PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION

DIAGNOSTIC TEST
ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING

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 1. Mr. Generoso administered an achievement test in Social Studies among Grade 9
students. In assigning the grade equivalent to the scores obtained by the students,
he considered the performance of one student in comparison with the rest. What
approach to grading did he use?
A. Mastery Objectives
B. Norm-Referenced
C. Criterion-Referenced
D. Absolute Standard

2. What is the major weakness of the essay test?

A. It requires the students to write long answer.
B. It limits the content to be tested.
C. It takes a longer time to do it.
D. It is difficult to grade.

3. What type of test will be most affected by respondent’s language ability?

A. Performance
B. Non-verbal test
C. Personality
D. Verbal test

4. At the beginning of the school year, the 6-year old pupils were tested to find out who
among them can already read. The results were used to determine their sections.
What kind of test was given to them?
A. Placement test
B. Summative test
C. Diagnostic test
D. Formative test

5. When planning for portfolio assessment, which should you do first?

A. Select evidences that could be captured in one’s portfolio
B. Reflect on one’s collection and identify strengths and weaknesses.
C. Set the targets for portfolio assessment.
D. Exhibit one’s work and be proud of one’s collections.

6. Which is INCORRECT about rubrics?

A. Rubrics reduced subjectivity when rating performance-based methods of
assessing learning.
B. Rubrics are key to correction in performance-based assessment.
C. Rubrics are rating scales that give description for each performance level.
D. Rubrics are used solely by the teachers to make assessment objective

7. Miss Villanueva rated her students in terms of appropriate and effective use of some
laboratory equipment and measurement tools and if they are able to follow the
specified procedures. What mode of assessment should Miss Villanueva use?
A. Traditional Assessment
B. Portfolio Assessment
C. Performance-Based Assessment
D. Journal Assessment

8. Mrs. Odeste is planning a test that aims to measure the ability of the students to
create and organize their ideas. What type of test should she construct?
A. Short Answer Test
B. Essay Test
C. Multiple Choice
D. Matching Type

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 9. Mrs. Manalo uses alternative methods of assessment. Which will she NOT likely
use?
A. Oral Presentation
B. Developing Portfolios
C. Multiple Choice Tests
D. Reflective Journal Writing

10. Why it is that standardized test can never completely replace informal test?
A. It provides inadequate basis for interpretation.
B. It lacks validity for classroom purposes.
C. It calls for special training in administering and scoring.
D. It lacks reliability for classroom purposes.

11. Towards the end of the quarter, Ms. Anilao gives an examination to her students in
Science to find out to what extent the objectives of the lesson have been attained.
What type of evaluation procedure is she using?
A. Summative test
B. Placement test
C. Formative test
D. Diagnostic test

12. Mr. Javier wants to find out how well her students can speak extemporaneously.
Which valid assessment procedure should he use?
A. Test asking students to write speeches
B. Performance test displaying speeches delivered
C. Quiz on how to deliver extemporaneous speech
D. Performance test in extemporaneous speaking

13. Teacher X wants to test students’ knowledge of the different places in the
Philippines, their capital and their products and so he gave his/her student an essay
test. If you are the teacher will you do the same?
A. Yes, essay test could measure more than what other tests could measure.
B. No, the giving of an objective test is more appropriate than the use of essay.
C. Yes, essay test is the best in measuring any type of knowledge.
D. No, such method of assessment is inappropriate because essay is difficult.

14. Which is an acceptable practice when evaluating students?

A. Evaluation results should be used to grade students.
B. Evaluation should be based on the information obtained from tests on cognitive
behaviors.
C. Evaluation should be done at the end of instruction.
D. Evaluation method should be selected based on the desired trait to measure.

15. It is used to describe any incorrect choice or option in a multiple-choice test item.
A. Oversight
B. Alternative
C. Distracter
D. Standard error

16. Which of the following objectives is best measured using performance-based

assessment?
A. Practices precautionary measure to avoid getting hurt from the sun’s heat and light.
B. Identifies some activities of human beings to meet their need.
C. Differentiates potential from kinetic energy.
D. Describes how forest prevents soil erosion.

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 17. Which could be seen in a rubric?
I. Objective in a high level of cognitive behavior.
II. Multiple criteria in assessing learning.
III. Quantitative descriptions of the quality of work.
IV. Qualitative description of the quality of work.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. II, III, IV

18. You have computed the mean and you want to get more information about the
distribution of scores. Which measure of variability is most appropriate?
A. Range
B. Semi-interquartile range
C. Standard deviation
D. Mode

19. The more information teachers obtain about how students perform the more capacity
they have to rethink their pedagogy, and the more opportunities they create for
student success. Which statement BEST explains the text above?
A. Teachers should file information
B. Teachers should teach to test.
C. Teachers should keep records of family background.
D. Teachers should keep track of learning outcomes.

20. The main purpose in administering a pretest and a posttest to students is to:
A. Measure gains in learning
B. Accustom the students in frequent testing
C. Keep adequate records
D. Measure the value of the material used.

21. The collegial process of developing and evaluating performance assessments help
teachers to understand the _________ needed to produce high quality performance.
A. Information
B. Materials
C. Scaffolding
D. Tests

22. The Report Card is given every grading period to the students and the parents are
informed of the learner’s performance. This is a/an ____of the teacher stipulated in
the Education Act of 1982.
A. Responsibility
B. Accountability
C. Role
D. Obligation

23. Teachers should avoid ____ in assigning student performance-based ratings.

A. Partiality and calculation
B. Arbitrarines and bias
C. Unnecessary evaluation
D. Unnecessary deductions

24. If I have to use the most authentic method of assessment, which of these procedure
should I consider?
A. Objective assessment
B. Traditional Test
C. Performance-based assessment
D. Written test

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 25. Ms. De Torres, a guidance counselor, would like to help graduating students decide
on what courses they will take in college. What type of test would serve this
purpose?
A. Aptitude test
B. Achievement test
C. Intelligence test
D. Personality test

26. Mrs. Perez allowed the students to develop their own portfolio in their own style as
long as they show all the non-negotiable evidences of learning. What principle in
portfolio assessment explains this practice?
A. Equity Principle
B. Product Principle
C. Content Principle
D. Learning Principle

27. Teacher Evelyn constructed a test in Social Studies. She analyzed the objectives,
the textbooks, the outline, and good teaching methods. What type of validity is
observed?
A. Congruent
B. Construct
C. Curricular
D. Concurrent

28. Which should Mr. Laylo consider when writing multiple-choice items?
A. The alternatives are arranged in any order.
B. The stem and alternatives are on the same page.
C. The stem has irrelevant material.
D. The stem presents an unknown problem.

29. When a distribution of achievement test scores is positively skewed, one might infer
that the test was..
A. Poorly administered
B. Unreliable
C. Too easy
D. Too difficult

30. The preliminary draft of a 100-item test should have how many items?
A. 10 – 20 Items
B. 125 – 150 items
C. 200 items
D. 50 items

31. Which term describes the peakedness or flatness of the curve in a distribution as
compared with the normal curve?
A. Homogeneity
B. Heterogeneity
C. Kurtosis
D. Skewness

32. What should a teacher do to avoid overweighing the test with respect to certain
objectives while neglecting others?
A. Make a table of specifications indicating the weight of each according to
importance.
B. Make as many items as possible then pick them at random
C. Make the same number of items on each topic covered in the textbook.
D. Make the same number of items for the contents covered in each day’s lesson.

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 33. Which of the following is NOT true about evaluation?
A. Evaluation should consider the purpose and objectives of the program being
evaluated.
B. Evaluation should be continuous.
C. Evaluation should use a variety of carefully selected strategies and techniques.
D. Evaluation should involve only administrators and teachers involved in the
program.

34. At the end of the semester, Mr. Wagan wants to find out how much his students
have learned in his Trigonometry class. What type of test should he prepare?
A. Aptitude test
B. Achievement test
C. Diagnostic test
D. Readiness test

35. Which of the following statements represents formative evaluation?

A. A teacher gave a ten-item test to determine the extent of learning of students.
B. A teacher conducted a periodical test to determine the extent of learning of
students.
C. A teacher administered an achievement test to certify the level of performance of
students.
D. A teacher gave at the beginning of the school year to determine the entry
behavior of learners.

36. Which is considered sophisticated because clients are diagnosed in a more

controlled setting?
A. Anecdotal Records
B. Clinical Observations
C. Observation Guides
D. Casual Information Observation

37. The Holy Trinity School is planning to give an admission test to the incoming nursery
learners to determine their mental ability level. Considering their inability to read
words, what type of test should be given to them?
A. Non-Verbal test
B. Psychological test
C. Educational test
D. Verbal test

38. Plausibility of distracters refers to the ____________

A. Attractiveness of option in multiple choice items
B. Ability of items to discriminate between poor and bright students.
C. The level of difficulty of each item in the test.
D. Number of pupils who choose each item in the test

39. A teacher is developing a test that measure students’ belief on the importance of
education in improving one’s life. What target is she assessing?
A. Values towards schooling
B. Self- Efficacy
C. Attitude towards schooling
D. Academic self-concept

40. A 50-item test was given to the students of Mrs. Garcia. After checking the test, most
of the students got a perfect score. Using the criterion-referenced grading system, all
the students will get a grade ranging from 90% – 100%. Which is true when this
grading system is being used?
A. Whether the test is hard or easy, all students will get a passing mark.
B. If the test is too hard; few students will get low grades.
C. If the test too easy, many students will get high-grade.
D. Whether the test is hard or easy, all students will get a failing mark.
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 41. Which of the following questions indicates a nor-referenced interpretation?
A. What type of remedial work would be helpful to slow-learners?
B. How does the performance of pupils in one school compare with that of the other
schools?
C. Which pupils have obtained mastery of computation skills?
D. How does the performance of one pupil in reading compare with his performance
in Math?

42. Which of the following is an item in a Likert scale?

A. What are the characteristics of your teacher that you like most?
B. Science id boring __________ interesting.
C. Which of the subjects is your most liked?
D. Science is interesting. Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly
Disagree

43. Kimberly scored 40 out of a 50-item criterion-referenced test. How should her
teacher interpret her score considering the type of the test given and the fact that the
mean score of her class is 38?
A. Kimberly learned 40% of the lessons covered in the test.
B. Kimberly is an average student.
C. Kimberly learned 80% of the lessons covered in the test.
D. Kimberly is 2 points above the average score.

44. The fourth year students were given an achievement test in English. Majority if the
students got low scores. How would you describe the distribution?
A. Positively Skewed
B. Mesokurtic
C. Negatively Skewed
D. Platykurtic

45. Which should be practiced in testing to promote better students learning?

A. Check the test papers long after the test has been given.
B. Pile the test papers in the stock room.
C. Check and return corrected test papers to the students as soon as possible for
them to appraise their performance.
D. Use the test to get even with the students.

46. Which measures coincide with the median?

A. Q2 and P75
B. Q1 and P25
C. Q2 and P50
D. Q3 and P75

47. Mrs. Herrera wants to test the reliability of her achievement test in Science. Which of
the following activities will help achieve her purpose?
A. Examine the items if they are consistent with the test objectives.
B. Administer the test twice to the same group of students.
C. Give the test to her students and then compare the result with another test taken
by the same students.
D. Show the test to experts to check whether the items have accurate answers.

48. Mr. Castro constructed a true-false test items to determine if his pupils can tell what
mammals are. Which of the items below is NOT good to consider?
A. A platypus is a mammal that lays eggs.
B. A bat is not a mammal.
C. Mammals are covered with hair.
D. There are mammals that live in a water.

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 49. In constructing achievement tests, the first step is to
A. Determine the highest rating to be given to the students.
B. Assess the teaching capability of teachers.
C. Determine the characteristics of the highest takers.
D. Determine the content and skills covered by the test.

50. What is the greatest advantage of the objective test over the essay test?
A. It has extensive sampling
B. It is easy to score
C. It is easy to make
D. It is easy to administer

51. What is the basic purpose of the school’s pre-assessment program?

A. To provide basis for determining the type of learning activities needed by the
learners.
B. To determine learner’s weaknesses.
C. To provide a sound basis for remedial instruction.
D. To determine areas of weaknesses in teaching practices.

52. Two classes with students of comparable grade point average were exposed to two
different methods of instruction in Math. Both classes were taught the same lesson
by the same teacher but Class A was taught the traditional method while Class B
was exposed to Problem-Based Instruction. After their exposure to these methods,
they were given a posttest. Shown below are the results of the posttest given after
the experiment.
Class A Class B
Mean 80 82
Standard
2.3 7.2
Deviation
Which between the two classes has a homogeneous performance?
A. Both A and B
B. Class A
C. Class B
D. Neither A or B

53. Mrs. Vergara wants to determine how heterogeneous the class is after giving them a
test. The test scores are not too high or too low. What measure of dispersion should
she use to attain her purpose?
A. Range
B. Mean Deviation
C. Standard Deviation
D. Quartile Deviation

54. If a test item has difficulty index of 0.05, how would you describe the test item?
A. It is difficult
B. It has average difficult
C. It is very difficult
D. It is very easy

55. If the mean is 85 and the standard deviation is 5, how will you determine the scores
of average students?
A. Scores that are lower than 85 but not lower than 80
B. Scores that are exactly 85
C. Scores from 80 to 90
D. Scores that is higher than 85 but not higher than 90

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 56. Jessalyn performed better than 65% of the total number of examinees in the regional
achievement test. What is his percentile rank?
A. P65
B. P75
C. P35
D. P66

57. Three teachers were asked to be judges in an oratorical contest. Each of them was
given an instrument to use in evaluating the performance of the participants. At the
end, it was found that all the three judges arrived at precisely the same ratings. What
characteristic of the instrument was revealed?
A. Reliability
B. Objectivity
C. Usability
D. Validity

58. The quartile deviation of the scores obtained in the Departmental Examination is 2.3.
What does this mean?
A. The deviation of Q1 from the median is 2.3
B. The average deviation of Q3 and Q1 from the median 2.3
C. The median is 2.3
D. The deviation of Q3 from the median is 2.3

59. Which of the following purposes do tests serve?

A. To group pupils
B. To improve instruction
C. To assign grades
D. All of the above

60. Which instrument measures the area that the students like?
A. Liker Scale
B. Personality Inventory
C. Interest Inventory
D. Anecdotal Record

61. After teaching the different parts of speech, the Teacher Ella gave a test to find out
how well the students have understood the lessons. What type of evaluation was
done?
A. Formative
B. Placement
C. Summative
D. Diagnostic

62. What is the most reliable measure of variability?

A. Range
B. Quartile Deviation
C. Standard Deviation
D. Mean Deviation

63. Which is true when the shape of the distribution is skewed to the left?
A. The median is greater than the mean and the mode.
B. The mean is lower than the median and the mode.
C. The mean, median and mode fall at the same point.
D. The mode is lower than the median and the mean.

64. Content validity is determined by the degree to which

A. The items are representative sample of the contents of the course.
B. The content is valid.
C. There is enough time to measure the ability of the learners.
D. None of the above

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 65. Which is true about the level of measurement of the data presented?
A. The number of long test is a nominal scale while the raw scores are interval scale.
B. The number of long test is a ratio scale while the raw scores are interval scale.
C. The number of long test is an interval scale while the raw scores are nominal
scale.
D. The number of long test is an ordinal scale while the raw scores are nominal
scale.

66. The Department of Education now uses percentage score when computing the
corresponding grade of the student in a test and its passing score is equivalent to
75% of the test. If Jake got a score of 6 in a 10-item test, did he get a passing
grade?
A. No, because the equivalent grade for his raw score is 5% below the passing rank.
B. No, because he should have a raw score of at least 8 to be able to get a passing
grade for his test.
C. Yes, because he obtained a score that is more than half the total number of
items.
D. Yes, because he obtained a score that is equivalent to 80%.

67. Ms. Zaide wants to determine if the students’ scored in their Final Test is reliable.
However she has only one set of test and her students are already in vacation. What
test of reliability can she employ?
A. Kuder Ricahrdson Method
B. Equivalent Forms
C. Test – Retest
D. Test-Retest with Equivalent Forms

68. In the context of the Theory of Multiple Intelligence, which is a weakness of the
paper-pencil test?
A. It lacks reliability.
B. It puts non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage.
C. It is not easy to administer.
D. It utilizes so much time.

69. Which is CORRECT when conducting a conference with parents?

A. Discuss how other students perform compared to one’s child.
B. Be careful about giving advice
C. Show that you are authority.
D. Be formal in approaching.

70. Mr. Ilagan used her students’ scores in the first grading test in Math and correlated
these with the students’ score in the second grading test in that same subject to
determine if his instrument can describe the present performance of the students in
Mathematics. What test of validity did he established?
A. Construct
B. Predictive
C. Concurrent
D. Content

71. What should a teacher do before constructing items for a particular test?
A. Announce to the students the scope of the test.
B. Review the previous lessons.
C. Prepare a table of specifications.
D. Determine the length of time for answering it.

72. In this set of ungrouped scores; 13, 12, 13, 9, 11, 11, 13 and 14. Which is the mode?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
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 73. Which measure in the distribution indicates that one-half of the class is below it?
A. Median
B. Percentile Rank
C. Mean
D. Mode

74. It is simply defined as the numerical index of an individual’s actual performance in a

test. It is expressed in terms of time taken to complete the task or the amount done
successfully in a given time.
A. Score
B. Range
C. Decile
D. Percentile

75. Which of the following characteristics of a good test is first given consideration?
A. Administratively
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Usability

76. Setting up criteria in grading essay test means to increase its

A. Usability
B. Validity
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability

77. Which statement is most acceptable as regards the validity and reliability of a test?
A. Reliability of the test is more important than its validity.
B. If the test is reliable but invalid, it is useless.
C. If the test has high validity but low reliability, then it should be ignored.
D. If a test is valid, it follows that it is also reliable.

78. Which may be considered as an advantage of the parallel or equivalent forms

method of establishing reliability over the other methods?
A. It is easy to prepare parallel or equivalent forms of test.
B. Responses of the students will not be affected by the familiarity with the items.
C. Using two forms of test is practical and economical.
D. The time gap between two test administrations is not a problem.

79. The quartile deviation of the class is 4.3. What does this mean?
A. The 3rd quartile score is 4.3 above the median.
B. 4.3 is the average deviation of the first and third quartile from the median.
C. The 1st quartile is 4.3 below the median.
D. 4.3 is the average distance of the scores of the students who took the test.

80. Which is a good portfolio evidence of a student’s acquired knowledge and writing
skills?
A. Critiqued Outputs
B. Reflective Journal
C. Test Results
D. Project

81. Which of the following is an item that measure students’ locus of control?
A. I like math because of my inspiring math teachers.
B. The subject is boring.
C. Education is important.
D. I can solve well any mathematical problem.

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 82. Which of the following questions indicates a nor-referenced interpretation?
A. How does the performance of one pupil in reading compare with his performance
in Math?
B. Which pupils have obtained mastery of computation skills?
C. How does the performance of pupils in one school compare with that of the other
schools?
D. What type of remedial work would be helpful to slow-learners?

83. To maximize the amount of time spent for the performance-based assessment,
which one should be done?
A. Limit the task to one meeting only.
B. Assess one objective for one performance task.
C. Plan a task that can be used for instruction and assessment at the same time.
D. Set objectives for cognitive domains.

84. Which can be appropriately measured by an objective test?

A. Solves problem involving multiplication of decimals.
B. Demonstrates positive attitude towards addition of fractions.
C. Draws a picture to represent a word problem.
D. Identifies the 1st, 2nd, up to 10th object in a given set.

85. Which is the term used to designate the quantifying processes in education?
A. Measurement
B. Scoring
C. Evaluation
D. Communication

86. Which of the following is an advantage of the essay test over the objective test?
A. Preparation of items is easier than the objective test.
B. Correction of every item is open to subjective scoring.
C. It is efficient for synthesis and evaluation outcomes.
D. It requires very few items only.

87. The grade six pupils were given a diagnostic test in addition and subtraction of
whole numbers to find out if they can proceed to the next unit. However, the results
of the test were very low. What should the teacher do?
A. Count the number of errors to find out the lessons that the majority of students
need to relearn.
B. Proceed to the next lesson to be able to finish all the topics in the course.
C. Record the scores then inform the parents about the very poor performance of
their child in mathematics.
D. Construct another test parallel to the given test to determine the consistency of
the scores.

88. Which is NOT TRUE of an analytic rubric?

A. It gives one’s level of performance per criterion.
B. It allows one to pinpoint the strengths and weaknesses of one’s work.
C. It is easier to construct than the holistic rubric.
D. It is time consuming to use.

89. Marilyn got a percentile rank of 88 in a national test. How would you interpret her
score?
A. She belonged to the upper 88% of the class.
B. She performed better than 88% of the total number of examinees.
C. She missed 12 items in the test.
D. She answered 88 items correctly.

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 90. When the obtained measure of variability is small, it is possible that ____________
A. There are very bright and very dull pupils in the class.
B. The test might have been too easy for everyone.
C. The test might have been too difficult for some and too easy for the others.
D. The class is made up of children of different abilities.

91. Without preparing the required table of specification, Mr. Mercado proceeded to the
writing of test items for the Periodical Test in Social Studies. Consequently, he found
his test overloaded with items in map-reading. What principle of testing did Mr.
Mercado violate?
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Scope
D. Usability

92. Mrs. Cura wants to classify her pupils into four ability groups using their achievement
test results. What measure should she consider?
A. Quartile
B. Median
C. Standard Deviation
D. Range

93. What do you mean by a frequency of zero (0) for the interval 41 – 45?
A. Nobody got a score from 41 to 45.
B. The interval 41 - 45 should not be included anymore.
C. Nobody got a score equal to the midpoint.
D. There is no difference between 41 and 45.

94. What percent of the cases in the distribution of scores lie below the third quartile?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 10%

95. What should you consider when writing a matching type of test?
A. The shorter part of the test should be the column of responses.
B. The columns should be equal in length.
C. The direction should state that column A should be matched to column B.
D. The column of responses should contain heterogeneous ideas.

96. Which intelligence test item is most valid of the following percent corresponding
respectively to the 5, 6, and 7-year old children who took the test?
A. 20%, 30%, 40%
B. 20%, 30%, 30%
C. 50%, 50%, 50%
D. 80%, 75%, 70%

97. Which is the highest correlation coefficient?

A. +0.99
B. -1.0
C. -0.94
D. +0.91

98. Mean is to measure of central tendency as SD is to measure of –

A. Variability
B. Correlation
C. Divergence from normality
D. Position

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 99. Which type of standardized test has test items arranged in ascending order of
difficulty to measure the content of an individual’s ability in a given field?
A. Power
B. Speed
C. Diagnostic
D. Survey

100. What should be done first when planning for a performance-based assessment?
A. Set the competencies to be assessed.
B. Prepare a scoring rubric.
C. Set the criteria on scoring the task.
D. Determine the “table of specifications” of the tasks.

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 DIAGNOSTIC TEST
ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING
ANSWER KEY
Mr. Generoso administered an achievement test in Social Studies among Grade 9
students. In assigning the grade equivalent to the scores obtained by the students, he
considered the performance of one student in comparison with the rest. What approach
to grading did he use?
1. B. Norm-Referenced
2. B. It limits the content to be tested.
3. D. Verbal test
4. A. Placement test
5. C. Set the targets for portfolio assessment.
6. D. Rubrics are used solely by the teachers to make assessment objective
7. C. Performance-Based Assessment
8. B. Essay Test
9. C. Multiple Choice Test
10. A. It provides inadequate basis for interpretation.
11. A. Summative test
12. D. Performance test in extemporaneous speaking
13. B. No, the giving of an objective test is more appropriate than the use of essay.
14. D. Evaluation method should be selected based on the desired trait to measure.
15. C. Distracter
16. A. Practices precautionary measure to avoid getting hurt from the sun’s heat and
light.
17. D. II, III, IV
18. C. Standard deviation
19. D. Teachers should keep track of learning outcomes.
20. A. Measure gains in learning
21. C. Scaffolding
22. D. Obligation
23. B. Arbitrarines and bias
24. C. Performance-based assessment
25. A. Aptitude test
26. A. Equity Principle
27. C. Curricular
28. B. The stem and alternatives are on the same page.
29. D. Too difficult
30. B. 125 – 150 items
31. C. Kurtosis
32. A. Make a table of specifications indicating the weight of each according to
importance.
33. D. Evaluation should involve only administrators and teachers involved in the
program.
34. B. Achievement test
35. A. A teacher gave a ten-item test to determine the extent of learning of students.
36. B. Clinical Observations
37. A. Non-Verbal test
38. A. Attractiveness of option in multiple choice item
39. A. Values towards schooling
40. C. If the test too easy, many students will get highgrades.
41. B. How does the performance of pupils in one school compare with that of the
other schools?
42. D. Science is interesting. Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly
Disagree
43. C. Kimberly learned 80% of the lessons covered in the test.
44. A. Positively Skewed
45. C. Check and return corrected test papers to the students as soon as possible for
them to appraise their performance.
46. C. Q2 and P50
47. B. Administer the test twice to the same group of students.
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 48. A. A platypus is a mammal that lays eggs.
49. D. Determine the content and skills covered by the test.
50. A. It has extensive sampling
51. C. To provide a sound basis for remedial instruction.
52. B. Class A
53. B. Mean Deviation
54. C. It is very difficult
55. C. Scores from 80 to 90
56. A. P65
57. A. Reliability
58. B. The average deviation of Q3 and Q1 from the median 2.3
59. D. All of the above
60. C. Interest Inventory
61. A. Formative
62. C. Standard Deviation
63. B. The mean is lower than the median and the mode.
64. A. The items are representative sample of the contents of the course.
65. A. The number of long test is a nominal scale while the raw scores are interval
scale.
66. B. No, because he should have a raw score of at least 8 to be able to get a
passing grade for his test.
67. A. Kuder Ricahrdson Method
68. B. It puts non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage.
69. B. Be careful about giving advice
70. B. Predictive
71. C. Prepare a table of specifications.
72. C. 13
73. A. Median
74. A. Score
75. C. Validity
76. C. Objectivity
77. D. If a test is valid, it follows that it is also reliable.
78. B. Responses of the students will not be affected by the familiarity with the items.
79. D. 4.3 is the average distance of the scores of the students who took the test.
80. B. Reflective Journal
81. A. I like math because of my inspiring math teachers.
82. C. How does the performance of pupils in one school compare with that of the
other schools?
83. C. Plan a task that can be used for instruction and assessment at the same time.
84. D. Identifies the 1st, 2nd, up to 10th object in a given set.
85. A. Measurement
86. C. It is efficient for synthesis and evaluation outcomes.
87. A. Count the number of errors to find out the lessons that the majority of students
need to relearn.
88. C. It is easier to construct than the holistic rubric.
89. B. She performed better than 88% of the total number of examinees.
90. B. The test might have been too easy for everyone.
91. B. Validity
92. A. Quartile
93. A. Nobody got a score from 41 to 45.
94. A. 75%
95. A. The shorter part of the test should be the column of responses.
96. C. 50%, 50%, 50%
97. B. -1.0
98. A. Variability
99. A. Power
100. A. Set the competencies to be assessed.

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