f SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 19-03-2022
Sub: PHYSICS NEET GRAND TEST - 4 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

PHYSICS (3) 4 kg and 4 kg

SECTION – A (4) 2 kg and 2 kg
01. The pair of physical quantities having the 04. A charge q is placed at the centre of the
same dimensional formula is line joining two equal charges Q. The
(1) Angular Momentum and torque system of the three charges will be in
(2) Torque and strain energy equilibrium, if q is equal to
(3) Planks constant and power (1) −
Q
2
(4) Power and Angular momentum
Q
02. A body of mass m kg is rotating in a (2) −
4
vertical circle at the end of a string of (3) +
Q
length r metre. The difference in the 4
Q
kinetic energy at the top and the bottom (4) +
2
of the circle is 05. Figure shows the electric lines of force
mg
(1) emerging from a charged body. If the
r

(2) 2mg electric field at A and B are E A and E B

r respectively and if the displacement
(3) 2mgr between A and B is r then
(4) mgr
03. A block of mass 4 kg is suspended
through two light spring balances A and
B. Then A and B will read respectively
A r B

(1) E A > EB
B
(2) E A < EB
EB
(3) EA =
r
4kg
EB
(4) EA =
(1) 4 kg and zero kg r2

(2) Zero kg and 4 kg

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06. An electric dipole is put in north-south 09. The curve between absolute temperature
2
direction in a sphere filled with water. and v rms is
Which statement is correct v 2rms
(1) Electric flux is coming towards
sphere
(2) Electric flux is coming out of sphere
(3) Electric flux entering into sphere T
and leaving the sphere are same (1)
2
v
(4) Water does not permit electric flux to rms

enter into sphere

07. A square of side ‘a’ has charge Q at its
centre and charge ‘q’ at one of the
corners. The work required to be done in (2) T
moving the charge ‘q’ from the corner to v 2
rms
the diagonally opposite corner is
(1) Zero
(2) Qq
4π ∈0 a
Qq 2 (3) T
(3)
4 π ∈0 a v 2
rms
Qq
(4)
2π ∈0 a
08. By which curve will the variation of
gravitational potential of a hollow sphere
(4) T
of radius R with distance be depicted
V
10. A uniform magnetic field, parallel to the
plane of the paper existed in space
O
R r initially directed from left to right. When
a bar of soft iron is placed in the field
(1) parallel to it, the lines of force passing
V
through it will be represented by
R
O
r

(2)
V (A) (B)

R
O
r

(C) (D)
(3)
V (1) Figure (A)
(2) Figure (B)
R
O (3) Figure (C)
r
(4) Figure (D)
(4)
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11. The network shown in the figure is a part (2) Exactly zero
of a complete circuit. If at a certain (3) Nearly one
instant the current i is 5 A and is (4) Exactly one
3
decreasing at the rate of 10 A / s then 16. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ac
VB − VA is source gives a voltage V = 20 cos( 2000 t).
Neglecting source resistance, the ammeter
A B
1Ω 15 V 5mH reading will be
(1) 5V 6Ω
A
(2) 10 V
(3) 15 V 5mH 4Ω 50µF
(4) 20 V
12. For silver, Young's modulus is
V
7 . 25 × 10 10 N / m 2
and Bulk modulus is
(1) 0.47A
11 × 10 10 N / m 2
. Its Poisson's ratio will be (2) 0.9A
(1) – 1 (3) 2.8 A
(2) 0.5 (4) 1.4 A
(3) 0.39 17. The output current versus time curve of a
(4) 0.25 rectifier is shown in the figure. The
13. The displacement of an oscillating average value of output current in this
particle varies with time (in seconds) case is
according to the equation y (cm) = sin
Current

πt 1
 + . The maximum acceleration of
2 2 3

the particle is approximately I0

(1) 5.21 cm / s 2 Time

(2) 3 .62 cm / s 2 (1) 0

I0
(3) 1 .81 cm / s 2 (2)
2
(4) 0.62 cm / s 2 (3) 2 I0
π
14. A resonant ac circuit contains a capacitor
(4) I0
of capacitance 10 −6 F and an inductor of
10 −4 H .
18. Atomic power station at Tarapore has a
The frequency of electrical
generating capacity of 200 MW. The
oscillations will be
energy generated in a day by this station
(1) 10 5 Hz
is
(2) 10 Hz
(1) 200 MW
10 5
(3) Hz (2) 200 J
2π
10 (3) 4800 × 10 6 J
(4) Hz
2π (4) 1728 × 10 10 J
15. The power factor of a good choke coil is
(1) Nearly zero

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19. If the binding energy per nucleon in (3) 4 λ / 3
Li7 and He 4 nuclei are respectively 5.60 (4) 3 λ
MeV and 7.06 MeV, then energy of 23. In given figure, the potentiometer wire
reaction Li7 + p → 2 2 He 4 is AB has a resistance of 5 Ω and length 10
(1) 19.6 MeV m. The balancing length AM for the emf
(2) 2.4 MeV of 0.4 V is
(3) 8.4 MeV R=45Ω
(4) 17.3 MeV 5V
20. Which of the following is true
M
A B
(1) Lyman series is a continuous
spectrum 0.4V

(2) Paschen series is a line spectrum in

the infrared (1) 0.4 m
(3) Balmer series is a line spectrum in (2) 4m
the ultraviolet (3) 0.8 m
(4) The spectral series formula can be (4) 8m
derived from the Rutherford model of the
24. The work function for metals A, B and C
hydrogen atom
are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV.
21. It is raining vertically with a velocity of 3
According to Einstein’s equation, the
kmh-1. A man walks in the rain with a
metals which will emit photo electrons
velocity of 4 kmh-1. The rain drops will
for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å
fall on the man with a velocity of
is/are
(1) 5 kmh-1
(2) 4 kmh-1 (1) None of these
(3) 3 kmh-1 (2) A only
(4) 1 kmh-1 (3) A and B only
22. The following diagram indicates the (4) All the three metals
energy levels of a certain atom when the
25. When the momentum of a proton is
system moves from 2E level to E, a
changed by an amount P0, the
photon of wavelength λ is emitted. The
corresponding change in the de-Broglie
wavelength of photon produced during its
wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then,
4E
transition from 3 level to E is the original momentum of the proton was
2E (1) p0
(2) 100 p0
(3) 400 p0
4/3E (4) 4 p0
E

(1) λ/3

(2) 3λ / 4

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26. A closed rectangular tank is completely β
(1) α=
1−β
filled with water and is accelerated
β
horizontally with an acceleration a (2) α=
1+ β
towards right. Pressure is (i) maximum at, 1−β
(3) α=
and (ii) minimum at β
1+ β
(4) α=
β
A D
a
30. Let ‘W’ be the work done, when a bubble
of volume V is formed from a given
B C
solution. How much work is required to
(1) (i) B (ii) D
be done to form a bubble of volume 2V.
(2) (i) C (ii) D
(1) W
(3) (i) B (ii) C
(2) 2W
(4) (i) B (ii) A
(3) 21/3 W
27. A block follows the path as shown in the
figure from height h . If radius of circular (4) 41/3 W
path is r , then relation that holds good to 31. If pressure of a gas contained in a closed
complete full circle is vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated
by 1ºC, its initial temperature must be :
(1) 250 K
h (2) 250ºC
(3) 2500K
r (4) 25ºC
32. Consider the process on a system shown
(1) h < 5 r / 2 in figure. During the process, the work
(2) h > 5r / 2 done by the system
(3) h = 5r / 2 P
(4) h ≥ 5 r / 2
28. Given below are four logic gate symbol
(figure). Those for OR, NOR and NAND V

are respectively (1) Continuously increases

A y A y (2) Continuously decreases
B B (3) First increases then decreases
(1) (2) (4) First decreases then increases
A y y
A 33. In ideal Carnot engine, whose efficiency
B B
(3) is 40%, receives heat at 500K. If its
(4)
efficiency is 50%, then the intake
(1) 1, 4, 3
temperature for the same exhaust
(2) 4, 1, 2
temperature is
(3) 1, 3, 4
(1) 600K
(4) 4, 2, 1
(2) 700K
29. The relation between α and β parameters
(3) 800K
of current gains for a transistors is given
(4) 900K
by

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34. A force acts on a 2 kg objects so that its A

position is given as a function of time as

θ
2
x = 3t + 5 . What is the work done by O
this force in first 5 seconds? B R
(1) 850 J
(2) 900 J C
(3) 950 J 2 gR
(1)
(4) 875 J g cos θ
cos θ
35. To increase both the resolving power and (2) 2 gR .
g
magnifying power of a telescope
R
(1) Both the focal length and aperture of (3) 2
g
the objective has to be increased gR
(4)
(2) The focal length of the objective has g cos θ
to be increased 38. Three infinitely long charge sheets are
(3) The aperture of the objective has to be placed as shown in figure. The electric
increased field at point P is
(4) The wavelength of light has to be Z
decreased σ Z = 3a
SECTION – B P
36. Which of the following options is correct −2σ Z=a
for the object having a straight line x
motion represented by the following −σ Z = −a
graph
2σ ˆ
D (1) k
εo
C
2σ ˆ
(2) − k
εo
B 4σ ˆ
t (3) k
εo
A 4σ ˆ
(4) − k
O εo
s
39. A number of blocks each of mass 0.4 Kg
(1) The object moves with constantly
are placed one over the other. The
increasing velocity from O to A and then
minimum horizontal force required to
it moves with constant velocity.
pull the eighth block from the top without
(2) Velocity of the object increases
disturbing the remaining is 10N. If
uniformly
(3) Average velocity is zero g = 10ms−2 , the coefficient of static
(4) The graph shown is impossible friction between any two blocks is
37. A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a (1) 1/3
sphere of radius R. A very small spherical (2) 1/4
ball slips on this wire. The time taken by (3) 1/6
this ball to slip from A to B is (4) 1/8

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40. In Young's double slit experiment how ring about an axis passing through its
many maximas can be obtained on a centre and perpendicular to its plane is
screen (including the central maximum) (1) ml 2 / 4π 2
on both sides of the central fringe if
λ = 2000 Å and d = 7000 Å
(2) ml 2 / π 2

(1) 12 (3) 3ml 2 / 4π

(2) 7 (4) 2ml 2 / 3π
(3) 18 44. The condition under which a microwave
(4) 4 oven heats up a food item containing
41. A current carrying coil is placed with its water molecules most efficiently is:
axis perpendicular to N-S direction. Let (1) infra-red waves produce heating in a
horizontal component of earth's magnetic microwave oven.
field be Ho and magnetic field inside the (2)The frequency of the microwaves must
loop is H. If a magnet is suspended inside match the resonant frequency of the water
the loop, it makes angle θ with H. Then molecules.
θ= (3) The frequency of the microwaves has
H  no relation with natural frequency of
(1) tan −1  0 
 H  water molecules.
 H  (4) Microwaves are heat waves, so always
(2) tan −1  

 H0  produce heating
 H  45. The figure shows a glass tube (linear co-
(3) cosec −1  

 H0 
efficient of expansion is α ) completely
H  filled with a liquid of volume expansion
(4) cot −1  0 
 H 
co-efficient γ . On heating the length of
42. In the circuit shown, the point ‘B’ is
the liquid column does not change.
earthed. The potential at the point ‘A’ is
Choose the correct relation between γ
5Ω 7Ω B
A and α
10Ω

50V C

3Ω
E D
(1) 14 V
(2) 24 V (1) γ =α
(3) 26 V (2) γ = 2α
(4) 50 V (3) γ = 3α
43. A thin wire of mass m and length l is bent α
(4) γ=
in the form of a semi circular ring. 3
Moment of inertia of that semi circular

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46. A resistance of 20 ohms is connected to a (3) 5
source of an alternating potential (4) 1
V = 220 sin(100 π t ) . The time taken by the
∆P
current to change from its peak value to 50. If β of an ideal gas is defined as ,
P∆T
r.m.s value is then variation of β with absolute
(1) 0.2 sec temperature T at constant volume V is
(2) 0.25 sec represented by
(3) 25 × 10 −3 sec

(4) 2.5 × 10 −3 sec

47. The potentials of the two plates of
capacitor are +10V and –10 V. The charge (1)
on one of the plates is 40 C. The
capacitance of the capacitor is
(1) 2F
(2) 4F (2)
(3) 0.5 F
(4) 0.25 F
48. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is
suspended by means of two light (3)
inextensible strings as shown in figure.
Tension in one string immediately after
the other string is cut is

α
(4)
CHEMISTRY
A B
SECTION – A
mg 51. If the wavelength of a particle of mass
(1)
2 (m) is 100 times to its velocity then its
(2) 2 mg value of ‘ λ ’ interms of mass and
planck’s constant is
mg
(3) 1 m
4 (1) .
10 h
(4) mg
h
49. A cylinder rolls without slipping down an (2) 10.
m
inclined plane, the number of degrees of
freedom it has, is 1 h
(3) .
10 m
(1) 2
m
(2) 3 (4) 10.
h
Sri Chaitanya Page 8
52. The element with Z=106 is named as 57. List- I List –II
(1) Fermium A) Work 1)Extensive property
(2) Seaborgium B) Enthalpy 2)Intensive property
(3) Cerium C) Temperature 3) State variable
(4) Promethium D) P,V,T and n 4) Path function
53. From the following given statements The correct match is
i) O----H hydrogen bond length is more A B C D
than “O-H” covalent bond length. (1) 4 1 2 3
ii) The ionic bond strength of CsF is more (2) 1 2 3 4
than that of NaF. (3) 4 3 2 1
iii) The number of electrons present in all (4) 4 3 1 2
inner shells of sodium atom are 10. 58. Statement-I: During boiling Mg(HCO3)2
The correct combination is is precipitated as Mg(OH)2 but
(1) only i is correct Ca(HCO3)2 is precipitated as CaCO3
(2) only i and ii are correct Statement-II: Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is less than
(3) only ii and iii are correct Ksp of MgCO3 where as Ksp of Ca(OH)2
(4) only i and iii are correct is more than Ksp of CaCO3
54. The 1g of Mg is burnt in a vessel (1) Statement-I & II are correct
containing 0.5 g of oxygen. The reactant (2) Statement-I & II are incorrect
remaining unreacted is (3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-
(1) 0.25 g of Mg II is wrong
(2) 0.1 g of Mg (4) Statement-I is wrong and Statement-
II is correct
(3) 0.1 g of O2
59. Li does not resemble with other alkali
(4) 0.75 g of Mg metals in following properties:
55. Statement-I (S-I): If Q>KC, then (1) Li2 CO3 decomposes into oxides
backward reaction is more favoured. while other alkali metal carbonates are
Statement-II (S-II): If Q=KC, then the thermally stable
value of KC is equal to unity (2) LiCl is predominantly covalent
(1) Both statements are true (3) Li3N is formed, when Li metal is
(2) Both statements are false heated with N2 gas
(3) S-I is true, S-II is false (4) All are correct
(4) S-I is false, S-II is true 60. (A): 2-3% Gypsum by weight is mixed
56. By the addition of 0.48 mole of NaOH to with cement
a 1lit buffer solution, its pH is changed (R): Gypsum increases the rate of setting
from 4.01 to 4.03. Then the buffer of cement
capacity is (1) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(1) 24
(2) A and R are true, but R is not the
(2) 0.042
correct explanation of A
(3) 0.0096 (3) A is true and R is false
(4) 104 (4) A is false and R is true

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61. BCl3 is planar and electron deficient (1) 3-hydroxy-5-chlorobenzene
compound. Hybridization and number of carbonitrile
electrons around the central atom,
respectively are (2) 3-chloro-5-hydroxybenzene
(1) sp2 and 8 carbonitrile
(2) sp3 and 4 (3) 3-chloro-5-cyanophenol
3
(3) sp and 6
(4) 3-cyano-5-chlorophenol
(4) sp2 and 6
65. Which of the following compounds can
62. Identify the correct statements from the exhibit tautomerism
following:
a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-
cream and frozen food
b) The structure of C60 contains twelve
six membered carbon rings and twenty
five membered carbon rings
c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to
convert alcohols into gasoline
d) CO is colourless and odourless gas
(1) a, b and c only (2) a and c only
(3) b and c only (4) c and d only
63. Consider the following reactions in
Antarctica about ozone hole 1Mole Cℓ
66. C2 H 6  Alc.KOH H / Ni
→C .
Sun 
light
→ A   → B  
2 2
0
200 C
*
I) CℓO + NO 2 → CℓONO 2
Here ‘C’ is
II) Cℓ* + CH 4 → CH*3 + HCℓ (1) C2 H 6
III) CℓONO 2 + H 2O → HOCℓ + HNO3
(2) C2 H 5Cℓ
IV) CℓONO 2 + HCℓ → Cℓ 2 + HNO3
(3) C2 H 4
In summer season, which reaction prevent
much ozone depletion? (4) C4 H10
alc.KOH
(1) I, II 67. CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2Cℓ  →X
(2) II, IV Pd + BaSO 4
CH ≡ CH + H 2   →Y
(3) III, IV Here, in the above sequences, the final
(4) I, III products X and Y
64. IUPAC name of the following compound (1) are a pair of homologues
is (2) have the same percentage composition
(3) have the same empirical formula
(4) all the above

Sri Chaitanya Page 10

 Cr2 O3 / Aℓ 2 O3 72. Match the following
68. CH 3 (CH 2 )4 CH 3  
773K,10 −20 atm →
Br2 /Fe Mg H2 O Set-I Set-II
A  → B 
ether
→ C  →D
A) Cu + HNO3 (dil) → K) NO2
What is ‘D’.
B) Zn+HNO3(dil) → L) N2O
C) NO−3 + Fe+2 + H + → M) NO
D) Zn + HNO3 (Conc) → N) N2
A B C D
(1) M L N K
(2) M L M K
(3) K L M N
(4) K L M L
73. The Acid containing S-O-O-S bond is
(1) H2SO5
(2) H2S2O7
` (3) H 2S2 O6
(4) H 2S2 O8

69. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a
solution of pH=3 at 250 C. The reduction
potential of the cell would be (the value
of 2.303 RT/F is 0.059 V)
(1) 0.177 V
(2) 0.087 V
(3) -0.177 V
(4) - 0.059 V
70. The right option for the statement
“Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is
(1) Aqueous Urea solution
(2) Aqueous NaCl solution
(3) Aqueous Glucose solution
(4) Aqueous Starch solution
71. The maximum temperature that can be
achieved in blast furnace is
(1) upto 5000 K
(2) upto 1200 K
(3) upto 2200 K
(4) upto 1900 K
Sri Chaitanya
74. Which of the following is incorrect with
respect to property indicated?
(1) E.N : F > Cℓ > Br
(2) E.A : Cℓ > Br < F
(3) Oxidising power: F2 > Cℓ 2 > Br2
(4) Bond energy : F2 > Cℓ 2 > Br2
75. Read the following statements
A) XeO3 is a colourless explosive solid
B) Only one noble gas Rn is obtained as
a decay product of Ra.
C)First ionization enthalpy of oxygen
atom is almost equal to that of Xe.
+ −
D) XeF2 + PF5 → [ XeF] [ PF6 ]
Correct statements are
(1) B & C
(2) A & D
(3) A, B & D
(4) A, B, C & D
Page 11
76. Why is HCl not used to make the medium (2) C2 H 5Cℓ + NaBr → C2 H 5 Br + NaCℓ
acidic in oxidation reactions of KMnO4 in (3) C2 H 5Cℓ + KI → C2 H 5 I + KCℓ
acidic medium?
(4) C2 H 5Cℓ + KBr → C 2 H 5 Br + KCℓ
(1) Both HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidizing
agents 81.
(2) KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which
is also an oxidizing agent
(3) KMnO4 is a weaker oxidising agent
than HCl
(4) KMnO4 acts as a reducing agent in Here X and Y are
the presence of HCl. X Y
77. Which of the following polymer can be (1) n-propyl alohol n-propyl alcohol
formed by using the following monomer (2) iso-propyl alcohol iso-propyl alcohol
unit? (3) n-propyl alcohol iso-propyl alcohol
(4) iso-propyl alcohol n-propyl alcohol
82.

(1) Nylon 6, 6
(2) Nylon 2-Nylon 6
(3) Melamine Polymer
(4) Nylon-6
78. Which of the following polymer is stored In the above reactions, B and Z are
in the liver of animals?
(1) Salicylaldehyde, salicylaldehyde
(1) Amylose
(2) Slicylic acid, salicylic acid
(2) Cellulose
(3) Salicylaldehyde, salicylic acid
(3) Amylopectin
(4) Salicylic acid, salicylaldehyde
(4) Glycogen
83. Which of the following aldehydes
79. The drug with the formula undergo cannizzaro reaction on heating
with concentrated alkali?
A) HCHO
is
B) CH3CHO
(1) Sulphanilic acid
C) CH3CH2CHO
(2) Aspirin
D) C6H5CHO
(3) Phenelzine
(1) A, B
(4) Benzylamine
(2) B, C
80. Which one of the following reaction is
(3) A, D
Swarts reaction?
(4) A, C, D
(1) C2 H 5Cℓ + AgF → C2 H 5 F + AgCl

Sri Chaitanya Page 12

84. What is Z in the following sequence of
reactions?

(1) Toluene
(4) All are equally stable
(2) Benzene
88. Which of the following volume (V)-
(3) Benzoic acid
temperature (T) plots represents the
(4) Benzaldehyde
behavior of one mole of an ideal gas at
85. Which of the following is the correct
one atmospheric pressure?
order of ease of coupling with
C 6 H 5 N 2 Cℓ ?
A) Benzene
B) Nitro benzene
C) Phenol
D) Chloro benzene
(1) A > D > B > C
(2) C > A > B > D
(3) C > A > D > B
(4) B > D > A > C
86. A particular station of All India Radio,
New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of
1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of
the electromagnetic radiation emitted by
the transmitter is: [speed of light,
c = 3.0 × 108 ms −1 ]
(1) 21.92 cm
(2) 219.3 m
(3) 219.2 m
(4) 2192 m
87. Which of the following represents more 89. In contact process SO2 is produced by the
stable structure for the molecule following reaction
(geometry) 4FeS2 + 11O 2 → 2Fe 2O3 + 8SO 2
In this reaction the equivalent weight of
FeS2 is [M=MW of FeS2]
M
(1)
2
M
(2)
4
M
(3)
6
M
(4)
11

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90. The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M NaCl is (2) A 2 BO 4
(K sp of AgCl = 1.2 x 10 )
−10
(3) ABO 2
(1) 0.1 M
(4) ABO 4
(2) 1.2 x 10-5
(3) 1.095 x10-5 95. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition
(4) 1.2 x 10-9
of Aℓ 2O3 at 5000 C is as follows
91. The –I effect of −NO2 , − CN, − COOH, − Cℓ
2 4
Decreases in the order Aℓ 2 O3 → Aℓ + O 2 ; ∆r G = +960kJ
3 3
(1) −NO 2 > −CN > −COOH > −Cℓ
The voltage needed for the electrolytic
(2) −Cℓ > −COOH > −CN > −NO 2
reduction of aluminium oxide ( Aℓ 2O3 )
(3) −CN > −NO 2 > −Cℓ > −COOH
at 5000C is at least
(4) −COOH > −CN > −NO 2 > −Cℓ
(1) -4.5 V
92. Which of the following will give
Hoffman product in E2 reaction (2) -3.0 V
(3) -2.5 V
(4) -5.0 V
96. 50% completion of a first order reaction
takes place in 16 minutes. Then fraction
that would react in 32 minutes from the
(3) begining
(4) All of these (1) 1/2
+2 +
Hg /H Isomerisation
93. HC ≡ CH + H 2O 
333K
→ A  →B (2) 1/4

Then the higher homologue of B is (3) 1/8

(1) Ethanal (4) 3/4

(2) Propanone 97. Indicate the complex ion which shows

(3) Propanal geometrical isomerism.

+
(4) Methanal (1) Cr (H 2O)4 Cℓ 2 
94. In a compound oxide ions have CCP
(2)  Pt ( NH 3 )3 Cℓ 
arrangement. Cations A are present in
3+

one-eighth of the tetrahedral holes and (3) Co ( NH 3 )6 

3−
cations B occupy half of the octahedral (4) Co (CN )5 (NC)
holes. The simplest formula of the
compound is
(1) AB2O 4
Sri Chaitanya Page 14
98. Two compounds P and Q have same BOTANY
formula, C8H8O. Both P and Q form SECTION – A
an orange red ppt. with 2,4-DNP. ‘P’ 101. Identify the incorrect combination
gives yellow ppt. with I2 and NaOH but
Botanical Family Order
not Q. ‘P’ does not reduce Tollen’s name
reagent but ‘Q’ reduces. Then ‘P’ and ‘Q’
(1) Petunia Solanaceae Polymoniales
are alba
(2) Mangifera Anacardiaceae Sapindales
indica
(3)Musca Musaceae Insecta
domestica
(4) Triticum Poaceae Poales
aestivum

102. Photosynthetic protist without cellwall is

(1)Mycoplasma
(2)Euglena
(3)Gonyaulax
(4)Chlamydomonas
103. Match the column – A with column – B
Column – A Column – B
(I) Puffballs (A) Myxomycetes
(II) Imperfect fungi (B) Basidiomycetes
99. In the following compounds
(III) Morels (C) Ascomycetes
(IV) Coenocytic (D) Phycomycetes
fungi
(E) Deuteromycetes
The order of basicity is I II III IV
(1) IV > I > III > II (1) C E B D
(2) III > I > IV > II (2) C E B A
(3) II > I > III > IV (3) B A C E
(4) I > III > II > IV (4) B E C D
100. Mobile phase and stationary phase 104. In which alga, zoospores and
respectively in paper chromatography planogametes formation does not occur?
(1)Polygonum
(1) liquid - liquid
(2) Pinus
(2) liquid – gas
(3) Polysiphonia
(3) solid – liquid
(4)Polytrichum
(4) solid - gas

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105. Both polysepalous and polypetalous I II III IV
condition is seen in the flowers of (1) C B C E
(1)Pea (2) B A C E
(2) Makoi (3) C B D A
(3)Onion (4) B A C D
(4)Mustard 110. In which of the following plants, the non-
106. Identify the angiosperm which produces motile male gametes are carried to female
dioecious sporophytes gamete by pollen tube?
(1)Marchantia (1)Bryophytes
(2)Phoenix (Date palm) (2) Pteridophytes
(3)Pinus (3) Seed plants
(4) Cycas (4) All of these
107. Which of the following is referred as 111. Select the mis-match from the following
starch sheath? (1)Collagen – Protein
(1)Endodermis of dicot root (2) Insulin – Hormone
(2) Hypodermis of dicot stem (3) Inulin – Polysaccharide
(3) Pericycle of dicot stem (4) Anthocyanin – Primary metabolite
(4) Endodermis of dicot stem 112. Non-leguminous plant with nodular roots
108. Which of the following statement is not is
true? (1)Alnus
(1) Robert Brown discovered the cell (2) Alfalfa
(2) Schleiden and Schwann formulated (3) Frankia
the cell theory (4) Rhizobium
(3) Virchow explained that cells are 113. Which micro-nutrient is absorbed by
formed from pre-existing cells plants in an anionic form?
(4) A unicellular organism carries out its (1)Phosphorus
life activities within a single cell (2)Boron
109. Match the column – A with column – B (3) Sulphur
Column – A Column – B (4)All of these
(I) Flat,disc-shaped (A) Cristae of 114. In the Citric acid cycle, GTP is
sacs Mitochondria synthesised during the conversion of
(II)Inner membrane (B) Cisternae of (1)Succinic acid to Fumaric acid
forms a number of Golgi apparatus (2) 1,3 BisPGA to 3-PGA
infoldings (3) Succinyl-CoA to Succinic acid
(III) Flattened (C) Thylakoids of (4) Citric acid to α -Ketoglutaric acid
membranous sacs Chloroplast 115. Which phytohormone does not occur
with pigments naturally in plants?
(IV) Membrane- (D) Vacuole (1) IAA
bound space found in
(2) ABA
the cytoplasm of
(3) IBA
matured plant cells
(4) Kinetin
(E) Centriole

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116. How many of the given below are water 121. Which of the following is not used as a
pollinated plants? biopesticide?
a)Water lily b) Water hyacinth (1)Trichoderma
c) Zostera d)Vallisneria
(2)Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) four
(2) three (3)Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(3) two (4)Nostoc
(4)one 122. In gymnosperms ovules are borne on
117. Which of the following is not a stop
(1)Female gametophyte
codon?
(1)UAA (2)Male gametophyte
(2) UGA (3)Microsporophylls
(3) UGG (4)Megasporophylls
(4) UAG 123. In the biological treatment of sewage, the
118. Which of the semi-dwarf varieties of rice masses of bacteria held together with
were developed in India? fungal filaments to form mesh like
(1)Sonalika and Kalyan Sona structures called
(2)IR-8 and TN-1
(1) Vermi-compost
(3) Ratna and Jaya
(4)All of these (2)Activated sludge digesters
119. In angiosperms embryo sac is developed (3) Flocs
from (4) Vermi-culture
(1)Functional microspore mother cell
124. Modified leaves which act as defensive
(2) Functional microspore
structures are
(3) Functional embryo
(4)Functional megaspore (1)Thorns
120. Match the following (2)Tendrils
Column – A Column – B (3) Spines
(I) Statins (A) Propioni
(4)Bulbils
bacterium sharmanii
(II)Cyclosporin A (B) Streptococcus 125. Choose mis-match from the following:
(III) Stereptokinase (C) Staphylococcus (1) Metaphase – Chromosomes are
(IV) Swiss cheese (D) Trichoderma moved to spindle equator and get aligned
polysporum along equatorial plate through spindle
(E) Monascus fibres to both poles
purpureus
(2) Anaphase – Centromeres of
I II III IV
chromosomes splits and chromatids
(1) E D A C separate and moves to opposite poles
(2) D E C A (3) Anaphase – II –Bivalents move
(3) D E B A towards opposite poles without splitting
of centromeres
(4) E D B A
(4) Prophase I – Crosing over takes place
Sri Chaitanya Page 17
126. Osmosis is demonstrated by
(1)Thistle funnel experiment
(2) Bell-jar experiment
(3) Moll’s half leaf experiment
(4) Hydrilla funnel experiment
127. In F2 generation, types of genotypes and
phenotypes observed in a Mendels
dihybrid cross experiment in Pisum
respectively
(1)Three and Two
(2)Nine and Sixteen
(3) Nine and Four
(4) Four and Sixteen
128. Experimental verification of the
chromosomal theory of inheritance was
given by
(1)Sutton and Boveri
(2) Muller and Stadler
(3) Mendel and his colleagues
(4) T.H Morgan and his colleagues
129. Choose mis-match from the following:
(1) RNA polymerase I : Synthesis of 28S
rRNA
(2) RNA polymerase II : Synthesis of hn
RNA
(3) RNA polymerase III : Synthesis of
Adapter RNA
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase :
Synthesis of mRNA, rRNA & tRNA in
bacteria
130. In Mung bean, resistance to yellow
mosaic virus developed by
(1)Hybridization and Selection
(2) Mutation breeding
(3) Polyploid breeding
(4) Domestication and Selection
131. Ovary is inferior in flowers of
Sri Chaitanya Page 18
(1) Cucumber
(2) Brinjal
(3) Rose
(4) China rose
132. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene
with the plasmid vector became possible
with
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(2)DNA polymerase
(3)RNA polymerase
(4)DNA ligase
133. In simple stirred-tank bioreactor. The
stirrer facilitates
(1)Seperation asnd purification of the
product
(2) Even mixing and pH control
(3) Uneven mixing and temperature
control
(4) Even mixing and oxygen availability
throughout the bioreactor
134. In animal cells, during S phase
(1)The amount of DNA and number of
chromosomes per cell doubles
(2) The amount of DNA and number of
chromosomes per cell reduced to half
(3) Number of chromosomes doubled
and DNA reduces to half per cell
(4) Amount of DNA per cell doubles and
there is no increase in the chromosome
number.
135. Carbon fixation in chlorophyllous cells
and nitrogen fixation in thick walled
achlorophyllous specialized cells occur in
(1) Rhizobium
(2)Nostoc
(3) Clostridium
(4)All of these
 SECTION-B
136. Identify the A,B and C from the given
below figure (i.e lac Operon)

A B C
(1)Deoxyribose Serine Pyrimidine
sugar
(2) Nucleoside Alanine Purine
(3)Ribose sugar Serine Purine
A B C
(4) Ribose sugar Glycerol Nucleoside
(1) lac mRNA Inducer β-
galactosidase
139. Identify the incorrect combination
Repressor Inducer β- (1)Solanaceae – Rarely pinnately
(2) mRNA galactosidase compound leaves
(3) Repressor Inducer permease (2) Solanaceae – Rarely small trees
mRNA
(3) Liliaceae–Berry, rarely capsule with
(4) Inducer Repressor β - non endospermic seeds
mRNA galactosidase (4) Liliaceae –Actinomorphic flowers and
137. Find out the wrong statement? Endospermic seeds
(1)Phloem sap is mainly composed of 140. Which of the following is not true wrt
water and Sucrose stomatal apparatus of grass leaves?
(1) Guard cells with chloroplasts
(2) Water potential of a cell is affected by
(2)Subsidiary cells are without
both solute and pressure potential chloroplasts
(3) Environmental heterophylly is seen in (3) Guard cells are bean shaped
butter cup (4) Guard cells are dumb-bell shaped
141. Which one of the following combinations
(4) Interfascicular cambium and cork
is correct wrt to conjugated enzyme?
cambium are formed from parenchyma by (1)Coenzyme = Apoenzyme +
a phenomenon is termed as Holoenzyme
redifferentiation (2)Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme +Co-
enzyme
138. Identify the following A,B,C respectively
(3) Holoenzyme = Co-factor + Co-
enzyme
(4) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-
factor

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142. Statement – I(SI): In E.coli, the (4) C B E D
replication of DNA occur during S phase 147. Choose mismatch from the following
of interphase of mitotic cell cycle (1)EcoRI – A type of molecular scissor
Statement II(SII): In E.coli during the S (2) Fungal cell wall – Mainly composed
phase of interphase chromosome number of chitinase
become doubles per cell (3) PCR-Multiple copies of the gene of
(1) Both SI and SII are correct interest is synthesized in-vitro
(2) Both SI and SII are wrong (4) Natural genetic engineer of plants –
(3) Only SI is correct Agro bacterium tumiefaciens
(4) Only SII is correct 148. Assertion(A): In the dicot root, the
143. In the leaves of maize, the bundle sheath vascular cambium is originated from a
cells are rich in portion of conjuctive tissue located just
(1)Enzyme PEPcase, but lacks RuBisCO below the phloem bundles, a portion of
(2) Granum chloroplasts, but lack starch pericycle above the protoxylem
grains Reason(R): In the dicot root, the vascular
(3) Enzymes of Hatch and Slack pathway, cambium is partly primary and partly
but lack enzymes of calvin cycle secondary in origin
(4) Enzyme RuBisCO, but lack PEPcase (1) Both A and R are correct and R is
144. Select the correct option from the correct explination of A
following?
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not
(1)5-methyl uracil is present in DNA
correct explination of A
(2) DNA molecule is positively charged
(3) A is true and R is false
(3) φ x174 bacteriophage DNA contain
(4) A is false and R is true
5386 pairs of nucleotides
(4) Secondary structure of tRNA has been 149. How many statements are true?
depicted that looks like a ‘L’ shape A) Mendel conducted hybridization
145. In which areas primary succession occurs experiments on garden pea plants for
(1)Newly created pond seven years
(2)Bare rock B) Mendel selected seven pairs of
(3) Newly cooled lava contrasting traits
(4) All of these C) Garden pea plant contain seven pairs
146. Match the following of chromosomes
Column – A Column – B D) Mendel conducted artificial cross
(I) Ginkgo (A) Dicot pollination experiment using several true
(II)Sphagnum (B) Gymnosperm breeding garden pea lines
(III) Adiantum (C) Pteridophyta
(1) Four
(IV) Maize (D) Bryophyta
(E) Monocot
(2) Three only
I II III IV (3) Two only
(1) B D C A (4) One only
(2) B D C E
(3) C B D E

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150. In case of Bacillus thuringiensis, Bacillus (3) convergent evolution
itself not killed by toxic protein crystals (4) genetic drift
produced by it because
153. Read the following.
(1) Bt toxin protein is produced in very (a) Cells are tall and slender
less amount in Bacillus (b) Nuclei are located at the base of the
(2) Bt toxin produced in very large cells
amount and cannot cause any damage to (c) Free surface of cells has microvilli
Bacillus Epithelium with all the above features
(3) Bt toxin is not produced in Bacillus forms the lining of
(1) proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Bt toxin protein exist as inactive
(2) stomach
protoxins in Bacillus
(3) Bowman’s capsule
ZOOLOGY (4) small intestine
SECTION – A 154. Spermatogenesis is promoted by
151. Match the items given in column I with (1) TSH
those in column II and select the correct
(2) FSH
option.
(3) MSH
Column I Column II
(4) PTH
(a) Adenohypophysis (i) FSH and LH
155. Which of the following characters is not a
(b) Pancreas (ii) Oxytocin and
unique character of birds?
vasopressin
(1) Feathers
(c) Hypothalamus (iii) Epinephrine
(2) Pneumatic bones
and
(3) Syrinx
norepinephrine
(4) Gizzard
(d) Adrenal medulla (iv) Insulin and
156. The boat-shaped sclerite in the abdomen
glucagon of female Periplaneta is
(1) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii (1) 7th sternum
(2) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii (2) 9th sternum
(3) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i (3) 7th tergum
(4) a-i; b-iv; c-iii; d-ii (4) 10th tergum
152. Evolution of similar traits in organisms 157. Maximum biodiversity is seen in the
which are not closely related, as a result latitudinal range of
of adaptation to similar environment, is
(1) 23.5° S to35° S
termed
(2) 23.5° N to35° N
(1) divergent evolution
(3) 23.5° N to23.5° S
(2) parallel evolution
(4) 35° N to 60° N
Sri Chaitanya Page 21
158. The blood of the frog differs from that of (1) A fall in GFR activates macula
the cockroach in that densa to release renin.
(1) it passes through a heart (2) Angiotensin II decreases glomerular
blood pressure.
(2) it circulates only through a closed
(3) Activation of osmoreceptors
network of blood vessels
suppresses ADH secretion.
(3) it can be found in the blood vessels (4) Atrial natriuretic factor is a
as well as interstitial spaces vasodilator.
(4) it contains cells that help in defence 164. The transport of dopamine is blocked by
of the body
(1) hashish
159. There are working ‘EcoSan’ toilets in
(2) atropine
many areas of
(3) morphine
(1) Tamil Nadu and Bangladesh
(4) cocaine
(2) Karnataka and Nepal
165. Which of the following is involved in
(3) Kerala and Sri Lanka
both humoral and cell-mediated
(4) Rajasthan and Pakistan immunity?
160. The Graafian follicle in the ovary (1) T suppressor cell
contains
(2) B cell
(1) secondary oocyte and second polar
(3) T cytotoxic cell
body
(4) T helper cell
(2) secondary oocyte and first polar
body 166. The cells of malignant tumors exhibit
(a) Metastasis
(3) primary oocyte and first polar body
(b) Contact inhibition
(4) primary oocyte but no polar body (c) Telomerase activity
161. Which of the following organisms (d) Anchorage dependence
represent the second trophic level? (1) (a) and (b)
(1) Phytoplankton, zooplankton, cow (2) (c) and (d)
(2) Birds, fishes, wolves (3) (b) and (d)
(3) Phytoplankton, grass, trees (4) (a) and (c)
(4) Zooplankton, grasshopper, cow 167. The thickness of the ozone in acolumn of
162. Acrosomal reaction facilitates air from the ground to the top of
theatmosphere is measured in
(1) fertilisation
(1) Dobson units
(2) cleavage
(2) Svedberg units
(3) gametogenesis
(3) Decibels
(4) gastrulation
(4) Daltons
163. Select the correct statement.

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168. Match the items given in column I with Column I Column II
those in column II and select the correct (a) Cerebral medulla (i) Skeletal
option. muscle
Column I Column I (b) Autonomic (ii) White matter
Plasmodium neural system
(a) Elephantiasis (i)
vivax (c) Somatic neural (iii) Grey matter
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton system
Entamoeba (d) Cerebral cortex (iv) Smooth
(c) Malaria (iii)
histolytica muscle
Wuchereria (1) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii
(d) Ringworms (iv) (2) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii
bancrofti
(1) a-iv; b-i; c-iii; d-ii (3) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii
(2) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii (4) a-iv; b-ii; c-iii; d-i
(3) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv 173. Match the items given in column I with
(4) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i those in column II and select the correct
169. Ecology at the organismic level is option.
essentially Column I Column II
(1) community ecology (a) QRS (i) Ventricular
(2) population ecology complex repolarisation
(3) landscape ecology (b) T wave (ii) Duration of the
(4) physiological ecology cardiac cycle
170. Pepsinogen is activated by (c) P wave (iii) Atrial
(1) hydrochloric acid depolarisation
(2) enterokinase (d) R-R interval (iv) Ventricular
(3) trypsin depolarisation
(4) intrinsic factor (1) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii
171. Study the following. (2) a-iv; b-ii; c-iii; d-i
(a) Taenia – Flame cells (3) a-iv; b-i; c-iii; d-ii
(4) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv
(b) Asterias – Proboscis glands
174. Mark the odd one.
(c) Balanoglossus – Green gland (1) Zona pellucida
(d) Nereis – Nephridia (2) Zona fasciculata
(3) Zona reticularis
Which of the above are the correct
(4) Zona glomerulosa
combinations of an animal and its
excretory organs? 175. The amount of energy that is fixed during
(1) (a) and (d) photosynthesis is known as the
(2) (a), (b) and (d) (1) gross secondary production
(3) (b) and (c)
(2) net secondary production
(4) (a) and (d)
172. Match the items given in column I with (3) gross primary production
those in column II and select the correct (4) net primary production
option.
Sri Chaitanya Page 23
176. Which of the following is not a part of the 180. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control
diffusion membrane (respiratory of Pollution) Act cameinto force in in the
membrane)? year
(1) Endothelium (1) 1961
(2) Basement substance (2) 1971
(3) Mesothelium (3) 1981
(4) Alveolar epithelium (4) 1991
177. An endocrine gland embedded in another 181. Match the items given in column I with
endocrine gland is those in column II and select the correct
(1) thymus option.

(2) parathyroid Column I Column II

(3) pancreas (a) Amniocentesis (i) Barrier
(4) pineal gland method
178. Match the items given in column I with (b) Nirodh (ii) STI
those in column II and select the correct
option. (c) Chlamydiasis (iii) Prenatal test

Column I Column II (d) Saheli (iv) CDRI

(a) YAC (i) Genes expresses (1) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv
as RNA (2) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii
(3) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i
(b) VNTR (ii) Vector
(4) a-iii; b-i; c-ii; d-iv
(c) SNPs (iii) Minisatellite
182. Sacred groves are found in Khasi and
(d) ESTs (iv) Single base Jaintia Hills of
differences (1) Mizoram

(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv (2) Nagaland

(2) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i (3) Meghalaya

(3) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii (4) Manipur

(4) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i 183. The tiger censusin our national parks and
tiger reserves is often based on
179. Barnacles growing on theback of a whale
exemplify (1) pug marks

(1) commensalism (2) mark and recapture

(2) amensalism (3) headcount

(3) mutualism (4) quadrant method

(4) ectoparasitism

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184. A woman not using any other (3) subclavian arteries
contraceptive method can avoid (4) brachial arteries
pregnancy by abstaining from coitus
189. The number of tarsals in both the lower
during
limbs is not equal to the
(1) 10th day to 17th day of themenstrual
(1) number of phalanges in a hand
cycle
(2) number of carpals in both the hands
(2) 1st day to 5th day of themenstrual
cycle (3) number of facial bones
(3) 21st day to 28th day of themenstrual (4) number of true ribs
cycle 190. Match the items given in column I with
th th those in column II and select the correct
(4) 6 day to 13 day of themenstrual
cycle option.
185. An excretory system is absent in Column I Column II
(1) Anopheles
(a) Myxine (i) Lancelet
(2) Antedon
(b) Ascidia (ii) Hagfish
(3) Aplysia
(4) Ascidia (c) Branchiostoma (iii) Tunicate

186. To which two organ systems does the (d) Petromyzon (iv) Lamprey
pharynx belong?
(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv
(1) Respiratory system and circulatory
(2) a-ii; b-i; c-iii; d-iv
system
(3) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
(2) Digestive system and respiratory
system (4) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii
(3) Respiratory system and endocrine 191. Select the incorrect statement.
system (1) Male grasshopper has a pair of
(4) Digestive system and excretory dissimilar allosomes
system (2) Female grasshopper has a pair of
187. Marino is a breed of similar allosomes
(1) fowls (3) Male Drosophila is heterogametic
(2) cattle (4) Male birds are homogametic
(3) goats 192. The world’s first transgenic cow was
(4) sheep (1) Tracy
188. Arteries that supply blood to the cardiac (2) Rosie
muscles are (3) Alba
(1) coronary arteries (4) ANDi
(2) carotid arteries
Sri Chaitanya Page 25
193. The I-band of a skeletal myofibril (3) 2pq
contains (4) p2+2pq
(1) actin, tropomyosin and meromyosin 198. Match the items given in column I with
(2) actin, tropomyosin and troponin those in column II and select the correct
(3) meromyosin, tropomyosin and option.
troponin Column I Column II
(4) actin, troponin and meromyosin. (a) Frenulum (i) Duodenum
194. Active reabsorption of Na+ occurs in all (b) Brunner’s (ii) Oral cavity
the following parts of nephron, except
glands
(1) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(c) Vermiform (iii) Stomach
(2) proximal convoluted tubule
appendix
(3) descending limb of Henle’s loop
(d) Oxyntic cells (iv) Caecum
(4) distal convoluted tubule
195. Biogenetic law was proposed by (1) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i
(1) Ernst Haeckel (2) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii
(2) Alfred Wallace (3) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii
(3) Hugo de Vries (4) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii
(4) Louis Pasteur 199. The following are two statements
regarding parturition in human beings.
196. Match the items given in column I with
those in column II and select the correct (A) The signals forparturition originate
option. from the fully developed foetus and the
Column I Column II placenta.
(a) Co-extinction (i) Plant- (B) Parturition is induced by a complex
pollinator neuroendocrine mechanism involving
(b) Habitat loss (ii) Passenger progesterone.
pigeon Of the above statements, which one of the
(c) Overexploitation (iii) Amazon following options is correct?
forest (1) (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect
(d) Alien species (iv) Nile perch (2) (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect
invasion (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
(2) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii
200. The electrical potential difference across
(3) a-iv; b-ii; c-iv; d-i the resting plasma membrane of an
(4) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv unstimulated neuron is termed
197. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg (1) threshold potential
equilibrium, the frequency of individuals (2) nerve impulse
with a heterozygous genotype at an
(3) action potential
autosomal locus is
(4) resting membrane potential
(1) p2
(2) q2
Sri Chaitanya Page 26