PRACTICE EXAM IN NURSING SET A

1. Nurse Michelle should know that the drainage is normal four (4) days after a sigmoid
colostomy when the stool is:

a. Green liquid
b. Solid formed
c. Loose, bloody
d. Semiformed

2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light for a male client with a right-sided brain
attack and left homonymous hemianopsia?

a. On the client’s right side

b. On the client’s left side
c. Directly in front of the client
d. Where the client like

3. A male client is admitted to the emergency department following an accident. What are
the first nursing actions of the nurse?

a. Check respiration, circulation, neurological response.

b. Align the spine, check pupils, and check for hemorrhage.
c. Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation.
d. Assess level of consciousness and circulation.

4. In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload
and relieves angina by:

a. Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate.

b. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate.
c. Decreasing contractility and oxygen consumption.
d. Decreasing venous return through vasodilation.

5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post-myocardial infarction (MI) slumped on the
side rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the nurse next
action?
a. Call for help and note the time.
b. Clear the airway
c. Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse.
d. Administer two quick blows.

6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recovering from gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse
should:

a. Plan care so the client can receive 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep each night.
b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.
c. Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals.
d. Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours.

7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) before admission, and has been receiving
heparin I.V. for 2 days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 68 seconds. What should
Nurse Carla do?

a. Stop the I.V. infusion of heparin and notify the physician.

b. Continue treatment as ordered.
c. Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT.
d. Increase the dosage, because the level is lower than normal.

8. A client underwent ileostomy, when should the drainage appliance be applied to the
stoma?

a. 24 hours later, when edema has subsided.

b. In the operating room.
c. After the ileostomy begin to function.
d. When the client is able to begin self-care procedures.

9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be important that the nurse immediately
position the client in:

a. On the side, to prevent obstruction of airway by tongue.

b. Flat on back.
c. On the back, with knees flexed 15 degrees.
d. Flat on the stomach, with the head turned to the side.

10. While monitoring a male client several hours after a motor vehicle accident, which
assessment data suggest increasing intracranial pressure?
a. Blood pressure is decreased from 160/90 to 110/70.
b. Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with an occasional skipped beat.
c. The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately.
d. The client refuses dinner because of anorexia.

11. Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms
may appear first?

a. Altered mental status and dehydration

b. Fever and chills
c. Hemoptysis and Dyspnea
d. Pleuritic chest pain and cough

12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following symptoms will be
exhibit?

a. Chest and lower back pain

b. Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis
c. Fever of more than 104°F (40°C) and nausea
d. Headache and photophobia

13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the emergency department. He’s tachypneic and
afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and has a nonproductive cough. He
recently had a cold. Form this history; the client may have which of the following
conditions?

a. Acute asthma
b. Bronchial pneumonia
c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
d. Emphysema

14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain. She is sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4
breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she might have which of the following
reactions?

a. Asthma attack
b. Respiratory arrest
c. Seizure
d. Wake up on his own
15. A 77-year-old male client is admitted for elective knee surgery. Physical examination
reveals shallow respirations but no sign of respiratory distress. Which of the following is a
normal physiologic change related to aging?

a. Increased elastic recoil of the lungs

b. Increased number of functional capillaries in the alveoli
c. Decreased residual volume
d. Decreased vital capacity

16. Nurse John is caring for a male client receiving lidocaine I.V. Which factor is the most
relevant to administration of this medication?

a. Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter.
b. Increase in systemic blood pressure.
c. Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor.
d. Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

17. Nurse Ron is caring for a male client taking an anticoagulant. The nurse should teach the
client to:

a. Report incidents of diarrhea.

b. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
c. Use a straight razor when shaving.
d. Take aspirin to pain relief.

18. Nurse Lynette is preparing a site for the insertion of an I.V. catheter. The nurse should
treat excess hair at the site by:

a. Leaving the hair intact

b. Shaving the area
c. Clipping the hair in the area
d. Removing the hair with a depilatory.

19. Nurse Michelle is caring for an elderly female with osteoporosis. When teaching the
client, the nurse should include information about which major complication:

a. Bone fracture
b. Loss of estrogen
c. Negative calcium balance
d. Dowager’s hump
20. Nurse Len is teaching a group of women to perform BSE. The nurse should explain that
the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:

a. Cancerous lumps
b. Areas of thickness or fullness
c. Changes from previous examinations.
d. Fibrocystic masses

21. When caring for a female client who is being treated for hyperthyroidism, it is important
to:

a. Provide extra blankets and clothing to keep the client warm.

b. Monitor the client for signs of restlessness, sweating, and excessive weight loss during thyroid
replacement therapy.
c. Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest.
d. Encourage the client to be active to prevent constipation.

22. Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk of
atherosclerosis, the nurse should encourage the client to:

a. Avoid focusing on his weight.

b. Increase his activity level.
c. Follow a regular diet.
d. Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle.

23. Nurse Greta is working on a surgical floor. Nurse Greta must logroll a client following a:

a. Laminectomy
b. Thoracotomy
c. Hemorrhoidectomy
d. Cystectomy.

24. A 55-year old client underwent cataract removal with intraocular lens implant. Nurse
Oliver is giving the client discharge instructions. These instructions should include which of
the following?

a. Avoid lifting objects weighing more than 5 lb (2.25 kg).

b. Lie on your abdomen when in bed
c. Keep rooms brightly lit.
d. Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist.
25. George should be taught about testicular examinations during:

a. when sexual activity starts

b. After age 69
c. After age 40
d. Before age 20.

26. A male client undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with
evisceration occurs. Nurse Trish first response is to:

a. Call the physician

b. Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound.
c. Take a blood pressure and pulse.
d. Pull the dehiscence closed.

27. Nurse Audrey is caring for a client who has suffered a severe cerebrovascular accident.
During routine assessment, the nurse notices Cheyne- Stokes respirations. Cheyne-stokes
respirations are:

a. A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic periods.

b. Rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath.
c. Rapid, deep breathing and irregular breathing without pauses.
d. Shallow breathing with an increased respiratory rate.

28. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heart failure. The breath sounds commonly
auscultated in clients with heart failure are:

a. Tracheal
b. Fine crackles
c. Coarse crackles
d. Friction rubs

29. The nurse is caring for Kenneth experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops
wheezing and breath sounds aren’t audible. The reason for this change is that:

a. The attack is over.

b. The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through.
c. The swelling has decreased.
d. Crackles have replaced wheezes.

30. Mike with epilepsy is having a seizure. During the active seizure phase, the nurse should:
a. Place the client on his back remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block.
b. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block.
c. Place the client o his back, remove dangerous objects, and hold down his arms.
d. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head.

31. After insertion of a chest tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive with
neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda
suspects a tension pneumothorax has occurred. What cause of tension pneumothorax
should the nurse check for?

a. Infection of the lung.

b. Kinked or obstructed chest tube
c. Excessive water in the water-seal chamber
d. Excessive chest tube drainage

32. Nurse Maureen is talking to a male client, the client begins choking on his lunch. He’s
coughing forcefully. The nurse should:

a. Stand him up and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver from behind.
b. Lay him down, straddle him, and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver.
c. Leave him to get assistance
d. Stay with him but not intervene at this time.

33. Nurse Ron is taking a health history of an 84 year old client. Which information will be
most useful to the nurse for planning care?

a. General health for the last 10 years.

b. Current health promotion activities.
c. Family history of diseases.
d. Marital status.

34. When performing oral care on a comatose client, Nurse Krina should:

a. Apply lemon glycerin to the client’s lips at least every 2 hours.

b. Brush the teeth with client lying supine.
c. Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered.
d. Clean the client’s mouth with hydrogen peroxide.

35. A 77-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of dehydration and change in
mental status. He’s being hydrated with L.V. fluids. When the nurse takes his vital signs, she
notes he has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C) a cough producing yellow sputum and pleuritic chest
pain. The nurse suspects this client may have which of the following conditions?

a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

b. Myocardial infarction (MI)
c. Pneumonia
d. Tuberculosis

36. Nurse Oliver is working in a out patient clinic. He has been alerted that there is an
outbreak of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clients entering the clinic today most
likely to have TB?

a. A 16-year-old female high school student

b. A 33-year-old daycare worker
c. A 43-year-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism
d. A 54-year-old businessman

37. Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is
aware that which of the following reasons this is done?

a. To confirm the diagnosis

b. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed
c. To determine the extent of lesions
d. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection

38. Kennedy with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a
decreased forced expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of
medication right away?

a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Bronchodilators
c. Inhaled steroids
d. Oral steroids

39. Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of
cigarettes per day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema and
cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following
conditions?
a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema

Situation: Francis, age 46 is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of Chronic Lymphocytic
Leukemia.

40. The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone marrow transplantation. Which
statement about bone marrow transplantation is not correct?

a. The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure

b. The aspirated bone marrow is mixed with heparin.
c. The aspiration site is the posterior or anterior iliac crest.
d. The recipient receives cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for 4 consecutive days before the
procedure.

41. After several days of admission, Francis becomes disoriented and complains of frequent
headaches. The nurse in-charge first action would be:

a. Call the physician

b. Document the patient’s status in his charts.
c. Prepare oxygen treatment
d. Raise the side rails

42. During routine care, Francis asks the nurse, “How can I be anemic if this disease causes
increased my white blood cell production?” The nurse in-charge best response would be
that the increased number of white blood cells (WBC) is:

a. Crowded red blood cells

b. Are not responsible for the anemia.
c. Uses nutrients from other cells
d. Have an abnormally short life span of cells.

43. Diagnostic assessment of Francis would probably not reveal:

a. Predominance of lymhoblasts
b. Leukocytosis
c. Abnormal blast cells in the bone marrow
d. Elevated thrombocyte counts
44. Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial occlusion of the left leg undergoes an
emergency embolectomy. Six hours later, the nurse isn’t able to obtain pulses in his left foot
using Doppler ultrasound. The nurse immediately notifies the physician, and asks her to
prepare the client for surgery. As the nurse enters the client’s room to prepare him, he
states that he won’t have any more surgery. Which of the following is the best initial
response by the nurse?

a. Explain the risks of not having the surgery

b. Notifying the physician immediately
c. Notifying the nursing supervisor
d. Recording the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes

45. During the endorsement, which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse assess
first?

a. The 58-year-old client who was admitted 2 days ago with heart failure, blood pressure of 126/76
mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute.
b. The 89-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure, blood pressure of 78/50 mm Hg,
and a “do not resuscitate” order
c. The 62-year-old client who was admitted 1 day ago with thrombophlebitis and is receiving L.V.
heparin
d. The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is
receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem)

46. Honey, a 23-year old client complains of substernal chest pain and states that her heart
feels like “it’s racing out of the chest”. She reports no history of cardiac disorders. The nurse
attaches her to a cardiac monitor and notes sinus tachycardia with a rate of
136beats/minutes. Breath sounds are clear and the respiratory rate is 26 breaths/minutes.
Which of the following drugs should the nurse question the client about using?

a. Barbiturates
b. Opioids
c. Cocaine
d. Benzodiazepines

47. A 51-year-old female client tells the nurse in-charge that she has found a painless lump
in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would
strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
a. Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass
b. Nonmobile mass with irregular edges
c. Mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated
d. Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes

48. A 35-year-old client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for
this type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?

a. Surgery
b. Chemotherapy
c. Radiation
d. Immunotherapy

49. Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion
according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification
mean?

a. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant
metastasis
b. Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis
c. Can’t assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis
d. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending
degrees of distant metastasis

50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how
to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?

a. “Keep the stoma uncovered.”

b. “Keep the stoma dry.”
c. “Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.”
d. “Keep the stoma moist.”

51. A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, “Which is the most common type
of cancer in women?” The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes
the most deaths in women?

a. Breast cancer
b. Lung cancer
c. Brain cancer
d. Colon and rectal cancer
52. Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner’s syndrome when the tumor invades the ribs
and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this
syndrome, the nurse should note:

a. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face.
b. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever.
c. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles, both on the affected side.
d. hoarseness and dysphagia.

53. Vic asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that it stands for:

a. prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer.

b. protein serum antigen, which is used to determine protein levels.
c. pneumococcal strep antigen, which is a bacteria that causes pneumonia.
d. Papanicolaou-specific antigen, which is used to screen for cervical cancer.

54. What is the most important postoperative instruction that nurse Kate must give a client
who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?

a. “Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns.”

b. “Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours.”
c. “Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine.”
d. “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.”

55. A male client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study
to confirm the diagnosis?

a. Stool Hematest
b. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
c. Sigmoidoscopy
d. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan

56. During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the Luz has
breast cancer?

a. Slight asymmetry of the breasts.

b. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin
c. Bloody discharge from the nipple
d. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle
57. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the
following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?

a. Liver
b. Colon
c. Reproductive tract
d. White blood cells (WBCs)

58. Nurse Mandy is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or
rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat
to the client?

a. The client lies still.

b. The client asks questions.
c. The client hears thumping sounds.
d. The client wears a watch and wedding band.

59. Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of the
following teaching points is correct?

a. Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect bone loss.
b. To avoid fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise.
c. The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods.
d. Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a calcium supplement.

60. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse reviews the assessment findings for
contraindications for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication?

a. Joint pain
b. Joint deformity
c. Joint flexion of less than 50%
d. Joint stiffness

61. Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is
characterized by urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and occurs
primarily in men over age 30?

a. Septic arthritis
b. Traumatic arthritis
c. Intermittent arthritis
d. Gouty arthritis

62. A heparin infusion at 1,500 unit/hour is ordered for a 64-year-old client with stroke in
evolution. The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution. How
many milliliters per hour should be given?

a. 15 ml/hour
b. 30 ml/hour
c. 45 ml/hour
d. 50 ml/hour

63. A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic right stroke; his left arm is swollen.
Which of the following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke?

a. Elbow contracture secondary to spasticity

b. Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return
c. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility of the ipsilateral side
d. Hypoalbuminemia due to protein escaping from an inflamed glomerulus

64. Heberden’s nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the following statement
is correct about this deformity?

a. It appears only in men

b. It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint
c. It appears on the proximal interphalangeal joint
d. It appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the interphalangeal joint.

65. Which of the following statements explains the main difference between rheumatoid
arthritis and osteoarthritis?

a. Osteoarthritis is gender-specific, rheumatoid arthritis isn’t

b. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic
c. Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease, rheumatoid arthritis is localized
d. Osteoarthritis has dislocations and subluxations, rheumatoid arthritis doesn’t

66. Mrs. Cruz uses a cane for assistance in walking. Which of the following statements is true
about a cane or other assistive devices?

a. A walker is a better choice than a cane.

b. The cane should be used on the affected side
c. The cane should be used on the unaffected side
d. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate without the cane

67. A male client with type 1 diabetes is scheduled to receive 30 U of 70/30 insulin. There is
no 70/30 insulin available. As a substitution, the nurse may give the client:

a. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH).

b. 21 U regular insulin and 9 U NPH.
c. 10 U regular insulin and 20 U NPH.
d. 20 U regular insulin and 10 U NPH.

68. Nurse Len should expect to administer which medication to a client with gout?

a. aspirin
b. furosemide (Lasix)
c. colchicines
d. calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)

69. Mr. Domingo with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary

hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by
excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Parathyroid

70. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the doctor orders bed rest, a wetto- dry
dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why
are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

a. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.

b. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
c. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
d. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

71. Nurse Zeny is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would
the nurse expect to find?

a. Hyperkalemia
b. Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hyperglycemia

72. A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic

hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

a. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered

b. Encouraging increased oral intake
c. Restricting fluids
d. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

73. A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to
control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness
of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:

a. urine glucose level.

b. fasting blood glucose level.
c. serum fructosamine level.
d. glycosylated hemoglobin level.

74. Nurse Trinity administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client
at 7 a.m. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be most at risk for a
hypoglycemic reaction?

a. 10:00 am
b. Noon
c. 4:00 pm
d. 10:00 pm

75. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?

a. Glucocorticoids and androgens

b. Catecholamines and epinephrine
c. Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines
d. Norepinephrine and epinephrine

76. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, Proserfina exhibits muscle twitching and
hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and
tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a lifethreatening electrolyte disturbance,
the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly
follows thyroid surgery?

a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypermagnesemia

77. Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and can’t be used as a
general indicator of cancer?

a. Acid phosphatase level

b. Serum calcitonin level
c. Alkaline phosphatase level
d. Carcinoembryonic antigen level

78. Francis with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment
findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?

a. Nights sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea

b. Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor
c. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia
d. Itching, rash, and jaundice

79. In teaching a female client who is HIV-positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know
more teaching is necessary when the client says:

a. The baby can get the virus from my placenta.”

b. “I’m planning on starting on birth control pills.”
c. “Not everyone who has the virus gives birth to a baby who has the virus.”
d. “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.”

80. When preparing Judy with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for discharge to
the home, the nurse should be sure to include which instruction?

a. “Put on disposable gloves before bathing.”

b. “Sterilize all plates and utensils in boiling water.”
c. “Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.”
d. “Avoid eating foods from serving dishes shared by other family members.”
81. Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set
of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?

a. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pulse pressure

b. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue
c. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain
d. Angina, double vision, and anorexia

82. After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse
Celestina suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do
first?

a. Page an anesthesiologist immediately and prepare to intubate the client.

b. Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary.
c. Administer the antidote for penicillin, as prescribed, and continue to monitor the client’s vital
signs.
d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and begin to infuse I.V. fluids as ordered.

83. Mr. Marquez with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce
inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions
to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:

a. weight gain.
b. fine motor tremors.
c. respiratory acidosis.
d. bilateral hearing loss.

84. A 23-year-old client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After
recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as
much as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When
teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is
provided by which type of white blood cell?

a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Monocyte
d. Lymphocyte

85. In an individual with Sjögren’s syndrome, nursing care should focus on:
a. moisture replacement.
b. electrolyte balance.
c. nutritional supplementation.
d. arrhythmia management.

86. During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, Mathew develops abdominal pain,
fever, and “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. It would be most important for the nurse to
advise the physician to order:

a. enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay (ELISA) test.

b. electrolyte panel and hemogram.
c. stool for Clostridium difficile test.
d. flat plate X-ray of the abdomen.

87. A male client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss
in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:

a. E-rosette immunofluorescence.
b. quantification of T-lymphocytes.
c. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
d. Western blot test with ELISA.

88. A complete blood count is commonly performed before a Joe goes into surgery. What
does this test seek to identify?

a. Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated by decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
levels
b. Low levels of urine constituents normally excreted in the urine
c. Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels
d. Electrolyte imbalance that could affect the blood’s ability to coagulate properly

89. While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation
(DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?

a. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time

b. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and white blood cell (WBC) count
c. Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels
d. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet count
90. When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted female client, Nurse Len should
remember that which of the following foods is a common allergen?

a. Bread
b. Carrots
c. Orange
d. Strawberries

91. Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following phone
calls should the nurse return first?

a. A client with hepatitis A who states, “My arms and legs are itching.”
b. A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in my right leg.”
c. A client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, “I am so nauseous that I can’t eat.”
d. A client with rheumatoid arthritis who states, “I am having trouble sleeping.”

92. Nurse Sarah is caring for clients on the surgical floor and has just received report from
the previous shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

a. A 35-year-old admitted three hours ago with a gunshot wound; 1.5 cm area of dark drainage
noted on the dressing.
b. A 43-year-old who had a mastectomy two days ago; 23 ml of serosanguinous fluid noted in the
Jackson-Pratt drain.
c. A 59-year-old with a collapsed lung due to an accident; no drainage noted in the previous eight
hours.
d. A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago; client complaints of
chills.

93. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy 12 hours ago for treatment of
Grave’s disease. The nurse would be most concerned if which of the following was
observed?

a. Blood pressure 138/82, respirations 16, oral temperature 99 degrees Fahrenheit.

b. The client supports his head and neck when turning his head to the right.
c. The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is obtained.
d. The client is drowsy and complains of sore throat.

94. Julius is admitted with complaints of severe pain in the lower right quadrant of the
abdomen. To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions?
a. Encourage the client to change positions frequently in bed.
b. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q 4 hours and PRN.
c. Apply warmth to the abdomen with a heating pad.
d. Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.

95. Nurse Tina prepares a client for peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?

a. Assess for a bruit and a thrill.

b. Warm the dialysate solution.
c. Position the client on the left side.
d. Insert a Foley catheter

96. Nurse Jannah teaches an elderly client with right-sided weakness how to use cane.
Which of the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client to the nurse, indicates that
the teaching was effective?

a. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the can forward followed by the right leg,
and then moves the left leg.
b. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the cane forward followed by his left leg,
and then moves the right leg.
c. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by the right leg,
and then moves the left leg.
d. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by his left leg,
and then moves the right leg.

97. An elderly client is admitted to the nursing home setting. The client is occasionally
confused and her gait is often unsteady. Which of the following actions, if taken by the
nurse, is most appropriate?

a. Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos or mementos.
b. Select a room with a bed by the door so the woman can look down the hall.
c. Suggest the woman eat her meals in the room with her roommate.
d. Encourage the woman to ambulate in the halls twice a day.

98. Nurse Evangeline teaches an elderly client how to use a standard aluminum walker.
Which of the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client, indicates that the nurse’s
teaching was effective?
a. The client slowly pushes the walker forward 12 inches, then takes small steps forward while
leaning on the walker.
b. The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes several small steps
forward.
c. The client supports his weight on the walker while advancing it forward, then takes small steps
while balancing on the walker.
d. The client slides the walker 18 inches forward, then takes small steps while holding onto the
walker for balance.

99. Nurse Derek is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting. The
nurse knows that the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation for what
reason?

a. Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications.

b. Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities.
c. Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings.
d. Decrease musculoskeletal function and mobility.

100. A male client with emphysema becomes restless and confused. What step should nurse
Jasmine take next?

a. Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing.

b. Check the client’s temperature.
c. Assess the client’s potassium level.
d. Increase the client’s oxygen flow rate.
Answers & Rationale

1. Answer: (C) Loose, bloody

Normal bowel function and soft-formed stool usually do not occur until around the seventh day
following surgery. The stool consistency is related to how much water is being absorbed.

2. Answer: (A) On the client’s right side

The client has left visual field blindness. The client will see only from the right side.

3. Answer: (C) Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation

Checking the airway would be priority, and a neck injury should be suspected.

4. Answer: (D) Decreasing venous return through vasodilation.

The significant effect of nitroglycerin is vasodilation and decreased venous return, so the heart
does not have to work hard.

5. Answer: (A) Call for help and note the time.

Having established, by stimulating the client, that the client is unconscious rather than sleep, the
nurse should immediately call for help. This may be done by dialing the operator from the client’s
phone and giving the hospital code for cardiac arrest and the client’s room number to the
operator, of if the phone is not available, by pulling the emergency call button. Noting the time is
important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure.

6. Answer: (C) Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals.
Food and drug therapy will prevent the accumulation of hydrochloric acid, or will neutralize and
buffer the acid that does accumulate.
7. Answer: (B) Continue treatment as ordered.
The effects of heparin are monitored by the PTT is normally 30 to 45 seconds; the therapeutic
level is 1.5 to 2 times the normal level.

8. Answer: (B) In the operating room.

The stoma drainage bag is applied in the operating room. Drainage from the ileostomy contains
secretions that are rich in digestive enzymes and highly irritating to the skin. Protection of the
skin from the effects of these enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposed to these enzymes even for a
short time becomes reddened, painful, and excoriated.

9. Answer: (B) Flat on back.

To avoid the complication of a painful spinal headache that can last for several days, the client is
kept in flat in a supine position for approximately 4 to 12 hours postoperatively. Headaches are
believed to be caused by the seepage of cerebrospinal fluid from the puncture site. By keeping
the client flat, cerebral spinal fluid pressures are equalized, which avoids trauma to the neurons.

10. Answer: (C) The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep
immediately.
This finding suggest that the level of consciousness is decreasing.

11. Answer: (A) Altered mental status and dehydration

Fever, chills, hemoptysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are the common symptoms of
pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only an altered lentil status and dehydration
due to a blunted immune response.

12. Answer: (B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis

Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be
present from coughing, but isn’t usual. Clients with TB typically have low-grade fevers, not higher
than 102°F (38.9°C). Nausea, headache, and photophobia aren’t usual TB symptoms.

13. Answer: (A) Acute asthma

Based on the client’s history and symptoms, acute asthma is the most likely diagnosis. He’s
unlikely to have bronchial pneumonia without a productive cough and fever and he’s too young
to have developed (COPD) and emphysema.

14. Answer: (B) Respiratory arrest

Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if given in large quantities. It’s unlikely the client will have
asthma attack or a seizure or wake up on his own.
15. Answer: (D) Decreased vital capacity
Reduction in vital capacity is a normal physiologic changes include decreased elastic recoil of the
lungs, fewer functional capillaries in the alveoli, and an increased in residual volume.

16. Answer: (C) Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor.
Lidocaine drips are commonly used to treat clients whose arrhythmias haven’t been controlled
with oral medication and who are having PVCs that are visible on the cardiac monitor. SaO2,
blood pressure, and ICP are important factors but aren’t as significant as PVCs in the situation.

17. Answer: (B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K

The client should avoid consuming large amounts of vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere
with anticoagulation. The client may need to report diarrhea, but isn’t effect of taking an
anticoagulant. An electric razor-not a straight razor-should be used to prevent cuts that cause
bleeding. Aspirin may increase the risk of bleeding; acetaminophen should be used to pain relief.

18. Answer: (C) Clipping the hair in the area

Hair can be a source of infection and should be removed by clipping. Shaving the area can cause
skin abrasions and depilatories can irritate the skin.

19. Answer: (A) Bone fracture

Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis that results when loss of calcium and
phosphate increased the fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause and not
osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone
metabolism, But a negative calcium balance isn’t a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager’s
hump results from bone fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal
curvature.

20. Answer: (C) Changes from previous examinations.

Women are instructed to examine themselves to discover changes that have occurred in the
breast. Only a physician can diagnose lumps that are cancerous, areas of thickness or fullness
that signal the presence of a malignancy, or masses that are fibrocystic as opposed to malignant.

21. Answer: (C) Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest.
A client with hyperthyroidism needs to be encouraged to balance periods of activity and rest.
Many clients with hyperthyroidism are hyperactive and complain of feeling very warm.

22. Answer: (B) Increase his activity level.

The client should be encouraged to increase his activity level. Maintaining an ideal weight;
following a low-cholesterol, low sodium diet; and avoiding stress are all important factors in
decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis.

23. Answer: (A) Laminectomy

The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be log rolled to keep the spinal
column straight when turning. Thoracotomy and cystectomy may turn themselves or may be
assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an
outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after surgery.

24. Answer: (D) Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist.
The client should avoid straining, lifting heavy objects, and coughing harshly because these
activities increase intraocular pressure. Typically, the client is instructed to avoid lifting objects
weighing more than 15 lb (7kg) – not 5lb. instruct the client when lying in bed to lie on either the
side or back. The client should avoid bright light by wearing sunglasses.

25. Answer: (D) Before age 20.

Testicular cancer commonly occurs in men between ages 20 and 30. A male client should be
taught how to perform testicular self examination before age 20, preferably when he enters his
teens.

26. Answer: (B) Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound.

The nurse should first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to prevent tissue
drying and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the physician and take the client’s vital
signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically closed, so the nurse should never try to close it.

27. Answer: (A) A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic
periods.
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are breaths that become progressively deeper followed by shallower
respirations with apneas periods. Biot’s respirations are rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses
between each breath, and equal depth between each breath. Kussmaul’s respirations are rapid,
deep breathing without pauses. Tachypnea is shallow breathing with increased respiratory rate.

28. Answer: (B) Fine crackles

Fine crackles are caused by fluid in the alveoli and commonly occur in clients with heart failure.
Tracheal breath sounds are auscultated over the trachea. Coarse crackles are caused by secretion
accumulation in the airways. Friction rubs occur with pleural inflammation.

29. Answer: (B) The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through
During an acute attack, wheezing may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the
airways are so swollen that air can’t get through. If the attack is over and swelling has decreased,
there would be no more wheezing and less emergent concern. Crackles do not replace wheezes
during an acute asthma attack.

30. Answer: (D) Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head.
During the active seizure phase, initiate precautions by placing the client on his side, removing
dangerous objects, and protecting his head from injury. A bite block should never be inserted
during the active seizure phase. Insertion can break the teeth and lead to aspiration.

31. Answer: (B) Kinked or obstructed chest tube

Rationales: Kinking and blockage of the chest tube is a common cause of a tension
pneumothorax. Infection and excessive drainage won’t cause a tension pneumothorax. Excessive
water won’t affect the chest tube drainage.

32. Answer: (D) Stay with him but not intervene at this time.
If the client is coughing, he should be able to dislodge the object or cause a complete obstruction.
If complete obstruction occurs, the nurse should perform the abdominal thrust maneuver with
the client standing. If the client is unconscious, she should lay him down. A nurse should never
leave a choking client alone.

33. Answer: (B) Current health promotion activities

Recognizing an individual’s positive health measures is very useful. General health in the previous
10 years is important, however, the current activities of an 84 year old client are most significant
in planning care. Family history of disease for a client in later years is of minor significance.
Marital status information may be important for discharge planning but is not as significant for
addressing the immediate medical problem.

34. Answer: (C) Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered.
The client should be positioned in a side-lying position with the head of the bed lowered to
prevent aspiration. A small amount of toothpaste should be used and the mouth swabbed or
suctioned to remove pooled secretions. Lemon glycerin can be drying if used for extended
periods. Brushing the teeth with the client lying supine may lead to aspiration. Hydrogen
peroxide is caustic to tissues and should not be used.

35. Answer: (C) Pneumonia

Fever productive cough and pleuritic chest pain are common signs and symptoms of pneumonia.
The client with ARDS has dyspnea and hypoxia with worsening hypoxia over time, if not treated
aggressively. Pleuritic chest pain varies with respiration, unlike the constant chest pain during an
MI; so this client most likely isn’t having an MI. the client with TB typically has a cough producing
blood-tinged sputum. A sputum culture should be obtained to confirm the nurse’s suspicions.

36. Answer: (C) A 43-year-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism

Clients who are economically disadvantaged, malnourished, and have reduced immunity, such as
a client with a history of alcoholism, are at extremely high risk for developing TB. A high school
student, daycare worker, and businessman probably have a much low risk of contracting TB.

37. Answer: (C ) To determine the extent of lesions

If the lesions are large enough, the chest X-ray will show their presence in the lungs. Sputum
culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-negative skin test results. A
chest X-ray can’t determine if this is a primary or secondary infection.

38. Answer: (B) Bronchodilators

Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment for asthma because broncho-constriction is the
cause of reduced airflow. Beta adrenergic blockers aren’t used to treat asthma and can cause
bronchoconstriction. Inhaled oral steroids may be given to reduce the inflammation but aren’t
used for emergency relief.

39. Answer: (C) Chronic obstructive bronchitis

Because of this extensive smoking history and symptoms the client most likely has chronic
obstructive bronchitis. Client with ARDS have acute symptoms of hypoxia and typically need large
amounts of oxygen. Clients with asthma and emphysema tend not to have chronic cough or
peripheral edema.

40. Answer: (A) The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure
Before the procedure, the patient is administered with drugs that would help to prevent infection
and rejection of the transplanted cells such as antibiotics, cytotoxic, and corticosteroids. During
the transplant, the patient is placed under general anesthesia.

41. Answer: (D) Raise the side rails

A patient who is disoriented is at risk of falling out of bed. The initial action of the nurse should be
raising the side rails to ensure patients safety.

42. Answer: (A) Crowd red blood cells

The excessive production of white blood cells crowd out red blood cells production which causes
anemia to occur.

43. Answer: (B) Leukocytosis

Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is characterized by increased production of leukocytes and
lymphocytes resulting in leukocytosis, and proliferation of these cells within the bone marrow,
spleen and liver.

44. Answer: (A) Explain the risks of not having the surgery
The best initial response is to explain the risks of not having the surgery. If the client understands
the risks but still refuses the nurse should notify the physician and the nurse supervisor and then
record the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes.

45. Answer: (D) The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial
fibrillation and is receiving L.V. diltiazem (Cardizem)
The client with atrial fibrillation has the greatest potential to become unstable and is on L.V.
medication that requires close monitoring. After assessing this client, the nurse should assess the
client with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion, and then the 58- year-old client
admitted 2 days ago with heart failure (his signs and symptoms are resolving and don’t require
immediate attention). The lowest priority is the 89-year-old with end stage right-sided heart
failure, who requires time-consuming supportive measures.

46. Answer: (C) Cocaine

Because of the client’s age and negative medical history, the nurse should question her about
cocaine use. Cocaine increases myocardial oxygen consumption and can cause coronary artery
spasm, leading to tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, myocardial ischemia, and myocardial
infarction. Barbiturate overdose may trigger respiratory depression and slow pulse. Opioids can
cause marked respiratory depression, while benzodiazepines can cause drowsiness and
confusion.

47. Answer: (B) Nonmobile mass with irregular edges

Breast cancer tumors are fixed, hard, and poorly delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass
that is soft and easily delineated is most often a fluid-filled benign cyst. Axillary lymph nodes may
or may not be palpable on initial detection of a cancerous mass. Nipple retraction — not eversion
— may be a sign of cancer.

48. Answer: (C) Radiation

The usual treatment for vaginal cancer is external or intravaginal radiation therapy. Less often,
surgery is performed. Chemotherapy typically is prescribed only if vaginal cancer is diagnosed in
an early stage, which is rare. Immunotherapy isn’t used to treat vaginal cancer.

49. Answer: (B) Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of
distant metastasis
TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of
distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no
evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes
can’t be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A
progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastases of the regional lymph nodes, and
ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.

50. Answer: (D) “Keep the stoma moist.”

The nurse should instruct the client to keep the stoma moist, such as by applying a thin layer of
petroleum jelly around the edges, because a dry stoma may become irritated. The nurse should
recommend placing a stoma bib over the stoma to filter and warm air before it enters the stoma.
The client should begin performing stoma care without assistance as soon as possible to gain
independence in self-care activities.

51. Answer: (B) Lung cancer

Lung cancer is the most deadly type of cancer in both women and men. Breast cancer ranks
second in women, followed (in descending order) by colon and rectal cancer, pancreatic cancer,
ovarian cancer, uterine cancer, lymphoma, leukemia, liver cancer, brain cancer, stomach cancer,
and multiple myeloma.

52. Answer: (A) miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face.
Horner’s syndrome, which occurs when a lung tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic
nerve ganglia, is characterized by miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side
of the face. Chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are associated with pleural tumors.
Arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of the arm and hand muscles on the affected side suggest
Pancoast’s tumor, a lung tumor involving the first thoracic and eighth cervical nerves within the
brachial plexus. Hoarseness in a client with lung cancer suggests that the tumor has extended to
the recurrent laryngeal nerve; dysphagia suggests that the lung tumor is compressing the
esophagus.

53. Answer: (A) prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer.
PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. The other
answers are incorrect.

54. Answer: (D) “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.”
The nurse should instruct the client to remain supine for the time specified by the physician. Local
anesthetics used in a subarachnoid block don’t alter the gag reflex. No interactions between local
anesthetics and food occur. Local anesthetics don’t cause hematuria.
55. Answer: (C) Sigmoidoscopy
Used to visualize the lower GI tract, sigmoidoscopy and proctoscopy aid in the detection of two-
thirds of all colorectal cancers. Stool Hematest detects blood, which is a sign of colorectal cancer;
however, the test doesn’t confirm the diagnosis. CEA may be elevated in colorectal cancer but
isn’t considered a confirming test. An abdominal CT scan is used to stage the presence of
colorectal cancer.

56. Answer: (B) A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin
A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is common during late stages of breast
cancer. Many women have slightly asymmetrical breasts. Bloody nipple discharge is a sign of
intraductal papilloma, a benign condition. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that
change with the menstrual cycle indicate fibrocystic breasts, a benign condition.

57. Answer: (A) Liver

The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes,
lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.

58. Answer: (D) The client wears a watch and wedding band.
During an MRI, the client should wear no metal objects, such as jewelry, because the strong
magnetic field can pull on them, causing injury to the client and (if they fly off) to others. The
client must lie still during the MRI but can talk to those performing the test by way of the
microphone inside the scanner tunnel. The client should hear thumping sounds, which are
caused by the sound waves thumping on the magnetic field.

59. Answer: (C) The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety
of foods.
Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per day. Postmenopausal women require
1,500 mg per day. It’s often, though not always, possible to get the recommended daily
requirement in the foods we eat. Supplements are available but not always necessary.
Osteoporosis doesn’t show up on ordinary X-rays until 30% of the bone loss has occurred. Bone
densitometry can detect bone loss of 3% or less. This test is sometimes recommended routinely
for women over 35 who are at risk. Strenuous exercise won’t cause fractures.

60. Answer: (C) Joint flexion of less than 50%

Arthroscopy is contraindicated in clients with joint flexion of less than 50% because of technical
problems in inserting the instrument into the joint to see it clearly. Other contraindications for
this procedure include skin and wound infections. Joint pain may be an indication, not a
contraindication, for arthroscopy. Joint deformity and joint stiffness aren’t contraindications for
this procedure.

61. Answer: (D) Gouty arthritis

Gouty arthritis, a metabolic disease, is characterized by urate deposits and pain in the joints,
especially those in the feet and legs. Urate deposits don’t occur in septic or traumatic arthritis.
Septic arthritis results from bacterial invasion of a joint and leads to inflammation of the
synovial lining. Traumatic arthritis results from blunt trauma to a joint or ligament. Intermittent
arthritis is a rare, benign condition marked by regular, recurrent joint effusions, especially in the
knees.

62. Answer: (B) 30 ml/hour

An infusion prepared with 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution yields 50 units of
heparin per milliliter of solution. The equation is set up as 50 units times X (the unknown
quantity) equals 1,500 units/hour, X equals 30 ml/hour.

63. Answer: (B) Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return

In clients with hemiplegia or hemiparesis loss of muscle contraction decreases venous return and
may cause swelling of the affected extremity. Contractures, or bony calcifications may occur with
a stroke, but don’t appear with swelling. DVT may develop in clients with a stroke but is more
likely to occur in the lower extremities. A stroke isn’t linked to protein loss.

64. Answer: (B) It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint

Heberden’s nodes appear on the distal interphalangeal joint on both men and women.
Bouchard’s node appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the proximal interphalangeal joint.

65. Answer: (B) Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic

Osteoarthritis is a localized disease, rheumatoid arthritis is systemic. Osteoarthritis isn’t gender-
specific, but rheumatoid arthritis is. Clients have dislocations and subluxations in both disorders.

66. Answer: (C) The cane should be used on the unaffected side
A cane should be used on the unaffected side. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged
to ambulate with a cane, walker, or other assistive device as needed; their use takes weight and
stress off joints.

67. Answer: (A) a. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH).
A 70/30 insulin preparation is 70% NPH and 30% regular insulin. Therefore, a correct substitution
requires mixing 21 U of NPH and 9 U of regular insulin. The other choices are incorrect dosages for
the prescribed insulin.
68. Answer: (C) colchicines
A disease characterized by joint inflammation (especially in the great toe), gout is caused by urate
crystal deposits in the joints. The physician prescribes colchicine to reduce these deposits and
thus ease joint inflammation. Although aspirin is used to reduce joint inflammation and pain in
clients with osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, it isn’t indicated for gout because it has no
effect on urate crystal formation. Furosemide, a diuretic, doesn’t relieve gout. Calcium gluconate
is used to reverse a negative calcium balance and relieve muscle cramps, not to treat gout.

69. Answer: (A) Adrenal cortex

Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex is responsible for the client’s
hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule, where it promotes reabsorption of sodium
and excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The pancreas mainly secretes hormones involved
in fuel metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes the catecholamines — epinephrine and
norepinephrine. The parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone.

70. Answer: (C) They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention
For this client, wet-to-dry dressings are most appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer by
debriding exudate and necrotic tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention. Moist,
transparent dressings contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment. Hydrocolloid
dressings prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort. Dry sterile
dressings protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.

71. Answer: (A) Hyperkalemia

In adrenal insufficiency, the client has hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone secretion. BUN
increases as the glomerular filtration rate is reduced. Hyponatremia is caused by reduced
aldosterone secretion. Reduced cortisol secretion leads to impaired gluconeogenesis and a
reduction of glycogen in the liver and muscle, causing hypoglycemia.

72. Answer: (C) Restricting fluids

To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids.
Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client’s already heightened fluid
load.

73. Answer: (D) glycosylated hemoglobin level.

Because some of the glucose in the bloodstream attaches to some of the hemoglobin and stays
attached during the 120-day lifespan of red blood cells, glycosylated hemoglobin levels provide
information about blood glucose levels during the previous 3 months. Fasting blood glucose and
urine glucose levels only give information about glucose levels at the point in time when they
were obtained. Serum fructosamine levels provide information about blood glucose control over
the past 2 to 3 weeks.

74. Answer: (C) 4:00 pm

NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin that peaks 8 to 12 hours after administration. Because the
nurse administered NPH insulin at 7 a.m., the client is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia from 3
p.m. to 7 p.m.

75. Answer: (A) Glucocorticoids and androgens

The adrenal glands have two divisions, the cortex and medulla. The cortex produces three types
of hormones: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. The medulla produces
catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine.

76. Answer: (A) Hypocalcemia

Hypocalcemia may follow thyroid surgery if the parathyroid glands were removed accidentally.
Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia may be delayed for up to 7 days after surgery. Thyroid
surgery doesn’t directly cause serum sodium, potassium, or magnesium abnormalities.
Hyponatremia may occur if the client inadvertently received too much fluid; however, this can
happen to any surgical client receiving I.V. fluid therapy, not just one recovering from thyroid
surgery. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia usually are associated with reduced renal
excretion of potassium and magnesium, not thyroid surgery.

77. Answer: (D) Carcinoembryonic antigen level

In clients who smoke, the level of carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated. Therefore, it can’t be
used as a general indicator of cancer. However, it is helpful in monitoring cancer treatment
because the level usually falls to normal within 1 month if treatment is successful. An elevated
acid phosphatase level may indicate prostate cancer. An elevated alkaline phosphatase level may
reflect bone metastasis. An elevated serum calcitonin level usually signals thyroid cancer.

78. Answer: (B) Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor

Signs of iron-deficiency anemia include dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor as well as fatigue,
listlessness, irritability, and headache. Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea may signal
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia may be signs of
hepatitis B. Itching, rash, and jaundice may result from an allergic or hemolytic reaction.

79. Answer: (D) “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.”
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is transmitted from mother to child via the
transplacental route, but a Cesarean section delivery isn’t necessary when the mother is HIV-
positive. The use of birth control will prevent the conception of a child who might have HIV. It’s
true that a mother who’s HIV positive can give birth to a baby who’s HIV negative.

80. Answer: (C) “Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.”
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS, is most concentrated in the blood.
For this reason, the client shouldn’t share personal articles that may be blood-contaminated,
such as toothbrushes and razors, with other family members. HIV isn’t transmitted by bathing or
by eating from plates, utensils, or serving dishes used by a person with AIDS.

81. Answer: (B) Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue

Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue are all characteristic findings in pernicious anemia. Other
clinical manifestations include anorexia; weight loss; a smooth, beefy red tongue; a wide pulse
pressure; palpitations; angina; weakness; fatigue; and paresthesia of the hands and feet.
Bradycardia, reduced pulse pressure, weight gain, and double vision aren’t characteristic findings
in pernicious anemia.

82. Answer: (B) Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if
necessary.
To reverse anaphylactic shock, the nurse first should administer epinephrine, a potent
bronchodilator as prescribed. The physician is likely to order additional medications, such as
antihistamines and corticosteroids; if these medications don’t relieve the respiratory compromise
associated with anaphylaxis, the nurse should prepare to intubate the client. No antidote for
penicillin exists; however, the nurse should continue to monitor the client’s vital signs. A client
who remains hypotensive may need fluid resuscitation and fluid intake and output monitoring;
however, administering epinephrine is the first priority.

83. Answer: (D) bilateral hearing loss.

Prolonged use of aspirin and other salicylates sometimes causes bilateral hearing loss of 30 to 40
decibels. Usually, this adverse effect resolves within 2 weeks after the therapy is discontinued.
Aspirin doesn’t lead to weight gain or fine motor tremors. Large or toxic salicylate doses may
cause respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.

84. Answer: (D) Lymphocyte

The lymphocyte provides adaptive immunity — recognition of a foreign antigen and formation of
memory cells against the antigen. Adaptive immunity is mediated by B and T lymphocytes and
can be acquired actively or passively. The neutrophil is crucial to phagocytosis. The basophil
plays an important role in the release of inflammatory mediators. The monocyte functions in
phagocytosis and monokine production.
85. Answer: (A) moisture replacement.
Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder leading to progressive loss of lubrication of the
skin, GI tract, ears, nose, and vagina. Moisture replacement is the mainstay of therapy. Though
malnutrition and electrolyte imbalance may occur as a result of Sjogren’s syndrome effect on the
GI tract, it isn’t the predominant problem. Arrhythmias aren’t a problem associated with
Sjogren’s syndrome.

86. Answer: (C) stool for Clostridium difficile test.

Immunosuppressed clients — for example, clients receiving chemotherapy, — are at risk for
infection with C. difficile, which causes “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. Successful treatment
begins with an accurate diagnosis, which includes a stool test. The ELISA test is diagnostic for
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and isn’t indicated in this case. An electrolyte panel and
hemogram may be useful in the overall evaluation of a client but aren’t diagnostic for specific
causes of diarrhea. A flat plate of the abdomen may provide useful information about bowel
function but isn’t indicated in the case of “horse barn” smelling diarrhea.

87. Answer: (D) Western blot test with ELISA.

HIV infection is detected by analyzing blood for antibodies to HIV, which form approximately 2 to
12 weeks after exposure to HIV and denote infection. The Western blot test — electrophoresis of
antibody proteins — is more than 98% accurate in detecting HIV antibodies when used in
conjunction with the ELISA. It isn’t specific when used alone. Erosette immunofluorescence is
used to detect viruses in general; it doesn’t confirm HIV infection. Quantification of T-
lymphocytes is a useful monitoring test but isn’t diagnostic for HIV. The ELISA test detects HIV
antibody particles but may yield inaccurate results; a positive ELISA result must be confirmed by
the Western blot test.

88. Answer: (C) Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels
Low preoperative HCT and Hb levels indicate the client may require a blood transfusion before
surgery. If the HCT and Hb levels decrease during surgery because of blood loss, the potential
need for a transfusion increases. Possible renal failure is indicated by elevated BUN or creatinine
levels. Urine constituents aren’t found in the blood. Coagulation is determined by the presence of
appropriate clotting factors, not electrolytes.

89. Answer: (A) Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time
The diagnosis of DIC is based on the results of laboratory studies of prothrombin time, platelet
count, thrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as well as client history
and other assessment factors. Blood glucose levels, WBC count, calcium levels, and potassium
levels aren’t used to confirm a diagnosis of DIC.
90. Answer: (D) Strawberries
Common food allergens include berries, peanuts, Brazil nuts, cashews, shellfish, and eggs. Bread,
carrots, and oranges rarely cause allergic reactions.

91. Answer: (B) A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in my
right leg.”
It may indicate neurovascular compromise, requires immediate assessment.

92. Answer: (D) A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago;
client complaints of chills.
The client is at risk for peritonitis; should be assessed for further symptoms and infection.

93. Answer: (C) The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is
obtained.
Carpal spasms indicate hypocalcemia.

94. Answer: (D) Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.
Using comfort measures and pillows to position the client is a non-pharmacological methods of
pain relief.

95. Answer: (B) Warm the dialysate solution.

Cold dialysate increases discomfort. The solution should be warmed to body temperature in
warmer or heating pad; don’t use microwave oven.

96. Answer: (C) The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward
followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg.
The cane acts as a support and aids in weight bearing for the weaker right leg.

97. Answer: (A) Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos or
mementos.
Photos and mementos provide visual stimulation to reduce sensory deprivation.

98. Answer: (B) The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes
several small steps forward.
A walker needs to be picked up, placed down on all legs.

99. Answer: (C) Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings.
Gradual loss of sight, hearing, and taste interferes with normal functioning.
100. Answer: (A) Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing.
Pursed lip breathing prevents the collapse of lung unit and helps client control rate and depth of
breathing.