Psych ch.

15 practice test #2

1. What is the prevalence rate of mental illness?

a. 10-15%
b. 15-25%
c. 25-35%
d. 35-45%

2. What percentage of individuals with mental illness also have substance abuse issues?
a. 5-10%
b. 10-15%
c. 15-20%
d. 20-25%

3. Which of the following statements is true about mental illness?

a. It only affects certain groups of people
b. It is not a leading cause of student dropouts
c. There are many different types that differ in their symptoms
d. None of the above

4. What is the modern view of the root of mental illness?

a. Biological
b. Environmental
c. Psychological
d. Vulnerability-stress model

5. What are the 3D's used to determine if something qualifies as a mental disorder?
a. Distressing, Deviant, Dangerous
b. Distressing, Dysfunctional, Deviant
c. Dysfunctional, Deviant, Disoriented
d. Depressed, Distraught, Disorientated

6. What is the DSM-5?

a. A historical perspective on mental illness
b. A diagnosis given to individuals with mental illness
c. A study of the frequency and causes of mental illness
d. A manual that provides assessment and diagnostic criteria for mental disorders

7. What is epidemiology?
a. The study of the causes of illness
b. The study of the frequency and causes of disorders
c. The label given to a particular illness
d. A forecast about the future for a patient with a specific diagnosis
8. What does the term "prognosis" refer to?
a. The study of the causes of illness
b. The label given to a particular illness
c. A forecast about the future for a patient with a specific diagnosis
d. None of the above

9. What does the term "etiology" refer to?

a. The study of the causes of illness
b. The label given to a particular illness
c. A forecast about the future for a patient with a specific diagnosis
d. None of the above

10. What is required for anxiety to be considered a disorder and not just a normal response?
a. The frequency and intensity of anxiety responses are in proportion to the situation that
triggers them
b. Anxiety does not interfere with daily life
c. The frequency and intensity of anxiety responses are out of proportion to the situation that
triggers them
d. Anxiety is only present in specific phobias

11. What is the prevalence rate of anxiety disorders across the lifespan?
a. 5-10%
b. 10-15%
c. 15-20%
d. 20-25%

12. Which gender is more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders?

a. Males
b. Females
c. Both genders are equally likely to be diagnosed
d. There is no research indicating which gender is more likely to be diagnosed

13. Which of the following is NOT included in anxiety disorders?

a. Specific phobias
b. Panic disorder
c. Generalized anxiety disorder
d. Bipolar disorder
14. What is social phobia?
a. Extreme fear of being around groups of other people
b. Fear of a specific situation or thing that is out of proportion to the realistic danger presented
c. Recurrent reliving of a traumatic event
d. Reduced emotion and increased withdrawal after a traumatic event

15. What are the four common symptoms of PTSD?

a. Recurrent reliving of the event, guilt, depression, cognitive impairment
b. Reduced emotion, increased withdrawal, guilt, substance abuse
c. Anxiety, depression, memory impairment, suicide risk
d. Significant and persistent anxiety, recurrent reliving of the event, reduced emotion,
increased withdrawal

16. Which type of traumatic event is more likely to result in PTSD?

a. Natural events
b. Solo traumatic events
c. Human-caused events
d. There is no difference in likelihood between natural and human-caused events

17. Which of the following is NOT a factor in the etiology of anxiety disorders?
a. Biological factors
b. Learning/experience variables
c. Cognitive factors
d. Economic factors

18. What is acquired classical conditioning?

a. Learning through rewards and punishments
b. Learning by observing others
c. An event that makes you have anxiety is paired with something so every time you see it, you
get anxiety
d. The study of the frequency and causes of disorders

19. How do cognitive factors contribute to anxiety disorders?

a. When we perceive a challenge that is lower than us, we don’t get anxiety
b. When we perceive a challenge that is way above us, we have more anxiety
c. Genetics may make a meaningful contribution to having an anxiety disorder
d. GABA circuits in the brain don’t work normally in anxiety disorders
20. What is a defining characteristic of Obsessive Compulsive and related disorders?
a. Repetitive, difficult to control behavioural responses
b. Self-diagnosed obsessions
c. Collecting and not getting rid of worthless things
d. Commonly experienced cognitive part

21. What percentage of the population may have Obsessive Compulsive and related disorders
over time?
a. 10-15%
b. 5-10%
c. 20-25%
d. 1-5%

22. What is a common obsession experienced in OCD?

a. Losing important memories
b. Losing valuable things
c. Germs
d. Being socially rejected

23. What is Dissociative amnesia?

a. When a person suddenly and without a valid excuse has a loss of memory for some
important memory about their life
b. When a person suddenly and with a valid excuse has a loss of memory for some important
memory about their life
c. When a person has a difficulty to integrate their sense of self, personality and memories
d. When a person has multiple distinct personalities

24. What is Dissociative identity disorder?

a. Difficulty to integrate sense of self, personality, and memories
b. Sudden and without a valid excuse loss of memory for some important memory about one's
life
c. Collecting and not getting rid of worthless things
d. Having multiple distinct personalities

25. Is Dissociative identity disorder universally accepted?

a. Yes
b. No
26. What are the different components that characterize mood (affective) disorders?
A. Emotional, Behavioral (motor), Cognitive, Motivation, Physical
B. Social, Physical, Cognitive, Emotional, Behavioral
C. Emotional, Physical, Cognitive, Behavioral (motor), Intellectual
D. Behavioral (motor), Intellectual, Cognitive, Emotional, Social

27. How long do the components have to last to be diagnosed with major depression?
A. At least a day
B. At least a week
C. At least a month
D. At least a year

28. What is anhedonia?

A. The loss of the ability to feel pleasure
B. The loss of appetite
C. The loss of sleep
D. The loss of interest in socializing

29. What is the prevalence of major depression?

A. 1 in 3 people
B. 1 in 6 or 7 people
C. 1 in 10 people
D. 1 in 20 people

30. Which of the following is not a type of depressive disorder?

A. Major depression
B. Dysthymia
C. SADS
D. GAD

31. What is dysthymia?

A. It is a severe form of depression.
B. It is a milder form of depression, but usually long-lasting.
C. It is a type of depression that occurs during certain seasons of the year.
D. It is a type of depression associated with the menstrual cycle in females.

32. What is SADS?

A. A type of seasonal allergy
B. A type of sleep disorder
C. A type of anxiety disorder
D. An acute depressive episode associated with periods of the year from light exposure
33. What is PDD?
A. A type of mood disorder associated with the menstrual cycle in females
B. A type of anxiety disorder
C. A type of bipolar disorder
D. A type of dissociative disorder

34. What is the defining feature of bipolar disorder?

a) Alternating between anxiety and depression
b) Alternating between mania and depression
c) A consistent state of elevated mood and energy
d) A consistent state of depressed mood and low energy

35. What are the two phases of bipolar disorder?

a) High and low
b) Depressed and anxious
c) Manic and depressive
d) Happy and sad

36. What are some of the biological factors that contribute to mood affective disorders?
a) Learned helplessness and social reinforcement
b) Nervous system changes and genetics
c) Poor coping skills and negative thought patterns
d) Environmental stressors and traumatic experiences

37. What is learned helplessness?

a) The inability to cope with environmental stressors
b) A tendency to interpret events in a negative way
c) A belief that one's actions have no impact on outcomes
d) A lack of social support and positive reinforcement

38. How do interpersonal factors contribute to mood affective disorders?

a) By creating a downward spiral of negative social interactions
b) By disrupting normal functioning of the nervous system
c) By altering serotonin and norepinephrine levels in the brain
d) By causing changes in the hippocampus and amygdala

39. What is the definition of schizophrenia?

A. A disorder where a person has a symptom somewhere in the body for which there is no
physical cause
B. A disorder defined by positive and negative symptoms, and cognitive impairments
C. A disorder where a person becomes incredibly energetic and positive

40. What are some positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A. Social withdrawal and altered emotions
B. Blunted/flat affect and lack of behavior
C. Delusions and hallucinations

41. What is the definition of somatic symptom disorder?

A. Where a person thinks they have a disorder but they actually don't
B. Where a person becomes incredibly energetic and positive
C. Where a person has a symptom somewhere in the body for which there is no physical cause

42. What are some etiological factors of schizophrenia?

A. Inadequate social reinforcement
B. Neurochemistry and genetics
C. Learned helplessness

43. What is illness anxiety disorder?

A. Where a person thinks they have a disorder but they actually don't
B. Where a person becomes incredibly energetic and positive
C. Where a person has a symptom somewhere in the body for which there is no physical cause

44. Which of the following is NOT a grouping of personality disorders?

a) Dramatic/impulsive
b) Anxious/fearful
c) Neurodevelopmental
d) Odd/eccentric

45. What is the defining characteristic of personality disorders?

a) Being problematic and temporary

b) Being stable and problematic
c) Being stable and temporary
d) Being unpredictable and temporary

46. How many types of personality disorders are there?

a) 5
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12

47. Which of the following is NOT a grouping of neurodevelopmental disorders according to

DSM IV?

a) Asperger's syndrome
b) Autism spectrum disorder
c) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
d) Bipolar disorder

48. Which group of personality disorders includes disorders characterized by eccentric behavior
or odd beliefs?

a) Dramatic/impulsive
b) Anxious/fearful
c) Odd/eccentric
d) None of the above

49. What are the four pillars of symptoms of ASD according to DSM V?
a) Deficits in social communication and interaction, rigid adherence to routine, highly restricted
or focused interests, and impaired IQ
b) Non-verbal communication impairments, highly restricted or focused interests, epilepsy, and
sleep disturbance
c) Deficits in social communication and interaction, restrictions in interests, behaviours, or
thoughts, symptoms present in early childhood, and symptoms that impair everyday
functioning

50. How severe is Level 1 of ASD according to the severity scale?

a) The most severe form
b) The mildest form
c) A moderate form
51. What is the gender ratio for ASD?
a) Boys = Girls
b) Boys > Girls
c) Girls > Boys

52. What are some of the environmental/experiential factors associated with ASD?
a) Teratogens and genetics
b) Neurodevelopmental factors and sleep disturbance
c) Teratogens and social experience

53. What percentage of twin concordance has been found in family studies of ASD?
a) 10-30%
b) 60-90%
c) 50%

Answers

1. C
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. A
10.C
11.C
12.B
13.D
14.A
15.D
16.C
17.D
18.C
19.B
20.A
21.B
22.C
23.A
24.D
25.B
26.A
27.B
28.D
29.B
30.D
31.B
32.D
33.A
34.B
35.C
36.B
37.C
38.A
39.B
40.C
41.C
42.B
43.A
44.C
45.B
46.C
47.D
48.C
49.C
50.B
51.B
52.C
53.b