Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition Cowan Test Bank

Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th
Edition Cowan Test Bank

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CH-10: Test Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as ______.
A. genetic engineering
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
D. gel electrophoresis
E. gene probes
2. The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
E. gene probes
3. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
E. gene probes
4. DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______.
A. palindromes
B. reverse transcriptases
C. restriction endonucleases
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases
5. Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called ______.
A. palindromes
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases
6. EcoRI and HindIII are ______.
A. palindromes
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases
7. Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5'direction on
the other strand are ______.
A. palindromes
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases
8. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on
10-1
Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior
written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
A. larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells.
B. DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole.
C. DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen.
D. application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate.
E. All of the choices are correct.
9. DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of ______.
A. 37oC
B. 42oC
C. 60oC
D. 90oC
E. 100oC
10. DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because
A. phosphate groups have a net negative charge.

B. nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge.
C. nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge.
D. phosphate groups have a net positive charge.
11. Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______.
A. codons
B. palindromes
C. introns
D. exons
E. genes
12. In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or
chromosomes?
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA ligase
E. Primase
13. Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known
as ______..
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
E. gene probes
14. Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as _____.
A. enzymes
B. fluorescent dyes
C. radioisotopes
D. All of the choices above can be used.
15. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the
presence and location of
A. DNA.
B. proteins.
C. a specific genetic marker sequence.
D. recombinant DNA.
E. RNA.
16. Two different nucleic acids can _____ by annealing at their complementary sites.
10-2
A. form a peptide bond
B. covalently bond
C. ligate
D. hybridize
17. Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?
A. Probes can be applied to intact cells.

B. Probes can locate genes on chromosomes.
C. It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing.
D. It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA.
E. It can be used to detect RNA in cells.
18. The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
A. genes
B. codons
C. base pairs
D. proteins
E. triplets
19. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______.
A. a Southern blot
B. a Western blot
C. DNA sequencing
D. gene probes
E. the polymerase chain reaction
20. DNA polymerases used in PCR
A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.

B. must remain active at very cold temperatures.
C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
D. are labeled with fluorescent dyes.
21. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
A. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.

B. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
C. Add primers.
D. Heat target DNA to 94° C.
E. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.
22. Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?
A. Heat target DNA to 94° C.

B. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.
C. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.
D. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
E. Add primers.
23. Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
A. principal sources of restriction endonucleases.

B. used as cloning vectors.
C. genetically engineered bacteria.
D. sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases.
24. The primers in PCR are
A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.

B. reverse transcriptases.
10-3
C. bacterial enzymes.
D. DNA polymerases.
E. short RNA strands.
25. If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ____ fragments.
A. 12
B. 24
C. 27
D. 48
E. 81
26. Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR?
A. Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides

B. Primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
C. Reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
D. Reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides
27. The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer into the genome of
another organism is a specific technique called ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA technology
E. gene probe technology
28. Each of the following are features of a cloning host except
A. quick generation time.

B. minimal growth requirements.
C. mapped genome.
D. pathogenicity.
E. transformable.
29. Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except
A. origin of replication.
C. genetic markers used to screen for recombinants.
D. capacity for large inserts.
E. multiple cloning sites.
30. Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are
A. plasmids.
B. viruses.
C. bacteriophages.
D. artificial chromosomes.
31. Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts.
A. DNA
B. libraries
C. clones
D. digests
E. books
32. Which of the following is not true of vectors?
10-4
A. They are easy to manipulate.
B. They can detect RNA in cells.
C. An origin of replication (ORI) is present.
D. They contain a gene for drug resistance.
E. They must accept DNA of desired size.
33. Which of the following is the second step in gene mapping?
A. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated

B. Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C. Separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis
D. Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E. Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
34. Which step in gene mapping involves transformation?

B. Cloning host receives plasmid
C. Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
35. Which step in gene mapping can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

36. Making new genomes is called ______.
A. bioengineering
B. synthetic biology
C. genetic engineering
D. cloning
E. recombinant DNA
37. The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals from
forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial distress to the farmers as a result of freezing
weather. This product contains a strain of ______.
A. Escherichia coli
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Thermus aquaticus
D. Pseudomonas fluorescens
E. Pseudomonas syringae
38. Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading
insects.
A. Pseudomonas syringae
C. Pseudomonas fluorescens
D. Escherichia coli
E. Thermus aquaticus
39. Transgenic animals
A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins.

B. are often obtained from germline engineering.
C. will pass the genes on to their offspring.
D. commonly include mice.
10-5
40. Transgenic organisms are ______.
A. created in nature
B. only microorganisms
C. copyrighted
D. patented
41. Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms.
A. chemically
B. physically
C. naturally
D. genetically
42. Genetically modified organisms include _____.
A. bacteria
B. viruses
C. plants
D. nonhuman animals
E. All of the above have been genetically modified.
43. When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called
______.
A. cloning
B. gene therapy
C. antisense therapy
D. DNA fingerprinting
44. Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene?
A. DNA fingerprinting
B. Antisense therapy
C. Gene therapy
D. Cloning
45. The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was ______.
A. human insulin
B. hemophilia factor VIII
C. human adrenaline
D. human testosterone
E. human growth hormone
46. Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
E. 90%
47. What type of DNA map is most detailed?
A. Linkage
B. Sequence
C. Physical
D. Geographical
E. Chromosomal
48. What type of DNA map gives locations and sizes of DNA sections?
10-6
A. Linkage
B. Sequence
C. Physical
D. Geographical
E. Chromosomal
49. The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.
A. metabolomics
B. proteomics
C. genomology
D. genomics
E. metagenomics
50. Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting?
A. PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA

B. Hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample
C. Electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments
D. Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments
E. Restriction endonucleases to cut DNA
51. Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's
cancer subtype?
A. Western Blot analysis

B. PCR
C. Microarray analysis
D. Transformation
E. Oryza sativa
True / False Questions
52. Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.
True False
53. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.
True False
54. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
True False
55. After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules.
True False
56. Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.
True False
57. Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the
plasmid.
True False
58. E. coli is the best host for cloning because it possesses the mechanisms for processing and modifying proteins.
True False
59. An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells.
10-7
True False
60. Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.
True False
61. The process of introducing a needed, normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping.
True False
62. It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus.
True False
63. It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA.
True False
64. Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms among
samples.
True False
65. What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?
A. Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA.
B. They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.
C. These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of
bacteriophages.
D. Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication.
66. You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample. Which procedure would be
most useful in this case?
A. Whole genome sequencing

B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. DNA probe analysis
D. Microarray analysis
67. Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?
A. The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA.

B. This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA.
C. DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins.
D. It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab.
68. In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following should be the
important consideration?
A. How much donor DNA can be carried on the vector

B. What kind of plasmid it is
C. Whether the vector comes from a bacterium or a virus
D. Whether the vector contains RNA or DNA
69. Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). Your doctor
suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease?
10-8
A. Genome mapping
B. Reverse transcription
C. Gene therapy
D. Microarrays
70. You have made a specific DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of Neisseria gonorrhoeae,
allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be used to identify the bacterium in genital tract
specimens. However, upon testing it out against a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture, you find that it does not
work. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this negative result?
A. You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule.

B. You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample.
C. You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases.
D. You forgot to incubate the test at the 75oC temperature required for hybridization.
71. The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is
______.
A. endonuclease
B. ligase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. helicase
72. Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows. Now they receive human
insulin produced through ______.
A. gel electrophoresis
B. gene therapy
C. PCR
D. recombinant DNA technology
73. Which of the following recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched?
A. Erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow

B. Factor VIII - a protein necessary for the coagulation cascade
C. Interferons - stimulate antiviral protein production
D. Tissue plasminogen activating factor - stimulates blood clotting
74. The difference between somatic cell gene therapy and germline therapy is that
A. germline therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism
and cannot be passed on to offspring.
B. somatic cell gene therapy is introduced into the egg, sperm or developing embryo, whereas germline therapy
introduces a new gene into a mature tissue.
C. somatic cell gene therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire
organism and cannot be passed on to offspring.
D. germline therapy is the temporary repair of a genetic mutation, whereas somatic cell therapy is a permanent
fix.
75. The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an
egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures to
adulthood.
True False
76. Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that
10-9
A. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by inhibiting transcription; a non-functional
miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
B. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by promoting translation; a non-functional
miRNA can be repaired thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
C. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by initiating transcription; an over-production
of miRNA can be replaced thereby promoting necessary protein production.
D. miRNA molecules function to regulate protein production, usually by inhibiting translation; a hyperactive
miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted proteins.
77. When micro RNA molecules malfunction, their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production, which results
in tumor growth.
True False
78. SNPs are derived from ______.
B. frameshift mutations
C. gene therapy
D. point mutations
79. Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA
fingerprinting techniques. The discovery of ______ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of genetic
material.
A. miRNAs
C. SNPs
D. microarrays
80. The field of pharmacogenomics uses knowledge of an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms to determine
how they will respond to a particular drug.
True False
81. Microarray analysis is used to
A. analyze an organism's entire genome.

B. determine which genes are being expressed in an organism.
C. determine the size of gene fragments after digesting with restriction endonucleases.
D. analyze an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms.
82. One reason the field of proteomics is continually evolving following the systematic study of an organism's genome
is because
A. it became apparent that while the organism's genome is relatively stable, protein expression in an organism is
constantly changing.
B. the expression of proteins is fixed in each organism so sequencing the genome is essential to understanding
phenotypes.
C. it became apparent that protein expression is relatively uniform, whereas the genome is constantly changing.
D. once the genome had been sequenced, all protein expression was understood.
10-10
83. A proteome is an organism's full array of expressed proteins, and proteomics is the study of those proteins and the
functions they mediate.
True False
10-11
CH-10: Test Bank Key
1. Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
E. gene probes
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to

alter cell function.
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms
and their products.
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern
genetic technologies.
Section: 10.01
Topic: Basics of Genetic
Engineering
2. The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
E. gene probes

Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.01
Engineering
3. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
E. gene probes

10-12
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.03 Describe how gel electrophoresis is used
to analyze DNA.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
4. DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______.
A. palindromes
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases

Blooms Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process
of genetic engineering.
Section: 10.02
Engineering
5. Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called ______.
A. palindromes
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases

Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Topic: Recombinant DNA
Technology
6. EcoRI and HindIII are ______.
A. palindromes
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases

Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering
Technology
10-13
7. Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5'
direction on the other strand are ______.
A. palindromes
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases

Section: 10.02
Technology
8. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on
A. larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells.

B. DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole.
C. DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen.
D. application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate.

to analyze DNA.
Section: 10.02
Technology
9. DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of ______.
A. 37oC
B. 42oC
C. 60oC
D. 90oC
E. 100oC
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.
Blooms Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one
disadvantage to this technique.
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
10. DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because
A. phosphate groups have a net negative charge.

B. nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge.
C. nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge.
D. phosphate groups have a net positive charge.
10-14
and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
to analyze DNA.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
11. Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______.
A. codons
B. palindromes
C. introns
D. exons
E. genes

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
12. In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or
chromosomes?
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA ligase
E. Primase

and their products.
Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its
role in gene cloning.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
13. Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are
known as ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
E. gene probes

and their products.
10-15
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
14. Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as _____.
A. enzymes
B. fluorescent dyes
C. radioisotopes
D. All of the choices above can be used.

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
15. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the
presence and location of
A. DNA.
B. proteins.
C. a specific genetic marker sequence.
D. recombinant DNA.
E. RNA.

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
16. Two different nucleic acids can _____ by annealing at their complementary sites.
A. form a peptide bond

B. covalently bond
C. ligate
D. hybridize

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
10-16
17. Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?
A. Probes can be applied to intact cells.

B. Probes can locate genes on chromosomes.
C. It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing.
D. It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA.
E. It can be used to detect RNA in cells.

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
18. The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
A. genes
B. codons
C. base pairs
D. proteins
E. triplets

and their products.
to analyze DNA.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
19. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______.
A. a Southern blot
B. a Western blot
C. DNA sequencing
D. gene probes
E. the polymerase chain reaction
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
20. DNA polymerases used in PCR
A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.

B. must remain active at very cold temperatures.
C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
D. are labeled with fluorescent dyes.
10-17
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
21. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
A. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.

B. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
C. Add primers.
D. Heat target DNA to 94° C.
E. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
22. Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?
A. Heat target DNA to 94° C.

B. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.
C. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.
D. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
E. Add primers.
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
23. Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
A. principal sources of restriction endonucleases.

B. used as cloning vectors.
C. genetically engineered bacteria.
D. sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases.
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
24. The primers in PCR are
A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
10-18
C. bacterial enzymes.
D. DNA polymerases.
E. short RNA strands.
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
25. If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ____ fragments.
A. 12
B. 24
C. 27
D. 48
E. 81
Blooms Level: 3. Apply
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
26. Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR?
A. Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides

B. Primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
C. Reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
D. Reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
27. The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer into the genome of
another organism is a specific technique called ______.
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA technology
E. gene probe technology

and their products.
10-19
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Technology
28. Each of the following are features of a cloning host except
A. quick generation time.

B. minimal growth requirements.
C. mapped genome.
D. pathogenicity.
E. transformable.

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Technology
29. Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except
A. origin of replication.
C. genetic markers used to screen for recombinants.
D. capacity for large inserts.
E. multiple cloning sites.

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Technology
30. Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are
A. plasmids.
B. viruses.
C. bacteriophages.
D. artificial chromosomes.

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
10-20
Section: 10.02
Technology
31. Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts.
A. DNA
B. libraries
C. clones
D. digests
E. books

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Technology
32. Which of the following is not true of vectors?
A. They are easy to manipulate.

B. They can detect RNA in cells.
C. An origin of replication (ORI) is present.
D. They contain a gene for drug resistance.
E. They must accept DNA of desired size.

and their products.
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills
Section: 10.02
Technology
33. Which of the following is the second step in gene mapping?

C. Separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis

and their products.
Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of
DNA sequencing.
10-21
Section: 10.03
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
34. Which step in gene mapping involves

transformation?

B. Cloning host receives plasmid

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Technology
35. Which step in gene mapping can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
36. Making new genomes is called ______.
A. bioengineering
B. synthetic biology
C. genetic engineering
D. cloning
E. recombinant DNA

and their products.
Section: 10.03
Technology
10-22
37. The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals
from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial distress to the farmers as a result
of freezing weather. This product contains a strain of ______.
A. Escherichia coli
C. Thermus aquaticus
D. Pseudomonas fluorescens
E. Pseudomonas syringae

and their products.
Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals
and a purpose for each.
Section:
10.03
Technology
38. Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading
insects.
A. Pseudomonas syringae
C. Pseudomonas fluorescens
D. Escherichia coli
E. Thermus aquaticus

and their products.
Section:
10.03
Technology
39. Transgenic animals
A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins.

B. are often obtained from germline engineering.
C. will pass the genes on to their offspring.
D. commonly include mice.

and their products.
10-23
Section:
10.03
Technology
40. Transgenic organisms are ______.
A. created in nature
B. only microorganisms
C. copyrighted
D. patented
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.
Section:
10.03
Technology
41. Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms.
A. chemically
B. physically
C. naturally
D. genetically
Section:
10.03
Technology
42. Genetically modified organisms include _____.
A. bacteria
B. viruses
C. plants
D. nonhuman animals
E. All of the above have been genetically modified.
Section:
10.03
Technology
43. When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique
is called ______.
A. cloning
10-24
B. gene therapy
C. antisense therapy
D. DNA fingerprinting

and their products.
Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and
germline gene therapy.
Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
44. Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene?
A. DNA fingerprinting
B. Antisense therapy
C. Gene therapy
D. Cloning

Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe miRNAs and ways in which their discovery can
impact human disease.
Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
45. The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was ______.
A. human insulin
B. hemophilia factor VIII
C. human adrenaline
D. human testosterone
E. human growth hormone
Learning Outcome: 10.06 Provide several examples of recombinant products that have
contributed to human health.
Section:
10.03
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
Technology
46. Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
E. 90%
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription,
and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing.
Section: 10.04
10-25
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
47. What type of DNA map is most detailed?
A. Linkage
B. Sequence
C. Physical
D. Geographical
E. Chromosomal
Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
48. What type of DNA map gives locations and sizes of DNA sections?
A. Linkage
B. Sequence
C. Physical
D. Geographical
E. Chromosomal
Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
49. The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.
A. metabolomics
B. proteomics
C. genomology
D. genomics
E. metagenomics
ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or
signals.
Section:
10.01
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
50. Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting?
A. PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA

B. Hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample
C. Electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments
D. Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments
E. Restriction endonucleases to cut DNA
10-26
and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.11 Outline the general steps in
DNA profiling.
Section: 10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
51. Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's
cancer subtype?
A. Western Blot analysis

B. PCR
C. Microarray analysis
D. Transformation
E. Oryza sativa

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe the utility of DNA
microarray technology.
Section: 10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
52. Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.
TRUE

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Engineering
53. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.
TRUE
Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique.
Section: 10.02
Engineering
54. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
TRUE
10-27
and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.02
Engineering
55. After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules.
FALSE
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
56. Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.
FALSE

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Technology
57. Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring
the plasmid.
TRUE

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Technology
58. E. coli is the best host for cloning because it possesses the mechanisms for processing and modifying
proteins.
TRUE
10-28
Section:
10.03
Technology
59. An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells.
FALSE

and their products.
Section: 10.03
Technology
60. Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.
TRUE

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.03
Technology
61. The process of introducing a needed, normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping.
FALSE

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
62. It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus.
TRUE

and their products.
Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of
DNA sequencing.
Section: 10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
10-29
63. It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA.
TRUE

and their products.
Section: 10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
64. Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms
among samples.
TRUE

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the significance of single nucleotide polymorphisms
(SNPs) in DNA analysis.
Section: 10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
65. What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?
A. Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA.
B. They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.
C. These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of
bacteriophages.
D. Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication.

and their products.
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze
Section: 10.01
Engineering
10-30
66. You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample. Which procedure would be most
useful in this case?
A. Whole genome sequencing

B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. DNA probe analysis
D. Microarray analysis

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
67. Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?
A. The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA.

B. This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA.
C. DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins.
D. It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab.
Section:
10.02
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
68. In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following should be the
important consideration?
A. How much donor DNA can be carried on the vector

B. What kind of plasmid it is
C. Whether the vector comes from a bacterium or a virus
D. Whether the vector contains RNA or DNA

and their products.
Section: 10.02
Technology
69. Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). Your doctor
suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease?
A. Genome mapping
B. Reverse transcription
C. Gene therapy
D. Microarrays
10-31
and their products.
Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
70. You have made a specific DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of Neisseria gonorrhoeae,
allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be used to identify the bacterium in genital
tract specimens. However, upon testing it out against a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture, you find that it
does not work. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this negative result?
A. You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule.

B. You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample.
C. You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases.
D. You forgot to incubate the test at the 75oC temperature required for hybridization.
and their products.
Section: 10.02
Topic: Genetic Analyses
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
71. The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA
is ______.
A. endonuclease
B. ligase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. helicase

and their products.
Blooms Level: 1.
Remember
Section: 10.01
Engineering
72. Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows. Now they receive
human insulin produced through ______.
A. gel electrophoresis
B. gene therapy
C. PCR
D. recombinant DNA technology
10-32
Section:
10.03
Technology
73. Which of the following recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched?
A. Erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow

B. Factor VIII - a protein necessary for the coagulation cascade
C. Interferons - stimulate antiviral protein production
D. Tissue plasminogen activating factor - stimulates blood clotting
Section:
10.03
Technology
74. The difference between somatic cell gene therapy and germline therapy is that
A. germline therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the
entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring.
B. somatic cell gene therapy is introduced into the egg, sperm or developing embryo, whereas germline therapy
introduces a new gene into a mature tissue.
C. somatic cell gene therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the
entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring.
D. germline therapy is the temporary repair of a genetic mutation, whereas somatic cell therapy is a permanent
fix.

Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
75. The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an
egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures
to adulthood.
TRUE

Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
10-33
76. Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that
A. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by inhibiting transcription; a non-
functional miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
B. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by promoting translation; a non-
functional miRNA can be repaired thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
C. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by initiating transcription; an over-
production of miRNA can be replaced thereby promoting necessary protein production.
D. miRNA molecules function to regulate protein production, usually by inhibiting translation; a
hyperactive miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted proteins.

Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate
Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
77. When micro RNA molecules malfunction, their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production, which
results in tumor growth.
FALSE

Section: 10.04
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
78. SNPs are derived from ______.
C. gene therapy
D. point mutations
ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and
drug resistance).
Section:
10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
10-34
79. Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA
fingerprinting techniques. The discovery of ______ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of
genetic material.
A. miRNAs
C. SNPs
D. microarrays

Section: 10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
80. The field of pharmacogenomics uses knowledge of an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms to
determine how they will respond to a particular drug.
TRUE
signals.
Section:
10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
81. Microarray analysis is used to
A. analyze an organism's entire genome.

B. determine which genes are being expressed in an organism.
C. determine the size of gene fragments after digesting with restriction endonucleases.
D. analyze an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms.
signals.
Section:
10.05
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
82. One reason the field of proteomics is continually evolving following the systematic study of an
organism's genome is because
A. it became apparent that while the organism's genome is relatively stable, protein expression in an
organism is constantly changing.
10-35
B. the expression of proteins is fixed in each organism so sequencing the genome is essential to
understanding phenotypes.
C. it became apparent that protein expression is relatively uniform, whereas the genome is constantly
changing.
D. once the genome had been sequenced, all protein expression was understood.
signals.
Learning Outcome: 10.14 Define proteome, and explain how it
differs from genome.
Section:
10.06
Topic: Genetic
Analyses
83. A proteome is an organism's full array of expressed proteins, and proteomics is the study of those proteins and
the functions they mediate.
TRUE
signals.
Learning Outcome: 10.14 Define proteome, and explain how it
differs from genome.
Section:
10.06
Topic: Genetic
Medicine
10-36
CH-10: Test Bank Summary
# of
Category Questions
ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm
formation, pathogenicity and 1
drug resistance).
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes
of replication, transcription, 4
ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and
internal molecular cues and/ 5
or signals.
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. 28
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. 55
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 37
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms 55
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 1
Blooms Level: 1. Remember 33
Blooms Level: 2. Understand 32
Blooms Level: 3. Apply 11
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze 5
Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate 1
Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic
technologies. 13
Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of
genetic engineering. 6
Learning Outcome: 10.03 Describe how gel electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA. 4
disadvantage to this technique 13
.
Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in
gene cloning. 13
contributed to human health. 3
Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and
animals and a purpose for each. 7
Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy. 6
impact human disease. 3
Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing. 5
Learning Outcome: 10.11 Outline the general steps in DNA profiling. 1
(SNPs) in DNA analysis. 4
Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe the utility of DNA microarray technology. 3
Learning Outcome: 10.14 Define proteome, and explain how it differs from genome. 2
Section: 10.01 5
Section: 10.02 42
Section: 10.03 14
Section: 10.04 10
Section: 10.05 10
Section: 10.06 2
Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 13
Topic: Genetic Analyses 40
Topic: Genetic Medicine 10
10-37
Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution
without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 27
10-38
Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution
without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th

Edition Cowan Test Bank

1. Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as ______.

3. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.

6. EcoRI and HindIII are ______.

8. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on

9. DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of ______.

A. phosphate groups have a net negative charge.

A. Probes can be applied to intact cells.

19. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______.

20. DNA polymerases used in PCR

A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.

21. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

A. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.

22. Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

A. Heat target DNA to 94° C.

A. principal sources of restriction endonucleases.

24. The primers in PCR are

A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.

A. Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides

28. Each of the following are features of a cloning host except

A. quick generation time.

29. Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except

32. Which of the following is not true of vectors?

33. Which of the following is the second step in gene mapping?

A. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated

34. Which step in gene mapping involves transformation?

A. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated

A. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated

36. Making new genomes is called ______.

39. Transgenic animals

A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins.

40. Transgenic organisms are ______.

41. Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms.

42. Genetically modified organisms include _____.

46. Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?

47. What type of DNA map is most detailed?

49. The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.

A. PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA

A. Western Blot analysis

True / False Questions

52. Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.

53. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.

54. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

63. It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA.

Multiple Choice Questions

65. What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?

A. Whole genome sequencing

67. Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?

A. The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA.

A. How much donor DNA can be carried on the vector

A. You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule.

73. Which of the following recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched?

A. Erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow

True / False Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

76. Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that

True / False Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

78. SNPs are derived from ______.

True / False Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

81. Microarray analysis is used to