Note: SNT-TC-1A (1996 to be followed for Questins 1 le ASNT LEVEL IIT TECHNIQUE : BASIC The minimum number of test smaples required in Level 1 or Level II practical Exam is A; one 82 Two Cc. Ten D. Five. The vision test for colour contrast differentiation should be conducted. . Annually + Biannually (Every 6 months) zed, Every two years Every five years.? ; None of the above. noom All the questions in the level I and Level IZ examinations. A. Must be approved by the NDT Level III only. B. may be complied by the Level II C. must be complied by the employer D. must be prepared by the national Level society of NDT. The Certifying authority for all levels is : + ASNT 2 the employer of the concerned personnel + The government The local NDT society. cogs The employer who is not an expert in NDT hires an outside agency to test his employees in order that he may certify them to different levels. If he finds that they (employees) are not performing to their requirements + A. he can revoke their certification since he is responsible for their certificate R. he must sue the outside agency for fraud €. he must train them again D.) he call revoke their certification if a clause to this effect is incorporated in his written proceudre for certification.10. ne 2 oe Acoustic Emission Strain Gauge Measurement Visual testing Bac All of the above. Pascing the ASNI Level ITT examination in the successful applicant : ates that ‘A. has been tested by ASNT. But his employer is his certifying agency and can certify him to Level 111 for teh company based on the ASNT Level III result, provided thet a provision for the same is incorporated in his written document. 5. is of world standard in teh method certified for. C. is accepted worldwide. D. is equivalent to level 3.6 as per cswip. ®\ traine> can independently : A. Perform the test interpret the result § record HK. Only perform 6 interpret. Request Level TI to ecord £: only perform & request Level I to regularize ND None of teh above. Who should give written instruction? A. Level I Be Level Iz C. Trainee with guidance of Level It D. None of the above The employer's written practice should include A. Taining Requirements PB, Examination Requirements ©, Certification Requirements Drs All of the above E. None of the above Yor NDT Level III qualification, without educational background mentioned therein an individual shall have minimum Yrs experience in method comparable to that of Devel if. 3 Yrs. 2 years 4 Yrs. none of the above.12. 13. 14. 1s. 16. The responsibility of each level of certification for determining “the acceptability “of mater: or components ! A.) Shall be detailed in employer's w: “in all circumstances. B. Shall be known to Level IIT C. Shall be verbally made known to 3rd party inspector. D. Shall be detailed in written practice if demanded by customer. tten practice The validity period for the Level III certification by ASNT is AL 5 years B. 3 Years Cc. 2 Years D. 7 years. The training and experience requirements for initial certification of a candidate with Bachelor of Arts should be based on + &. Minimum 2 years study in a university or college. B. Cannot be considered for initial certification as there is no provision in SNT-TC-IA. High School graduates or equivalent either A or C. A Pu Level I operator is working 508 of the time in pr 30% of his time in UT and 20% time in R1 for 3 months. he is claiming simultaneous experience towards Level If certification in PT and Level T and UT and RT. As per ASNT 1992 he fulfils the experience criteria for : PT Level II only PT Level II and UT Level I PT Level II, UT Level I and RP Level I None of the above. oaal> Which of the following cannot be a valid reason for termination of certification of a NDT Level 11 employee Promotion to a higher post within the same organisation. B. Completion of three years after initial certification, €. Termination of service. D. Physical disability directly affecting the faculties necessary for the particular NDT function or method.1 18. 1g. 20. 22. A certified NDT Level II operative resigns fron his job and joins another company. ‘This néw compa certify him to his original level (Level IZ) bi evidence of his earlier certification and proven documented experience without re-examination provided that A. This new company has managers who are free from moral turpitude B This procedure for re-certification is incorporated in it written procedure. c. The employee. is willing to execute a service bond. D. The employee fias no police record. In the near vision test, SNT-TC-IA recommends that the applicant should be able to read at least the number letters on Jaeger chart. A, dl B, 92 c. 33 D. oa Certification is A. Written testimony of qualification. B. An authority to represent the employer C. any proof, direct or indirect, written or expressed about the capabilities of the person. D. a proof of capability. Qualification is A, Demonstrated skill, training, knowledge and experience required to perform a specific job. B. A certificate of merit C. Academic achievement with good extra curricular activities. D. None of the above. A candidate for Level II examination can be considered as passing the certification examinations for a method if he obtain (out of 100) in General specific and Practical respectively. A. B4, 75, 80 B. 65, 90, 91 fe 75, 78, 89 D. 79, 75, 82 Grammer school person, for initial qualification, requires work time experience for MT = 1 month 3_ month 1z hours 8 hours By Not defind in swr-7c-1a23. SNT-TC-1A recommends that in certification of personnel, the employer. R. Must give written examinations B. must given a general and specific examination C. may waive written examination if oral examination is given none of the above. Note __: CP189-1995 shall be followed for Questions 24 to 36 24, Credit for training hours is obtained by (CP 189) A. Completing sufficient organized training to become familiar with the principles of the method and the practices of the applicable test technique. Recording the training hours attended in Training Record and endorsement by the NDT Level III. Attending classroom, iaboratory, demonstration and/or on the job NDT training. D. Passing a final examination covering the topics contained in that training program. 25. The ASNT Level III certification of a company certified Level III is expired what should be the course of action . A. No action required. The individual continues to be company Level III for the period appointed. B. Recertification by employer after reexamination by employer is required. C. Reexamination by an Outside ASNT Level III person D.. The individual has to recertify his ASNT Level IIT certificate. 3. None of the chove. 26. Experience is defined as A, Classroom or laboratory training time or both. B.> Acquisition of skill and knowledge by actual Performance or observation during work time. C. Work time spent as Level 1 D. Work time spent as Trainee. 27. Vo be certified as NPT Level III initial requirement is candidate should hold a valid A. ASNT Level II certificate in the applicable method (s) B. ASNT Level III certificate in the any methcd(s) ASNT Level III certificate in the applicable method (s) D. Any of the above.28. 30. a1. 32. 33. 34, Suspension of certificate is A. not defined in sNT-TC-IA B. not defined in CP-189 *€,’ defined in SNT-TC-1A and cP-189 D. not defined in ASNT and cP-189 What happens to the certificate of a person retiring. A. Suspension B. Revocation | c. Expiration D. None of the above E. Not defined in cp-189 Who approves Company's written procedure for qualification and certification of NOT personnel ? Employer Quality control Manager ASNT Customer Company's designated NDT Level IIT Who conducts Practical Examination for Level III ? + Employer Outside NDT Level IIT Qc Manager Employer's representative with current ASNT Level certification in applicable method. B. Any of the above. If an employer has more than one NDT Level III for a articular method, the employer shall designate or that method one individual as A. The NDT Level IIT B. NDT Level III €! Principal NPT Level III D; Company's NDT Level III A person qualifying for UT and PT simultaneously shall fulfill work time requirement of A. Pr B. oUT 2 Sum of UT and PT ‘Dy Total hours in NDT of UT with minimum work times “of UT and Pr. As per CP-189 a NDT instructor. A. may be used by employer when required to give training. B./ Say he used by employer if written in written practice. Ci has to be used by the employee to provide training for Level I and Level iI. D. None of the above.35. 36. 38. 39. 40. hs per CP-189 the employee can A. Desicnace a person as NDT, Level IIE without : examination on the basis of demonstrated ability. B. Certify NDT Level ITT by giving Exam C. Designate NDT Level III having valid ISNT Level III certficate. D. None of teh above The person fulfilling CP-189 vision requirements automatically, satisfies the SNT-TC-IA 1952 requirements. - B. needs vision test to be carried out again to satisfy SNT-TC-TA requirements. A and B None of the above. 4 200 mm thick carbon steel plate is welded using saw process which combination will be most suitable for testing the weld ? fa, ur + ur Bo ORT + PT Ce UT + RP D. BT + MT E. Since the thickness is high, none of these methods are suitable. A nylon seal in steel valve is suspected to be cracked. It is not possible to open the valve. Which method will you suggest to test the nylon seal ? AE RT NRT ur ET During Ultrasonic Testing of a round forging a considerable loss in back wall was observed without any defect echo. This could be due to : A. Insufficient couplant B. Coarse grains C. Piping at the centre of the bar All of above A and B only. Manual ultrasonic testing of metals is usually carried out in the frequency range of : 5 to 25 KHZ 1 to 4 MHZ 6 to 20 MHZ all of above A and B only41. 42. 43. 4a. 45. 46. ae During welding, deviaton of the art path caused by residual magnetism is called A. Diamagnetic wandering B. Areing Arc-blow Paramagnetism A fracture formed in metal during solidification resulting from restrained contraction is called ®} burst 7 Shrinkage crack . C. hot-shortness defect D. hot tear B, cold crack Porosity, misrun and cold shuts are examples of defects encountered in which of the following process Welding Forging Grinding casting Heat Treatment Crater cracks in welds may occur : at the end of the welds at the beginning of welds at any location where welding was interrupted in all of the cases listed above. Which of the items listed below is a typical disrontinuity encountered in castings A, Laminations B. Bursts €. Non-metallic inclusions D.) Unfused chaplets Non metallic inclusions are encountered in A. Sheet metal B. bar stock c. forging D. castings BE. all of above Defects is most wrought products tend to be aligned A. transverse to the grain flow B. perpendicular to the inspection surfece C, in the direction of grain flow D. in a random arrangement.48, 49. 50. 51. 52. 83. 54. Where do forging laps most commonly occur ? A, The upper die part of the forging at the parting plane. B. The lower die part of the forging in the forging dies. C. the bottom of the die. D, At points on the surface where the forging hammer blows overlap Excessive stress concentrations do not usually occur : A. at notches 7 B. where variable residual stresses are present C. if the loading is applied at locations not designed for them. D. When changes in cross-section are gradual. Severe grinding cracks appear as A. wavelike patterns B. widely spaced cracks lattice work patterns star-like patterns Which of the following discontinuities are not associated with castings ? A. Hot tears Bi lack of fusion ©. Cold shut D. Micro shrinkage E, Misrun. A shaft having diameter of 20 + 0.005 mm is to be inspected. Which instrument will be suitable for this A. A vernier caliper B. A micrometer A dial micrometer -b.) Any of above. For waking calibration standards, EDM notches are preferred over machined notches because : Ae It is more economical BP It gives smooth and burr free notch c. Both Ae B De Neither A nor B Defect normally found in extruded pipe is As porosity BY seam Cc. shrinkag> D. blow hole55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. él. 10 Which of the following processes is carried ovt at the lowest temperature ? Re Brazing B. Soldering C, Shielded matal arc welding D. Electron beam welding. In carbon steel, carbon is increased from 0.2% to 0.48. This will result in : improved tensile strength imrpoved toughness All of above. None of above. Figure 1 shows load elongation diagram. Yhis diagram could be for : A. Stainless steel B. Low carbon steel c. Cast Iron D. All of above E. None of above, Lasers are used for A. Measuring dimensions Holography Welding All of above A and B only Standard deviation is a term used in Material forming Material Testing Metrology Statistical Quality Control Heat treatment. In comparision to parts produced by casting or forging the strength and toughness of parts produced by powder metallurgy are usually : BR? of interior quality B. of superior quality C. of similar quality D. can be interior, superior or similar quality. In which of the following NDT methods, source of electric power is not essential ? RD Liquid Penetrant Testing B. Eddy Current Testing C. Acoustic Emission Testing D. Ultrasonic Testing.62. 63. 64, 65. 66. 67. 68. nn During rolling of slab to plate, which property will increase in direction of rofling. + Hardness Tensile strength Ductility A and B Which of the following defects occur only in castings A, Inclusions B. Cold shut Cc. Cracks D. Prosity A weld radiograph shows a defect indication. In@ication is a dark and sharp straight line at the centre of the weld. ‘This indication is due to centre line crevice Lack of side wall fusion tack of penetration Elongated slag. In radiography, a densitometer is used to measure : A. @ensity of developer solution fh, intensity of radiation in the working area ©. relative blackening of the radiographic film. Db. the amount of radiation leaking through the radiographic cameras. Method used to find out effect of notch is BK) Fatigue test Be Compression test iC! Impact test (Charpy Vv) D. Tensile test In addition to flaw detection and evaluation, NDT method are also used for A. thickness testing R. measurement of physical properties of materials Gs. Checking sensitization in S.S.material TD. All of the above. Jn leak testing by pressure drop method, the leak rate is given by thb formula 1£ volume of the vessel (Vv) is 10 litres, drop of pressure ( -P) is 0.36 Kg/cem and time take ( 7) for this pressure drop is two hours. Leak rate is hk. 30 ec/sec B. 1.8 ce/sec C. 0.5 cc/sec D. 5 x 10-4 cc/sec69. 70. 7. 72. rR. 74. - 1 - After hydro test (to check the integrity of the vessel), bubble test using soap solution, has to be carried out. Which of the following precautions are necessary to get reliable results. A. Vessel must be thoroughly dried before leak testing. + The job must be cleaned to remove grease, oil, dirt, dust etc. Pressure gauge must be properly calibrated and should have a suitable range All above precautions are necessary. Counductivity of mi the ‘rial can be changed by changing A. Alloy of the specimen B. Heat treatment of the specimen C. Temperature of the specimen D. All of the above. In eddy current, depth of penetration can be increased A. increasing the test frequency Bi reducing the test frequency? C, increasing the number of turns in the coil D. none of above have any effect on the depth of penetration. In eddy current testing of heat exchanger tubes, multifregquency eddy current units are used : A. To improve the sensitivity B+ To improve the depth of penetration C. To minimise the effect of unwanted signals from tube supports Db. To take advantage of natural frequency of test object. Acostic emission test is used to detect : A. Reduction in pipe wall thickness due to corrosion 7 and errosion. By Crack growth at the moment of formation or propagation €. measure the size of cracks caused due to adverse service conditions. D. Ail of above. Which of the following is considered volumetric testing technique : Aj Ultrasonic Testing B. Magnetic partile testing C. Eddy current testing D. all of above.7s. 76. 77. 78. 79. ao. Yo defect loss of thickness in pipe line due to corrosion and errosion, best sensitivity is obtained using : A.) Ultrasonic thickness meter (also called D-meter) B. Radiographic thickness gauge Cc. Survey meter D. Densitometr. Tu detect service induced cracks (such as fatigue cracks and stress corrosion crakes) in ferromagnetic materials, magnetic particle testing is prefered over liquid penetrant testing because : A. Ferromagnetism causes heavy back ground in L.P.Testing, hence reduce the sensitivity. B. Service induced cracks are usually filled with dust, rust and other corrosion products. Hence these may not be detected by L.P.Testing. C. L.P.Testing is not suitable for detecting cracks in ferromagnetic materials. D. All of above. A Surged steel shaft, after a service of five years, is being M.P. Tested using A.C., wet flouroscent method. The defect being sought is most probably : A. a forging lap B. a forging burst Cc. a fatigue crack De. a seam. lamm thick plates were welded using GTAW process. on radiographing this weld, few spots of very light density were observed in the welded region. Those spots are most probably due to A. porosity B. Tungsten inclusions c. pin holes on the surface of the weld D. Worm holes. Which method is most suited to detect shrinkage and inclusion castings ? Radiographic testing By Ultrasonic Testing €. Acoustic emission testing. D. Magnetic particle testing. Best method employed for removal of residual stresses A. Recrystallisation B. lempering C, Normalising D. solution annealing.gl. 82. 83. a4. 8s. 86. In Ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the part surface is necessary because lubricant is required to minimize wear on the crystal surface an air interface between the crystal surface and the part surface would almost comkpletely reflect the ultrasonic vibrations. the crystal will not vibrate if placed correctly in contact with the surface of the part being inspected. ~ the liquid ‘is necessary to complete the electrical circuit in the search unit. Seam defect is caused by which of the two processes. A. Casting and forging B. welding and rolling c. machinery and casting D, Forging and rolling ‘ rradSiilke restraint during welding would result in contration cracking warpage none of the above. The process of comparing an instrument or a device with a standard is called : A. Attention B. Corelation Ci Calibration D. Angulation In an A-scan ultrasonic equipment, height of the signal on the screen represents the relative amount of reflected sound energy returning to the probe. B. distance raveled by the probe C. thickness of material being tested. D. elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated. Use of emulsifier is for making penetrant A. easily enter discontinuities B. solvent removable ¢.) water washable D. more visible88. 8g. 90. 91. 92. 93. Why are standara reference blocks required in ultrasonic testing ? A. fo ensure that the job being tested passes the UT B) To ensure repeatability of response while d instrument setting. To increase the sensitivity of the test : All of the above are correct. go I€ a radiograph shows the 2 hole and outline of a 20 mils thick penetrameter, the 2-2T quality level is achieved on an object having thickness L inch 2 inches 1/2 inches 2/4 inches 4. none of the above The frequency of a transducer is primarily « function of: A. the excitation voltage EB) the thickness of the crystal C. the pulse repetition frequency of the instrument D. the acoustic coupling factor between the crystal, the packing material and the wear face. In fluorescent penetrant inspection, which of the following conditions could adversely affect the efficiency of inspection ? A. Hingh ambient visible light Be Penetrant contamination on the workbench Cc. Contaminated developer De. All of the above. Qutgassing is a term encountered in : a} Leak testing. B. Penetrant testing C. Neutron Radiography D. Acustic Emission testing E. None of the above. Magnetic particle testing method can be used for detecting + A,’ laps in carbon steel forgings. B. deep seated cavities in C.1.castings. C. cracks in austenatic stainless steel welds. D. all of above. which is the indirect mT method 2 yoke method B. prod method C. head shot method D. none of the above.94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. oo. In M.P.Testing, a surface defect procuces an indication which is : Which of the following water washable fluorescen: A tube having an ovter diameter of 2 inches Sharp and district. wide and indefinite usually nonrelevant usually transverse. s not an advantage of the P.T. process ? good on rough, surfaces good on threaded parts not affected by acids or chromates good for large numbers of small parts fewer operations than other penetrant processes. and a wall thickness of 1/2 inch is tested by the differential coil method with coils of internal diameter = 2 1/2 inches. The Lift - off factor is A. Be ce De 648 B08 5 Not applicable. A penetrameter is used to indicate : the size of discontinuities present in the test object. B. the density of the film the amount of film contrast the quality of the radiographic technique ‘The most widely used method for sorting of metallic parts utilises + A. By c. De acustic velocity measurement principles electromagnetic induction principles radioactive decay properties sound sensing properties. In which of the following test methods are the metals Gold, Indium and Bysprosium used as a part of the process ? a. Electromagnetic testing Acoustic Emission testing Mass Spectrometer Leak Detection Neutron Radiographic testing Penetrant testing. NDT method for checking laminations in the plates Radiographic testing Ultrasonic testing Magnetic paarticle testing Eddy current testing A combination of two methods is required.102. 103. 104. 105. 106. aq 0.5 mm steel plate is to be checked for ve thickness. Which NDT method will be more sui production stage) tion in able (at Radiographic ; Ultrasonic Magnetic particle Acoustic Emmissin None of above. B c. Dd. When demagnetiziny small parts, it is most effective to position them. A. As near as possible to the centre of the coil. B. As near as possible to the outside wall of th the coil. As near as possible to the inside wail of the coil. In any of the above positions. An article has been circularly magnetized and returns a circular residual field. To replace the circular field with a longitudinal field, longitudinally magnetize the article with a field that is as great or greater than (iy the circular residual field. -B. the original megnetizing circular field. ©. the longitudinal residual field. D. all of the above. Multifilm method of placing two films and two screens screen-film-screen-film Pilm-screen-film-screen screen-film-film-screen film-screen-screen-film Major limitation in wall thickness measurement by UT (A. Surface roughness B. coarse grainsize C. more thickness of testpiece D. fine grainsize In the absence of a reference specimen, a preliminary test for detecting voids in a bonded structure would be Liquid penetrant inspection Through transmission utrasonic testing Shear wave ultrasonic testing Lamb wave ultrasonic testing. Rayleigh wave ultrasonic testing.107. 108. 109. iio ql. il2. 113. Resoultion in UT is A. Ability to detect very small defects B, ability to detect defects close to the surface C@: ability to detect defects close to each other pl Bana c Halogen diode detector is used. in vacuumised condition only in pressurised condition only for leak location only for leak rate’ only Zor leak location and leak rate Using infrared detectors it is possible BR. to measure the temperature B. to detect the debond C. to find out the hot spot D. all of above. Fracture mechanics analysis is an established engineering analysis process which assumes that A. All components are flaw free at the time of manufacture. B. All components contain flaws as a requirement for determining warranty. ¢. The number of flaws in a component is determined by the Flaw Index (kfi) D. All components contain flaws, and the miximum size of the flaw that can be accepted for static loading is dependent on the fracture toughness of the component material. Crater cracks in welds usually result from : + too high heat input too low heat input interruption in the welding operation. improper welding electrodes. poe Which of the following inherent discontinuities are associated with the forging process ? Ay Bursts, laps, cracks and flakes. B. Bursts, laminations, scoring and inclusions. C. Shrinkage, cracks, pipe and flakes. De Cracks, seams, laps and laminations. Of the following welding processes, which has the capability of producing the smallest fusion zone ? Submerged arc. oxyacetylene gas Gas metal arc Electron beam.aia. 11s. 116. uy. 118. qs. The main advantage of | thermography over contact Tempefature easusent ‘ethos Ts Tee hY it is fast and safe it is non contact and presents an instantaneov~ view of the entire field covered. it can be used on K-V voltage lines less wear and tear all of above. Boo oP Which of the following describes the damage to human tissue caused by radiation exposure ? Ion pairs are created in body cells causing damage by ionization. B. The basic structure of the body cell breaks down causing damage to the cell. The body celis simply lose their ability to reproduce or may reproduce in an abnormal manner. All of the above are true. + None of the above can be caused by the low energies in the environment of the average radiation worker. 2 ad Material properties as used in design are most frequently determined by theoritical analysis | material testing the national bureav of standards fracture mechanics testing. vagy Low carbon steels contain approximately 4, 0.6% to 2.5% carbon B. 0.06% to 0.25% carbon C. 0.5% to 1.068 carbon D. 5% to 16% carbon Monel and inconel are the Nickel alloyes Steel allyes Magnesium alloyes Alluminium alloyes Copper alloyes oom Which of the following properties would not affect the performance of a bubble solution ? A. Viscosity ». Surface tension c. Contrast D. All of the above.126. qi. 122. 123. 124, A special ball-check valve, which has a steinless steel body and a nylon ball is leaking after ¢ period of service. Which of the following NDT method would be most suitable to determine if the ball is worn, cracked or jammed ? A. Ultrasonic testing B. Radiographic testing : Bady current testing » Neutron radiographic testing. Establishing differntial pressure between test object and the environment is an essential element in which of the following NDT methods ? A. X-ray diffraction B. Neutron radiography. C. Leak testing D. Gamma radiography E. Eddy current testing. After welding many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to releive stress. Which heat treatement method is often used following welding. A. tempering B, martensitic aging? C) normalizing D. spheroidizing In angle beam ultrasonic testing of plate, the defect most prohably undetectable would be A. Cracks which are perpendicular to the soundwave. B. Inclusions which are randomly oriented ‘©. Cracks which are parallel to the plate's surface. (By A series of small discontinuities located close to one anouter. Which of the lollowing gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in ihe vicinity of the weld. @. Argon, Helium and carbon dioxide B. Neon, Tritium and Helium C. Sulphur dioxide, Argon and Oxygen D. Orgon, Nitrogen and Hydrogen Materials exposed to gamma radiation or to million volt X-rays A. Should not be handled for at least 3 minutes after exposure has ceased Should be stored in a lead-lined room. Will not be dangerous to handle after exposure to radiation has ceased. D. Should be monitored by means of a Geiger counter.126. 127. 128 129. 130, 131. Which of the following is an advantage of penetrants over visible dye penetrants ? escent kh. The inspection can be carried ov vell-lighted area. <2. Small indications are more easily seen. + Can be used where contact with water is objectionable, D. Lease sensitive to contamination of discontinuities. Which of the following would rave least ductility cold rolled steél plate hot rolled steel plate gray cast iron hot rolled alluminum plate Ao » ee Which of the following statement is true concerning deformation processes. A. hot working usually follows a cold working Bi hot working must be followed by heat treatement ‘C. hot work materials must be cold worked before they can be used. D, Cold working usually follows hot working E, Cold working render brittle materials more ductile. Which of the following is true. Av all defects are discontinuties B. all discontinuities are defects C. rejectable defects are called disccuntinuities D. acceptable discontinuities are called defects. Slabs, blooms and billets are. the three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the production of products such as angle iron and channel iron. the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations C. types of defects that occur during the hot rolling of steel. D. the three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations. As a visual examiner in general one should have A. vision checked before starting job every day B. vision checked before qualifying as in inspector “> vision checked before qualifying and then periodically. D. vision checked only after reaching 40 years of age132. 133, 134. 135, 22 r= The eye is said to have two visions, namely A; artopic and photopic By scotopic and photopic C. marning and night D. photopic and near vision Nandheld magnifiers have a range of A. 2x to4x Be 5 x to 15 x “C. 50 x to 100.x D. 100 x to 200"x _ Which of the following are common aids inspection A. microscope, mirror, boroscope B. Fibrescope, mirror, telescope C. mirror, magnifier, boroscope D. Fibrescope, microscope, telescope The amount of light is measured by ‘AY lux meter 1. photograph c. densitometer D. vision meter to visuali we a a- 36 a He x Dobe >- 4 Se fete te ete ‘ > 2 4e@ te 2G Oe a- & pee Co 3x Sree 7 abe g- 1 D- > 2 sx Lae gee Ym Se a I- ey tae er citoit id wat cite gal eres eee a- t% D- dq ay yr ba 3 Se gk vr ce L-sg 1tp MOE Vek ere 2 1 7 if Le Ly Peed ietrt 7 vE wis > whey 7-2? Lareouony) GF 191 vl? {72 a te i -F Ann NI SD