BLOOD (Special Pathology)

2. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding

the Reed-Sternberg cell: 37. Which one of the following is a feature of chronic
A. It is thought to be of B-cell lineage extravascular hemolysis:
B. It is multinucleate A. Raised serum conjugated bilirubin T
C. It represents the majority of lymphoma T B. Absence of jaundice
D. It usually expresses CD-15 & CD-30 C. Hypocellular bone marrow
E. Found in Hodgkin’s lymphoma D. Gallstones
E. Low reticulocyte count

38. The translocation that puts the IgH locus on chromosome

4. Which one of these statements is TRUE about β- 14 and the BCL2 locus on chromosome 18 together, is a
thalassemia major: trademark of which disease:
A. The major cause of death is liver failure A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows mildly elevated HbF B. Burkitt’s lymphoma T
C. Most of the patients diagnosed at the age of 5 years C. Splenic marginal cell leukemia
D. It is usually caused by deletion of β-globin genes D. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
E. It is most commonly caused by point mutation T E. Follicular lymphoma

12. All of the following are causes of iron deficiency anemia, 53. At what blood pressure, you regard a patient is
except: hypertensive:
A. Chronic renal failure A. Sustained diastolic > 89 mm of Hg or sustained systolic > 139
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria mm Hg T
C. Celiac sprue T B. Sustained diastolic > 95 mm of Hg or sustained systolic > 145
D. Hookworm mm Hg
E. Carcinoma colon C. Sustained diastolic > 85 mm of Hg or sustained systolic > 135
mm Hg
D. Sustained diastolic > 100 mm of Hg or sustained systolic >
20. Which one of the following is a good prognostic factor in 150 mm mm Hg
acute lymphoblastic leukemia: E. Sustained diastolic > 105 mm of Hg or sustained systolic 155
A. Presentation in infants less than 01 year old mm Hg
B. High presenting white cell count
C. T-cell ALL in children
D. Philadelphia chromosome T 50. The least severe form of sickle cell disease is:
E. Hyperdiploidy A. Sickle cell disease with hereditary persistence of fetal
hemoglobin (S/HPFH) T
B. Hb SS
15. Which one of the following is not a cause of C. Hb SD
thrombocytosis: D. Hb Sβ+
A. Bernard-soulier disease T E. Hb Sβ0
B. Chronic infections
C. Chronic iron deficiency
D. Postoperative 65. A 67-years old man has had increasing weakness, fatigue
E. Jak-2 mutation and backache. ESR is markedly raised and CBC shows
anemia. Bone marrow biopsy shows diffuse infiltration by
plasma cells. What is the most likely diagnosis:
16. In CML t(9;22) results from translocation of: A. Acute myeloid leukemia T
A. Short arm of chromosome 9 to short arm of chromosome 22 B. Waldenstorm macroglbulinemia
B. Long arm of chromosome 9 to long arm of chromosome 22 T C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Long arm of chromosome 9 to short arm of chromosome 22 D. Karyotype with t(14;18) translocation
D. Short arm of chromosome 9 to long arm of chromosome 22 E. Multiple myeloma
62. A patient presents with increased serum iron, decreased 583. The test of choice to detect abnormalities in the extrinsic
TIBC, increased percentage saturation and increased S. pathway of secondary hemostasis is:
ferritin. Most likely diagnosis is: A. Bleeding time
A. Thalassemia major B. Thrombin time
B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Prothrombin time (PT) T
D. Anemia of chronic disease E. Clotting time

557. Which one of the following is the most common inherited 596. Which one of the following exhibits decreased Factor
bleeding disorder: VIII activity due to increased rates of degradation:
A. Von Willebrand disease T A. Von Willebrand disease T
B. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome B. Hemophilia
C. Benard soulier disease C. Hemophilia A
D. Factor XIII deficiency D. Liver disease
E. DIC E. Vitamin K deficiency

597. Which one of these statements is true about β-

570. How much percentage of fetal hemoglobin is present in thalassemia major:
adult cell: A. It presents at birth
A. 1 % T B. It is caused by a defect in α globin synthesis
B. 2 % C. It is commonly associated with an increased risk of bone
C. 3 % infarction
D. 4 % D. Iron overload is not a complication
E. 5 % E. It is associated with splenomegaly T

571. Which protein mutation occurs in Non-Hodgkin 598. Which one of these statements is true concerning sickle
follicular lymphoma: cell trait:
A. ABL A. It is a cause of severe anemia
B. BCL-2 T B. It protects against malaria T
C. Retinoic acid receptor C. It occurs mainly in females
D. All of the above D. It is a cause of frequent sickle cells in the peripheral blood
E. None of above E. Less common in blacks

599. A 20-years old boy presented with fever, nose bleeding,

lymphadenopathy, bone marrow aspirate shows blasts having
568. A 30 years old woman complains of easy fatigability, prominent cytoplasmic and nuclear vacuolation and deeply
bruising and recurrent disease infections. Physical basophilic cytoplasm. What is the most likely diagnosis:
examination reveals numerous petechiae over her body and A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (L2)
mouth. Abnormal laboratory findings include hemoglobin of B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
6 gm/dl, WBC of 1500, and platelets of 20,000/ul. The bone C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
marrow is hypocellular and displays increased ----. What is D. Burkitt lymphoma T
the appropriate diagnosis: E. Acute myeloid leukemia
A. Aplastic anemia T
B. Iron deficiency anemia 600. Severe hemophilia is typically associated with what
C. Megaloblastic anemia percentage of factor VIII in the plasma:
D. Myelofibrosis and myeloid metaplasia A. Less than 01% T
E. Pure red cell aplasia B. 02-05%
C. 06-10%
D. 50%
576. Which of the following abnormality is associated with E. 10-20%
Beta-Thalassemia:
A. Changes in skull T 594. Which one of these is not a typical feature of
B. Down syndrome disseminated intravascular coagulation:
C. Nutritional disorders A. Reduce platelet count
D. Iron deficiency anemia B. Fibrinogen concentration is increased T
E. None of above C. High levels of fibrin degradation products (D-dimers)
D. PT & APTT are often prolonged
E. Low levels of fibrinogen
625. What is the typical phenotype of a B-CLL tumor cell:
A. CD10+CD5-CD23-
619. Which one of these clinical cases is an example of B. CD10-CD5-
smouldering multiple myeloma: C. CD3+CD5+
A. Plasma cells >10% in the bone marrow, no paraprotein in D. CD3+CD5-
blood and presence of lytic bone lesions E. CD20+CD5+CD10-CD23+ T
B. Plasma cells >10% in bone marrow, abnormal serum free light
chain ratio and hypercalcaemia 626. Which one of the following statements is most likely true
C. Plasma cells <1%, paraprotein in blood and osteoporosis about Acute Myeloid Leukemia:
D. Plasma cells >10%, paraprotein 30 g/L in blood and no tissue A. It is never caused by chemotherapy
damage T B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is not a common
E. Plasma cells >10%, paraprotein 30 g/L in blood and renal presenting feature in one of the subtype
failure C. t(8;21) (q22;q22) has good prognosis T
D. AML with t(9;11) (p22;q23) has good prognosis
620. Choose the correct order for the steps of haemostasis: E. It is most common in children
A. Blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, fibrinolysis, blood
vessel spasm 627. The test of choice to detect abnormalities in the intrinsic
B. Blood vessel spasm, blood coagulation, fibrinolysis, platelet pathway of secondary hemostasis is:
plug formation A. Bleeding time
C. Platelet plug formation, blood coagulation, blood vessel spasm B. Thrombin time
D. Blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, blood C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) T
coagulation, fibrinolysis T D. Prothrombin time (PT)
E. Blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, fibrinolysis, E. Clotting time
blood coagulation
628. Which of the following is not a cause of non-
621. A person with type AB blood would have _______ megaloblastic macrocytic anemia:
antigens on red blood cells, and_______ antibodies carried in A. Liver disease
the plasma: B. Hypothyroidism
A. Neither A nor B; both Anti-A and Anti-B C. Fish tape worm infestation T
B. A and B; neither Anti-A nor Anti-B T D. Aplastic anemia
C. B; Anti-B E. Myelodysplasia
D. A; Anti-B
E. B; both Anti-A and Anti-B 629. Which one of these is the most accurate statement
relating to low grade and high grade lymphomas:
622. All of the following are the causes of Microcytic A. Low grade progresses more slowly but is easier to cure
Hypochromic Anemia, except: B. High grade progresses more quickly and is more difficult to
A. Myelodysplasia T cure
B. Thalassemia C. Low grade progresses more quickly but is easier to cure
C. Lead poisoning D. Low grade progresses more slowly and is more difficult to
D. Sideroblastic anemia cure T
E. Anemia of chronic disease E. Burkitt lymphoma is an example of low grade lymphoma

623. Which of the following is most likely a cause of immune 630. HbH disease is characterized by:
hemolytic anemia: A. Deletion of one α gene
A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura B. Deletion of two α genes
B. Malaria C. Deletion of three α genes T
C. Defective cardiac valve D. Deletion of four α genes
D. Hemolytic disease of newborn T E. Deletion of one β gene
E. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura 647. Which one of the following is true about acute myeloid
leukemia:
624. Spherocytes in the blood film most likely are a feature of A. It is most common in children
which of the following: B. It is never caused by chemotherapy
A. Thalassemia major C. It is associated with more than 20% blast cells in the bone
B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia T marrow T
C. Reticulocytosis D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is not a presenting
D. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency feature
E. Aplastic anemia E. Sudan black stain not helps in diagnosis
648. Which one of these is not associated with poor clinical 677. Which one of the following is not associated with
prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukemia: multiple myeloma:
A. Hyperdiploidy T A. Presence of more than 10% clonal plasma cells
B. High presenting white cell count B. Serum protein electrophoresis shows polyclonal
C. Philadelphia chromosome immunoglobulin band T
D. Presentation in infants less than 1 year old C. Patient may present with pathological fracture
E. t(9:11) (p21,q23) D. Serum calcium level is normal or increased
E. Bence jones protein may be present in urine
649. Which one of the following is a feature of chronic
lymphocytic leukemia: 678. A 20 years old boy presented with fever, nose bleeding,
A. Herpes zoster infection T lymphadenopathy, bone marrow aspirate shows blasts having
B. Meningeal involvement prominent cytoplasmic and nuclear vacuolation and deeply
C. Increased blasts in the bone marrow basophilic cytoplasm. What is the most likely diagnosis:
D. Bone lesions A. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
E. Increased plasma cells more than 30% in the bone marrow B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (L2)
C. Burkitt lymphoma T
650. Which one of these is the most common presentation of D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B-CLL at the time of initial diagnosis: E. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (L1)
A. Anemia caused by autoimmune hemolysis
B. Patient is asymptomatic but has increased white cell count T
C. Enlarged lymph nodes 679. All of the following statement is not true about the
D. Severe and prolonged infection Burkitt lymphoma:
E. Splenomegaly A. It is very aggressive but respond well to intensive
chemotherapy
651. Which one of these is not associated with B. The tumor exhibit a high mitotic index and contains numerous
paraproteinemia: apoptotic cells
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia C. Rarely associated with t(8;14) T
B. Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma D. Immunophenotype shows CD-20,CD-10 and BCL-6 positive
C. Primary amyloidosis E. Involved tissue shows characteristic Starry sky pattern
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia T
E. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance 680. Which histological subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma is
described in this statement?
“Collagen bands extend from the node capsule to encircle
nodules of abnormal tissue. A characteristic lacunar cell
654. Which of the following is congenital anemia: variant of the Reed-Sternberg cell is often found”:
A. Megaloblastic anemia A. Lymphocyte rich
B. Pernicious anemia B. Nodular sclerosing T
C. Fanconi’s anemia T C. Lymphocyte depleted
D. Sickle cell anemia D. Mixed cellularity
E. Hemolytic anemia E. Nodular lymphocyte predominant

655. All of the following are laboratory findings of aplastic 681. Which one of these statements is not true regarding the
anemia with exception of: Reed-Sternberg cell:
A. Hemoglobin > 10g/L T A. It is of B-cell lineage
B. Reticulocyte count is extremely low B. It is multinucleate
C. Neutrophil count < 1.5 - 109/L C. It represents the majority of cells in a lymph node of Hodgkin
D. Platelet count <50 – 109/L lymphoma T
E. Monocytes are reduced D. It usually expresses CD-15 & CD-30
E. Males are predominantly affected
656. In sickle cell anemia, red cell life-span is markedly
shortened to average: 685. Cause of microcytic hypochromic anemia include all of
A. 120 days the following, except:
B. 40 days A. Iron deficiency anemia
C. 80 days B. Sideroblastic anemia
D. 20 days T C. Thalassemia minor
E. 05 days D. Anemia of chronic blood loss
E. Pernicious anemia T
 A. Hb Electrophoresis
686. An 8 months pregnant female came to the doctor for B. Flow cytometry
anemia. Her Hb % was 8.0 gm/dl, MCV 62fL, MCH 16, Hb C. Osmotic Fragility test T
Electrophoresis shows Hb A1 94%, Hb A2 6%. What is the D. Schilling test
cause of anemia: E. Antibody antigen test
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Anemia due to pregnancy 693. Regarding genetic analysis, the translocation 9:22 is
C. Nutritional deficiency anemia most likely to be found in:
D. Anemia of chronic disease A. AML
E. Thalassemia minor T B. ALL
C. CML T
687. Causes of chronic blood loss include all of the following, D. CLL
except: E. MDS
A. Chronic peptic ulcer
B. Menorrhagia 694. A 60 years old gentleman presents with complain of
C. Carcinoma of colon breathlessness & bleeding tendency. His blood count shows
D. Road accident with hemorrhage T Hb 5.6 gm/dl, WBC 3000 & Platelets 60,000, the most
E. Hook worms appropriate next investigation should be:
A. Liver biopsy
B. Bone marrow examination T
C. Autoimmune profile
688. Regarding iron deficiency anemia, the most useful D. Hb electrophoresis
diagnostic test is: E. S. ferritin level
A. TIBC
B. Serum ferritin T 695. A child is suffering from leukemia. His peripheral blood
C. MCV film shows blast cells. The blasts are negative for Sudan
D. MCH Black B stain and positive for periodic acid Schiff, CD-9 &
E. Plasma transferrin CD-22. The diagnosis is:
A. ALL T
689. Which of the following is unlikely clinical features of B. AML
iron deficiency anemia: C. Hairy cell leukemia
A. Koilonychia D. CML
B. Easy fatigue E. CLL
C. Esophageal web formation
D. Palpitation 696. At the molecular level, the aberrant conjoining of genetic
E. Peripheral neuropathy T material from chromosome 9 and chromosome 22 in patients
with CML results in the formation of a new gene product
690. A 10 years boy is having jaundice. Lab finding shows Hb called the:
8 gm/dl reticulocyte count 12 % bilirubin 5 mg/dl. What is A. BCR-ABL gene T
most likely diagnosis: B. BCL-25 gene
A. Hemolytic anemia T C. Multidrug resistance gene
B. Megaloblastic anemia D. Blast crisis gene
C. Iron deficiency anemia E. MLL gene
D. Pernicious anemia
E. Myelopthestic anemia 697. Megaloblastic anemia is a consequence of all of the
following, except:
691. A young girl was absent from school on several occasions A. Malabsorption syndrome
since several months due to recurrent episodes of abdominal B. Pregnancy
pain and join aches, most likely the cause is: C. Anti convulsance drugs chemotherapy
A. Fetal hemoglobin D. Hook worms infestation T
B. Bart’s hemoglobin E. Resection of ileum
C. Hemoglobin C
D. Hemoglobin E 698. Immunological markers used for diagnosis of acute
E. Hemoglobin S disease T lymphoblastic leukemia precursor B-ALL is:
A. CD-19 & CD-22 T
692. A physician is expecting Hereditary Spherocytosis as the B. CD-13 & CD-41
cause of anemia in his patient. Which test might help him in C. CD-5 & CD-7
diagnosis: D. Gycophorin & CD-33
E. CD-13 786. Which one of the following is not true about glucose-6-
phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency:
699. Which of the following is unlikely causes of A. It leads to intravascular hemolysis after certain infections
pancytopenia: B. It commonly presents as a chronic hemolytic anemia T
A. Anemia of chronic disorders T C. It protects against malaria
B. Aplastic anemia D. Carrier females have approximately 50% G6PD levels
C. Severe megaloblastic anemia E. It is a cause of neonatal jaundice
D. Bone marrow infiltration
E. Hypersplenism
795. Which of the following statements is not true about
700. Which of the following is unlikely associated with immune thrombocytopenia :
multiple myeloma: A. It is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus
A. Patient may presents with pathological fracture B. It is more common in women than men
B. Plasma cells will be more than 20% in bone marrow C. It may be treated by gamma globulin infusions
C. Electrophoresis shows a polyclonal immunoglobulin band T D. It is usually chronic in children T
D. Bence jones protein may be present in urine E. Usually responsive to steroids
E. Calcium level is normal or increased

790. Which one disease is most accurately described by this

709. Which of the following statement regarding hemophilia statement? “There is bleeding into mucous membrane, the
A is appropriate: platelet count is normal, factor VIII level may be moderately
A. A negative family history excludes the diagnosis reduced and the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) may be
B. Females are affected as often as males normal or prolonged:
C. Mucocutaneous bleeding is common A. Hemophilia A
D. The extent of the factor VIII deficiency correlates with clinical B. Hemophilia B
bleeding T C. Von Willebrand disease T
E. The diagnosis is suggested by an abnormal prothrombin time D. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
E. Factor V deficiency
710. A 10-years boy is having jaundice. Lab finding shows Hb
8gm/dl, reticulocyte count 12%, bilirubin 9mg/dl. What is the 792. Which one of these is not a recognized cause of
most likely diagnosis: disseminated intravascular coagulation:
A. Hemolytic anemia T A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Megaloblastic anemia B. Postoperative bed rest T
C. Iron deficiency anemia C. Meningococcal septicemia
D. Pernicious anemia D. Snake bite
E. Myelopthesis anemia E. Recreational drugs

805. Heredity spherocytosis is characterized by:

724. Which of the following is most appropriate diagnostic A. Hepatic inflammation
for megaloblastic anemia: B. Osmotic lysis of WBCs
A. Low Hb and high ESR C. Increase MCHC T
B. Low TIBC D. Increase MCV
C. Low MCV, low Hb E. Bone marrow hyperplasia
D. Decreased B12 and folate level
E. Hyper-segmented neutrophils T 806. Chronic blood loss most likely leads to:
A. Iron deficiency anemia T
B. Folate deficiency anemia
719. An 8-months pregnant female came to the doctor for C. Pernicious anemia
anemia, her Hb% was 8.0 gm/dl, MCV 62fL, MCH 16, Hb D. Hemolytic anemia
electrophoresis shows Hb A1 94%, Hb A2 6%. What is the E. Aplastic anemia
cause of anemia:
A. Iron deficiency anemia 807. β-thalassemia most commonly result from:
B. Anemia due to pregnancy A. Promoter region mutation
C. Nutritional deficiency anemia B. Splicing mutation T
D. Anemia of chronic disease C. Chain termination mutation
E. Thalassemia minor T D. Trisomy
E. Missense mutations
808. In the hemolytic disease due to red cell enzyme defect,
which of the following enzyme is most likely defective: 823. A 30-year patient presented with aplastic anemia. Which
A. Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase T of the following is appropriate treatment:
B. Glucose-6-phosphate-oxidase A. Steroids (corticosteroids)
C. Glucose-6-phosphate-catalase B. Hematopoietic growth factor (filgestrime)
D. Myeloperoxidase C. Bone marrow transplantation & HLA identical sibling T
E. Glucose-6-phosphate-hydrolase D. Repeated blood transfusions
E. Immunosuppressive therapy
809. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, target cells, basophilic
stippling is the blood picture, mostly seen in:
A. Sickle cell anemia 826. The most common cause of bleeding in viral
B. Pernicious anemia hemorrhagic fever is:
C. G6PD deficiency A. Increased clotting time
D. β-thalassemia T B. Increased prothrombin time
E. α-thalassemia C. Increased bleeding time
D. Increased capillary leakage and platelet dysrinction
810. In the patient of sickle cell anemia, auto-splenectomy E. Decreased Von-Willebrand factor
mostly occur in:
A. Children 827. A 60-years female was presented with bleeding/mouth.
B. Infant On examination anemia was presented and liver, spleen was
C. Adult T palpable. On investigation TLC count was 60
D. Olds thousand/cumm, platelet count was 30 thousand. Peripheral
E. Neonates smear showed nucleated RBCs and some promyelocytes and
myoblasts. Which is likely diagnosis:
A. Myelodysplasia
800. Which one of these statements is true regarding B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
hereditary spherocytosis: C. Multiple myeloma
A. It can be treated by splenectomy T D. Myelofibrosis
B. It is caused by an inherited defect in hemoglobin E. Acute myeloid leukemia T
C. It is more common in males
D. It is characterized by presence of elliptical cells on peripheral 828. Aplastic anemia is diagnosed by:
film A. Leukopenia
E. Hemolysis is complement mediated B. Platelet count less than 20,000/dl
C. Reticulocyte count less than 2%
D. Pancytopenia
812. Basophilic stippling is commonly seen in: E. Hypo-cellular bone marrow T
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Hereditary spherocytosis 829. Which of the following investigation confirms the iron
C. Iron deficiency anemia deficiency anemia:
D. β-thalassemia T A. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
E. α-thalassemia B. Serum iron low
C. Serum TIBC increased
813. B-lymphocytes: D. Low serum ferritin level T
A. Constitute of 95% of peripheral blood lymphocytes E. Erythroid hyperplasia in bone marrow
B. IgG and IgA constitute the antigen binding component
C. They express CD-10 CD-40 830. A 63-years old man has stools positive for occult blood.
D. CD-21 is also receptor EBV (Ebstein Barr virus) T Colonoscopy reveals mass in the sigmoid colon. Which of the
E. Component of cell mediated immunity following type of anemia is common in the patients:
A. Anemia of chronic disease
814. The incidence of pigment stones is increased in B. Iron deficiency anemia T
association with: C. Megaloblastic anemia
A. Diabetes D. Sickle cell anemia
B. Atherosclerosis E. Pernicious anemia
C. Hypercholesterolemia
D. Aplastic anemia 831. A 30-years female presented with excessive menstrual
E. Sickle cell anemia T bleeding. She was using estrogen pills since 3-years. O/E
patient was anemic and purpuric rash over her skin. On
investigation fragmented red cell, seen on peripheral smear,
LDH, 300 in serum creatinine 60mg/dl, coombs test –ve.
What is the diagnosis of choice: 842. Which of the following is inappropriate for β-
A. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia thalassemia major:
B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome T A. Serum iron is decreased T
C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura B. Bossing of skull bones
D. Aplastic anemia C. HbA2 is increased
E. Evan’s syndrome D. Electrophoresis helpful in diagnosis
E. Hypochromic microcytic anemia

834. In chronic myeloid leukemia, predominant cell found in 843. The hemoglobin in the neonate is affected by following,
peripheral smear is: except:
A. Myeloblast A. Maternal cigarette smoking
B. Eosinophil B. Administration of oxytocin to the mother during labour
C. Basophil C. The time of cord blood clamping T
D. Myelocyte T D. Ethnic origin
E. Promyelocyte E. The prevalence of inherited disorders of globin chain synthesis

835. What minimum percentage of blast cell present in bone 844. A 60-years old man has pernicious anemia. The stomach
marrow indicate the diagnosis of acute leukemia: in this case will show following changes:
A. 10% blasts A. Increase in argentaffin cells
B. 20% blasts T B. Hyperacidity
C. 35% blasts C. Mucosal atrophy T
D. 40% blasts D. H. pylori infection
E. 50% blasts E. Gastric ulcer

845. In chronic myeloid leukemia, predominant cell found in 849. Which of the following set is appropriate diagnostic
peripheral smear is: features of megaloblastic anemia:
A. Myeloblast A. Low Hb and High ESR
B. Eosinophil B. Difficulty in swallowing
C. Basophil C. High MCV and Low Hb
D. Myeclocyte T D. Fish tape worm infestation
E. Promyeclocyte E. Hyper-segmented neutrophils T

846. What minimum percentage of blast cell present in bone

marrow indicate the diagnosis of acute leukemia: 878. A 10 years boy is having jaundice, lab finding shows Hb
A. 10% blasts 8 gm/dl, Reticulocyte count 12%, Bilirubin 5 mg/dl. What is
B. 20% blasts T most likely diagnosis:
C. 35% blasts A. Hemolytic anemia T
D. 40% blasts B. Megaloblastic anemia
E. 50% blasts C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Pernicious anemia
E. Myelopthestic anemia
840. Which of the following is the most appropriate for sickle
cell anemia: 879. A 28 year old lady became anemic and had lost vibration
A. Sickle cells in the peripheral blood T and touch sensation in her extremities, her blood picture
B. Spleen is not affected shows Hb 5.5 gm/dl, MCV 109 FL. The most likely condition
C. Defect in heme synthesis is:
D. Liver is enlarged A. Iron deficiency anemia
E. Occlusion of large blood vessels B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia T
C. Folate deficiency anemia
841. Anemia with jaundice is most likely indicative of which D. Hemolytic anemia
one of the following conditions: E. Aplastic anemia
A. Globin chain defects
B. Folate deficiency 880. A 60 years old gentleman presents with complain of
C. Celiac disease breathlessness and bleeding tendency. His blood count shows
D. Hemolytic anemia T Hb 5.6 gm/dl, WBC 3000 and Platelets 60,000. The most
E. Bone marrow aplasia appropriate next investigation should be:
A. Liver biopsy
B. Bone marrow examination T
C. Autoimmune profile 912. Causes of Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia include all of
D. Hb electrophoresis the following, except:
E. S. ferritin level A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Sideroblastic anemia
882. A 25 years old male present with widespread ecchymosis C. Thalassemia minor
and bleeding from gums. His peripheral smear shows D. Anemia of chronic blood loss
increased TLC count. Bone marrow examination shows E. Pernicious anemia T
presence of numerous granules appearing blast cells with
indistinct nucleoli and promyelocytes are seen. These cells
make up about 78% of nucleated cells. The correct diagnosis
of this patient is: 918. Multiple myeloma is characterized by all of the
A. Acute erythroid leukemia following, except:
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia A. Increased osteolytic lesions
C. Acute monocytic leukemia B. Increased level of acid phosphatase T
D. Acute promyelocytic leukemia T C. Increase serum calcium level
E. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Lytic lesions of the skull
E. Presence of para protein in serum and urine
885. Chronic blood loss most likely leads to:
A. Iron deficiency anemia T
B. Folate deficiency anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Aplastic anemia

895. Anemia with jaundice is most likely indicative of which

one of the following conditions:
A. Globin chain defects
B. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia T
C. Bone marrow aplasia
D. Folate deficiency
E. Celiac disease

896. Iron deficiency anemia is most appropriately diagnosed

by:
A. Low level of Hb
B. On increased number of transferrin receptors
C. On red cell distribution width
D. On low MCV T
E. On increased bone marrow iron

897. Which of the following set of statements is appropriate

diagnostic features of megaloblastic anemia:
A. High MCV, low Hb
B. Fish tape worm infestation
C. Low Hb, high ESR
D. Difficulty in swallowing
E. Hyper-segmented neutrophils T

891. Which of the following is most appropriate about sickle

cell anemia:
A. Sickle cells in the peripheral blood T
B. Spleen is not affected
C. Defect in heme synthesis
D. Liver is enlarged
E. Occlusion of large blood vessels