MOCKBOARD EXAM IN CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is the Executive Department that supervises and controls the numerous Correctional Institutions nationwide?

a. Department of Justice c. Department of Social Welfare and Development

b. Department of Interior and Local Government d. Department of National Defense

2. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as amended is known as -

a. Correction Law c. Jail Management Law

b. Prison Law d. Parole and Probation Law

3. The Head of the Bureau of Corrections is known as -

a. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections c. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections

b. Director of the Bureau of Corrections d. none of these

4. What Bureau under the DILG is responsible for the supervision and control of Jails?

a. BJMP c. Bureau of Corrections

b. Provincial Jail d. City/Municipalities

5. What are the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?

A. Provincial and Sub-Provincial Jails C. District Jails

B. City and Municipal Jails D. Insular Jails

6. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls
the said jails?

a. BJMP b. DOJ c. Provincial Government d. LGU

7. Who is the Head of the Provincial Jail?

a. Provincial Jail Director c. Provincial Administrator

b. Provincial Jail Warden d. Governor

8. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?

a. Rehabilitation and Reformation c. to stand trial

b. Punishment d. Socialization

9. A place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or court action and where the convicted offenders serve short
sentences or penalty of imprisonment is known as

a. Jail b. Penitentiary c. Lock-up d. Detention Cells

10. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious beliefs, sect or the like to another
while under confinement is referred to as

a. Proselytizing c. Initiation

b. Fraternization d. Inducement

11. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention is known as –

a. Mittimus c. Detention Mittimus

b. Sentence Mittimus d. Detention Warrant

12. The entrusting for confinement or an offender to a jail by competent court or authority for investigation, trial and or
service of sentence is referred to as

a. Commitment c. Detention

b. Imprisonment d. Recognizance

13. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools or implement used to hold back, keep in check or under control is the

a. Instrument of Restraint c. Iron leg Lock

b. Handcuffs d. metallic chains

14. The maintenance of care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated
for violation of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve judgment is called -

a. custody c. Safe-Keeping e. Protection

b. Classification d. caring

15. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality,
health, criminal record, etc?

a. Classification c. Custody

b. Security d. Safe Keeping

16. Where a newly committed insular prisoner undergoes diagnosis and treatment as part of the classification process?

A. Reception and diagnostic center (RDC) C. treatment Center

B. Medical Center D. Diagnostic and Treatment Center

17. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information and other data of every prisoner into a case study to
determine the work assignment, the type supervision and degree of custody and restriction under which an offender
must live in jail?

a. Classification Board c. Board of Custody

b. Diagnostic Board d. Treatment Board

18. The open institution usually a penal farm or camp is known as the

A. NBP C. Medium Security Institution

B. Maximum Security Institution D. Minimum Security Institution

19. The Bureau of Correction has an admission program for newly committed offenders to remain in the reception and
diagnostic center for a period of -

a. 30 days c. 20 days e. 45 days

b. 60 days d. 10 days

20. How many days that a national offender be confined at the Separation Center before the actual release?

a. 30 c. 10 e. 15

b. 60 d. 45

21. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the
punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President thru the recommendation of
the Board of Parole and Pardon?

a. Amnesty c. Parole

b. Pardon d. Probation

22. The form of Executive Clemency which reduces the sentence of a convicted person to shorter term is referred to as -

a. Amnesty c. Probation

b. Commutation d. shortening

23. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is-

a. Orange c. Yellow e. Strife Orange

b. Blue d. Pink

24. Who is the executive officer in charge of each correctional institution?

A. Correctional or custodial officer C. Commissioner or Director

B. Warden or Superintendent D. Chief Warden

25. The end purpose of classification is -

a. To orient new inmates for prison life c. To develop integrated and realistic program for prison

b. To prepare inmates for prison life d. all of these

26. When an inmate is given a "shakedown" before admission it meant

a. Process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph

b. Examination for contraband

c. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk

d. All of these

27. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for adjustment process from life in prison to life in free
community within -

A. 60 days prior to release C. 90 days before release

B. 30 days prior to release D. 15 days prior to release

28. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with

a. B.P. Blg. 85 c. PD 29

b. B.P. 22 d. PD 968

29. An inmate maybe granted parole if he -

a. earned good conduct time allowance credit

b. serve minimum sentence

c. earned good behavior while serving prison term

d. all of these

30. Who prescribes minimum standard of security, hygiene, recreational, work program to provincial and/or city jails?

a. Secretary of Justice c. Custodial Officer

b. Director of Prison d. Director for Good Behavior

31. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective, the -

a. reformation of offenders c. Deterrence

b. Segregation of offender d. Confinement of Offenders

32. In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at -

a. NBP main prison c. Camp Bukang Liwayway

b. Camp Sampaguita d. Medium Security Prison

33. Who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cased in prison?

a. Classification Board c. Parole Board

b. Administrative Board d. Disciplinary Board

34. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for failure to
pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to as

a. Subsidiary imprisonment c. Secondary Imprisonment

b. Preventive Imprisonment d. None of the above

35. Placing a person to custodial coercion is to place him into physical jeopardy, thus drastically narrowing his access to
sources of personal satisfaction and reducing his self –esteem. This is true in:

a. Managerial aspect c. Restorative aspect

b. Humanitarian aspect d. None of the above is correct

36. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional
institution is known as:

a. conditional pardon c. probation

b. parole d. commutation
37. The Bureau of Correction is under the Department of:

A. Interior and Local Government C. Justice

B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology D. National Security

38. The kind of pardon under which the convict is required to comply with certain requirements is referred to as the

a. conditional pardon c. amnesty

b. probation d. parole

39. The act of the president changing and reducing a heavier penalty sentence or longer term into a shorter term is
known as the

a. Commutation c. Pardon

b. Amnesty d. Probation

40. The meaning of the word oblivion is

a. forgetting completely c. class of persons

b. abolish d. community based treatment

41. The principle of separating homogeneous type of prisoners that requires special treatment and custody is called:

a. classification d. distinction e. differentiation

b. diversification c. quarantine

42. The process of determining the needs and requirements of prisoners for assigning them to programs according to
their existing resources is called:

a. classification c. quarantine

b. diversification d. quality control

43. The formulation of tentative treatment program suited for the prisoner is known as :

a. medical officer c. treatment planning

b. classification board d. treatment program

44. The lowest in rank assigned to sentinel post such as guard houses and gates are:

a. Prison guards c. PO1

b. Senior prison guards d. NUP

45. The Custodial Division is charged with the security of prisoners, which of the following is considered as the
commanding officers?

a. security officers c. senior prison guards

b. supervisor prison guards d. prison guards

46. Which of the following is the function of the Custodial Division?

a. supervision of prisoners c. escort

b. keep records d. all of the above

47. The most used factor for diversification is:

a. degree of custody c. minimum security

b. maximum security d. graveness of crime

48. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them
by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as:

a. imprisonment b. conviction c. Trial d. Detention

49. Prisoners sentenced from one day to three years or a fine of not more than one thousand pesos are categorized as-

a. Insular Prisoner c. City Prisoner

b. Provincial Prisoner d. none of these

50. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean:

a. public execution b. social degradation

c. banishment d. public trial

51. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to
coming against a specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called:

a. exile c. transportation

b. banishment d. public trial

52. The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment gives lesson to the offender and the would be
criminals is called:

a. deterrence c. reformations

b. incapacitation d. public safety

53. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the Roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian
Code.

a. Twelve Tables c. Burgundian Code

b. Code of Draco d. Hammurabic code

54. Municipal prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from _____.

a. 1 day to 3 years c. 1 day to 30 days

b. 1 day to 6 months d. none of these

55. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in _____.

a. Palawan b. Davao c. Zamboanga d. Occ. Mindoro

56. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory movement were the major influences of today’s
correctional system. Alexander Mochanochie was the one who introduced the:

a. Solitary system b. Irish System

c. Marked System d. Congregate system

57. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during the Aquino administration in the Philippines?
 a. E. O 727 b. E.O 292 c. E.O 645 d. E. O 104

58. The generic term that includes all government agencies, facilities, programs, procedures, personnel, and techniques
concerned with the investigation, intake, custody, confinement, supervision, or treatment of alleged offenders refers to:

a. Correction b. Penology

c. criminal Justice d. base pillar

59. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in the primitive society). The concept follows that the
victim’s family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence “blood feuds” was accepted in the early
primitive societies. Retaliation means:

a. Personal Vengeance c. Tooth for a tooth

b. Eye for an Eye d. all of these

60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code prescribing savage punishment but in fact.

a. Hammurabic code c. Sumerian Code

b. Justinian code d. Code of Draco

61. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site
for boys’ training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the Manila City Jail, famous as the :

a. “ May Halique Estate” c. “Tandang Sora State”

b. New Bilibid Jail d. Muntinlupa Jail

62. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as correctional treatment for major offenders.

a. Charles Montesiquieu c. Jeremy Bentham

b. William Penn d. Cesare Beccaria

63. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and fortune to prison reform. After his findings on English
Prisons, he recommended the following: single cells for sleeping, segregation of women, segregation of youth, provision
of sanitation facilities, abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from prisoners.

a. John Howard c. Robert Peel

b. William Penn d. Manuel Montesimos

64. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:

a. the guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy. c. it must be equal for all persons

b. no one must escape its effect d. the consequences must be in accordance with law

65. The duration of arresto menor as a penalty is from ____ imprisonment.

a. 1 day to 1 month c. 1 day to 31 days

b. 1 day to 30 days d. either A or C

66. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days from the promulgation of the sentence, he escaped
from his place of confinement. He is:

a. liable for evasion of service of sentence c. considered as an escaped prisoner

 b. not liable for evasion of service of sentence d. none of these

67. Ms. Banta was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After serving her sentence she committed again the same
crime. Ms Banta is a:

a. recidivist c. quasi-recidivist

b. habitual delinguent d. mentally retarded person

68. Mr. Manny was convicted for the crime of homicide. While serving his sentence, he committed the crime of rape.
Manny is considered a:

a. recidivist c. quasi-recidivist

b. habitual delinguent d. mentally retarded person

69. Ms. Tipan was convicted for the crime of adultery for three times and with in a period of ten years. Tipan is
considered as:

a. recidivist c. quasi-recidivist

b. habitual delinguent d. mentally retarded person

70. Mr. Pande is a barangay tanod in their barangay. He arrested Mike for some legal ground but he failed to file a
complaint against the latter with in the prescribed period of filing. What crime did Pande committed?

a. arbitrary detention c. illegal Detention

b. illegal arrest d. no crime committed

71. Mr. Santos is a private individual. He conspired with PO1 Juan in detaining X. What crime did Santos committed?

a. Arbitrary detention c. Illegal detention

b. Illegal arrest d. none of these

72. PO1 Juan arrested Dino Santos by virtue of a warrant of arrest. He failed to deliver the latter to the proper judicial
authorities with in the prescribed hours of delivery. What crime did the policeman committed?

a. Arbitrary detention c. Delay in the delivery of detained person

b. Delaying Release d. Illegal arrest

73. The Camp Sampaguita in Muntinlupa houses:

a. Super Maximum Security Prisoners c. Maximum Security Prisoners

b. Medium Security Prisoners d. Minimum Security Prisoners

74. The only early Roman place of confinement which is built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.

a. Bridewell Workhouse b. Burgundian House c. Wulnut Street Jail d. none of these

75. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is violated, to afford the society or individual the
opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced. Offenders should be punished
because they deserve it. This is one justification of punishment called:

a. Atonement c. Incapacitation e. a or b

b. Deterrence d. Retribution
76. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:

a. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy. c. It must be equal for all persons

b. No one must escape its effect d. The consequence must be in accordance with law

77. The program which is conducive to change behavior and moral by changing prisoner’s attitude for a useful education
refers to:

a. Vocational education c. Prison education

b. Work programs d. Recreational Programs

78. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:

a. do away with the miscarriage of justice c. restore the political and civil rights of the accused

b. break the rigidity of the law d. all of the above

79. The following are the aims of diversification in prison or jail, except:

a. more effective execution of treatment programs c. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk

b. to prevent physical contamination of one group another d. none of the above

80. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:

a. Censor offender’s inmate c. Escort inmates

b. Inspect security devices d. Conduct disciplinary hearing

81. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves the frisking of the prisoner.

a. Identification c. Searching

b. Briefing/Orientation d. minimum security prisoners

82. When a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately:

a. sound the alarm c. locked prisoners in their respective cells

b. notify the nearest police precinct d. call the warden or the director

83. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to
critical posts to:

a. plug off the escape routes c. to shoot the escape

b. protect the other inmates d. to give warning shots

84. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in
command or the _______ officer present shall assume the command.

a. Veteran b. assistant c. most senior d. custodian

85. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison
of not more than six (6) years -

a. PD 603 b. PD 869 c. RA 6127 d. PD 698 e. PD968

86. Which of these is known as the release on Recognizance Law providers for the release of offender charged with an
offense whose penalty is not more than six (6) months and/or a fine of P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a
responsible person in the community, instead of a bail bond -

a. RA 6036 b. RA 6127 c. PD 603 d. R.A. 3660

87. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for probation, the offender applying for probation -

a. Must stay in prison as a detainee c. May be released on bail or recognizance

b. May be set free without bail d. all of these

88. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as -

a. Affiliation guidance c. Pre-sentenced investigation

b. Supervision d. Probation guidance

89. The court may grant probation only -

a. After arraignment b. After conviction c. Before conviction d. all of these

90. The investigation report of an officer shall be submitted to the court not later than-

a. 15 days from receipt of the order c. 60 days from receipt of the order

b. 30 days from receipt of the order d. 45 days from receipt of the order

91. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report, the court shall resolve the application for probation not
later than-

a. 60 days b. 30 days c. 15 days d. 45 days

92. A private person who, in 1669, established a workhouse in Hamburg at his own expense because he had observed
that thieves and prostitutes were made worse instead by better by the pillory and he hoped that they might be
improved by work and religious instruction in the workhouse. He is:

a. August Vollmer b. Peter Rentzel c. Bishop Ridley d. Garofalo

93. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution method that if the offender is solvent, his property should be
attached at the time of proceedings when started, so that he can be compelled by order of the court to make restitution.

a. Bonneville de Marsangy b. Garofalo, Ferri and Fioretti c. John Howard d. Orlando Wilson

94. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?

a. Jose Lacson c. Juan Ponce Enrile

b. Teodulo Natividad d. Antonio Torres

95. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:

a. are qualified to apply for probation c. may be granted for another probation

b. are disqualified to apply for probation d. should be confined in prison

96. The quasi-judicial body which was created under Act no. 4103 otherwise known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law
or the Parole Law., the agency that grants parole to any prisoner who is qualified to enjoy its benefit refers to:

a. The Probation and Parole Administration c. The Bureau of Correction

 b. The Board of Pardon and Parole d. all executive clemencies

97. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the criminal justice under its common law, originated
probation?

a. England b. United States c. Greece d. France

98. What is the country who first legally established probation?

a. Germany b. England c. Rome d. USA

99. Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to which the emergence of probation is
attributed?

a. Recognizance b. Benefit of the Clergy c. Reprieve d. Penance

100. Among the different common law practices, it is considered as the earliest device for softening brutal severity of
punishment?

a. Benefit of the Clergy b. Recognizance c. Penance d. Reprieve

PREPARED BY: MICHAEL M. BALAORO Ph.D.

KEY TO CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION & PROBATION

1. B 21. B 41. B 61. A 81. C

2. B 22. B 42. A 62. B 82. A
3. B 23. A 43. D 63. A 83. A
4. A 24. B 44. A 64. B 84. C
5. B 25. D 45. C 65. B 85. E
6. C 26. B 46. D 66. A 86. A
7. B 27. B 47. A 67. A 87. C
8. A 28. A 48. A 68. C 88. B
9. A 29. B 49. C 69. B 89. B
10. A 30. C 50. B 70. C 90. C
11. A 31. A 51. B 71. A 91. C
12. A 32. B 52. A 72. C 92. B
13. A 33. D 53. A 73. B 93. B
14. A 34. A 54. B 74. D 94. B
15. A 35. B 55. D 75. D 95. B
16. A 36. B 56. C 76. B 96. B
17. A 37. C 57. B 77. C 97. A
18. D 38. A 58. A 78. D 98. D
19. B 39. A 59. A 79. D 99. D
20. E 40. A 60. A 80. D 100. A