Personal information

Student
Aqsa Noor

Date Of Birth
14-Jan-02

Batch No

Academic Session
2022-23

Subject
Preprof Block I (Foundation and Blood Modules)

Exam
- ( 2209-8 )

Marks

Total Marks
120

Marks Obtain
99

Paper Question & Answers Detail`s

A teacher in the histology lab of NWSM , was

showing slides to the students, the students
identified the slide as transitional epithelium 1
comprised of 5-6 layers of cells. What is the
most probable site:

A Trachea

B Skin

C Tongue

D Empty urinary bladder [T]

E Filled urinary bladder

There are four basic tissues of the human

1
body, basement membrane is a must for:

A Epithelial tissue [T]

B Connective tissue

C Muscular tissue

D Nervous tissue

E Epithelial and connective tissue

In Osteo-arthritis, which of the following

1
parts of a synovial joint is damaged

A Articualr cartilage [T]

B Synovial membrane

C Capsule

D Bursae related to the joint

E Ligament

Q. Which of the following joints belong to

1
Amphiarthrosis joint

A Sutures

B Tooth in its socket

C Pubic symphysis [T]

D Shoulder joint

E Knee joint

A pregnant lady doctor who works in the

radiology department of a hospital is worried
about the effects of ionizing radiation on her
1
baby. During which of the following time
periods is her baby most vulnerable to the
teratogenic effects of X-rays?

A Fertilization to the end of first week

B The second week of gestation

C The third through eighth weeks [T]

D The third month of fetal life

E The third trimester of fetal life

A couple is trying to conceive a child.

Following intercourse, which of the following
1
is responsible for the prevention of
polyspermy?

A Resumption of first meiotic division

B Resumption of second meiotic division

C Capacitation

D zona reaction [T]

E The release of enzymes from the sperm acrosome

In the female reproductive system, the

1
normal site of fertilization is in the :

A Uterus

B Intramural part of uterine tube

C Isthmus of uterine tube

D Ampulla of uterine tube [T]

E Infundibulum of uterine tube

Which one of the following organelle is

1
responsible for Detoxification of drugs

A RER

B SER [T]

C Lysosome

D Mitochondria

E Peroxisome

Which one of the following cells is a

1
multinucleate cell

A Smooth muscle cell

B Cardiac muscle cell

C Skeletal muscle cell [T]

D Epithelial cell in the skin

E Connective tissue cell

Which one of the following organelles is

1
surrounded by Double membrane

A Ribosome

B Mitochondria [T]

C Peroxisome

D Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E Lysosome

Regarding the history of anatomy the

1
person, called, the father of medicine was

A Herophilus

B Galen

C Hippocrates [T]

D William hunter

E Vesalius

Histologically the cylindrical structures in

compact bone containing fluid, blood
1
vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels are
called

A Osteoblast

B Osteoclast

C Osteocyte

D Osteon [T]

E Osteoid

The innermost tunic of the wall of blood

vessels that consists of endothelium and 1
subendothelial connective tissue is:

A Adventitia

B Endocardium

C Internal elastic lamina

D Intima [T]

E Media

The most abundant component of the tunica

1
media of medium sized arteries is:

A Cardiac muscle fibres

B Collagen fibres

C Elastic fibres

D Smooth muscle [T]

E Subendothelial connective tissue

The site where simple cuboidal epithelium is

1
located,is

A Lungs alveoli

B Thyroid gland [T]

C Large thyroid gland

D Small intestine

E Loop of Henle of kidney

What are chorionic villi called when they

1
become vascularized ?

A Primary villi

B Secondary villi

C Tertiary villi [T]

D Stem villi

E Anchoring villi

Which part of a mature sperm contains

lysosomal enzymes that play an important
1
role in the penetration of ovum during
fertilization?

A Nucleus

B Mitochondria

C Acrosomal cap [T]

D Centriole

E Flagellum

Applied to adipocytes, the term

“multilocular” refers to which of the 1
following?

A The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets

[T]

B The proliferation of the cells in an obese individual

C The large number of mitochondria in the cells

D The high density of nerves supplying the tissue

E The type of mesenchymal cells present

Sacrococcygeal teratoma is the remnant of : 1

A hypoblast

B Notochord

C prechordal plate

D primitive streak [T]

E primitive node

Derivatives of neural crest cells 1

A adrenal cortex

B Connective tissue and bones of the neck

C meninges of he hind brain

D smooth muscle cells to blood vessels of face and

forebrain [T]

E spinal nerves

Spleen is one of the lymphoid organs of the

body. It is developed from which of the 1
following Germ layer.

A Endoderm

B Paraxial mesoderm

C Intermediate mesoderm

D Somatic part of lateral

E Splanchnic part of lateral plate mesoderm [T]

Odontoblasts of teeth gives rise to dentin of

teeth. It is derived from which of the 1
following Germ layers

A Surface ectoderm

B Neural tube

C Neural crest [T]

D Lateral plate mesoderm

E Paraxial mesoderm

1st pair of somite appears on which of the

1
following days of development

A Day 16

B Day 17

C Day 18

D Day 19

E Day 20 [T]

Which one of the following best describes

1
connective tissue proper

A The epidermis of the skin

B The dermis of the skin [T]

C The tunica media of a medium sized artery

D The alveoli of a lung

E The duct of an exocrine gland

which one is least impotent ion in the cell? 1

A magnesium

B phosphate

C potassium

D sodium [T]

E sulfate

Which of the following organelles is most

likely responsible for autolysis of damaged 1
cells?

A Endoplasmic reticulum

B Golgi Apparatus

C Lysosomes [T]

D Mitochondria

E Peroxisomes

Apart from nucleus, DNA is found in which of

1
the following organelles?

A Golgi Apparatus

B Microtubules

C Mitochondria [T]

D Peroxisomes

E Ribosomes

Which of the following is most likely

responsible for the hyper polarization phase 1
of the action potential?

A Closure of voltage gated Na+ channels

B Closure of voltage gated Cl- channels

C Opening of voltage gated K+ channels

D Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels

E Slow closure of voltage gated K+ channels [T]

Which of the following is mainly responsible

for establishment of resting membrane 1
potential?

A Active transport of K+ ions by Na+-K+ Pump

B Active transport of Na+ ions by Na+-K+ Pump

C Outflux of K+ ions through leak channels [T]

D Facilitated diffusion of K+ ions

E Influx of Na+ ions through leak channels

Q. Which of the following is a primary

1
cartilaginous joint

A Joint between shaft of Radius and ulna

B Costo-chondral joint [T]

C Elbow joint

D Wrist joint

E Interphalangeal joint

If the flux of substance across a cell

membrane is directly proportional to the
1
concentration gradient of that substance, the
transport process is most likely:

A Active transport

B Facilitated diffusion

C Na+ coupled co-transport

D Na+ coupled counter-transport

E Simple diffusion [T]

The membrane will depolarize by the

greatest amount if the membrane 1
permeability increases for:

A Chloride

B Potassium

C Potassium and chloride

D Sodium [T]

E Sodium and potassium

The most important characteristic of a water

insoluble substances governing its 1
diffusivity across cell membrane is its:

A Electrical charge

B Hydrated diameter

C Lipid solubility [T]

D Molecular weight

E Three dimensional shape

The axon of a neuron is stimulated

experimentally with a 25-millivolt pulse,
which initiates an action potential with a
velocity of 50 meters per second. The axon is
1
then stimulated with a 100-millivolt pulse.
What is the action potential velocity after the
100-millivolt stimulation pulse (in meters per
second)?

A 25

B 50 [T]

C 75

D 100

E 125

Which of the following is least likely to be

major function of the endoplasmic reticulum 1
(ER)?

A Synthesis of lipids

B Synthesis of proteins

C Providing enzymes that control glycogen break-down

[T]

D Providing enzymes that detoxify substances that

could damage the cell

E Synthesis of steroids

Which one of the following is the cause of

1
respiratory acidosis?

A emphysema [T]

B Hysteria

C myocardial infarction

D salicylate poisoning

E starvation

A young girl of age 16 years, presents to ER

with history of hysterical attack.She is
diagnosed with Respiratory alkalosis.Which 1
one of the following is the primary event in
this case?

A Increase in plasma bicarbonate

B Decrease in plasma chloride

C Rise in pCO2

D Decrease in pCO2 [T]

E Decrease in plasma bicarbonate

Which one of the following is the renal

1
response to acidemia?

A Increased excretion of H2PO4 [T]

B Increased production of ammonia

C Decreased H ion excretion

D increased excretion of HPO4-2

E Increased potassium excretion

Consider the ABG report ; Blood pH=7.12,

pCO2=80, plasma bicarbonate=26mEq/L and
H2CO3 20.7mEq/L: Which one of the 1
following is the acid base disturbance
according to this lab report?

A Metabolic alkalosis

B Mixed acid-base disorder

C Metabolic acidosis compensated

D Respiratory acidosis [T]

E Respiratory alkalosis

Which of the followings is the ratio of H2CO3

1
and HCO3 at the blood pH of 7.45

A 1: 4

B 1: 9

C 1: 15

D 1: 20 [T]

E 1:25

Which one of the following cyclic nucleotide

is involved in dilatation produced by nitric 1
oxide?

A Cyclic AMP

B Cyclic CMP

C Cyclic GMP [T]

D Cyclic UMP

E Cyclic TMP

Which one of the following factors is

responsible for increasing the melting 1
temperature of the DNA?

A adenine and Thymine content of the DNA

B adenine and sugar content of the DNA

C Guanine and cytosine content of the DNA [T]

D histone and sugar content of the DNA

E Phosphate and sugar content of the DNA

Which of the followings is the most abundant

1
type of RNA in the cell ?

A t-RNA

B m-RNA

C hn-RNA

D si-RNA

E r-RNA [T]

Left handed double helix is present in which

1
of the following?

A A-DNA

B B-DNA

C C-DNA

D D-DNA

E Z-DNA [T]

Which of the following structure in cell is

1
known as the ultimate unit of heredity

A centorosome

B histones

C genes [T]

D nucleoside

E telomers

: Which one of the following base pairs will

1
require highest melting temperature ?

A A:C

B A:G

C A:T

D G:C [T]

E A:U

Which one of the following is role bile salts

1
as surface active agents ?

A Normalize surface tension

B Keep surface tension constant

C Decrease surface area

D Decrease surface tension [T]

E Increase surface tension

Which of the following nucleotide may have

a possible role in the differentiation of extra
hepatic obstruction from intra hepatic 1
obstruction in situations where other
biochemical findings are inconclusive?

A cyclic-AMP [T]

B cyclic-ATP

C cyclic-CMP

D cyclic-CTP

E cyclic-GMP

Which of the following is an epimer of

1
glucose

A erythrose

B fructose

C galactose [T]

D ribose

E xylulose

A drug transported against its concentration

gradient across the membrane follows which 0
of the following transport mechanisms?

A Active transport [T]

B Simple diffusion

C Passive transport

D Facilitated diffusion

E Bulk flow

A histopathologist reports fat necrosis after

examining a slide. Fat necrosis might be
1
found in which one of the following
situations?

A Brain injury

B Muscle injury

C Trauma to the abdomen

D Trauma to the breast [T]

E Trauma to the bowel

A 26-year-old man has had intermittent

cramping abdominal pain and low-volume
diarrhea for 3 weeks. On physical
examination, there is mild lower abdominal
tenderness but no palpable masses, and
bowel sounds are present. A stool sample is
positive for occult blood. The symptoms
subside within 1 week. Six months later, the
abdominal pain recurs with perianal pain. On
physical examination, there is now a 1
perirectal fistula. Colonoscopy shows many
areas of mucosal edema and ulceration and
some areas that appear normal. Microscopic
examination of a biopsy specimen from an
ulcerated area shows a patchy acute and
chronic inflammatory infiltrate, crypt
abscesses, and noncaseating granulomas.
Which of the following underlying disease
processes best explains these findings?

A Amebiasis

B Crohn disease [T]

C Sarcoidosis

D Tuberculosis

E Ulcerative colitis

A doctor advised a 40 year old woman to

have mammography each year. this advice 1
refers to:

A Primordial prevention

B Primary prevention

C Secondary prevention [T]

D Tertiary prevention

E Health protection

Regarding general histology Which one of

the following cells is a Resident/(fixed) 1
connective tissue cell ;

A Plasma cells

B Mast cells

C Fibroblasts [T]

D Macrophages

E Microglia

Regarding general histology of nervous

system, Bipolar neurons are found in which 0
of the following regions..

A Anterior horn cells of spinal cord

B Cerebellum

C Cerebral cortex

D Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves

E Olfactory epithelium [T]

The facilitator of anatomy department was

explaining the parts of Light Microscope to
the students of 1st year MBBS in the opening
session of psychomotor activity in the
1
Histology Lab. He asked the students that
which one of the following options is the
resolving power of human eye to see an
object is:

A 2 mm

B 20 µm

C 200 µm [T]

D 0.2 µm

E 5 mm

Which one of the following is called

1
“absolute End artery”:

A Axillary

B Central artery of Retina [T]

C Gastric

D Pancreatic

E Profunda femoris

The genome of a congenital malformation,

1
called Turner syndrome is

A 45,xo [T]

B 45+xo

C 44,xo

D 44+xo

E 47+xo

Kidneys are developed from which of the

following germ layers during embryonic 1
period.

A Paraxial mesoderm

B Intermediate mesoderm [T]

C Lateral plate mesoderm

D Endoderm

E Neural crest cell

Germ layers formed during development give

rise to large number of structures. Which of 1
the following is neural Crest cells derivative.

A Retina

B Anterior pituitary gland

C Posterior pituitary gland

D Skin appendages

E Melanocytes of skin [T]

The number of somites are used to

determine the age of the embryo. What is the 1
 most appropriate age of “Pre-somite embryo.

A Day 10

B Day 12

C Day 14

D Day 16

E Day 19 [T]

Number of Somites are used for age

estimation. When number of somites are 13--
1
-17 ,the approximate age of the embryo
would be

A 20 days

B 24 days* [T]

C 26 days

D 28 days

E 30 days

Notochord formation is one of the important

events during development. Its fate is which 1
of the following option:

A Whole of the vertebral column

B Thoracic and lumber region of vertebral column

C Lumbo-sacral region of vertebral column

D Peripheral part of the intervertebral disc

E Nucleus pulpous of intervertebral disc [T]

Which of the following is the normal site of

1
implantation of late Blastocyst

A Upper most part of fundus of uterus

B Posterior surface of body of uterus [T]

C Lateral surface of body of uterus

D Cervix of uterus

E Intramural / intra-uterine part of the uterine tube

The topic of discussion during an SGD

session was, “1st week of development” the
facilitator asked the students that morula is 1
comprised of how many cells during
cleavage of Zygote

A Two cells

B Four cells

C Eight cells

D Sixteen cells [T]

E Sixty-four cells

On which of the following days of

development, Zona pellucida is completely 1
dissolved:

A Day six [T]

B Day seven

C Day eight

D Day ninth

E Day tenth

Which one of the following somites partly

1
disappear during development

A Occipital [T]

B Cervical

C Thoracic

D Lumbar

E Sacral

The brachiocephalic trunk divides into which

1
of the following arteries ?

A Left common carotid and left subclavian

B Right and left common carotid

C Right and left coronary

D Right and left subclavian

E Right common carotid and right subclavian [T]

The facilitator was discussing the

histological features of lymphoid tissue , He
asked the students that in which one of the 1
following lymphoid tissues, Lymphocytes do
not form nodules:

A Spleen

B Lymph node

C Thymus [T]

D Tonsils

E Spleen and Tonsils

Regarding lymphatic system what is the

1
Diameter of Lymphatic capillary:

A 08 micron

B 10 micron

C 12 micron

D 14 micron

E 18 micron [T]

Angle of Louis is an important landmark in

thorax region. It is located at the level of the 1
lower border of which thoracic vertebra ?

A C7

B T2

C T3

D T4 [T]

E T5

Transfusing a person with blood plasma

proteins from a person or animal that has
been actively immunized against a specific 1
antigen most likely provides what type of
immunity?

A active immunity

B autoimmunity

C anti immunity

D no resistance

E passive immunity [T]

Pernicious anemia is most likely due to the

0
destruction of?

A gastric parietal cells [T]

B chief cells

C intestinal epithelial cells

D pluripotential stem cells

E platelets

Fluid exudation into the tissue in an acute

inflammatory reaction is most likely due to 1
which of the following?

A decreased blood pressure

B decreased protein in the interstitium

C increased clotting factors

D increased vascular permeability [T]

E obstruction of the lymph vessels

what of the following is the term used for

binding of igg and complement to an 1
invading microbe to facilitate recognition?

A chemotaxis

B margination

C opsonization [T]

D phagolysosome function

E signal transduction

A 36 year old man presents to the emergency

department of northwest general hospital
with a 2 week history of diarrhea. he is
admitted to the hospital for dehydration. His 1
stool specimen is positive for parasitic eggs.
which type of white blood cells would have
an elevated number?

A b lymphocytes

B eosinophils [T]

C monocytes

D neutrophils

E t lymphocytes

For a substance to be antigenic It must have

1
a molecular weight of?

A Less than 4000

B 4000 or greater

C 8000 or greater [T]

D 10000 or greater

E 12000 or greater

A patient of chronic renal failure was brought

to Northwest Teaching hospital for dialysis.
His Lab reports revealed urea 300 mg/dl,
1
creatinine of 14mg/dl, RBC count 3.8
million/microliter and Hb of 9 mg/dl. What is
the most likely cause of his Anemia?

A Deficiency of erythropoietin [T]

B Deficiency of iron due to loss in urine

C Excess of creatinine causing hemolysis

D Hemolysis in the damaged kidney

E Suppression of the bone marrow by the high urea

level

which one of the statement support

1
ploycythemia more than anemia ?

A Decrease resistance to blood flow in peripheral blood

vessel

B Increase cardiac out put

C Increase blood flow in peripheral blood vessel

D Increase chance to become cynosed [T]

E Normal or decrease viscosity of blood

A young boy of 18 years from Gilgit Baltistan

applied to join Pakistan Army. In the medical
test his routine laboratory investigation
1
showed an RBC count of 7 million per micro
liter of blood. What is most likely cause for
his more than normal RBC count?

A Excess erythropoietin from a renal tumour

B Iodine deficiency

C Iron over load

D Physiological polycythemia [T]

E Polycythemia Vera

Which one of the following antibodies are

most abundantly produced during the 1
primary response against an anitigen?

A Ig A

B Ig D

C Ig E

D Ig G

E Ig M [T]

Which of the following cells most likely

become inactivatedl in the Acquired 1
immunodeficiency syndrome?

A B Lymphocytes

B Cytotoxic T cell

C Helper T cells [T]

D Macrophages

E Suppressor T cells

Protein is an anticoagulant. Protein C most

likely causes anticoagulant activity by
1
inactivating which of the following clotting
factors?

A Fibrinogen Prothrombin

B Va and V111a [T]

C V11a and XIa

D 1Xa and Xa

E Thrombin

Which one of the following antibodies is

most likely found in body secretions like 1
saliva, tears, milk etc?

A Ig A [T]

B Ig D

C Ig E

D Ig G

E Ig M

Hematopoiesis occurs at different sites at

different stages of pregnancy. Which of the
following is most likely the major site for 1
RBCs production in the middle trimester of
pregnancy?

A Bone Marrow

B Liver [T]

C Lymph nodes

D Spleen

E Yolk Sac

Which of the following is most likely the

1
function of interleukin-1?

A Activation of complement system

B Activation of macrophage system

C Chemotaxis of neutophils

D Destruction of bacteria

E Growth and reproduction of lymphocytes [T]

which of the following interleukins is most

1
likely secreted by macrophages?

A Interleukin-1 [T]

B Interleukin-2

C Interleukin-3

D Interleukin-4

E Interleukin-5

Which of the following is most likely

1
regarding erythroblastosis fetalis?

A It is associated with shrunken liver and spleen.

B Many of the fetal RBCs are nucleated. [T]

C The father is Rh negative.

D The fetus is Rh negative.

E The mother is Rh positive.

A lady presented with shock due to Post

partum hemorrhage, her blood group was
unknown but became coagulated when
mixed with serum containing anti-A
1
antibodies and similarly her serum
coagulated with B positive blood. The most
suitable blood group to be transfused in this
case is:

A A negative. [T]

B AB positive.

C B positive.

D O negative.

E O positive.

Hormone erythropoietin is most like secreted

1
by:

A Fibroblast-like interstitial cells [T]

B Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

C Macula Densa cells

D Mesengial cells

E Tubular epithelial cells

Which of the following is advisable ,along

with oral iron ,to the patients of iron 0
deficiency anemia ?

A Calcium supplements and Vitamin D

B Vitamin D and Vitamin C

C Vitamin E and Vitamin C [T]

D Magnesium supplements and Vitamin C

E Vitamin K and Vitamin C

Spina bifida can be due to deficiency of

1
which of the following?

A Vitamin A

B Vitamin B1

C Vitamin B12

D Vitamin C

E Folic acid [T]

Which one of the following is obtained by the

0
action of lysosomal proteases on Ferratin?

A Appoferratin

B cytochrome

C hemosiderin [T]

D transferratin

E lysoferratin

Which of the following is the transport form

1
of iron in plasma?

A Cytochrome P450

B Ferratin

C Hemoglobin

D Hemosiderin

E Transferratin [T]

Which of the following is most likely a heme

0
containing iron compound?

A Apoferratin

B Cytochrome [T]

C Ferratin

D Hemosiderin

E Transferratin

The deficiency of which of the following

enzymes is responsible for porphyria 1
cutanea tarda ?

A Coprophyrinogen oxidase

B HMB synthase

C Uroporphyrinogen synthase

D Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase [T]

E Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

Which of the following is key regulatory

0
enzyme of Heme biosynthesis ?

A ALA-synthase [T]

B ALA-dehydratase

C Heme synthase

D HMB-synthase

E Uroporphirinogen synthase

Which of the following series of porphyrins

0
go into the formation of protoporphyrin IX?

A Type I series

B Type II series

C Type III series [T]

D Type IV series

E Type V series

Oxidative Phosphorylation of Pyruvate and

α-Keto-Glutarate plays a key role in the
Energy metabolism of most cells and is 1
particularly most important in which of the
following tissue?

A CNS [T]

B Liver

C Kidneys

D GIT

E Skin

A pregnant lady has been prescribed iron

supplements . Which one of the followings
1
she should avoid in order to have good
absorption of iron?

A Calcium supplements [T]

B Folic acid supplements

C leafy vegatables

D Meat

E orange

Which of the following is the MOST

APPROPRIATE combination therapy for a
0
patient suffering from megaloblastic
anemia?

A Ferrous fumarate+ Folic acid

B Ferrous sulphate + Folic acid

C Erythropoetin + Hydroxocobalamin

D Folic acid + Hydroxocobalam [T]

E Hydroxocobalamin + Ferrous sulphate

Human Blood can be differentiated from

0
animal blood by:

A Benzedine Test

B Kastle Meyer Test

C Takayama Test

D Preceipitin TEST [T]

E Hemin Crystal Test

A lack of which of these will result in

abnormally large red blood cells and a 1
condition called megaloblastic anemia?

A Carbon dioxide

B Oxygen

C Vitamin C

D Vitamin B-12 and folic acid [T]

E Vitamin D

A 30 year old man has difficulty in

swallowing. His blood picture shows
Hb8.5mgldl, MCV 50, microcytic 0
hypochromic. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?

A Vitamin B12 deficiency

B Folic acid deficiency

C Iron deficiency [T]

D Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

E Hereditary spherocytosis

A patient of hemolytic anemia comes to a

physician; he orders a peripheral smear to
be done. In the smear there are decreased 0
red blood cells. What else is more likely to be
seen in the peripheral smear?

A Atrophy.

B hyperplasia

C hypertrophy

D metaplasia

E reticulocytosis [T]

A 15 year old girl comes to a hematologist

clinic with hemolytic anemia. Apart from
pallor of skin and mucous membranes, what 1
is the most common sign that the doctor is
supposed to look for in the patient?

A Buzidenski sign.

B jaundice [T]

C koilonychia

D kerning sign

E neck stiffness

An HIV-AIDS patient has visited his general

physician in his clinic. The maximum risk of 1
doctor to be infected with HIV/AIDS is during

A Examining the patient

B Giving the injection

C Giving the intravenous fluid

D Handling the biopsy material

E Recapping the used needle on syringe [T]

In year 2018, tenth vaccine was added in

expanded program of immunization for the
0
children of Pakistan. This particular vaccine
is:

A Chicken pox vaccine

B Cholera vaccine

C Influenza vaccine

D Pneumococcal vaccine [T]

E Rota virus vaccine

Research objectives are concrete statements

describing what the research study is trying
0
to achieve. Which among the following is not
a characteristic of a research objective?

A Achievable

B Correlational Research

C Rationale [T]

D Specific

E e) Time-bound

Research can be classified into two broad

types. One of which deals with the collection
of data using conversational methods,
usually open-ended questions. The
responses collected are essentially non-
1
numerical. This method helps a researcher
understand what participants think and why
they think in a particular way. Which among
the following best describes this type of
research?

A Analytical Research

B Correlational Research

C Experimental Research

D Qualitative Research [T]

E Quantitative Research

Which section of the research proposal

describes the purpose with a full statement 0
of the research question?

A Conclusion

B References

C Introduction [T]

D Literature review.

E Research Methodology.

A literature review is an important

constituent of the research. Why do you
0
need to review the existing literature in the
first place?

A To help reach a conclusion

B To help in your general studying

C To make sure you have a long list of references

D To find out what is already known about your area of

interest [T]

E Because without it, you could never reach the

required word-count

Hulley et al. (2007) suggested using a set of

criteria- known as the “FINER” criteria to find
out if you have a good research question.
One element of the criteria demands the
question is well within the researcher’s
ability to investigate. Researchers should be 1
realistic about the scale of their research as
well as their ability to collect data and
complete the research with their skills and
the resources available to them. This
element is termed?

A Novel

B Ethical

C Relevant

D Feasible [T]

E Interesting

Among the various research types, one

seeks to describe the current status of an
identified variable. These research projects
are designed to provide systematic
information about a phenomenon. The
researcher does not usually begin with a 0
hypothesis but is likely to develop one after
collecting data. The analysis and synthesis
of the data provide the test of the
hypothesis. This type of research is known
as?

A Descriptive [T]

B Correlational

C Quasi-Experimental

D Causal-Comparative

E Experimental Research.

There are different types of research. One

such research strictly adheres to a scientific
research design. It includes a hypothesis, a
variable that can be manipulated by the
researcher, and variables that can be 0
measured, calculated, and compared. Most
importantly, such research is completed in a
controlled environment. What type of
research is this?

A Variable Research

B Doctrinal Research

C Empirical Research

D Descriptive Research

E Experimental Research [T]

Research is a structural process that

includes a hypothetical statement. A 0
research hypothesis is defined as?

A Statement of fact

B A conclusive statement

C Analysis based observation

D A tentative statement whose validity is still to be

tested [T]

E The supposition which is based on the past

experiences

The DNA of a certain organism has been

found to have Cytosine as 20% of its bases.
0
What percentage of its bases would be
thymine?

A 10

B 20

C 30 [T]

D 40

E 50

Which one is least likely to consider mature

1
cell ?

A Eosinophil

B Hepatocyte

C Kupffer cells

D Monocyte [T]

E Neutrophil

A 35 years old male is brought to the

Northwest Teaching hospital with jaundice.
Investigations revealed hemoglobin 10 g/dl,
0
Peripheral smear showed odd shaped, large
nucleated RBCs. What is the most likely
cause of his disease?

A Folic Acid deficiency [T]

B Iron deficiency

C Vitamin B12 deficiency

D Vitamin C deficiency

E Vitamin K deficiency

A 40 years old lady visited the Gynae/OBS

OPD with chief complaint of heavy menstrual
bleeding for the last one year. Her laboratory
investigation showed hemoglobin of
1
10md/dl, MCV of 78 fl and on smear
examination the red blood cells were
hypochromic. What is the most likely cause
of her anemia?
A Folic acid deficiiency

B Iron deficiency [T]

C Vitamin B12 deficiency

D Viatmin C deficiency

E Vitamin K deficiency