Test Booklet Series

Parishram Polity Test 1

A
2023 Roll No.

Parishram Prelims Test Series for 2024

Time Allowed:60 Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
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 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOK LET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
t.me/Target30UPSC
1) Consider the following pairs
(Judgement) :: (Case)
1.Supreme Court said that Parliament
can amend the :: Shankari Prasad Case
Fundamental rights under article 368
2. Supreme court clarified that Basic
Structure doctrine would apply ::
Waman Rao Case
To constitutional amendments enacted
after April 24, 1973
3.In judging the validity of
Constitutional Amendment Act, one ::
IR Coelho Case
have to be guided by the impact test
i.e. Right Test
4.The Supreme Court ruled that the
Parliament cannot take :: Champakam
Dorairajan Case
away or abridge any of the
Fundamental Rights, which
are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature.
How many of the statements given
above are incorrect?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Contact No. 8830115524
2) Article 22 of the Indian Constitution
provides provisions related to
protection against arrest and
detention. Which of the following
statements is true about Article 22?
1. The first part of Article 22 deals with
the cases of ordinary law so it applies
to civil arrest and arrest on failure to
pay income tax.
2.The 44th Amendment Act of 1978
allowed for detention of a person under
a preventive detention law for more
than three months without the opinion
of an advisory board.
3.In case of detention of a person
under a preventive detention law, the
authority can decline to disclose
certain facts to the person related to
grounds of his arrest, if the authority
feels that such disclosure may be
against public interest.
4. Preventive detention could be used
only to prevent public disorder.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
3) With reference to the Writs Consider
the Following Statements
1. Supreme Court can empower any
other court to issue writs.
2. The writ of Mandamus (‘we
command’) can be issued to enforce
contractual obligation
3. Prohibition is issued by a higher
court to a lower court or tribunal to
prevent the latter from exceeding its
jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction
that it does not possess.
4. In ADM Jabalpur vs Shivakant Shukla
also known as Habeas Corpus case, the
Supreme Court ruled that the writ of
Habeas Corpus can be suspended at
the time of emergency.
How many of the statements given
above are incorrect?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
4) Consider the following statements
1. Article 31A saves laws such as
agricultural land reforms, industry and
commerce from being challenged and
invalidated on the ground of
contravention of the fundamental
rights conferred by Article 14 and
Article 19.
2. Article 31B saves the acts and
regulations included in the Ninth
Schedule from being challenged and
invalidated on the ground of
contravention of any of the
fundamental rights.
3. Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th
Amendment Act of 1971, contain that
No law that seeks to implement the
socialistic directive principles specified
in Article 39 or shall be void on the
ground of contravention of the
fundamental rights conferred by Article
14
or Article 19.
4. Supreme Court in Kesavananda
Bharati case ruled that there could not
be any blanket immunity from judicial
review of laws included in the Ninth
Schedule.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
5) With reference to the Indian
Constitution, consider the following
statements:
1. There is no theory of 'Equality of
State Rights' underlying the federal
scheme in our Constitution.
2. In our Constitution, there is no
equality of representation of the states
in the Council of States.
3. The Union of India consists of the
territories of the states, the UTs, and
any territory that may be acquired in
the future.
4. The concept of Independent Judiciary
goes against the principle of federalism
as enshrined in the constitution.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
7) With reference to the Indian legal
system, consider the following
statements:
1. All pre-constitutional as well as post-
constitutional laws that are
inconsistent with or in derogation of
any of the fundamental rights shall be
void.
2. A constitutional amendment is not a
law and hence cannot be challenged in
6) With reference to the concept of
Liberty, consider the following
statements:
1. Liberty means the absence of
restraints on the activities of
individuals.
2. Absolute liberty is provided for in the
Fundamental Rights of the
Constitution.
3. The right to liberty is protected
under Article 21 of the Indian
Constitution.
4. The concept of negative liberty
focuses on self-mastery and self-
realization, while positive liberty
emphasizes on the absence of external
constraints
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
8) With reference to the Territorial
Extent of Central and State Legislation,
consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament has the ability to
make laws for the whole or any part of
the territory of India without any
restrictions or exceptions.
2. A state legislature's laws are
applicable outside the state only if
approved by the President of India.
the Supreme Court.
3. Rule by law is when the law is used
as an instrument of suppression,
oppression and social control in the
course of implementing a political
agenda.
4. While the rule of law is declared a
basic feature of the Constitution, rule
by law is the antithesis of all that is
represented by rule of law.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
9) With reference to the Parliamentary
Legislation in the State List, consider
the following statements:
1. If the Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution by simple majority that it is
necessary in the national interest for
Parliament to make laws on a matter in
the State List, the Parliament becomes
competent to make laws on that
matter.
2. During a National Emergency, the
Parliament acquires the power to
legislate on matters in the State List,
and the laws become inoperative on
the expiration of six months after the
emergency has ceased to operate.
3. When legislatures of two or more
3. The Parliament's 'extraterritorial
legislation' is limited to Indian citizens
and does not apply to Indian
companies operating abroad.
4. The President's power to make
regulations for Union Territories
extends to all Union Territories, and
these regulations can neither repeal
nor amend any act of Parliament.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. None
10) With reference to the Allocation of
Taxing Powers in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The Parliament's exclusive power to
levy taxes includes the imposition of
gift tax, wealth tax, and expenditure
tax, however these specific taxes are
not enumerated in the Union List.
2. The state legislature can impose
taxes on subjects not mentioned in any
of the three lists if it receives special
permission from the Parliament.
3. The 101st Amendment Act of 2016
conferred concurrent power upon
Parliament and State Legislatures to
make laws governing goods and
services tax, but this amendment did
states pass resolutions requesting the
Parliament to enact laws on a matter in
the State List, the state legislature
retains the power to amend or repeal
that law.
4. During President's Rule, a law made
by the Parliament with respect to any
matter in the State List in relation to
that state becomes inoperative once
the President's Rule ends.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
11) With reference to the adjudication
of inter-state water disputes in India,
consider the following statements:
1. Article 262 allows the Parliament to
enact laws for the adjudication of any
dispute or complaint with respect to
the use, distribution, and control of
waters of any inter-state river and river
valley, and to exclude the jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court and other courts
in such disputes.
2. The River Boards Act (1956) was
enacted by the Parliament under the
provision of Article 262, to set up
boards in order to settle disputes with
respect to sharing waters of inter-state
rivers.
not alter the residuary power of
taxation vested in the Parliament.
4. The Concurrent List, despite not
containing any tax entries, allows for
shared legislative competence between
the Centre and the states in matters
related to the administration of
particular taxes.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
12) With reference to the Indian
Constitution and its amendments,
consider the following statements:
1. The 24th Constitution Amendment
Act of 1971 affirmed the power of the
Parliament to amend any part of the
Constitution, including the
Fundamental Rights, and made it
mandatory for the President to provide
assent to for such amendments.
2. The 61st Constitution Amendment
Act of 1988 reduced the voting age for
the Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assembly elections from 21 to 18
years, and the age of candidacy from
30 to 25.
3. The 74th Constitution Amendment
3. The decision of the tribunal set up
for the adjudication of inter-state water
disputes under the Act is subject to
appeal in the High Court of the
concerned states.
4. The need for an extra-judicial
machinery to settle inter-state water
disputes is based on the experience
that legal rights or interests in water
supplies do not afford a satisfactory
basis for settling disputes between
states where public interests are
involved.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
13) With reference to the Motion of
Thanks on the President's Address,
consider the following statements:
1. Notices of amendments to the
Motion of Thanks can be tabled before
the President has delivered his
Address.
2. Amendments to the Motion of
Thanks may refer only to matters
contained in the Address and cannot
include matters that the Address has
failed to mention.
3. The Motion of Thanks must be
passed in both the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha, and the failure to do so
Act of 1992 provided for the
establishment of Municipalities in
urban areas, including the constitution
of Wards Committees, including the
Scheduled Areas and tribal areas.
4. The 97th Constitution Amendment
Act of 2011 introduced provisions
related to cooperatives, including the
formation of a State Co-operative
Election Authority, but it mandated that
the maximum number of directors of a
co-operative society shall not exceed
21.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
14) With reference to the Law
Commissions in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The first Law Commission was
established in 1834 under the Charter
Act of 1833, marking the beginning of
legal reform in British India.
2. The second Law Commission,
constituted in 1853, focused on the
adaptation of Hindu and Muslim
personal laws to the British legal
system, while the third and fourth Law
Commissions, in 1861 and 1879
respectively, emphasized the
codification of civil and criminal
procedural laws.
does not have any significant
consequences for the government.
4. The Speaker in the Lok Sabha and
the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha have
the authority to consider the
appropriate form of amendments to the
Motion of Thanks.
How many of the statements given
above are incorrect?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
15) Consider the following statements
regarding the e-Courts Project in India:
1. The e-Courts Project was
conceptualized under the National e-
Governance Plan and initiated in 2007,
with Phase I focusing on ICT
enablement of the District Courts and
Phase II extending to the High Courts.
2. The 'National Policy and Action Plan
for Implementation of Information and
Communication Technology in Indian
Judiciary' was formulated by a
committee chaired by the Chief Justice
of India, providing a roadmap for the e-
Courts Project.
3. The e-Courts Project is a Pan-India
initiative, with funding provided by the
Department of Justice, Ministry of Law
and Justice, Government of India, and
implementation monitored by the e-
3. The First Law Commission of
Independent India was established in
1955, and it was chaired by the then
Chief Justice of India, Mr. M. C.
Setalvad.
4. The Law Commissions have been
instrumental in recommending legal
reforms, and their recommendations
are legally binding on the government.
How many of the statements given
above are incorrect?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
16) Consider the following statements:
1. The principle of the rule of law
empowers the judiciary to exercise
oversight over the executive branch,
particularly when it oversteps its
jurisdiction, thereby ensuring a system
of checks and balances.
2. Article 105 and Article 194 of the
Indian Constitution stand as exceptions
to the rule of law, conferring specific
privileges and immunities to Members
of Parliament and State Legislatures,
respectively.
3. The rule of law is inherently linked to
the concept of equality, implying that
all individuals, regardless of their
status, are subject to the same legal
framework.
4. The doctrine of the rule of law is
Committee of the Supreme Court.
4. The e-Courts Project aims to enable
electronic filing of cases, virtual court
proceedings, and online case status
tracking, with an additional focus on
integrating Alternative Dispute
Resolution (ADR) mechanisms within
the digital platform.
How many of the statements given
above are incorrect?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
17) Which of the following is/are the
features of Federalism?
1. Different tiers of government have
their own jurisdiction as defined by
constitutional provisions.
2. The existence and authority of each
tier of government are constitutionally
guaranteed.
3. In India, the Finance Commission
constituted by the President of India
governs the financial relationship
between the Centre and the States.
4. Off-Budget borrowings mean all
borrowings not provided for in the
Budget but whose repayment liabilities
also do not fall on the Budget.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
explicitly enshrined within the Indian
Constitution, forming the cornerstone
of the nation's legal system.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
18) Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding the distinctions
between Articles 358 and 359 of the
Indian Constitution?
1. Article 358 is confined to
Fundamental Rights under Article 19,
while Article 359 may extend to all
those Fundamental Rights whose
enforcement is suspended by the
Presidential Order.
2. Article 358 operates only in case of
Internal Emergency, whereas Article
359 operates in both External and
Internal Emergency.
3. Article 358 suspends Article 19 for a
period specified by the president but
Article 359 suspends fundamental
rights for the entire duration of the
emergency.
4. Article 358 extends to the entire
 a. Only one country, while Article 359 may extend
to a part of the country or the entire
country.
b. Only two

How many of the statements given

c. Only three above are correct?

d. All four

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All four

19) The Right to Protest involves the
exercise of which of the following
fundamental rights:
1. Equality before Law
2. Freedom of Resistance
3. Freedom to assemble peacefully
4. Freedom of speech and expression
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
20) How many of the following items
have been placed in the 11th schedule
of the Indian Constitution:
1. Agriculture
2. Implementation of Land Reforms
3. Primary & Secondary School
Education
4. Public Distribution System
5. Marriage & Divorce
6. Public health, sanitation conservancy
and solid waste management.

Select the correct answer code:

a. Only one

b. Only two
a. Only two

c. Only three
b. Only three

d. All four
c. Only four

d. Only five

21) Consider the following statements 22) Consider the following statements:
regarding President's Rule in India:
1. Article 356 requires a governor's
report for the President to act, and
Article 365 allows the President to act if
a state fails to comply with the Centre's
direction.
2. President's Rule can be extended
beyond one year only if a National
Emergency is in operation, and the
Election Commission certifies that
general elections cannot be held.
3. During President's Rule, the
President may assume powers of the
concerned state high court and
suspend its constitutional provisions.
4. Laws enacted during President's
Rule become inoperative immediately
after the cessation of the President's
Rule, and cannot be altered by the
state legislature.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
23) With regards to the Government of
India Act of 1919, examine the
following statements:
1. It introduced, for the first time,
bicameralism and direct elections in
the country.
1. The Nation celebrates 24th April of
every year as National Panchayati Raj
Day to mark the passing of the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act, which
came into force on this day in 1993.
2. The Government of India celebrates
April 21 every year as 'Civil Services
Day' in honor of Sardar Vallabhbhai
Patel's address to the probationers of
Administrative Services Officers on this
date in 1947.
3. The National Science Day is
celebrated on January 30th to
commemorate the discovery of the
Raman Effect by Indian physicist Sir
C.V. Raman.
4. The National Maritime Day is
observed on April 5th to honor the
maritime history of India and the
contribution of the shipping industry.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
24) Consider the following statements
regarding the Delimitation Commission
and the process of delimitation in India:
1. The Delimitation Commission is
appointed by the Prime Minister of
India.
2. It tightened the central control over
the provinces by giving legislation over
provincial subjects to the central
legislature.
3. It separated, for the first time,
provincial budgets from the Central
budget and authorized the provincial
legislatures to enact their budgets.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
2. The last delimitation exercise that
changed the state-wise composition of
the Lok Sabha was completed in 1996.
3. The 87th Amendment Act of 2003
provided for the delimitation of
constituencies on the basis of the 2001
census.
4. The Delimitation Commission's
orders can be challenged in court.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?

a. Only one

a. Only one
b. Only two

b. Only two
c. All three

c. Only three
d. None

d. All four

25) The Digital Personal Data 26) Which among the following deals
Protection Act, 2023 (DPDP Act) in with Habeas Corpus
India has introduced new regulations
for digital personal data processing.
Consider the following statements:
a. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain
1. The DPDP Act will replace Section
43A of the Information Technology Act
b. Additional district Magistrate of
and its corresponding rules, including Jabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla
the SPDI Rules.

2. The DPDP Act mandates that Data c. Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India
Fiduciaries must provide consent
mechanisms in English only. d. Nandini Satpathy vs Dani (P.L.)

3. The DPDP Act allows the Central

Government to classify 'significant data
fiduciaries' based on factors like data
volume and sensitivity. Non-
compliance with additional obligations
for these fiduciaries can result in
penalties up to INR 100 crore.

4. The DPDP Act applies to Data

Fiduciaries and Data Processors
processing digital personal data both
within and outside India, subject to
certain exemptions.

How many of the statements given

above are correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All four

27) Consider the following statements 28) In the context of the

regarding First Constitutional
Amendment Act
1. It empowered States to ‘make any
special provision for the advancement
of any socially and educationally
backward classes of citizens or for the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes’.
2. It allowed the State to enact laws
curbing citizens’ rights to freedom of
expression and to practice any trade,
occupation or business.
3. It also prevents States from making
laws permitting them to acquire any
citizen’s estate.
4. The amendment also added a ninth
schedule to the Constitution, listing a
number of State laws which cannot be
challenged in courts.
disqualification of legislators under the
Representation of People Act 1951,
consider the following statements:
1. Section 8(3) of the Representation of
People Act states that a person
convicted and sentenced to
imprisonment for not less than two
years shall be disqualified from the
date of conviction.
2. The Supreme Court's judgment in
Lily Thomas vs Union of India (2013)
struck down Section 8 (4) of the Act,
leading to instant disqualification
without a three-month appeal period.
3. The President of India has the
authority to declare a sitting legislator
disqualified under Article 103.
4. The judgment in Lily Thomas has led
to a significant reduction in the
criminal proclivity of politicians.
How many of the above statements are Which of the statements given above
correct? are correct?

a. Only one a. Only one

b. Only two b. Only two

c. Only three c. Only three

d. All four d. All four

29) Consider the following statements:
1. Charter act of 1853 provided that
the Company’s territories in India were
held by it ‘in trust of His Majesty, His
heirs and successors’.
2. Charter act of 1833 introduced local
representation in the Indian Legislative
council.
30) Consider the following statements:
“The act provides for slave constitution
that attemps to strengthen and
perpetuate the economic bondage of
India”
The above statement was said by INC
with reference to which act?

3. The viceroy during the Indian a. Indian Council Act 1892

Council Act 1892 was Lansdowne.
b. Indian Council Act of 1909
4. Through Morley minto reform
members of the legislative councils
were allowed to ask supplementary c. Government of India Act 1919
questions,move resolutions on the
budgets.
d. Government of India Act 1935

How many of the above statements are

correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All of the above

31) Consider the following statement
regarding Press Council of India:
1. It is a statutory body.
2. Recently Ranjana prakash Desai
became the second women
chairperson of PCI.
3. Chairman is selected by Lok sabha
speaker, Rajya sabha chairman and a
member elected by PCI.
4. It also consists of 5 members from
parliament,three nominated by lok
sabha speaker and two nominated by
chairman of Rajya sabha.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All of the above
33) Consider the following features of
Pitt's India Act, 1784, select the correct
one:
1. The Act established a Board of
Control to guide and control the work
of the Court of Directors and the
Government of India.
2. The Act laid the foundation of a
centralized administration.
32) Consider the following statements
regarding constituent assembly:
1. The demand for constituent
assembly was finally accepted in
principle by British government in
Cripps Mission.
2. The constituent assembly was
constituted in November 1946 under
the scheme formulated by Cabinet
Mission plan.
3. The constituent assembly held its
first meeting on December 9,1946.The
meeting was attended by 211
members.
4. It adopted the national flag on July
22,1947.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All of the above
34) With reference to Indian
interpretation of Secularism, examine
the following statements:
1. The State does not favor any
particular religious matter whatsoever.
2. The state is not allowed make any
discrimination on the basis of religion
in matters of employment.
3. All educational institutions are free
3. The Act stated that the Presidencies to impart religious instruction of any
of Madras and Bombay were religion.
independent of the Presidency of
Bengal in all matters of war and peace. How many of the statements given
above are incorrect?
4. The offices of the Governor General
and the Commander-in-Chief were to
be united in the same person.
a. Only one
How many of the above statements are
correct?
b. Only two

c. All three
a. Only one

d. None
b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All Four

35) Second schedule of the constitution
contains provisions relating to the
emoulments,allowances,privileges of
followings:
1. Cabinet Minister
2. Judges of Supreme court and High
court
3. CAG
4. Attorney General
How many of the above are correct?
36) Consider the following pairs with
respect to addition to 8th Schedule
languages:
Language Amendments
1. Sindhi : 21st amendment act
2. Bodo,dogiri : 71st amendment act
Mithali,santahli
3. Konkani,Manipuri : 92nd amendment
act
Nepali
How many pairs are correctly
matched?

a. Only one

a. Only one
b. Only two

b. Only two
c. Only three

c. All three
d. All four

d. None of the above

37) Consider the following statement
regarding preamble of the constitution:
1. Like any other part of the
Constitution, the Preamble was also
enacted by
the Constituent Assembly; but, after
the rest of the Constitution was already
enacted.
2.’We the people’ is borrowed from
U.S.A.
3.The preamble Is based on the
‘objective resolution’drafted and
moved by pandit Nehru.
4.The preamble states that Indian
brand of socialism is ‘democratic
socialism’ as highlighted by G.B PANT
UNIVERSITY VS STATE OF UP (2006)
How many of above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All of the above
39) Consider the following statements
regarding rules of suspension of MPs
from parliament:
1.Rule 373 of lok sabha states that if
the speaker believes that the conduct
of the member is grossly
disorderly,speaker may direct the
member to withdraw from the house.
2.Rule 374 of lok sabha states that the
speaker can name a member who
disregards the chair’s authority or
persistenly obstructs the house
38) Consider the following statements
regarding Directorate of
Enforcement(ED):
1. ED is multidisciplinary organization
mandated to investigate economic
crimes and violations of foreign
exchange laws.
2. It works against the Department of
Revenue,Ministry of Finance.
3. ED Director is appointed as per the
provisions of Central Vigilance
Commission Act 2003.
4. Tenure of the director should not be
less than 3 years and any transfer has
to be approved by appointing
committee chaired by CVC.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All of the above
40) Consider the following:
1. The State shall endeavour to
promote cottage industries in urban
areas.
2. The State shall take steps to secure
the participation of workers in the
management of undertakings,
establishments or other organisations
engaged in any industry.
3. The State shall endeavour to
business.
3.Rule 374A of lok sabha states that if
a member causes grave disorder by
coming into the well of the house or
persistently obstructing business,they
are automatically suspended.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
41) Which of the following is/are
common to both ‘interest groups’ and
‘people’s movements?
1. Both attempt to influence politics
without directly taking part in electoral
competition.
2. Both have a loose organization,
where decision-making is informal and
flexible.
3. Both are largely dependent on
spontaneous mass participation.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
promote voluntary formation and
functioning of co-operative societies.
How many of the statements given
above are covered under Directive
Principles of State Policy?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
42) With reference to the
representation of people belonging to
Scheduled Castes (SCs)
and Scheduled Tribes (STs) while
implementing reservation in promotion
in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The State is obligated to collect
quantifiable data showing the
inadequacy of representation of a
section of people in public
employment.
2. Assessment on the inadequacy of
representation of the reserved
categories
in promotional posts is left to the
Central Government.
Which of the statements given above
is/are
correct?
a. 1 only

43) Which of the following situations
can be considered 'proper' for the
imposition of President’s Rule in a
state?
1. Maladministration in the state or
allegations of huge corruption
2. A government is deliberately acting
against the Constitution.
3. A constitutional direction of the
Central government is disregarded by
the state government
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
45) Which of the following are the
methods of Parliamentary control over
public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement
before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from
Consolidated Fund of India only after
passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Setting the Monetary Policy Target.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
44) Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha can detain an
ordinary bill for a maximum period of
six months whereas a State Legislative
Council can detain or delay the bill for
a period of four months.
2. A bill originating in the State
Legislative Council and rejected by the
State Legislative Assembly would
require joint setting.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
46) Which of the following countries
have agreed to share technology on
“K9 Vajra” to strengthen defence
cooperation?
a. India and Russia
b. India and South Korea
review of programme of the c. India and Japan
Government against macroeconomic
forecasts and expenditure by a
d. India and Israel
Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the
Parliament

Select the correct answer using the

codes given below:

a. Only two

b. Only three

c. Only four

d. All five

47) MPOWER measure is related to: 48) Consider the following countries:

1. Tanzania and Malawi

2. Zambia and Zimbabwe
a. Alcohol 3. South Africa and Eswatini
4. Rwanda and Kenya
b. Tobacco
How many countries are bordering
Mozambique?
c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b
a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All

49) With reference to the Cell-Free DNA 50) NIDHI Program, recently seen in
(cfDNA), consider the following news is an initiative of which of the
statements: following ministry?

1. It is released into the extracellular

environment under different
circumstances, including cell death or
other cellular processes. a. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises
2. The 'GEMINI' test utilizes cfDNA
sequencing to detect lung cancer. b. Ministry of Finance

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? c. Ministry of Science and Technology

d. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2