Atomic Energy Central School

Holiday homework
Session: - 2023-2024
Class-XI
Subject: Biology
1. Rising of dough is due to
(a) Multiplication of yeast. (b) Production of CO2
(c) Emulsification. (d) Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars.
2. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is
(a) Endonuclease. (b) Exonuclease
(c) DNAligase. (d) Hind-II
3. The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through the mediation
of a vector like virus is termed as
(a) Transduction. (b) Conjugation
(c) Transformation (d) Translation
4. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by
agarose gel electrophoresis?
(a) DNA can be seen in visible light
(b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.
5. Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to
(a) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
(b) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(c) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria
(d) All of the above
6. Which of the following is not required in the preparation of recombinant DNA
molecule?
(a) Restriction endonuclease. (b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA fragments. (d) E. Coli
7. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their
(a) Charge only. (b) Size only
(c) Charge to size ratio. (d) Both charge and size
8. The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is
(a) Origin of replication (on)
(b) Presence of a selectable marker
(c) Presence of sites for restriction endpnuclease
(d) Its size
9. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not used?
(a) Lysozyme. (b) Ribonuclease
(c) Deoxyribonuclease. (d) Protease
10. Which of the following has popularised the PCR (polymerase chain reactions)?
(a) Easy availability of DNA template
 (b) Availability of synthetic primers
(c) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
(d) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase
11. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of
(a) Competent cells. (b) Transformed cells
(c) Recombinant cells. (d) None of the above
12. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate
(a) Binding of DNA to the cell wall
(b) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins.
(c) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
(d) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
13. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule is
(a) Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments
(b) Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments
(c) Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases .
(d) None of the above
14. Which of the following is not a source of restriction endonuclease?
(a) Haemophilus influenzae. (b) Escherichia coli
(c) Entamoeba coli . (d) Bacilliusquifacieus
15. Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(a) Denaturation of template DNA
(b) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
(d) All of the above
16. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a
human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired protein.
Reasons could be
(a) Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process
(b) Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different
(c) Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
(d) All of the above .
17. Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one were to produce a
recombinant protein in large amounts?
(a) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
(b) A stirred-tank bioreactor without inlets and outlets
(c) A continuous culture system
(d) Any of the above
18. Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of PCR
technique?
(a) Herbert Boyer. (b) Hargovind Khurana
(c) Kary Mullis. (d) Arthur Komberg
19. The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by
lactic acid bacteria is
(a) Vitamin C. (b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin E
20. Wastewater treatment generates a large quantity of sludge, which can be treated by
(a) Anaerobic digesters. (b) Floc
(c) Chemicals. (d) Oxidation pond
21. Methanogenic bacteria are not found in
(a) Rumen of cattle. (b) Gobar gas plant
(c) Bottom of water-logged paddy fields (d) Activated sludge
22. The primary treatment of waste water involves the removal of
(a) Dissolved impurities. (b) Stable particles
(c) Toxic substances. (d) Harmful bacteria
23. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of
(a) Total organic matter. (b) Biodegradable organic matter
(c) Oxygen evolution. (d) Oxygen consumption
24. Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without distillation?
(a) Wine. (b) Whisky
(c) Rum. (d) Brandy
25. The technology of biogas production from cow dung was developed in India largely
due to the efforts of
(a) Gas Authority of India
(b) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute and Khadi and Village Industries
Commission
(d) Indian Oil Corporation
26. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for
(a) Killing insects
(b) Biological control of plant diseases
(c) Controlling butterfly caterpillars
(d) Producing antibiotics
27. What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is reduced?
(a) It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter.
(b) The centre of flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and
eventually breakage of flocs.
(c) Floes would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around flocs.
(d) Protozoa would grow in large numbers.
28. Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in
(a) Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
(b) Increasing its tolerance to drought
(c) Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
(d) Increasing its resistance to insects
29. Which one of the following is not a nitrogen-fixing organism?
(a) Anabaena (b) Nostoc
(c) Azobacter. (d) Pseudomonas
30. Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by a
(a) machine
(b) bacterium that produces methane gas
(c) bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide
(d) fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabolic activities.
31. The residue left after methane production from cattle dung is
(a) Burnt. (b) Buried in landfills
(c) Used as manure. (d)Used in civil construction
32. The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of typhoid is
(a) ELISA-Test (b) ESR-Test
(c) PCR-Test. (d) Widal-Test
33. Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list
given below, identify the infectious diseases.
i. Cancer . ii. Influenza
iii. Allergy. iv. Small pox
(a) i and ii. (b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv. (d) ii and iv
34. The sporozoites that cause infection, when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a
person being are formed in
(a) Liver of person. (b) RBCs of mosquito .
(c) Salivary glands of mosquito (d) Intestine of mosquito
35. The disease chikunguniya is transmitted by
(a) House flies. (b) Aedes mosquitoes
(c) Cockroach. (d) Female Anopheles
36. Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which
group of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia?
(a) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
(b) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
(c) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
(d) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation.
37. The genes causing cancer are
(a) Structural genes. (b) Expressor genes
(c) Oncogenes. (d) Regulatory genes
38. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the
body to form new tumors. This stage of disease is called
(a) Metagenesis (b) Metastasis
(c) Teratogenesis (d) Mitosis
39. When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the
reason could be that
(a) The patient was not efficient at his work
(b) The patient was not economically prosperous
(c) The patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment
(d) He does not take interest in sports
40. Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis? Choose the correct
option.
i. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells increases
ii. Body attacks self cells
iii. More antibodies are produced in the body
iv. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iv
 (c) iii and iv
(d) i and iii
41. AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission
of HIV?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(b) Sharing the infected needles
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons
42. ‘Smack’ is a drug obtained fipm the
(a) Latex of Papaver somniferum. (b) Leaves of Cannabis sativa
(c) Flowers of Datura. (d) Fruits of Erythroxylum coca
43. Anti-venom against snake poison contains
(a) Antigens. (b) Antigen-antibody complexes
(c) Antibodies. (d) Enzymes
44. Transplantation-of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of
such tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such
rejections?
(a) Auto-immune response. (b) Humoral immune response
(c) Physiological immune response (d) Cell-mediated,immune response
45. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new bom from certain diseases is of
(a) Ig G type
(b) Ig A type
(c) Ig D type
(d) Ig E type
46. Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with ageing?
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid
46. Haemozoin is a
(a) Precursor of hemoglobin
(b) Toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(c) Toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(d) Toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells

47. Which of the following is an example for link species?

a. Lobe fish

b. Dodo bird
c. Seaweed

d. Chimpanzee

48. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is:

a. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis

b. Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens

c. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

d. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapien

49. Which type of selection explains industrial melanism observed in the moth,

a. Stabilising

b. Directional

c. Disruptive

d. Artificial

50. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3,
respectively. The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be

a. 42%

b. 49%

c. 9%

d. 58%