Civil Services (Pre.) Exam.

, 2009
(Held on 17-2-2009)

Political Science : Solved Paper

1. Which one of the following thinkers proposed the criterion of falsifiability as the measure of scientific truth ? (A) Levi-Strauss (B) Max Weber (C) Karl Popper (D) Karl Marx Ans : (C) 2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (a) The State comes into existence for the bare needs of life and continue to exist for the sake of good life. (b) Rights are the conditions of social life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best. (c) Greatest happiness of the greatest number. (d) From each according to his ability to each according to his needs. List-II 1. Harold Laski 2. Bentham 3. Aristotle 4. Marx Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 1 2 3 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 4 2 1 3 Ans : (C) 3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Approach) (a) New Institutionalism (b) Neo-Liberalism (c) Communitarianism (d) Behaviouralism List-II (Scholar) 1. Michael Walzer 2. David Apter 3. Milton Friendman 4. Douglass North

Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 4 1 3 2 Ans : (A) 4. For Aristotle, the State should be governed by a political statesman having which one of the following virtues ? (A) Reason (B) Knowledge (C) Prudence (D) Wealth Ans : (C) 5. Which one of the following is correct with regard to all theorists of social contract ? (A) Erasing the distinction between law and morality (B) The principle of separation of powers (C) Formation of public authority with social consent (D) Belief in innate rights Ans : (C) 6. With regard to conservatism, which of the following statements are correct ? 1. Society is an achievement, which despite all its imperfections, is preferable to the state of nature. 2. Individuals are a product of historical and social conditions. 3. Customs and values play an important role in defining the identity of the individual. 4. Power should be vested in the office rather than the individuals holding the office. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (B) 7. Who among the following has coined the term power elite ? (A) Robert Dahl (B) C. Wright Mills (C) Karl Marx (D) V. Pareto Ans : (B) 8. Antonio Gramsci establishes a strong link between which one of the following four sets of concepts ?

(A) IdeologyLeadershipDominationReligion (B) IdeologyLeadershipWar of ManoeuvreDomination (C) IdeologyLeadershipDominationPassive Revolution (D) IdeologyLeadershipDominationIntellectuals Ans : (D) 9. Which one of the following is suggested by the concept of universal citizenship ? (A) Identical rights for all persons (B) Identical rights for all citizens (C) Common rights for all with some special rights for minorities (D) Single citizenship in the world Ans : (D) 10. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to ethnicity and nationalism ? (A) Both trace common bonds across their members (B) Both distinguish between we and they (C) There is unanimity among scholars today that both are imagined relations (D) While nationalism tends towards Nation-State, ethnicity seeks the recognition of its distinct identity Ans : (C) 11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (a) Natural Right (b) Legal Right (c) Moral Right (d) Cultural Right List-II 1. Immanuel Kant 2. Jeremy Bentham 3. Will Kymlicka 4. H. L. A. Hart Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 1 3 (B) 3 1 2 4 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 4 1 2 3 Ans : (A) 12. Which one of the following political philosophers is an advocate of positive liberty ? (A) Isaiah Berlin (B) Iris Marion Young (C) John Stuart Mill (D) T. H. Green

Ans : (D) 13. Consider the following statements In his theory of justice, John Rawls : 1. reconciles a liberal conception of political obligation with a redistributive conception of social justice. 2. affirms the utilitarian principle for determining what is goot and desirable. 3. uses the instrument of the social contract to ensure fairness. 4. maintains that the concern for redistribution trumps individuals liberty. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 3 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 Ans : (C) 14. The New Right rejects the principle of social justice because it 1. violates liberty 2. is against merit 3. is not conducive to efficiency 4. does not respect different wants and needs Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 15. According to Rawls, which of the following sets of social primary goods is likely to be pursued by all human beings ? (A) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, rights and liberties, and social bases of selfrespect (B) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, healths and intelligence, and social bases of self-respect (C) Rights and liberties, income and wealth, health and intelligence, and social bases of selfrespect (D) Income and wealth, health and imagination, opportunities and powers, and social bases of self-respect Ans : (A) 16. Public institutions may not cope with the expansion of democratic participation leading to political decay. Which one of the following scholars draws attention to such a consequence ? (A) Rajni Kothari (B) Samuel Huntington (C) Robert Dahl

(D) David Held Ans : (B) 17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Idea of Justice) (a) Treating likes alike (b) Fairness (c) Net aggregate satisfaction (d) Interest of the stronger List-II (Thinker) 1. Rawls 2. Aristotle 3. Thrasymachus 4. Bentham 5. Nozick Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 5 3 (B) 2 1 3 5 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 2 1 4 3 Ans : (D) 18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Concept of Civil Society) (a) Civil society as the arena of cultural politics (b) Civil society as the arena of civic associations (c) Civil society as the zone between family and State (d) Civil society as the space for the emergence of public opinion independent of the State and the Church List-II (Thinker) 1. Hegal 2. de Tocqueville 3. Gramsci 4. Jurgen 5. Habermas Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 3 1 2 4 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 2 1 4 3 Ans : (C)

19. Consider the following statements 1. In the Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individuals as well as the society. 2. The Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhis prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (A) 20. Who among the following argues that fault lines of civilizations are the breeding grounds of conflict in 21st Century ? (A) Francis Fukuyama (B) Samuel Huntington (C) Henry Kissinger (D) Sanjay Subramaniam Ans : (B) 21. Consider the following classics of Marxism 1. The German Ideology (Marx and Engels) 2. The Paris Commune (Marx) 3. The Critique of the Gotha Programme (Marx) 4. State and Revolution (Lenin) Which of the above are a strong endorsement of direct democracy ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 Ans : (A) 22. The concept of civil disobedience is not central in the thought of who of the following ? (A) John Rawls (B) M. K. Gandhi (C) Leo Tolstoy (D) Michel Foucault Ans : (A) 23. Which one of the following theories considers democracy not as a government of the people but as the iron law of oligarchy ? (A) The Pluralist (B) The Marxist (C) The Elitist (D) The Idealist Ans : (C)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Theories of Democracy) (a) Elite theory (b) Pluralist theory (c) Radical theory (d) Neo-Liberal theory List-II (Champions) 1. C. B. Macpherson 2. Robert Nozick 3. Vilfredo Pareto 4. Robert Dahl Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 3 1 4 2 Ans : (C) 25. Consider the following statements Liberal feminists advocate: 1. equality before the law for women 2. same rights for men and women 3. special representation for women in decision-making bodies 4. assault on patriarchy Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (B) 26. The public can private spheres came to be strongly demarcated in which one of the following ideological orientations ? (A) Fascism (B) Liberalism (C) Feminism (D) Marxism Ans : (C) 27. Which one of the following books makes value and meaning crucial determinants of human action ? (A) Rousseaus Discourse on the Origin of Inequality (B) Marxs On the Jewish Question

(C) Webers Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism (D) Paines Rights of Man Ans : (C) 28. According to Lenin, what are the three sources of Marxism ? (A) Russian anarchism, French socialism and British economy (B) German philosophy, British political economy and French socialism (C) French philosophy, British economy and German socialism (D) Hegelian dialectics, Blanquis socialism and Ricardos political economy Ans : (B) 29. In which one of the following texts is the concept of dialectics examined ? (A) Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism (Lenin) (B) The Eighteenth Brumaire of Louis Bonaparte (Marx) (C) Social Reform or Revolution (Luxemburg) (D) For Marx (Althusser) Ans : (A) 30. Consider the following concepts 1. Epistemological break 2. Relative autonomy of the superstructure 3. Economy in the last instance 4. Paradigm shift Althusser is credited with which of the above concepts ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (A) 31. Consider the following 1. Decentralization 2. Labour-intensive industry 3. Promotion of Indian languages vis-a-vis English 4. Opposition to caste system Which of the above were the central tenets of Lohia-inspired socialism in India ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (A) 32. Consider the following statements 1. Truth is a subjective quality, available only to a few gifted people, whose will or spirit or personality is greater than that of the masses. 2. Non-violence is the law of our species as violence is the law of brute. Which political ideologies are reflected in the statements 1 and 2 above respectively ?

(A) Marxism in 1 and Gandhism in 2 (B) Syndicalism in 1 and Gandhism in 2 (C) Fascism in 1 and Liberalism in 2 (D) Fascism in 1 and Gandhism in 2 Ans : (D) 33. Consider the following propositions 1. Trusteeship implies making use of resources at ones command for the welfare of all. 2. Nayee (Nai) Taleem (Basic Education) is integration of learning with work. 3. Satyagraha is holding on to truth even at ones cost. With which of the above propositions did Gandhi disagree ? (A) None (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 only (D) 3 Ans : (A) 34. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Mahatma Gandhis Ideas C. F. Andrews (B) The Gandhian Way J. B. Kriplani (C) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism Ram Manohar Lohia (D) Gandhis Political Philosophy B. R. Nanda Ans : (D) 35. Consider the following countries 1. Sri Lanka 2. Malaysia 3. Australia 4. Canada Which of the above countries has/have formally declared itself/themselves as multicultural ? (A) 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (C) 36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Country) (a) Egypt (b) Nigeria (c) Sri Lanka (d) Syria List-II (Party) 1. National Democratic Party 2. Peoples Democratic Party

3. United National Party 4. Baath Party Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 4 2 3 1 (D) 4 3 2 1 Ans : (A) 37. Which one of the following was the first country-wide pressure group of the organized Indian working class ? (A) All India Trade Union Congress (B) Indian National Trade Union Congress (C) Indian Mining Federation (D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha Ans : (A) 38. With which one of the following is the expression gift of grace associated ? (A) Legal-rational authority (B) Traditional authority (C) Charismatic authority (D) Autocratic authority Ans : (C) 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Exponent) (a) Eva Balfour (b) W. W. Rostow (c) A. G. Frank (d) Samir Amin List-II (Theory) 1. Stages of development 2. Centre-periphery theory 3. Environmental theory 4. Development of underdevelopment 5. Sustainable development Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 5 1 4 2 (B) 3 4 1 5 (C) 5 4 1 2 (D) 3 1 4 5 Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following is/are the major theme(s) of New International Economic Order (NIEO) ? 1. Self-reliance 2. Globalization and liberalization Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (D) 41. Consider the following statements The New Social Movements 1. do not seek total change 2. are not class-based 3. do not believe in direct action Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 42. Consider the following International Womens Conferences 1. Nairobi 2. Mexico 3. Copenhagen 4. Beijing What is the correct chronological sequence of the above Conference ? (A) 3, 2, 4 and 1 (B) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (C) 4, 3, 1 and 2 (D) 2, 3, 1 and 4 Ans : (D) 43. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with the Trade Union Movement in India ? (A) V. V. Giri (B) N. Sanjiva Reddy (C) K. R. Narayanan (D) Zakir Hussain Ans : (A) 44. Which one of the following political theorists finds the concept of imagined community inadequate to describe nationalism in post-colonial societies ?

(A) Partha Chatterjee (B) V. R. Mehta (C) Hans Cohn (D) Ernest Gellner Ans : (A) 45. Consider the following events 1. OPECs Oil Embargo 2. Accession of UK, Ireland and Denmark to the European Economic Community (EEC) 3. Demand for a New International Economic Order by developing countries in the General Assembly of the United Nations 4. Suez Crisis What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ? (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 1 (C) 4, 2, 1 and 3 (D) 4, 3, 2 and 1 Ans : (C) 46. The key to Gramscis analysis of the failure of socialist revolution to take off in the West is the concept of (A) ideology (B) intellectuals (C) hegemony (D) civil society Ans : (C) 47. The zero-sum game as employed by the supporters of the game theory assumes that (A) the loss of one player is the gain of the other (B) the loss of one player is the loss of the other as well (C) the gain or the loss of one player has nothing to do with the gain or the loss of the other (D) the gain of one player is the gain of the other player Ans : (A) 48. Consider the following developments 1. Outsourcing of services 2. Shrinking of geographical distance 3. Rise of ethnic identity 4. Emergence of regional associations Which of the above developments are associated with globalization ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (A)

49. The old institutional approach to the study of political and government systems lays emphasis on (A) they study of formal aspects of government and politics (B) finding out principles underlying all political activites (C) the search for regularities and for making generalizations (D) transcendental ideals embodying different views of what ought to be Ans : (A) 50. Which of the following statements regarding behavioural approach are correct ? 1. It is interdisciplinary in nature. 2. It is more descriptive and less empirical. 3. It is value neutral. 4. It puts emphasis on qualitative judgement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of judicial review, which means the power to (A) review the judgements of State High Courts (B) review the functioning of the Council of Ministers (C) advise the President of India (D) decide the Constitutionality of an Act (or part thereof) passed by the Legislature Ans : (D) 52. Consider the following statements The Supreme Court judgement in S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India has been interpreted to mean that the Governor can dismiss a Council of Ministers or the Chief Minister 1. at his pleasure on his subjective estimate of the strength of the Chief Minister in the Assembly. 2. when the Legislative Assembly has expressed its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers. 3. when a measure of the Council of Ministers has been defeated on the floor of the Assembly. 4. when a censure motion against the Council of Minister has been rejected in the Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 3 and 4 Ans : (B) 53. Which of the following best perform the function of interest articulation in a political system

? 1. Trade unions and ethnic associations 2. Organizations of businessmen and civic groups 3. Judiciary and law-making institutions Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 only Ans : (C) 54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Approach and Theory) (a) Structural-Functional approach (b) Communication theory (c) General System theory (d) Rational Choice List-II (Political Scientist associated with) 1. Davi Easton 2. Karl Deutsch 3. Antony Downs 4. Gabriel Almond Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 2 4 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 4 2 1 3 Ans : (D) 55. According to Gabriel Almond, which of the following are the basic characteristics of a system ? 1. Comprehensiveness and interdependence 2. Interdependence and existence of boundaries 3. Existence of boundaries and allocation of values 4. Allocation of values and goal attainment Select the correct answer using the code given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 1 and 2 Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following was not identified by Almond as a stage of conversion process of a political system ? (A) Interest articulation (B) Interest aggregation (C) Political recruitment (D) Rule adjudication Ans : (D) 57. Consider the following political system 1. Czech Republic 2. Malaysia 3. South Africa 4. Sri Lanka What is the correct chronological sequence of the above opting to a sustained competitive electoral democracy ? (A) 2, 4, 3 and 1 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 1 (C) 4, 2, 1 and 3 (D) 4, 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (C) 58. Consider the following statements The classification of authoritarian systems made by Almond and Powell includes 1. radical and conservative totalitarian 2. pre-mobilized authoritarian and pre-mobilized democratic 3. conservative and modernizing authoritarian 4. secularized City-States and pyramidal systems Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 Ans : (D) 59. Consider the following 1. Timocracy and oligarchy 2. Democracy and tyranny 3. Republics and autocracy 4. Theocracy and polity Which of the above are included in Platos classification of governments ? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 Ans : (A)

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Institutions/Units of Government) (a) Laender (b) Procuratorates (c) Privy Council (d) Commissions de modernization List-II (Countries associated) 1. France 2. China 3. Great Britain 4. German Federal Republic Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 4 2 3 1 Ans : (D) 61. In the US House of Representatives, the second reading of a Bill is undertaken in which one of the following Committees ? (A) Select Committee (B) Standing Committee (C) Conference Committee (D) Committee of the Whole House Ans : (B) 62. When the Senate of the United States sits for a trial for impeachment of the US President, the House is presided over by the (A) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (B) President of the House (C) Vice-President of the United States (D) Senator representing the largest province of the United States Ans : (A) 63. In several States of the US, the Jim Crow Legislation was responsible for (A) segregation of different communities (B) reparations for previously segregated communities (C) common schools for blacks and whites (D) ban of civil rights movement Ans : (C) 64. The final outcome of the French presidential election is on the completion of (run of election) second ballot among (A) all the candidates

(B) top two candidates (C) top three candidates (D) top four candidates Ans : (B) 65. Consider the following statements The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless : 1. a resolution containing the proposal is moved after a 7 days notice in writing signed by not less than 1 4th of the total number of members of that House 2. the resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2 3rd of the total membership of that House Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (B) 66. During the cultural revolution in China, public security organs known as workers provost corps were created for which of the following ? 1. Dealing with counter-revolutionary activities 2. Keeping surveillance over the activities of the Red Guard Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (A) 67. The National Assembly of South Africa, by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of at least two-thirds of its members, can remove the President from the office on which of the following grounds ? 1. Serious violation of the Constitution or the Law 2. Serious misconduct 3. Moral corruption 4. Inability to perform the functions of the office Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following are included in the Right to Privacy under the Constitution of South Africa ? Right not to have : 1. person or home searched 2. property searched 3. possession seized 4. privacy of their communication infringed Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 only Ans : (D) 69. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions prepared the groundwork for the communal award granting separate representation to depressed classes in India ? (A) Southborough Committee (B) Simon Commission (C) Nehru Committee (D) Lothian Committee Ans : (B) 70. Consider the following statements with respect to the Rajya Sabha 1. The origin of the Rajya Sabha can be traced back to 1919, when in pursuance to the Government of India Act, 1919, a second chamber known as the Council of States was created. 2. The Rajya Sabha has special powers to declare that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest that Parliament may make laws with respect to a matter in the State List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (C) 71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? State No. of Members in the Rajya Sabha (A) Maharashtra 19 (B) Tamil Nadu 18 (C) Bihar 18 (D) West Bengal 16 Ans : (C) 72. Which one of the following is a Constitutional Body ? (A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (B) National Commission for Minorities

(C) National Commission for Women (D) Planning Commission Ans : (A) 73. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India ? 1. By birth 2. By descent 3. By registration 4. By nationalization 5. By incorporation of territory Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (D) 3, 4 and 4 only Ans : (C) 74. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51A of the Constitution ? 1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy 2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem 3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India 4. To preserve the rich heritage of the countrys composite culture 5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 4 and 5 Ans : (B) 75. Which of the following are considered as basic structure of the Indian Constitution ? 1. Republican and democratic form of Government 2. Secular character of the Constitution 3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Federal character of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes give below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 Ans : (D)

76. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forward the development plan, as recommended by such a Committee ? (A) The Planning Commission (B) The Finance Minister, Government of India (C) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India (D) The Government of the State Ans : (D) 77. Consider the following statements The Sarkaria Commission recommended : 1. the overlapping membership between Planning Commission and Finance Commission 2. that experts with established reputation for professional integrity be appointed to the Planning Commission 3. that centrally sponsored schemes should be kept to the minimum 4. that States should not be involved in the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 Ans : (A) 78. Under which of the following regimes was the Inter-State Council (ISC) set up ? (A) Congress Government in 1975 (B) Janata Government in 1978 (C) Janata Dal led Government in 1990 (D) United Front Government in 1996 Ans : (C) 79. Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create (A) 16 States and 3 Union Territories (B) 16 States and 5 Union Territories (C) 14 States and 6 Union Territories (D) 24 States and 9 Union Territories Ans : (C) 80. Which of the following have caused the growth of cooperative federalism in India ? 1. Union-State collaboration in economic matters 2. Union-State legislative relations 3. Compulsion of development finance 4. Dynamics of electoral politics Select the correct answer using the code given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 Ans : (C) 81. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Content Schedule in the Constitution of India (A) Languages Eighth Schedule (B) The forms of oaths or affirmations Second Schedule (C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States Fourth Schedule (D) Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection Tenth Schedule Ans : (B) 82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (a) Taxes belonging to the Union exclusively (b) Taxes belonging to the State exclusively (c) Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States (d) Duties levied as well as collected by the Union but assigned to the State List-II 1. Sales tax 2. Customs 3. Excise duties on medicinal preparation 4. Duties on succession to property other than agricultural land Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 1 3 2 Ans : (B) 83. Consider the following statements 1. Articles 64 and 89(1) of the Constitution of India provide that the Vice-President of India shall be Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit. 2. There is no such office as that of the Vice-President of India in other parliamentary systems of Governments in Commonwealth countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (C)

84. Consider the following statements 1. Interest aggregation is the activity in which the political demands of individuals and groups are combined into policy programmes. 2. Large nations usually develop more specialized organisations for the specific purpose of aggregating interests and resources behind a policy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (C) 85. Which one of the following judgements stated that secularism and federalism are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ? (A) Keshavananda Bharati Case (B) S. R. Bommai Case (C) Indira Sawhney Case (D) Minerva Mills Case Ans : (A) 86. Consider the following statements 1. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. The President has absolute power to appoint and remove the chairman and members of statutory bodies at his discretion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (A) 87. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House ? (A) Article 84 (B) Article 85 (C) Article 87 (D) Article 88 Ans : (D) 88. Which one of the following is not associated with the duties of the Prime Minister ? (A) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers (B) To recommend to the President about the decision that a particular Bill may be certified as Money Bill

(C) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for Legislations as the President may call for (D) If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister which has not been considered by the Council Ans : (B) 89. The Kamraj Plan proposed (A) priority to agriculture over industry (B) inducting senior leaders to party work (C) election to all party offices (D) an overhaul of the Congress Working Committee Ans : (D) 90. Consider the following statements 1. The representation of women in the Lok Sabha (up to 14th) has never exceeded 10 per cent of the total strength. 2. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (C) 91. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to Parliamentary Committees ? (A) To Public Accounts Committee and the Public Undertakings Committee are joint committees of both the Houses of Parliament (B) 17 Departmentally Related Committees were set up in early 1990s (C) There are Standing and Ad hoc Committees (D) The Estimates Committee and the Public Accounts Committee are always headed by a senior leader of the rulling party/coalition Ans : (D) 92. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees consists exclusively of members of the Lok Sabha ? (A) The Public Accounts Committee (B) The Estimates Committee (C) The Committee on Public Undertakings (D) The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Ans : (B)

93. Rule of Lapse means (A) all pending Bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation (B) the demand for grants of a Ministry lapses if the Departmentally Related Committee disapproves it (C) the Appropriation Bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days (D) all appropriations voted by the Legislature expire at the end of the financial year Ans : (D) 94. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of the Right to life (Article 21) to include which of the following ? 1. Right to life includes the Right to live with dignity 2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood 3. Right to life includes the Right to receive minimum wages 4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed employment for 100 days in a year Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (A) 4 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (B) 95. Verdicts of the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases have a direct bearing on Centre-State relations ? 1. S. R. Bommai Case 2. Keshavananda Bharati Case 3. Vishakha Case 4. Indira Sawhney Case Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (A) 96. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (A) ADM Jabalpur Case Rights of citizens under emergency (B) Vishakha Case Centre-State relations (C) Indira Sawhney Case Rights of women at work (D) Kartar Singh Case Rights of minorities Ans : (A) 97. Which Supreme Court Judge played a pivotal role in the introduction of Public Interest Litigation ? (A) Justice P. N. Bhagwati

(B) Justice K. S. Hegde (C) Justice A. N. Ray (D) Justice P. B. Gajendragadkar Ans : (A) 98. Which of the following States were reorganized in 1950s following strong demands for linguistic States ? 1. Karnataka 2. Maharashtra 3. Punjab 4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1 and 4 only Ans : (D) 99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List-I (Form of Citizen Interest Articulation) (a) Voting in elections (b) Informal group, social movement (c) Direct contact (d) Protest activity List-II (Scope of Interest) 1. Highly expressive support for specific interests 2. Normally deals with specific, personal problem 3. Collective action focused on a common interest 4. Broad, collective decision on government leaders and their programmes Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 1 3 2 4 (D) 4 2 3 1 Ans : (B) 100. Article 371(A) provides for special provisions with respect to which of the following States ? (A) Maharashtra and Gujarat (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Nagaland (D) Assam Ans : (C)

101. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are not correct with regard to Jammu and Kashmir (J & K) ? 1. Provisions of Article 368 cannot be extended to J & K unless it is extended by an order of the President under Article 370(1). 2. No alteration of the boundaries of the State without the consent of the Legislature of the State of J & K. 3. The Union has power to make a proclamation of financial emergency with respect to the State of J & K under Article 360. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 1 only 2 (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 Ans : (C) 102. Identify the characteristics of the Congress System as described by Rajni Kothari (A) Faction-ridden party with charismatic leadership (B) One-party dominance with weak opposition (C) One-party dominance and factions in the party networking with the opposition (D) One-party dominance and a strong regional leadership Ans : (B) 103. Consider the following statements 1. Article 86(1) of the Constitution provides that the President may address either House of Parliament or both the Houses assembled together. 2. The provision for Address by the Head of State to Parliament was made for the first time under the Government of India Act, 1935. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans : (C) 104. Consider the following political parties of India 1. DMK 2. CPI(M) 3. AGP 4. TDP Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their formation ? (A) 1, 2, 4 and 3 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (D) 4, 3, 2 and 1 Ans : (A)

105. Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment 1. It envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System. 2. It ensures that Panchayat bodies will have an assured duration of five years. 3. It stipulates that the Chairperson of a Panchayat shall be elected by and from amongst the elected members thereof. 4. It has reserved 33 per cent of the seats to Other Backward Classes in Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 4 only Ans : (B) 106. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Movement) (a) Chipko Movement (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan (c) Jharkhand Movement (d) Bandhua Mukti Morcha List-II (Person) 1. Sunderlal Bahuguna 2. Medha Patkar 3. Jaipal Singh 4. Swami Agnivesh Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 1 3 2 4 (D) 4 2 3 1 Ans : (A) 107. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (a) Democratic Decentralization (b) Nagar Panchayats (c) Panchayati Raj Elections (d) Two-tier System List-II 1. 73rd Amendment 2. 74th Amendment 3. B. R. Mehta Committee

4. Ashok Mehta Committee Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 2 4 (B) 4 1 2 3 (C) 4 2 1 3 (D) 3 2 1 4 Ans : (D) 108. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India ? 1. Constitutional status to Panchayats 2. Reservation of seats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes 3. Providing permanent structures for district planning Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 only (C) 2 only (D) 3 only Ans : (A) 109. Which one of the following States has the highest percentage of woman representatives in the Panchayati Raj Institutions ? (A) Karnataka (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) Bihar Ans : (B) 110. Which one of the following is not a part of the objectives of the Science and Technology Policy, 2003 ? (A) To ensure food, agricultural, nutritional, environmental, water, health and energy security of the people on a sustainable basis (B) Optimal utilization of existing physical and knowledge resources (C) Restricting brain drain (D) Development of innovative technologies Ans : (C) 111. According to Paul Brass, which one of the following was the crucial factor for the occurrence of communal riots in India ? (A) Absence of social trust (B) Economic rivalry between communities (C) Organized riot system (D) Memories of cultural conflict

Ans : (D) 112. According to Census 2001, which of the following sets of States/Union Territories has the highest literacy rate in India ? (A) KeralaMizoramHimachal PradeshMaharashtra (B) MizoramManipurTamil NaduMaharashtra (C) Tamil Nadu-Andhra PradeshKarnatakaGoa (D) KeralaMizoramLakshadweepGoa Ans : (D) 113. What is the correct sequence of States in terms of descending order of percentage of Scheduled Caste population to the total population of the concerned State ? (A) PunjabUttar PradeshMaharashtra (B) Tamil NaduWest BengalUttar Pradesh (C) Uttar PradeshKarnatakaTamil Nadu (D) Andhra PradeshWest BengalKerala Ans : (A) 114. On which of the following issues can a Governor make recommendation to the President ? 1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers 2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court 3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitution Machinery in the State Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 Ans : (C) 115. Consider the following statements with respect to Governor of a State 1. A Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. 2. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he has completed the age of thirty years. 3. The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 only Ans : (C) DirectionsThe following five (5) items consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below. Codes : (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true but R is false. (D) A is false but R is true. 116. Assertion (A) : T.H. Marshall divided citizenship rights as civil, political and social. Reason (R) : The civic virtue of citizenship is regarded as an important supplement to theories of institutional justice today. Ans : (B) 117. Assertion (A) : As traditions and customs stabilize owing to their constant and continuous usage, they take the shape of rights. Reason (R) : A legal right is a claim that is recognized by law and enforced by a court. Ans : (B) 118. Assertion (A) : Preferential policies need not always violate the principle of fairness. Reason (R) : Treating citizens as equals may require treating them differently. Ans : (B) 119. Assertion (A) : The system of Proportional Representation may solve the problem of minority representatives to some extent. Reason (R) : The system of Proportional Representation enables due representation to all types of groups based on ethnicity, gender interests and ideologies. Ans : (A) 120. Assertion (A) : Nazism in Germany resorted to a relentless course of militarization and expansionism. Reason (R) : Nazism subscribed to the belief of master-race destined to world domination. Ans : (A) [ Read More... ] 0 comments Labels: Civil Services Examination, Political Science, Solved Papers 2009

Civil Service Examination 2009 (New Scheme)

Services/posts to which recruitment is to be made through the Examination are :

(i) Indian Administrative Service. (ii) Indian Foreign Service. (iii) Indian Police Service. (iv) Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group A. (v) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group A. (vi) Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise), Group A (vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group A. (viii) Indian Revenue Service, (I. T.) Group A. (ix) Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group A (Assistant Works Manager, Non-technical). (x) Indian Postal Service, Group A. (xi) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group A. (xii) Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group A. (xiii) Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group A. (xiv) Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group A. (xv) Post of Assistant Security Officer in Railway Protection Force, Group A. (xvi) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group A. (xvii) Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group A. (xviii) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group A. (xix) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group B (Section Officers Grade). (xx) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group B. (xxi) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Services Group B. (xxii) Pondicherry Civil Service, Group B. (xxiii) Pondicherry Police Service Group B. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically disabled categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.

Centres of Examination :
Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Aligarh, Allahabad, Aurangabad, Bangalore, Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwar, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal,

Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jodhpur, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panji (Goa), Patna, Puducherry, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Tirupati, Thiruvananthapuram, Udaipur, and Vishakhapatnam. The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will normally be granted. However, when a candidate desires a change in centre from the one he had indicated in his Application Form for the Examination, he must send a letter addressed to the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, giving full justification as to why he desires a change in centre. Such requests will be considered on merits but requests received in the Commissions Office after the scheduled date (mentioned in the advertisement) will not be entertained under any circumstances nor will such communications be replied to.

Plan of Examination :
The Civil Services Examination will consist of two successive stages

1. Civil Services Preliminary Examination (Objective Type) for the selection of candidates for the Main Examination; and

2. Civil Services Main Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various Services and posts noted above. Applications are now invited for the Preliminary Examination only. Candidates who are declared by the Commission to have qualified for admission to the Main Examination will have to apply again, in the detailed application form which would be supplied to them. The Main Examination is likely to be held in the month of October/November of the same year.

Eligibility Conditions :
(i) Nationality (1) For the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India. (2) For other services, a candidate must be either : (a) A citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Age Limits : A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on the 1st August of year in which the examination is held.

The upper age limit is relaxable in respect of some categories of candidates. i.e., candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes, Defence Services Personnel, disabled in operation during hostilities with any foreign country, etc.

Educational Qualifications :
The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification. Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commissions Examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination with their application for the Main Examination failing which such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. The applications for the Main Examination will be called sometime in the month of July/August, in the same year. In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he has passed examination conducted by any other institution, the standard of which, in the opinion of the commission justifies his admission to the examination. Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

Number of Attempts :
Every candidate appearing at the Civil Services Examination who is otherwise eligible, shall be permitted four attempts at the examination. Provided that this restriction on the number of attempts will not apply in the case of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates who are otherwise eligible. Provided further that the number of attempts permissible to candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes, who are otherwise eligible, shall be seven.

Papers of Examination :
The Preliminary Examination consists of two papers : Paper IGeneral Studies : 150 marks Paper IIOne Subject to be selected from : 300 marks the list of optional subject i.e., Total = 450 marks Agriculture; Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science; Botany; Chemistry; Civil Engineering; Commerce; Economics, Electrical Engineering; Geography, Geology; Indian History; Law; Mathematics; Mechanical Engineering; Medical Science; Philosophy; Physics; Political Science;

Psychology; Sociology; Public Administration; Statistics; Zoology. Note : (i) Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions). (ii) The question papers will be set both in Hindi and English. (iii) The course content of the syllabi for the optional subjects will be of the degree level. (iv) Each paper will be of two hours duration. Blind candidates will, however, be allowed an extra time of twenty minutes at each paper. The main examination consists of the following papers Paper IOne of the Indian Languages to be selected by the candidate from the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. (300 marks) Paper IIEnglish (300 marks) Paper IIIEssay (200 marks) Paper IV & VGeneral Studies 300 marks for each paper Paper VI, VII, VIII & IX(300 marks for each paper) Any two subjects to be selected from the list of the optional subjects. Each subject will have two papers. The list of optional subjects given below Agriculture; Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science; Anthropology; Botany; Chemistry; Civil Engineering; Commerce & Accountancy; Economics; Electrical Engineering; Geography; Geology; History; Law; Management; Mathematics; Mechanical Engineering; Medical Science; Philosophy; Physics; Political Science and International Relations; Psychology; Public Administration; Sociology; Statistics; Zoology. Literature of one of the following Languages (Arabic; Assamese; Bodo; Bengali; Chinese; Dogri, English; French; German; Gujarati; Hindi; Kannada; Kashmiri; Konkani; Maithili; Marathi; Manipuri; Malayalam; Nepali; Oriya; Pali; Persian; Punjabi; Russian; Sanskrit; Santali; Sindhi; Tamil; Telugu; Urdu. Note : (i) Candidates will not be allowed to offer the following combinations of subjects : (a) Political Science and International Relations and public Administration; (b) Commerce and Accountancy and Management; (c) Anthropology and Sociology; (d) Mathematics and Statistics; (e) Agriculture and Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science; (f) Management and Public Administration; (g) Of the Engineering subjects, viz., Civil Engineering, Electrical Engineering and Mechanical Engineeringnot more than one subject; (h) Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science and Medical Science. (ii) The question papers for the examination will be of conventional (Essay) type. (iii) Each paper will be of three hours duration. Blind candidates will, however, be allowed an extra time of thirty minutes at each paper. (iv) Candidates will have the option to answer all the question papers, except the language papers viz. Papers I and II above in any one of the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution or in English. (v) Candidates exercising the option to answer papers III to IX in any one of the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution may, if they so desire, give English version

within brackets of only the description of the technical terms, if any, in addition to the version in the language opted by them. (vi) The question papers other than language papers will be set both in Hindi and English.

Interview Test will carry 300 marks, the candidate will be interviewed by a Board
who will have before them a record of his/her career. He/she will be asked questions on matters of general interest. The object of the interview is to assess the personal suitability of the candidate for a career in Public Service by a Board of competent and unbiased observers. The test is intended to judge the mental calibre of a candidate. In broad terms this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also social traits and his interest in current affairs. Some of the qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimilation, clear and logical exposition, balance of judgement, variety and depth of interest, ability for social cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity. The technique of the interview is not that of a strict cross-examination but of a natural, though directed and purposive conversation which is intended to reveal the mental qualities of the candidate. The interview test is not intended to be a test either of the specialised or general knowledge of the candidates which has been already tested through their written papers. Candidates are expected to have taken an intelligent interest not only in their special subjects of academic study but also in the events which are happening around them both within and outside their own state or country as well as in modern currents of thought and in new discoveries which should rouse the curiosity of well educated youth. [ Read More... ] 0 comments Labels: Civil Services Examination, Syllabus

Civil Services (Pre) Exam, 2008 : Commerce (Solved)

CIVIL SERVICES (Pre.) EXAM., 2008

Commerce : Solved Paper

(Held on 18-5-2008) 1. In case of any default made in complying with the provisions relating to the postal ballot, the officer on default will be punishable with which one of the following fines ? (A) Rs. twenty thousand in respect of each such default (B) Rs. fifty thousand in respect of each such default (C) Rs. one lakh in respect of each such default (D) Rs. two lakh in respect of each such default 2. A listed company opting for buyback of shares under the Companies Act, 1956 has to submit return, after completion of such buy-back within which one of the following periods ? (A) 6 months of such completion to the Registrar of Companies only

(B) 45 days of such completion to the SEBI only (C) 30 days of such completion to the Registrar of Companies and SEBI (D) 30 days of such completion to the SEBI only 3. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the doctrine of indoor management and the rule of constructive notice ? (A) The former operates to protect the outsider against the company and the latter protects the company against the outsider (B) The former operates to protect the company against the outsider and the latter protects the outsider against the company (C) Both protect the company against the outsider (D) Both protect the outsider against the company 4. What is Director Identification Number (DIN) ? (A) An identification number which the individual company allots to the intending director (B) A number which the Central Government allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company (C) A number which the SEBI allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company (D) A number which the Central Government allots to retired directors so as to build data base 5. Small shareholders' director is to be appointed by which of the following companies ? (A) Public companies having Rs. 5 crores or more of paid up capital and minimum of 1000 small shareholders (B) Public companies having Rs. 10 crores or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 1000 small shareholders (C) Public companies having Rs. 1 crore or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 100 small shareholders (D) Public companies having Rs. 5 crores or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 100 small shareholders 6. When does a body corporate become capable forthwith of exercising all the functions of a company ? (A) On finalizing Memorandum of Association (B) On obtaining certificate of commencement of business (C) On obtaining certificate of incorporation (D) On having convened its first Annual General Meeting 7. For how many years the books of accounts of a company have to be preserved in good order ? (A) For a period of not less than eight years immediately preceding the current year (B) For a period of not less than five years immediately preceding the current year (C) For a period of not less than six years immediately preceding the current years (D) For a period of not less than four years immediately preceding the current year 8. Which one of the following is not one of the elements of the 7S McKinsey Model for analyzing and improving organizational effectiveness ?

(A) Strategy (B) Structure (C) Shared Values (D) Standard 9. Consider the following statements 1. Aggregate planning implies operational planning concerned with determining a firm's production requirements and manufacturing capacity. 2. Behaviour modification is a concept of motivation totally independent of rewards for the employees. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 10. What is the correct sequence of the following steps in a strategic planning process ? 1. Inputs 2. Evaluation of alternatives 3. Execution 4. SWOT analysis Select the correct answer using the code given below (A) 1 - 4 - 2 - 3 (B) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3 (C) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (D) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2 11. Consider the following statements 1. Managerial grid is an organizational concept that brings together teams of individuals from specialized jobs and departments for achieving specific results in defined periods of time. 2. The matrix management model is based on a matrix of values between 0 and 9 for two primary variables. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 12. A limited company makes a net profit of Rs. 2,00,000 after writing off preliminary expenses amounting to Rs. 20,000 and providing for depreciation on assets amounting to Rs. 40,000 and gain of Rs. 10,000 on sale of a piece of machinery. What are the funds from operation ? (A) Rs. 2,00,000 (B) Rs. 2,40,000 (C) Rs. 2,50,000 (D) Rs. 2,60,000

13. Consider the following items that are disclosed in a statement of cash flows 1. Cash flow from operating activities. 2. Cash flow from financing activities. 3. Closing cash and cash equivalents. 4. Cash from investing activities What is the correct chronological order of their disclosure of the above cash flows ? (A) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 (B) 1 - 4 - 2 - 3 (C) 2 - 4 - 1 - 3 (D) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 14. Consider the following statements A cash flow statement is generally prepared for 1. Ascertaining the net cash flows between two accounting periods. 2. Understanding the trends of cash flows between two accounting periods. 3. Short term cash planning of the business. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 15. Which of the following represents corporate sustainable reporting ? (A) Publishing annual financial statement only (B) Publishing annual financial statements and social accounts (C) Publishing social and environmental accounts annually (D) Publishing annual financial statements incorporating economic, social and environmental performances 16. Sometimes an auditor is called upon to review the operations of an enterprise for evaluating their cost-effectiveness. What is this kind of audit generally known as ? (A) Cost Audit (B) Operations Audit (C) Tax Audit (D) Independent Financial Audit 17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Assets and Liabilities) (a) Current assets (b) Fixed assets (c) Deferred revenue expenditure (d) Current liabilities List II (Accepted Principles of Valuation) 1. To be valued at cost less depreciation

2. To be valued at cost or market price whichever is lower 3. To be valued at the maximum figure which might be incurred 4. To be written off within a reasonable period of time Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 3 1 4 2 18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List I (Type of Audit) (a) Statutory Audit (b) Management Audit (c) Cost Audit (d) Financial Audit List II (Explanation) 1. Judge the correctness of the financial statements and establish their reliability 2. Appraisal of performance of executives 3. Examination of past records 4. Verification of cost records Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 3 2 4 1 (D) 1 4 2 3 19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Technique of Auditing) (a) Vouching (b) Verification (c) Investigation (d) Valuation List-II (Explanation) 1. It is an enquiry into the value, ownership and title of assets 2. It is testing of the exact value of an asset on the basis of its utility 3. It is the verification of authority and authenticity of transactions as recorded in the books of accounts 4. It is an examination of accounts and records of a business concern with some special purpose Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 2 4 1 (B) 4 1 3 2

(C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 4 2 3 1 20. Consider the following statements Internal check relates to 1. arrangement of duties of employees. 2. distribution of work in such a way that work of one employee is checked by other employee. 3. review of operations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 21. Consider the following categories of documentary evidence from the point of view of the degree of their reliability. 1. Documentary evidence originating from and held by the entity. 2. Documentary evidence originating from third parties and held by the entity. 3. Documentary evidence originating from and held by the third party. 4. Documentary evidence originating from entity and held by the third party. Which one of the following is the correct order (high to low) of their degree of reliability ? (A) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2 (B) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (C) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 (D) 3 - 1 - 4 - 2 22. Which one of the following is not included in the internal check as regards purchases ? (A) Assessment of requirements (B) Placing orders (C) Despatch of goods (D) Recording and making payments 23. Consider the following statements 1. It is mandatory for all business enterprises to conduct audit of accounts. 2. Audit Note Book is a tool in the conduct of audit. 3. Internal check system is an inbuilt mechanism within an organization to check frauds and errors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Type of Books)

(a) Minutes Book (b) Subsidiary Ledger (c) Stores Ledger (d) Log Book List-II (Content) 1. Records of issue of packing materials 2. Records of running hours of machine 3. Records of decisions at a meeting 4. Records entry of receipt from debtors Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 2 1 4 (B) 1 4 3 2 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 1 2 3 4 25. What is the method in which an amount equal to the amount written off as depreciation is invested in outside securities in order to facilitate replacement of an asset at the expiry of its life period, called ? (A) Annuity Method (B) Sinking Fund Method (C) Replacement Method (D) Depletion Method 26. What is Capital Redemption Reserve Account available for ? (A) Redemption of redeemable preference shares (B) Redemption of redeemable debentures (C) Reorganization of share capital (D) Issue of fully paid bonus shares 27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List I (Item) (a) Earnings per share (b) Cash flow statement (c) Inventory valuation (d) Disclosure of accounting policies List-II (Accounting Standard) 1. AS-3 2. AS-20 3. AS-1 4. AS-2 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 4 2 (B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 1 4 3 28. Government grants related to income as per the Accounting Standard (AS)-12 should be (A) Presented as a credit in the statement of Profit and Loss (B) Presented as a deferred income on the asset side of the balance sheet (C) Presented as a capital grant on the liability side of balance sheet (D) Presented both in the Profit and Loss statement and in the balance sheet 29. What is the renewal fees paid for a patent right ? (A) Capital expenditure (B) Revenue expenditure (C) Deferred revenue expenditure (D) Development expenditure 30. According to the Accounting Standard (AS)-2, the inventory is to be valued at which one of the following ? (A) Actual cost or sales value, whichever is lower (B) Historical cost (C) Net realizable value (D) Historical cost or net realizable value, whichever is lower 31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Nature of Expenditures/Receipts) (a) Capital receipts (b) Capital expenditure (c) Revenue expenditure (d) Revenue receipt List II (Example) 1. Sale of fixed assets 2. Improvement of fixed assets 3. Income received as interest 4. Interest on loan for business Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 1 4 2 3 (D) 3 2 4 1 32. Which of the following is affected by treatment of an accrued item in accounting ? (A) Profit and Loss A/c only (B) Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c (C) Balance Sheet only (D) Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet

33. Income and expenses for the year 2006 are Fee Received in Cash Rs.24,000 Accrued Fee Rs.6,000 Rent for Chamber Paid Rs.6,000 Outstanding Rent Rs.2,000 Salary Paid to Staff Rs.6,000 Miscellaneous Expenses Paid Rs.200 Salary paid in advance to staff included in the above : Rs. 1,000. What is the income under accrual basis ? (A) Rs. 11,800 (B) Rs. 13,200 (C) Rs. 16,800 (D) Rs. 30,000 34. If Opening Stock Rs.15,000 Purchases Rs.37,500 Direct Expenses Rs.1,500 Closing Stock Rs.7,500 Operating Expenses Rs.3,000 Sales are Rs. 60,000 during the year, what is the net profit ? (A) Rs. 12,000 (B) Rs. 10,500 (C) Rs. 7,500 (D) Rs. 3,000 35. On 1.4.2007, a firm's capital was Rs. 2,00,000, Assets Rs. 2,40,000 and Liabilities Rs. 40,000. It sold goods costing Rs. 10,000 for Rs. 12,000. What will be the position of accounting equation after this transaction has been recorded in accounts ? Assets = Capital + Liabilities (A) 2,42,000 = 2,02,000 + 40,000 (B) 2,52,000 = 2,12,000 + 40,000 (C) 2,30,000 = 2,00,000 + 30,000 (D) 2,22,000 = 1,82,000 + 40,000 36. Which one of the following statements about preparation of financial statements of a limited liability company is correct ? (A) Financial statements should be prepared according to the cash basis of accounting only (B) Financial statements should be prepared according to the accrual basis of accounting only (C) Financial statements should be prepared according to either the cash basis or accrual basis of accounting (D) Financial statements should be prepared according to both the accrual and cash basis of accounting

37. Expenses need to be recorded in the period in which the associated revenues are recognised. This is to be ensured as per which one of the following accounting principles ? (A) Revenue recognition (B) Cost benefit (C) Matching (D) Periodicity 38. How is profit prior to incorporation treated as ? (A) Revenue reserve (B) Secret reserve (C) Capital reserve (D) General reserve 39. Which one of the following has replaced the Budla system in India ? (A) Rolling settlement (B) Trading in equity derivatives (C) Depository system (D) Online trading 40. Which one of the following is not correct ? (A) Mutual Fund ensures its participants a professional management of portfolio selection (B) Mutual Fund schemes can be open-ended and/or closeended (C) Balanced Mutual Fund aims at earning current income and capital appreciation (D) Mutual Fund is an investment company and a merchant banker 41. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) Business firms combine to avoid wasteful competition (B) Business combination is possible only among joint stock companies (C) Business firms may combine to take advantage of patent rights of individual firms (D) During economic depression, small firms are absorbed by financially sound large firms 42. What is the theory of social responsibility that focuses on how companies respond to issues, rather than trying to determine their ultimate social responsibility, called ? (A) Corporate social performance (B) Corporate social responsiveness (C) Stewardship principle (D) Enlightened self-interest 43. What is a systematic evaluation of a company's activities in a given area of social interest such as environmental protection, workplace safety or community involvement, called ? (A) Social responsibility (B) Social accounting (C) Social audit (D) Social forecasting

44. What is cross rate ? (A) A rate of exchange derived from central bank (B) A rate of exchange between two currencies, other than those that form a market's principal rates (C) A rate of exchange derived from the quotations for buying currencies (D) A rate of exchange quoted by a dealer in foreign exchange for selling currencies 45. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) Working capital is made available by the banks to the export sector at subsidized rates of interest (B) Market Development Fund provides the necessary financial assistance for market promotion (C) Export Houses/Star Trading houses are granted additional license against exports made during the preceding year (D) Export profits enjoy a variety of tax concessions in India 46. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ? (A) Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods (B) Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries (C) Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs (D) Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries 47. In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ? (A) Loco price (B) C.I.F. price (C) Franco price (D) Landed price 48. Consider the following statements 1. Letter of credit cannot be opened by mail. 2. Contracts of export of goods and services against payment to be secured partly or fully beyond 90 days are treated as deferred payment exports. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 49. Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ? (A) Subrogation (B) Utmost good faith

(C) Contribution (D) Average clause 50. In a marine insurance, when must the insurable interest exist ? (A) At the time of making contract (B) At the time of loss of subject matter (C) Both at the time of making contract and at the time of loss of subject matter (D) At the time of termination of the policy 51. What is/are the consequence(s) of non-registration of partnership firm ? 1. It cannot sue any of its partners. 2. Partners of an unregistered firm can file suits against each other. 3. Partners can sue the firm to enforce their claims. Select the correct answer using the code given below (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of the above 52. Consider the following statements In the absence of an agreement, a partner of a firm has the right to 1. claim remuneration for taking part in the management. 2. take part in the conduct and management of business. 3. share the profits of the firm equally with other partners. 4. pledge partnership property as a security for his own private debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 only (D) 4 only 53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Type of Company) (a) Statutory company (b) Registered company (c) Company limited by shares (d) Company limited by guarantee List-II (Feature) 1. Member's liability is limited to the face value of shares 2. Regulated by the provisions of the Companies Act 3. Generally formed for promotion of culture, art, science, religion etc. 4. Formed under Special Act Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 4 2 1 3 54. Consider the following statements in respect of the Duty Free Import Authorization Scheme. 1. The scheme offers the facility to import the required inputs before exports. 2. The scheme allows the transfer of scrip once the export obligation is complete. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 55. Under which one of the following is the term Dominant Undertaking defined ? (A) MRTP Act (B) FEMA (C) Companies Act (D) SEBI Directions(Q. 5660) Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true. 56. Assertion (A)A company is accountable to the society since it makes use of communityowned assets and other infrastructural facilities and enjoys concessions provided by State from taxpayers' money. Reason (R)The best way of social responsibility reporting is to prepare a value-added statement which shows the income earned by all the stake-holders. 57. Assertion (A)Income tax paid is not shown on the debit side of the sole proprietor's Profit and Loss account. Reason (R)It is an appropriation of profit and thus goes to Profit and Loss Appropriation Account. 58. Assertion (A)The scope of audit of accounts of a limited company may be restricted by the Board of Directors. Reason (R)The Board of Directors is responsible for adherence to Accounting Standards in preparation of financial statements. 59. Assertion (A)Analytical review procedures are useful only at the time of planning of an

audit. Reason (R)Analytical reviews are the test of financial information conducted through a study and review of relationship among financial data. 60. Assertion (A)In dividend stripping or bond washing which is resorted to in some countries, fixed-interest securities are bought when they have gone exdividend and sold before the next dividend is paid. Reason (R)In such countries, dividends are taxed at a higher rate than capital gains. 61. To which one of the following aspects does an established pattern of relationships among the components of an organization refer ? (A) Organization strategy (B) Organization structure (C) Organization process (D) Organization policy 62. Consider the following statements 1. Authority in an organization is the formal or institutional right to command stemming from official delegation of position. 2. Legitimate power is the right to manage derived from delegation based on ownership or property rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 63. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the Theory X? (A) It emphasizes that most average human beings avoid to be led, want to lead (B) According to the theory X, the Managers tend to be autocratic (C) The theory X assumes that most human beings must be directly controlled in order to achieve organizational goals (D) The theory X assumes that most individuals have little ambition and want security 64. When Maslow's need hierarchy is compared with Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation, which of the following statements are correct ? 1. Maslow's psychological needs; security, safety and affiliation or acceptance represent almost the same meanings as Herzberg's maintenance factor. 2. Esteem or status is also a part of maintenance factor. 3. Self-actualization can be compared as a component of motivators as in Herzberg's theory. Select the correct answer using the code given below (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

65. Which one of the following is not an element of direction ? (A) Planning and organizing various resources for doing work (B) Continuous training activity in which subordinates are instructed to carry out a particular assignment (C) Motivation of subordinates to try to meet the expectations of manager (D) Maintaining discipline and rewarding those who perform properly 66. Consider the following statements in respect of PERT 1. PERT is a variation of milestone budgeting. 2. PERT employs probabilistic estimate of time required for completion of an activity. 3. PERT also includes the transfer of resources for reduction of duration of completion of a project. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only 67. Some organizations have escalator clause in their labour agreements. What does this clause provide for ? (A) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on seniority (B) Wage increase depending on output per day by the worker (C) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending upon increase in price index (D) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on increase in profits of the firm 68. What is an organization structure in which each employee reports to both a functional (or division) manager and to a project (or group) manager, known as ? (A) Strategic business unit (B) Departmentation by customer (C) Matrix structure (D) Departmentation by territory 69. According to force-field theory, every behaviour is the result of equilibrium between which of the following ? (A) Push and pull effect (B) Strong and weak forces (C) Positive and negative forces (D) Driving and restraining forces 70. Life insurance is a contract of which one of the following ? (A) Indemnity (B) Guarantee (C) Contribution (D) Subrogation 71. What is outsourcing of production and concentrating on marketing operations in international

business, known as ? (A) Licensing (B) Franchising (C) Contract manufacturing (D) Joint venture 72. Which of the following is not a feature of bonds ? (A) Par value (B) Yield to maturity (C) Coupon rate (D) Maturity 73. On 1st April, 2006, Y Ltd. Issued 1000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 6%. These debentures are redeemable in five equal annual instalments at the end of each year. What is the amount of discount to be written off in the first year i.e. on 31st March, 2007, through P & L A/c ? (A) Rs. 2000 (B) Rs. 1800 (C) Rs. 1200 (D) Rs. 600 74. XYZ Ltd. issued 10,000 shares of Rs. 100 each at Rs. 120 per share with Rs. 25 on application, Rs. 45 on allotment including premium, Rs. 20 on first call and Rs. 30 on final call. Govind who held 200 shares did not pay any call money and his shares were forfeited. What is the amount to be credited to Share Forfeiture Account on forfeiture ? (A) Rs. 14,000 (B) Rs. 10,000 (C) Rs. 9,000 (D) Rs. 4,000 75. X Ltd. purchased a car from Maruti Udyog Ltd. for Rs. 5,00,000. As per agreement Rs. 80,000 was to be paid in cash and the balance by issue of shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. 5 per share. How many shares should X Ltd. issue to Maruti Udyog Ltd. for the car ? (A) 30,000 shares (B) 29,000 shares (C) 28,500 shares (D) 28,000 shares 76. A company has issued a 20-year bond at Rs. 1000 par value with a coupon rate of 10 per cent. The required rate of return on similar bonds is 12 per cent. What is the current value of the bond ? (A) Rs. 90533 (B) Rs. 85045 (C) Rs. 83333 (D) Rs. 82020

77. Consider the following statements Current ratio is increased by 1. issue of redeemable preference shares. 2. selling of old furniture for cash. 3. cash realized from debtors. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 78. Which one of the following statements is correct ? When creditors' velocity or creditors' turnover is higher as compared to debtors' velocity, it would (A) improve liquidity (B) reduce liquidity (C) have no effect on liquidity (D) improve financial position 79. Sundry Debtors Rs.15,000 Bills Receivable (B/R) Rs.12,500 Cash at Bank Rs.17,500 Stock Rs.15,000 Profit Rs.20,000 Creditors Rs.25,000 Bills Payable (B/P) Rs.15,000 Sales Rs.1,00,000 What is the Acid Test Ratio ? (A) 15 : 1 (B) 1125 : 1 (C) 16 2/3% (D) 50% 80. Which one of the following transactions changes the current ratio ? (A) Purchase of goods for cash (B) Plant acquired on account (C) Sold goods on credit (D) Debentures converted into equity capital 81. Few items of P/L A/c of a company are Sales Rs.1,60,000 Closing stock Rs.38,000 Non-operating Expenses Rs.800 Non-operating Income Rs.4,800 Net Profit Rs.28,000

What is the Operating Profit Ratio ? (A) 18% (B) 20% (C) 15% (D) 57% 82. Net profit after tax of Rs. 2,00,000 is Rs. 4,00,000. Share capital is Rs. 8,00,000 and revenue reserve is Rs. 2,00,000. What is rate of return on equity ? (A) 40% (B) 50% (C) 60% (D) 75% 83. Members of a company may apply to which one among the following for relief under the Companies Act, 1956 in cases of oppression ? (A) Central Government (B) High Court of Judicature (C) National Company Law Tribunal (D) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal 84. A company limited by shares has to call the statutory meeting within a period of not less than one month and not more than six months. This period is counted with reference to which one of the following ? (A) The date of incorporation (B) The date at which the company is entitled to commence business (C) The date of actual receipt of certificate of incorporation (D) The date of actual commencement of business 85. Which among the following is eligible to issue Shelf Prospectus ? (A) Any company contemplating for public issue of securities (B) Any public financial institution (C) Only manufacturing companies (D) Only foreign companies engaged in trading in India 86. Which of the following companies do not have the obligation to get its Articles of Association registered along with the Memorandum of Association ? (A) Public Company limited by shares (B) Unlimited companies (C) Private companies limited by shares (D) Companies limited by guarantee 87. What does management audit imply ? (A) Complete audit (B) Detailed audit (C) Efficiency audit (D) Interim audit

88. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) Internal audit and Management audit are the same (B) Internal audit and statutory audit are the same (C) Internal audit is compulsory in all cases (D) Statutory audit of company accounts is compulsory 89. Where does an auditor of a cooperative society submit the audit report ? (A) To the managing committee of the society only (B) To the Registrar of Cooperative Societies of the State concerned only (C) To the State Assembly concerned (D) To the Registrar of Cooperative Societies of the State concerned and a copy to the society 90. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) Audit of an educational institution is compulsory if it is run by a charitable trust (B) A club is treated as a commercial establishment (C) The accounts of a charitable trust can be audited by any person who belongs to accountancy profession (D) Audit of a charitable trust is not compulsory under law 91. Consider the following statements The vouching of remuneration to directors involve the checking of 1. special resolution. 2. statement of accounts. 3. approval note of the Central Government. 4. Minutes Book. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4 92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Liability of Auditor) (a) Liability for negligence (b) Liability for misfeasance (c) Criminal liability (d) Liability to third party List-II (Example) 1. Breach of trust or duty 2. Untrue statement in the prospectus 3. Not liable for untrue statement in prospectus 4. Dividends paid out of capital Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 2 3 4 1 93. Consider the following statements 1. Corporate governance requires the appointment of audit committees by public limited companies. 2. The members of an audit committee should be those non-executive directors who do not represent the controlling group. 3. The independence of the statutory auditors is likely to be affected if he deals directly with the audit committee. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 94. Under the head Secured Loans the following are disclosed 1. Loans and Advances from banks. 2. Debentures. 3. Loans and Advances from subsidiaries. 4. Other loans and advances. What is the correct chronological order of disclosure of the items given above in balance sheet of a company ? (A) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 (B) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (C) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 (D) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 95. Consider the following statements Accounting control comprises 1. The plan of organization concerned with decision process. 2. The plan of organization concerned with safeguarding of assets. 3. The procedure concerned with safeguarding of assets. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 96. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Internal control includes quality control. 2. Internal control is compulsory for all forms of business organizations. 3. Internal control helps external auditor to design suitable audit programme for client's organization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 97. Which of the following is not a part of the usual contents of the current file and audit working papers ? (A) A copy of accounts on which auditors are reporting (B) Audit programme (C) Minutes of the meetings (D) Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association 98. Consider the following statements Audit working papers are maintained because 1. they act as a guide to subsequent audit. 2. they verify the arithmetical accuracy of the books of accounts. 3. they provide evidence of the work performed by the auditor. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Technique) (a) Rotation of Duties (b) Random Sampling (c) Trend Analysis (d) Cash verification List-II (Auditing Procedure) (1) Internal control (2) Physical examination (3) Selective verification (4) Overall assessment Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 4 3 2 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 1 3 4 2 (D) 2 4 3 1 100. Consider the following stages an auditor has to undergo before commencing an audit 1. Ascertaining the scope of audit work. 2. Gaining knowledge about business of the client.

3. Going through the agreement with the client. 4. Instructions to and information from the client. What is the correct sequence of the above stages ? (A) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 (B) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 (C) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (D) 3 - 1 - 2 4 101. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) If an asset is used by a company, it should be owned by the company (B) Verification of liabilities means that the amounts of current and long-term liabilities shown in the balance sheet are correct (C) Vouching and verification means the same thing (D) It is not the duty of an auditor to confirm the physical existence and ownership of an asset 102. The following steps should be adopted by an auditor for verification of land 1. To examine that the land has been shown in the balance sheet at its original cost. 2. To ensure that the cost of land also includes the expenses like broker's commission, legal expenses, improvement expenses etc. 3. To get a certificate from solicitor of the client regarding validity of the title deeds. 4. To examine that the land is not subject to any charge or mortgage. What is the correct sequence of the above steps to be followed by an auditor during the course of auditing ? (A) 1 - 4 - 2 - 3 (B) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (C) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 (D) 3 - 4 - 2 1 103. What does payout ratio mean ? (A) Ratio of debtors to creditors (B) Ratio of profit distributed to profit retained (C) Ratio of dividends per share and earnings per share (D) Retained earnings 104. Consider the following statements 1. Premium on issue of shares is transferred to General Reserve Account. 2. For declaration of bonus shares out of General Reserve, a resolution in the shareholders' meeting is necessary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 105. How is Calls in arrear shown in the balance sheet on the liability side ? (A) By deducting the amount from the called up capital

(B) Under the heading Reserves and Surplus (C) By deducting the amount from Capital Reserve (D) By deducting the amount from the Share Forfeited Account 106. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List-I (Activity) (a) Admission of a partner (b) Partnership dissolution (c) Rectification of errors (d) Transfer of realization profit List-II (Account) (1) Capital Accounts (2) Suspense Account (3) Revaluation Account (4) Realization Account Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 2 4 3 1 107. The balance of old provision for doubtful debts on 1-4-2006 was Rs. 10,000. The bad debts written off during the year 2006-07 amounted to Rs. 12,000, and the new provision requiredon 31-3-2007 was Rs. 15,000. What is the total amount to be debited to profit and loss account on account of bad debts and the provision for doubtful debts ? (A) Rs. 37,000 (B) Rs. 27,000 (C) Rs. 17,000 (D) Rs. 15,000 108. A and B sharing profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 and having capitals of Rs. 30,000 (for A) and Rs. 15,000 (for B), decided to dissolve their firm. After paying off all liabilities, cash realized from various assets is Rs. 15,000. How will this amount be distributed to A and B ? (A) ARs. 9,000 and BRs. 6,000 (B) ARs. 10,000 and BRs. 5,000 (C) ARs. 7,500 and BRs. 7,500 (D) ARs. 12,000 and BRs. 3,000 109. X and Y sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 3 admit Z on 37th share in the new firm. Z takes 27 th from X and 17th from Y. What is the new ratio among X, Y and Z ? (A) 7 : 3 : 3 (B) 4 : 2 : 15

(C) 14 : 6 : 15 (D) 29 : 11 : 30 110. Given Opening inventory : Rs. 3,500 Closing inventory : Rs. 1,500 Cost of goods sold : Rs. 22,000 What is the amount of purchase ? (A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 24,000 (C) Rs. 27,000 (D) Rs. 17,000 111. Consider the following Amortization refers to writing off the value of (1) tangible assets (2) intangible assets (3) fictitious assets Which of the above is/are correct ? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 only (D) 2 only 112. The following information is disclosed by A Rs. Provision for doubtful debts as on 1.1.2006 : 6,000 Bad debts written off during the year 2006 : 1,200 Total debtors as on 31.12.2006 : 80,000 A provision for Doubtful Debts to be made @ 5% What is the amount to be shown on the credit side of P/L A/c ? (A) Rs. 4,800 (B) Rs. 2,400 (C) Rs. 1,200 (D) Rs. 800 113. What is reduction of paid-up share capital called ? (A) External reconstruction (B) Internal reconstruction (C) Reorganization (D) Redemption of capital 114. Under which of the following methods of depreciation the amount of an asset is never reduced to zero ? (A) Straight line method (B) Diminishing balance method (C) Sums of Years Digit method (D) Annuity method

115. An insurance claim of Rs. 300 was accepted in respect of stock (inventory) of Rs. 500, which was destroyed by fire. Rs. 200 not covered by insurance should be debited to which one of the following ? (A) Stock account (B) Trading account (C) Profit and loss account (D) Goodwill account 116. Debtors turnover ratio is 4. What is the average collection period ? (A) 5 months (B) 4 months (C) 3 months (D) 2 months 117. The net profits of a business after providing for taxation for the past five years are Rs. 80,000, Rs. 85,000, Rs. 92,000, Rs. 1,05,000 and Rs. 1,18,000. Capital employed in the business is Rs. 8,00,000. Normal rate of return is 10%. What is the value of goodwill on the basis of capitalization of super profit method ? (A) Rs. 1,00,000 (B) Rs. 1,50,000 (C) Rs. 1,60,000 (D) Rs. 1,80,000 118. Given Purchases Rs.50,000 Sales Rs.90,000 Closing Stock Rs.7,000 Manufacturing Exp. Rs.5,000 Rate of gross profit Rs.331 3% on cost What is the opening stock ? (A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 19,500 (C) Rs. 22,500 (D) Rs. 25,000 119. A particular firm provided the following data for a year Current Ratio 25 : 1 Liquid Ratio 15 : 1 Net Working Capital Rs. 3,00,000 What are the current assets and current liabilities of this firm, respectively ? (A) Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 1,50,000 (B) Rs. 5,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000 (C) Rs. 2,00,000 and Rs. 5,00,000

(D) Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 120. Depreciation is a process of which one of the following ? (A) Valuation of assets (B) Allocation of acquisition cost over the estimated useful life of the asset (C) Allocation of realizable value over the estimated useful life of the asset (D) Estimating the market value of the asset on the balance sheet date

Answers with Hints

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A) Small shareholders of a public company will be able to appoint (elect) one director on the Board of Company if the company has a paid up capital of Rs. 5 crore or more, or has 1000 or more small shareholders as per section 252 Companies (Amendment) Act, 2000. 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 7S McKinsey Model's elements includes : (i) Strategy, (ii) Structure, (iii) System, (iv) Shared value, (v) Skills, (vi) Style, (vii) Staff 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) Funds from operation computed as follows : Net profit Rs.2,00,000 Add : Preliminary Exp. Rs.20,000 Depreciation Rs.40,000 = 2,60,000 Less : Gain on sale of machinery Rs.10,000 Funds from operation = 2,50,000 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A) According to Spicer and Pegler internal check is an arrangement of staff duties whereby no one person is allowed to carry through and record every aspect of a transaction so that, without collusion between any two or more persons, fraud is prevented and at the same time the possibilities of errors are reduced to a minimum. 21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (D) 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B) 51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B) 61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (C) An organisation in which each employee reports to both a functional manager and to a project manager as Matrix Structure of organisation. 69. (D) 70. (B) 71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (B) 81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (C) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (B) 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (C) 100. (D) 101. (B) 102. (B) 103. (C) 104. (B) 105. (A) 106. (A) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (D) 110. (A) 111. (D) 112. (D) 113. (B) 114. (B) 115. (C) 116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (B) 120. (B) [ Read More... ]