Multiple Choice Collection

Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Resource Management
MCQ 1: If the company defines authority and communication channels for employees, it is
performing
A. staffing function
B. organizing function
C. leading function
D. controlling function
MCQ 2: A company's ' HR' department can create an advisory relationship through
A. line authority
B. staff authority
C. hiring authority
D. all of above
MCQ 3: Assistance to top level management for strategic plans is provided by
A. transactional HR group
B. corporate HR group
C. embedded HR group
D. center of expertise
MCQ 4: Centers of expertise provide special assistance in
A. updates regarding appraisal
B. production department
C. organizational change
D. long term strategic plan
MCQ 5: Assisting managers in HR functions of management, known as

A. line manager
B. First line supervisor
C. staff manager
D. all of above
MCQ 6: Which factor does not involve in communication to employees
A. interviewing
B. disciplining
C. counseling
D. compensating
MCQ 7: Most of the time manager of 'Human Resource' department is
A. line manager
B. staff manager
C. active manager
D. both A and B
MCQ 8: Comparison of employees' actual performance with set standards is involved in
A. leading
B. organizing
C. controlling
D. staffing
MCQ 9: The one who issues orders in chain of command outside their department is
A. staff managers
B. line managers
C. finance manager
D. both A and B
MCQ 10: The human capital refers to
A. education of firm's workers
B. training of firm's workers
C. skills and expertise of firm's workers
D. all of above
MCQ 11: The crucial functions for company's survival is managed by
A. financial manager
B. staff manager
C. line manager
D. both A and B
MCQ 12: A company can create 'superior-subordinate' relationship through
A. line authority
B. hiring authority
C. staff authority
D. all of above
MCQ 13: High performance work system leads to
A. superior employee performance
B. low labor costs
C. safer workplaces
D. less employee turnover rate

MCQ 14: A job analyst's task is to
A. prepare job description
B. integrate development activities
C. develop compensation plans
D. advise management
MCQ 15: Recruiting employees, selecting right one for job and giving them training leads
to
A. organizing
B. controlling
C. Staffing
D. Leading
MCQ 16: Ensuring the implementation of 'HR' policies by line managers is the part of
A. Line functions
B. Coordinative functions
C. Staff functions
D. all of above
MCQ 17: An assistance needs to manage localized human resources which are provided by
A. Transactional HR group
B. Embedded HR group
C. Corporate HR group
D. Centers of expertise
MCQ 18: In growing organization, the specialized staff is needed by

A. Line manager
B. HR manager
C. Staff manager
D. all of above
MCQ 19: The counseling and compensation of employees is the part of
A. Staffing
B. Controlling
C. Leading
D. Organizing
MCQ 20: The manager who can only issue orders in his own department
A. Line managers
B. Staff managers
C. HR managers
D. all of above
MCQ 21: The distinct task of staff manager is to
A. Advise other employees
B. Evaluating performance
C. Issuing orders to others
D. Appraising performance
MCQ 22: Introduction of new or current trends for optimal 'HR' utilization is the part of
A. Coordinative function
B. Staff function
C. Line function
D. all of above
MCQ 23: The coordination of personnel activities is a crucial part of
A. Functional authority
B. Line function
C. Staff functions
D. all of above
MCQ 24: Generally in the chain of command, no one can issue orders outside their own
department is
A. staff managers
B. line managers
C. CEO
D. none of above
MCQ 25: A manager have line or staff authority is determined by
A. person in charge
B. Name of person in charge
C. type of department
D. nature of relationship
MCQ 26: The duties of 'HR' manager and staff functions consist of
A. Assisting line manager
B. Implementing the policies
C. Directing the tasks of people
D. all of above
MCQ 27: 'Human Resource Management' is the process of
A. Acquiring Employees
B. Training Employees
C. Appraising and Compensating Employees
D. all of above
MCQ 28: Use of data, facts, analytics and evaluated research for making decision is
A. Evidence based HRM
B. High performance work system
C. Both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 29: The 'HR' manager must be familiar with
A. Strategic planning
B. Production department
C. Marketing and finance
D. all of above
MCQ 30: The planning function of management process involves
A. Developing employees
B. Evaluating performance
C. Establishing departments
D. Establishing goals
MCQ 31: Directing the staff activities in related areas is the part of
A. Staff function
B. Coordinative functions
C. Line function
D. Both A and B
MCQ 32: Changing and updating benefit plans is performed by
A. Corporate HR group
B. Center of expertise
C. Transactional HR group
D. Embedded HR unit
MCQ 33: Handling labor relations and safety laws for company's labor is the part of
A. Line functions
B. Staff functions
C. Coordinative functions
D. Both (a) and (c)
1) The basic functions of the management process include all of the following EXCEPT
________.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) outsourcing
D) leading
2) Which of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's

goals by planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling personnel?
A) manager
B) entrepreneur
C) generalist
D) marketer
3) Which of the following includes five basic functions--planning, organizing, staffing,

leading, and controlling?
A) job analysis
B) strategic management
C) management process
D) adaptability screening
4) Which function of the management process requires a manager to establish goals and
standards and to develop rules and procedures?
A) planning
B) organizing
C) staffing
D) leading
5) Celeste spends most of her time at work establishing goals for her staff of fifty employees
and developing procedures for various tasks. In which function of the management process
does Celeste spend most of her time?
A) leading
B) controlling
C) organizing
D) planning
6) Jolene, a manager, delegates the responsibility for a project to Lee, her subordinate.
Jolene is most likely involved in which function of the management process?
A) staffing
B) organizing
C) motivating
D) leading
7) When managers use metrics to assess performance and then develop strategies for
corrective action, they are performing the ________ function of the management process.
A) planning
B) leading
C) controlling
D) organizing
8) Which function of the management process includes selecting employees, setting

performance standards, and compensating employees?
A) organizing
B) planning
C) motivating
D) staffing
9) Larry, a manager at a commercial real estate firm, has established a monthly sales quota
for his sales team. Which basic function of management best describes Larry's actions?
A) planning
B) organizing
C) controlling
D) staffing
10) ________ is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating

employees, and attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns.
A) Labor relations
B) Human resource management
C) Behavioral management
D) Organizational health and safety management
11) In the management process, which of the following is an activity associated with the
leading function?
A) maintaining employee morale

B) setting performance standards
C) training new employees
D) developing procedures
12) Personnel activities associated with human resource management most likely include
all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) orienting and training new employees
B) appraising employee performance
C) building employee commitment
D) developing customer relationships
13) Which of the following best explains why human resource management is important to
all managers?
A) Technological changes and global competition require clear organization charts.
B) Sophisticated accounting controls are supported by human resource managers.
C) An enthusiastic labor force is likely to provide financial support to local unions.
D) Investing in human capital enables managers to achieve positive results for the firm.
14) According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firm's productivity is its inability to
________.
A) establish effective manufacturing facilities
B) acquire and maintain human capital
C) use advanced accounting controls
D) attain adequate cash and credit
15) ________ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders.
A) Leadership
B) Authority
C) Management
D) Responsibility
16) Which of the following best defines line authority?
A) management over a small staff in a public firm
B) management with flexible decision-making powers
C) a manager's right to advise other managers or employees
D) a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees
17) In most organizations, human resource managers are categorized as ________, who
assist and advise ________ in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation.
A) staff managers; line managers
B) line managers; middle managers
C) line managers; staff managers
D) functional managers; staff managers
18) Gerard is authorized to direct the work of subordinates and is responsible for
accomplishing the organization's tasks. Gerard is most likely a ________.
A) training specialist
B) staff manager
C) line manager
D) recruiter
19) Which of the following has historically been an integral part of every line manager's
duties?
A) responding to customer complaints
B) handling personnel issues
C) creating personnel policies
D) establishing dress codes
20) A line manager's human resource responsibilities most likely include all of the
following EXCEPT ________.
A) maintaining department morale
B) controlling labor costs

C) protecting employees' health
D) marketing new products and services
21) Which of the following refers to the authority exerted by an HR manager as

coordinator of personnel activities?
A) staff authority
B) line authority
C) functional authority
D) corporate authority
22) Which of the following is most likely a line function of the human resource manager?
A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies
B) advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws
C) representing the interests of employees to senior management
D) directing the activities of subordinates in the HR department
23) One of the ________ functions of a human resource manager includes directing the
activities of his or her subordinates in the HR department.
A) coordinative
B) corporate
C) staff
D) line
24) Which of the following is an example of a coordinative function performed by HR
managers?
A) ensuring that line managers are adhering to a firm's sexual harassment policies
B) voicing employee concerns about health benefits and wages to upper management
C) providing upper management with relevant data on national employment trends
D) assisting line managers with hiring, evaluating, and firing employees

25) ________ functions involve assisting and advising line managers, and they are the
central aspect of a human resource manager's job.
A) Staff
B) Advocacy
C) Line
D) Coordinative
26) All of the following are ways in which an HR manager most likely assists and advises
line managers EXCEPT ________.
A) administering health and accident insurance programs
B) representing employees' interests to upper management
C) making strategic business planning decisions
D) hiring, training, and evaluating employees
27) Human resource managers generally exert ________ within the human resources
department and ________ outside the human resources department.
A) line authority; implied authority
B) staff authority; line authority
C) functional authority; line authority
D) staff authority; implied authority
28) All of the following are functions of the human resource manager EXCEPT ________.
A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies
B) advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws
C) representing the interests of employees to senior management
D) integrating the duties of line managers with staff managers
29) All of the following are examples of human resource specialties EXCEPT ________.
A) job analyst
B) financial advisor
C) compensation manager
D) labor relations specialist
30) In general, how many human resource employees would be on staff for a firm with 500
total employees?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 10
31) Which of the following human resource management specialties calls for collecting data
to write job descriptions?
A) job analyst
B) job training specialist
C) compensation manager
D) EEO coordinator
32) Which of the following focuses on using centralized call centers and outsourcing
arrangements with vendors as a way to provide specialized support for certain HR

activities?
A) embedded HR units
B) corporate HR groups
C) HR centers of expertise
D) transactional HR groups
33) An HR generalist at Wilson Manufacturing has been assigned to the sales department
to provide HR management assistance as needed. Which of the following best describes the
structure of the HR services provided at Wilson Manufacturing?
A) transactional HR groups
B) embedded HR units
C) HR centers of expertise
D) corporate HR groups
34) Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior
vice president of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems
within its HR department including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified
employees, EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and confusion
regarding health benefit enrollment and
coverage. With years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Whitman

believes she can correct the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals.
Which of the following best supports Whitman's idea to develop a transactional HR group
to handle benefits administration?
A) An embedded HR unit would assist top management with big picture issues as well as
benefits administration.
B) Extensive training has been provided to line managers so that they fully understand the
different insurance options available to employees.
C) Outside vendors specializing in all aspects of benefits administration would provide improved
support to the firm's employees.
D) Lower insurance premiums would eliminate the need for outsourcing services and improve
employee health coverage.
35) Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior
vice president of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems
within its HR department including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified
employees, EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and confusion
regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With years of experience transforming
HR departments in other firms, Whitman believes she can correct the problems at Jackson
Pharmaceuticals.Which of the following best supports the argument that Whitman should
create embedded HR units and assign relationship managers to each department within the
firm?
A) Employees frequently complain about the inconsistent assistance they receive from the HR
department due to its large size.
B) The global nature of the firm makes it difficult for the HR department to effectively
communicate corporate messages to employees scattered around the world.
C) Centralized call centers would enable the HR department to provide specialized support on
daily transactional activities.
D) Line managers want to implement additional screening and evaluations to improve the quality
of their subordinates.
36) Which of the following responsibilities is shared by line managers and human resource
managers in most firms?
A) pre employment testing
B) benefits administration
C) initial screening interviews
D) performance appraisals
37) In most firms, line managers work in conjunction with HR managers when ________.
A) visiting college campuses to recruit
B) interviewing job applicants
C) administering pre employment tests
D) testing employees for drugs
38) How have globalization and increased competition most likely affected human resource
management?
A) Corporate intranets are used by HR managers to communicate important messages.
B) HR managers need to focus on integrating ethics into a firm's policies and practices.
C) Benefits administration is increasingly being handled internally as a way to lower costs.
D) HR managers need to focus on big picture issues to help firms achieve their strategic goals.
39) ________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or
manufacturing to new markets abroad.
A) Expansion
B) Globalization
C) Export growth
D) Diversification
40) All of the following are the most common reasons that firms decide to globalize
EXCEPT ________.
A) reducing labor costs
B) supervising quality control methods
C) seeking new foreign products to sell
D) forming international partnerships
41) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage to consumers of the globalization

trend among businesses?
A) increased costs of goods
B) increased insurance costs
C) higher labor union fees
D) reduced job security
42) Which of the following best explains the shift from manufacturing to service jobs in the
U.S.?
A) creation of integrated supply chains
B) firms producing their own raw materials
C) global environmental concerns and legislation
D) Web-based training programs for blue-collar workers
43) What term refers to the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's
workers?
A) human resources
B) human capital
C) intangible assets
D) contingent personnel
44) Which of the following describes the most significant demographic trend facing the
U.S. workforce?
A) increased number of aging workers
B) decreased number of contingent workers
C) increased number of blue-collar workers

D) decreased number of bilingual workers
45) Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________.
A) there are fewer people entering the workforce than there are retiring baby boomers
B) one-third of single mothers are not employed in the U.S. labor force
C) there are too many nontraditional workers holding multiple jobs
D) older employees are more family-centric than younger employees
46) According to employer surveys, one of the primary challenges of Generation Y

employees is their ________.
A) inability to use information technology
B) inadequate multi-tasking skills
C) inability to balance work and family
D) need for constant praise and recognition
47) Which of the following best describes a nontraditional worker?
A) workers near retirement age
B) ethnically diverse workers
C) workers with multiple jobs
D) service-based workers
48) Globalization, competition, and technology have led to which of the following trends in
human resource management?
A) HR managers primarily focus on providing transactional services like recruiting and hiring.
B) Metrics used to measure employee potential have been replaced by standardized testing.
C) HR managers assist top management with developing and implementing new strategies.
D) Employee contracts are frequently used by HR managers to protect the interests of the firm.
49) All of the following are ways in which employers use technology to support their
human resource management activities EXCEPT ________.
A) paying employees and suppliers electronically

B) offshoring and outsourcing benefits administration services
C) offering online employee training through streaming desktop videos
D) developing data warehouses to compare employees' skills with the firm's needs
50) Which term refers to using external vendors to perform HR jobs that were once
handled by a firm internally?
A) freelancing
B) outsourcing
C) rightsizing
D) warehousing
51) Royall & Company streamlined its annual benefits package enrollments by digitizing
and aggregating the former paper benefits reports, electronic spreadsheets, and benefit
summaries and providing the materials at a single location on the company intranet. Royall
is most likely using a(n) ________.
A) spam filter
B) Web portal
C) query processor
D) software license
52) Which of the following would provide the best solution for a global firm's HR
department that needs to immediately provide employees with corporate information?
A) streaming desktop video
B) electronic outsourcing
C) productivity software
D) network monitoring
53) An HR manager who wants to analyze the costs associated with each new hire will most
likely use which of the following?
A) podcasts
B) Web portal
C) data warehouse
D) public domain software
54) Unlike HR managers of the past, modern HR managers must be able to ________.
A) assist with employee training in various departments within a firm
B) explain HR activities in terms of a firm's finances and productivity
C) determine the most appropriate compensation for employees
D) hire workers who are well-matched to a firm's HR needs
55) Tara Robles earned an MBA degree and is now an HR manager for a Fortune 500
company. In which of the following tasks does Tara's advanced degree benefit her the
most?
A) using application service providers to expedite employee services
B) assisting upper management in formulating business strategies
C) distributing pension payments to retiring employees
D) recruiting college graduates for entry-level positions
56) Which of the following best explains why top HR executives are being paid increasingly
high salaries?
A) A firm's vision is only effective when HR managers play a strategic role in its development.
B) Effective HR managers increase corporate profitability and organizational performance.
C) Transactional activities are more cost-effective when outsourced by HR.
D) Business strategies developed by HR managers are quantifiable.
57) Strategic human resource management refers to ________.
A) formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee
competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve strategic aims
B) planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and
threats to maintain competitive advantage
C) emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers
D) extending a firm's sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets
58) ________ refers to an integrated set of human resource management policies and
practices that together result in superior employee performance.
A) Strategic planning
B) Strategic human resource management
C) High-performance work system
D) Human resource scorecard approach
59) Evidence-based human resource management relies on all of the following types of
evidence EXCEPT ________.
A) scientific rigor
B) existing data
C) research studies
D) qualitative opinions
60) Which term refers to a set of quantitative performance measures that human resource
managers use to assess their operations?
A) case studies
B) metrics
C) practices
D) ratios
Skill: Concept
61) All of the following are ethical issues that must be considered by human resource
managers EXCEPT ________.
A) comparable work
B) workplace safety
C) affirmative action
D) FCC regulations
62) Which of the following refers to the standards someone uses to decide what his or her
conduct should be?
A) ethics
B) strategies
C) preferences
D) competencies
63) Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers?
A) Association of Certified HR Managers
B) Society for Human Resource Management
C) Academy of Human Resource Executives
D) Association of Business Administration
64) HR managers who take SHRM certification exams are tested on all of the following
areas EXCEPT ________.
A) strategic management
B) workforce planning
C) information technology
D) occupational health and safety
65) The vice president of marketing tells a marketing manager to prepare a presentation
by the end of the week. The vice president is most likely exercising which of the following?
A) staff authority
B) procedural authority
C) line authority
D) functional authority
66) Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to
determine if the firm's vacation policy was being strictly followed in the production
department. Shelly was most likely performing a ________ function.
A) coordinative
B) procedural
C) staff
D) line
67) Administering health benefits programs, helping line managers comply with EEO laws,
and assisting with labor relations are all elements of the ________ function.
A) coordinative
B) procedural
C) staff
D) line
68) Which HR specialty involves preparing job descriptions?
A) compensation manager
B) EEO coordinator
C) job analyst
D) recruiter
69) Which of the following would most likely provide assistance to executives about long-
term strategic plans?
A) centers of expertise
B) embedded HR units
C) corporate HR groups
D) professional employee organizations
70) What is the LEAST likely reason for the growing number of U.S. firms that are
reshoring jobs?
A) free trade areas
B) high shipping fees
C) inadequate quality
D) intellectual property theft
71) Setting standards such as sales quotas, quality standards, or production levels is part of
the leading function of human resource management.
Answer: FALSE
72) The planning function of management includes establishing goals and standards and
developing forecasts.
Answer: TRUE
73) Communicating is one of the five basic functions of the management process.
Answer: FALSE
74) Hiring the wrong person for the job, committing unfair labor practices, and failing to
motivate employees are personnel mistakes that hinder firms from achieving positive
results.
Answer: TRUE
75) Autonomy is the right to make decisions, direct the work of others, and give orders.
Answer: FALSE
76) Staff managers are authorized to issue orders to subordinates and are directly in
charge of accomplishing the organization's basic goals.
Answer: FALSE
77) Human resource managers are generally staff managers.
Answer: TRUE
78) Staff managers have staff authority which enables them to issue orders down the chain
of command unlike line managers.
Answer: FALSE
79) In small organizations, line managers frequently handle all personnel duties without
the assistance of a human resource staff.
Answer: TRUE
80) Human resource managers assist line managers with hiring, training, evaluating,
rewarding, counseling, promoting, and hiring employees.
Answer: TRUE
81) Functional authority is the authority exerted by an HR manager as coordinator of

personnel activities.
Answer: TRUE
82) The role of labor relations specialists includes investigating EEO grievances and
collecting data about jobs for the purpose of writing job descriptions.
Answer: FALSE
83) Transactional HR groups focus on assisting top management in big picture issues such
as developing a firm's long-term strategic plan.
Answer: FALSE
84) In the majority of firms, the task of interviewing job candidates is shared between HR
and the hiring department.
Answer: TRUE
85) In most firms, top human resource executives have many years of experience working
in the human resources department, and about 40% of them have professional HR
certification.
Answer: TRUE
86) Although technology has changed how people communicate, it has failed to alter
traditional factory work, which requires the specific skills of manual laborers.
Answer: FALSE
87) According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, between now and 2018 the number of
workers classified as "white, non-Hispanic" will decrease, and the number of workers
classified as Asian will increase.
Answer: TRUE
88) As baby boomers retire from the work force, there will be more people entering the
labor pool than leaving it.
Answer: FALSE
89) In general, Generation Y employees appreciate creative challenges, tight deadlines, and
small goals in the workplace.
Answer: TRUE
90) Co-working sites are a popular option for people working from remote locations who
need office space and access to office equipment.
Answer: TRUE
91) Modern human resource managers perform transactional duties as well as help top
management develops and executes the firm's long-term plans.

Answer: TRUE
92) Strategic human resource management refers to performing transactional duties that
satisfy the needs and demands of both the employees and the employer.
Answer: FALSE
93) The primary goal of talent management is managing the training and development
needs of newly hired workers.
Answer: FALSE
94) According to research, less than one-third of all workers in the U.S. are mentally and
emotionally invested in their work.
Answer: TRUE
95) The evidence used in evidence-based human resource management may come from
actual measurements, existing data, or critically evaluated research studies.
Answer: TRUE
96) Ethical issues such as workplace safety, security of employee records, comparable
work, and employee privacy rights are all related to human resource management.
Answer: TRUE
97) The SHRM Human Resource Certification exams include testing on management
practices, staffing, development, compensation, labor relations, and health and safety.
Answer: TRUE
98) Human resource managers who complete professional certification exams can earn
SPHR, GPHR, or PHR certificates.
Answer: TRUE
99) A key concept of the textbook is that human resource management is the sole
responsibility of human resource managers, so line managers and staff managers rely
heavily on HR specialists to hire the best employees.
Answer: FALSE
10
0) A key concept of the textbook is that effective human resource management practices
add measurable value to an organization.
Answer: TRUE
Chapter 4: Job Analysis
1. _____ is the procedure through which one determines the duties associated with
positions and the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job analysis
d. Job context
e. None of the above
2. The information resulting from job analysis is used for writing _____.
a. job descriptions
b. work activities
c. work aids
d. job context
e. performance standards
(a; easy; p. 112)
3. Which of the following types of information can be collected via a job analysis?
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. performance standards
d. job context
e. all of the above
(e; moderate; p. 112)
4. Information regarding job demands such as lifting weights or walking long distances
is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(b; moderate; p. 112)
5. Information regarding how, why, and when a worker performs each activity is
included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
e. job context
(a; moderate; p. 112)
6. Information regarding the quantity or quality levels for each job duty is included in the
information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
e. job context
(d; moderate; p. 112)
7. Information regarding job-related knowledge or skills and required personal attributes

a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. human requirements
e. job context
(c; moderate; p. 112)
8. Information regarding matters such as physical working conditions and work schedule
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
e. job context
9. There are _____ steps in doing a job analysis.

a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
e. ten
(d; easy; p. 113)
10. Deciding how to use the resulting information is the _____ step in doing a job analysis.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
11. The first step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
12. Reviewing relevant background information such as organization charts, process

charts, and job descriptions is the _____ step in doing a job analysis.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
13. The second step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
14. Selecting representative positions to use in the job analysis is the _____ step in the
process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
15. The third step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

16. Collecting data on job activities, required employee behaviors, working conditions,
and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job is the _____ step in the job analysis
process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
17. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
18. Verifying the job analysis information with the worker performing the job and with his
or her immediate supervisor is the _____ step in the job analysis process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
19. The fifth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

c. verifying the job analysis information
20. Developing a job description and job specification is the _____ step in the job analysis
process.
a. second
b. third
c. fourth
d. fifth
e. sixth
21. The final step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

22. A(n) _____ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job being analyzed.
a. organization chart
b. process chart
c. value chain
d. job preview
e. job description
23. Which term refers to a written statement that describes the activities and
responsibilities of the job?
a. job specification
b. job analysis
c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
24. A _____ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for
getting the job done.
b. job analysis
c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
25. Which of the following is included in the job specifications?

a. personal qualities
b. traits
c. skills
d. required background
e. all of the above
(e; easy; p. 114)
26. Which of the following methods is used to gather job analysis data?
a. interviews
b. questionnaires
c. observation
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
27. Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data?

a. individual employees
b. groups of employees with the same job
c. supervisors who know the job
d. all of the above
28. Which of the following is not an advantage of using interviews to collect job analysis
data?
a. it is simple to use
b. some information may be exaggerated or minimized
c. it is quick to collect information
d. it can identify uncommon, but important activities
e. it can be used to explain need for job analysis
29. Interviews often include questions about _____.

a. supervisory responsibilities
b. job duties
c. education
d. experience
e. all of the above
(e; easy; p. 116)
30. In addition to identifying the specific duties associated with a job, a job analysis should
also seek to identify the _____.
a. length of time an employee has held the position
b. order of importance
c. frequency of occurrence
d. all of the above
e. b and c only
(e; difficult; p. 117)
31. For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data
used in a job analysis?
a. assembly-line worker
b. accounting clerk
c. engineer
d. receptionist
e. salesperson
(c; difficult; p. 117)
32. A _____ is the time it takes to complete a job.

b. work cycle
c. work week
d. shift
33. The average cycle time is a(n) _____.

a. minute
b. hour
c. day
d. week
e. it depends on the specific job
(e; easy; p. 117)
34. When a worker changes what he or she would normally do because they are being
watched, _____ has occurred.
a. proactivity
b. reactivity
c. cycling
d. diverting
35. Which two data collection methods are frequently used together?
a. direct observation and interviewing
b. questionnaires and direct observation
c. interviewing and questionnaires
d. diaries and interviewing
e. most are used individually
(a; difficult; p. 117)
36. Jane records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This
approach to data collection for job analysis is based on _____.
a. diaries
b. interviews
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
e. supervisor verification
(a; easy; p. 117)
37. Which of the following is considered a qualitative approach to job analysis?

a. position analysis questionnaire
b. interviews
c. Department of Labor approach
d. functional job analysis
e. all are qualitative approaches
(b; difficult; p. 117)
38. Which of the following is considered a quantitative approach to job analysis?

a. interviews
b. diaries
c. Department of Labor Procedure
d. direct observation
e. questionnaires
(c; difficult; p. 117)
39. What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?
a. interviews
b. diaries
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
(b; easy; p. 117)
40. Which of the following is not one of the basic activities included in a position analysis
questionnaire?
a. performing skilled activities
b. being physically active
c. operating equipment
d. processing information
e. all are included in a position analysis questionnaire
41. The _____ assigns a quantitative score to each job based on its decision-making,
skilled activity, physical activity, equipment operation, and information-processing
characteristics.
a. Department of Labor Procedure
b. position analysis questionnaire
c. functional job analysis
d. log approach
e. all of the above
42. Which quantitative job analysis technique can be conducted online?

a. position analysis questionnaire
b. Department of Labor Procedure
d. all of the above
43. Which of the following is included in a functional job analysis?

a. the extent to which specific instructions are necessary to perform the task
b. the extent to which reasoning and judgment are required to perform the task
c. the mathematical ability required to perform the task
d. the verbal and language facilities required to perform the task
e. all of the above
44. Most job descriptions contain sections that cover _____.

a. job summary
b. standards of performance
c. working conditions
d. all of the above
(d; easy; p. 125)
45. One uses information from the _____ to write a job specification.
a. job summary
b. job identification
c. job description
d. standards for performance
e. job advertisement
46. What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job
description?
a. job title
b. job summary
c. relationships statement
d. major functions or activities
e. all of the above
47. FLSA status is located in the _____ section of a job description.

a. job summary
b. job identification
c. relationships
d. responsibilities and duties
48. The _____ classifies all workers into one of 23 major groups of jobs.
a. Department of Labor Procedure
b. Job analysis
c. Standard Occupational Classification
d. Federal Professions Classification System
e. None of the above
(c; easy; p. 129)
49. Under the _____, the individual must have the requisite skills, educational background,
and experience to perform the job’s essential functions.
a. SOC
b. DOL
c. ADA
d. FCC
e. SIC
50. Which section of a job description should define the limits of the jobholder’s authority,
direct supervision of other personnel, and budgetary limitations?
a. job identification
b. job summary
c. relationships
d. responsibilities and duties
e. pay levels
51. When is an employer required to make a “reasonable accommodation” for a disabled

individual?
a. any time a disabled individual applies for a position
b. employers are only encouraged to make reasonable accommodations
c. when a disabled individual has the necessary skills, education, and experience to
perform the job, but can’t because of the job’s current structure
d. when it would present an undue hardship
e. when the job function is essential
52. Job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable
accommodation, are called _____.
a. essential job functions
b. job requirements
c. primary job activities
d. work activities
e. all of the above
(a; easy; p. 130)
53. The job specification takes the job description and answers the question, _____?
a. What human traits and experience are required to do this job well
b. When will the supervisor be completely satisfied with a worker’s work
c. What are the four main activities making up this job
d. How many other employees are available to perform job functions
e. What are the performance standards for the job
54. When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include _____.
a. quality of training
b. length of previous service
c. previous job performance
d. physical traits
e. all of the above
55. Which of the following work behaviors is considered “generic” or important to all
jobs?
a. industriousness
b. intelligence
c. experience
d. morality
e. motivation
56. All of the following work behaviors are considered “generic” or important to all jobs
except _____.
a. thoroughness
b. attendance
c. experience
d. schedule flexibility
e. industriousness
57. _____ means assigning workers additional same-level activities, thus increasing the
number of activities they perform.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(d; easy; p. 138)
58. _____ means systematically moving workers from one job to another.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(a; easy; p. 138)
59. ______ means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker
to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(b; easy; p. 138)
60. Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for
challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment?
a. Adam Smith
b. Frederick Taylor
c. Frederick Herzberg
d. Abraham Maslow
e. Milton Friedman
61. _____ refers to broadening the responsibilities of the company’s jobs, and encouraging
employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Dejobbing
(e; easy; p. 139)
62. Dejobbing can be described as _____.
a. assigning workers additional work at the same level
b. redesigning jobs to increase opportunities for responsibility
c. moving workers from one job to another
d. encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions
e. focusing workers on highly specialized jobs
63. Job enrichment can be described as _____.

a. assigning workers additional work at the same level
b. redesigning jobs to increase opportunities for responsibility
c. moving workers from one job to another
d. encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions
e. focusing workers on highly specialized jobs
64. Jack works at a Hilton hotel. Some weeks he works in catering but he also works in
housekeeping, and in reservations periodically. This is an example of _____.
a. job enlargement
b. job rotation
c. job enrichment
d. dejobbing
e. job specialization
(b; easy; p. 138)
65. The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve
dramatic improvements in performance is called _____.
a. job redesign
b. reengineering
c. process engineering
d. job enlargement
e. outsourcing
(b; easy; p. 139)
66. Describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, and behavioral
competencies necessary for good job performance is called a _____.
a. competency-based job analysis
b. Department of Labor Procedure
d. SOC classification system
(a; easy; p. 140)
67. Competency analysis focuses on _____.

a. what is accomplished
b. how work is accomplished
c. when work is accomplished
d. who accomplishes the work
e. where the work is accomplished
(b; difficult; p. 140)
68. Traditional job analysis focuses on _____.

a. what is accomplished
b. how work is accomplished
c. when work is accomplished
d. who accomplishes the work
e. where the work is accomplished
69. Job competencies are always _____.

a. measurable
b. observable
c. based on goals
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
(d; easy; p. 141)
70. When a supervisor bases an employee’s training, appraisals, and rewards on the skills
and competences he or she needs to achieve his or her goals, the supervisor is using _____.
a. competency analysis
b. traditional analysis
c. performance management
d. functional systems management
CHAPTER 5: Personnel Planning and Recruiting
1) What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process?
A) performing initial screening interviews
B) building a pool of candidates
C) performing candidate background checks
D) deciding what positions to fill
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The first step of the recruitment and selection process is deciding what
positions to fill through personnel planning and forecasting.
Difficulty: Moderate
2) Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical
exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job?
A) selection tools
B) job analysis methods
C) personnel techniques
D) forecasting tools
Answer: A
3) ________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill
them.
A) Recruitment
B) Selection
C) Job analysis
D) Workforce planning
Answer: D
4) Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the
next six months, which means Marcus is currently working on ________.
A) screening job candidates
B) personnel planning
C) interviewing job candidates
D) writing job descriptions
Answer: B
5) The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________.
A) internal recruiting
B) succession planning
C) long-term forecasting
D) advanced interviewing
Answer: B
6) A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and
competencies the firm needs.
A) job analysis
B) organization chart
C) marketing planning
D) strategic business planning
Answer: D
7) Succession planning requires making forecasts of in three steps: ________, develop inside
candidates, assess and choose those who will fill the key position.
A) identify key needs
B) job specifications
C) global trends
D) labor relations
Answer: A
8) Which of the following terms refers to studying a firm's past employment needs over a period
of years to predict future needs?
A) ratio analysis
B) trend analysis
C) graphical analysis
D) computer analysis
Answer: B
9) A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________.
A) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing
B) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes
C) assumes constant increases in worker productivity
D) overlooks the potential for changes in skills needed
Answer: D
10) Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor
and the number of employees required?
A) ratio analysis
B) forecasting ratio
C) personnel ratio
D) ratio matrix
Answer: A
11) Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A
salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many
new salespeople should Newton hire?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Answer: B
12) When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will
remain the same.
A) staffing levels
B) currency rates
C) productivity levels
D) recruitment plans
13) A ________ is a graphical method used to help identify how two variables are related.
A) trend analysis
B) ratio analysis
C) scatter plot
D) productivity chart
14) Pablo wants to figure out likely future employment needs for Slate Industries by examining
past organizational employment needs of the company. This is an example of:
A) a qualification inventory
B) ratio analysis
C) succession planning
D) trend analysis
15) Which of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development,
and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion?
A) computerized forecasting tools
B) qualifications inventories
C) trend records
D) scatter plots
Answer: B
16) When managers need to determine which current employees are available for promotion or
transfer, they will most likely use ________.
A) scatter plots
B) skills inventories
C) estimated sales trends
D) personnel forecasts
Answer: B
17) Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and
promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions?
A) yield pyramids
B) trend analysis charts
C) succession planning tools
D) personnel replacement charts
Answer: D
18) Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using all of the following
EXCEPT a ________.
A) ratio analysis matrix
B) personnel replacement chart
C) position replacement card
D) skills inventory software
Answer: A
19) Workforce planning often involves paying continuous attention to workforce planning issues
which is called:
A) personnel replacement chart
B) predictive workforce monitoring
C) personnel replacement charts
D) yield pyramids
Answer: B
20) What mathematical process do employers use to forecast availability of internal job
candidates that shows the probabilities that feeder positions in a chain will be filled?
A) trend analysis
B) access analysis
C) Markov analysis
D) workforce analysis
Answer: C
21) Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel
chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many
job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with
the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make
significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future
and improve employee retention rates.
Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a scatter plot is the most
appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future personnel needs?
A) Productivity levels for Barnum employees typically vary from month to month.
B) The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels.
C) Barnum requires HR to maintain qualifications inventories for all current employees.
D) Personnel replacement charts serve as useful tools when filling Barnum's managerial
positions.
Answer: B
Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Marie should implement a
computerized skills inventory database?
A) Barnum offers its employees the opportunities to participate in job rotation and job expansion
experiences.
B) Barnum's recruiting yield pyramid indicates that the firm should generate 1,000 leads in order
to fill 100 positions.
C) Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new
hotels to fill supervisory positions.
D) HR managers at Barnum frequently receive discrimination complaints that must be
investigated by the EEOC.
Answer: C
23) The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational
leadership to enhance performance is known as ________.
A) employee mentoring
B) succession planning
C) work sampling
D) employee recruiting
Answer: B
24) What is the first step in succession planning?
A) creating an applicant pool
B) identifying and analyzing key position needs
C) selecting who will fill key positions
D) developing the strengths of current employees
Answer: B
25) All of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for
future positions EXCEPT ________.
A) providing internal training
B) implementing job rotation
C) offering global assignments
D) developing skills inventories
Answer: D
26) A Markov analysis is primarily used to ________.
A) predict the long-term employment needs in an industry
B) assess the productivity and tenure of a job applicant
C) forecast the availability of internal job candidates
D) analyze the effectiveness of recruitment sources
Answer: C
27) Smith Industries is thinking of having another company take care of its benefits
management. This is called:
A) outsourcing
B) recruiting
C) telecommuting
D) screening
Answer: A
28) Dixon Industries wants to engage in predictive workforce monitoring. As the HR manager at
Dixon, you should most likely ________.
A) continuously monitor workforce planning issues
B) primarily use recruiters for top executive jobs
C) frequently assess the online HR scorecard
D) regularly implement the Markov analysis
Answer: A
29) Employment planning should be an integral part of a firm's strategic and HR planning
process.
Answer: TRUE
30) Personnel planning requires an estimation of personnel needs, the supply of inside
candidates, and the likely supply of outside candidates.
Answer: TRUE
31) When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called
succession planning.
Answer: FALSE
32) When making personnel plans, a manager primarily needs to focus on the firm's personnel
needs, the supply of inside candidates, and the estimated supply of outside candidates.
Answer: TRUE
33) The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains
about the same from year to year.
Answer: TRUE
34) A scatter plot is a graphical method used to help identify the relationship between two
variables.
Answer: TRUE
38) Bob needs to find and attract applicants to his company's open positions, which is known as
________.
A) trend analysis
B) engagement
C) staffing
D) employee recruiting
Answer: D
39) Finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions is known as ________.
A) succession planning
B) employee recruiting
C) personnel planning
D) job posting
Answer: B
40) Recruiting is necessary to ________.
A) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates
B) forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates
C) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm
D) develop an applicant pool
41) A ________ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the
required number of new employees.
A) trend analysis
B) ratio analysis
C) recruiting yield pyramid
D) scatter plot
Answer: C
42) A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the
following EXCEPT ________.
A) internal and external candidates
B) offers made and offers accepted
C) recruitment leads and invitees
D) interviews and offers made
Answer: A
43) According to U.S. court ruling, it is always illegal to recruit applicants with gender-specific
ads, but using word-of-mouth to spread information about job opportunities is legal in all
situations.
Answer: FALSE
44) The HR manager who recruits for a vacant job is typically the one who is responsible for
supervising the performance of that position.
Answer: FALSE
45) It is illegal for employers to conspire not to hire each other's employees.
Answer: TRUE
46) Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to
fill vacant positions in a firm?
A) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths
B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted
C) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm
D) significant training and orientation requirements
Answer: B
47) All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________.
A) listing the job's attributes
B) providing the job's pay rate
C) publicizing the open job to employees
D) indicating the preferred number of applicants
Answer: D
Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines Marie's decision to fill top positions with
inside candidates?
A) Barnum needs to head in a different direction with innovative ideas if it is to remain
competitive with other hotel chains.
B) Many current Barnum employees have indicated they are loyal to the firm by rejecting offers
to work at competing hotels.
C) Training new employees about the practices and procedures at Barnum is costly in regards to
both time and money.
D) The influence of local labor unions and EEO legislation is blamed for the high turnover rate
among Barnum employees.
Answer: A
All of the following questions are relevant to Marie's decision to fill top positions at the new
hotels with internal candidates EXCEPT:
A) What are the key managerial positions that are available at the new hotels?
B) What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning?
C) What skills, education, and training have been provided to potential candidates?
D) What is the designated procedure for assessing and selecting potential candidates?
Answer: B
50) Which of the following is NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates?
A) newspaper advertising
B) intranet job postings
C) employment agencies
D) online job boards
Answer: B
51) Publicizing an open job to current employees through a firm's intranet or bulletin board is
known as job posting.
52) Firms can reduce potential problems associated with rehiring former employees by crediting
them with the years of service they had accumulated before they left.
Answer: TRUE
54) What is the primary purpose of an applicant tracking system?
A) sorting resumes based on an applicant's years of work experience
B) generating advertisements for attracting and gathering applicants
C) assisting employers in attracting, screening, and managing applicants
D) assisting recruiters with locating internal applicants for key positions
Answer: C
55) Which of the following factors plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a
job advertisement?
A) skills needed for the job
B) job compensation and salary
C) time allowed to fill the position
D) graphics used in the advertisement
Answer: A
56) When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide
EXCEPT ________.
A) attracting attention to the ad
B) implying long-term benefits
C) prompting applicant action
D) developing interest in the job
Answer: B
57) The ________ run by the U.S. Department of Labor enables public employment agency
counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings.
A) U.S. Career Center
B) National Job Bank
C) National Employment Agency
D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Answer: B
58) Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities
EXCEPT ________.
A) reviewing employer job requirements
B) filing employer tax reports
C) visiting employer work sites
D) writing job descriptions
Answer: B
59) Which of the following is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by a private
employment agency when an applicant is placed in a job?
A) employers
B) employees
C) state employment commissions
D) independent recruiters
Answer: A
60) An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________.
A) receive assistance writing job ads
B) adhere to federal hiring practices
C) fill a specific job opening quickly
D) spend more time recruiting applicants
Answer: C
61) Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private
employment agencies to fill positions?
A) White-collar applicants are difficult to attract.
B) Applicant screening may not be thorough.
C) Applicant processing time is too lengthy.
D) Application procedures are complicated.
Answer: B
62) Newton Manufacturing is using a private employment agency to recruit individuals for
management positions. As the HR manager at Newton, you need to ensure that applicants are
screened properly, so you should ________.
A) provide the agency with an accurate job description
B) post jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards
C) develop applicant screening software for internal hires
D) send HR experts to monitor the agency's recruiting activities
Answer: A
63) Kate works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as-
needed basis. Kate is most likely ________.
A) working as a contingent worker

B) participating in a job rotation
C) using job enlargement
D) benchmarking jobs
Answer: A
64) Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more
frequently?
A) low cost when hired through agencies
B) workers' desires for flexible schedules
C) high cost of workers' compensation insurance
D) weak economic confidence among employers
Answer: D
65) All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by
temporary employees EXCEPT ________.
A) being in compliance with equal employment laws
B) feeling insecure about their employment situation
C) worrying about the lack of insurance benefits
D) being treated impersonally by employers
Answer: A
66) Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary
workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the
following tasks related to the temporary workers should Jessica become directly involved?
A) negotiating the pay rate
B) setting the time-off policies
C) answering task-related questions
D) providing online training and development
Answer: C
67) Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources?
A) negligent hiring
B) personnel planning
C) human resource management
D) alternative staffing
Answer: D
68) ________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top
management talent for their clients.
A) State-run employment agencies
B) Private employment agencies
C) Temporary agencies
D) Executive recruiters
Answer: D
69) Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential
candidates?
A) mobility premiums
B) Internet databases
C) corporate intranets
D) broad banding
Answer: B
70) Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support
specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms?
A) top-executive searches
B) contingent-based searches
C) on-demand recruiting services
D) just-in-time recruiting services
Answer: C
71) What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services?
A) hourly rate
B) commission
C) percentage fee
D) signing bonus
Answer: A
72) Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level manager to oversee its finance division.
Qualified candidates can be difficult to find, so the business would most likely benefit from
using a(n) ________ to recruit potential candidates.
A) executive recruiter
B) temporary agency
C) Internet-based job site
D) alternate staffing recruiter
Answer: A
73) A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the
semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and
cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this
firm should consider using a(n) ________.
A) contingency-based recruiter
B) temporary staffing agency
C) outsourcing staffing service
D) on-demand recruiting service
Answer: D
74) Approximately what percentage of new college graduates are hired to fill externally filled
jobs that require a college degree?
A) 7%
B) 83%
C) 16%
D) 38%
Answer: D
75) Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters?
A) building relationships with college career centers
B) cutting future recruiting costs for the firm
C) developing a pool of temporary workers
D) attracting good candidates
Answer: D
76) In regards to on-campus recruiting, which of the following is most likely to help sell the
employer to the interviewee?
A) recruiter's professional attire
B) sincerity of the recruiter
C) emphasis on the job location
D) well-written job descriptions
Answer: B
77) Which of the following would be the best option for a business that needs to attract local
applicants for hourly jobs?
A) employee referral campaigns
B) on-demand recruiting services
C) college recruiting
D) walk-ins
Answer: D
78) What is an advantage of using employee referral campaigns?
A) Local, hourly workers can be recruited quickly.
B) Applicants have received realistic job previews.
C) Rewards and incentives are eliminated.
D) Applicants have community ties.
Answer: B
79) One type of workers is ________, who do all or most of their work remotely, often from
home, using information technology.
A) telecommuters
B) temps
C) walk-ins
D) recruiters
Answer: A
80) Which Web site is increasingly serving as a recruitment source for passive job candidates?
A) Career Builder
B) You Tube
C) LinkedIn
D) Monster
Answer: C
81) The dot-jobs domain is primarily used by HR managers for succession planning purposes.
Answer: FALSE
82) In most cases, job applicants view concise job advertisements as more attractive and credible
than lengthy ads with too many details about a job.
Answer: FALSE
83) Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency.
Answer: TRUE
84) The U.S. Department of Labor maintains a nationwide computerized job bank called the
National Job Bank.
Answer: TRUE
85) Due to EEO laws, firms are only allowed to use contingency workers for clerical or
maintenance positions; managerial staff must consist of full-time employees of the firm.
Answer: FALSE
86) Many firms use temporary hiring as a way to give prospective employees a trial run before
hiring them as full-time workers.
Answer: TRUE
87) In most cases, it is more cost effective for firms to hire contingent workers through a temp
agency than to hire comparable permanent employees.
Answer: FALSE
88) According to most employment laws, employees of temporary staffing firms that are
working in an employer's workplace are considered workers of both the temporary agency and
the employer.
Answer: TRUE
89) An in-house temporary employee is a highly skilled worker, such as an engineer or software
designer, who is supplied for long-term projects under contract from an outside technical
services firm.
Answer: FALSE
90) Offshoring means having outside vendors supply services that a firm's own employees
previously did in-house, while outsourcing means having overseas outside vendors provide
services once performed in-house.
Answer: FALSE
91) Retained executive recruiters are paid whether or not they eventually fill the client's vacant
position.
Answer: TRUE
92) The fees associated with both retained and contingent executive recruiters are increasing as
firms struggle to find qualified candidates.
Answer: FALSE
98) The fastest growing labor force segment in the United States over the next few years will be
those from ________ years old.
A) 23-29
B) 30-44
C) 45-64
D) 65+
Answer: C
99) Which of the following motivates most employees over 65 to work?
A) overtime payments
B) schedule flexibility
C) supportive work environments
D) additional sick days
Answer: B
100) Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which of the following
methods is LEAST likely to be successful for Smith Industries?
A) offering flexible work schedules
B) providing flexible benefits plans
C) utilizing executive recruiters
D) collaborating with professional organizations
Answer: C
101) Older workers usually have higher absenteeism rates compared to younger workers due to
illness.
Answer: FALSE
102) A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and
graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant's age.
Answer: TRUE
103) According to EEO law, it is legal to ask job applicants if they have ever received workers'
compensation.
Answer: FALSE
104) To prevent the appearance of discriminatory hiring practices, firms are advised to avoid
asking job applicants on an application form whether they own or rent a house.
Answer: TRUE
105) Video résumés eliminate the possibility of applicants claiming discrimination in a firm's
hiring practices.
Answer: FALSE
106) Firms can predict job performance and employee tenure by analyzing job application
information, such as travel experience and education level.
Answer: TRUE
107) When firms prove that they will use the information on job application forms as a predictor
of job performance, they are allowed under EEO laws to request information regarding an
applicant's age and marital status.
Answer: FALSE
109) Which of the following is information that should NOT be requested on application forms?
A) experience
B) technical skills
C) marital status
D) training
Answer: C
110) Which of the following is most likely a true statement about mandatory alternative dispute
resolution agreements?
A) Most federal courts have found the documents unenforceable.
B) Judicial appeals and reconsideration are available if legal errors occur.
C) Employees absorb most of the costs associated with the arbitration process.
D) Job applicants are typically more interested in firms that require arbitration.
Answer: B
Chapter 6
26. (p. 158) The process through which organizations make decisions about who will or will not
be allowed to join the organization is referred to as ___.
A. recruitment
B. job analysis
C. career development
D. needs analysis
E. personnel selection
Through personnel selection, organizations make decisions about who will or will not be
allowed to join the organization.
27. (p. 158) For most companies, the first step in the personnel selection process is:
A. verification of the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.
B. determining the best recruitment source.
C. screening the applications to see who meet the basic requirements for the job.
D. administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities.
E. inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews.
The process of selecting employees varies considerably from organization to organization and
from job to job. At most organizations, however, first, a human resource professional reviews
the applications received to see which meet the basic requirements of the job
28. (p. 158) At which stage in the selection process are supervisors and team members often
involved?
A. Administering tests
B. Receiving résumés from various sources
C. Screening applications
D. Reference and background checks
E. Interviewing candidates
Candidates with the best abilities are invited to the organization for one or more interviews.
Often, supervisors and team members are involved in this stage of the process.
29. (p. 160) The _____ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from
random error.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. verifiability
The reliability of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random
error. A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results.
30. (p. 160) What does a correlation coefficient of 0 indicate?
A. A perfect positive relationship
B. A perfect negative relationship
C. A partial correlation
D. No correlation
E. An indefinite correlation
Correlation coefficients measure the degree to which two sets of numbers are related. At one
extreme, a correlation coefficient of 1.0 means a perfect positive relationship—as one set of
numbers goes up, so does the other. At the other extreme, a correlation of -1.0 means a perfect
negative correlation—when one set of numbers goes up, the other goes down. In the middle, a
correlation of 0 means there is no correlation at all.
31. (p. 160) A correlation coefficient of -1.0 between two sets of numbers indicates:
A. a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets.
B. that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set.
C. that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down.
D. a partial correlation between the two sets.
E. an indefinite relationship between the two sets.
Correlation coefficients measure the degree to which two sets of numbers are related. At one
extreme, a correlation coefficient of 1.0 means a perfect positive relationship—as one set of
numbers goes up, so does the other. At the other extreme, a correlation of -1.0 means a perfect
negative correlation—when one set of numbers goes up, the other goes down
32. (p. 160) A reliable test would be one for which scores by people with _____ attributes have a
correlation close to ___.
A. different; 1.0
B. similar; 0
C. similar; 1.0
D. different; -1.0
E. different; 0
A reliable test would be one for which scores by the same person (or people with similar
attributes) have a correlation close to 1.0.
33. (p. 160) The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which test scores
relate to actual job performance.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. dependability
For a selection measure, validity describes the extent to which performance on the measure
(such as a test score) is related to what the measure is designed to assess (such as job
performance).
34. (p. 160) The federal government's Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
accept three ways of measuring validity: criterion-related, content, and _____ validity.
A. concept
B. standard
C. generalizable
D. construct
E. parallel
The federal government's Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures accept three
ways of measuring validity: criterion-related, content, and construct validity.
35. (p. 160) _____ validity is a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation
between test scores and job performance scores.
A. Criterion-related
B. Discriminant
C. Content
D. Convergent
E. Construct
Criterion-related validity is a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation
between test scores and job performance scores.
36. (p. 161) Predictive validation:
A. is the least effective method of measuring validity.
B. uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and
future performance.
C. involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their scores
to existing measures of job performance.
D. is quick and easy compared to other ways of measuring validity.
E. is usually conducted on the basis of expert judgment.
Predictive validation involves using the test scores of all applicants and looking for a
relationship between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests,
waits a set period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were
hired.
37. (p. 161) Predictive validation is more accurate than concurrent validation because:
A. the research administers tests to people who currently hold the job.
B. test performance is influenced by firsthand experience with the job.
C. the group is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test.
D. it is less time-consuming and relatively simple.
E. test takers tend to be less motivated to do well on the tests.
Predictive validation involves using the test scores of all applicants and looking for a
relationship between the scores and future performance. Thus, the group studied in this
method is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test—a necessary
ingredient to accurately validate a test.
38. (p. 161) To test the validity of your selection device for widget makers, you have given it to
the present widget makers in your company and correlated it with their latest performance
appraisal scores. What type of validation have you used?
A. Predictive
B. Concurrent
C. Content
D. Construct
E. Discriminant
Concurrent validation research administers a test to people who currently hold a job and then
compares their scores to existing measures of job performance. If the people who score
highest on the test also do better on the job, the test is assumed to be valid.
39. (p. 161) You want to establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a
predictive criterion-related validation strategy. To do so, you must administer the test to:
A. at least half your present computer technicians.
B. people doing similar jobs in other companies.
C. people applying for computer technician jobs in your company.
D. only current computer technicians who are performing at acceptable levels.
E. a random selection of computer technicians currently employed with the organization.
Predictive validation research uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship
between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set
period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were hired
40. (p. 161) A construction firm is in need of a construction superintendent, whose primary
responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several
subcontractors. The firm administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant
enters a shed that has been specially constructed to have 25 common and expensive errors and
where he/she is asked to record as many of these problems as can be detected. What type of
validation is being used?
A. Concurrent
B. Construct
C. Content
D. Generalizable
E. Predictive
Content validity is the consistency between the test items and the kinds of situations that
occur on the job. A test that is "content valid" exposes the job applicant to situations that are
likely to occur on the job. It tests whether the applicant has the knowledge, skills, or ability to
handle such situations.
41. (p. 162) Content validity:
A. is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.
B. is measured statistically.
C. is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D. is based on objective methods.
E. is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
The usual basis for deciding that a test has content validity is through expert judgment. For
this reason, content validity is most suitable for measuring behavior that is concrete and
observable
42. (p. 162) For tests that measure abstract qualities like intelligence or leadership skills, validity
would best be established by:
A. criterion-related validation.
B. content validation.
C. concurrent validation.
D. construct validation.
E. predictive validation.
For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership ability,
establishment of validity may have to rely on construct validity. This involves establishing
that tests really do measure intelligence, leadership ability, or other such "constructs," as well
as showing that mastery of this construct is associated with successful performance of the job.
43. (p. 162) A selection method that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was
developed is said to be:
A. reliable.
B. generalizable.
C. practical.
D. utilitarian.
E. dependable.
A generalizable method applies not only to the conditions in which the method was originally
developed—job, organization, people, time period, and so on. It also applies to other
organizations, jobs, applicants, and so on. In other words, a generalizable method is a
selection method that was valid in one context and is also valid in other contexts
Jobs
44. (p. 162) You, as HR manager of a company, want to know if a certain test of cognitive ability
in use in the industry can be successfully used in your organization. In other words, you want
to know if this test is a _____ method of personnel selection.
A. reliable
B. dependable
C. practical
D. generalizable
E. utilitarian
A generalizable method applies not only to the conditions in which the method was originally
developed—job, organization, people, time period, and so on. It also applies to other
organizations, jobs, applicants, and so on. In other words, a generalizable method is a
selection method that was valid in one context and is also valid in other contexts.
45. (p. 162) Methods that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to
have ___.
A. reliability
B. utility
C. validity
D. generalizability
E. dependability
Methods that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have
utility.
46. (p. 163) The use of a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is:
A. legal if the discrimination is unintentional.
B. legal if good performance includes "brand image" as a justification for adverse impact.
C. legal if the employer can show that there is a business necessity for using that method.
D. illegal and prohibited under all circumstances.
E. legal if good performance includes "customer preference" as a justification for adverse
impact.
According to the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of
1967, an employer that uses a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected
group is obligated to show that there is a business necessity for using that method.
47. (p. 163) Which act prohibits preferential treatment in favor of minority groups?
A. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991
B. The Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986
C. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
E. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 prohibits preferential treatment in favor of minority groups. In
the case of an organization using a test that tends to reject members of minority groups, the
organization may not simply adjust minority applicants' scores upward. Such practices can
create an environment that is demotivating to all employees and can lead to government
sanctions
48. (p. 163) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991:
A. pre employment questions may investigate disabilities.
B. an interviewer may not ask, "Can you meet the attendance requirements for this job?"
C. an interviewer may ask, "How many days did you miss work last year because you were
sick?"
D. the employer may use employment physical exams or other tests that could reveal a
psychological or physical disability for hiring decisions.
E. employers are required to make "reasonable accommodation" to disabled individuals.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991 requires employers to make "reasonable
accommodation" to disabled individuals and restricts many kinds of questions during the
selection process.
49. (p. 163-164) Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and
interviews?
A. How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B. Are you a citizen of the United States?
C. What religious holidays do you observe?
D. When did you attend high school?
E. Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process?
Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may
gather on application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that
gather information about a person's protected status, even indirectly
50. (p. 163-164) Which of the following is an impermissible question for job applications and
interviews?
A. What is your full name?
B. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
C. What was your major in college?
D. What is your height?
E. Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?
Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may
gather on application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that
gather information about a person's protected status, even indirectly.
51. (p. 165) Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers:
A. must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United
States.
B. must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain
the documents for at least 30 days after hiring the applicant.
C. may pay lower wages to the immigrant workers without any legal documents.
D. must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.
E. are allowed to discriminate against persons on the basis of citizenship status.
Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers must verify and maintain
records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States by having applicants fill
out the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services' Form I-9 and present documents showing
their identity and eligibility to work
52. (p. 166) Employers use application forms for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that:
A. they are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.
B. they ensure that the organization has certain standard categories of information.
C. they are not subject to equal employment opportunity standards.
D. they allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants.
E. they enable organizations to rank applicants.
The application form should not request information that could violate equal employment
opportunity standards. For example, questions about an applicant's race, marital status, or
number of children would be inappropriate.
53. (p. 166) Which of the following may an application form include to gather information about
suitable candidates?
A. Marital status
B. History of disabilities
C. Number of children
D. Educational background
E. Applicant's race
Employment applications include areas for applicants to provide several types of information:
contact information, work experience, educational background, and applicant's signature.
Questions about an applicant's race, marital status, or number of children would be
inappropriate.
54. (p. 166-168) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using résumés as a source of
information about job applicants?
A. It is a relatively expensive source of information.
B. It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.
C. Its use is strictly regulated by the EEOC.
D. It is associated with an increased risk of defamation lawsuits.
E. The information contained in it may not be accurate.
An obvious drawback of this information source is that applicants control the content of the
information, as well as the way it is presented. This type of information is therefore biased in
favor of the applicant and may not even be accurate.
55. (p. 168) Organizations typically use résumés:
A. as substitutes for interviews.
B. as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further.
C. to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job.
D. since they can control the content of the information, as well as the way it is presented.
E. because they are generally an unbiased source of information.
An obvious drawback of a résumé is that applicants control the content of the information, as
well as the way it is presented. This type of information is therefore biased in favor of the
applicant and (although this is unethical) may not even be accurate. Organizations typically
use résumés as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further.
56. (p. 168) Review of résumés is most valid when the content is evaluated in terms of:
A. the elements of a job description.
B. comparison with other applicants' qualifications.
C. the incumbent's qualifications.
D. the incumbent's marital status.
E. the elements of a job specification.
Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the
elements of a job description.
57. (p. 168) Generally, the organization checks references:
A. only if it believes the information provided by the applicant is "suspect."
B. immediately after the applicant submits a résumé.
C. after it has determined that the applicant is a finalist for the job.
D. because it is a legal requirement under EEO laws.
E. of all applicants to a job.
Usually the organization checks references after it has determined that the applicant is a
finalist for the job
58. (p. 168) If a person who is included as a reference by a job candidate gives negative
information, there is a chance the candidate will claim ___, meaning the person damaged the
applicant's reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful.
A. defamation
B. prevarication
C. omission
D. lack of validity
E. negligence
If the person who is a reference gives negative information, there is a chance the candidate
will claim defamation, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making
statements that cannot be proved truthful.
59. (p. 168) Should a former employer give a glowing statement about a candidate and the new
employer later learns of misconduct on the part of the employee during his/her previous
employment, the new employer may sue the former for:
A. lack of validity.
B. misrepresentation.
C. defamation.
D. negligent omission.
E. libel.
If the person who is a reference gives a glowing statement about a candidate, and the new
employer later learns of misdeeds such as sexual misconduct or workplace violence, the new
employer might sue the former employer for misrepresentation.
60. (p. 168) Organizations or individuals acting as references for job applicants risk being sued
for defamation or misrepresentation. Which of the following is one of the ways in which they
can to minimize such risks?
A. By giving as much information as possible.
B. By saying only good things about a candidate.
C. By only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors.
D. By giving only broad opinions.
E. By leaving out employment dates and the employee's final salary.
In order to minimize the risks associated with providing information about job candidates,
most organizations have policies that the HR department will handle all requests for
references and that they will only verify employment dates and sometimes the employee's
final salary. In organizations without such a policy, HR professionals should be careful—and
train managers to be careful—to stick to observable, job-related behaviors and to avoid broad
opinions that may be misinterpreted.
61. (p. 169) In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if the
employer:
A. contacts many references.
B. relies exclusively on the list provided by the applicant.
C. avoids direct contact with the reference.
D. checks a maximum of two references.
E. approaches the references through their legal department.
In general, the results of reference checking will be most valid if the employer contacts many
references (if possible, going beyond the list of names provided by the applicant) and speaks
with them directly by phone
62. (p. 169) A recent investigation into the amount of false information on résumés found that it
spiked in 2007. Part of this increase is attributed to:
A. the recent recession.
B. the fact that few employers conduct criminal background checks.
C. employers catching more of this behavior by looking up information on the Internet.
D. the Internet providing better protection to candidates.
E. federal law banning credit checks.
A recent investigation into the amount of false information on résumés found that it spiked in
2007. Part of the increase came from more efforts to exaggerate or misrepresent facts; but in
addition, employers were catching more of this behavior simply by looking up information
with Internet search engines like Google.
63. (p. 170) Which of the following tests assesses how well a person can acquire skills and
abilities?
A. Personality inventories
B. Cognitive ability
C. Achievement
D. Aptitude
E. Physical ability tests
Aptitude tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities.
64. (p. 170) Achievement tests measure:

A. how well a person can learn skills.
B. a person's existing knowledge and skills.
C. how well a person can acquire abilities.
D. the future achievement potential of an individual.
E. the aptitude of an individual.
Achievement tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills
65. (p. 170) How does the use of physical ability tests make the organization vulnerable to
charges of discrimination?
A. Absence of required physical ability would create safety hazards for the employees.
B. The tests measure candidates' psychomotor abilities, which is not permissible under law.
C. The tests gather candidates' private information which is illegal.
D. The tests tend to exclude women and people with disabilities.
E. The organization may want to generalize the results of a test for one job to candidates for
other jobs.
Although physical ability tests can accurately predict success at certain kinds of jobs, they
also tend to exclude women and people with disabilities. As a result, use of physical ability
tests can make the organization vulnerable to charges of discrimination.
66. (p. 171) Cognitive ability tests:

A. are especially valid for complex jobs and those requiring adaptability.
B. measure personality traits such as extroversion and adjustment.
C. measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.
D. tend to be valid but are not always generalizable.
E. are especially valid for simple jobs.
Cognitive ability tests —sometimes called "intelligence tests"—are designed to measure such
mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability. The tests are
especially valid for complex jobs and for those requiring adaptability in changing
circumstances
67. (p. 171) Which of the following is a concern relating to the use of cognitive ability tests?
A. Lack of validity of the tests
B. Lack of reliability of commercially available tests
C. Legal issues
D. Lack of generalizability of the tests
E. Relatively high cost
The evidence of validity, coupled with the relatively low cost of these tests, makes cognitive
ability tests appealing, except for one problem: concern about legal issues. These concerns
arise from a historical pattern in which use of the tests has had an adverse impact on African
Americans
68. (p. 171) What is race norming?

A. Treating a range of scores as being similar.
B. Establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
C. A legal quota system that protects interests of minority groups.
D. Basing selection decisions on a common norm for all races, regardless of impact.
E. Use of cognitive tests that have an adverse impact on African Americans.
Race norming means establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial
groups. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 forbids the use of race or sex norming
69. (p. 171) The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus
allows the employer to give preference to underrepresented groups within these "similar"
scores is known as:
A. banding.
B. race or sex norming.
C. generalizing.
D. rationalizing.
E. ethnic gloss.
The concept of banding treats a range of scores as being similar. All applicants within a range
of scores, or band, are treated as having the same score. Then within the set of "tied" scores,
employers give preference to underrepresented groups.
70. (p. 171) A typing test for an administrative assistant's job is an example of a(n):
A. job performance test.
B. perceptual accuracy test.
C. physical ability test.
D. mechanical test.
E. intelligence test.
Testing for job performance may involve a simulated work setting, perhaps in a testing center
or in a computerized "virtual" environment. Examples of job performance tests include tests
of keyboarding speed and in-basket tests.
71. (p. 171) An assessment center:
A. is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B. is relatively inexpensive.
C. uses multiple selection methods to rate managerial potential.
D. is a selection method generally used for clerical and secretarial positions.
E. has not proven to be high in validity.
An assessment center is a process whereby a wide variety of specific selection programs use
multiple selection methods to rate applicants or job incumbents on their management
potential.
72. (p. 171) The advantage of job performance tests is that:

A. they make applicants feel that the evaluation was fair.
B. they are commercially available.
C. the tests are highly generalizable.
D. the customization of tests for various jobs is inexpensive.
E. they are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.
Job performance tests have the advantage of giving applicants a chance to show what they can
do, which leads them to feel that the evaluation was fair.
73. (p. 171) In-basket tests are an example of _____ tests.
A. job performance
B. physical ability
C. honesty
D. personality
E. intelligence
Job performance testing may involve a simulated work setting, perhaps in a testing center or
in a computerized "virtual" environment. Examples of job performance tests include tests of
keyboarding speed and in-basket tests. An in-basket test measures the ability to juggle a
variety of demands, as in a manager's job.
74. (p. 172) One way that psychologists think about _____ is in terms of the "Big Five" traits:
extroversion, adjustment, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and inquisitiveness.
A. physical ability
B. cognitive ability
C. aptitude
D. personality
E. skills
One way that psychologists think about personality is in terms of the "Big Five" traits:
extroversion, adjustment, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and inquisitiveness.
75. (p. 173) Which of the following traits describe conscientiousness?
A. Sociable, gregarious, assertive, talkative
B. Dependable, organized, persevering, achievement-oriented
C. Courteous, trusting, good-natured, tolerant
D. Emotionally stable, non-depressed, secure, content
E. Curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, broad-minded
Conscientiousness is indicated in a person who is dependable, organized, persevering,
thorough, and achievement-oriented.
76. (p. 173) If you, as HR manager of an organization, were specifically looking for a person
with the personality trait of extroversion to fill a sales position, you would want someone who
was:
A. sociable, gregarious, assertive, and expressive.
B. emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, and content.
C. courteous, trusting, good-natured, tolerant, cooperative, and forgiving.
D. curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, and broad-minded.
E. submissive, dependable, organized, persevering, and thorough.
Extroversion is indicated in a person who is described as sociable, gregarious, assertive,
talkative, and expressive.
77. (p. 173) Which of the following tests is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants
and generally involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their
own experiences with theft?
A. Polygraph tests
B. Paper-and-pencil honesty tests
C. Fitness-for-duty tests
D. Personality inventory tests
E. In-basket tests
Paper-and-pencil honesty (or integrity) tests ask applicants directly about their attitudes
toward theft and their own experiences with theft. These were developed in response to the
passage of the Polygraph Act in 1998 banning the use of polygraphs for screening job
candidates.
78. (p. 173) Employers should ensure that their drug-testing programs conform to all of the
following guidelines EXCEPT that they:
A. be routinely administered to all technical and managerial functions across the
organization.
B. send the reports of the results to applicants along with information on how to appeal and
retest.
C. use drug testing for jobs that involve safety hazards.
D. be conducted in an environment that is not intrusive.
E. allow for strict confidentiality of results.
Drug tests should be systematically administered to all applicants for the same job.
79. (p. 174) Fitness-for-duty tests:

A. investigate the cause of any impairment in task performance.
B. are a type of personality test.
C. have been banned by the Polygraph Act.
D. are an alternative to drug-testing.
E. are used to test the honesty and integrity of candidates.
One way organizations can avoid some of the problems with drug testing is to replace those
tests with impairment testing of employees, also called fitness-for-duty testing. These testing
programs measure whether a worker is alert and mentally able to perform critical tasks at the
time of the test. The test does not investigate the cause of any impairment
80. (p. 174) Medical examinations of job candidates are ideally conducted:
A. when they are called for an interview.
B. upon the receipt of their résumés.
C. before testing and reviewing of work samples.
D. right at the start of the selection process.
E. after the candidate has been given a job offer.
To protect candidates' privacy and to control costs, medical examinations of candidates to a
job may not be given until the candidate has received a job offer. Many organizations make
selection decisions first and then conduct the exams to confirm that the employee can handle
the job, with any reasonable accommodations required.
81. (p. 174) Which type of interview allows the interviewer discretion in choosing the questions
to be asked and generally includes open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths,
weaknesses, career goals, and work experience?
A. Behavior description
B. Situational
C. Nondirective
D. Structured
E. Panel
In a nondirective interview, the interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. The
candidate's reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask. Nondirective interviews
typically include open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career
goals, and work experience
82. (p. 175) A structured interview:
A. typically includes open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, and
work experience.
B. gives results that have very low reliability.
C. establishes a set of questions for the interviewer to ask.
D. generally includes questions that are not related to job requirements.
E. gives the interviewer wide latitude.
In a structured interview, the interviewer is supposed to avoid asking questions that are not on
the list. Although interviewers may object to being restricted, the results may be more valid
and reliable than with a nondirective interview.
83. (p. 175) During an interview for a sales position, you are asked the following question:
"Suppose one of your clients refuses to speak to you after you lost one of his consignments;
what would you do to regain his business?" What type of structured interview format is being
used?
A. Behavior description
B. Situational
C. Nondirective
D. Flexible
E. In-basket
A situational interview is a structured interview in which the interviewer describes a situation
likely to arise on the job and asks the candidate what he/she would do in that situation.
84. (p. 175) A(n) _____ interview is a situational interview in which the interviewer asks the
candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past.
A. in-basket
B. fitness-for-duty
C. behavior description
D. nondirective
E. unstructured
A behavior description interview (BDI) is a situational interview in which the interviewer asks
the candidate to describe how he/she handled a type of situation in the past. Questions about
candidates' actual experiences tend to have the highest validity.
85. (p. 176) Which of the following is an advantage of using interviews as part of a personnel
selection process?
A. They are by far the most accurate method for making selection decisions.
B. They have high validity and reliability.
C. They are a relatively inexpensive means of making selection decisions.
D. They generally facilitate selection decisions that are free from bias against particular
groups.
E. They are a means to check the accuracy of the information on the applicant's résumé or job
application.
Interviews provide a means to check the accuracy of information on the applicant's résumé or
job application. Asking applicants to elaborate about their experiences and offer details
reduces the likelihood of a candidate being able to invent a work history. Research has shown
that interviews can be unreliable, low in validity, and biased against a number of different
groups. Interviews are also costly.
86. (p. 176) Interviewing effectiveness may be enhanced by:
A. keeping the emphasis on making subjective judgments.
B. keeping the interviews narrow, structured, and standardized.
C. limiting the use of panel interviews.
D. asking questions that measure abilities and skills.
E. focusing on accomplishing a wide range of goals.
Human resource staff should keep the interviews narrow, structured, and standardized. The
interview should focus on accomplishing a few goals, so that at the end of the interview, the
organization has ratings on several observable measures, such as ability to express ideas. The
interview should not try to measure abilities and skills that tests can measure better.
87. (p. 177) A well-planned interview should:
A. address subjective matters.
B. specifically measure the individual's skills.
C. focus on the job and the organization.
D. be unstructured and nondirective.
E. focus on measuring the individual's abilities.
A well-planned interview should be standardized, comfortable for the participants, and
focused on the job and the organization
88. (p. 178) What is a multiple-hurdle model of personnel selection?
A. A process in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low
score on another.
B. A process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage
of the selection process.
C. A selection process in which several members of the organization meet to interview each
candidate.
D. A testing program to measure whether a worker is alert and mentally able to perform
critical tasks at the time of the test.
E. A selection process which treats a range of scores as being similar and divides candidates
into groups based on the range into which they fall.
The multiple-hurdle model is the process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating
some candidates at each stage of the selection process.
89. (p. 178) The process of arriving at a selection decision in which a very high score on one
type of assessment can make up for a low score on another is termed the _____ model.
A. multiple-hurdle
B. norming
C. compensatory
D. multiple-cutoff
E. rationalization
A compensatory model of personnel selection is one in which a very high score on one type of
assessment can make up for a low score on another.
90. (p. 179) Which of the following information does NOT need to be included in a job offer?
A. Employment history of the candidate
B. Job responsibilities
C. Work schedule
D. Rate of pay
E. Details of mandatory physical exams
When a candidate has been selected, the organization should communicate the offer to the
candidate. The offer should include the job responsibilities, work schedule, rate of pay,
starting date, and other relevant details.
Chapter 7 Interviewing candidates MCQs
MCQ 1: The structured interview is also called

A. non directive interview
B. directive interview
C. both A and B
D. collaborative approach
MCQ 2: The unstructured interview is also called
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 3: An interview, candidates are being asked about relevant past
experiences, known as
A. situational interview
B. stress interview
C. behavioral test
D. job related interview
MCQ 4: An interview, in which you ask about a candidate's behavior in a
certain given situation is
B. situational test
C. behavioral tests
D. job related questions
MCQ 5: A group interviewer, questions are being asked from group of interviewee, considered
as
A. panel interview
B. mass interview
C. computer interview
D. personal interview
MCQ 6: In group interview, questions are being asked from interviewee,
known as
A. panel interview
B. mass interview
C. computer interview
D. none of above
MCQ 7: An interview in which the candidates are asked about relevant past
experiences is a
B. situational test
C. behavioral tests
MCQ 8: An interview in which, the candidate is asked about behavior in
past for given situation is
B. situational test
C. behavioral tests
MCQ 9: An interview, interviewer does not ask question as a set format,
called
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 10: Observing CV's of candidates for rating by order, considered as
A. candidate order error
B. candidate contrast error
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 11: A technique is used for obtaining information from person orally
and directly is called
A. Interviews
B. questionnaires
C. appraisal interview
D. none of above
MCQ 12: The interview in which interviewer writes questions and answers
before time is called
C. Both A and B
D. none of above
Human Resource Management, 15e (Dessler)

Chapter 7 Interviewing Candidates
1) Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool?
A) telephone reference
B) reference letter
C) interview
D) personality test
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Interviews are the most widely used selection procedure. Not all managers use
tests, reference checks, or situational tests, but most interview a person before hiring.
2) Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to predict future job performance based
on an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries?
A) work sample simulation
B) selection interview
C) reference check
D) arbitration
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A selection interview is a procedure designed to predict future job performance
based on applicant's oral responses to oral inquires.
3) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral
responses to oral inquiries, it is called a ________ interview.
A) screening
B) selection
C) benchmark
D) background
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Selection interviews are designed to predict future job performance based on
the applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries. Interviews may be one-on-one or may be
conducted in group settings.
4) According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors
EXCEPT ________.
A) administration
B) structure
C) content
D) length
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Selection interviews are classified according to how structured they are, their
"content"—the types of questions they contain, and how the firm administers the interviews.
Length is not a category.
5) What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time?
A) structured interview
B) unstructured interview
C) situational interview
D) behavioral interview
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Structured (or directive) interviews list the questions ahead of time and may
even list and weight possible answers for appropriateness.
6) Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview?

A) directive
B) nondirective
C) unformatted
D) administrative
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format.
A few questions might be specified in advance, but they're usually not, and there is seldom a
formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers.
7) Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job
candidates?
A) allows candidates to ask questions
B) uses a manager's time more effectively
C) pursues points of interest as they develop
D) scores and compares candidates with consistency
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format
and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. With unstructured
interviews, an interviewer can pursue points of interest as they develop and ask follow up
questions because of the format's flexibility.
8) Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the
employee selection process?
A) higher potential for bias
B) limited validity and reliability
C) inconsistency across candidates
D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Structured interviews when followed blindly limit the interviewer's chance to
ask follow-up questions. Structured interviews are typically reliable, valid, consistent, and have a
lower potential for bias. As a result, they have a greater ability to withstand legal challenges.
9) How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?

A) Situational interviews are based on an applicant's responses to actual past situations.
B) Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical
situation.
C) Situational interviews ask applicants job-related questions to assess their knowledge and
skills.
D) Behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical
situations.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Situational interviews ask applicants to describe how they would react to a
hypothetical situation today or tomorrow, and behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe
how they reacted to actual situations in the past.
10) Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral
interview?
A) "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn
the situation around?"
B) "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here, how would you go about
discouraging this behavior?"
C) "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of pressure. How do you think
you would handle the stress of the position?"
D) "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the company for discrimination?"
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Behavioral questions start with phrases like, "Can you think of a time when . . .
What did you do?" Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced
with the following situation . . . What would you do?"
11) What type of interview would most likely include the statement, "Tell me about a time when
you worked successfully in a team environment"?
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) puzzle
D) stress
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Behavioral interview questions ask applicants to describe how they reacted to
actual situations in the past.
12) Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational
interview?
A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation."
B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the
company.
What would you do?"
C) "Can you think of a time when you were especially proud of your management skills? Tell
me
about that."
D) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired
anyone before? Describe how you handled the situation."
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced with
the following situation . . . What would you do?" Behavioral questions start with phrases like,
"Can you think of a time when . . . What did you do?"
13) What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "Imagine that
you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client.
How would you proceed?"
A) behavioral
B) stress
C) puzzle
D) situational
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Situational interviews ask questions based on hypothetical events. Behavioral
interview questions ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past.
Puzzle questions require applicants to solve a problem, and stress questions may be invasive and
rude.
14) In a stress interview, the interviewer ________.

A) provides an applicant with a task to complete in a set amount of time
B) tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity
C) gives a word problem to see how the candidate thinks under pressure
D) describes a hypothetical situation to assess how the applicant responds
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable
with occasionally rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those
with low (or high) stress tolerance.
15) Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview?
A) "I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that
reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?"
B) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult
situation?"
C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much does
Mike have and how much does Todd have?"
D) "Why are you leaving your current position and changing careers?"
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable
16) What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave
a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"?
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) stress
D) puzzle
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable
with rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those with low (or
high) stress tolerance.
17) Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question
and rate one applicant?
A) serial interview
B) board interview
C) sequential interview
D) mass interview
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is an interview conducted
by a team of interviewers, who together interview each candidate and then combine their ratings
into a final panel score.
18) Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm.
He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager.
Finally,
he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview.
A) board
B) panel
C) serial
D) mass
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In a sequential or serial interview, several persons interview the applicant, in
sequence, one-on-one, and then make their hiring decision. Board or panel interviews involve
multiple interviewers questioning a candidate at the same time. With a mass interview, a panel
interviews several candidates simultaneously.
19) In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously.

A) formal
B) topical
C) panel
D) mass
Answer: D
Explanation: D) With a mass interview, a panel interviews several candidates simultaneously.
The panel poses a problem and then watches to see which candidate takes the lead in formulating
an answer.
20) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is
conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him
simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________
interview.
A) serial
B) panel
C) one-on-one
D) mass
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is an interview conducted
into a final panel score. This contrasts with the one-on-one interview (in which one interviewer
meets one candidate) and a serial interview (where several interviewers assess a single candidate
one-on-one, sequentially). A mass interview involves a panel interviewing several candidates
simultaneously.
21) An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________.
A) using an unstructured interview format
B) interviewing multiple candidates simultaneously
C) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers
D) requiring candidates to participate in work sampling techniques
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Structured panel interviews are more reliable and valid than unstructured ones.
Panel interviews in which members use scoring sheets with descriptive scoring examples for
sample answers are more reliable and valid than those that don't.
22) Ellen is interviewing along with several other talented candidates for a position as a
journalist at a newspaper. A team of interviewers will meet with all the candidates at once. The
team will pose problems to the candidates and see which candidate takes the lead in formulating
an answer. This is most likely an example of a ________ interview.
A) serial
B) board
C) mass
D) panel
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A mass interview involves a panel interviewing several candidates
simultaneously. A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is an interview conducted
into a final panel score.
23) With phone and tablet video functionalities FaceTimeTM and SkypeTM, Web-based "in-
person" interview use is widespread; In a recent year about ________ of candidates took such
interviews .
A) 2%
B) 7%
C) 18%
D) 45%
Answer: C
Explanation: C) With phone and tablet video functionalities and FaceTimeTM and SkypeTM,
Web-based "in-person" interview use widespread; about 18% of candidates took such interviews
in one recent year.
24) All of the following are common characteristics of computerized selection interviews
EXCEPT ________.
A) questions presented rapidly
B) response times measured for any delays
C) questions focused on experience and skills
D) essay questions based on hypothetical situations
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Most such interviews present a series of multiple-choice questions regarding
background, experience, education, skills, knowledge, and work attitudes.
25) Career FAQs lists things that interviewees should keep in mind when doing an online video
interview. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) clean up the room
B) use a new computer
C) do a dry run
D) look presentable
Answer: B
Explanation: B) As being prepared for an online video interview is important, using an
unfamiliar computer can lead to problems if the interviewee doesn't know its functions well. The
interviewee doesn't want technology to get in the way of a successful interview.
26) Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity?
A) structured, situational
B) unstructured, situational
C) structured, behavioral
D) unstructured, behavioral
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Structured interviews (particularly structured interviews using situational
questions) are more valid than unstructured interviews for predicting job performance.
Situational interviews yield a higher mean validity than do job-related or behavioral interviews,
which in turn yield a higher mean validity than do "psychological" interviews, which focus more
on motives and interests.
27) The primary purpose of conducting a stress interview is to determine ________.

A) why an applicant wants to work for the firm
B) how an applicant solves complex problems
C) why an applicant lied on the resume
D) how an applicant handles criticism
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Stress interviews may help unearth hypersensitive applicants who might
overreact to mild criticism with anger and abuse. Puzzle questions are used to determine how
applicants handle pressure.
28) Which of the following statements is most likely true?

A) Interpersonal skills are difficult to judge from phone interviews.
B) Phone interviews can generate spontaneous answers from candidates.
C) Candidates prefer phone interviews more than face-to-face interviews.
D) Interviewers usually judge candidates the same in phone and face-to-face interviews.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Candidates, who are often surprised by an unexpected call from the recruiter,
tend to give answers that are spontaneous. Phone interviews can actually be more accurate than
face-to-face interviews for judging an applicant's interpersonal skills. In a typical study,
interviewers tended to evaluate applicants more favorably in telephone versus face-to-face
interviews, particularly where the interviewees were less physically attractive. The applicants
themselves preferred face-to-face interviews.
29) Which of the following is a common characteristic of computerized interviews?

A) multiple-choice questions
B) puzzle questions
C) follow-up questions
D) open-ended questions
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Most computerized interviews present a series of multiple-choice questions
regarding background, experience, education, skills, knowledge, and work attitudes.
30) Which of the following most likely combines aspects of behavioral and situational
questioning?
A) computerized interviews
B) panel interviews
C) mass interviews
D) case interviews
Answer: D
Explanation: D) By having candidates explain how they would address the case "clients'"
problems, the case interview combines elements of behavioral and situational questioning to
provide a more realistic assessment of the candidate's consulting skills.
Difficulty: Easy
31) The primary purpose for conducting a case interview is to ________.

A) provide a candidate with a realistic job preview
B) form a realistic assessment of a candidate's skills
C) ensure that a candidate's needs are expressed
D) determine how a candidate handles criticism
Answer: B
Explanation: B) By having candidates explain how they would address the case "clients'"
problems, the case interview combines elements of behavioral and situational questioning to
provide a more realistic assessment of the candidate's consulting skills. Case interviews are less
likely to provide a realistic job preview, allow candidates to express their needs, or determine if a
candidate is hypersensitive.
32) The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The personal interview is the most widely used selection procedure. Not all HR
managers use tests or reference checks, but nearly all conduct personal interviews with job
candidates.
33) Nondirective interviews follow no set format so the interviewer can ask follow-up questions
and pursue points of interest as they develop.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: In unstructured (or nondirective) interviews, the manager follows no set format. A
few questions might be specified in advance, but they're usually not, and there is seldom a formal
guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers.
34) Non-structured interviews are preferred to directive interviews because they are more
reliable
and valid.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Structured interviews are known as directive interviews, and they are considered
more reliable than unstructured interviews.
35) Nondirective interviews can be described as little more than a general conversation.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Nondirective or unstructured interviews follow no format and are similar to a
general conversation.
36) All structured interviews specify acceptable answers for each question.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Some structured interviews may include possible answers with scores, but not in
all cases.
37) Behavioral interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react to a hypothetical
situation at some point in the future.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Situational interviews ask candidates to address hypothetical problems, while
behavioral interviews focus on how a candidate reacted in the past.
38) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with rude
questions.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable
39) The majority of selection interviews are one-on-one and sequential.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Most selection interviews are one-on-one and sequential. In a one-on-one
interview, two people meet alone. In a sequential (or serial) interview, several persons interview
the applicant, in sequence, one-on-one, and then make their hiring decision.
40) Studies suggest that interviewers tend to evaluate applicants less favorably in telephone
interviews than in face-to-face interviews.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: In a typical study, interviewers tended to evaluate applicants more favorably in
telephone versus face-to-face interviews, particularly where the interviewees were less
physically attractive. Telephone interviews can actually be more accurate than face-to-face
interviews for judging an applicant's conscientiousness, intelligence, and interpersonal skills.
41) A computerized selection interview presents a series of multiple-choice questions regarding

background, experience, education, skills, knowledge, and work attitudes.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Computerized selection interviews present a series of multiple-choice questions
regarding background, experience, education, skills, knowledge, and work attitudes.
42) Computer-aided interviews are primarily used to administer and score essay questions.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Multiple-choice questions are the typical format for computerized selection
interviews.
43) What three ways can selection interviews be classified? How does each classification affect
an interview?
Answer: Selection interviews can be classified according to 1) how structured they are, 2) their
content, and 3) how they are administered. Structure can range from unstructured to structured.
Content classifications are situational or behavioral. Examples include job-related interviews and
stress interviews. Interviews can be administered by one person or by a panel of interviewers.
Interviews may also be computer-administered.
44) In a brief essay, discuss the effect of modern communications technology on interviews.
Answer: More employers and job interviewees are using iPhone and Web cams to conduct job
interviews. Firms have long used the Web to do selection interviews (particularly the initial,
prescreening interviews), and with the widespread use of SkypeTM-type products, their use is
growing. Most firms do not eliminate face-to-face interviews, but the video interviews do reduce
travel and recruiting expenses, and make things easier for candidates. With employers cutting
their recruitment budgets, more are conducting at least the initial screening interviews over the
Internet.
45) Which of the following traits is most likely to be assessed accurately during an interview?
A) intelligence
B) agreeableness
C) conscientiousness
D) emotional stability
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Interviews are better for revealing some traits than others. Interviewers are able
to size up the interviewee's extroversion and agreeableness but not conscientiousness,
intelligence, and emotional stability.
46) According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job
interview?
A) thank-you notes sent from the candidate to the interviewer
B) an interviewer's first impression of the candidate
C) favorable information about the candidate
D) a candidate's extroverted personality
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Perhaps the most consistent research finding is that interviewers tend to jump to
conclusions—make snap judgments—about candidates during the first few minutes of the
interview or even before the interview starts, based on test scores or résumé data. Being
extroverted is not beneficial for all jobs, and unfavorable information is more influential than
favorable information about a candidate.
47) Which of the following refers to an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to
interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question?
A) context error
B) contrast error
C) recency error
D) primacy error
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Candidate-order or contrast error means that the order in which you see
applicants affects how you rate them. An interviewer is more likely to rate a candidate
incorrectly based on the candidates that are interviewed just before.
48) During an interview, Tanya discusses her numerous accomplishments at previous jobs and
praises the interviewer frequently. Tanya is most likely using ________.
A) impression management
B) talent management
C) mixed motives
D) behavior modification
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Psychologists call using techniques like ingratiation and self-promotion
"impression management." Self-promotion means promoting one's own skills and abilities to
create the impression of competency, and ingratiation involves praising and agreeing with the
interviewer.
49) When interviewing an applicant with a disability who uses assistive technology, which of the
following questions should NOT be asked?
A) Have you ever experienced any problems between your technology and an employer's
information system?
B) How have you addressed any barriers or obstacles that you may have encountered in previous
jobs?
C) What is the severity and exact nature of your disability and how does the technology assist
you?
D) What specific technology have you successfully used in previous jobs that facilitated your
work?
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, the interviewer must limit his or her
questions to whether the applicant has any physical or mental impairment that may interfere with
his or her ability to perform the job's essential tasks. An interviewer should not ask about the
severity or nature of an applicant's disability.
50) Which of the following terms refers to individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for
employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful
discriminatory hiring practices?
A) spies
B) moles
C) testers
D) insiders
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The use of employment discrimination "testers" makes nondiscriminatory
interviewing even more important. As defined by the EEOC, testers are "individuals who apply
for employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful
discriminatory hiring practices." Although they're not really seeking employment, testers have
legal standing with the courts and with the EEOC.
51) Which of the following best describes telegraphing during an interview?

A) drawing out the most useful information from an applicant
B) searching for hidden meanings in an applicant's answers
C) smiling at an applicant to suggest a desired answer
D) allowing an applicant to dominate an interview
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Some interviewers inadvertently telegraph the expected answers, as in: "This
job calls for handling a lot of stress. You can do that, can't you?" or using subtle cues (like a
smile or nod) to telegraph the desired answer.
52) Which of the following characteristics of an interview would most likely raise concerns
about interview discrimination?
A) job-related questions
B) multiple interviewers
C) subjective interview questions
D) standardized interview administration
Answer: C
Explanation: C) With charges of interview discrimination, courts will most likely assess whether
the interview process is structured and consistently applied. A structured and fair process
involves objective/job-related questions, standardized interview administration, and involves
multiple interviewers.
53) Which of the following applicant characteristics is LEAST likely to be assessed accurately
during a selection interview?
A) extroversion
B) agreeableness
C) job knowledge
D) conscientiousness
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Studies indicate that interviews are better for revealing some traits than others.
Interviewers are able to size up an interviewee's extroversion, knowledge, and agreeableness.
However, conscientiousness and emotional stability are difficult to assess.
54) Which of the following would most likely increase candidate-order errors?
A) applicant gender
B) recruiting pressure
C) poor first impression
D) lack of job knowledge
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Candidate-order error means that the order in which you see applicants affects
how you rate them. Pressure to hire accentuates this problem. Researchers told one group of
managers to assume they were behind in their recruiting quota. They told a second group they
were ahead of their quota. Those "behind" evaluated the same recruits much more highly than
did those "ahead."
55) First impressions created from a candidate's application forms or personal appearance rarely
affect interviewer ratings of candidates.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Interviewers tend to jump to conclusions—make snap judgments—about
candidates during the first few minutes of the interview. One researcher estimates that in 85% of
the cases, interviewers had made up their minds before the interview even began, based on first
impressions the interviewers gleaned from candidates' applications and personal appearance.
56) Candidates who make an initial bad impression on an interviewer are typically able to
reverse the situation if they close the interview in a strong manner.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Candidates who start with a poor first impression rarely change the opinion of the
interviewer.
57) Employers typically base decisions on false impressions and stereotypes when they fail to
clarify in advance what traits and knowledge are necessary for a specific job.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Interviewers who don't have an accurate picture of what the job entails and what
sort of candidate is best suited for it usually make their decisions based on incorrect impressions
or stereotypes of what a good applicant is. They then erroneously match interviewees with their
incorrect stereotypes.
58) Interviewers tend to rate candidates who promote themselves and use impression
management tactics more poorly on candidate-job fit.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Candidates often use ingratiation and other impression management tactics to
persuade interviewers to like them. Such methods of praising interviewers or appearing to agree
with their opinions lead interviewers to rate candidates more highly.
59) When interviewing disabled people, interviewers tend to avoid directly addressing the
disability, which limits an interviewer's opportunity to adequately determine whether or not a
candidate can perform the job.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Research shows that interviewers tend to avoid directly addressing a candidate's
disability, and therefore make their hiring decisions without getting all the facts.
60) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act an interviewer must limit his or her questions to
whether an applicant has any physical or mental impairment that may interfere with his or her
ability to perform the job's essential tasks.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Under the Americans with Disabilities Act the interviewer must limit his or her
questions to whether the applicant has any physical or mental impairment that may interfere with
his or her ability to perform the job's essential tasks.
61) The EEOC uses testers who apply for employment which they do not intend to accept for the
purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Testers are used by the EEOC to uncover employment discrimination. They do not
intend to accept employment.
62) Because EEOC testers are not really seeking employment, they do not have legal standing in
court to charge unlawful discriminatory hiring practices.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Testers of the EEOC have legal standing in the court system.
63) Research indicates that interviewers typically have negative reactions towards candidates
who are wheelchair-bound.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: In general, candidates evidencing various attributes and disabilities (such as being
wheelchair-bound) had less chance of obtaining a positive decision, even when the person
performed very well in the structured interview.
64) How can a firm protect itself from charges of discrimination in its interview process? What
is
the role of testers in employment discrimination?
Answer: It is best that employment interviewers refrain from asking questions regarding an
applicant's race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, or handicap. Even when it may not be
illegal (as in the case of age or marital status), the EEOC disapproves of such practices. In
addition, employers should ensure that the interview process is structured and consistently
applied. The interview should have objective, job-related questions and be administered in a
standardized format. There should be multiple interviewers. Employers can also reassure
candidates that the job interview process is fair, treat the interviewees with respect, and be
willing to explain the process and the rationale for the interview questions. Testers are used to
determine whether or not employment discrimination is occurring at a specific business. They
make nondiscriminatory interviewing practices even more important to employers. As defined
by
the EEOC, testers are "individuals who apply for employment which they do not intend to
accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices." Although
they're not really seeking employment, testers have legal standing with the courts and with the
EEOC.
65) How do nonverbal behaviors and impression management affect an interview?

Answer: An applicant's nonverbal behavior and use of impression management can have a large
impact on his or her rating. Interviewers tend to respond more positively to candidates showing
more extroverted behavior like good eye contact and high energy. Even smiling can affect
interviewer ratings of candidates. Interviewers infer the interviewee's personality from the way
he or she acts in the interview.
66) What are some common errors that managers make during interviews and what impact can
they have?
Answer: Potential interviewing errors to avoid include:
• First impressions (snap judgments)
• Not clarifying what the job involves and requires
• Candidate-order error and pressure to hire
• Nonverbal behavior and impression management
• The effects of interviewees' personal characteristics
• The interviewer's inadvertent behaviors page
67) What is the best way to avoid most interview errors?

A) conduct panel interviews
B) use a structured interviewing format
C) utilize computerized interviewing technology
D) ask only situational questions during the interview
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The single biggest rule for conducting effective selection interviews is to
structure the interview around job-relevant situational and behavioral questions. There is little
doubt that the structured situational interview—a series of job-relevant questions with
predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job—produces superior
results.
68) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a
mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand
the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing
department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional
funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured
situational interview in the hiring process.
Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that George should use a structured
situational interview to hire a media planner?
A) Great Toys' HR department has developed a job description for the new media planner
position.
B) Great Toys' competitors typically face legal issues in the hiring process stemming from the
ADA.
C) Great Toys' employees typically remain with the company for many years because they feel
comfortable with the organizational culture.
D) Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates and
that the best candidate is hired.
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Structured situational interviews produce superior results compared to other
interviewing methods. Job descriptions are necessary for the process, but they are useful for all
types of interviews.
69) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a
mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand
the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing
the department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the
additional
funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured
situational interview in the hiring process.
Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that George should use a structured
situational interview to hire a media planner?
A) The HR department prefers handling job evaluations without the assistance of managers.
B) George and the HR manager lack the time required to participate in a lengthy interview
process.
C) George worked as a media planner at another firm and is familiar with the tasks involved in
the job.
D) Great Toys has used headhunters in the past to fill executive-level positions at the firm.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Structured situational interviews produce superior results compared to other
interviewing methods. However, the process is very time consuming and involves many people,
so if George lacks the time, another interviewing option should be found.
70) A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all
applicants for a job is known as a ________.
A) nondirective situational interview
B) structured behavioral interview
C) nondirective behavioral interview
D) structured situational interview
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers
ask of all applicants for a job is known as a structured situational interview. People familiar with
the job develop questions based on the job's actual duties.
71) When developing a structured situational interview, the first step in the process is ________.
A) rating the job's main duties
B) creating interview questions
C) analyzing the job
D) creating benchmark answers
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The first step in developing a structured situational interview involves
analyzing the job. An individual should write a job description with a list of job duties, required
knowledge, skills, abilities, and other worker qualifications.
72) What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational
interview?
A) rate the job's main duties
B) create interview questions
C) create benchmark answers
D) appoint the interview panel
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Identifying the job's main duties is the second step of the process. To do so, an
the interviewer rates each job duty based on its importance to job success and on the time
required to perform it compared to other tasks.
73) In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address ________.
A) essential job duties
B) occupational benefits
C) salary requirements
D) personality issues
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Most questions for a structured situational interview should focus on essential
job duties. Questions may be situational, behavioral, job knowledge, or willingness questions.
74) After creating questions for a structured situational interview, ________ need to be
developed for scoring purposes.
A) grade definitions
B) alternative rankings
C) benchmark answers
D) human resource metrics
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Each question requires an ideal or benchmark answer for rating purposes.
Benchmark answers would likely include examples of a good, marginal, and poor answer.
75) Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situational interviews?
A) Answers are compared to industry standards.
B) Hypothetical questions are typically avoided.
C) Job descriptions are written after the interview.
D) Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Employers generally conduct structured situational interviews using a panel,
rather than one-on-one. Hypothetical questions are included, and job descriptions are written in
advance of the interview.
76) Which of the following is an example of a job knowledge question?
A) "What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who have a
past relationship with a company?"
B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company.
What would you do?"
C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much has
Mike and how much has Todd?"
D) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult
situation?"
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Job knowledge questions assess knowledge essential to job performance.
Behavioral questions ask candidates how they've handled similar situations.
77) How many interviewers usually make up a panel interview?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3-6
D) 8-10
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A panel interview, also known as a board interview, is conducted by a team of
three to six members during the interview.
78) What is the first step in conducting an effective interview?

A) knowing the job
B) developing relevant questions
C) establishing rapport with candidates
D) asking technical questions
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The first step in conducting an effective interview is knowing the job, which
can be done by studying the job description. Developing and asking questions and establishing
rapport are steps that occur later in the process.
79) In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about
their ________.
A) knowledge
B) lifelong goals
C) willingness
D) motivation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Use job knowledge, situational, or behavioral questions, and know enough
about the job to be able to evaluate the interviewee's answers. Questions that simply ask for
opinions and attitudes, goals and aspirations, and self-descriptions and self-evaluations allow
candidates to present themselves in an overly favorable manner.
80) Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all
candidates being interviewed?
A) responses improved
B) weaknesses revealed
C) reliability limited
D) bias reduced
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Using the same questions with all candidates reduces bias because of the
obvious fairness of giving all the candidates the exact same opportunity. Using the same
questions with all candidates improves reliability.
81) Which question below is an example of a situational question?

A) "Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question arose that
you could not answer. What would you do?"
B) "Based on your past work experience, what is the most significant action you have ever taken
to help out a coworker?"
C) "What work experiences, training, or other qualifications do you have for working in a
teamwork environment?"
D) "What factors should one consider when developing a television advertising campaign?"
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Situational questions pose hypothetical situations to the candidate. The other
questions focus on knowledge and past behaviors.
82) Which question below is an example of a behavioral question?

A) "Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?"
B) "What is your attitude about working with a sales team instead of independently?"
C) "What factors do you consider before underwriting an insurance policy for a new client?"
D) "What are your long-term goals and aspirations as a social worker?"
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Behavioral questions address the candidate's actual actions in the past, such as
how he or she handled a problem.
83) All of the following will most likely improve the structure of an interview EXCEPT
________.
A) using the same questions for all candidates
B) rating candidate answers against a scale
C) asking candidates to describe themselves
D) using a standardized interview form
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Asking all candidates the same job-related questions and rating them against a
scale improves the interview's structure. A standardized interview form also improves structure.
Questions asking candidates to describe themselves will not likely reveal weaknesses, and they
fail to improve the structure of the interview.
84) Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you
provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this?
A) background question
B) behavioral question
C) situational question
D) job knowledge question
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Behavioral questions ask about a candidate's past behavior.
85) Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer
database?" What type of question is this?
A) background question
B) past behavior question
C) situational question
D) job knowledge question
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Job knowledge questions assess knowledge essential to job performance.
Background questions address a candidate's experience and training.
86) All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT
________.
A) taking brief notes during the interview
B) scheduling a private room for the interview
C) showing courtesy and friendliness towards the candidate
D) asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Scheduling a private room, reviewing a candidate's qualifications, showing
courtesy, and taking notes are ways to conduct an effective interview. Candidates should be
asked open-ended rather than yes or no questions.
87) Which of the following is recommended advice for conducting an effective interview?
A) Telegraph the desired answer to the candidate.
B) Allow the candidate to control the interview.
C) Ask the candidate for specific examples.
D) Ask the candidate about work-related injuries.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Effective interviewers ask candidates for specific examples. It is inappropriate
to telegraph desired answers or ask about work-related injuries.
88) Which of the following best explains why most firms do not provide rejected applicants with
detailed explanations about the employment decision?
A) lack of technical abilities
B) adherence to federal laws
C) concerns about legal disputes
D) time required of line managers
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Most firms are concerned about the legal ramifications of providing rejected
applicants with too much information. Firms are reluctant to give rejected applicants information
that can be used to dispute the decision.
89) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community
has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built
as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent.
Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful
as she had hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job
candidates.
Which of the following best supports the argument that Marion should use structured interviews?
A) Marion likes applicants to evaluate themselves and to describe their goals.
B) Marion is viewed as a fair employer by most of her subordinates.
C) Marion lacks highly effective interviewing skills.
D) Marion's best agent has recently retired.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In structured interviews, all interviewers generally ask all applicants the same
questions, which helps less talented interviewers conduct better interviews. The opinion of
Marion's employees and recent retirements are less relevant.
as she had hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job
candidates.
Which of the following would most likely improve the reliability and validity of Marion's
selection process?
A) asking all applicants the same questions
B) holding Web-assisted interviews with candidates
C) conducting stress interviews by a group of interviewers
D) using the speed dating approach to interviewing applicants
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In structured interviews, all interviewers generally ask all applicants the same
questions. Partly because of this, these interviews tend to be more reliable and valid.
as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new
real estate agent.
Which of the following questions would be most relevant for Marion to ask if she wants an
employee with extensive knowledge in real estate?
A) How do you handle sellers who believe their home is more valuable than it really is?
B) What are the loan options you would suggest for first-time home buyers?
C) What is the most frustrating aspect of being a realtor?
D) What motivated you to become a real estate agent?
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Asking candidates what loan options are available for first-time buyers will
assess job knowledge. The other questions are less about knowledge and more about the
candidate's motivation and personality.
92) Which type of interview questions are most likely designed to probe an applicant's
motivation to meet the job's requirements through activities such as physical labor, customer
service, and frequent travel?
A) willingness
B) behavioral
C) personality
D) job knowledge
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Willingness questions gauge the applicant's willingness and motivation to meet
the job's requirements—to do repetitive physical work or to travel, for instance.
93) Antone is applying for a job with Boscom Manufacturing as a chemical engineer. During the
interview, Antone is asked the following question: "How does extreme heat affect hydrochloric
acid?" The interviewer is most likely trying to assess Antone's ________.
A) motivation
B) flexibility
C) knowledge
D) leadership
Answer: C
94) The following are interviewing errors to avoid EXCEPT ________.

A) asking prepared questions
B) first impressions
C) pressure to hire
D) not clarifying what the job involves
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Interviewing errors to avoid include first impressions, (snap judgments), not
clarifying what the job involves and requires, candidate-order error and pressure to hire,
nonverbal behavior and impression management.
95) A manager who begins an interview by asking the applicant about the weather is most likely
attempting to ________.
A) seek a spontaneous answer from the candidate
B) identify the candidate's leadership abilities
C) assess the candidate's interpersonal skills
D) put the candidate at ease
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The main reason for the interview is to find out about the applicant. To do this,
start by putting the person at ease. Greet the candidate and start the interview by asking a
noncontroversial question, perhaps about the weather or the traffic conditions that day.
96) Interviewers tend to be more influenced by unfavorable than favorable information about a
candidate.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Unfavorable information about a candidate usually influences interviewers more
than favorable information. Their impressions are much more likely to change from favorable to
unfavorable than from unfavorable to favorable.
97) A structured behavioral interview contains a series of hypothetical job-oriented questions

with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Structured situational interviews involve a series of job-relevant questions with
predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job.
98) When developing a structured situational interview, it is important that people familiar with
the job rate the job's main duties based on importance and time.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: People familiar with a job should rate each job duty based on its importance to job
success and on the time required to perform the duty.
99) Structured situational interviews contain situational questions, job knowledge questions, and
willingness questions but not behavioral questions.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Structured situational interviews contain situational questions, job knowledge
questions, willingness questions, and behavioral questions.
100) Willingness questions assess an applicant's ability to meet the job requirements.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Willingness questions gauge the applicant's willingness and motivation to meet the
job's requirements—to do repetitive physical work or to travel, for instance.
101) Companies generally conduct structured situational interviews using a panel, rather than
sequentially.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Employers generally conduct structured situational interviews using a panel, rather
than one-on-one. The panel usually consists of three to six members, preferably the same ones
who wrote the questions and answers.
102) Interviews can be made more effective if the interviewer studies the job description and
uses a standardized interview form.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Making sure the interviewer understands the job, structuring the interview, and
using standardized interview forms improve the effectiveness of an interview.
103) When rejecting a job candidate, it is best to refrain from providing an explanation detailing
the reason for the rejection because most candidates view an employer more positively when
they don't know the reason for the rejection.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: In one study, rejected candidates who received an explanation detailing why the
employer rejected them felt that the rejection process was fairer.
Chapter 6 bổ sung
MCQ 1: The validity test that focused on comparing test scores of already
existing employees to a measure of their job performance, is
A. concurrent validity
B. predictive validity
C. criterion validity
D. content validity
MCQ 2: In big five models, 'agreeableness' is the tendency to be
A. sociable
B. trusting
C. compliant
D. both b and c
MCQ 3: The first step in validating a test is to

A. analyze the job
B. choose the tests
C. administer the tests
D. Relate test scores
MCQ 4: In big five model, 'extraversion' is the tendency to be

A. assertive
B. unconventional
C. autonomous
D. achievement
MCQ 5: In big five model, 'conscientiousness' is the tendency to be
A. unconventional
B. assertive
C. achievement
D. autonomous
MCQ 6: A test, examinees respond to situations representing jobs, known as
A. situational test
B. reasoning test
C. video simulation test
D. job training
MCQ 7: The employees training and evaluating performance before actual

job is
A. situational test
B. reasoning test
D. miniature job training
MCQ 8: The comparison of people's interests with people in same

occupation is
A. interest inventory
B. HR applicant's inventory
C. management assessment center
D. all of above
MCQ 9: The second step in validating a test is

A. analyze the job
B. choose the tests
C. administer the tests
D. relate test scores
MCQ 10: The test in which PC-based situations and choices are given to
solve the situation is called
A. situational test
B. reasoning test
D. miniature job training
MCQ 11: The typical simulated tasks include
A. management games
B. leaderless group discussion
C. The in-basket
D. all of above
MCQ 12: The validity of structured interviews is

A. high
B. low
C. moderate
D. none of above
MCQ 13: The 'expectancy chart' is a graph to show relationship between

A. tasks performed and time utilized
B. test scores and job performance
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 14: The tests are classified on the basis of measurement of

A. mental abilities
B. personality and interests
C. physical abilities
D. all of above
MCQ 15: A test's validity can be demonstrated in

A. Two ways
B. Three ways
C. Four ways
D. Five ways
MCQ 16: The validity test for applicants for a specific job is called
A. concurrent validation
B. predictive validation
C. criterion validity
D. content validity
MCQ 17: The types of 'test validity' consist of
A. criterion validity
B. content validity
C. Score validity
D. Both A and B
MCQ 18: Measuring performance on basis of job tasks actually done is

called
A. sampling technique
B. work sampling technique
C. work sample
D. all of above
MCQ 19: Through test measuring for checking what we intended to know,
is
A. test validity
B. criterion validity
C. content validity
D. reliability
MCQ 20: In a big five models, 'openness to experience' is the tendency to be
A. imaginative
B. assertive
C. achievement
D. autonomous
MCQ 21: The consistency of obtained scores in a test is measured by
A. test validity
B. criterion validity
C. content validity
D. reliability
MCQ 22: A validity test that contains a fair sample of performed tasks in
actual job is called
A. criterion validity
B. content validity
C. Score validity
D. Both A and B
MCQ 23: Use of handwriting to determine the basic personality traits of
writer is known as
A. graphology
B. handwriting test
C. projective personality test
D. none of above
Chap 4 bổ sung
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. C 22. C
MCQ 1: Re-designing a business process, in getting more efficient and

effective results, known as
A. redesigning jobs of workers
B. assigning additional activities to workers
C. moving workers from one job to the other
D. reengineering
MCQ 2: The term 'job enlargement' means
A. redesigning jobs for workers
B. assigning additional activities for workers
D. none of above
MCQ 3: The term 'job enrichment' means
A. redesigning jobs for workers

D. reforming and analyzing the job
MCQ 4: The relationships section of job description defines whom would

you
A. supervise
B. report to
C. work with
D. all of above
MCQ 5: The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) for job analysis is
A. quantitative technique
B. qualitative technique
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 6: A list, consisting of job duties and responsibilities, part of
A. job descriptions
B. job analysis
C. job specifications
D. both A and C
MCQ 7: Determining the duties and characteristics of positions in staffing,known as

A. job descriptions
B. job analysis
D. both A and C
MCQ 8: An outline of chain of command and reporting relationships in the

form of chart, is stated in
A. organization chart
B. process chart
C. process management
D. production unit
MCQ 9: The workflow detailed picture is called
A. organization chart
B. process chart
C. process management
D. production unit
MCQ 10: Determining the type of people, which a company needs for job is
referred as
A. job descriptions
B. job analysis
D. both A and C
MCQ 11: Job analysis is must for employees

A. training
B. performance appraisal
C. compensations
D. all of above
MCQ 12: The competency-based-job-analysis means defining the job in

terms of
A. measureable competency
B. behavioral competency
C. observable competency
D. all of above
MCQ 13: The reporting relationships and working conditions related to a

job is stated in
A. job descriptions
B. job analysis
D. Both A and C
MCQ 14: While writing job description, the major functions or activities
are written in
A. job summary
B. responsibilities and duties
C. job identification
D. both b and c
MCQ 15: The personal qualities and traits required for job is stated in
A. job descriptions
B. job analysis
D. Both A and C
MCQ 16: A job enrichment is a way to
A. motivate employees
B. compensate employs
C. staffing new employees
D. all of above
MCQ 17: The 'job rotation' means
A. redesigning jobs of workers
D. none of above
MCQ 18: The example of 'general competency' related to job is included
A. strategic thinking
B. mathematical reasoning
C. reading and writing
D. both b and c
MCQ 19: Interviews can be

A. structured only
B. unstructured only
C. both structured and unstructured

D. none of above
MCQ 20: A job analysis consists of
A. job description
B. job specification
C. Both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 21: The job analysis information can be collected through
A. Interviews
B. Questionnaires
C. Both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 22: While writing job description, the 'job title' is written in the
section of
A. job summary
B. responsibilities and duties
C. job identification
D. both b and c

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Resource Management

MCQ 3: Assistance to top level management for strategic plans is provided by

MCQ 4: Centers of expertise provide special assistance in

A. updates regarding appraisal

D. long term strategic plan

MCQ 5: Assisting managers in HR functions of management, known as

B. First line supervisor

MCQ 6: Which factor does not involve in communication to employees

MCQ 7: Most of the time manager of 'Human Resource' department is

MCQ 8: Comparison of employees' actual performance with set standards is involved in

MCQ 10: The human capital refers to

A. education of firm's workers

B. training of firm's workers

C. skills and expertise of firm's workers

MCQ 11: The crucial functions for company's survival is managed by

MCQ 12: A company can create 'superior-subordinate' relationship through

MCQ 13: High performance work system leads to

A. superior employee performance

B. low labor costs

D. less employee turnover rate

A. prepare job description

B. integrate development activities

C. develop compensation plans

MCQ 18: In growing organization, the specialized staff is needed by

MCQ 19: The counseling and compensation of employees is the part of

MCQ 21: The distinct task of staff manager is to

A. Advise other employees

C. Issuing orders to others

MCQ 23: The coordination of personnel activities is a crucial part of

MCQ 25: A manager have line or staff authority is determined by

B. Name of person in charge

A. Assisting line manager

B. Implementing the policies

C. Directing the tasks of people

C. Appraising and Compensating Employees

A. Evidence based HRM

B. High performance work system

MCQ 29: The 'HR' manager must be familiar with

C. Marketing and finance

MCQ 30: The planning function of management process involves

MCQ 32: Changing and updating benefit plans is performed by

D. Both (a) and (c)

2) Which of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's

3) Which of the following includes five basic functions--planning, organizing, staffing,

standards and to develop rules and procedures?

8) Which function of the management process includes selecting employees, setting

10) ________ is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating

B) Human resource management

D) Organizational health and safety management

A) maintaining employee morale

C) training new employees

A) orienting and training new employees

B) appraising employee performance

C) building employee commitment

D) developing customer relationships

A) Technological changes and global competition require clear organization charts.

B) Sophisticated accounting controls are supported by human resource managers.

C) An enthusiastic labor force is likely to provide financial support to local unions.

A) establish effective manufacturing facilities

B) acquire and maintain human capital

C) use advanced accounting controls

D) attain adequate cash and credit

A) management over a small staff in a public firm