SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS S60, MPL & LTC DATE: 29-05-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 1 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10

BOTANY 4. An example of axile placentation is/are

SECTION -A (1) Pea, solanaceae, liliaceae
1. Which set of organisms multiply through (2) Mustard, Argemone, sunflower
fragmentation? (3) Dianthus, primrose, marigold
(1) Fungi, filamentaous algae, protonema (4) China rose, tomato, lemon
of moss 5. Annual rings are distinct in plants growing
(2) Bacteria, yeast, Chlamydomonas in
(3) Fungi, unicellular algae, Mycoplasma (1) Grasslands
(4) Protists, fungi, algae (2) Arctic region
2. Which of the following statement is (3) Tropical region
incorrect about given organism in this (4) Temperate region
diagram
6. Identify A, B, C, D in the given figure

(1) Found in stagnant water

(2) Cell wall present
(3) They have protein rich layer called
pellicle (1) A – Nuclear membrane, B –
(4) They have two flagella, short and long Nucleolus, C – Nuclear pore, D –
3. Gymnosperms Nucleoplasm
(2) A – Nuclear pore, B – Nucleoplasm,
(1) Are plants in which ovules are C – Nucleolus, D – Nuclear membrane
enclosed by ovary wall (3) A – Nucleoplasm, B – Nucleolus, C –
(2) Have naked seeds Nuclear pore, D – Nuclear membrane
(4) A – Nuclear membrane, B –
(3) Have adventitious roots generally
Nucleolus, C – Nucleoplasm, D – Nuclear
(4) Have only branched stem pore
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7. Assertion (A) : Chitin is a homopolymer (1) a – i, b – ii , c – iii, d – iv
Reason (R) : Chitin contain modified sugar (2) a – ii, b – iii , c – i, d – iv
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is (3) a – iii, b – i , c – ii, d – iv
correct explaination of A (4) a – iv, b – iii , c – ii, d – i
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not 11. In C4 plants Calvin cycle occur in
explanation of A (1) Thylakoid of bundle sheath cell
(3) Only A correct (2) Stroma of chloroplast of bundle
(4) Both A and R incorrect sheath cell
(3) Grana of mesophyll cell
8. Synaptonemal complex has role in
(4) Stroma of chloroplast of mesophyll
(1) Terminalisation
cell
(2) Disjunction 12. Which of the following is energy yielding
(3) Alignment on equator process?
(4) Chromosome pairing (1) Glucose → Glucose – 6 – phosphate
9. Choose incorrect statement from the (2) G-6-P → Fructose – 6 – phosphate
following (3) F-6-P → Fructose 1, 6 – Bisphosphate
(1) Cell wall is not freely permeable to (4) PEP → pyruvate
water and substances in solution 13. All the following are effects of cytokinin
(2) In plants water move from its region except
of higher chemical potential to its region of (1) Promote cell division
lower chemical potential (2) Root hair fermation
(3) Numerically osmotic pressure is
(3) Delay of leaf sensescence
equivalent to osmotic potential but sign is
opposite (4) Produce new leaves
(4) The process of plasmolysis is usually 14. Which of the following statement is true
reversible about Chara?
(1) It is dioecious plant
10. Match the columns
(2) It is monoecious flowering plant
Column – I Column – II
(3) Female sex organ is oogonium
(Mineral) (Function)
(4) Male sex organ is nucule
a) Ca 2+ i) Spindle formation
15. Persistent nucellus, perisperm is found in
b) Mg 2 + ii) Maintain ribosome
(1) Black pepper
structure
(2) Cyanastrum
c) Fe3+ iii) Activator of catalase
(3) Beet
d) Zn 2+ iv) Synthesis of auxin
(4) Both 1 & 3
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16. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, how many 20. If desired gene is inserted at Bam HI site of
individuals are homozygous dominant for pBR322, then which antibiotic help in
identification of recombinants?
both the genes in F2 generation? (1) Tetracycline
(1) 1/4 (2) Ampicillin
(2) 1/8 (3) Both tetracycline and ampicillin
(3) 2/16 (4) Terramycine
(4) 1/16 21. Golden rice is rich in
17. RNA polymerase II help in transcription of (1) Vitamin A
(1) 28S, 18S, 5.8 S rRNA (2) Vitamin C
(2) tRNA, 5SrRNA, SnRNA (3) Protein
(3) HnRNA (4) Lipids
(4) 23 SrRNA, 16SrRNA, 5SrRNA 22. Cry delta endotoxins obtained from
18. Cyclosporin A is produced by Bacillus thuriengiensis are effective
(1) Bacteria against
(2) Virus (1) Nematode
(3) Fungus (2) Bollworm
(4) Protozoa (3) Cotton plant
19. Match the following (4) Tobacco plant
Column – I Column – II 23. Secondary succession occurs in
a) Hairy leaves i) Resistance to (1) Newly cooled lava
in cotton stem sawfly (2) Bare rock
b) Solid stem in ii) Resistance to (3) Abandoned farm land
wheat jassid (4) Newly created pond
c) Smooth iii) Resistance to 24. Choose incorrect statement related to
leaves and bollworm carbon cycle in biosphere
nectorless (1) 71% carbon of total global carbon is
cotton found dissolved in oceans
(1) a – i, b – iii, c – ii (2) Fossil fuel is also reservoir of carbon
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iii (3) Atmosphore contain majority of
(3) a – iii, b – ii, c – i global carbon
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii (4) According to one estimate 4 × 1013 kg
of carbon is fixed annually in biosphere
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25. Bioremediation means 29. Read the following statements
(1) Use of either naturally occurring or a) DNA polymerase synthesise DNA in
deliberately introduced microorganism to 5 ' → 3' direction
consume or breakdown of environmental
b) RNA polymerase synthesise RNA in
pollutants
(2) Search for plant and animal species 5 ' → 3' direction
from which medicinal drugs, biochemicals c) In a transcription unit promoter is
etc can be obtianed located towards 3' end of structural genes
(3) Treatement in which genes that are wrt coding strand
not normal in cells are replaced with d) Inheritance of character is not
normal genes influenced by promoter and regulatory
(4) Patent of living organisms sequences
26. If desired gene is inserted within lac z gene e) RNA polymerase open DNA helix
of PUC vector during transcription
(1) Ampicillin help in selection of Which of the following statements are
transformant correct?
(2) Non recombinant will produce blue (1) a, b, c
colonies (2) a, b, e
(3) Recombinant will produce white (3) a, b, d
colony (4) c, d
(4) All the above are correct 30. Flower colour in snapdragon is an example
27. Large holes in swiss cheese are due to of
production of large amount of CO 2 by a (1) Complete Dominance

(1) Fungus (2) Codominance

(2) Virus (3) Incomplete dominance

(3) Bacteria (4) Complementary genes

(4) Protozoa 31. During artificial hybridisation stigma of

28. Pusa Komal is female parent is protected from

(1) Mutant variety of cow pea resistant to contamination by

bacterial blight (1) Emasculation

(2) Hybrid variety of Brassica (2) Bagging

(3) Hybrid variety of wheat (3) Rebagging

(4) Hybrid variety of cow pea (4) All of these

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32. _______ worked on embryological aspects 37. Which of the following is not a purpose of
and popularised the use of embryological transpiration?
characters in plant taxonomy (1) Maintain the shape and structure of
(1) Panchanan Maheshwari plants by keeping cells turgid
(2) Kamal Ahuja (2) Cools leaf surface
(3) Paul Bujor (3) Transport minerals from soil to all
(4) Brian K. Hall parts of plant
33. All the following are functions of auxin (4) Create root pressure
except 38. In animal cells, during ______phase, DNA
(1) Help to initiate rooting in stem cutting duplication begins in ______, and centriole
(2) Promote flowering in pine apple duplication in ______
(3) Promote growth of lateral buds (1) G1 , nucleus, cytoplasm
(4) Induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes (2) S, cytoplasm, nucleus
34. Net ATP production from one glucose (3) S, nucleus, cytoplasm
during ethyl alcohol fermentation is (4) G 2 , nucleus, cytoplasm
(1) Two
39. What is K m value of enzyme?
(2) Six
(1) The concentration of substrate at
(3) Eight
which velocity of enzymatic action reaches
(4) Twelve
half of its maximum value
35. What is FNR ?
(2) Number of substrate molecule
(1) H – donor
converted to product per enzyme per unit
(2) e – donar
time
+
(3) H donor
(3) Graphic representation of effect of
(4) Enzyme
enzyme concentration on rate of reaction
SECTION – B
(4) Substrate concentration at which
36. How many ATP are required to fix one N 2
velocity of enzymatic reaction is maximum
during biological nitrogen fixation in 40. What is function of nucleolus?
legumes? (1) Protein synthesis
(1) 8 (2) rRNA synthesis in prokaryotes
(2) 12 (3) rRNA synthesis in eukaryotes
(3) 16 (4) Synthesis of all types of RNA,
(4) 32 proteins and ribosomes
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41. Which of the following is partly primary
and partly secondary cambium?
(1) Vascular cambium in dicot root
(2) Vascular cambium in dicot stem (4)
(3) Cork cambium in dicot root 44. In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom system of
(4) Cork cambium in dicot stem classification, Chlamydomonas and
42. In liliaceae leaves are Chlorella were placed in kingdom
(1) Monera
(1) Mostly basal, alternate, linear,
(2) Protista
exstipulate with parallel venation
(3) Fungi
(2) Mostly basal, alternate, linear
(4) Plantae
stipulate with reticulate ventation
45. Which of the following serve as quick
(3) Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately
referral system in taxonomical studies
compound, exstipulate with reticulate (1) Museum
venation (2) Zoological park
(4) Pulvinate, stipulate, with reticulate (3) Herbarium
venation (4) Flora
43. Which of the following is Porphyra? 46. What is ploidy level of MMC?
(1) N
(2) 2N
(3) 3N
(4) 4N
47. Which of the following is controlled by
polygenes?
(1)
(1) Stem height in pea
(2) Flower colour in Antirrhinum
(3) Human skin colour
(4) ABO blood group
(2) 48. Who proposed central dogma of molecular
biology?
(1) Temin
(2) Baltimore
(3) Francis Crick
(3) (4) Beadle and Tatum
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49. Gel electrophoresis helps in (3) Both radius and ulna
(1) Separation and isolation of DNA (4) Both tibia and fibula
fragments 54. Match the following
(2) Isolation of DNA from host cell Column-I Column-II
(3) Amplification of gene of interest (a) Olfactory bulb (i) Malfunctioni

(4) Cutting of DNA at specific locations ng of kidneys

50. How many ATP and NADH + H + are (b) Dialysis (ii) Extension of
limbic system
required to respectively fix six CO 2 in
(c) Optic chiasma (iii) Basilar
Calvin cycle ?
membrane
(1) 30, 12
(d) Organ of Corti (iv) Nerve cross
(2) 3, 2
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) 5, 2
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) 18, 12
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
ZOOLOGY
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
SECTION-A
55. Secretions of acrosome help in
51. Which of the following characteristics
(1) Completion of the meiotic division of
always holds true for the corresponding
the secondary oocyte
group of animals ?
(2) Sperm motility
Column-I Column-II
(3) Sperm entry into the cytoplasm of the
(1) High regeneration Platyhelminthes
ovum
capacity
(2) Calcareous shell Mollusca
(4) Spermatogenesis
(3) Water vascular Echinodermata 56. Intercalated discs of cardiac muscle tissue
system are
(4) Development is direct Aschelminthes (1) Tight junctions
52. Three Mile Island incident is related to (2) Adhering junctions
(1) Electronic wastes (3) Collagen fibres
(2) Leakage of nuclear energy (4) Communication junctions
(3) Biomagnification 57. Blood has haemoglobin but not RBC in
(4) Ozone depletion (1) Blindworm
53. Olecranon process is at the proximal end of (2) Silkworm
(1) Ulna (3) Earthworm
(2) Radius (4) Roundworm
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58. Infected females may often be (1) Butterfly
asymptomatic during the infection of (2) Grasshopper
(1) STIs (3) Fowl
(2) HBV (4) Human being
(3) HIV 64. Rosie is a
(4) Cholera (1) Buffalo breed: Developed by close
59. Vertebro-chondral ribs of human being breeding for more milk yield
(1) Do not participate in the formation of (2) Transgenic sheep: Meat and fur
ribcage production
(2) Are not bicephalic ribs (3) Cloned goat: Fur extraction and thin
(3) Do not articulate directly with sternum meat production
(4) Are true ribs (4) Transgenic cow: Produces human alpha
60. Atrial Natriuretic Factor can decrease the – lactalbumin enriched milk
blood pressure by 65. Which plant form of the following is the
(1) Dilating the blood vessels ancestor for ferns and conifers ?
(2) Constricting the blood vessels (1) Cycads
(3) Activating JG cells (2) Rhynia - type
(4) Activating adrenal cortex (3) Zosterophyllum
61. Secondary productivity is the rate of (4) Psilophyton
formation of new organic matter by 66. A kind of parasitism that does not involve
(1) Consumers feeding on the body of host is
(2) Producers (1)Ectoparasitism – Lamprey on Fish
(3) Chemoautotrophs (2)Endoparasitism – Plasmodium in Man
(4) Sciophytes (3)Brood parasitism – Koel on Crow
62. Main effect of Multiload 375 (4)Hyperparasitism–Nosema on
(1) Promotes uterine implantation Spherospora
(2) Enhances cervix hostile to sperms 67. All require in vitro fertilization except
(3) Suppresses the sperm motility (1) Test tube baby programme
(4) Prevents further ovulation (2) GIFT
63. When the ovum is fertilized by the ‘sperm (3) ICSI
without sex chromosome’ can form a (4) ZIFT
reproductively healthy individual in

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68. A population growing in a habitat with
limited resources show initially
(1) Asymptote phase
(2) Acceleration phase
(3) Lag phase
(4) Deceleration phase
69. The photopigments in the human eyes are
composed of opsin X and retinal Y_.
‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
(1) X-Starch; Y- an Aldehyde of vitamin-A
(2) X-Protein; Y- Ketone of vitamin-A
(3) X-Mineral; Y- Ketone of vitamin-A
(4) X-Protein; Y- an Aldehyde of vitamin-
A (4) Parapodia in Neries – Heat insulation
70. Identify the mismatched combination
(1) Cropland : Least genetic diversity
(2) Pond : Self-sustainable unit
(3) Decomposition : Largely anaerobic
process
(4) Food web : Interconnection of food
chains
71. Areola is
(1) Intercellular space in testis
(2) Ring of pigmented skin around nipple
(3) Interstitial fluid filled space in ovary
(4) Cushion of fatty tissue in mons pubis
72. Which of the following event does not take
place in acidic pH in humans ?
(1) Casein → Paracasein
(2) Starch → Maltose
(3) Pr otein → Pr oteose
(4) DNA → Nucleotide
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73. Tegmina of cockroach are
(1) Spiral thickenings of tracheae
(2) Boat shaped gynovalvular plates
(3) Opaque dark and leathery hind wings
(4) Sockets that lodge ocelli
74. Identify the incorrect combination based
on its function
(1) Air bladder in fish – Regulation of
buoyancy
(2) Radula in snail – Rasping organ for
feeding
(3) Air sacs in bird – Supplement
respiration
75. Which of the following is the best breeding
method for animals that are below average
in productivity in milk production and
growth rate etc., ?
(1) Cross-breeding
(2) Inbreeding
(3) Interspecific hybridisation
(4) Out-crossing
76. Which cells of ‘gastric glands’ secrete the
substance which can convert pepsinogen
into pepsin ?
(1) Chief cells
(2) Paneth cells
(3) Oxyntic cells
(4) Neck cells
77. Deoxygenated blood pumped into the (3) The collecting duct is lined by simple
pulmonary artery is passed on to the lungs columnar ciliated epithelium.
from where the oxygenated blood is carried
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule is lined
by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium.
This pathway constitutes by simple cuboidal brush border
(1) Systemic circulation epithelium.
(2) Portal circulation 81. Statement-I : The Medical Termination of
(3) Coronary circulation Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 was
enacted by the government of India with
(4) Pulmonary circulation
the intension of reducing the incidence of
78. Cranium and vertebral column are illegal abortions.
cartilaginous in which vertebrate of the Statement-II : Nearly 45 to 50 million
following ? MTPs are performed in a year all over the
(1) Pterophyllum world.
(2) Petromyzon (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Psittacula correct
(4) Pteropus (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
79. Which one of the following statements is wrong
not valid for UV–B radiation ? (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
(1) High dose of UV-B causes snow – correct
blindness (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) It increases the melting of polar ice wrong
caps 82. In HGP, the sequence of which
(3) It damages DNA and mutation may chromosome was completed in May 2006 ?
occur (1) X Chromosome
(4) It causes aging of skin and damage to (2) Chromosome 1
skin cells (3) Y Chromosome
80. Which of the following statements is (4) Chromosome 10
correct? 83. Which among these is the correct
(1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle combination of poisonous snakes ?
allows passage of small amounts of urea (1) Naja, Ptyas, Hemidactylus
into the medullary interstitium. (2) Python, Calotes, Bangarus
(2) Distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs (3) Testudo, Vipera, Naja
70-80 per cent of electrolytes and water. (4) Bangarus, Naja, Vipera

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84. Eminent conservationists identified that (2) Complete with a muscular intestine
maximum protection is required to (3) Incomplete with a muscular
‘biodiversity hot spots’. Which of the oesophagus
following statement(s) is/are most (4) Incomplete without muscles in any part
appropriate for this view ? of it
(I) These are the regions with very 87. Which one of the following functions is
highlevels of species richness. not likely to be disturbed if an injury
(II) These are the areas where alien localizes to hypothalamus ?
species were introduced. (1) Urge for eating and drinking
(III) These are the regions with high (2) Regulation of circadian rhythms
degree of endemism. (3) Thermoregulation
(IV) These have a history of religious and (4) Respiratory rhythm
cultural traditions. 88. In which of the following interactions both
(1) Only (I) partners are adversely affected ?
(2) Only (III) (1) Sea anemone and clown fish
(3) (I) and (III) (2) Flamingoes and resident fishes in some
(4) (II) and (IV) shallow South American lakes
85. Haemophilia is a genetic disease. Select (3) Fig tree and pollinator wasp
the correct option from the following in (4) Epiphytic orchid on a mango branch
relation to it. 89. Coronal suture between the parietal and
(1) It is an autosome linked dominant frontal bones of cranium is a type of
trait. (1) Cartilaginous joint
(2) The affected male should have an (2) Fibrous joint
affected father. (3) Synovial joint
(3) The heterozygous female cannot (4) Pivot joint
transmit the disease to her sons. 90. During which phase of menstrual cycle, the
(4) The possibility of a female becoming primary follicles in the ovary grow to
a haemophilic is extremely rare. become a fully mature Graafian follicle ?
SECTION-B (1) Luteal phase
86. In the members of Phylum – (2) Proliferative phase
Aschelminthes, the alimentary canal is (3) Secretory phase
(1) Complete with a muscular pharynx (4) Menstrual phase

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91. Match the following common diseases 94. Observe the below given diagrammatic
(Column-I) with their causative agent representations of the operation of natural
(Column-II) and select the correct option selection
Column-I Column-II
(A) Pneumonia (i) Wuchereria
(B) Ringworm (ii) Salmonella
(C) Typhoid (iii) Haemophilus
(D) Filariasis (iv) Epidermophyton
In the above A and B more individuals
A B C D
acquire
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) A – other than mean character value,

(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) B – mean character value

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) A – mean character value,
92. Which of the following options best B – peripheral character value
represents enzyme composition of succus (3) A – other than mean character value,
entericus ? B – peripheral character value
(1) Sucrase, nuclease, steapsin
(4) A – mean character value,
(2) Lactase, pepsin, procarboxypeptidase
B – other than mean character value
(3) Maltase, nucleosidases, lipase
95. Which one of the following sets contain
(4) Amylase, lipase, trypsinogen
edible crustaceans ?
93. Residual volume is not taken into
(1) King crabs and crayfishes
consideration in measuring of these two
(2) Snails and oysters
capacities of the lungs
(1) Vital capacity and expiratory capacity (3) Crabs and prawns

(2) Total lung capacity and expiratory (4) Meckerel and pomfrets
capacity 96. Which hormone stimulates reabsorption of
(3) Total lung capacity and functional Ca 2+ by renal tubules ?
residual capacity (1) Parathyroid hormone
(4) Inspiratory capacity and functional
(2) Thyrocalcitonin
residual capacity
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Tetraiodothyronine

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97. FSH and LH are gonadotropins, in males II) Eosinophils resist infections and are
FSH acts on also associated with allergic reactions.
(1) Spermatogonia and stimulates the III) Platelets are cell fragments produced
process of spermiation from thrombocytes.
(2) Sertoli cells and stimulates the IV) Neutrophils and basophils are
secretion of some factors which help in phagocytic cells.
spermiogenesis (1) III & IV
(3) Leydig cells to release male sex (2) I & II
hormones (3) I & IV
(4) Sertoli cells and stimulate the (4) II & III
secretions of epididymis PHYSICS
98. DNA finger printing is a technique which SECTION – A
works on the principle of 101. Two spherical conductors B and C having
(1) Non-heritable DNA mutations equal radii and carrying equal charges in
them repel each other with a force F when
(2) Polymorphism in DNA sequences
kept apart at some distance. A third
(3) Bulk genomic DNA major peaks ` spherical conductor having same radius as
(4) Polymorphism in nucleo proteins that of B but uncharged is brought in
contact with B, then brought in contact
99. Assertion (A) : In female humans urinary
with C and finally removed away from
tract infections are very common. both. The new force of repulsion between
Reason (R) : Anus, urethral opening and B and C is
(1) F/4
vaginal opening are located very closely in
(2) 3F/4
female humans.
(3) F/8
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
(4) 3F/8
correct explanation of A.
102. Two drops of the same radius are falling
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
through air with the terminal velocity of 5
correct explanation of A.
cm per sec. If the two drops coalesce, the
(3) A is true but R is false.
terminal velocity would be (in cm per sec)
(4) Both A and R are false.
(1) 10
100. Which statements of the following are true
(2) 2.5
for formed elements ?
I) Leucocytes are generally short lived. (3) 5 × (4)1/3

(4) 5 × 2

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103. A charged particle is moving in a uniform coincides with 25 divisions above the
magnetic field in a circular path. Radius of reference level. If screw gauge has a zero
circular path is R. When energy of particle error of -0.004cm, the correct diameter of
is doubled, then new radius will be the ball is
(1) R 2 (1) 0.521cm
(2) 0.525cm
(2) R 3
(3) 0.529cm
(3) 2R
(4) 0.053 cm
(4) 3R
107. The masses of neutron and proton are
104. An electric dipole is put in north-south
1.0087 a.m.u. and 1.0073 a.m.u.
direction in a sphere. Which statement is
respectively. If the neutrons and protons
correct
combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha
(1) Electric flux is coming towards sphere
particles) of mass 4.0015 a.m.u. The
(2) Electric flux is coming out of sphere
binding energy of the helium nucleus will
(3) Electric flux entering into sphere and
be (1 a.m.u. = 931 MeV)
leaving the sphere are same
(1) 28.4 MeV
(4) No electric flux entres and no flux
(2) 20.8 MeV
leaves the sphere
(3) 27.3 MeV
105. A photograph of the moon was taken with
(4) 14.2 MeV
telescope. Later on, it was found that a
108. A body takes time t to reach the bottom of
housefly was sitting on the objective lens
an inclined plane of angle θ with the
of the telescope. In photograph
horizontal. If the plane is made rough, time
(1) The image of housefly will be reduced
taken now is 2t. The coefficient of friction
(2) There is a reduction in the intensity of
of the rough surface is
the image
3
(3) There is an increase in the intensity of (1) tan θ
4
the image
2
(4) The image of the housefly will be (2) tan θ
3
enlarged
1
106. A student measured the diameter of a small (3) tan θ
4
steel ball using a screw gauge of least 1
(4) tan θ
count 0.001cm. The main scale reading is 2
5mm and zero of circular scale division
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109. A prism ABC of angle 300 has its face AC
silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle
of 450 at the face AB retraces its path after
refraction at face AB and reflection at face
AC. The refractive index of the material of
the prism is

LIST-I LIST-II
A) If E1 is increasing P) l should increase
B) If R is increasing Q) l should decrease
C) If r is increasing R) l does not change
(1) 1.5 (1) A-Q; B-P; C-R
3 (2) A-P; B-Q; C-R
(2)
2 (3) A-R; B-P; C-Q
(3) 2 (4) A-P; B-R; C-Q
(4) 4/3 113. Which statement is correct
110. A mass m attached to a spring oscillates (1) N-type germanium is negatively
every 2 sec. If the mass is increased by 2 charged and P-type germanium is
kg, then time-period increases by 1 sec. The positively charged
initial mass is (2) Both N-type and P-type germanium are
(1) 1.6 kg neutral
(2) 3.9 kg (3) N-type germanium is positively
(3) 9.6 kg charged and P-type germanium is
(4) 12.6 kg negatively charged
(4) Both N-type and P-type germanium are
111. A thin equiconvex lens is made of glass of
refractive index 1.5 and its focal length is negatively charged
0.2 m, if it acts as a concave lens of 0.5 m 114. Atomic mass number of an element
focal length when dipped in a liquid, the thorium is 232 and its atomic number is 90.
refractive index of the liquid is The end product of this radioactive element
(1) 17/8 is an isotope of lead (atomic mass 208 and
(2) 15/8 atomic number 82). The number of alpha
and beta particles emitted are
(3) 13/8
(1) α = 3, β = 3
(4) 9/8
(2) α = 6, β = 4
112. In the potentiometer arrangement shown in
(3) α = 6, β = 0
figure, null point is obtained at length l .
Match the following (4) α = 4, β = 6

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115. An engine pumps up 100 kg of water (4) 9R/4
through a height of 10 m in 5s. Given that 119. In a potentiometer experiment, the
the efficiency of the engine is 60%. If galvanometer shows no deflection when a
g = 10ms −2 , the power of the engine is cell is connected across 60 cm of the

(1) 3.3KW potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by

(2) 0.33KW a resistance of 6Ω , the balance is obtained

(3) 0.033KW across 50 cm of the wire. The internal

(4) 1.2 KW resistance of the cell is
116. A radio transmitter operates at a frequency (1) 0.5Ω
of 880 kHz and a power of 10 kW. The (2) 0.6Ω
number of photons emitted per second are (3) 1.2Ω
(1) 1.72 ×10 31
(4) 1.5Ω
(2) 1327 ×10 34
120. The solids which have the negative
(3) 13.27 ×10 34
temperature coefficient of resistance are
−34
(4) 0.075 ×10 (1) insulators and semiconductors
117. An em wave is propagating in a medium (2) metals
with a velocity V = Viˆ . The instantaneous (3) Insulators only
oscillating electric field of this em wave is (4) Semiconductors only
along +y axis. Then the direction of 121. The mean electric energy density between
oscillating magnetic field of the em wave the plates of a charged capacitor is (here q=
will be along charge on the capacitor and A= area of the
(1) –z direction capacitor plate)
(2) +z direction q2
(1)
(3) –x direction 2ε 0 A2
(4) –y direction q
(2)
118. The radius of second stationary orbit in 2ε 0 A2
Bohrs atom is R. The radius of third orbit q2
(3)
in the same atom will be 2ε 0 A
(1) 3R q2
(4)
(2) 9R ε 0 A2
(3) 5R/4

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122. Four condensers are joined as shown in the
adjoining figure. The capacity of each is
8µ F . The equivalent capacity between the
points A and B will be.
125. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are
chosen as the fundamental quantities the
dimensional formula of surface tension
will be
(1)  EV −1T −2 

(2)  EV −2T −2 

(3)  E −2V −1T −3 

(4)  EV −2T −1 
(1) 2 µ F 126. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2
(2) 8 µ F and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T.
(3) 16 µ F Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total
(4) 32 µ F internal energy of the system is

123. Consider the following Statements (A) and (1) 15 RT

(B) and identify the correct answer (2) 9 RT

Statement(A): A zener diode is connected (3) 11 RT

in farword bias, when used as a voltage (4) 4 RT

regulator 127. When the displacement is half the

Statement(B): The potential barrier of p-n amplitude, the ratio of potential energy to

junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V the total energy of a body in SHM is

(1) (A) and (B) both are incorrect (1) 1/8

(2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect (2) 1/4

(3) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct (3) ½

(4) (A) and (B) both are correct (4) 1/3

124. A body of mass 2 kg is thrown up 128. The temperature of a liquid drops from 365
vertically with K.E. of 490 joules. If the K to 361 K in 2 minutes. Find the time
2
acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m / s , during which temperature of the liquid
then the height at which the K.E. of the
drops from 344 K to 342 K. (Temperature
body becomes half its original value is
given by of room is 293K)
(1) 10 m (1) 84 sec
(2) 12.5m (2) 72 sec
(3) 25 m (3) 66 sec
(4) 50 m (4) 60 sec
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129. What force is required to stretch a steel distance r from a long wire carrying
wire of cross sectional area 1cm2 to current
increase its length by 1%?
( Y = 2 × 1011 N / m2 )
(1) 4 × 1011 N
(2) 2 × 107 N
(1)
(3) 2 × 1011 N
(4) 2 × 105 N
130. If T is the half life of a radioactive
material, then the fraction that would
T (2)
remain after a time is
2
(1) ½
(2) 3/4
1
(3)
2 (3)

2 −1
(4)
2
131. In the circuit shown below, what will be
the readings of the voltmeter and ammeter.
(4)
133. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in
thermal equilibrium at a temperature T
(Kelvin) and mass m, is
h
(1)
3mkT
(1) 800 V, 2A 2h
(2)
(2) 300 V, 2A 3mkT
(3) 220 V, 2.2 A 2h
(3)
(4) 100 V, 2A mkT

132. Which of the following graphs shows the h

(4)
mkT
variation of magnetic induction B with

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134. The masses and radii of the earth and moon
are M 1 , R1 and M 2 , R2 respectively. Their
centres are distance d apart. The minimum
velocity with which a particle of mass m
should be projected from a point midway
between their centres so that it escapes to (1) 10
infinity is (2) 20
G (3) 30
(1) 2 (M1 + M 2 )
d
(4) Cannot be determined
2G
(2) 2 (M1 + M 2 ) 138. A battery of e.m.f. 10 V is connected to
d
resistance as shown in figure. The potential
Gm
(3) 2 (M1 + M 2 ) difference (VA − VB ) between the points A
d
and B is
Gm( M 1 + M 2 )
(4) 2
d ( R1 + R2 )
135. The angle of 1' (minute of arc) in radian is
nearly equal to
(1) 2.91 × 10−4 rad
(2) 4.85 × 10−4 rad (1) -2V
−6
(3) 4.80 × 10 rad
−2
(2) 2V
(4) 1.75 × 10 rad
(3) 5V
SECTION - B
(4) (20/11)V
136. The core of a transformer is laminated so
139. The circuit diagram shown here
that
corresponds to the logic gate
(1) Ratio of voltage in the primary and
secondary may be increased
(2) Rusting of the core may be stopped
(3) Energy losses due to eddy currents may
be reduced
(4) Change in flux is increased
137. The distance between a convex lens and a
plane mirror is 10 cm. The parallel rays
incident on the convex lens after reflection (1) NOR
from the mirror form image at the optical (2) AND
centre of the lens. Focal length of lens will
(3) OR
be
(4) NAND
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140. A virtual current of 4A and 50 Hz flows in magnitude of the change in velocity as it
an ac circuit containing a coil. The power reaches a position where the string is
consumed in the coil is 240 W. If the horizontal is
virtual voltage across the coil is 100 V its (1) u 2 − 2 gL
inductance will be
1 (2) 2gL
(1) H
3π
(3) u 2 − gL
1
(2) H
5π (4) 2 ( u 2 − gL )
1
(3) H 144. A steady current i flows in a small square
7π
loop of wire of side L in a horizontal plane.
1
(4) H
9π The loop is now folded about its middle
141. A particle moves along a straight line such such that half of it lies in a vertical plane.
that its displacement at any time t is given




Let µ1 and µ2 respectively denote the
by S = ( t 3 − 6t 2 + 3t + 4 ) metre. The velocity
magnetic moments due to the current loop
when the acceleration is zero is
(1) 3 ms −1 before and after folding. Then



(2) -12 ms −1 (1) µ2 = 0
(3) 42 ms −1




(2) µ1 and µ 2 are in the same direction
(4) -9 ms −1


| µ1 |
142. A body of mass m is taken from earth (3)

 = 2
surface to the height h equal to radius of | µ2 |
earth, the increase in potential energy will


| µ1 |  1 
be (4)

 =  
(1) mgR | µ2 |  2 

1 145. A particle moves in the xy-plane under the

(2) mgR
2 action of a force F such that the
(3) 2mgR components of its linear momentum p at
1 any time t are px = 2cos t , p y = 2sin t .
(4) mgR
4
The angle between F and p at time t is
143. A stone tied to a string of length L is
(1) 00
whirled in a vertical circle with the other
end of the string at the centre. At a certain (2) 300
instant of time, the stone is at its lowest
(3) 900
position and has, a speed u. The
(4) 1800
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146. A particle of charge q and mass m moves 3
(3) I
in a circular orbit of radius r with angular 2

speed ω . The ratio of the magnitude of its 5

(4) I
4
magnetic moment to that of its angular
149. A source of sound of frequency 450
momentum depends on.
cycles/sec is moving towards a stationary
(1) ω and q
observer with 34 m/sec speed. If the speed
(2) ω q and m of sound is 340 m/sec, then the apparent
(3) q and m frequency will be nearly

(4) ω and m (1) 410 cycles/sec

147. A hoop of radius r and mass m rotating (2) 500 cycles/sec

with an angular velocity ω0 is placed on a (3) 550 cycles/sec

rough horizontal surface. The initial (4) 450 cycles/sec

velocity of the centre of the hoop is zero. 150. Assertion(A): Coloured spectrum is seen
What will be the velocity of the centre of when we look through a muslin cloth.
the hoop when it ceases to slip? Reason(B): Coloured phenomenon can be
rω0 observed due to dispersion of light.
(1)
4
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct
rω0 explanation of A
(2)
3
(2) Both A and R are true, and R is not the
rω
(3) 0 correct explanation of A
2

(4) rω0 (3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true
148. If the moment of inertia of a disc about an
axis tangential and parallel to its surface be CHEMISTRY

I, then what will be the moment of inertia SECTION – A

about the axis tangential but perpendicular 151. The first ionization energy (in kJ/mol) of
to the surface? Na, Mg, Al and Si respectively, are :
6 (1) 496, 737, 577, 786
(1) I
5
(2) 786, 737, 577, 496
3
(2) I (3) 496, 577, 737, 786
4
(4) 496, 577, 786, 737
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152. Hydrogen peroxide is now generally 157. Match the compounds given in List – 1
prepared on industrial scale by the : with their characteristic reactions given in
(1) Action of H 2SO 4 on barium peroxide List – II. Select the correct option
List – I List – II
(2) Action of H 2SO 4 on sodium peroxide
(Compounds) (Reactions)
(3) Auto – oxidation of 2-
i) Alkaline
alklylanthraquinols a) CH 3CH 2 CH 2CH 2 NH 2
hydrolysis
(4) Burning hydrogen in excess of oxygen
ii) With KOH
153. The hybridization of B in Borax is
(alcohol) and
(1) sp 2 b) CH3C ≡ CH
CHCl3 produces
(2) sp3 bad smell
(3) Both (1) & (2) iii) Gives white
(4) sp ppt. With
c) CH 3CH 2 COOCH 3
154. Choose the correct statement ammoniacal
AgNO 3
(1) Aspartame is unstable at cooking
temperature iv) With Lucas

(2) Sucralose is a trichloroderivative of reagent

sucrose d) CH 3CH(OH)CH 3 cloudiness

appears after 5
(3) Saccharin contains benzene ring
minutes
(4) All are correct
(1) a (ii), b (i), c (iv), d (iii)
155. Choose the incorrect match
(2) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
(1) Tranquilizer – Meprobamate
(3) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d (iv)
(2) Analgesic – Paracetamol
(4) a (iv), b (ii), c (ii), d (i)
(3) Antifertility drug – Bithionol
158. Which of the following will be most stable
(4) Antibiotics – Ofloxacin
diazonium salt RN +2 X− ?
156. Identify the co-polymer
(1) Buna – N (1) CH 3 N +2 X−
(2) Neoprene (2) C6 H 5 N +2 X−
(3) Natural rubber (3) CH 3CH 2 N +2 X−
(4) All of these
(4) C6 H 5CH 2 N +2 X−

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22
159. Which of the following compounds will 163. Which orbital diagram does not obey
give positive test with Tollen’s reagent? Aufbau principle:
(1) Acetic acid
(2) Acetone (1)
(3) Acetamide
(4) Acetaldehyde (2)
160. Alcohols and ethers are
(1) Position isomers (3)
(2) Functional isomers
(3) Chain isomers (4)
(4) Metamers 164. Which of the following sets of quantum
161. The correct order of reactivity of the number is correct for an electron in 4f
orbital?
following compounds towards aqueous
(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = - 2, s = + ½
NaCN will be
(2) n = 4, l = 4, m = - 4, s = - 1/2
Cl
(3) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 1, s = + 1/2
(4) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 4, s = + 1/2
165. One of the following is an incorrect
I)
statement, point it out.
II) CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − Cl
(1) Permanent hardness can be removed by
Cl
III) | boiling water
CH 3 − CH − CH 3
(2) Hardness of water effect soap
IV) CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − Br consumption
(1) I > II > III > IV (3) Temporary hardness is due to
(2) I > IV > II > III bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
(3) IV > II > I > III (4) Permanent hardness is due to the
(4) IV > II > III > I sulphates of Ca and Mg
162. Which of the following pairs of metals is 166. The alkaline earth metals, which do not
purified by Van Arkel method? impart any colour to Bunsen flame are
(1) Ga and In (1) Be and Mg
(2) Zr and Ti (2) Mg and Ca
(3) Ag and Au (3) Be and Ca
(4) Ni and Fe (4) Be and Ba
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167. Which of the following does not show
geometrical isomerism:
(1) 1, 2 – dichloro – 1 - pentene
(1)
(2) 1, 3 – dichloro – 2 – pentene
(3) 1, 1 – dichloro – 1 – pentene
(4) 1, 4 – dichloro – 2 – pentene
168. Which one of the following represents a set (2)
of intensive properties
(1) Mass, volume, heat capacity
(2) Temperature, specific heat, density
(3)
(3) Pressure, Heat capacity, Viscosity
(4) Internal energy, molar entropy, Heat
169. In the reaction (4)
172. Gabriel Phthalimide process cannot be
used in the preparation of

the electrophile involved is

⊕
(1) dichloromethyl cation (CHCl )
2

⊕ (1)
(2) formyl cation (CHO)

Θ (2)
(3) dichloromethyl anion (CHCl
2)

(4) dichlorocarbene (: CCl2 )

170. Which of the following gas will have the
highest RMS velocity at 300 K
(1) H 2 (3)

(2) O 2 NH2

(3) SO 2
(4) CH 4
171. Which of the following is not aromatic? (4)

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24
173. Statement – I : Starch is a non-reducing 177. Number of six membered rings and five
sugar. membered rings in fullerene are X and Y.
Difference between X and Y is equal to
Statement – II : Fructose is a reducing
(1) 14
sugar (2) 8
(1) Both statements I and II are correct (3) 10
(4) 6
(2) Statement – I is correct and statement –
178. For orthorhombic system axial ratios are
II is incorrect
a ≠ b ≠ c and the axial angles are
(3) Statement – I is incorrect and statement
(1) α = β = γ ≠ 900
– II is incorrect
0
(2) α = β = γ = 90
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
0 0

174. A → products, follows first order kinetics. (3) α = γ = 90 , β ≠ 90

0
3th (4) α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90
of the reaction is complete in 90
4 179. The standard electrode potential ( E o )
minutes. Half life of the reaction is values of ( Al +3 / Al , Ag + / Ag , K + / K and
(1) 60 minutes Cr +3 / Cr are -1.66 V, 0.80 V, -2.93 V and -
(2) 75 minutes 0.74 V respectively. The correct decreasing
order of reducing power of the metal is
(3) 54 minutes
(1) K > Al > Cr > Ag
(4) 45 minutes (2) Ag > Cr > Al > K
175. Correct combination among the following (3) K > Al > Ag > Cr
is (4) Al > K > Ag > Cr
−2
180. Given below are two statements
(1) [ NiCl4 ] − sp 3 − diamagnetic Statement I: The pH of rain water is
−2
(2)  Ni (CN)4  − dsp2 - diamagnetic normally ∼ 5.6
Statement II: If the pH of rain water drops
(3)  Ni (CO)4  − sp3 − paramagnetic below 5.6, it is called acid rain
+2 In the light of the above statements, choose
(4)  Zn ( NH3 )4  − dsp 2 − paramagnetic
the correct answer from the option given
176. Which one of the following has maximum below
number of atoms? (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
(1) 1 g of Ag (S)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
(2)1 g of Mg (S) true
(3)1 g of O 2(g ) (3) Both statement I and statement II are
false
(4)1 g of Li(S) (4) Statement I is true but statement II is
false
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181. Identify a molecule which does not exist. (2) C (diamond) +2 H 2 → CH 4
(1) H 2 (3) C (graphite) +2 H 2 → CH 4
(2) Be2 (4) H + + OH − → H 2O
(3) Li2
SECTION - B
(4) F2 186. How many isomers of molecular formula
182. Given ven der Waals’ constant (a) for C3 H 9 N will liberate N 2 gas on treatment
NH 3 , H 2 , O2 and CO2 are respectively with HNO 2 ?
4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of
(1) One (2) Three
the following gases is most easily
(3) Two (4) Five
liquefied?
(1) NH 3 187. Match list – I with List – II

(2) H 2 List – I List – II

(3) O2 a) (i) Linkage

(4) CO2 [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ][Cr(CN) 6 ] isomerism

183. A molal solution is one that contains one

(ii) Solvate
mole of a solute in b) [Co(NH 3 )3 (NO 2 )3 ]
isomerism
(1) 1000g of the solvent
(2) One litre of the solution (iii) Co-ordination
c) [Cr(H 2 O)6 ]Cl3
(3) One litre of the solvent isomerism

(4) 22.4 litres of the solution (iv) Optical

184. Which one of the following characteristics d) cis − [CrCl2 (ox)2 ]3−
isomerism
is correct for physical adsorption?
(1) It is very specific in nature Choose the correct answer from options
given
(2) Adsorption on solids is irreversible
(3) It does not depend on the nature of gas (1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(4) It results into multimolecular layer (2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

185. Which of the following reaction represent (3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
heat of formation (4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
(1) 2C + O2 → 2CO
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26
 (1) Zn
Cl
(2) Cu
188. Br has IUPAC name : (3) Sc
(1) 1 – bromo – 3 – chloro cyclohex – 4 – (4) Mn
ene 191. Halogens are most reactive elements in the
(2) 5 – bromo – 1 chloro cyclohex – 2 – periodic table. Regarding the properties of
ene halogens, improper match is
(3) 5 – bromo – 3 – chloro cyclohex – 1 – (1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I 2 …Bond dissociation
ene enthalpy
(4) 4 – bromo – 6 – chloro cyclohex – 1 – (2) Cl > F > Br > I …… Electron Affinity
ene
(2) I 2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 ………melting point
189 Which one of the following gives
(4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I 2 … oxidizing power
immediate turbidity with HCl + anhydrous
192. Faraday can deposit/liberate one gram
ZnCl2 .
atom of metal at cathode during the
electrolysis of (inert electrodes are used)
(1) aq AgNO3

(2) aq CuSO 4
(1)
(3) aq NaCl

(4) aq ZnCl2

193. Solubility product is a measure of

(2) solubility of a substance. Solubility product

of a sparingly salt, AB2 is 32×10−18 M3 .
 B−  in the saturated solution is
 

(3) (1) 2×10−6 M

(4) CH 2 = CH − OH (2) 2×10−9 M

190. Standard electrode potential (E 0M +2

/M ) of d- (3) 4×10−9 M

block element depends on various factors. (4) 4×10−6 M

E 0M+2 M is positive when ‘M’

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194. Carboxylic acid have higher boiling points 198. Which solution have highest elevation in
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols boiling point
of comparable molecular mass. It is due to
their
(1) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(2) formation of carboxylate ion
(3) more extensive association of
carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of
attraction
(4) formation of intermolecular H-bonding (1) H 2O

195. In the following reactions, (2) Solution I

H 2O
CaC 2  → ( A ) iron
red hot
  → (B ) . (3) Solution II
tube

(4) Solution III

The number of sigma bonds present in the
199. ∆G o vs T plot in the Ellingham’s diagram
product (B) is
slopes downward for the reaction
(1) 6
(1) 2 Mg ( s) + O2( g ) → 2 MgO( s)
(2) 12
(3) 18 (2) 2 Ag( s) + O2( g ) → Ag 2O( s)
(4) 3 (3) 2C( s) + O2( g ) → 2CO( g )
196. Which of the following oxoacid of
(4) 2CO( g ) + O2( g ) → 2CO2( g )
phosphorous has strongest reducing
200. Match the catalyst with the process:
property ?
Catalyst Process
(1) Metaphosphoric acid
(i) PdCl2 (a) Haber’s process
(2) Phosphinic acid
(3) Pyrophosphoric acid (ii) Fe (b) Hydrogenation of

(4) Phosphonic acid fats

197. The number of hydrogen bonded water (iii) Ni (c) Ostwald’s process

molecules associated with CuSO 4 .5H 2 O is : (iv) Pt/Rh gauge (d) Wacker process

(1) 3 (1) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d

(2)1 (2) i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d

(3) 5 (3) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c

(4) 2 (4) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

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