Biology Today and Tomorrow With Physiology 5th Edition Starr Test Bank

Biology Today and Tomorrow with
Physiology 5th Edition Starr Test Bank

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CHAPTER 08—HOW CELLS REPRODUCE
Multiple Choice
1. The HeLa cell line was isolated from a _____.

a. chimpanzee
b. rat
c. human
d. guinea pig
e. dog
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Bloom's: Remember
REFERENCES: 8.1 Henrietta's Immortal Cells
LEARNING OBJECTIVES: BTAT.STAR.16.08.01 - Discuss the characteristics and applications of HeLa cells.
2. Immortal cell lineages _____.

a. are derived from normal body cells
b. are unable to grow outside the body
c. have limited research applications
d. are derived from cancerous cells
e. are used in cell replacement therapies
ANSWER: d
3. HeLa cells were critical in _____.

a. developing the polio vaccine
b. developing a cure for malaria
c. understanding fertilization
d. developing a cervical cancer vaccine
e. understanding cloning
ANSWER: a
4. Which organisms replicate cells by mitosis?

a. animals and bacteria
b. animals and plants
c. bacteria and plants
d. archaea and bacteria
e. archaea and plants
ANSWER: b
REFERENCES: 8.2 Multiplication by Division
LEARNING OBJECTIVES: BTAT.STAR.16.08.02 - Explain the mechanisms of cell division.
Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 1
5. Chromosomes are unduplicated during which phase of cell cycle?

a. S
b. prophase
c. G1
d. G2
e. metaphase
ANSWER: c
6. After meiosis, resulting daughter cells will contain _____.

a. the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell
b. half the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries
c. twice the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries
d. three times the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries
e. four times the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Bloom's: Understand
REFERENCES: 8.5 Meiosis in Sexual Reproduction
LEARNING OBJECTIVES: BTAT.STAR.16.08.05 - Summarize meiosis and its importance to the biodiversity of sexual
reproducers.
7. Which list correctly describes the sequence of events that occurs during cell division, beginning at interphase?
a. nuclear division, DNA replication, cytoplasmic division
b. DNA replication, cytoplasmic division, nuclear division
c. cytoplasmic division, nuclear division, DNA replication
d. nuclear division, cytoplasmic division, DNA replication
e. DNA replication, nuclear division, cytoplasmic division
ANSWER: e
8. _____ is the stage of the cell cycle during which a cell is performing its normal metabolic processes.
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. prophase
e. telophase
ANSWER: a

9. When viewing a cell culture under a microscope, most cells would be in which phase of cell cycle?
a. telophase
b. interphase
c. metaphase
d. cytokinesis
e. prophase
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Bloom's: Apply
10. Meiosis is the basis for _____.

a. cellular division
b. sexual reproduction
c. asexual reproduction
d. sexual and asexual reproduction
e. distribution of cytoplasm
ANSWER: b
reproducers.
11. Meiosis produces _____.

a. sperm cells
b. egg cells
c. body cells
d. sperm and egg cells
e. sperm, egg, and body cells
ANSWER: d
reproducers.
12. In mitosis, _____.

a. the chromosome number is halved
b. the chromosome number is doubled
c. the chromosome number stays the same
d. the chromosome number may double or be halved depending on the species
e. gametes are formed
ANSWER: c
13. Pairs of duplicated chromosomes produced during S phase are called ______.
a. homologous chromosomes
b. sister chromosomes
c. sister chromatids
d. heterologous chromosomes
e. homogeneous chromosomes
ANSWER: c
14. Which event occurs during interphase?

a. The cytoplasm divides.
b. The cell doubles its cytoplasmic contents.
c. The nuclear envelope disassembles.
d. The nucleus divides.
e. Protein synthesis is halted.
ANSWER: b
15. During S phase, _____.

a. chromosomes condense
b. the cell produces proteins in preparation for mitosis
c. the cytoplasm begins to divide
d. DNA is replicated
e. sister chromatids separate from each other
ANSWER: d
16. Which phases comprise interphase?

a. G1 and G2
b. S and G2
c. G1 and S
d. G1, S, and G2
e. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
ANSWER: d
17. Which cells are least likely to proceed into G1?

a. most skin cells

b. most liver cells
c. most intestinal cells
d. most red blood cells
e. most nerve cells
ANSWER: e
18. A parent cell with 12 chromosomes will produce daughter cells with _____ chromosomes by mitosis.
a. 48
b. 24
c. 12
d. 6
e. 3
ANSWER: c
19. Cells with two of each kind of chromosome are _____.

a. aneuploid
b. diploid
c. triploid
d. haploid
e. tetraploid
ANSWER: b
20. The spindle apparatus is made of _____.

a. centromeres
b. microfilaments
c. microtubules
d. chromatids
e. nucleotides
ANSWER: c
21. The spindle apparatus appears during _____.

a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. prophase
e. telophase
ANSWER: d
22. Which of the following occurs in prophase?

a. sister chromatids attach
b. DNA replicates
c. chromosomes align in the middle of the cell
d. the nuclear envelope breaks down
e. sister chromatids separate
ANSWER: d
23. Chromosomes are aligned at the middle of the cell during _____.
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. prophase
e. telophase
ANSWER: b
24. In a human cell, there are _____after DNA replicates during S phase.
a. 92 chromosomes and 46 pairs of sister chromatids
b. 46 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister chromatids
c. 23 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister chromatids
d. 92 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister chromatids
e. 40 chromosomes and 20 pairs of sister chromatids
ANSWER: a
REFERENCES: 8.2 Multiplication By Division
25. Sister chromatids detach from one another and become visibly separate chromosomes during _____.

a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. prophase
e. telophase
ANSWER: a
26. In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes arrive at opposite sides of the cell?
a. anaphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. telophase
e. interphase
ANSWER: d
27. Nuclear envelopes reform during _____.

a. prophase
b. telophase
c. interphase
d. anaphase
e. metaphase
ANSWER: b
28. Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?

I. metaphase
II. telophase
III. prophase
IV. anaphase
a. II, I, IV, III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. III, I, IV, II
d. IV, III, II, I
e. I, IV, II, III
ANSWER: c
29. Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.
The cell in micrograph "II" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

a. prophase
b. telophase
c. interphase
d. anaphase
e. metaphase
ANSWER: b
The cell in micrograph "I" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

a. prophase
b. telophase
c. interphase
d. anaphase
e. metaphase
ANSWER: e

The cell in micrograph "III" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

a. prophase
b. telophase
c. interphase
d. anaphase
e. metaphase
ANSWER: d
The cell in micrograph "IV" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

a. prophase
b. telophase
c. interphase
d. anaphase
e. metaphase
ANSWER: a

33. In what phase of the cell cycle does a typical cell spend most of its life?
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
ANSWER: a
34. In what phase of the cell cycle does an actively dividing cell produce the proteins necessary for mitosis?
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. prophase
e. G1 and G2
ANSWER: c
35. The phase of the cell cycle during which cytoplasmic division occurs is _____.
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. mitosis
e. cytokinesis
ANSWER: e
DIFFICULTY: Bloom's: Analyze
REFERENCES: 8.3 Mitosis and Cancer
LEARNING OBJECTIVES: BTAT.STAR.16.08.03 - Discuss the consequences of mutations that result in a flawed cell
cycle.
36. The cell plate in dividing plant cells is composed of _____.

a. microfilaments
b. the cytoplasmic membrane
c. vesicles with wall-building materials
d. Golgi bodies
e. microtubules
ANSWER: c

37. Division of the cytoplasm in animal cells begins _____.

a. as microtubules assemble at each pole of the nucleus
b. as Golgi body vesicles are guided by microtubules to the center of the cell
c. during S phase
d. as rigid phospholipid bilayer is synthesized in between the dividing cells
e. as a cleavage furrow is created by microfilaments in the cell's midsection
ANSWER: e
38. The cells of which individual do not have 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes?
a. a male
b. a female
c. an individual with a recessive disease, such as hemophilia
d. an individual with measles
e. an individual with polio
ANSWER: a
39. A chicken has 78 chromosomes. A chicken cell will contain _____ chromosomes at the beginning of prophase and
_____ chromosomes after mitotic division is complete.
a. 78; 39
b. 78; 78
c. 39; 78
d. 156; 78
e. 78; 156
ANSWER: d
40. Which energy source fuels cell division in animal cells?

a. GTP
b. ATP
c. kinetic energy of Golgi body movement
d. glycerol
e. fat deposits
ANSWER: b

41. Which of the following is/are essential for formation of the cleavage furrow during cytoplasmic division in animal
cells?
a. a contractile ring
b. Golgi body vesicles
c. ATP molecules
d. a contractile ring and Golgi body vesicles
e. a contractile ring and ATP molecules
ANSWER: e
42. Accumulations of cells that divide uncontrollably are called ______.

a. oncogenes
b. proto-oncogenes
c. neoplasms
d. checkpoints
e. descendant tumors
ANSWER: c
cycle.
43. Abnormal cell division that does not pose a threat to surrounding tissues is termed _____.
a. malignant
b. benign
c. metastatic
d. carcinogenic
e. repressed
ANSWER: b
cycle.
44. The spread of cancer cells from one site to others in the body is known as _____.
a. cleavage
b. metastasis
c. benign transfer
d. neoplastic movement
e. mutational slippage
ANSWER: b
cycle.
45. An oncogene is a _____.

a. normal gene that promotes mitosis
b. gene that codes for a growth factor that stimulates cell division
c. gene that codes for tumor suppressing proteins
d. mutated gene that results in tumor growth
e. mutated gene that results in cell cycle arrest
ANSWER: d
cycle.
46. Tumor suppressor genes _____.

a. will turn into cancer genes
b. encode proteins that inhibit mitosis
c. encode proteins that promote mitosis
d. are cancer genes that back mutate into normal genes
e. encode proteins that promote DNA replication
ANSWER: b
cycle.
47. Which is a characteristic of malignant cells?

a. abnormal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; abnormal cell division
b. normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; abnormal cell division
c. abnormal plasma membrane, normal cytoplasm; normal cell division
d. normal plasma membrane, abnormal cytoplasm; abnormal cell division
e. normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; normal cell division
ANSWER: a
cycle.
48. Asexual reproduction _____.

a. results from fertilization
b. produces genetic clones

c. is more similar to meiosis than mitosis
d. leads to increased genetic variation in offspring
e. involves crossing over
ANSWER: b
REFERENCES: 8.4 Sex and Alleles
LEARNING OBJECTIVES: BTAT.STAR.16.08.04 - Describe the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual
reproduction.
49. Sexual reproduction _____.

a. leads to uniform characteristics in a population
b. results in new combinations of genetic traits
c. requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction
d. produces genetic clones
e. produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction
ANSWER: b
reproduction.
50. Alternative or different forms of the same gene are called _____.
a. homozygous
b. chromatids
c. alleles
d. homologous
e. karyotypes
ANSWER: c
reproduction.
51. A cell cycle checkpoint for S phase would likely inhibit progression through the cell cycle if _____.
a. there are not enough proteins for division to continue
b. ATP supply in the cell is low
c. there is DNA damage
d. the temperature of the cell is too low
e. surrounding cells are dividing
ANSWER: c
cycle.
52. A cell cycle checkpoint at which phase would ensure sufficient nutrients for cell division were available?
a. S
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. G1 or G2
e. G1 or S
ANSWER: d
cycle.
53. Which is an example of the Red Queen hypothesis?

a. As spiders evolve resistance to a viral disease, the virus becomes more virulent.
b. Dogs evolve characteristics that are selected by humans.
c. Dinosaurs lack the adaptations to survive predation of their eggs by small mammals.
d. Horses evolve from a five toed animal to one toe.
e. Cats and cows separately, but for similar purposes, evolve scratchy tongues.
ANSWER: a
reproduction.
54. An important advantage of sexual reproduction is related to _____.

a. increasing production of offspring
b. avoiding predators
c. avoiding harmful mutations
d. producing offspring identical to the parents
e. having two sexes
ANSWER: c
reproduction.
55. Meiosis in a diploid organism typically produces _____.

a. two diploid cells
b. four diploid cells
c. four haploid cells
d. two haploid cells
e. one triploid cell
ANSWER: c

reproducers.
56. A chicken somatic cell carries 78 chromosomes. A chicken sperm cell will contain how many chromosomes?
a. 19
b. 39
c. 78
d. 156
e. 312
ANSWER: b
reproducers.
57. During which phase of meiosis will the chromosomes appear as a unit of four chromatids?
a. metaphase I
b. telophase II
c. anaphase II
d. prophase I
e. prophase II
ANSWER: d
reproducers.
58. The pairing of chromosomes and crossing over occur during _____ of meiosis.
a. metaphase I
b. anaphase II
c. prophase I
d. prophase II
e. more than one of these
ANSWER: c
reproducers.
59. Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the center of the cell during _____ of meiosis.
a. metaphase I
b. telophase I
c. prophase II
d. metaphase II
e. anaphase II
ANSWER: a
reproducers.
60. Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because it _____.
a. produces new combinations of alleles on chromosomes
b. causes separation of homologous chromosomes
c. causes separation of sister chromatids
d. results in the production of haploid gametes
e. aligns homologous chromosomes so that they can be separated in anaphase II
ANSWER: a
reproducers.
61. At the beginning of prophase I, there are _____ chromosomes in the germ cell that will develop into a human sperm
cell.
a. 23
b. 92
c. 46
d. half as many (as compared to somatic cell)
e. twice as many (as compared to mature sperm)
ANSWER: b
reproducers.
62. The fusion of egg and sperm cells results a(n) _____.
a. zygote
b. embryo
c. gamete
d. germ cell
e. sporophyte
ANSWER: a
reproducers.
63. Sister chromatids separate during _____ of mitosis and _____ of meiosis.

a. anaphase; anaphase I
b. anaphase; anaphase II
c. anaphase II; anaphase II
d. metaphase; metaphase I
e. metaphase; metaphase II
ANSWER: b
reproducers.
64. Which statement describes the function of telomeres?

a. Telomeres are DNA segments that encode cell cycle checkpoint proteins.
b. Telomeres are where DNA polymerase binds to initiate DNA replication.
c. Telomeres serve as attachment points where microtubules bind to separate chromosomes during anaphase.
d. Telomeres are added to chromosomes with each round of replication to increase DNA stability.
e. Telomeres protect the coding regions of chromosomes because chromosomes are shortened with each round of
replication.
ANSWER: e
cycle.
65. Mutations in genes that control _____ are likely to cause cancer.
a. phenotype expression
b. metabolism
c. ribosomal proteins
d. cell cycle checkpoints
e. telomere shortening
ANSWER: d
cycle.
66. New alleles arise by _____.

a. crossing over
b. mutation
c. independent assortment
d. sexual reproduction
e. asexual reproduction
ANSWER: b
reproduction.
67. In meiosis, _____ are separated during anaphase I, and _____ are separated during anaphase II.
a. heterologous chromosomes; homologous chromosomes
b. homologous chromosomes; homologous chromosomes
c. homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids
d. sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes
e. sister chromosomes; homologous chromosomes
ANSWER: c
reproducers.
68. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis because _____.

a. both result in the production of diploid daughter cells
b. both result in the production of haploid daughter cells
c. DNA replication immediately precedes both meiosis II and mitosis
d. homologous chromosomes are separated in meiosis II and mitosis
e. sister chromatids are separated in meiosis II and mitosis
ANSWER: e
reproducers.
69. How do microtubules separate chromosomes during anaphase?

a. Microtubules pull chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
b. Microtubules push chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
c. Microtubules push and pull chromosomes to separate poles of the cell.
d. Microtubules attach to telomeres and pull chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
e. Microtubules attach to telomeres and push chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
ANSWER: c
reproducers.
70. Meiosis may pause at which point in the cycle?

a. after DNA is replicated in S phase but before meiosis I begins
b. after meiosis I is complete
c. after prophase II
d. before telophase II
e. after prophase I
ANSWER: b
reproducers.
Matching
Match the cellular process to the correct phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle. Each question has only one
BEST answer, but answer choices may be used more than once.
a. G2
b. mitosis
c. S
d. G1
71. when DNA is replicated

ANSWER: c
72. this is the last stage of interphase

ANSWER: a
73. the beginning of interphase

ANSWER: d
74. phase during which the cell prepares for DNA replication
ANSWER: d
75. phase that follows DNA replication

ANSWER: a
76. nuclear division

ANSWER: b
77. phase in which chromatids are not connected by centromeres

ANSWER: d
78. phase that precedes cytoplasmic division

ANSWER: b
79. period in which metaphase occurs

ANSWER: b
80. period prior to mitosis

ANSWER: a
Match the following terms to the correct statements.

a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. both mitosis and meiosis
d. neither mitosis or meiosis
81. results in identical daughter cells

ANSWER: a
82. sister chromatids are separated during an anaphase event

ANSWER: c
83. RNA polymerase is employed

ANSWER: d
84. sister chromatids are attached at centromeres

ANSWER: c
Match the following terms to the correct statements.

a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. both mitosis and meiosis
d. neither mitosis or meiosis
reproducers.
85. involves two nuclear divisions

ANSWER: b
86. crossing over occurs

ANSWER: b
87. homologous chromosomes are separated during an anaphase event

ANSWER: b
88. in plants, gametes result from this process

ANSWER: a
Match the correct number of chromosomes to the stage of mitosis or meiosis for a human cell. Each answer
choice may be used more than once or not at all.
a. 23
b. 46
c. 69
d. 92
e. 108
89. G1
ANSWER: b
90. metaphase
ANSWER: d
91. S
ANSWER: d
92. prophase
ANSWER: d
93. G2
ANSWER: d
94. after telophase in mitosis is complete

ANSWER: b
Match the correct number of chromosomes to the stage of mitosis or meiosis for a human cell. Each answer
choice may be used more than once or not at all.
a. 23
b. 46
c. 69
d. 92
e. 108
reproducers.
95. prophase II
ANSWER: b
96. telophase II
ANSWER: a
97. anaphase I
ANSWER: d
98. metaphase II
ANSWER: a
99. after telophase II in meiosis is complete

ANSWER: a
100. prophase I
ANSWER: d

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Biology Today and Tomorrow with

Physiology 5th Edition Starr Test Bank

1. The HeLa cell line was isolated from a _____.

2. Immortal cell lineages _____.

3. HeLa cells were critical in _____.

4. Which organisms replicate cells by mitosis?

5. Chromosomes are unduplicated during which phase of cell cycle?

6. After meiosis, resulting daughter cells will contain _____.

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 2

10. Meiosis is the basis for _____.

11. Meiosis produces _____.

12. In mitosis, _____.

14. Which event occurs during interphase?

15. During S phase, _____.

16. Which phases comprise interphase?

17. Which cells are least likely to proceed into G1?

a. most skin cells

19. Cells with two of each kind of chromosome are _____.

20. The spindle apparatus is made of _____.

21. The spindle apparatus appears during _____.

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 5

22. Which of the following occurs in prophase?

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 6

27. Nuclear envelopes reform during _____.

28. Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: BTAT.STAR.16.08.02 - Explain the mechanisms of cell division.

29. Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.

The cell in micrograph "II" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

30. Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.

The cell in micrograph "I" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

REFERENCES: 8.2 Multiplication by Division

31. Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.

The cell in micrograph "III" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

32. Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.

The cell in micrograph "IV" is at which stage of the cell cycle?

DIFFICULTY: Bloom's: Apply

36. The cell plate in dividing plant cells is composed of _____.

DIFFICULTY: Bloom's: Remember

37. Division of the cytoplasm in animal cells begins _____.

40. Which energy source fuels cell division in animal cells?

DIFFICULTY: Bloom's: Remember

42. Accumulations of cells that divide uncontrollably are called ______.

45. An oncogene is a _____.

46. Tumor suppressor genes _____.

47. Which is a characteristic of malignant cells?

48. Asexual reproduction _____.

b. produces genetic clones

49. Sexual reproduction _____.

53. Which is an example of the Red Queen hypothesis?

54. An important advantage of sexual reproduction is related to _____.

55. Meiosis in a diploid organism typically produces _____.

REFERENCES: 8.5 Meiosis in Sexual Reproduction

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 17

64. Which statement describes the function of telomeres?

66. New alleles arise by _____.

68. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis because _____.

69. How do microtubules separate chromosomes during anaphase?

70. Meiosis may pause at which point in the cycle?

71. when DNA is replicated

72. this is the last stage of interphase

73. the beginning of interphase

75. phase that follows DNA replication

76. nuclear division

77. phase in which chromatids are not connected by centromeres