the above

Group 10
QUESTIONS

1. Exposure to UV-B radiation results in the production of reactive species of which

element?

A) Oxygen

B) Nitrogen

C) Hydrogen

D) Carbon

2. DSB is brought about by chemical inhibition of:

A) Topoisomerase I

B) Topoisomerase II

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

3. Which of the following can cause mechanical stress that can lead to DSBs?

A) Exposure to certain chemicals

 B) Physical trauma

C) Radiation

D) All of the above

4. Which of the following repair pathways is more accurate in repairing double-strand breaks
(DSBs) during DNA replication?

A) Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)

B) Homologous recombination (HR)

C) Both pathways are equally accurate

D) DSBs during DNA replication cannot be repaired

5. Which of the following is not an exogenous source of DNA DSB?

A) Ionizing radiation

B) Environment stress

C) Meiotic recombination

D) Chemical agents

Group 11 - Single Strand Annealing

1. Which of the following proteins are NOT involved in SSA regulation?

a. RAD52
b. RAD57
c. RAD59
d. SGS1
Answer: b. RAD57

2. Which of the following regulatory factors can affect the accessibility of the damaged
DNA to the repair machinery in the SSA pathway?
 A. Checkpoint pathways
B. Cell cycle phase
C. Chromatin modifications
D. DNA damage response
E. All of the above
Answer: C (Chromatin modifications)

3. Which of the following can be a consequence of defects in single-strand annealing?

a) chromosomal rearrangements
b) increased genome stability
c) improved DNA repair efficiency
d) none of the above
Answer: a (chromosomal rearrangements)

4. Which genetic disorders are linked to SSA defects?

a) Bloom syndrome
b) Ataxia-telangiectasia-like conditions
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer : c) Both a and b

5. What makes SSA a possible target for cancer therapy?

a) Its ability to repair DSBs in tumours
b) Its role in preventing mutations in cancer cells
c) Tumours that lack other DNA repair mechanisms depend on SSA for survival
d) SSA's involvement in meiosis
Answer : c) Tumours that lack other DNA repair mechanisms depend on SSA for survival

GROUP 12 - SYNTHESIS DEPENDENT STRAND ANNEALING

1)If DNA repair through SDSA does not happen:

A)Template strand invasion is favored by single- DNA at DSB.

B)dHJ formation is disrupted.

C)Heteroduplex DNA formation does not take place

D)Srs2 prevents the formation of dHJ.

2) From the given below, Which of the following is a step involved in Synthesis-
Dependent Strand Annealing (SDSA)?

A) The Ku protein recruitment to the DNA damage site.

B) The formation of a nucleoprotein filament composed of Rad51.

C) The generation of single-stranded DNA overhangs at the site of DNA damage.

D) The extension of the 3' end of the invading strand using the complementary DNA

strand as a template.

3) Which of the following is an essential intermediate step in the repair of double-

strand breaks by homologous recombination?

A) Formation of an RNA-protein hybrid

B) Formation of a DNA-protein hybrid

C) Formation of a transient RNA-DNA hybrid

D) Formation of a double-stranded RNA

4)What is the role of Srs2 in meiotic recombination in budding yeast

Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

A) Srs2 promotes the formation of joint molecules and D-loop structures by

dismantling Rad51 filaments.

B) Srs2 inhibits the formation of joint molecules and D-loop structures by dismantling

Rad51 filaments.

C) Srs2 directly interacts with DMC1 and promotes the formation of joint molecules

and D-loop structures.

D) Srs2 regulates RPA binding during strand exchange.

5) Which of the following proteins prevents the formation of double Holliday

junctions during the SDSA pathway in yeast?

A) Rad51 B) Rad52 C) Srs2 D) DNA helicase

GROUP 13 BREAK INDUCED REPLICATION

1)BIR-mediated method used by cancer cells for telomere maintenance:

a) Telomerase activation
b) Telomerase reverse transcriptase
c) Alternative lengthening of telomeres
d) Telomere elongation

2)Which DSB repair mechanism is error-prone?

a)Break-Induced Replication(BIR)
b)Non-Homologous End Joining(NHEJ)
c)Synthesis-Dependent Strand Annealing(SDSA)
d)Double Holliday Junction(dHJ)

3) Which of the following is a mediator protein found only in prokaryotes that positions
helicase and primase enzymes on the distance loop (D-loop)?
a)PriA
b)Polδ
c)Pif1
d)recA

4) Which of the following helicases is a negative regulator of BIR?

a)Pif1
b)dnaB
c)Mcm2-7
d)Mph1

5) Which enzyme among the following is responsible for eliminating toxic joint molecules
that form as a result of strand invasion?
a)Rad51
b)Srs2
c)Rad52
d)Mph1

GROUP 14 : BACTERIAL RECOMBINATION REPAIR

1. Resolution in homologous recombination refers to the :

a) Exchange of DNA fragments
b) Regeneration of DNA molecules by genetic exchange.
c) Heterochromatin structure formation
 d) Cleavage of holliday junction
Ans:b (Regeneration of DNA molecules by genetic exchange)

2. Which group of proteins is responsible for recognising and processing of DNA

damage in bacterial recombination repair?

a) RecA complex
b) PriA complex
c) RuvABC complex
d) RecBCD complex
Ans: d (RecBCD complex)

3. What is the difference between Break Induced Repair and Synthesis Dependent
Strand
annealing?

a) BIR uses a single DNA polymerase, while SDSA uses multiple DNA
polymerases.
b) BIR results in a unidirectional DNA replication fork, while SDSA results in
the template
strand remaining the same.
c) BIR requires a second DSB end, while SDSA can use the resected second end
to start
another round of copying.
d) BIR involves the formation of a double Holliday junction, while SDSA does
not.
Ans: b (BIR results in a unidirectional DNA replication fork, while SDSA results in
the
template strand remaining the same.)

4. Which two proteins are involved in the NHEJ repair system of bacteria?

a) LigD and Rv0938

b) Ku and LigD
c) Ku and Rv0938
d) LigD and MMEJ
Ans: b)Ku and LigD.

5. What is the significance of Recombination-dependent replication(RDR) in the

maintenance of
genomes in organisms?

a) It is necessary for the initiation of DNA synthesis.

b) It helps in the formation of replication forks.
c) It facilitates the resumption of DNA synthesis from stalled replication forks.
d) It protects the genome from nuclease activity.
Ans: c) It facilitates the resumption of DNA synthesis from stalled replication forks.
GROUP 16 : DNA Damage and Checkpoints

a) P53, a tumour suppressing protein activates the transcription and translation of which
protein that halts the cycle?

1. p21
2. p300
3. CDK2
4. CHK1

b) The functions of Chk2 and Cdc25 are respectively:

1. Phosphatase and Kinase
2. Kinase and Phosphatase
3. Phosphatase and Phosphatase
4. Kinase and Kinase

c) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Replication errors can cause DNA damages
2. Metabolic processes in cells does not contribute to DNA damage
3. DNA damages could be due to alkylation, oxidation or hydrolysis of bases
4. Proliferating cells are vulnerable to DNA lesions

d) Cell cycle gets arrested at the G2 phase when:

1. The cell is deprived of nutrients
2. Chromosomes are attached to the spindle
3. Errors or DNA damage are detected
4. Adequate nutrients are available

e) Which signalling pathway is blocked when RPA(Single Stranded Binding Protein) is

mutated:
1. ATM/Tel1 pathway
2. ATR/Mec1 pathway
3. APC(Anaphase Promoting Complex) pathway
4. CDK(Cyclin Dependent Kinase) pathway

Group 17: Stringent Response

1. What is the role of ppGpp in stringent response?

a) It activates the expression of genes involved in DNA repair.
b) It inhibits the expression of genes involved in DNA replication.
c) It activates the expression of genes involved in nutrient uptake.
d) It inhibits the transcription of genes involved in protein synthesis.

Ans: d) It inhibits the transcription of genes involved in protein synthesis.

 2. During stringent response, the initial binding of RelA(stringent factor) to the
ribosome is
a) only L11 dependent.
b) only mRNA dependent.
c) both L11 and mRNA dependent.
d) both L11 and mRNA independent.

Ans: b)only mRNA dependent

3. During amino acid starvation

a) charged tRNA binds to A site of ribosome.
b) uncharged tRNA binds to A site of ribosome.
c) (p)ppGpp binds to A site of ribosome.
d) Both a and c are correct

Ans: b) uncharged tRNA binds to A site of ribosome

4. Which subunit does the alarmone bind in a RNA polymerase?

a) α-subunits of the RNA polymerase.
b) β subunit of the RNA polymerase.
c) β’ subunit of RNA polymerase.
d) Both the β and β’ subunits of RNA polymerase.

Ans: d) Both the β and β’ subunits of RNA Polymerase.

5. Which of the following cellular processes are positively regulated by the

alarmone?
a) Maintenance and stress defense.
b) Cell proliferation and growth.
c) DNA replication.
d) None of the above.

Ans: a) Maintenance and stress defense

GROUP 18 :SOS RESPONSE

What is the SOS response in E. coli?
a) A metabolic pathway that produces energy
b) A stress response mechanism activated in response to DNA damage
c) A regulatory pathway that controls gene expression
d) None of the above
Answer: b) A stress response mechanism activated in response to DNA damage

What is the function of RecA during the SOS response in E. coli?

 a) It promotes the cleavage of the LexA repressor protein
b) It synthesizes RNA in the presence of DNA lesions
c) It activates the DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
d) It activates the RNA polymerase sigma factor
Answer: a) It promotes the cleavage of the LexA repressor protein

What is the role of error-prone DNA polymerases during the SOS response in E. coli?
a) They repair DNA lesions
b) They activate the LexA repressor protein
c) They synthesize DNA even in the presence of DNA lesions, leading to an increased
mutation rate
d) They activate the RecA protein
Answer: c) They synthesize DNA even in the presence of DNA lesions, leading to an
increased mutation rate

Which of the following can trigger the SOS response?

a) Exposure to UV light
b) Depletion of nutrients
c) Changes in temperature
d) Changes in pH
Answer: a) Exposure to UV light

What is the function of the UmuD protein during the SOS response?
a) Promotes self-cleavage of LexA
b) Forms a nucleoprotein filament with RecA
c) Prevents the expression of SOS genes
d) Enables error-prone DNA synthesis
Answer: d) Enables error-prone DNA synthesis

GROUP 19- Bacterial DNA Methyl Transferases

Questions

1. Which substrate is used for DNA methylation?

a) Methyl radical
b) S-adenosyl-L-methionine
c) Methyl-Tetrahydrofolate
d) All of the above
2. What is the recognition sequence for Dam enzymes?
 a) 5’GAATTC3’
b) 5’GATC3’
c) 5’GANTC3’ [N=Any Nucleotide]
d) 5’CCNGG3’ [N=A,T]
3. What is the most common epigenetic modification in bacteria?
a) Acetylation
b) Phosphorylation
c) Methylation
d) Ubiquitylation
4. Which of the following statements is/are true?
i) R-M Mtases have both endonuclease and methyltransferase activity.
ii) Solitary MTases have methyltransferase activity only.
iii) R-M systems have two separate enzymes for methylation and restriction of DNA.
a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) only iii
d) i, ii and iii
5. What is the common mechanism used by Dam to Methylate the Bases?
a) Base inversion
b) Base transversion
c) Base flipping
d) both b and c

Group 20: Restriction-Modification System

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following modifications of the host genetic material is a marker for self-
DNA?
a. Glycosylation
b. Methylation
c. Ubiquitylation
d. Phosphorylation

2. Which of the following ions are required for the functioning of Type II restriction
endonucleases?
a. Ca2+
b. Mn2+
c. S2-
d. Mg2+
 3. Which type of Restriction enzyme is commonly used in recombinant DNA technology?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

4. Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is true?

a. The recognition sites is composed of a palindromic peptide sequence
b. It can act both, as exonuclease and endonuclease
c. Present in bacterial cells for the degradation of phage DNA
d. It can produce only sticky ends

5. Single-stranded overhangs formed as a result of restriction enzyme digestion are known as,
a. Blunt ends
b. Flush ends
c. Cohesive ends
d. Gummy ends

Group 21 Histone Modification and Epigenetics

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Histones are __________
a) Neutral
b) Positively charged
c) Negatively charged
d) Neutral with positive and negative domains
Answer: b

2. Histone Modifications area)

Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) depends on the environment and kind of modifications
d) the modifications and removal of modifications exist in equilibrium to one another
Answer: a

3. Which of the following is not a histone modification?

a. Phosphorylation
b. Methylation
c. Ubiquitination
d. Acetylation
e. All of the above
Answer: e

4. Which of the following histone modifications is associated with an open, active chromatin
state and increased gene expression?
a) Deacetylation of histones
b) Methylation of lysine 9 on histone H3
 c) Methylation of lysine 4 on histone H3
d) Phosphorylation of histones
Answer: c

5. Which enzyme catalyzes the acetylation of lysine?

a) Acetyl CoA
b) Lysine Acetylreductase
c) Lysine Acetyltransferase
d) Histone Acetyltransferase
Answer : d

Group 22

1. Which of the following is NOT the step of mRNA processing?

a) 5’ capping
b) Splicing of introns
c) Polyadenylation
d) RNA silencing

Ans. (d) RNA silencing

2. Name the term where a single pre-mRNA is processed into a number of products?
a) Alternate splicing
b) Polyadenylation
c) Capping
d) Intron removal

Ans. (a) Alternate splicing

3. The process of modification of pre mRNA is known as___________

a) Replication
b) DNA repair
c) Translation
d) RNA processing

Ans. (d) RNA processing

4. Which of the following is not involved in the post transcriptional processing of t-

RNA?
a) Base modulation
 b) Attachment of CCA arm
c) Splicing
d) Attachment of poly-A tail

Ans. (d) Attachment of poly- A tail

5. Which one of the following best describes the cap modification of eukaryotic
mRNA?
a) Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 3’ end of the transcript
b) Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of the transcript
c) String of adenine nucleotides added to the 3’ end of the transcript
d) String of adenine nucleotides added to the 5’ end of the transcript

Ans. (b) Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of the transcript

GROUP 23 - Position effect variegation and proteins involved

1. Position-Effect Variegation refers to the loss of expression of a reporter gene in some cells
due to a genetic rearrangement or transposition ,PEV is a ------------

a) heterochromatin-induced gene activation

b) euchromatin-induced gene activation

c) euchromatin-induced gene inactivation

d) heterochromatin-induced gene inactivation

Ans : OPTION D

2. X-rays can cause chromosomal rearrangements that can result in PEV. PEV was observed
first in ----------because it was one of the first organisms on which X-ray irradiation was used
as a mutation inducer.

a) Mus musculus

b) Drosophila melanogaster

c) Saccharomyces cereviseae

d) Equus quagga
Ans : OPTION B

3. What is the role of Su(var) and E(var) genes in Position effect variegation

a) the formation of DNA barriers

b) packaging into heterochromatin for explaining PEV

c) causes silencing to be lost, causes silencing to be increased

d) Inducing transcription regulator proteins

Ans : OPTION C ["suppressor of variegation" - Su(var) , "enhancer of variegation" -

E(var) ]

4. ---------------depends critically on methylation of histone H3 at lysine 9 (H3K9me2/3),

with concomitant association of HP1a protein and other interacting proteins, including H3K9
methyltransferases (HKMTs)

a) micro – RNA expression

b) Heterochromatin formation

c) chromatin remodelling

d) epigenomic plasticity

Ans : OPTION B

5. In plants the only unequivocal case of PEV that has been described was reported in
------------. The silencing of euchromatic genes occurs when the genes get placed into a new
heterochromatic neighboUrhood.

a) Oenothera blandina

b) Arabidopsis thaliana

c) Morchella esculenta

d) Bamboosa ardinarifolia

Ans : OPTION A
GROUP 24 - TELOMERE EFFECT VARIEGATION

1. Modifier genes important for exerting position effect in telomere _________

.
A. Sumo family B. SIR family C. Histone acetyltransferase D. Histone demethylase

ANSWER : B. SIR family

2. Silencing of gene in telomeric sites depends on __________

A. Length of telomere B. Silencing factors alone C. length of telomere and silencing

factors D. none of the above

ANSWER : C. Length of telomere and silencing factors

3. When a gene is inserted into telomere region what would you expect
:
A. The gene may get silenced B. It will express normally C. Telomerase will remove the
inserted gene D. none of the above

ANSWER : A. The gene may get silenced

4. What is the most common subtelomeric microdeletion syndrome ?

A. 1p36 monosomy B. 7q monosomy C. 7p monosomy D. 1q36 monosomy

ANSWER: A. 1p36 monosomy

5. Insertion of gene in telomeric sites had effect on _______

A. Replication B. segregation C. A and B D. none of the above

ANSWER : D. none of the above

Group
Which of the following is a key mechanism by which epigenetic changes can be achieved?
a) Changes to the DNA sequence itself
b) Changes to RNA transcripts
c) Modifications to histone proteins
d) Alterations to the ribosome structure
Answer: c) Modifications to histone proteins