DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07

TEST BOOKLET

ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
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without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
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6. All items carry equal marks.
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you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
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9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
1. Regarding the Respiratory syncytial virus 4. Consider the following statements regarding
(RSV), consider the following statements: Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2 (ACE2):
1. RSV is a single-stranded RNA virus.
Statement-I:
2. Its name is derived from the large cells
known as syncytia that form when ACE2 is a functional receptor for the spike
infected cells fuse. glycoprotein of the human coronaviruses
3. It cannot survive on hard surfaces for a such as SARS-CoV-2, the causative agent of
longer duration. coronavirus disease-2019.
4. It is more serious for infants and older Statement-II:
adults.
ACE2 is known to be expressed exclusively
How many of the above statements is/are on the membrane of cells of various organs
correct?
such as intestine, kidney, etc.
(a) Only one
Which one of the following is correct in
(b) Only two respect of the above statements?
(c) Only three
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

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(d) All four correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
2. Consider the following statements regarding
the Open Radio Access Network (O-RAN): (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
1. An O-RAN is a totally disaggregated
correct explanation for Statement-I.
approach to deploying mobile networks
built entirely on cloud native principles. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
2. The future goal for O-RAN in the
O
cellular network is to interoperate both
seamlessly and securely regardless of its
originating vendor cloud-native
is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct.
SC
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect? 5. Which of the following statement make the
blue straggler stars different from the other
(a) 1 only
stars?
(b) 2 only
(a) Many blue stragglers are formed through
(c) Both 1 and 2
mass transfer from a close binary
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 companion star.
GS

(b) They run out of fuel (Hydrogen) much

3. Consider the following statements:
earlier than their siblings in their due
1. The Indian Biological Data Centre is the course of life.
first national repository for life science
data in the country. (c) They are smaller than the rest of the
2. The Indian Crop Phenome Database is stars due to the peculiarity in their
a domain of the Indian Biological Data formation.
Centre, developed for the digitization of
crop phenome data. (d) They are not a part of globular clusters
due to their large mass.
3. Both IBDC and ICPD are supported by
the Government of India through the
Department of Biotechnology. 6. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the statements given above are 1. Leptons - Absence of colour charge
correct?
2. Quarks - A type of fermions
(a) Only one
3. Higgs Boson - Explaining particles
(b) Only two attainment of their masses
(c) All three 4. Gluons - Bosons that carry the weak
(d) None nuclear force

3 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 How many of the above pairs is/are correctly 3. Australian – Joint sitting of
matched? Constitution the two Houses of
Parliament
(a) Only one
4. Russia – Ideals of liberty,
(b) Only two
Constitution equality, and
(c) Only three fraternity
(d) All four How many of the pairs given above is/are
matched correctly?
7. Consider the following pairs: (a) All four
Polymers Corresponding (b) Only three
monomers
(c) Only two
1. Bakelite – Phenol and
(d) Only one
Formaldehyde
2. BUNA – N – Vinyl Cyanide and 1,
10. The Code on Wages, 2020 mentions the
3-butadiene

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concept of a floor wage, which empowers the
3. Teflon – Tetrafluoro Ethane central government to fix ‘floor wages’ taking
4. Rubber – Isoprene into account the minimum ‘living standards
of workers.’ In this context, which of the
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly following principle secure a living wage for
matched? all workers?
(a) Only one (a) Gandhian Principles
(b) Only two
O (b) Liberal-Intellectual Principles
(c) Only three (c) Socialistic Principles
(d) All four
SC
(d) None of them

8. Consider the following: 11. With respect to the procedure for the
1. Diatoms amendment of the Indian constitution, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
2. Dinoflagellates
1. The formation of new states, alteration
3. Amoebas
of areas and boundaries can only be
GS

4. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Baker’s amended by a special majority of the two

yeast) Houses of Parliament.
5. Blue-green algae 2. Fundamental Rights and Directive
Which of the above belong to the “Protists”? Principles of State Policy can be
amended by the simple majority of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Parliament.
(b) 2, 4, and 5 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only given below:

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
9. Consider the following pairs: (c) Both 1 and 2
Sources Feature (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Borrowed
1. Japanese – Procedure 12. Consider the following statements regarding
Constitution established by Law the office of Governor:
2. French – Fundamental Duties 1. The Governor has security of tenure and
Constitution a fixed term of office.

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 4
 2. A decision to remove a Governor can be 15. Article 263 of the Constitution of India
challenged in a court of law. provides for the establishment of an Inter-
State Council. In this context, which of the
3. A governor whose term has expired following is incorrect regarding the duty of
cannot be reappointed in the same state this council?
or any other state.
(a) Inquiring into and advising upon
How many of the above statements is/are disputes which may have arisen between
incorrect? States.
(a) Only one (b) Investigating and discussing subjects
in which some or all the States, or the
(b) Only two Union and one or more of the States,
(c) All three have a common interest.

(d) None (c) Making recommendations upon any

subject and recommendations for the
better coordination of policy and action.
13. Regarding the powers and privileges of (d) The public interests would not be served
Members of Parliament (MPs), consider the by the establishment of a Council.
following statements:

1. Parliamentary privileges are special
rights, immunities and exemptions
enjoyed by the two Houses of
Parliament.
2. The members enjoy freedom from arrest
in any civil case 40 days before and after
the adjournment of the house and when
RE
16. It is found in regions of the country which
receive heavy rainfall with an alternate
dry and wet period. They are formed from
the decomposition of rocks and contain iron
oxide, which gives them red or pink color.
This soil is ordinarily deficient in nitrogen
and is weak in lime content. It is an acidic

3.
the house is in session.
The members of the house have the
power and right to exclude strangers
O
who are not members of the house from
soil.
Which of soils given below is described in the
above passage?
(a) Peat soil
SC
the proceedings. (b) Alluvial soil
How many of the statements given above are (c) Laterite soil
correct? (d) Black soil
(a) Only one
17. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Only two
(c) All three Plates Location
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(d) None 1. Cocos plate - Between Indian

and Australian
plates
14. Consider the following statements:
2. Nazca plate - Between South
1. The Judges of the Jammu & Kashmir America and
High Court are to be appointed by the Pacific plate
President.
3. Capricorn - Between Central
2. Appointment of permanent judges in a microplate America and
high court having jurisdiction over more Pacific plate
than one state, the President would
4. Caroline plate - Between the
initiate proposal to the Governor of the
Philippine and
two states concerned.
Indian plate
Which of the above given statements is/are
How many of the pairs given above is/are
correct? correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four

5 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
18. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct option from the code given
western disturbances: below:
1. The western cyclonic disturbances (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
experienced in the north and north-
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
western parts of the country are brought
in by the subtropical easterly jet (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
stream.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
2. The sub-tropical westerly jet stream
blows over Peninsular India. 21. Consider the following statements:
3. Western disturbances are extra-tropical 1. Odisha is India’s largest bauxite
cyclones developed in the Arabian Sea. producer followed by Gujarat and
Which of the statements given above is/are Jharkhand.
incorrect? 2. The two main types of ore found in India
(a) 1 and 2 only are haematite and limonite.

(b) 3 only 3. Balangir is an active mining centre with

RE
several graphite grades.
(c) 2 and 3 only
4. Salal-Haimana area of the Reasi district
(d) 1, 2 and 3 in Jammu and Kashmir is rich in lithium
deposits.
19. Consider the following: How many of the above statements is/are
incorrect regarding mineral and metal

1.
River

Machchhu river -
State

Gujarat
O deposits in India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
2. Lukha river - Meghalaya
SC
(c) Only three
3. Bhogdoi river - Assam (d) All four

4. Parbati river - Madhya

22. Consider the following statements:
Pradesh
Statement-I:
How many of the pairs given above is/are
The Peninsular plateau is a tableland and is
correctly matched?
GS

the part of oldest landmass.

(a) 1 and 3 only
Statement-II:
(b) 2 and 4 only
Peninsular plateau was formed due to the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only breaking and drifting of the Gondwana
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 land.
Select the correct answer using the code
20. Which of the following factors influence given below:
Indian Monsoon? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. Differential heating and cooling of land correct and Statement-II is the correct
and water. explanation for Statement-I.
2. Shift of the position of Inter Tropical (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) are correct and Statement-II is not the
3. Presence of the high-pressure area in correct explanation for Statement-I.
east of Madagascar (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
4. Cooling of Tibetan plateau during is incorrect.
summer seasons (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
5. Westerly jet stream II is correct.

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 6
23. Which of the following taxes are applied 2. For inferior goods, demand decreases
on petrol/diesel by Central and State with an increase in consumer’s income.
governments? 3. Veblen goods are those for which demand
1. Excise duties increases with an increase in price.
2. Value-added tax or a sales tax How many of the statements given above is/
3. Goods and services tax are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Only one
given below: (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) All three
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) None
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 27. Consider the following statements:
1. Foreign investment in India is primarily
24. In the context of the Indian economy, consider regulated through the Foreign Exchange

RE
the following: Management Act, 1999.
1. Acquisition of produced assets 2. As per present norms, any investment
coming from an investment vehicle
2. Purchases of second-hand assets by
whose sponsor is owned by person
producers
resident outside India will be counted
3. Investments by resident producers under FDI.
4. Disposal of fixed assets 3. Asset Reconstruction Companies are
How many of the above are included in the
Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)?
(a) Only one
O allowed to receive FDI but only after
government’s approval.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
SC
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) Only three
(b) Only two
(d) All four
(c) All three
25. With reference to Participatory Notes, (d) None
consider the following statements:
GS

1. These are financial instruments required 28. With reference to existing regulation on
to invest in Indian securities without crypto assets in India, which one of the
registering with the Securities and following statement is incorrect?
Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
(a) All crypto products are regulated by
2. The investments through P-notes are Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
considered as Offshore Derivative
(b) All crypto exchanges are registered
Investments (ODIs).
as company under the Companies act,
Which of the statements given above is/are 2013.
correct? (c) GST is applicable on both crypto assets
(a) 1 only as well as crypto exchanges.
(b) 2 only (d) Mining of crypto assets is prohibited
in India and only the transfer and
(c) Both 1 and 2 transaction of assets is allowed.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. With reference to the Wholesale Price Index
26. Consider the following statements: (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI),
consider the following statements:
1. Giffen goods are those goods for which
demand decreases with an increase in 1. Unlike the WPI basket, CPI basket
price. includes services.

7 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 2. Fuel and Power component has the
maximum weightage in the WPI while
the Food and Beverages component holds
the maximum weightage in the CPI.
3. WPI helps in timely intervention by
the Government to check inflation in
essential items while CPI is used as
an anchor for the inflation targeting in
India.
4. Unlike the WPI basket, CPI includes
indirect taxes.
How many of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
32. Consider the following statements:
1. The Himalayan Moist Temperate
Forests have mixed species of broad-
leafed evergreen trees and conifers.
2. The boreal forests are the earth’s
southernmost and are characterized by
a high diversity of tree species.
3. Delta of Mahanadi are covered by
Mangrove Forests.
How many of the above statements is/
are incorrect regarding forest types and
locations?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three

RE
(d) All four
(d) None

30. With reference to world economy, consider

the following statements: 33. Consider the following:

1. An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist 1. Ice-albedo feedback

tariff that the domestic government 2. Lapse rate feedback
imposes to neutralize the impact of 3. Water vapour feedback

2.
import subsidies.
O
Countervailing duty is a specific form
4. Ocean heat transport
of duty that the domestic government How many of the above given are the causes
imposes on foreign imports. of arctic amplification?
SC
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only one
correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) Only three
(b) 2 only (d) All four
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 34. Consider the following statements regarding
GS

solar storms:
31. How many of the following measures can be 1. The solar wind conditions that are
taken to check Demand-Pull Inflation? effective for creating geomagnetic storms
are sustained periods of high-speed solar
1. Reducing the money, the government is wind and a southward directed solar
pumping into the economy, especially wind magnetic field.
consumptive type.
2. Stealth Coronal mass ejections (CMEs)
2. Central Bank following a Dear Money exhibit signatures at the solar surface
Policy. but showed up in the lower corona.
3. Increasing interest rate on loans. 3. In space, a ring of westward current
4. Increasing imports of goods which are around Earth produces electrical
short in supply. disturbances on the ground.
Select the correct option using the code given Which of the given statements is/are
below: incorrect?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only three (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All four (d) 2 only

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 8
35. Consider the following statements regarding
Ramsar sites in India: 2. Halosere - Succession of
microorganism on
1. The Tampara lake, a Ramsar site, is a dead matter.
freshwater lake in Madhya Pradesh.
2. Tampara lake is an important habitat 3. Eosere - Development of
for endangered species such as cyprinus vegetation in an era.
carpio and river tern. 4. Senile - Succession starting
Which of the above given statements is/are in saline soil or
incorrect? water.
(a) 1 only How many of the above pairs is/are correctly
(b) 2 only matched about ecological succession?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
36. Match the following pairs:
(d) All four

RE
Ecological Description
terms 38. Which of following statements regarding
endemism is incorrect?
1. Biomagnification A. Maximum
number of (a) Paleo-endemism in a species can arise
individuals of a when a species going extinct in other
species that the regions.
environment

2. Carrying
capacity
B.
sustain.
Build-up of
nitrogen and
phosphorus
O
can carry and (b) Being endemic to a small area reflects a
threat to the survival of a species.
(c) Lion-tailed macaque is endemic to the
Western Ghats of India.
SC
in aquatic (d) Endemism shows the species richness in
environment a particular area.
3. Niche C. Accumulation of
pesticides and 39. Consider the following statements:
pollutants in
organisms Statement-I:
4. Eutrophication D. Range of Thermal shocks due to the closing down of
GS

resources and power plant can kill fishes in water bodies.

conditions
allowing Statement-II:
the species
to maintain Sudden increase or decrease of temperature
a viable of water bodies leads to thermal pollution.
population.
Select the correct option from the code given
Select the correct answer using the code below:
given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(b) 1-A, -B, 3-D, 4-C
explanation for Statement-I.
(c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
37. Consider the following: correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
Types of Description is incorrect.
Seres
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
1. Psammosere - Succession initiating II is correct.
on sandy areas.

9 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
40. With reference to Kanaganahalli Site, Which of the above statements is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. Kanaganahalli was a small and (a) 1 only
ordinary village on the bank of Bhima in (b) 2 onl
Karnataka.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Its excavation includes the stone portrait
of Mauryan Emperor Ashoka with the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
inscription “Raya Asoko” in Kharosthi
script on it 43. Consider the following statements:
3. A Maha Stupa has been discovered at 1. Indian Copyright Act, 1957 seeks to
this site which was referred to as the provide for the registration and better
Great Stupa of the netherworlds. protection of geographical indications
relating to goods in India.
How many of the above statements is/are
2. The GI tag is valid for a period of 20 years
correct?
following which it cannot be renewed.
(a) Only one 3. White onion (Maharashtra) and Mithila

RE
(b) Only two Makhana (Bihar) have recently been
given the GI Tag.
(c) All three
How many of the above statements is/are
(d) None correct?
(a) Only one
41. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Only two
India’s postal code:
1.
O
The six-digit pin code used by India Post (c) All three
to deliver mails was created on by Jaglal (d) None
Choudhary.
SC
2. The first digit of the six-digit postal code 44. Consider the following statements:
indicates the sub-zone, that is, states 1. In Warli painting, the goddess Palaghata
and union territories. is represented inside an enclosure in a
3. The final three digits refer to individual square (chaukat).
post offices in the area within the sorting 2. Pithora is a ritual art form practiced
district. by the Bhil and Bhilala tribals of
Jharkhand.
How many of the above statements is/are
GS

incorrect? Which of the above statements is/ are

correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Consider the following statements regarding
the Monuments of national importance in
India:
1. The protection and upkeep of the
monuments of national importance is
the responsibility of the Archaeological
Survey of India (ASI).
2. Graves and cemeteries of British officers
and soldiers are not included in the list
of Monuments of National Importance
(MNI).
45. Consider the following statements:
1. The resolutions on Fundamental Rights
and on abolition of salt monopoly of
the Government were adopted at the
Lucknow Session.
2. The Congress was banned by the British
Government after the declaration of
Purna Swaraj at Lahore Session.
3. In 1931, congress defined what Swaraj
would mean for the masses during
Karachi session.

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 10
 Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above given statements
correct? regarding the nuclear fusion is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 3 only (c) All three
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) None

46. With reference to Sangam literature, 50. Which of the following bacteria contains the
Tolkappiyam is the: Cry toxin, that makes the bacterium to be
used as a bio-control agent against insect
(a) Oldest surviving Tamil grammar
pests?
(b) One of the eight anthologies in
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
Ettutokai
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Bardic poetry of the Sangam era
(c) Azospirillum brasilense
(d) Prelude to Pattuppattu

RE
(d) Bacillus vulgaris
47. ‘Whitely commission’ was set by the British
government largely to address which of the 51. With reference to Pravasi Kaushal Vikas
following? Yojana (PKVY), consider the following
statements:
(a) Labour issues
1. National Skill Development Corporation
(b) Influence of Foreign Communist (NSDC) is the implementing agency of
Influence
(c) Giving voting rights to women
(d) Currency issues
O 2.
the PKVY.
Its aim to train and certify Indian
workforce who are keen on overseas
employment in selected sectors
SC
to facilitate overseas employment
48. Consider the following statements regarding opportunities.
Bhagavatism:
Which of the above statements is/are
1. It originated in post-Mauryan times and
incorrect?
centered around the worship of Vishnu.
2. Bhagavatism was marked by bhakti and (a) 1 only
ahimsa. (b) 2 only
GS

Which of the above statements is/are (c) Both 1 and 2

correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 52. Under this scheme, there is a provision of
setting up of more than 14500 schools by
(c) Both 1 and 2
strengthening the existing schools from
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 amongst schools managed by Central
government/State/UT Government/local
49. Consider the following statements: bodies. These schools will showcase the
implementation of the National Education
1. The temperature requirement for Policy 2020. The duration of scheme is
nuclear fusion on earth is lower than on proposed to be from 2022-23 to 2026-27.
Sun due to lower gravity on the earth.
Identify the appropriate answer based on
2. Both Deuterium and Tritium nuclei fuse
information given above.
to form heavier nuclei in the nuclear
fusion. (a) NIPUN Bharat Mission
3. Tokamak is a chamber using a powerful (b) PM-SHRI scheme
magnetic field to form the heated
(c) PRAGYATA scheme
electrically-charged gas required for the
fusion reaction. (d) Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya

11 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
53. Which of the following are objectives of the 56. Consider the following statements about
SAMEEEKSHA initiative? Ocean currents:
1. Adoption of clean energy 1. Variation in density and gravity cause
2. Initiative to combat desertification in the movement of surface and deep-water
India currents.
3. To improve the energy efficiency of the 2. Cold currents are usually found on the
MSME sector east coast of the continents in the low
4. To maximise effectiveness and and middle latitude.
widespread adoption of energy efficient
Which of the given statements is/are
technologies
correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RE
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
57. Regarding climate variations across
54. The first national report on the state of different continents, consider the following
India’s tribal people’s health was submitted statements:
to the Government of India by the Expert 1. The Siberian type of climate is only
Committee on Tribal Health. In this regard, experienced in Northern hemisphere.
consider the following statements regarding
2. British type of climate region is
the findings of the report:
1.
O
The half of the total malaria deaths in
India occur among the tribal population 3.
influenced with a lot of cyclonic activity.
Central California, south-eastern
of the country. and southwestern Australia have
Mediterranean climate.
SC
2. The tribal Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
during the period of 1988-2014 has
How many of the above statement is/are
doubled.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) Only one

(a) 1 only (b) Only two

(b) 2 only (c) All three
GS

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Consider the following statements regarding
55. Consider the following statements: the physical features of India:
1. An overseas elector is a person who is a 1. The Himalayan Mountain range was
citizen of India, has acquired citizenship formed due to the collision of Eurasian
of any other country and is otherwise plate and the Indo-pacific plate.
eligible to be registered as a voter. 2. Northern plain formation took place
2. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes because of Himalayan upliftment and
descent, naturalization, and subsidence of the northern flank of the
incorporation of territory as ways of peninsular plateau.
acquiring citizenship of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 12
59. Which of the following measures are 62. Consider the following:
categorized as ‘Above-the-Line’ fiscal
1. Kigali Amendment
measures?
1. Subsidized food programmes or health 2. Montreal Protocol
facilities 3. Paris Agreement
2. Capital Grants 4. Kyoto Protocol
3. Loans and Credit Guarantees
How many of the following international
4. Schemes like MGNREGA
treaties related to GHG emission are legally
5. Tax Cuts binding in nature?
6. Direct Transfers
(a) Only one
Select the correct option using the code given
below: (b) Only two

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) Only three

(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 (d) All four

RE
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 63. Which of the following statement is
incorrect?
60. With reference to poverty in India, consider (a) Green Climate Fund (GCF) was
the following statements: established to reduce greenhouse gas
1. The percentage of poor in Scheduled (GHG) emissions in developed as well as

2.
castes.
O
Tribes is more than that of scheduled

Jharkhand has the highest proportion of

the population living below the national
developing countries.
(b) Global Environment Facility (GEF) is
a financial mechanism for UNFCCC and
SC
poverty line. Minamata convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) States other than European Union can
correct? become the part European Environment
(a) 1 only Agency.
(b) 2 only (d) IPCC was established by the World
(c) Both 1 and 2 Meteorological Organization (WMO)
GS

and the United Nations Environment

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Programme (UNEP).

61. If another global financial crisis happens

soon, how many among the following action/ 64. With reference to the characteristics of the
policies are most likely to give some immunity Black Carbon, consider the following:
to India?
1. Short-lived pollutant
1. Not depending on short-term foreign
borrowings 2. An aerosol

2. Opening more foreign banks 3. Reduction of surface albedo

3. Maintaining full capital account 4. Second-largest contributor to warming
convertibility
How many of the above-mentioned is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below:
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two

(c) All three (c) Only three

(d) None (d) All four

13 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
65. Consider the following pairs: Can India Make Progress?’ and also he
stressed on establishment and maintenance
Metal Associated Disease of an indigenous cultural identity. ‘Andher
poisoning Nagari’, a famous play of his, portrays a city
that falls into darkness due to the lack of
1. Lead - Itai-Itai sound administration signifying autocratic
British rule in India.
2. Methylmercury - Minamata Who among the following personalities is
described in the above passage?
3. Cadmium - Black foot disease
(a) Hem Chandra Bandyopadhyaya
4. Arsenic - Anaemia (b) Bharatendu Harishchandra

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly (c) Bankim Candra Chatterjee
matched? (d) Nabin Chandra Sen
(a) Only one
68. Which female social reformer wrote the short
(b) Only two stories: Sultana’s Dream and Avarodhbasini,

RE
(c) Only three criticizing the custom of purdah among
Muslims?
(d) All four
(a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
66. Gandhi and Tagore debated the social- (b) Abadi Bano Begum
political aspects of freedom. Which among (c) Bibi Amatus Salam
the following were ‘points of convergence’ in
their respective vision?
1.
O
Tagore backed the idea of fusion of
(d) Begam Rokey Sakhawat Hossain

elements and approaches of East and
West in educational sphere while
SC
Gandhi supported only Indian model of
education.
2. Both Gandhi and Tagore believed that
colonialism was more of an ‘internal
psychological construct’ rather than
external domination of Britishers.
3. Gandhi believed in non-cooperation and
GS
69. The earliest available text from her literary
output was her Sanskrit poem “Lamentation
of Divine Language”, submitted to the
Oriental Conference at Berlin in 1881 and
highlighting the violence of colonialism. Her
book “The High-Caste Hindu Woman” was
based on the miseries of girls and women in
high-caste Hindu families. It is not wrong
to say that she entered into the feminist
discourse through her book Stri Dharma

Satyagraha as political force but Tagore Niti (Morals for women). This book turned
believed in the Boycott and Atmashakti out to be a guide of women’s morality,
as political force. asking illiterate, ignorant women to recast
themselves in a more cultural mould through
4. Gandhi dismissed modernity as self-reliance and self-education. Her next
‘materialistic enslaving of humanity’ academic venture, Cry of Indian Women,
while Tagore admired modernity as more explicitly reflected her feminist thinking
‘growth in civilization’. and her desire to seek gender justice. She is:
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) Pandita Ramabai
given below:
(b) Mrs Annie Besant
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Muthulakshmi Reddy
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 70. Consider the following statements:
1. Thorn forests occur in the areas that
67. He is known as the father of Hindi receive annual rainfall less than 50cm.
Literature. He founded and edited one of 2. Moist Deciduous Forests are found in
India’s first women’s journals, Bala Bodhini. the eastern slopes of Western Ghats and
In his 1884 address at Ballia entitled, ‘How Odisha.

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 14
 3. Swamp Forests are found along the 73. Which of the following statements is/are
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. incorrect?

How many of the above statements is/are 1. The publication of Hunter Commission
Report on the disturbances in Punjab
incorrect?
connected with the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
(a) Only one 2. The attainment of dominion status for
(b) Only two India was declared to be the immediate
goal of the Swaraj party.
(c) All three
Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) None below:
(a) 1 only
71. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. A.O Hume and Annie Besant founded
(c) Both 1 and 2
the Theosophical Society in New York
who were inspired by Indian thought (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RE
and culture.
2. Pandita Ramabai set up Mahakali 74. Consider the following statements:
Pathshala in Calcutta to propagate 1. Pt. Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
female education without foreign moved a resolution to make poorna
influence. swaraj the goal of the Congress struggle
in December 1927.
3. Deoband Movement was established by
2. In the Nehru report, no special

Muslim community.
How many of the above statements is/are
O
Badr-ud-din Tyabji and Sir Syed Ahmad
Khan to train religious leaders for the
representation in the Central Parliament
was allowed except for the Muslims in
Bengal and the non-Muslims in the
North-West Frontier Province.
SC
incorrect? Which of the above statements is/are
(a) Only one correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
GS

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? 75. With respect to ancient history of India,
consider the following statements:
1. Fort William and Haileybury College
1. Kanishka’s coins carry images of deities
were set up in India to train civil
from various religions.
servants.
2. Kushanas used local gold and silver
2. The Thuggee Act XXX of 1836 provides coins as high value currency.
the basis for the demarcation of ‘criminal
3. The Gupta dominions were organised
castes’ and ‘criminal tribes’ after the on the principle of decentralised
revolt of 1857. administration
Select the correct answer using the codes How many of the above statements is/are
below: correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

15 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
76. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are
poverty: correct?
1. Generational Poverty is a temporary (a) 1 only
type of poverty based on occurrence of
an adverse event like environmental (b) 2 only
disaster, job loss and severe health (c) Both 1 and 2
problem.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Situational Poverty is defined from the
social perspective such as living standard
compared to the economic standards of 79. Consider the following statements regarding
population living in surroundings. Isotherms and their nature in different
hemisphere:
3. Relative Poverty is handed over to
individual and families from one 1. Isotherms deviates less in southern
generation to the one. hemisphere than in northern hemisphere
and are almost parallel to latitudes.
4. Absolute poverty involves the scarcity of
basic food, clean water, health, shelter, 2. Isotherms are impacted by warm ocean

RE
education, and information. currents in both northern and southern
hemisphere.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) 1 only

(c) Only three (b) 2 only

(d) All four

O (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. Consider the following statements regarding
SC
Indian currency design mechanism: 80. Consider the following statements regarding
1. India’s currency notes printing presses SAMRIDH initiative:
at Nasik and Dewas are owned by the 1. It is a joint initiative of NITI Aayog and
RBI. World Health Organization (WHO).
2. The Coinage Act, 2011 gives the Union 2. It provides financial support to
Government the power to design and healthcare innovators.
mint coins in various denominations.
GS

Which among the above statements is/are

3. Indian currency notes are designed to
correct?
reflect the diverse cultural heritage of
the country. (a) 1 only
How many of the above statements is/are (b) 2 only
incorrect?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three 81. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) None simultaneous elections:
1. Simultaneous elections cannot be held
78. Consider the following statements regarding within the existing framework of the
‘Loess’: Constitution.
1. It is a yellow, friable fine dust blown 2. Simultaneous elections required
beyond the desert limit and is deposited replacing the ‘no-confidence motion’ with
on neighbouring lands. a ‘constructive vote of no-confidence.
2. It is a fine loam, rich in lime and 3. Simultaneous elections ensure timely
extremely porous. implementation of government policies.

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 16
 How many of the above statements is/are 2. Fundamental Rights under Article 19
correct? can be automatically suspended till the
end of the emergency.
(a) Only one
3. President can put the state assembly
(b) Only two
under suspension during president rule.
(c) All three
How many of the above statements is/are
(d) None correct?
(a) Only one
82. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Only two
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(CAG): (c) All three
1. No minister can represent the CAG in (d) None
the parliament.
2. CAG control the issue of money from the 86. With reference to the Global Biofuels Alliance
consolidated fund of India. (GBA), consider the following statements:

RE
Which among the above statements is/are 1. It is an initiative to develop an
correct? alliance of governments, international
organisations and industry to facilitate
(a) 1 only
adoption of biofuels.
(b) 2 only
2. India is the largest Biofuel producer in
(c) Both 1 and 2 the world.
3. It was launched by India, at G20

83.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which among the following subjects is

part of the XIth Schedule of the Indian
O 4.
Summit gaining consensus from World
Environment Facility (WEF).
The Alliance intends to standardize
certification for widespread adoption of
SC
Constitution?
biofuels.
(a) Land improvement, library, and cultural
activities. How many of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(b) Regulation of land-use and construction
of buildings. (a) Only one
(c) Vital statistics include registration of (b) Only two
births and deaths.
GS

(c) Only three

(d) Safeguarding the interests of weaker (d) All four
sections of society, including the
handicapped and mentally retarded.
87. Consider the following statements:

84. “Sentinel on the qui vive” phrase is relevant
in the context of which among the following?
(a) Supreme court of India
(b) Election commission of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
1. G-20 Satellite Mission for Environment
and Climate Observation aims to share
climate and weather data obtained from
Chandrayaan-3 Mission.
2. All the countries of Global South
have agreed to join the G-20 Satellite
Mission.

(d) Union public service commission Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

85. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 only

effect of emergency in India: (b) 2 only
1. Only the term of the Lok Sabha can be (c) Both 1 and 2
extended during operation of emergency
and not for state assemblies. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

17 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
88. Regarding Delhi Police establishment Act 2. It is commonly found in the lakes and
(DSPE), consider the following statements: ponds of central India.
1. Section 6A of the act provides that any 3. They are critically endangered as per
investigation into corruption charges the IUCN Red List.
against officials of the rank of Joint
4. They are omnivores.
Secretary and above can begin only after
the Central government’s approval. How many of the statements given above is/
2. In Vineet Narain (1997) case, the apex are correct?
court held that a statutory investigation (a) Only one
cannot be impeded by administrative
instructions. (b) Only two

3. The DSPE Act empowers the Central (c) Only three

Government to extend the jurisdiction of (d) All four
this special police force to other Union
Territories as well.
91. Consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above is/
are incorrect? 1. As per the guidelines, the strategic

RE
installations of drones will differ from
(a) Only one state to state.
(b) Only two 2. The installations will include sites like
(c) All three airports, oil refineries, power plants,
and monuments.
(d) None
3. A Counter-Unmanned Aircraft

89. With reference to ‘Ayushman Bhava’

O
Programme, launched recently, consider the
System(C-UAS) will be established for a
set of legal procedures to handle rogue
drones.
following statements:
With reference to the National Counter
SC
Statement-I:
Rogue Drone Guidelines, how many of the
The Programme aims to redefine and shift statements given above is/are incorrect?
the healthcare accessibility from whole-of-
(a) Only one
nation and whole-of-society approach.
(b) Only two
Statement-I:
This campaign was initiated by the Ministry (c) All three
of Health and Family Welfare. (d) None
GS

Which one of the following is correct in

respect of the above statements? 92. Consider the following:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. Increase in capital inflows into India
correct and Statement-II is the correct 2. Increase in foreign portfolio investments
explanation for Statement-II. (FPI)
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 3. Tendency for the currency to depreciate
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I. 4. Investors to buy Indian government
bonds denominated in Rupee
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect. 5. Increase Inflation

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- Which of the above given are probably the
II is correct. impacts when G-secs are traded in the bond
market?
90. Regarding the Peacock Soft-shelled Turtle (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(Nilssonia hurum), consider the following (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
statements:
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1. They are freshwater turtles, native to
the Indian subcontinent. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 18
93. Consider the following statements regarding 96. Consider the following statements regarding
NASA’s OSIRIS-REx mission: ‘Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta
1. OSIRIS-REx is a NASA spacecraft Sampann Hitgrahi Yojana’:
designed to study and collect samples 1. It is a National Action Plan for skilling
from an asteroid named Bennu. marginalized persons covering SCs,
OBCs, EBCs, DNTs, Sanitation workers
2. The primary objective of the OSIRIS-
including waste pickers.
REx mission is to return samples from
Bennu to Earth for further analysis. 2. National Scheduled Castes Finance and
Development Corporation (NSFDC) is
Which of the statements above is/are
solely responsible for the implementation
correct?
of the scheme.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only

RE
(c) Both 1 and 2
94. Consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Article 105 of the Constitution deals with
the powers of the Houses of Parliament 97. Which of the following best describes the
against a defamation suit. term “Global South”?

2. The protection under Article 105 does (a) It refers to countries located in the

Parliament.
O
not extend to the Attorney General of
India and non-members of the House of
southern hemisphere of the globe.
(b) It represents a group of countries that
have significant economic and political
influence in global affairs.
SC
3. The Supreme Court held that
parliamentarians are entitled to (c) It denotes nations that prioritize
immunity from criminal prosecution globalization and open-market policies.
when it comes to their speech and votes (d) It signifies a collective of developing
in the House. and emerging economies from various
How many of the statements given above are continents.
correct?
GS

98. With reference to Social Stock Exchange,

(a) Only one consider the following statements:
(b) Only two 1. They are the platforms where shares
(c) All three of companies after raising capital from
public investors are traded.
(d) None
2. Any not-for-profit organization (NPO)
working for social goals essentially
95. Which of the following is the primary focus of can raise capital from public investors
the Abraham Accords, a series of agreements by listing on SSE akin to what normal
signed in 2020? companies do for listing on stock
(a) Economic cooperation between Middle exchanges.
Eastern nations. Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Resolution of the Israeli-Palestinian correct?
conflict. (a) 1 only
(c) Nuclear disarmament in the Middle (b) 2 only
East.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Establishment of a regional security
alliance. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

19 PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
99. Consider the following statements regarding 100. Consider the following statements regarding
Pacific Decadal Oscillation (PDO): the United Nations Office on Drugs and
1. It is a sea surface temperature (SST) Crime (UNODC):
climate cycle (or teleconnection) 1. The United Nations Office on Drugs and
describing sea surface temperature Crime (UNODC) is the custodian of the
anomalies over the North-eastern Pacific
UNTOC.
Ocean.
2. The purpose of this Convention is to
2. The PDO oscillates between positive and
negative phases. promote cooperation to prevent and
combat transnational organized crime
3. Negative phase of the PDO tend to be
more effectively.
associated with periods of more rapid
global warming 3. India has so far not ratified the
4. It is a short-term climate pattern. convention.

How many of the above statements are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?

(a) Only one (a) Only one

RE
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) All three
(d) All four (d) None
O
™™™™™
SC
GS

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07 20
IAS Prelims - 2024
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07

ANSWER BOOKLET

ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I

Answer Key

Q. 1 (c) Q. 21 (a) Q. 41 (b) Q. 61 (a) Q. 81 (c)

Q. 2 (d) Q. 22 (a) Q. 42 (c) Q. 62 (d) Q. 82 (a)
Q. 3 (c) Q. 23 (c) Q. 43 (a) Q. 63 (a) Q. 83 (a)
Q. 4 (c) Q. 24 (c) Q. 44 (a) Q. 64 (d) Q. 84 (a)
Q. 5 (a) Q. 25 (c) Q. 45 (c) Q. 65 (a) Q. 85 (b)
Q. 6 (c) Q. 26 (b) Q. 46 (a) Q. 66 (c) Q. 86 (d)
Q. 7 (d) Q. 27 (a) Q. 47 (a) Q. 67 (b) Q. 87 (a)
Q. 8 (a) Q. 28 (c) Q. 48 (c) Q. 68 (d) Q. 88 (d)
Q. 9 (c) Q. 29 (c) Q. 49 (b) Q. 69 (a) Q. 89 (d)
Q. 10 (c) Q. 30 (d) Q. 50 (a) Q. 70 (d) Q. 90 (b)
Q. 11 (d) Q. 31 (c) Q. 51 (d) Q. 71 (c) Q. 91 (d)
Q. 12 (b) Q. 32 (a) Q. 52 (b) Q. 72 (b) Q. 92 (c)
Q. 13 (c) Q. 33 (d) Q. 53 (a) Q. 73 (d) Q. 93 (c)
Q. 14 (a) Q. 34 (d) Q. 54 (a) Q. 74 (c) Q. 94 (b)
Q. 15 (d) Q. 35 (a) Q. 55 (b) Q. 75 (b) Q. 95 (a)
Q. 16 (c) Q. 36 (d) Q. 56 (a) Q. 76 (a) Q. 96 (a)
Q. 17 (b) Q. 37 (b) Q. 57 (c) Q. 77 (a) Q. 97 (d)
Q. 18 (d) Q. 38 (d) Q. 58 (b) Q. 78 (c) Q. 98 (c)
Q. 19 (d) Q. 39 (a) Q. 59 (c) Q. 79 (c) Q. 99 (b)
Q. 20 (b) Q. 40 (b) Q. 60 (a) Q. 80 (b) Q. 100 (b)

PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: RSV can survive
for many hours on hard surfaces.
Supplementary notes:
Respiratory Syncytial Virus
 Respiratory syncytial virus, or RSV, is a
common respiratory virus that usually
causes mild, cold-like symptoms. Most
people recover in a week or two, but RSV
can be serious, especially for infants and
older adults.
 It is a negative-sense, single-stranded RNA
virus. Its name is derived from the large
cells known as syncytia that form when
infected cells fuse.
 RSV can survive for many hours on hard
surfaces such as tables and crib rails. It
typically lives on soft surfaces such as
tissues and hands for shorter amounts of
time.
 Like other respiratory viruses like
influenza (flu) or COVID-19, symptoms
of RSV infection usually include runny
O
nose, coughing, sneezing, fever, decreased
appetite, and wheezing. The symptoms
usually appear in stages.
 An antiviral drug called palivizumab is
available to prevent severe RSV illness in
SC
high-risk infants (born prematurely or with
congenital heart disease or chronic lung
disease).
2. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
GS
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Open Radio Access Network (RAN)
 The Radio Access Network (RAN) provides
the critical technology to connect users,
including mobile phones or enterprises, to
the mobile network over radio waves. It
also acts as a bridge to access all the key
applications on the web.
 Current RAN technology is provided as a
hardware and software integrated platform.
The ambition for Open RAN is to create a
multi-supplier RAN solution that allows for
the separation - or disaggregation - between
hardware and software with open interfaces
and virtualisation, hosting software that
controls and updates networks in the cloud.
The promised benefits include supply chain
diversity, solution flexibility, and new
capabilities leading to increased competition
and further innovation.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 New 5G use cases will deliver new revenue
streams for communication service providers
(CSPs) and new connectivity opportunities
for subscribers. These use cases include:
 Cloud gaming
 AR/VR
 Autonomous driving
 Fixed Wireless Access
 The future goal for ORAN is for any hardware
and software in the cellular network to
interoperate both seamlessly and securely
regardless of its originating vendor.
3. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
RE
Indian Biological Data Centre
 The ‘Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC)’
is the first national repository for life
science data in India. IBDC is mandated to
archive all life science data generated from
publicly funded research in India. The data
center is supported by the Government of
India (GOI) through the Department of
Biotechnology (DBT). It is being established
at the Regional Centre of Biotechnology
(RCB), Faridabad in the national capital
region in collaboration with the National
Informatics Centre (NIC), India. In times
to come, IBDC is envisaged to emerge as
a major data repository for all life science
data emerging from India.
 Indian Crop Phenome Database (ICPD) is a
domain of the Indian Biological Data Center
(IBDC), Regional Centre for Biotechnology,
Faridabad, developed for the digitization
of crop phenome data. ICPD would act as
single-stop user-friendly platform for freely
archiving, organizing, analyzing, and sharing
the multi-crop phenome data following
FAIR (Findable, Accessible, Interoperable
and Re-usable) data principles.
4. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement II is incorrect: ACE2 is known
to be expressed both as membrane-bound
receptors or as soluble proteins.
Supplementary notes:
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2
(ACE2)
 ACE2 is known to be expressed in various
human organs, and its organ- and cell-
specific expression suggests that it may play
2
 a role in the regulation of cardiovascular
and renal function, as well as fertility.
ACE2 is an enzyme that can be found either
attached to the membrane of cells (mACE2)
in the intestines, kidney, testis, gallbladder,
and heart or in a soluble form (sACE2).
 Both membranes bound and soluble ACE2
are integral parts of the renin–angiotensin–
aldosterone system (RAAS) that exists to
keep the body’s blood pressure in check.
While mACE2 does not appear to factor into
the harmful phase of RAAS (the increase
of blood pressure), its existence is vital in
order for the enzyme ADAM17 to cleave its
extracellular domain to create soluble ACE2
(sACE2).
 Soluble ACE2 lowers blood pressure by
catalyzing the hydrolysis of angiotensin II
(a vasoconstrictor peptide) into angiotensin
(1–7) (a vasodilator) which in turns binds
RE
to MasR receptors creating localized
vasodilation and hence decreasing blood
pressure. This decrease in blood pressure
makes the entire process a promising drug
target for treating cardiovascular diseases.
 mACE2 serves as the entry point into cells
for some coronaviruses, including HCoV-
NL63, SARS-CoV, and SARS-CoV-2. The
O
SARS-CoV-2 spike protein itself is known to
damage the endothelium via downregulation
of ACE2. The human version of the enzyme
can be referred to as hACE2.
SC
 ACE2 is a functional receptor for the spike
glycoprotein of the human coronavirus
HCoV-NL63 and the human severe acute
respiratory syndrome coronaviruses, SARS-
CoV and SARS-CoV-2, the latter is the
causative agent of coronavirus disease-2019
(COVID-19).
GS
5. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: Blue stragglers are
stars in a cluster that are very bright and
very blue but stubbornly persist on the main
sequence. Unlike their more well-behaved
siblings, they burn hydrogen long after they
should have run out of fuel.
 They are only found in dense stellar
systems, where distances between stars are
extremely small (a fraction of a light year).
Supplementary notes:
Blue Straggler stars
 All stars follow a particular path in life,
known as the main sequence. The moment
they begin fusing hydrogen in their cores,
they maintain a strict relationship between
their brightness and temperature. Different
3
stars will have different combinations of
brightness and temperature, but they all
obey the same relationship. For example,
smaller stars, like red dwarfs, will be
relatively dim but also cool, with their
surfaces turning a characteristic shade of
red. Medium stars, like the sun, will be both
hotter and brighter, turning white. The
largest stars will be both incredibly bright
and extremely hot, making them appear
blue.
 All stars get progressively hotter and
brighter as they age, because the fusion of
hydrogen leaves behind helium. Once the
star runs out of available hydrogen in its
core, it turns to fusing helium — or even
heavier elements, if the star is massive
enough — at the end of its life. When this
happens, the star moves away from the
main sequence, coming up with strange
new combinations of temperature and
brightness. For example, red giants are
incredibly bright but have relatively cool
surfaces — something that can’t happen to
a hydrogen-burning main sequence star.
 Astronomers can use the main sequence
to estimate the ages of stars, especially if
those stars belong to a cluster. Stars within
a cluster tend to form around the same
time, which means that stars begin fusing
hydrogen, and enter the main sequence, at
roughly the same time.
 After enough time, the largest stars begin to
die, leaving the main sequence as they do.
As more time passes, smaller and smaller
stars follow suit. Because all the stars in the
cluster have the same age, astronomers can
use this observation to calculate that age.
 But there is an exception for the blue
stragglers. Carrying out the first-ever
comprehensive analysis of blue stragglers,
Indian researchers found that half of the
blue stragglers in their sample are formed
through mass transfer from a close binary
companion star, one third are likely formed
through collisions of 2 stars, and the
remaining are formed through interactions
of more than 2 stars.
 Initially, these blue stars still straggling
above the turnoff were not considered as
part of these clusters. However, later studies
confirmed that these stars are indeed cluster
members, and they were termed “Blue
Stragglers”. The only probable way these
stars can still be present in these clusters is
if they have somehow acquired extra mass
along the way while on the main sequence.
Confirming the mechanisms of the mass
gain required a study using a large sample
of blue-straggler stars and estimates of the
mass they have gained.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
6. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Gluons
are the bosons that carry the strong nuclear
force.
Supplementary notes:
Fundamental particles
 The standard model of particle physics, divides
every particle in the universe and even the
larger composite particles fit into two broad
categories; fermions and bosons.
 Fermions such as quarks, electrons,
neutrinos, protons, and neutrons are
the foundation of matter, while one
category of bosons, the gauge bosons, are
responsible for acting as the ‘carriers’ of at
least three of the four fundamental forces
— electromagnetism, the strong nuclear
force, and the weak nuclear force. That
means that fermions interact with each
other via the exchange of gauge bosons.
 The most famous gauge boson is the photon,
the constituent particle of light and the
mediator of the electromagnetic force.
O
 Gluons, the second discovered gauge boson,
are the bosons that carry the strong nuclear
force. As a result, they are responsible for
‘sticking’ other particles together.
The W and Z bosons are the gauge bosons
SC

responsible for carrying the weak nuclear
force, stronger than gravity but only effective
across incredibly short ranges.
 The Higgs boson was first introduced into
the standard model of particle physics
to explain how the W and Z bosons got
their mass, but its mass-granting role as
the facilitator of the Higgs field was soon
GS
extended to almost all particles.
 There may also be bosons to carry the force
of gravity, but that isn’t currently certain.
The gauge bosons are fundamental particles
— meaning they’re not comprised of smaller
particles — but there are other bosons that
are composed of smaller particles.
Polymer Monomer
Rubber Isoprene (1, 2-methyl 1 – 1, 3-butadiene)
BUNA – S (a) 1, 3-butadiene (b) Styrene
BUNA – N (a) 1, 3-butadiene (b) Vinyl Cyanide
Teflon Tetrafluoro Ethane
Terylene (a) Ethylene glycol (b) Terephthalic acid
Glyptal (a) Ethylene glycol (b) Phthalic acid
Bakelite (a) Phenol (b) Formaldehyde
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 All matter around us is made of elementary
particles, the building blocks of matter.
These particles occur in two basic types
called quarks and leptons.
 Each group consists of six particles, which
are related in pairs, or “generations”. The
lightest and most stable particles make up
the first generation, whereas the heavier
and less-stable particles belong to the
second and third generations.
 All stable matter in the universe is made
from particles that belong to the first
generation; any heavier particles quickly
decay to more stable ones.
 The six quarks are paired in three
generations – the “up quark” and the “down
quark” form the first generation, followed
by the “charm quark” and “strange quark”,
then the “top quark” and “bottom (or beauty)
quark”. Quarks also come in three different
RE
“colours” and only mix in such ways as to
form colourless objects.
 Leptons come in two types: electrons,
which have an electric charge of –1, and
neutrinos, which are electrically neutral.
Leptons do not possess color charge and do
not interact via the strong force; this is the
main feature that distinguishes them from
quarks.
 The six leptons are similarly arranged in
three generations – the “electron” and the
“electron neutrino”, the “muon” and the
“muon neutrino”, and the “tau” and the “tau
neutrino”. The electron, the muon and the
tau all have an electric charge and a sizeable
mass, whereas the neutrinos are electrically
neutral and have very little mass.
7. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched.
Supplementary notes:
Polymers
Uses
Making tyres, elastic materials
Synthetic rubber
Synthetic rubber
Non-stick cookware – plastics
Fabric
Fabric
Plastic switches, Mugs, buckets
4
 PVC Vinyl Cyanide Tubes, Pipes
Melamine
(a) Melamine (b) Formaldehyde Ceramic plastic material
Formaldehyde Resin
Nylon-6 Caprolactam Fabric

8. Correct Option: (a) Supplementary notes:

Explanation: Sources of the Constitution at a Glance

 Option (a) is correct.
Sources Features Borrowed
Protists
Japanese Procedure established by Law
 Living things are divided into five kingdoms: Constitution
animal, plant, fungi, protist and monera.
French Republic and the ideals of liberty,
 Protists cannot be divided perfectly into Constitution equality, and fraternity in the
algae, protozoa, and fungi. As a result, Preamble.
the protists are spread across the major
conventional algal and fungal classifications Australian Concurrent List, freedom of trade,

RE
Constitution commerce and inter-course, and
(in kingdom systems) and the eukaryotes joint sitting of the two Houses of
generally (in the three-domain system). Parliament.

Supplementary notes: Russia Fundamental duties and the ideal

 Examples of protists include: Constitution of justice (social, economic and
political) in the Preamble.
 Amoebas (including nucleariids and
Foraminifera);
O Government
of India Act of
Federal Scheme, Office of
governor, Judiciary, Public
 Choanoflagellates; ciliates; 1935 Service Commissions, Emergency
provisions and administrative
 Diatoms; details.
SC
 Dinoflagellates;
British Parliamentary government, Rule
 Giardia; Constitution of Law, legislative procedure,
single citizenship, cabinet system,
 Oomycetes (including Phytophthora, the prerogative writs, parliamentary
cause of the Great Famine of Ireland); privileges and bicameralism.
and
US Constitution Fundamental rights, independence
 Plasmodium (which causes malaria); of judiciary, judicial review,
GS

impeachment of the president,

 Slime molds.
 A protist is any eukaryote that is not an
animal, (land) plant, or (true) fungus;
this definition excludes many unicellular
groups, like the Microsporidia (fungi), many
Chytridiomycetes (fungi), and yeasts (fungi),
and also a non-unicellular group included in
Protista in the past, the Myxozoa (animal).
Note: Blue-green algae is a bacterium.
9. Correct Option: (c)
removal of Supreme Court and
high court judges and post of
vicepresident.
Irish Directive Principles of State Policy,
Constitution nomination of members to Rajya
Sabha and method of election of
president.
Canadian Federation with a strong Centre,
Constitution vesting of residuary powers
in the Centre, appointment of
state governors by the Centre,
and advisory jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court.

Weimar Suspension of Fundamental Rights

Explanation: Constitution of during Emergency.
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: French Germany
Constitution - Ideals of liberty, equality,
South African Procedure for amendment of
and fraternity
Constitution the Constitution and election of
 Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Russia members of Rajya Sabha.
Constitution - Fundamental Duties

5
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
10. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Indian constitution
secures a living wage, a decent standard of
life and social and cultural opportunities
for all workers under Article 43 of DPSP
(Socialistic Principles).
Supplementary notes:
Fixation of Floor Wage
 The Code on Wages, 2020 mentions the
concept of a floor wage, which empowers
the central government to fix floor wages
considering the minimum living standards
of workers.
 The floor wage is a baseline wage below
which minimum wages cannot be fixed by
state governments.
 The Wage Code permits the fixation of
different floor-level wages for different
geographical areas. However, this has given
rise to the fear of flight of capital from areas
where the wage is higher to areas where the
wage is lower.
O
Socialistic Principles
 These principles reflect the ideology of
socialism. They lay down the framework of a
democratic socialist state, aim at providing
SC
social and economic justice, and set the
path towards welfare state. They direct the
state:
 To promote the welfare of the people by
securing a social order permeated by
justice–social, economic and political
and to minimise inequalities in income,
status, facilities and opportuni-ties4
GS
(Article 38).
 To secure (a) the right to adequate
means of livelihood for all citizens;
(b) the equitable distribution of
material resources of the community
for the common good; (c) prevention of
concentration of wealth and means of
production; (d) equal pay for equal work
for men and women; (e) preservation of
the health and strength of workers and
children against forcible abuse; and (f)
opportunities for healthy development of
children5 (Article 39).
 To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor (Article 39
A).
 To secure the right to work, to
education, and to public assistance
in cases of unemployment, old age,
sickness and disablement (Article 41).
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 To make provision for just and humane
conditions of work and maternity relief
(Article 42).
 To secure a living wage, a decent
standard of life and social and cultural
opportunities for all workers (Article
43).
 To take steps to secure the participation
of workers in the management of
industries (Article 43 A).
 To raise the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of people and to
improve public health (Article 47).
11. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The
RE
formation of new states, alteration of
areas and boundaries can be amended by
a simple majority of the two Houses
of Parliament.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental
Rights and Directive Principles of State
Policy can be amended by the special
majority of the Parliament.
Supplementary notes:
Procedure for Amending the Indian
Constitution
 Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution
deals with the power of parliament to amend
the constitution and its procedures.
 It states that the Parliament may amend the
Constitution by way of addition, variation or
repeal of any provision in accordance with
the procedure laid down for the purpose.
 However, the Parliament cannot amend
those provisions which form the ‘basic
structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled
by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda
Bharati case (1973).
 It provides for two types of amendments,
that is, by a special majority of Parliament
and the special majority of parliament along
with the ratification of half of the State
legislatures by a simple majority.
 Amendment of certain provisions of the
Constitution requires amendment by a
simple majority of each house present and
voting. These amendments are not deemed
to be amendments under Article 368.
Simple Majority
 A number of provisions in the Constitution
can be amended by a simple majority of the
two Houses of Parliament outside the scope
of Article 368. These provisions include:
6
  Formation of new states and alteration
of areas, boundaries or names of existing
states,
 Abolition or creation of legislative
councils in states,
 Use of official language,
 Citizenship – acquisition, and
termination,
 Elections to Parliament and state
legislatures,
 Fifth Schedule – administration of
scheduled areas and scheduled tribes,
 Sixth Schedule – administration of tribal
areas.
Special Majority
 Under Article 368(2), Parliament can amend
the Constitution by passing a Bill with a
RE
special majority.
 Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are the
two most important provisions that can be
amended by the special majority, but the
amendments should be within the Basic
structure of the constitution.

O
All provisions that do not require ratification
by states, and those that come directly under
the purview of Article 368, can be amended
by the special majority. Special Majority
SC
with Consent of Half of States:
 Those provisions of the Constitution
which are related to the federal structure
of the polity can only be amended by a
special majority of the Parliament and
with the consent of half of the state
legislatures by a simple majority.
Important provisions that require
GS
 cannot be an interregnum.
ratification by the states include the
election of President, Supreme Court and
High Courts, representation of states in
Parliament, distribution of legislative
powers between the Union and the
states, and the extent of executive power
of the Union and the states.
 Most importantly, an amendment to
Article 368 itself, requires ratification by
the states.
12. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The governor
has no security of tenure and no fixed term
of office.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: A governor
whose term has expired may be reappointed
in the same state or any other state.
7
Supplementary notes:
Office of Governor
 A governor holds office for a term of five
years from the date on which he enters
upon his office. However, this term of
five years is subject to the pleasure of the
President. Further, he can resign at any
time by addressing a resignation letter to
the President. The Supreme Court held
that the pleasure of the President is not
justifiable. The governor has no security of
tenure and no fixed term of office. He may
be removed by the President at any time.
 The Constitution does not lay down any
grounds upon which a governor may be
removed by the President. Hence, the
National Front Government headed by
V.P. Singh (1989) asked all the governors
to resign as they were appointed by the
Congress government. Eventually, some
of the governors were replaced and some
were allowed to continue. The same thing
was repeated in 1991, when the Congress
Government headed by P.V. Narasimha
Rao changed fourteen governors appointed
by the V.P. Singh and Chandra Sekhar
governments.
 The President may transfer a Governor
appointed to one state to another state for
the rest of the term. Further, a Governor
whose term has expired may be reappointed
in the same state or any other state. A
governor can hold office beyond his term
of five years until his successor assumes
charge. The underlying idea is that there
must be a governor in the state and there
 The President can make such provision
as he thinks fit for the discharge of the
functions of the governor in any contingency
not provided for in the Constitution, for
example, the death of a sitting governor.
Thus, the chief justice of the concerned state
high court may be appointed temporarily to
discharge the functions of the governor of
that state.
 A decision to remove a Governor can be
challenged in a court of law. In such cases,
first the petitioner will have to make a
prima facie case of arbitrariness or bad
faith on part of the central government. If
a prima facie case is established, the court
can require the central government to
produce the materials on the basis of which
the decision was made in order to verify the
presence of compelling reasons.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
13. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Parliamentary Privileges
 Parliamentary privileges are special rights,
immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the
two Houses of Parliament, their committees
and their members. These privileges
are defined in Article 105 of the Indian
Constitution.
 Under these privileges, the members of
Parliament are exempted from any civil
liability (but not criminal liability) for any
statement made or act done in the course
of their duties. The privileges are claimed
only when the person is a member of the
house. As soon as s/he ends to be a member,
the privileges are said to be called off.
Parliament has not made any special law to
exhaustively codify all the privileges. They
are rather based on five sources:
 Constitutional provisions
 Various laws made by Parliament
O
 Rules of both the Houses
 Parliamentary conventions
 Judicial interpretations
SC
Privileges:
 Freedom of Speech in Parliament: The
freedom of speech and expression guaranteed
to a citizen under Article 19(2) is different
from the freedom of speech and expression
provided to a member of the parliament. It
has been guaranteed under Article 105(1) of
the Indian constitution. But the freedom is
GS
subject to rules and orders which regulate
the proceedings of the parliament.
 Limitations: Freedom of speech should
be in accordance with the constitutional
provisions and subject to rules and
procedures of the parliament, as stated
under Article 118 of the Constitution.
Under Article 121 of the Constitution, the
members of the parliament are restricted
from discussing the conduct of the judges of
the Supreme Court and the High Court.
 Freedom from Arrest: The members
enjoy freedom from arrest in any civil case
40 days before and after the adjournment
of the house and also when the house is
in session. No member can be arrested
from the limits of the parliament without
the permission of the house to which s/he
belongs so that there is no hindrance in
performing their duties. If the detention of
any members of the parliament is made, the
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
chairman or the speaker should be informed
by the concerned authority, of the reason for
the arrest. But a member can be arrested
outside the limits of the house on criminal
charges against him under the Preventive
Detention act, the Essential Services
Maintenance Act (ESMA), the National
Security Act (NSA), or any such act.
 Right to Prohibit the Publication
of Proceedings: Article 105(2) of the
Constitution, no person shall be held liable
for publishing any reports, discussions etc.
of the house under the authority of the
member of the house. For paramount and
national importance, it is essential that the
proceedings should be communicated to the
public to aware them of what is going on in
the parliament.
 Right to Exclude Strangers: The
members of the house have the power and
RE
right to exclude strangers who are not
members of the house from the proceedings.
This right is very essential for securing free
and fair discussion in the house.
14. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Appointment of
permanent judges in a high court having
jurisdiction over more than one state the
Chief Justice of that High Court would
initiate proposal to the Governor of the
concerned states.
Supplementary notes:
Appointment of High Court Judges
 The Chief Justice and Judges of the
High Courts are to be appointed by the
President under clause (1) of Article 217
of the Constitution. The Judges of the
Jammu & Kashmir High Court are to
be appointed by the President under
section 95 of the Constitution of Jammu &
Kashmir. Appointments to the High Court
should be made on a time bound schedule
so that the appointments are made well
in advance preferably a month before the
occurrence of the anticipated vacancy.
 When a permanent vacancy is expected to
arise in any year in the office of a Judge, the
Chief Justice will as early as possible but at
least 6 months before the date of occurrence
of the vacancy, communicate to the Chief
Minister of the State his views as to the
persons to be selected for appointment.
Full details of the persons recommended,
in the format given in Annexure-I should
invariably be sent. Before forwarding his
recommendation, the Chief Justice must
consult two of his senior-most colleagues
8
 on the Bench regarding the suitability of
the names proposed. All consultation must
be in writing and these opinions must be
sent to the Chief Minister along with the
recommendations.
Appointment of permanent judges in a
high court having jurisdiction over more
than one state:
 For appointments in these High Courts,
the Chief Justice would initiate proposal
to the Governor of the State where the seat
of High Court is situated, and in the case
of High Court of Punjab & Haryana, to the
senior of the two Governors of these States,
who would do the coordination and obtain
the views of other Governor and Chief
Ministers concerned in writing and forward
the same along with the recommendations
of the Chief Justice of the High Court to
the Union Minister of Law, Justice and
RE
Company Affairs for further appropriate
action.
 In case, any of the State authorities wishes
to recommend a name different from the one
recommended by the Chief Justice of the
High Court, he should send the same to the
Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
O
for his consideration. The initiation of a
recommendation for filling up of a vacancy
would be made only by the Chief Justice of
the High Court concerned.
SC
15. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: The public interests
would be served by the establishment of a
Council.
Supplementary notes:
GS
Inter-State Council
 Article 263 of the Constitution of India
provides for the establishment of an Inter-
State Council.
 “263. Provisions with respect to an inter-
State Council – If at any time it appears
to the President that the public interests
would be served by the establishment of a
Council charged with the duty of:
 inquiring into and advising upon disputes
which may have arisen between States;
 investigating and discussing subjects in
which some or all of the States, or the
Union and one or more of the States,
have a common interest; or
 making recommendations upon
any such subject and, in particular,
recommendations for the better co-
ordination of policy and action with
respect to that subject,
9
 It shall be lawful for the President by order
to establish such a Council, and to define
the nature of the duties to be performed by
it and its organization and procedure.”
 The Commission on Centre-State Relations
under the Chairmanship of Justice R. S.
Sarkaria in its report in January 1988
recommended that:
 A permanent Inter-State Council called
the Inter-Governmental Council (IGC)
should be set up under Article 263.
 The IGC should be charged with the
duties set out in clauses (b) and (c) of
Article 263, other than socio-economic
planning and development.”(para 9.10.01
of the Report)
 Government of India accepted the
recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission
to set-up an Inter-State Council and notified
the establishment of the Inter-State Council
vide Presidential Order dated 28.05.1990.
16. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct.
 Laterite Soil: The term is derived from
the word ‘Later’ which means ‘brick’.
Laterite soil is found in those regions of the
country which receive heavy rainfall with
an alternate dry and wet period - mainly,
near the coasts. This kind of soil becomes
soft when wet and hardens when dry. In
these climatic conditions, leaching of soil
takes place, which is a process in which the
fertile portion of the soil gets washed away
by heavy rains. They are formed from the
decomposition of rocks and contain iron
oxide, which gives them red or pink color.
This type of soil is ordinarily deficient in
nitrogen and is weak in lime content; it is
acidic soil. It is found in several parts of the
country mainly Western and Eastern Ghats,
Vindhyas, Malwa plateau, and Satpuras.
The states where this type of soil can be
found are West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh,
Bihar, Meghalaya, Assam, and Odisha, to
name a few. Laterite soil supports crops like
Rice, Ragi, Sugarcane, rubber, coconut, tea,
coffee and Cashew nuts.
Supplementary notes:
Soil types and their locations
 Black Soil: This type of soil is made up of
volcanic rocks and lava. Black soil is also
known as ‘regur’ which is derived from the
Telugu word ‘reguda’. Black soil is also
known as Black Cotton Soil as cotton is an
important crop that is grown in this type of
soil. This soil is rich in calcium carbonate,
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 potash, lime, and magnesium carbonate but
has poor phosphorus content. It is mostly
found in areas such as Gujarat, Madhya
Pradesh, and Maharashtra. It is also found
in states like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
and Karnataka. Black soil is excellent
and clayey and can hold a lot of moisture.
It becomes sticky in the rainy season and
develops cracks when dry. Black soil is
good for producing cotton, oilseeds, wheat,
linseed, millets, and tobacco.
 Red Soil: This type of soil is formed as a
result of weathering of metamorphic and
igneous rocks. The red colour of the soil
comes from the high percentage of iron
content. The soil’s texture varies from
sandy to clayey, but it is mainly loamy. It is
rich in potash content but lacks phosphate,
hummus, and nitrogen content. The red soil
is found in regions such as Tamil Nadu,
Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Odisha,
some parts of Karnataka, and southeast
Maharashtra.
 Peat Soil: The accumulation of a high
number of organic matter in the soil in
humid regions results in the formation of
peaty soils. These types of soils constitute
O
about 10 to 40% of the organic matter and
also a reasonable number of soluble salts.
Peaty soils are heavy, black, and have high
acidic content. They are low in phosphate
and potash content. Peaty and marshy soils
SC
are found in a few districts of Kerala. On
the other hand, marshy soils are found in
coastal areas of some states such as Tamil
Nadu, Bihar, Almora district of Uttaranchal,
and Sundarbans of West Bengal.
17. Correct Option: (b)
GS
Explanation:
 Pair 1 is incorrect: Cocos plate - Between
Central America and Pacific plate
 Pair 2 is correct: Nazca plate - Between
South America and Pacific plate
 Pair 3 is incorrect: Capricorn microplate
- Between Indian and Australian plates
 Pair 4 is correct: Caroline plate - Between
the Philippine and Indian plate
Supplementary notes:
Tectonic plates
A tectonic plate (also called lithospheric

plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab
of solid rock, generally composed of both
continental and oceanic lithosphere.
 The lithosphere includes the crust and top
mantle with its thickness range varying
between 5-100 km in oceanic parts and
about 200 km in the continental areas.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 Plates move horizontally over the
asthenosphere as rigid units.
 A plate may be referred to as the continental
plate or oceanic plate depending on which of
the two occupy a larger portion of the plate.
 Pacific plate is largely an oceanic plate
whereas the Eurasian plate may be called a
continental plate.
 The major plates are as follows : (i) Antarctica
and the surrounding oceanic plate (ii)
North American (with western Atlantic
floor separated from the South American
plate along the Caribbean islands) plate
(iii) South American (with western Atlantic
floor separated from the North American
plate along the Caribbean islands) plate
(iv) Pacific plate (v) India-Australia-New
Zealand plate (vi) Africa with the eastern
Atlantic floor plate (vii) Eurasia and the
adjacent oceanic plate.
RE
 Minor plates - Cocos plate : Between
Central America and Pacific plate (ii) Nazca
plate : Between South America and Pacific
plate (iii) Arabian plate : Mostly the Saudi
Arabian landmass (iv) Philippine plate :
Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate (v)
Caroline plate : Between the Philippine and
Indian plate (North of New Guinea) (vi) Fuji
plate : North-east of Australia.
New plates map
 The new model for tectonic plates better
explains the spatial distribution of 90
percent of earthquakes and 80 percent
of volcanoes from the past two million
years.
 Existing models only capture 65 percent of
earthquakes.
The map includes several new microplates

to the existing tectonic plate model like the
 Macquarie microplate which sits
south of Tasmania; and
 The Capricorn microplate which
separates the Indian and Australian
plates.
 Researchers found that plate boundary
zones account for nearly 16% of the Earth’s
crust and an even higher proportion, 27%,
of continents.
 The new model now includes all the
deformation zones north of India as the
plate bulldozes its way into Eurasia.
18. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The western
cyclonic disturbances experienced in the
north and north-western parts of the
country are brought in by the subtropical
westerly jet stream.
10
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The sub-tropical
easterly jet stream blows over Peninsular
India.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Western
disturbances are extra-tropical cyclones
developed in the Mediterranean Sea.
Supplementary notes:
Western Cyclonic Disturbances
 The western cyclonic disturbances are
weather phenomena of the winter months
brought in by the westerly flow from the
Mediterranean region.
 They usually influence the weather of the
north and north-western regions of India.
19. Correct Option: (d)
 A characteristic feature of the cold weather
season over the northern plains is the inflow
of cyclonic disturbances from the west and
the northwest.
RE
 These low-pressure systems, originate
over the Mediterranean Sea and western
Asia and move into India, along with the
westerly flow.
 They cause the much-needed winter
rains over the plains and snowfall in the
mountains.
O
Although the total amount of winter rainfall
 Machchhu river
locally known as ‘mahawat’ is small, they are
of immense importance for the cultivation
of ‘rabi’ crops.
SC
 The peninsular region does not have a well-
defined cold season.
 There is hardly any noticeable seasonal
change in temperature pattern during
winters due to the moderating influence of
the sea.
Jet Streams
GS
 In summer, a low-pressure area develops
over interior Asia as well as over
northwestern India.
 The upper air circulation in this region is
dominated by a westerly flow. An important
component of this flow is the jet stream.
These jet streams are located approximately
over 27°-30° north latitude, therefore, they
are known as subtropical westerly jet
streams.
 Over India, these jet streams blow south of
the Himalayas, all through the year except
in summer.
 The western cyclonic disturbances
experienced in the north and north-western
parts of the country are brought in by this
westerly flow.
 In summer, the subtropical westerly jet
stream moves north of the Himalayas with
the apparent movement of the sun.
11
 An easterly jet stream, called the sub-
tropical easterly jet stream blows over
peninsular India, approximately over 14°N
during the summer months.
 Jet streams are a narrow belt of high
altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in
the troposphere.
 Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in
summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
 A number of separate jet streams have been
identified. The most constant are the mid-
latitude and the sub tropical jet stream.
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched
1. Machchhu river - Gujarat
2. River Lukha - Meghalaya
3. River Bhogdoi - Assam
4. Parbati river - Madhya Pradesh
Supplementary notes:
Rivers in India
 The Machchhu river originates from Madla
hills in the Surendranagar district of
Gujarat and ends 141.75 km downstream in
the Rann of Kutch.
 Tributaries: Beti, Asoi, Jamburi, Benia,
Machchhori, Maha are the tributaries of
Machchhu river.
River Lukha
 One of Meghalaya’s major rivers is the
Lukha. The river has been rendered dead
by unchecked mining activity and effluents
released by cement factories.
River Bhogdoi
 The rampant coal mining in Nagaland,
coupled with waste discharge from tea
estates and encroachment have been
sounding death knells for River Bhogdoi in
Assam.
Parbati River
 Parbati River is a river in Madhya Pradesh
and Rajasthan, India that flows into the
Chambal River.
International Day of Action for Rivers
(IDAR)
 Every year on March 14, the International
Day of Action for Rivers (IDAR) is observed
to promote awareness of the importance of
the river systems on the planet earth.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  This year, the 25th anniversary of the day
was observed.
 The day was earlier known as International
Day against Dams, for Rivers, Water, and
Life.
 Theme: Rights of Rivers.
 It calls for the designation of rivers as a
national treasure.
20. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Indian Monsoon
 The monsoons are experienced in the tropical
area roughly between 20° N and 20° S. To
understand the mechanism of the monsoons,
the following facts are important.
 The differential heating and cooling of
land and water creates low pressure on
the landmass of India while the seas
around experience comparatively high
pressure.
O
 The shift of the position of Inter Tropical
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer,
over the Ganga plain (this is the
equatorial trough normally positioned
about 5°N of the equator. It is also
SC
known as the monsoon trough during
the monsoon season).
 The presence of the high-pressure area,
east of Madagascar, approximately at
20°S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity
and position of this high-pressure area
affects the Indian Monsoon.
The Tibetan plateau gets intensely
GS
 
heated during summer, which results
in strong vertical air currents and the
formation of low pressure over the
plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
 The movement of the westerly jet stream to
the north of the Himalayas and the presence
of the tropical easterly jet stream over the
Indian peninsula during summer.
21. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The two main
types of ore found in our country are
Hematite and Magnetite (NOT limonite).
 Limonite are inferior ores.
 These are found in Damuda series in
Raniganj coal field, Garhwal in Uttarákhand,
Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh and Kangra
valley of Himachal Pradesh.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
Supplementary notes:
Mineral and metal deposits
Bauxite
 Bauxite is the ore which is used in
manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is
found mainly in tertiary deposits and is
associated with laterite rocks occurring
extensively either on the plateau or hill
ranges of peninsular India and also in the
coastal tracts of the country.
 Odisha happens to be the largest producer
of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are
the leading producers.
 Odisha is India’s largest bauxite
producer accounting for about 49% of
the total production followed by Gujarat
(24%), Jharkhand (9%), Chhattisgarh and
Maharashtra (8% each).
Iron Ore
RE
 India is endowed with fairly abundant
resources of iron ore. It has the largest
reserve of iron ore in Asia.
 The two main types of ore found in our
country are haematite and magnetite.
 About 95 per cent of total reserves of iron
ore is located in the States of Odisha,
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa,
Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu.
 The iron ore mines occur in close proximity
to the coal fields in the north-eastern
plateau region of the country which adds to
their advantage.
Graphite
 Graphite, also known as plumbago or
blacklead or mineral carbon, is a stable
form of naturally occurring carbon.
Both flaky and amorphous varieties of
graphite are produced in India. The quality
of graphite depends upon its physical
qualities and carbon content.
 Odisha was the leading producing State
contributing 59% to the total output during
2018-19, followed by Jharkhand (40%) and
Kerala (1%).
 Active mining centres of graphite are in
Palamu district in Jharkhand; Nuapada &
Balangir districts in Odisha; and Madurai
& Sivaganga districts in Tamil Nadu.
 In Odisha, areas in and around Balangir
are the chief mining centres where several
graphite grades are produced.
Lithium
 The Geological Survey of India estimates it
has discovered 5.9 million tons of lithium
resources in the mountainous Salal-
Haimana area of the Reasi district in the
union territory of Jammu and Kashmir
12
22. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Indian Peninsula
 The Peninsular plateau is a tableland
composed of the old crystalline, igneous and
metamorphic rocks.
 It was formed due to the breaking and
drifting of the Gondwana land and thus,
making it a part of the oldest landmass.
 The plateau has broad and shallow valleys
and rounded hills. This plateau consists of
two broad divisions, namely, the Central
Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
 The part of the peninsular plateau lying to
the north of the Narmada River, covering a
major area of the Malwa plateau, is known
as the Central Highlands.
RE
 The Vindhyan range is bounded by the
Satpura range on the south and the Aravalis
on the northwest.
 The further westward extension gradually
merges with the sandy and rocky desert of
Rajasthan.
23. Correct Option: (c)
O 
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Petrol and diesel
SC
taxes are not under the ambit of good and
services yet.
Supplementary notes:
Taxes applied on petrol/diesel by Central
and State governments
 The central government currently earns an
excise duty of Rs. 32.90 per litre of petrol
sold and Rs. 31.80 per litre of diesel sold.
GS
 Excise duty on fuel makes up about 18.4% of
the Centre’s gross tax revenues. Petroleum
and alcohol, on an average, account for 25-
35% of states’ own tax revenue, as per the
RBI’s Study of Budgets 2020-21.
 Value-added tax or a sales tax is a tax on
sale of commodities. It is a state level sales
tax. The tax rate is imposed as a percentage
of value added. Hence, it is called VAT. After
the introduction of GST only few products
like petrol and diesel are under VAT. The
state governments charge a value-added
tax or a sales tax on every litre of petrol and
diesel sold. The rate varies across states.
 States apply an ad valorem VAT or sales
tax on the base price, freight charges, excise
duty and dealer commission on petrol and
diesel. Therefore, state collections also rise
as the Centre hikes excise duties.
 As fuel prices have surged in the recent
past, so has the talk around bringing petrol
and diesel under the ambit of goods and
services tax (GST). Whenever the GST
13
Council decides to take up this issue, they
are well within their interest to take it up
and discuss.
24. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct.
 Disposal of fixed assets is taken away from
the total while calculating Gross Fixed
Capital Formation (GFCF).
 Gross fixed capital formation, abbreviated
as GFCF, consists of resident producers’
investments, deducting disposals, in fixed
assets during a given period.
 It also includes certain additions to the
value of non-produced assets realized by
producers or institutional units.
Supplementary notes:
Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)
 Gross capital formation refers to the
‘aggregate of gross additions to fixed assets
(that is fixed capital formation) plus change
in stocks of inventories’ during the counting
period.
Fixed asset refers to the construction,
machinery and equipment. Gross fixed
capital formation (GFCF) is defined
as the acquisition of produced assets
(including purchases of second-hand
assets), including the production of
such assets by producers for their own use.
 Construction for military purposes
(other than construction or alteration of
family dwellings for military personnel),
acquisition of defence equipment, durable
goods in the hands of the households
and increase in the stocks of defence
materials are excluded from the scope of
gross fixed capital formation. Gross fixed
capital formation (GFCF) includes the
acquisition of produced assets including
purchases of second-hand assets.
 It also includes the production of such
assets by producers for their own use,
minus disposals. However, the expenditure
incurred on usual/ routine repair and
maintenance is not covered for compilation
of capital formation.
 Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)
measures the value of acquisitions of new
or existing fixed assets by the business
sector, governments and “pure” households
(excluding their unincorporated enterprises)
fewer disposals of fixed assets.
 GFCF is a component of the expenditure,
and thus shows something about how much
of the new value- added in the economy is
invested rather than consumed. One of the
reasons for low GFCF is due to low spending
by the private sector in the capital asset.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  The growth of the productive capacity
of the economy of the State depends on
its rate of capital accumulation and it
is assessed by estimating the Capital
Formation of that State.
 The higher the rate of growth of Capital
Formation, the higher would be the
productive capacity of the economy,
whereas its paucity leads to the low level
of production at a higher cost.
 Thus, Capital Formation serves as a
very important indicator in measuring
the magnitude of growth of productive
potential of the economy.
25. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Participatory Notes
 FIIs must register with the Securities and
Exchange Board of India.
O
 Participatory notes allow non-registered
investors to invest in the Indian market.
 P-Notes are financial instruments
required by investors or hedge funds
SC
to invest in Indian securities without
having to register with the Securities
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
 A hedge fund is a limited partnership of
private investors whose money is managed
by professional fund managers who use
a wide range of strategies, including
leveraging or trading of non-traditional
GS
assets, to earn above-average investment
returns.
 Investments flowing through P-notes
are considered as offshore derivative
investments (ODIs). Indian securities
market regulator, SEBI issued the new
Regulations for Foreign Portfolio Investors,
participatory notes where it got formally
defined under the tag “Offshore Derivative
Instrument” (ODIs) in Section 2(1)(j) of
the said regulation.
 The P-notes holder does not enjoy any
voting rights in relation to security/shares
referenced. Also, the investor in P-notes
does not own the underlying Indian
security, which is held by the FII who issues
the Participatory Notes. Thus, the investors
in Participatory Notes derive the economic
benefits of investing in the security without
holding it.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
26. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: A Giffen good
is a rare type of good, where an increase in
price causes an increase in demand.
Supplementary notes:
Types of Goods in Indian Economy
 Giffen Good: A Giffen good is a low income,
non-luxury product that defies standard
economic and consumer demand theory. A
rare type of good, where an increase in price
causes an increase in demand. The reason is
that the income effect of a rise in the price
causes you to buy more of this cheap good
because you can’t afford more expensive
goods.
 Inferior Good: It is one whose demand drops
RE
when people’s incomes rise. The demands for
inferior goods move in the opposite direction
of the income of the consumer. Examples
of inferior goods include low quality food
items like coarse cereals. As the income of
the consumer increases, the demand for
an inferior good fall, and as the income
decreases, the demand for an inferior good
rise. This is because when the income of the
consumer increases, he will substitute these
goods with superior goods like wheat and
rice. However, if the income of the consumer
declines, he will spend substantial part of
his income on this good.
 Veblen Good: It is a good for which
demand increases as the price increases.
Veblen goods are typically high-quality
goods that are made well, are exclusive, and
are a status symbol. Examples of Veblen
goods include designer jewellery, yachts,
and luxury cars.
27. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Foreign investment in India
 Foreign investment in India is regulated
under codified foreign exchange regulations,
sector specific policies/regulations,
government policies as well as international
agreements.
 Primarily, foreign investment is regulated
through the Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999 as amended from time to time
(FEMA) and rules/ regulations issued
thereunder.
14
  The main objective of FEMA is to regulate,
consolidate and amend the law relating
to foreign exchange to facilitate foreign
investment, external trade and payments
and promote the orderly development and
maintenance of foreign exchange market in
India.
 INDIRECT FOREIGN INVESTMENT
– has been defined in Regulation 14(1)
(v) of FEMA Notification No. 20 as under:
“‘Indirect foreign investment’ means entire
investment in other Indian companies by
an Indian company (IC), having foreign
investment in it provided;
 Indian Company is not ‘owned and
controlled’ by resident Indian citizens
and/or Indian Companies which are
owned and controlled by resident Indian
citizens or
29. Correct Option: (c)
Where the Indian company is owned or
RE

controlled by non-residents.
 Downstream investment is investment
made by an Indian entity which has total
foreign investment in it or an Investment
Vehicle in the capital instruments or the
capital of another Indian entity.
If the investor company has total foreign

O
investment in it and is not owned and not
controlled by resident Indian citizens or
is owned or controlled by persons resident
outside India then such investment shall
SC
be “Indirect Foreign Investment” for the
investee company.
 Asset reconstruction Company can access
100% funding in FDI from automatic route.
28. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
GS
 Option (c) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Regulation on crypto assets in India
 At the outset, currently, there is no specific
law/regulation/licensing requirement that
is applicable on the crypto exchanges/
businesses which are operating in India.
 Depending on the form of entity, the crypto
exchanges would be required to obtain
customary approvals from the applicable
authorities for doing business in India.
 For instance, if a crypto exchange is
operating in the form of a company then
it shall have to adhere to the necessary
provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, and
its underlying rules
 Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect
tax in India which typically applies on
supply of goods and services. Considering
15
that crypto exchanges earn income in the
form of transaction fees for completion of a
transaction effectively, the GST authorities
would treat the same as commission income
which would be taxable at 18%.
 Recently, it was all over the news that the
Directorate General of GST Intelligence
(DGGI) conducted search and raids on
WazirX, Coin switch Kuber, Coin DCX
(being some of the biggest crypto exchanges
of India), and other such crypto exchanges
over potential GST evasion. Therefore,
crypto exchanges which want to enter the
Indian market should be mindful of such
requirements.
 No such regulation exists in India which
prohibits mining of crypto assets.
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The WPI
comprises of three major groups:
 Primary Articles (eg- Food Articles,
Vegetables, Milk, Minerals etc.) has the
weightage of 22.62%.
 Fuel and Power (eg- LPG, Petrol etc) has
the weightage of 13.15%.
 Manufactured Products (e.g.-
manufacture of food products, sugar,
manufacture of textiles etc.) has the
weightage of 64.23%.
 The major components in CPI (C) are as
follows (along with their weights):
 Food and Beverages – 45.86%
 Housing – 10.07%
 Fuel and Light – 6.84%
 Clothing and Footwear – 6.53%
 Pan, tobacco and intoxicants – 2.38%
 Miscellaneous – 28.32%
Supplementary notes:
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and
Consumer Price Index (CPI)
 Services are not traded/transacted in the
wholesale markets. So, WPI data does not
include the inflation due to services. The
CPI basket consists of services like housing,
education, medical care, recreation etc.
which are not part of WPI basket.
 WPI provides estimates of inflation at the
wholesale transactions level for the economy.
This helps in timely intervention by the
Government to check inflation, in particular
inflation in essential commodities, before
the price increase spills over to retail prices.
The CPI (C) is used as nominal anchor for
conduct of monetary policy in India.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  Monetary Policy Committee is mandated
to keep CPI (C) in range 2% – 6%. So CPI
is used for inflation targeting.
 CPI is also used as deflators in the
National Accounts.
 CPI is also used for calculating Dearness
Allowance.
 CPI includes indirect taxes. So, when
government increases GST rate, it is captured
in the CPI data. But in the new series of
WPI (2011-12), government has excluded
indirect taxes while measuring WPI. This is
in consonance with international practices
and will make the new WPI conceptually
closer to Producer Price Index (PPI).
30. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: An anti-
dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that
a domestic government imposes on foreign
imports that it believes are priced below fair
market value.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Countervailing
duty (CVD) is a specific form of duty that
O
the government imposes in order to protect
domestic producers by countering the
negative impact of import subsidies.
Supplementary notes:
SC
Anti-dumping duty & countervailing
duty
 World Trade Organization (WTO) deals
with the rules of trade between nations–also
operate a set of international trade rules,
including the anti-dumping duties. It also
permits the imposition of countervailing
GS
duty by its member countries.
 An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist
tariff that a domestic government imposes
on foreign imports that it believes are priced
below fair market value.
 Dumping is a process wherein a company
exports a product at a price that is
significantly lower than the price it normally
charges in its home (or its domestic) market.
While the intention of anti-dumping duties
is to save domestic jobs, these tariffs can
also lead to higher prices for domestic
consumers.
 Countervailing duty (CVD) is a specific
form of duty that the government imposes
in order to protect domestic producers by
countering the negative impact of import
subsidies.
 CVD is thus an import tax by the importing
country on imported products.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
31. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Easing/
improving the supply of an item in high
demand and short supply to ease down its
price by importing, etc. is a Supply Side
measure to combat inflation.
Supplementary notes:
Demand-Pull Inflation
 By reducing the money, the government
is pumping into the economy, especially
consumptive, non-capital type, like salaries,
HRA, DA, pensions, tax free incomes, etc. the
government reduces the disposable income
of households, thus curbing the pressure of
demand from these economic agents, thus
reducing inflation from the demand side.
RE
 When the Central Banks use a Dear Money
policy - that is - increasing key policy rates
like Repo Rate, CRR, SLR, etc., the banks
are obliged to retain more reserves, as well
as discouraged to lend out more, due to the
high rates they must pay. This reduces
money supply in the system and individuals
and businesses are unable to demand more,
thus easing demand side inflation.
 Higher interest rates on loans reduce the
demand in related sectors of the economy,
thus easing the demand pressure which was
causing inflation. For example, increasing
the rates of home loans can help curb the
inflation in prices of bricks, mortar etc.
 Easing/ improving the supply of an item in
high demand and short supply to ease down
its price by importing, etc. is a Supply Side
measure to combat inflation. For example,
when the price of pulses were skyrocketing
in 2017 due to low domestic production, the
government imported a record amount of
pulses to stabilize the prices of this essential
food item.
32. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Northern
Montane forests include the Himalayan
moist temperate forests, Himalayan dry
temperate forests, and Alpine forests. The
Himalayan Moist Temperate Forests have
mixed species of broad-leafed evergreen
trees and conifers.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The boreal
forests are the earth’s northernmost and
largest land biome. Boreal landscapes are
characterized by a low diversity of tree
species.
16
 Statement 3 is correct: The deltas of the
Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the
Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by
mangrove vegetation.
Supplementary notes:
Forest Types and Locations
 The boreal forest (or “taiga”) is the world’s
largest land biome.
 Boreal
 forests, or taiga, are the Earth’s
northernmost forests.
 The boreal ecozone principally spans 8
countries: Canada, China, Finland, Japan,
Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United
States.
 It is typically comprised of coniferous tree
species such as pine, spruce and fir with
some broadleaf species such as poplar and
RE
birch.
 Most boreal landscapes are characterized
by a low diversity of tree species, of which
gymnosperms such as Abies, Larix, Pinus, and
Picea species usually dominate, with varying
proportions of angiosperm Populus, Betula,
and Alnus species.

O
This low tree diversity belies the thousands
of species of living organisms that thrive
within boreal stands.
 Boreal forests are also an important carbon
SC
sink. Like all forests they absorb carbon
dioxide –a main contributor to global
warming and climate change—removing it
from the atmosphere and helping to keep
the entire planet healthy.
Montane Forests in India
 Montane forests grow in mountainous
regions. As the temperature decreases with
GS
an increase in height, there is a change
in the cover of the natural vegetation at
altitude. Montane forests can be divided
into two types—Northern Montane forests
and Southern Montane forests.
 The Northern Montane forests include
the Himalayan moist temperate forests,
Himalayan dry temperate forests, and
Alpine forests.
 They are found in regions that receive
rainfall between 100 cm and 300 cm. The
temperature ranges between 12°C and
13°C.
 These are found in the Himalayan zone
from Kashmir to Sikkim and Arunachal
Pradesh.
Mangrove Forests
 The mangrove tidal forests are found in the
areas of coasts influenced by tides. Mud and
silt get accumutated on such coasts.
17
 Dense mangroves are the common varieties
with roots of the plants submerged under
water. The deltas of the Ganga, the
Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and
the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
 In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, Sundari
trees are found, which provide durable hard
timber. Palm, coconut, Keori, agar, etc., also
grow in some parts of the delta.
33. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: The ice-albedo
feedback, lapse rate feedback, water vapour
feedback (Change in Water Vapour amplify
or weaken temperature range) and ocean
heat transport are the primary causes.
Supplementary notes:
Arctic amplification
 Polar amplification happens when changes
to the earth’s atmosphere led to a larger
difference in temperature near the north
and south poles than to the rest of the
world.
 This phenomenon is measured against
the average temperature change of the
planet.
 These changes are more pronounced at
the northern latitudes and are known as
the Arctic amplification.
 It occurs when the atmosphere’s net
radiation balance is affected by an increase
in greenhouse gases.
Causes the Arctic Amplifications
 The ice-albedo feedback, lapse rate feedback,
water vapour feedback (Change in Water
Vapour amplify or weaken temperature
range) and ocean heat transport are the
primary causes.
 Sea ice and snow have high albedo (measure
of reflectivity of the surface), implying that
they are capable of reflecting most of the
solar radiation as opposed to water and
land.
 As the sea ice melts, the Arctic Ocean will be
more capable of absorbing solar radiation,
thereby driving the amplification.
 The lapse rate or the rate at which the
temperature drops with elevation decreases
with warming.
 Studies show that the ice-albedo feedback
and the lapse rate feedback are responsible
for 40% and 15% of polar amplification
respectively.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
34. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Some CMEs
exhibit signatures at the solar surface and
in the lower corona as the eruption occurs.
Thus, enabling their prediction before
arriving at near-Earth satellites. However,
a significant fraction of CMEs exhibits no
such detectable signatures and are known
as “stealth CMEs”.
Supplementary notes:
Geomagnetic storms
 Geomagnetic storms are disturbances to
Earth’s magnetic field caused by solar
material from coronal mass ejections (CME)
— large expulsions of plasma and magnetic
field from the sun’s atmosphere.
 Coronal mass ejections (CMEs) – among
the most energetic events originating from
the Sun – can cause significant and sudden
disruption to the magnetic and particulate
environment of the heliosphere.
 The solar wind conditions that are
effective for creating geomagnetic storms
O
are sustained (for several to many hours)
periods of high-speed solar wind, and most
importantly, a southward directed solar
wind magnetic field (opposite the direction
SC
of Earth’s field) at the dayside of the
magnetosphere.
 Some CMEs exhibit signatures at the
solar surface and in the lower corona as
the eruption occurs, thus enabling their
prediction before arriving at near-Earth
satellites.
However, a significant fraction of CMEs
GS
 environment can sustain at a given
exhibit no such detectable signatures and
are known as “stealth CMEs”.
 The NOAA Geomagnetic Storm Scale
indicates the severity of geomagnetic
storms. It is denoted by a G followed by a
number from 1 to 5, with 1 being a minor
event, and 5 being an extreme event.
 The disturbance storm time (Dst) index, has
been used historically to characterize the
size of a geomagnetic storm.
 In addition, there are currents produced in
the magnetosphere that follow the magnetic
field, called field-aligned currents, and these
connect to intense currents in the auroral
ionosphere. These auroral currents, called
the auroral electrojets, also produce large
magnetic disturbances.
 In space, a ring of westward current around
Earth produces magnetic disturbances on
the ground.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
35. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a freshwater
lake in Odhisha.
 Statement 2 is correct: The lake is an
important habitat for vulnerable species
such as Cyprinus carpio and river tern.
Supplementary notes:
Ramsar wetlands
 Tampara lake is among the most prominent
freshwater lakes in Odisha, situated in
Ganjam district.
 The wetland is an important habitat for
vulnerable species such as Cyprinus carpio,
common pochard (Aythya ferina), and river
tern (Sterna aurantia).
RE
 Recently, India has added 11 more Ramsar
sites, or wetlands that are of international
importance, taking the number of such sites
to 75.
 Tamil Nadu has maximum no. of Ramsar
sites (14), followed by UP which has 10 nos.
of Ramsar sites.
36. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
About terms of ecology
 Carrying capacity
 The maximum number of individuals
in a single population that a given
time.
 The carrying capacity is a characteristic
of a single population of a single species
at a single time in a single place.
 Biomagnification
 The process by which some substances
increase in concentration in a food
chain or food web.
 Biomagnification occurs because certain
substances, including some pesticides
and heavy metals, are not easily degraded
and can accumulate in organisms’ tissues
or internal organs.
 Eutrophication
 The buildup of nitrogen and
phosphorous in an aquatic environment.
Eutrophication usually leads to an
exponential growth in bacteria and
algae.
18
  Niche
 An organism’s role in an environment,
including how it uses its resources,
relates to other organisms, and times its
reproduction.
 Each individual organism has a niche in its
population, community, and ecosystem, but
niches are flexible and change depending on
circumstances.
37. Correct Option: (b)
38. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct.
Ecological
Types of Seres
Succession
Succession initiating on sandy
Psammosere
RE
areas.
Succession starting in saline
Halosere
soil or water.
Succession of microorganism
Senile
on dead matter.
Development of vegetation in
Eosere
an era.
O endemic to a small area is often a warning
Supplementary notes:
Ecological Succession
SC
 Ecological succession is a process by which
an ecosystem undergoes predictable and
orderly changes in structure and composition
over time. This occurs in response to various
disturbances or environmental changes.
39. Correct Option: (a)
 Primary vs. Secondary Succession:
Primary succession occurs in an entirely
GS

new or barren environment, such as a
volcanic island or a recently formed sand
dune. It starts from scratch, with no soil
or living organisms.
 Secondary succession, on the other
hand, occurs in an area that has been
disturbed but still retains some soil and
seed bank. Examples include abandoned
agricultural fields, areas affected by
wildfires, or landslides.
 Pioneer Species:
 In both primary and secondary succession,
pioneer species are the first organisms
to colonize the newly available habitat.
These species are often hardy and can
tolerate harsh conditions like extreme
temperatures, low nutrient levels, or
high salinity. They play a crucial role
in creating conditions suitable for other,
less hardy species to thrive.
19
 Climax Community:
 As succession progresses, the
community of organisms undergoes a
series of changes. Over time, the species
composition becomes relatively stable
and reaches a state of equilibrium
known as the climax community. This
community is well-adapted to the
prevailing environmental conditions
and tends to persist until another major
disturbance occurs.
Explanation:
 Option (d) is incorrect: Endemism is the
condition of being endemic, or restricted
in geographical distribution to an area or
region. This does not show species richness.
Supplementary notes:
Endemism
 Endemism is the condition of being endemic
or restricted in geographical distribution to
an area or region.
 While endemism and being endangered
or threatened are different things, being
sign that a species may become threatened
or endangered.
 Endemism refers to the presence of a
species only in a particular region and not
anywhere else. For example, the Lion-tailed
macaque which is endemic to the Western
Ghats of India.
Explanation:
 Both Statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Thermal pollution
 Thermal pollution is defined as a sudden
increase or decrease in the temperature
of a natural body of water, which may be
an ocean, lake, river, or pond, by human
influence.
 This normally occurs when a plant or facility
takes in water from a natural resource and
puts it back at an altered temperature.
Usually, these facilities use it as a cooling
method for their machinery or to help better
produce their products.
 When a power plant first opens or shuts
down for repair or other causes, fish and
other organisms adapted to temperature
range can be killed by the abrupt change
in water temperature, either an increase or
decrease, known as “thermal shock”.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
40. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Its excavation
includes the stone portrait of Mauryan
Emperor Ashoka, surrounded by his queens
and female attendants, with the inscription
“Raya Asoko” in Brahmi on it.
Supplementary notes:
Kanaganahalli
 Kanaganahalli was a small and ordinary
village on the bank of Bhima in Karnataka.
 A Maha Stupa has been discovered
here which was referred to as Adholoka
Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the
netherworlds) in the inscriptions.
 The Maha Stupa is believed to have been
developed in three constructional phases
– Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later
Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd
Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D. The
Stupa is believed to have been destroyed in
an earthquake.
 The other recoveries included:
 Around 60 dome slabs with the sculptural
rendering of Jataka stories;
O
 Portrait of Ashoka;
 Shatavahana monarchs and certain
unique depictions of Buddhist
missionaries sent by Ashoka to different
SC
parts;
 72 drum-slabs decorated with a variety
of Dharma-Chakras, Stupas, the first
sermon, Bodhi-tree, Naga Muchulinda,
Vihara complexes;
 Over 10 inscribed sculptures of the
Buddha, over a dozen Buddha-Padas;
Fragments of Ayaka pillars, umbrella
GS
 of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
stones and shafts, parts of sculptures of
Yakshas and lion; and
 250 Brahmi inscriptions with varied
palaeographical features.
41. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The six-digit
pin code used by India Post to deliver mails
was created on August 15, 1972 by Shriram
Bhikaji Velankar.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The first digit of
the six-digit postal code indicates the zone –
North, east, west or south.
Supplementary notes:
India’s Postal Code
 The term Postal Index Number (PIN) is
popularly known as PIN code/Postal
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
Code in India. It is a code in the post office
number of the postal code system which
is used in India Post for segregating the
mails.
 The PIN code consists of six digits. The postal
address coding system was introduced by
Shriram Bhikaji in the year 1972. He was
the then additional secretary in the Union
Ministry of Communications.
 PIN code is a six-digit long code used by the
Indian Postal Department. Each digit of a
pin code has a specific meaning.
 The first digit represents the region in India.
The second digit is the sub-region, while the
third digit is the sorting district. The last
three digits represent the post office within
the district.
 There are nine PIN regions in India, out of
which eight belong to geographical regions,
RE
while the digit 9 is used for the army Postal
Service.
42. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct.

Supplementary notes:
Monuments of national importance in
India
 The Economic Advisory Council (EAC) to
the Prime Minister has released a report
titled ‘Monuments of National Importance:
The Urgent Need for Rationalization’.
 India currently has 3,693 monuments
of national importance (MNI) and their
protection and upkeep is the responsibility
 The major problem plaguing the identification
and preservation of monuments of national
importance lies in the Ancient Monuments
and Archaeological Sites and Remains
(AMASR) Act,1958.
 Neither the Act nor the National Policy for
Conservation (2014) have defined what the
term ‘national importance’ means.
 The Act also does not have a substantive
process/ criteria prescribed for identifying
a monument as a monument of national
importance. In absence of well-defined
principles, the selection of monuments of
national importance seems to be arbitrary
 With 506 monuments under its belt,
Karnataka continues to top the list in
South India, followed by Tamil Nadu (413).
Nationally too, Karnataka is in the second
place after Uttar Pradesh, which has 745
such monuments.
20
  Large number of MNI seems not to have
national importance or historical or cultural
significance. The report estimates that
around a quarter of the current list of 3,695
MNI may not have ‘national importance’
per se.
 For instance, around 75 graves and
cemeteries of British officers and
soldiers that have neither architectural
significance nor historical or cultural
importance is on the list.
43. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Geographical
Indications of Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act, 1999 seeks to provide for
the registration and better protection of
geographical indications relating to goods
RE
in India.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: This tag is valid
for a period of 10 years following which it
can be renewed.
Supplementary notes:
GI Tag

O
A GI or Geographical Indication is a name or
a sign given to certain products that relate
to a specific geographical location or origins
like a region, town, or country.
SC
 Using Geographical Indications may be
regarded as a certification that the product
is produced as per traditional methods, has
certain specific qualities, or has a particular
reputation because of its geographical origin.
Geographical indications are typically used
for spirit drinks, foodstuffs, agricultural
products, handicrafts, and industrial
GS
products.
 GI Tag ensures that none other than those
registered as authorized users are allowed
to use the popular product name. In order
to function as a GI, a sign must identify a
product as originating in each place.
 Geographical Indications are covered as a
component of intellectual property rights
(IPRs) under the Paris Convention for
the Protection of Industrial Property. At
the International level, GI is governed by
the World Trade Organisation’s (WTO’s)
Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
 In India, Geographical Indications
registration is administered by the
Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
which came into force with effect from 15th
September 2003. The first product in India
to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling
tea in the year 2004-05.
21
 A geographical indication right facilitates
those who have the right to use the
indication to prohibit its usage by a third
party whose product does not conform to the
applicable standards. However, a protected
GI does not permit the holder to forbid
someone from making a product using the
same approaches as those set out in the
standards for that indication.
 A registered GI shall be valid for 10 years
and can be renewed on payment of renewal
fee.
44. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Pithora is a
ritual art form practiced by the Bhil and
Bhilala tribes of the Western Madhya
Pradesh area spilling into Gujarat Western
plateau.
 This is a ritual performance that required
collectiveparticipation of more than four
to five people, but at present most Pithora
artists draw it individually and the art is
recognized as an individual divine git given
to the artist.
Supplementary notes:
Warli Painting
 The themes of these paintings are generally
inspired from daily life, nature, epics and
legends.
 In this painting, the goddess of trees and
plants - Palaghata, who symbolises fertility
and abundance, is represented inside
an enclosure in a square (chaukat) and
accompanied by multitudes of line drawings
of people engaged in hunting, dancing or
cultivating the land.
 The great Warli folk painting is a form of
tribal art mainly created by tribal people
in the northern region of the Sahyadri
Range, which comprises cities like Jawhar,
Palghar, Dahanu, Talasari, Mokhada, and
Vikramgarh of Palghar district, in India.
 This warli tribal painting art form first
originated in Maharashtra, which is still
practised frequently. It is believed to be one
of the oldest kinds of art forms in history.
 It is pretty popular in India and has a
distinct charm everywhere it is expressed,
but it has not gained much recognition
outside its territory.
 Warli art is a folk art of Maharashtra is
a set of basic geometric shapes: a circle, a
triangle, and a square.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 Pithora Painting
 The Pithora paintings are done by the
Rathwa, Bhil, Nayak and Tadi tribes of
Gujarat, parts of Rajasthan and Madhya
Pradesh.
 The origin of these paintings goes back a
few thousand years, arising from the cave
paintings at a local hilltop near koraj-i-
dungar. These paintings speak of the social,
cultural and mythological life and beliefs of
the tribals.
 The Pithora wall paintings are done on the
main wall of the house, which divides the
verandah from the kitchen. This part of the
house is considered sacred to Pithoro, the
god of food grains and the principal deity of
the tribe.
 The same wall is used by the Warli and the
Saora tribes for some of their paintings.
The Pithora paintings are also made if
the children are unwell, or if the children
or cattle are unyielding. These are seldom
made for decorative or ornamental purposes
and mostly depict the legends of creation.
 They also paint all three walls of the
verandah with a variety of scenes such
O
as other deities, ghosts and ancestors.
Particularly interesting is the depiction
of sexual intercourse between men and
women, as well as animals.
SC
45. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Two resolutions
were adopted one on Fundamental Rights
and the other on National Economic
Programme which made the session
particularly memorable. The Delhi Pact or
GS
Gandhi-Irwin Pact was endorsed and the
goal of purna Swaraj was reiterated.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: There was no
such ban on the Congress in the first phase
of CDM.
Supplementary notes:
Karachi Session of INC (1931)
 In March 1931, a special session of the
Congress was held at Karachi to endorse
the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
 Resolutions passed at Karachi while
disapproving of and dissociating itself from
political violence, the Congress admired the
‘bravery and ‘sacrifice’ of the three martyrs.
 It was the first time the Congress spelt out
what Swaraj would mean for the masses- “in
order to end exploitation of masses, political
freedom must include economic freedom of
starving millions.”
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 The Karachi Resolution was to remain, in
essence, the basic political and economic
programme of the Congress in later years.
 Viceroy Irwin in fact had signed Gandhi
Irwin pact (Delhi Pact) on an equal footing
with the Congress and thus raised the
prestige of Congress. But a marked change
was noticed in the Government attitude
after Gandhi returned from 2nd Round
Table Conference.
 On January 4, 1932, Gandhi was arrested,
Congress organisations at all levels were
declared to be illegal soon after.
46. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
RE
Tolkappiyam
 The ancient Tamil of the Sangam poems is
different from modern Tamil.
 The Tolkappiyam is the oldest surviving
Tamil grammar; parts of it go back to the
early centuries CE.
 Such grammatical texts tell us about the
structure of ancient languages and they
also contain incidental historical references
to their time
 The Sangam corpus includes six of the
eight anthologies of poems included in the
Ettutokai (The Eight Collections), and nine
of the ten pattus (songs) of the Pattuppattu
(The Ten Songs).
 The style and certain historical references in
the poems suggest that they were composed
between the 3rd century BCE and the
3rd century CE. They were compiled into
anthologies in about the mid-8th century.
 A few centuries later, these anthologies
were collected into the super-anthologies
(i.e., anthologies of anthologies) called the
Ettutokai and the Pattuppattu.
 The earliest parts of the first two books of
the Tolkappiyam can also be included in
Sangam literature.
 The Tolkappiyam is essentially a work on
grammar, but it also includes a discussion of
phonology, semantics, syntax, and literary
conventions.
 There are two kinds of Sangam poems—
akam and puram. Akam poems had love
as their theme, while puram poems were
mostly about war. A. K. Ramanujan (1999)
describes puram poetry as ‘public poetry’
which dealt with all kinds of themes other
than love, such as good and evil, community
and kingdom.
22
47. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The Royal
Commission on Labour in 1931 pointed out
the need for systematic collection of labour
statistics.
 It observed that the policy must be built
on facts as the uncertainty of facts would
lead to confusion and conflict regarding
its aim.
Supplementary notes:
Whitely commission
 The Royal Commission on Labour (or
the Whitley Commission on Labour)
was a Royal commission set up in 1929
to investigate the working conditions
on plantations in India.
The report surprised many by concurring
RE

with the criticisms of Mahatma Gandhi and
others that poverty was the cause of India’s
social and industrial problems.
 It was also critical of British employers’ role
in perpetuating the problems.
48. Correct Option: (c)
O The reaction produces 17.6 MeV of energy,
Explanation:
 Both statement are correct:
SC
Supplementary notes:
Bhagavatism
 Bhagavatism originated in post-Maurya
times and centred on the worship of Vishnu
or Bhagavata.
 Vishnu was a minor god in Vedic times. He
represented the sun and also the fertility
GS
cult. By the second century BC he was
merged with a god called Narayana, and
came to be known as Narayana-Vishnu.
 Bhagavatism was marked by bhakti and
ahimsa.
 Bhakti meant the offer of loving devotion.
It was a kind of loyalty offered by a tribal
to his chief or by a subject to his king.
 Ahimsa, or the doctrine of non-killing of
animals, suited the agricultural society
and was in keeping with the old cult
of life- giving fertility associated with
Vishnu.
 The new religion was sufficiently liberal
to attract foreigners. It also appealed
to artisans and merchants who became
important under the Satavahanas and
Kushans.
 Krishna taught in the Bhagavadgita that
even women, vaishyas, and shudras who
were born of sin could seek refuge in him.
23
49. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: On the Sun,
due to the strong gravity, hydrogen atoms
fuse at 15 million °C. On Earth, because of
the weaker gravitational forces, they need
to be heated at temperatures as high as 150
million °C in order to collide.
Supplementary notes:
Nuclear Fusion
 Fusion reaction is a nuclear process by
which nuclei of two light elements fuse to
produce a fast, heavier nucleus and an even
faster nucleon, i.e., a neutron or a proton.
There is a small mass difference, say m,
between the initial and the final reaction
products which gets converted into energy
through Einstein’s equation E=mc2, c being
the speed of light.
 For such a reaction to occur, the reacting
nuclei need to have enough kinetic energy to
overcome the repulsive electrostatic barrier
between any two of them.
 A Deuterium and a Tritium nucleus fuse to
produce a Helium nucleus and a neutron.
out of which the Helium carries 3.5 MeV
and the neutron 14.1 MeV. In a plasma
undergoing fusion, the reactions can be self-
sustained, as part of the kinetic energy of
the resulting charged Helium can be used
to maintain the very high temperatures
required to sustain the fusion reactions.
 In the core of the Sun, hydrogen atoms move
at incredible speed. Light atoms of hydrogen
fuse into one heavier atom of helium. The
reaction releases lots of energy in the form
of light and heat. On the Sun, due to the
strong gravity, hydrogen atoms fuse at 15
million°C. On Earth, however, because of
the weaker gravitational forces, they need
to be heated at temperatures as high as 150
million °C in order to collide.
 For decades scientists have been trying to
figure out how to produce this energy through
various experiments. Although the principle
is simple, they face several challenges. At
150 million °C, hydrogen atoms crush and
end up forming an ‘electrically-charged
gas’ known as plasma. They came up with
the idea of a Tokamak: a chamber using a
powerful magnetic field to contain the hot
plasma.
 In a tokamak, the plasma has a shape like
an inflated tube of a car wheel, enclosed in a
magnetic cage. The magnetic fields produced
by the coils surrounding the plasma as well
as by a current driven in the plasma itself,
help in confining the hot plasma away from
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 surrounding material walls. The plasma is
heated to fusion relevant temperatures by
injecting high energy neutral particle beam
or radio frequency waves from outside which
get absorbed in the plasma
50. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Methods and application of Plant
biotechnology
 Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a gram-
positive spore-forming soil bacterium that
synthesizes crystalline (Cry) protein, which
is toxic and causing pathogenicity against
mainly three insect orders: Coleoptera,
Diptera, and Lepidoptera and also against
other invertebrates such as nematodes.
These crystalline protein inclusions, i.e.,
G-endotoxins are successfully used as a bio-
control agent against insect pests.
51. Correct Option: (d)
O
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
SC
Pravasi Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
 PKVY is a skill development initiative by
the Ministry of External Affairs. The MEA
and the Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship (MSDE) had signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for
its implementation.
 The scheme will be implemented by
GS
National Skill Development Corporation
(NSDC) through its training partners in
consultation with MEA and MSDE.
 PKVY is a skill development initiative of the
MEA in partnership with the MSDE and is
aimed at training and certification of Indian
workforce keen on overseas employment
in select sectors and job roles, in line
with international standards, to facilitate
overseas employment opportunities.
52. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: The Cabinet has been
approved a newly central sponsored scheme
called PM SHRI on 7 September, 2022. These
schools will showcase the implementation
of the National Education Policy 2020 and
emerge as exemplar schools over a period
of time, and also offer leadership to other
schools in the neighborhood.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
Supplementary notes:
PM SHRI Schools (PM Schools for Rising
India)
 The scheme will provide leadership in their
respective regions in providing high-quality
education in an equitable, inclusive and
joyful school environment that takes care of
the diverse background, multilingual needs,
and different academic abilities of children
and makes them active participants in their
own learning process as per the vision of
NEP 2020.
 Under the scheme there is provision of
setting up of More than 14500 PM SHRI
Schools (PM Schools for Rising India) by
strengthening the existing schools from
amongst schools managed by Central
government/State/UT Government/local
bodies.
RE
 The duration of scheme is proposed to be
from 2022-23 to 2026-27; after which it
shall be the responsibility of the States/UTs
to continue to maintain the benchmarks
achieved by these schools. More than 20
lakh students are expected to be direct
beneficiaries of the scheme. The total cost
of the project will be Rs. 27360 crore spread
over a period of 5 years which includes
central share of Rs. 18128 crores.
53. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The platform aims to
pool the knowledge and synergise the efforts
of various organisations for the promotion
and adoption of clean, energy technologies
and practices.
 It has been acknowledged that the
development of the SME sector requires an
integrated approach that simultaneously
addresses the technological, capacity,
and financial needs of MSMEs.
 To improve the energy efficiency of the
MSME sector, BEE, has undertaken
several initiatives to maximise
effectiveness and widespread adoption
of energy efficient technologies.
Supplementary notes:
SAMEEEKSHA (Small and Medium
Enterprises Energy Efficiency Knowledge
Sharing)
 The Ministry of Power is celebrating Energy
Conservation Week under Azadi Ka Amrit
Mahotsav from 8th to 14th December 2021.
As part of celebrations, Bureau of Energy
Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of
Power has organized various programs.
24
 The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
organized an Interactive Workshop on
Outcomes of Energy and Resource Mapping
of Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium
Enterprises (MSME) Clusters at India
Habitat Centre on December 11, 2021,
during “National Energy Conservation
Week: 8th–14th December 2021”, marked
as Iconic Week under “Azadi ka Amrit
Mahotsav”. A presentation on findings of
‘Energy and Resource Mapping of MSME
clusters in India’ was given by BEE official,
regarding 8 sectors and 40 clusters.
 The MSME sector is the backbone of large
industrial units and generates employment
opportunities in rural as well as urban areas.
The MSME sector is consistently widening
its domain across sectors of the economy as
diverse range of products and services are
RE
now being produced to meet the demands of
domestic as well as global markets.
 The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
and the Ministry of MSME have together
taken a number of initiatives to ensure the
growth of this sector in an energy-efficient
O
and environmentally-friendly way. To
ensure synergy among various players in
the MSME sector, BEE and the Ministry of
MSME have also promoted a collaborative
platform--”SAMEEEKSHA” (Small and
SC
Medium Enterprises Energy Efficiency
Knowledge Sharing).
 BEE appreciated the efforts of the expert
agencies who conducted sectoral studies
for Bureau to facilitate policy development
for MSMEs. India has aimed to reduce
45% of its emission intensity, raising our
GS
bars to fight climate change. It is essential
to plan the roadmap with greater vision
inclusive of adoption to energy transition
and advancement to latest technologies in
all economic sectors.
 The workshop was aimed at discussing
the findings of the work being undertaken
by BEE in 9 select sub-sectors in terms of
energy and resource mapping.
 Representatives from various sectors like
Foundry and Forging, Steel Re-Rolling and
Paper, Glass, Refractory and Chemicals,
Pharma and Bricks, Institute of Indian
Foundrymen, Association of Indian Forging
Industry, Steel Manufacturing Association,
Paper Mills Association, Karnal Chemical
Cluster, Glass Syndicate Firozabad, Bulk
Drug Manufacturers Association, All India
Brick & Tile Manufacturers Federation
were present during the event.
25
54. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The tribal
Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) during the
period of 1988-2014 has halved, reduced
from 90 to 44.
Supplementary notes:
National Tribal health mission
 For the first time since independence, a
tribal President has become a reality in
India. This is a very positive signal given
to the tribal people by the Narendra Modi
government. On this International Day
of the World’s Indigenous Peoples, let us
explore how this symbolic gesture can be
turned into a health revolution for the tribal
people of India.
 Few people are aware that nearly 11 crore
tribal people (enumerated as Scheduled
Tribes (ST) in the Census of India (2011)
live in India. They constitute 8.6% of India’s
population, the second largest number of
tribal people in any country in the world. The
Prime Minister and the national leadership
of the Bharatiya Janata Party are aware of
this fact, which is one of the reasons why
they have chosen a tribal woman for the
highest position in the country.
 A study published in The Lancet, titled
‘Indigenous and Tribal Peoples’ Health’
(2016), found that India held the inglorious
distinction of having the second highest
infant mortality rate for the tribal people,
next only to Pakistan. This is not an
honourable position.
Findings
 Firstly, tribal people are concentrated in 809
blocks in India. Such areas are designated
as the Scheduled Areas. However, the more
unexpected finding was that half of India’s
tribal population, nearly five and a half
crore, live outside the Scheduled Areas, as a
scattered and marginalised minority. They
are the most powerless.
 Second, the health status of tribal people
has certainly improved during the last 25
years as seen in the decline in the under-
five child mortality rate from 135 in 1988
in the National Family Health Survey
(NFHS)-1 to 57 in 2014 (NFHS-4). However,
the percentage of excess of under-five
morality among STs compared to others has
widened.
 Third, child malnutrition is 50% higher in
tribal children: 42% compared to 28% in
others.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  Fourth, malaria and tuberculosis are three
to 11 times more common among the tribal
people. Though the tribal people constitute
only 8.6% of the national population, half
of the total malaria deaths in India occur
among them.
 Fifth, while malnutrition, malaria and
mortality continue to plague tribal people,
gradually, the more difficult to treat non-
communicable diseases such as hypertension
and diabetes, and worse, mental health
problems such as depression and addiction
leading to cancer and suicide are increasing.
These threaten the health and survival of
tribal adults.
 Sixth, tribal people heavily depend
on government-run public health care
institutions, such as primary health centres
and hospitals, but there is a 27% to 40%
deficit in the number of such facilities,
and 33% to 84% deficit in medical doctors
in tribal areas. Government health care
for the tribal people is starved of funds as
well as of human resource. We found them
demoralised and inefficient.
 Seventh, there is hardly any participation
of the tribal people – locally or at the State
O
or national level – in designing, planning or
delivering health care to them.
 The official policy of allocating and spending
an additional financial outlay, called Tribal
SC
Sub-Plan (TSP), equal to the percentage
of the ST population in the State, has
been completely flouted by all States. As
estimated for 2015-16, annually Rs. 15,000
crore should be additionally spent on tribal
health. No accounts or accountability exist
on this. No one knows how much was spent
or not spent.
GS
 These issues have persisted as there is no
separate data on tribal people’s health or
healthcare or on the money spent.
 The committee was also asked by the
Government of India to prepare a road
map for the future, which it did. This road
map includes many recommendations,
but the three most important broad
recommendations are the following.
 Firstly, launch a National Tribal Health
Action Plan with a goal to bring the
status of health and healthcare at par
with the respective State averages in the
next 10 years.
 Second, the committee suggested nearly
80 measures to address the 10 priority
health problems, the health care gap, the
human resource gap and the governance
problems.
 Third, the committee suggested allocation
of additional money so that the per capita
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
government health expenditure on tribal
people becomes equal to the stated goal
of the National Health Policy (2017), i.e.
2.5% of the per capita GDP.
55. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: An overseas
elector is a person who is a citizen of India
and who has not acquired citizenship of any
other country and is otherwise eligible to be
registered as a voter.
Supplementary notes:
Voting Rights to Overseas Electors
 An overseas elector is a person who is a
citizen of India and who has not acquired
citizenship of any other country and is
RE
otherwise eligible to be registered as a
voter.
 The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five
ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth,
descent, registration, naturalisation and
incorporation of territory.
56. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Variation in
density and gravity cause the movement of
surface and deep-water currents.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Cold currents
are usually found on the west coast of the
continents in the low and middle latitude.
Supplementary notes:
Water currents
 Surface currents constitute about 10 per
cent of all the water in the ocean, these
waters are the upper 400 m of the ocean.
 Deep water currents make up the other 90 per
cent of the ocean water. These waters move
around the ocean basins due to variations in
the density and gravity. Deep waters sink
into the deep ocean basins at high latitudes,
where the temperatures are cold enough to
cause the density to increase.
 Ocean currents can also be classified based
on temperature: as cold currents and warm
currents:
 cold currents bring cold water into warm
water areas. These currents are usually
found on the west coast of the continents
in the low and middle latitudes (true in
both hemispheres) and on the east coast
in the higher latitudes in the Northern
Hemisphere;
26
  warm currents bring warm water
into cold water areas and are usually
observed on the east coast of continents
in the low and middle latitudes (true
in both hemispheres). In the northern
hemisphere they are found on the west
coasts of continents in high latitudes.
57. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Siberian type
of climate is only experienced in northern
hemisphere.
 Statement 2 is correct: British type of
climate region is influenced with a lot of
cyclonic activity.
 Statement 3 is correct: Central California,
south-eastern and southwestern Australia
RE
have Mediterranean climate.
Types of climates
58. Correct Option: (b)
British Type of Climate
 The Westerlies have a constant influence
on the cool temperate western margins
throughout the year.

O
They are also regions with a lot of cyclonic
activity, which is typical of Britain, so they
are said to have a British type of climate.
 Rainfall is common throughout the year.
SC
 They experience cool, rainy winters and
warm, rainy summers.
 The weather is also extremely
unpredictable.
 This climate is also called Cool Temperate
Western Margin Climate or North-West
European Maritime Climate.
GS
Mediterranean climate
 Mediterranean climate occurs around
Mediterranean Sea, along the west coast of
continents in subtropical latitudes between
30° - 40° latitudes e.g. — Central California,
Central Chile, along the coast in south
eastern and south western Australia.
 These areas come under the influence of
sub-tropical high in summer and westerly
wind in winter.
 Hence, the climate is characterised by hot,
dry summer and mild, rainy winter.
 Monthly average temperature in summer is
around 25° C and in winter below 10°C.
 The annual precipitation ranges between
35 - 90 cm.
Siberian type climate
 The Cool temperate continental (Siberian)
climate is only experienced in northern
27
hemisphere, where the continents within
the high latitudes have a broad east west
spread.
 On its poleward side, it merges into Arctic
tundra of Canada & Eurasia at around
Arctic Circle.
 Southwards, the climate becomes less severe
& fades into the temperate Steppe climate.
 Predominant vegetation of this Siberian
or sub-arctic type of climate is evergreen
coniferous forests that stretch in a great,
continuous belt across North America,
Europe & Asia.
 The greatest single band of the coniferous
forest is Taiga (a Russian word for coniferous
forest) in Siberia.
 In Europe, this climate & forests are mainly
confined to Northern Europe, Sweden &
Finland.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Himalayan
Mountain range was formed due to the
collision of Eurasian plate and the Indo-
Australian plate.
 Statement 2 is correct: North plain
formation took place because of Himalayan
upliftment and subsidence of the northern
flank of the peninsular plateau.
Supplementary notes:
Formation of Himalaya
 The Gondwana land included India,
Australia, South Africa, South America and
Antarctica as one single land mass.
 The convectional currents split the crust
into a number of pieces, thus leading to the
drifting of the Indo-Australian plate after
being separated from the Gondwana land,
towards north.
 The northward drift resulted in the
collision of the plate with the much larger
Eurasian Plate. Due to this collision, the
sedimentary rocks which were accumulated
in the geosyncline known as the Tethys
were folded to form the mountain system of
western Asia and Himalaya.
 The Himalayan mountain range was formed
due to the collision of two tectonic plates,
namely the Eurasian plate and the Indo-
Australian plate, just a few million years
ago.
 When a mountain range is formed due to
the collision of two tectonic plates, they are
called fold mountains.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea
and subsidence of the northern flank of the
peninsular plateau resulted in the formation
of a large basin.
 In due course of time this depression,
gradually got filled with deposition of
sediments by the rivers flowing from the
mountains in the north and the peninsular
plateau in the south. A flat land of extensive
alluvial deposits led to the formation of the
northern plains of India.
 And since the Himalayan Mountain range
was formed just a few million years ago,
they are known as young mountains.
59. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Loans and Credit
 Explanation:
Guarantees are not reflected in government
debt immediately.
Supplementary notes:
‘Above-the-Line’ fiscal measures
 “Above the line” measures are revenue and
O
expenditure measures, which have fiscal
implications.
 “Above the line” measures refer to increases
in government expenditures and reductions
SC
in tax revenues.
 Above the- line measures include those for
which full cost is reflected in the fiscal deficit,
government debt, and increased borrowing
needs in the short term. These measures
include additional spending, capital grants
and targeted transfers or tax measures.
Below-the-line measures are those that
GS

involve the creation of assets, like equity
injections, loans and asset purchase. Below-
the-line may have little or no upfront impact
on the fiscal deficit although they can later
increase debt or reduce liquidity.
 Increasing government expenditures (such
as subsidized food programmes or health
facilities etc. costs are reflected in the fiscal
deficit, government debt, and increased
borrowing needs in the short term and
hence they are Above the line measures.
 Capital Grants are a part of Capital
Expenditure of a government in the
Government’s budget, and are used in the
calculation of the fiscal deficit.
 Loans and Credit Guarantees are not
reflected in government debt immediately.
However, they may increase government
liability in the long run. It is thus a part of
Below-the-Line fiscal measures.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 Schemes like employment guarantee
(MGNREGA) that boost economic activity
but increase government expenditure,
ultimately forming a part of the fiscal
deficit, are a part of Above-the-Line fiscal
measures.
 Tax Measures like tax reliefs and cuts
increase government debts by reducing
revenues are also a part of Above-the-Line
fiscal measures.
 Direct/ Targeted Transfers from government
to citizens like DBT also form a part of
government liabilities directly and are a
part of Above-the-Line fiscal measures.
 Asset purchase may have little or no upfront
impact on the fiscal deficit although they
can later increase debt or reduce liquidity.
60. Correct Option: (a)
RE
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Chhattisgarh
is the poorest, with nearly 40 % of the
population living below the national poverty
line.
Supplementary Notes:
Poverty in India
 In India percentage of poor in scheduled
castes is less than that of scheduled tribes.
 The multidimensional poverty index (MPI)
2018, found that 50 per cent of all tribal in
the country are poor as are 33 per cent of
Scheduled castes or Dalits and 33 per cent
of Muslims.
 Chhattisgarh is the poorest, with nearly 40
% of the population living below the national
poverty line, followed by Jharkhand (37
per cent) on the other hand; Bihar is the
5th poorest state in India. Half of Bihar’s
population is living below the poverty line.
 The poverty level in this state is around
33.74%.
 The reasons behind poverty are both
institutional and technical, illiteracy and
structural and institutional factors of
agriculture.
61. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Global Financial Crisis
 The Short-term debts have to be returned at
a shorter interval. This renders an economy
vulnerable if the economy is already facing
economic crisis as it has an obligation to
return the debt as well as interest payments
(debt service).
28
  Example: Many economies like Mexico,
Argentina etc who faced crisis were seen
to have borrowed large amounts of short-
maturity debt. So, the ideal scenarios are
not to depend upon short-term debt during
crisis.
 Opening up to the foreign banks and
depending upon them is not a good idea
during crisis. It has been empirically
observed in World Bank Research that in
many cases (like during Global Financial
Crisis 2007-08) that foreign banks reduced
their lending during crisis. Many of them
choose to retreat from cross-border banking
in general, including through cutting back
on new entry.
 Capital account convertibility would mean
that there is no restriction on conversion
of the domestic currency into a foreign
RE
currency. It is recognised that capital flows
are sensitive to macroeconomic conditions.
 Any deterioration in fiscal conditions,
inflation management, balance of payments,
or any other economic crisis may cause a
cessation or reversal of capital flows. This
O
might make the economy vulnerable if it
already suffering from economic crisis.
62. Correct Option: (d)
SC
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
International Environmental Treaties
Kigali Amendment
GS
 The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal
Protocol is an international agreement
to gradually reduce the consumption and
production of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
 It is a legally binding agreement designed to
create rights and obligations in international
law.
Paris Agreement
 The Paris Agreement often referred to as the
Paris Accords or the Paris Climate Accords,
is an international treaty on climate change.
Adopted in 2015, the agreement covers
climate change mitigation, adaptation, and
finance.
 The Agreement is a legally binding
international treaty. It entered into force
on 4 November 2016. Today, 194 Parties
(193 States plus the European Union) have
joined the Paris Agreement.
29
Montreal Protocol
 The Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark
multilateral environmental agreement that
regulates the production and consumption
of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred
to as ozone depleting substances (ODS).
 The treaty is universal with 197 member
countries.
 It is legally binding with penalties for
countries that flout its provisions.
 And it is fully funded, meaning that poorer
countries that might not have been able to
meet its targets to phase down chemicals
received assistance from richer ones.
Kyoto Protocol
 The 1997 Kyoto Protocol – an agreement
under the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
– is the world’s only legally binding treaty
to reduce greenhouse emissions.
63. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: Green Climate

Fund (GCF) was established to reduce
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions in
developing countries only.
Supplementary notes:
Important International Environmental
Organizations
Green Climate Fund
 GCF is a unique global platform to respond to
climate change by investing in low-emission
and climate-resilient development.
 GCF was established by 194 governments
to limit or reduce greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions in developing countries, and
to help vulnerable societies adapt to the
unavoidable impacts of climate change.
 Given the urgency and seriousness of this
challenge, GCF is mandated to make an
ambitious contribution to the united global
response to climate change.
Global Environment Facility
 The Global Environment Facility (GEF),
established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth
Summit, is a catalyst for action on the
environment — and much more.
 The GEF is a unique partnership of 18
agencies — including United Nations
agencies, multilateral development banks,
national entities, and international NGOs
— working with 183 countries to address
the world’s most challenging environmental
issues.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  It is a financial mechanism for five major
international environmental conventions:
the Minamata Convention on Mercury,
the Stockholm Convention on Persistent
Organic Pollutants (POPs), the United
Nations Convention on Biological Diversity
(UNCBD), the United Nations Convention
to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and
the United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
European Environment Agency
 The European Environment Agency (EEA)
is the agency of the European Union (EU)
which provides independent information on
the environment.
 The member states of the European
Union are members; however other states
may become members of it by means of
agreements concluded between them and
the EU.
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC)
 The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) is an intergovernmental
body of the United Nations charged with
O
advancing scientific knowledge about
anthropogenic climate change.
 It was established in 1988 by the World
Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the
SC
United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP) and endorsed by the UN later that
year.
64. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct.
GS
Supplementary notes:
Black Carbon
 Black Carbon (BC) is a short-lived pollutant
that is the second-largest contributor to
warming the planet behind carbon dioxide
(CO2).
 Unlike other greenhouse gas emissions, BC
is quickly washed out and can be eliminated
from the atmosphere if emissions stop.
 Unlike historical carbon emissions it is
also a localised source with greater local
impact.
 Black carbon is a kind of an aerosol. Among
aerosols (such as brown carbon, sulphates),
Black Carbon has been recognized as the
second most important anthropogenic agent
for climate change and the primary marker
to understand the adverse effects caused by
air pollution.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 Black carbon absorbs solar energy, it warms
the atmosphere. When it falls to earth with
precipitation, it darkens the surface of snow
and ice, reducing their albedo (the reflecting
power of a surface), warming the snow, and
hastening melting.
 It gets emitted from gas and diesel engines,
coal-fired power plants, and other sources
that burn fossil fuel. It comprises a
significant portion of particulate matter or
PM, which is an air pollutant.
65. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Pair 1, 3 & 4 are incorrectly matched.
1. Metals - Associated Disease
2. Mercury - Minamata disease
RE
3. Cadmium - Itai Itai
4. Lead - Anaemia
5. Arsenic - Black foot disease
Supplementary notes:
Metal poisoning and Diseases
 Minamata disease (M. d.) is methylmercury
(MeHg) poisoning that occurred in humans
who ingested fish and shellfish contaminated
by MeHg discharged in waste water from a
chemical plant.
 Itai-itai disease was the name given to
the mass cadmium poisoning of Toyama
Prefecture, Japan, starting around 1912.
The term “itai-itai disease” was coined by
locals for the severe pains people with the
condition felt in the spine and joints.
66. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Opposing the
Non-Cooperation Movement, Tagore told
Gandhi that ‘the whole world is suffering
today from the cult of a selfish and short-
sighted nationalism. India has all down her
history offered hospitality to the invader
of whatever nation, creed or colour. I have
come to believe that, as Indians, we not only
have much to learn from the West but that
we also have something to contribute. We
dare not therefore shut the West out.
Supplementary notes:
Social-political aspects of freedom
 Gandhi and Tagore love their national
culture and civilization but they differ to
the extent. Gandhi devised his scheme of
education strictly for Indian children. He
30
 planned education according to the needs
of Indian society and Indian culture. But
Tagore had a much broad vision. Though
he was also a true lover of Indian art and
culture, he wanted to bring about harmony
between the east and the west. His scheme
of education therefore included western art
and literature as well. Thus, he endeavored
for the fusion and harmonious synthesis
of all the cultures. He was out and out
cosmopolitan in views. His Shantiniketan is
a cosmopolitan educational institution.
 Both of them thought colonialism was an
internal psychological construct and paid
less attention to the externally superimposed
domination of the alien power which,
they felt, would crumble once the people
were aroused. Both of them prescribed a
philosophy of life based on Indian values,
ethics and customs.
RE
 Both the thinkers invoked ancient
Indian wisdom as a weapon to fight not
only British colonialism, but also the
ignorance and superstitions prevalent
in Indian society. For them, political
emancipation was not the disappearance
of the external fetters only. India needed
O
to be freed from the shackles that bound
the mind. Only education, they thought,
could deliver the nation spiritually.
Both Gandhi and Tagore were precise in
SC

identifying the central fault with modernity
— the fact that it unnecessarily complicated
even simple things because of its in-built
drive towards power and the multiplication
of wants. Importantly, they both saw
‘modernity’ as being not only the source of
a myriad crises for humanity but being in
terminal crisis itself.
GS
67. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Bharatendu was
barely seven years old when the revolt
of 1857 took place. Called the first war of
Independence, it had left quite an impression
on young Bharatendu
 He wrote: “Andher Nagari, Chaupat
Raja, taka ser bhaaji, take ser khaja”, (A
dark city, a failing king, a penny for
sweets and a penny for onion rings).
 These lines from Andher Nagari (city
of darkness), one of his most famous
plays, effectively portray a city that falls
into darkness due to the lack of sound
administration, is known to be a popular
allegory for British rule in India.
31
Supplementary notes:
Bharatendu Harishchandra
 Bharatendu was the man behind what is
known as the ‘Hindi vernacular nationalism’.
He was the driving force behind the
mass movement that culminated in the
popular slogan “Hindi, Hindu, Hindustan”.
 He founded and edited one of India’s first
women’s journals, Bala Vodhini. Bharatendu
wrote under the pen name, ‘Rasa’, probably
borrowing from Natya Shastra.
 He was also the editor of two popular journals
at the time, Kavivachansudha (founded
1868) and Harishchandrachandrika
(founded 1873), which were known to voice
the literary sentiment of the age.
68. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Begam Rokey Sakhawat Hossain
 From the early twentieth century, Muslim
women played a notable role in promoting
education among women. Rokeya Sakhawat
Hossain was one such Muslim female social
reformer who acquired education with the
dream of bringing about a change in the
condition of women.
 She learnt Bangla and English and later
became a writer. She wrote a story ‘Sultana’s
Dream’ in 1905.
 In her book she talks of an imaginary world,
lady land, where women are free and are
treated equally.
 Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain started
schools for Muslim girls in Patna and
Calcutta.
 She was a fearless critic of conservative
ideas, arguing that religious leaders of every
faith accorded an inferior place to women.
 In 1929, she wrote a story book named
‘Avarodhbasini’ in which she attacked on the
extreme forms of purdah that endangered
women’s lives and thoughts.
69. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Pandita Ramabai
 Ramabai was an Indian reformer who was
critical of the conception of male dominance
which led to the suppression and subjugation
of women.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  Her book The High-Caste Hindu Woman was
based on the miseries of girls and women in
high-caste Hindu families.
 Ramabai understood that Hindu patriarchy
has placed women within the domestic
sphere as a wife, mother, or housewife
according to their role in homemaking.
 She held the view that patriarchal ideology
in India regarded widowhood a punishment
for horrible crimes committed by a woman
in her previous birth, including disobedience
or disloyalty to her husband. In Poona,
Ramabai, working towards the aim of
gender reform, formed the Arya Mahila
Samaj in 1882 and established branches
throughout the Mumbai region. The object
of this institution was to promote education
among native women and to discourage
child marriage.
Ramabai’s most popular academic venture,

The High-Caste Hindu Woman, contained a
critical account of miseries that were faced
by girls and women in the domain of a high-
caste Hindu joint family system.
 Pandita Ramabai considered women of
lower castes to be much better off in terms
of self-reliance and freedom since they were
O
obliged to depend upon themselves.
 It is not wrong to say that Ramabai entered
into the feminist discourse through her book
Stri Dharma Niti (Morals for women). This
SC
book turned out to be a guide of women’s
morality, asking illiterate, ignorant women
to recast themselves in a more cultural
mould through self-reliance and self-
education.
70. Correct Option: (d)
GS
Explanation:
 All statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Types of Forests
 Moist Evergreen Forests are found in
southern India along the Western Ghats,
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and north-
eastern region.
 Moist Decidous Forests: These forests are
found in the north-eastern states along
the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes
of the Western Ghats and Odisha.
 Thorn Forests: The forests occur in the
areas that receive annual rainfall less
than 50cm.
 Montane Wet Temperate Forests: Occur
in the northern and southern India.
 In the North, it is found in the region
to the east of Nepal into Arunachal
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
Pradesh, at a height of 1800–3000
metres, receiving a minimum rainfall
of 200 cm.
 In the South, it is found in parts of
the Nilgiri Hills, the higher reaches
of Kerala.
 Himalayan Moist Forests are found in
Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
Uttarakhand, and Northern hilly parts of
Bengal.
 Swamp Forests are found along the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the delta
area of the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
71. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Madame H.P.
Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott founded the
RE
Theosophical Society in New York in 1875
who were inspired by Indian thought and
culture. Theyarrived in India in January
1879, and establishedheadquarters at
Adyar near Madras.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Gangabai
(Maharani Tapaswini) set up Mahakali
Pathshala in Calcutta in 1893 to propagate
female education without foreign influence.
 Statement3 is incorrect: Deoband
Movement was established in Deoband in
Saharanpur district (United Provinces) in
1866 by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi and
Rashid Ahmed Gangohi to train religious
leadersfor the Muslim community.
Supplementary notes:
Theosophical Society
 The Theosophical Society was founded by
Madame Blavatsky and Col. Olcott in 1875
in New York.
 It was only in 1879, that this ideology gained
its roots in the Indian culture and Society.
 It was crystallised in the Madras Presidency
with its headquarters in Adayar. The
movement was popularised by Annie Besant
in India.
 Theosophy was based on three principles:
 Universal brotherhood.
 The study of comparative religion and
philosophy.
 Investigations into the natural
laws which seek to understand the
unexplained mystic laws.
Mahakali Pathshala
 The Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta was
founded by Maharani Tapaswini in the year
1893.
32
  She was one of the first persons to
concentrate on girls, women education.
 She has fought along with Rani Laxmibhai
in the revolt of 1857.
Deoband Movement
 The Deoband Movement was organised by
the orthodox section among the Muslim
ulema as a revivalist movement with
the twin objectives of propagating pure
teachings of the Quran and Hadis among
Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of
jihad against the foreign rulers.
 The Deoband Movement was established
in Deoband in Saharanpur district (United
Provinces) in 1866 by Mohammad Qasim
Nanotavi (1832-80) and Rashid Ahmed
Gangohi (1828- 1905) to train religious
leaders for the Muslim community.
RE
72. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Haileybury
College in Oxford, a rival of Fort William, to
train the Company’s servants to be worthy
bureaucrats.
Supplementary notes:
O
Education during British India
 College of Fort William, the ‘Oxford of the
East’ evolved into an institution not only
SC
for training civil servants, but also for
patronizing literary and linguistic research
and Orientalist scholarship in general.
 The Haileybury College in Oxford, a rival of
Fort William, aims to train the Company’s
servants to be worthy bureaucrats.
 This College was to ensure that the ‘boys’,
the future servants of the Company, were
GS
indoctrinated ‘well’ by the Cambridge
clergymen before they were sent off to India
and placed under the influence of Orientalist
scholars at Fort William.
The Thuggee Act XXX of 1836
 The passing of The Thuggee Act XXX of 1836
and the relentless pursuit not only of thugs
but of all groups of religious mendicants
by Sleeman, the superintendent of thugee
operations, eventually ‘purged India of this
great pollution’ (Kaye 1853: 376).
 Sleeman, who had ‘discovered’ the notorious
thugs, wrote a long self-congratulatory
account of his successful operation (Sleeman
1839 in Harlow and Carter 1999: 81–87).
 The provision of the 1836 Act of legally trying
‘criminal communities’ and the knowledge
compiled by the criminal department would,
after the Revolt of 1857, provide the basis
for the demarcation of ‘criminal castes’ and
‘criminal tribes
33
73. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Non-cooperation Movement & Mahatma
Gandhi
 Gandhi’s attitude changed once the harsh
terms imposed by the Allied Powers on
Turkey in the Treaty of Serves (May 1920)
became known.
 It was hardened by the publication of Hunter
Commission Report on the disturbances
in Punjab connected with the Rowlatt
Satyagraha.
 This Report protected the officers of
the British government by means of an
Indemnity Act, acquitted O’Dwyer of blame,
and the British House of Lords rejected the
censure passed on Dyer..
 The non-cooperation programme was
to be implemented in stages with civil-
disobedience and non-payment of taxes
kept for the second stage, only if swaraj did
not come within a year and the government
resorted to repression.
74. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
India’s Freedom Struggle (2nd Phase)
 In the Madras Congress session in
December 1927 where the resolution to
boycott the Simon Commission was taken,
Jawaharlal Nehru, supported by Subhas
Bose, moved a resolution to make purna
swaraj or complete independence the goal
of the Congress struggle.
 And yet, the Congress decided to embark
on the task of drafting a constitution for
‘dominion status’.
 This was, in part, a response to the challenge
thrown to the leaders of the Swaraj Party
by Secretary of State Lord Birkenhead to
‘produce a constitution that carried behind
it a fair measure of general agreement
among the great peoples of India’ and in part
Gandhi’s disagreement with Jawaharlal
Nehru’s snap independence decision passed
during his absence.
 No special representation in the Central
Parliament was allowed except for the
Muslims in Bengal and the non-Muslims
in the North-West Frontier Province. The
provincial councils, on the other hand,
would have reserved seats for minority
communities.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  The independence pledge that the Indian
National Congress presented to the world
on 26 January 1930 stated that the British
government in India had taken away the
freedom of Indians and systematically
exploited them. It had ‘ruined India
economically, politically, culturally and
spiritually’.
 Further, the pledge affirmed that as Indians
they considered it a sin ‘before man and God
to submit any longer to a rule that has caused
this four-fold disaster to the country’.
75. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Kushanas used
Roman gold and silver coins as high value
currency.
Supplementary notes:
Coinage System in Ancient India
 In his empire many religious traditions
flourished: Persian Zoroastrian, Greek
and Roman paganism, Buddhism, Chinese
Confucianism, Jainism and, above all, a
whole range of Vedic traditions. His coins
O
bear their proof, because they carry images
of deities from the various religions practised
in his kingdom.
A large hoard of Roman coins found at
SC
 Poverty is handed over to individual and
Arikamedu and other places in south India,
along with the archaeological remains of a
Roman colony, testify to the vigour of the
Indo-Roman trade.
 Owing to the absence of local gold coins in
south India, Roman gold and silver coins
were also used as high-value currency,
which would have encouraged hoarding.
GS
 Only a quarter of the good-quality Roman
coin hoards discovered in south India have
been found in north India: the Kushan
state issued its own gold coins, as valuable
in metal terms as the Roman ones, and
simply melted down the Roman coins for
their metal.
Gupta Administration
 For nearly a thousand years the Indian
monarchs, whether imperial or regional,
had aimed at a concentration of all power
in their hands. Absolutist rulers were
tempted to subdue provinces and regions to
their will through their bureaucracies, and
the Mauryan were perhaps the greatest of
centralisers.
 The Gupta dominions were organised
on a somewhat different model, the
main difference being the principle of
decentralised administration.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 And authorities who were then brought
together in a circle of friendship and
homage. Instead of bolstering a bureaucratic
hierarchy, they helped to develop political
hierarchies.
 Samudragupta did not wish to vanquish his
enemies merely for his own gratification.
After defeating them he permitted most
of them to keep their domains within the
empire.
 They were to be protected by him, while he
would share in their wealth. What he was
developing was a form of contract between
the tributary kings and himself as the
overlord.
76. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Situational
RE

Poverty is a temporary type of poverty
based on occurrence of an adverse event like
environmental disaster, job loss and severe
health problem.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Relative Poverty
is defined from the social perspective,
that is living standard compared to the
economic standards of population living
in surroundings. Hence it is a measure of
income inequality.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Generational
families from one generation to the one.
Supplementary notes:
Types of Poverty
 When a person’s/family’s income and
support is decreased due to a specific change
– job loss, divorce, death, etc. While there
can be a domino effect caused by this one
significant change, families experiencing
Situational Poverty tend to remain hopeful,
knowing that this is a temporary setback.
 Generational poverty is a term applied to
families who have experienced poverty for
at least two generations. It can affect every
aspect of a person’s life: physical, social,
emotional and mental.
 Relative poverty is when households receive
50% less than average household incomes.
So they do have some money but still not
enough money to afford anything above
the basics. This type of poverty is, on the
other hand, changeable depending on the
economic growth of the country.
 Absolute poverty is when household income
is below a certain level. This makes it
impossible for the person or family to meet
basic needs of life including food, shelter,
safe drinking water, education, healthcare,
etc.
34
77. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s currency
notes printing presses at Nasik and Dewas
are owned by the Government of India; two
others Mysore and Salboni, are owned by the
RBI through its wholly owned subsidiary,
Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Ltd
(BRBNML).
Supplementary notes:
Indian currency design mechanism
 Changes in the design and form of bank notes
and coins are decided by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) and the central government.
 Changes in the design of coins are the
prerogative of the central government.
 Any change in design of a currency note has
to be approved by the RBI’s Central Board
RE
and the central government.
 The Governor draws his powers from
Section 7(3) of the RBI Act. He can exercise
all powers and do all things that may be
exercised and done by the RBI.
 Section 7(1) of RBI Act confers powers on
the Centre to issue directions to the RBI
O
“from time to time” in the public interest
after consultations with the Governor.
 The Coinage Act, 2011 gives the central
government the power to design and mint
coins in various denominations. In the case
SC
of coins, the role of the RBI is limited to the
distribution of coins that are supplied by
the central government.
 Indian currency notes are designed to reflect
the diverse cultural heritage of the country.
They often feature images and motifs that
represent various aspects of Indian culture,
including historical landmarks, prominent
GS
figures, and symbols of national pride.
 This cultural representation not only
showcases India’s rich heritage but also
fosters a sense of national identity among
its citizens. For example, the new `500 and
`2000 notes issued in 2016 incorporated
images of the Red Fort and Mangalyaan,
India’s Mars Orbiter Mission, respectively,
as a tribute to the country’s scientific and
historical achievements.
78. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Loess
 The fine dust blown beyond the desert limits
is deposited on neighbouring lands as loess.
It is a yellow, friable material and is usually
very fertile.
35
 Loess is in fact, fine loam, rich in lime, very
coherent and extremely porous.
 Water sinks in readily so that the surface is
always dry. Streams have cut deep valleys
through the thick mantle of soft loess and
badland topography may develop.
 It is so soft that roads constructed through
a loess region soon sink and their walls rise
sharply.
 The most extensive deposit of loess is found
in north-west China in the loess plateau of
the Hwang-Ho basin.
79. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Isotherms
 The Isotherms are lines joining places
having equal temperature. In the northern
hemisphere the land surface area is much
larger than in the southern hemisphere.
 Hence, the effects of land mass and the
ocean currents are well pronounced. In
January the isotherms deviate to the north
over the ocean and to the south over the
continent. This can be seen on the North
Atlantic Ocean.
 The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf
Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the
Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the
isotherms bend towards the north.
 Over the land the temperature decreases
sharply and the isotherms bend towards
south in Europe.
 The effect of the ocean is well pronounced
in the southern hemisphere. Here the
isotherms are more or less parallel to the
latitudes and the variation in temperature
is more gradual than in the northern
hemisphere. The isotherm of 20°C, 10°C,
and 0°C runs parallel to 35°S, 45°S and
60°S latitudes respectively.
80. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Sustainable
Access to Markets and Resources for
Innovative Delivery of Healthcare
(SAMRIDH) is supported by the United States
Agency for International Development in
collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission
& Women Entrepreneurship Platform, NITI
Aayog, Principal Scientific Advisor to the
Government of India.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 Supplementary notes:
SAMRIDH
 SAMRIDH recognise that innovators and
enterprises are a vibrant force with the
potential to change the Indian healthcare
landscape.
 SAMRIDH, with initiatives complimenting
the public sector efforts, aims to support
private sector enterprises to effectively
contribute towards India’s SDG aspirations,
including an integrated Health System
offering Universal Health Coverage (UHC).
 SAMRIDH has mobilized a capital pool of
$300 million to offer both grant and debt
financing provision to healthcare enterprises
and innovators, to augment their capacity
for production and supply of high impact
health solutions.
SAMRIDH won the P3 Impact Award 2022

led by the U.S. State Department’s Office
of Global Partnerships, the University of
Virginia Darden School of Business Institute
for Business in Society, and Concordia.
81. Correct Option: (c)
O
Explanation:
 All statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
SC
Simultaneous Elections
 Law commission noted that simultaneous
elections cannot be held within the
existing framework of the Constitution.
Simultaneous elections may be conducted to
Lok Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies
through appropriate amendments to the
Constitution, the Representation of the
GS
People Act 1951, and the Rules of Procedure
of Lok Sabha and state Assemblies.
 Law commission noted that a no-confidence
motion, if passed, may curtail the term of
Lok Sabha/ state assembly. It recommended
replacing the ‘no-confidence motion’ with a
‘constructive vote of no-confidence’, through
appropriate amendments. In a constructive
vote of no confidence, the government may
only be removed if there is confidence in an
alternate government.
 Simultaneous elections ensure that the
administrative machinery is engaged
in development activities rather than
electioneering.
 The “One Nation, One Election” idea
envisages a system where elections to all
state assemblies and the Lok Sabha will
have to be held simultaneously. This will
involve the restructuring of the Indian
election cycle in a manner that elections
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
to the states and the centre synchronise.
This would mean that the voters will cast
their vote for electing members of the LS
and the state assemblies on a single day, at
the same time or in a phased manner as the
case may be.
82. Correct Optio: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: CAG has no
control over issue of money and many
departments are allowed to draw money by
issuing cheque without specific authority
from CAG.
Supplementary notes:
Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India (CAG)
RE
 Mandated by the Constitution of India,
CAG promote accountability, transparency
and good governance through high quality
auditing and accounting and provide
independent and timely assurance to the
Legislature, the Public and the Executive,
that public funds are being collected and
used effectively and efficiently.
 No minister can represent CAG in
parliament and no minister can be called
upon to take any responsibility for any
actions done by him.
 There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India who shall be appointed by
the President by warrant under his hand
and seal and shall only be removed from
office in like manner and on like grounds as
a Judge of the Supreme Court.
 Every person appointed to be the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
shall, before he enters upon his office, make
and subscribe before the President or some
person appointed in that behalf by him, an
oath or affirmation according to the form set
out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
 The salary and other conditions of service
of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
shall be such as may be determined by
Parliament by law and, until they are so
determined, shall be as specified in the
Second Schedule: Provided that neither the
salary of a Comptroller and Auditor-General
nor his rights in respect of leave of absence,
pension or age of retirement shall be varied
to his disadvantage after his appointment.
83. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
36
 Supplementary notes:
About XI schedule of constitution:
 Schedule 11 of the Indian Constitution
contains provisions that specify the
Panchayats’ powers, authority, and
responsibilities in order for them to function
as local governments.
 The Eleventh Schedule was added by the 73rd
Amendment Act of 1992. It has 29 subjects
such as Agriculture, Animal Husbandry,
Fishery, etc.
 11th Schedule contains the provisions
that specify the powers, authority and
responsibilities of Panchayats. This schedule
was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of
1992.
 It has 29 matters including land
improvement, library and cultural activity.
All other subjects are part of XII schedule.
RE
84. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
Supreme court of India:
O 
 The Supreme Court of India is the supreme
judicial authority of India and the highest
SC
court of the Republic of India under the
constitution.
 It is the highest constitutional court and
has the final decision in all legal matters
pertaining to common law which excludes
legal authority over personal laws. It also
has the power of judicial review.
 The Chief Justice of India is the Head of
GS
the Supreme Court, which consists of a
maximum of 34 judges, and has extensive
powers in the form of original, appellate and
advisory jurisdictions.
 Supreme Court has been assigned the role
of a sentinel on the qui vive” as regards
fundamental rights. The right to get redress
from the Court is itself a fundamental right,
and the Court cannot abandon its own duty
in this regard.
85. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: During the
emergency period, the Lok Sabha can
extend tenure by a period of 1 year at a time.
But the same cannot be extended beyond
6 months after the proclamation ceases to
operate. The tenure of State Assemblies can
also be extended in the same manner.
37
Supplementary notes:
Emergency provision:
 Emergency provision is a unique feature of
Indian Constitution that allows the Centre to
assume wide powers so as to handle special
situations. In emergency, the Centre can
take full legislative and executive control of
any state. Emergency provision also allows
the Centre to curtail or suspend freedom
of the citizens. Existence of emergency
provision in the Constitution is a big reason
why academicians are hesitant to call Indian
Constitution as fully federal.
 Fundamental Rights under Article 19
are automatically suspended and this
suspension continues till the end of the
emergency.
 President may dissolve the State Legislative
Assembly or put it under suspension. He
may authorise the Parliament to make laws
on behalf of the State Legislature.
86. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
All statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA)
 The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA)
announcement was made by Indian Prime
Minister on the sidelines of the G20 Summit
held in New Delhi.
 It is an initiative to develop an alliance of
governments, international organisations
and industry to facilitate adoption of biofuels
by bringing together the biggest consumers
and producers of biofuels and positioning
biofuels as a key to energy transition.
 It is also expected to contribute to job
creation and economic growth.
 It was supported by G20 countries and
organisations like IAE, ICAO, WEF, and
World LPG Foundation and on the
sidelines of the latest G20 meeting at New
Delhi.
 The Global Biofuels Alliance was
announced, bringing together biofuel
producers and consumers with the intent
to strengthen global biofuels trade for a
greener sustainable future.
 To ensure energy security, affordability,
and accessibility for the future, the
GBA will facilitate global collaboration,
supporting the development and deployment
of sustainable biofuels.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
87. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: India invites
all G-20 countries to join this initiative. Yet
all the countries of Global south have not
joined the mission.
Supplementary notes:
G-20 Satellite Mission for Environment
and Climate Observation
 During the G20 Leaders’ Summit in New
Delhi, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
proposed the launch of a ‘G20 Satellite
Mission for Environment and Climate
Observation. ‘
 The mission aims to provide climate and
weather data to countries, particularly
those in the Global South.
 India during the summit mentioned that the
G20 satellite mission would be beneficial for
all of humanity just as the data obtained
from India’s successful Chandrayaan moon
mission.
 The climate and weather data obtained from
this will be shared with all the countries,
especially the countries of the Global
O
South.
 India invites all G-20 countries to join this
initiative.
SC
88. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Delhi Police establishment Act
GS
 The Delhi Special Police Establishment
(DSPE) Act is an important piece of
legislation in India, primarily known
for establishing the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI) and defining its
jurisdiction.
 The DSPE Act provides for the establishment
of a special police force to investigate and
prevent corruption in the national capital
region.
 The DSPE Act empowers the Central
Government to extend the jurisdiction of
this special police force to other Union
Territories as well.
 The DSPE Act does provide the Central
Government with the authority to extend the
jurisdiction of the CBI to Union Territories
other than Delhi.
 This extension typically occurs through
a notification issued by the Central
Government.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
89. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The ‘Ayushman
Bhav’ campaign aims to redefine healthcare
accessibility and inclusivity across the
country, and embodies a whole-of-nation
and whole-of-society approach.
Supplementary notes:
Ayushman Bhava’ Programme
 As part of the Seva Pakhwada, Ayushman
Bhav Abhiyan for saturation of essential
health services is being held across the
country.
 The ‘Ayushman Bhav’ campaign inaugurated
by the Hon’ble President, Smt. Droupadi
Murmu, which aims to redefine healthcare
accessibility and inclusivity across the
RE
country, and embodies a whole-of-nation
and whole-of-society approach.
 The core objective of the Sewa Pakhwada is to
extend comprehensive healthcare coverage
to every village and town, transcending
geographical barriers and ensuring that no
one is left behind.
 As part of the Ayushman Bhav campaign,
in the last 3 days alone, over 2.5 lakh ABHA
IDs have been generated, over 10 lakh
people have received free drugs, and over
8 lakh people have received free diagnostic
services.
 The Seva Pakhwada aims to play a pivotal
role in distributing Ayushman cards,
generating ABHA IDs, and raising awareness
about vital health schemes and disease
conditions, such as non-communicable
diseases, tuberculosis (Nikshay Mitra),
sickle cell disease, as well as blood donation
and organ donation drives.
90. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 and 3 are correct: The
Peacock Soft-shelled Turtle as a critically
endangered species and mentions its native
range, which is the Indian subcontinent.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Peacock
Soft-shelled Turtle is critically endangered
and is known for its soft, leathery shell,
primarily found in the rivers and wetlands
of northern India.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: They are
primarily carnivorous. They mainly
feed on small fish, crustaceans, and aquatic
insects.
38
 Supplementary notes:
Peacock Soft-shelled Turtle (Nilssonia
hurum)
 They have a large head, and downturned
snout with low and oval carapace of dark
olive green to nearly black, sometimes with
a yellow rim.
 The head and limbs are olive-green; the
forehead has dark reticulations and large
yellow or orange patches or spots, especially
behind the eyes and across the snout.
 Males possess relatively longer and thicker
tails than females.
 Habitat:
 This species is confined to India,
Bangladesh, and Pakistan.
 In India, it is widespread in the
northern and central parts of the Indian
RE
subcontinent.
 These are found in rivers, streams, lakes,
and ponds with mud or sand bottoms.
91. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct.
O 
Supplementary notes:
National Counter Rogue Drone
SC
Guidelines
 The genesis of the counter-rogue drone
guidelines lies in the rising number of
drone-related safety incidents worldwide,
including in India.
 Recent incidents of the utilization of drones
to target VVIPs in Venezuela and Saudi
GS
Aramco drone attacks are a stark reminder
of the threat level from rogue drones.
India has an estimated 6 lakh rogue or
unregulated Unmanned Aerial Vehicles
(UAVs)of various sizes and capacities.
 To handle the above scenario the Ministry
of Civil Aviation has suggested a counter-
rogue drone deployment plan, categorized
across three models, based on the sensitivity
of vital assets and installations.
 The strategic installations differ from
state to state and place to place, based on
their geographical condition, criticality,
and construction type but standard
categorization would be:
 Full-scale model: It will work for
the protection of vital assets of critical
national importance like Rashtrapati
Bhawan, Parliament House, nuclear
installations, major airports, etc;
Counter-Unmanned Aircraft System(C-
39
UAS) with primary and passive detection
means like radar, Radio Frequency (RF)
detectors, electro-optical, and infrared
cameras to be installed.
 Mid-segment model: It will protect
installations like metro airports, oil
refineries, ports, and power plants,
etc A lower level of threat mitigation
techniques (compared to the full-scale
model) to be installed with Counter-
Unmanned Aircraft System(C-UAS).
 Basic model: Aims to protect state
secretariats, important official premises,
monuments of national importance etc.
The basic threat mitigation technology
to be used.
 In addition to the counter-rogue drone
deployment models, the civil aviation
ministry has also suggested a set of legal
procedures to handle rogue drones. The
legislation needs to address the risk-
based use of Counter-UAS authority and
coordination among relevant departments
and agencies.
 It shall also aim to mitigate adverse impacts
of anti-drone guidelines on the safety,
efficiency, and accessibility to the Indian
airspace to the maximum extent feasible.
The law shall state a legal framework
for the authorized use of C-UAS systems
by security agencies for protecting vital
assets, safeguarding manned aviation,
supporting law enforcement activities,
protecting national borders, and
conducting operations.
 Radio Frequency (RF): It refers to the
electromagnetic radio waves in the range
of 3 kHz to 300 GHz and the alternating
currents carrying the radio signals.
92. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
G-secs in a Bond market
 Indian government bonds, also known as
G-Secs or Government Securities, are debt
instruments issued by the Government
of India to raise funds for various public
expenditure and developmental projects.
 The issuer of Indian government bonds
is the Government of India through the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acting as its
agent.
 These bonds are primarily issued to finance
fiscal deficits, infrastructure development,
and various government programs. They
are a crucial source of capital for the
government.
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
  Types:
 Indian government bonds come in various
tenures, ranging from short-term (Treasury
Bills) to long-term (Government Dated
Securities or G-Secs).
 The most common G-Secs have maturities
of 5 years, 10 years, and 30 years.
 These bonds pay periodic interest to
bondholders, typically semi-annually. The
interest rates are determined through
auctions and can be fixed or floating.
 Indian government bonds are actively
traded in the bond market.
 They are listed on stock exchanges, and
investors can buy and sell them in both the
primary and secondary markets.
Impacts on Economy
 Tendency for the currency to appreciate.
 Increase in capital inflows into India.
 Demand for investors to buy Indian
government bonds denominated in Rupee
will increase.
 Increase in foreign portfolio investments
(FPI).
O
 Can lower inflation compared to other
economies.
93. Correct Option: (c)
SC
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
NASA’s OSIRIS-REx mission
 OSIRIS-REx (Origins, Spectral
Interpretation, Resource Identification,
GS
Security, and Regolith Explorer) is a NASA
spacecraft launched in 2016 with the
primary mission of studying and collecting
samples from an asteroid named Bennu.
 The main goal of the OSIRIS-REx mission is
to collect samples from the asteroid Bennu
and return them to Earth.
 This will allow scientists to analyze the
composition of the asteroid, providing
valuable insights into the early solar system
and the origins of life on Earth.
94. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Article 105
grants certain privileges and immunities
to MPs, which are essential for the
effective functioning of the legislature.
These privileges include freedom of
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speech and voting in Parliament
without interference from any court or
authority.
 MPs are immune from any legal proceedings
in respect of anything said or any vote given
by them in Parliament or its committees.
This immunity ensures that legislators can
express their views and cast their votes
without fear of legal consequences.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: When issues
regarding the exercise of parliamentary
privileges or legal challenges related to the
actions of MPs arise, the Attorney General
may provide legal opinions and advice
to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (House of
the People) or the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha (Council of States) as needed.
 Additionally, this immunity extends to
certain non-members, like the Attorney
RE
General of India or a Minister who
may not be a member but speaks in the
House.
 In cases where a member oversteps or
exceeds the contours of admissible free
speech, the Speaker of the House will deal
with it, as opposed to the court.
Supplementary notes:
Immunity from Bribery charges for MPs
 Article 105(2) states, “No member of
Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings
in any court in respect of anything said or
any vote given by him in Parliament or any
committee thereof, and no person shall be
so liable in respect of the publication by
or under the authority of either House of
Parliament of any report, paper, votes or
proceedings.”
 Article 194(2) extends this immunity
to MLAs and states, “No member of the
Legislature of a State shall be liable to
any proceedings in any court in respect of
anything said or any vote given by him in
the Legislature or any committee thereof,
and no person shall be so liable in respect of
the publication by or under the authority of
a House of such a Legislature of any report,
paper, votes, or proceedings.”
95. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The Abraham
Accords, signed in 2020, primarily focus on
economic cooperation and normalization
of diplomatic relations between Israel and
several Arab nations in the Middle East
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 Supplementary notes:
Abraham Accords
 The Abraham Accords are a series of historic
agreements signed in 2020 that established
diplomatic normalization and economic
cooperation between Israel and several
Arab nations in the Middle East.
 The key countries involved in these accords
include Israel, the United Arab Emirates
(UAE), Bahrain, Sudan, and later,
Morocco.
 The Abraham Accords marked a significant
shift in Middle Eastern diplomacy as they
were aimed at improving relations between
Israel and its Arab neighbors.
 These agreements included the
establishment of diplomatic missions, the
exchange of ambassadors, and cooperation
RE
in various fields such as trade, tourism,
technology, and security.
 They were seen as a way to promote regional
stability and economic growth
96. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
O countries of the South.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is implemented
by the three Corporations under the Ministry:
 National Scheduled Castes Finance and
SC
Development Corporation (NSFDC),
 National Backward Classes Finance &
Development Corporation (NBCFDC),
 National Safai Karamcharis Finance and
Development Corporation (NSKFDC).
Supplementary notes:
GS
PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta
Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi)
 The Yojana is a revolutionary scheme and
national action plan to skill the marginalized
persons covering SCs, OBCs, EBCs, DNTs,
sanitation workers including waste pickers.
 It is a National Action Plan for skilling of
marginalized persons covering SCs, OBCs,
EBCs, DNTs, Sanitation workers including
waste pickers.
 The main objective of the scheme is to
increase the skill levels of the targeted
youth by providing for long term and short
term skills, followed by settlement in
employment and self-employment.
 The scheme has been launched by
the Department of Social Justice and
Empowerment during 2020-21 to impart
skill development training to the youth
aged between 18-45 years belonging to
Scheduled Castes, Other Backward Classes/
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Economically Backward Classes/De-notified
Tribes and Safai karamcharis including
Waste pickers through online registration
at PM-DAKSH portal on pan India basis.
97. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: The term “Global
South” is used to refer to a group of
countries primarily from Africa, Latin
America, Asia, and Oceania, which are
generally characterized by their developing
or emerging economies. These nations often
face common socio-economic challenges
and seek a greater voice in global affairs,
advocating for their interests on various
international platforms.
Supplementary notes:
Global South
 The term was first used in 1969 by the
American academic Carl Oglesby.
 The term Global South was first used during
the Cold War to describe the broad economic
divide between the wealthy, developed
countries of the North and the developing
 The term also signifies a combination
of political, geopolitical, and economic
similarities among nations.
 The Global South includes countries that
are developing including countries in Africa,
Asia and Latin America.
 Many of these were part of Western
European colonialism until the 1960s and
1970s. Nations in these regions typically
experience higher levels of poverty, income
inequality, and challenging living conditions
compared to the wealthier nations of the
Global North.
98. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct.
Supplementary notes:
Social Stock Exchange
 Stock exchanges are generally the
platforms where shares of companies after
raising capital from public investors are
traded. Essentially a stock exchange listing
facilitates capital raising opportunities for
the company.
 Investors get to buy and sell shares on such
exchanges. SSEs also mostly work the same
way. Any not-for-profit organization (NPO)
working for social goals essentially can raise
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
 capital from public investors by listing on
SSE akin to what normal companies do for
listing on stock exchanges.
 However, a key difference between SSE
and a normal stock exchange is trading by
investors. Since the money being invested in
an SSE listed entity is a donation, investors
can neither make returns on such securities
nor trade them like normal shares.
99. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Positive phases
of the PDO tend to be associated with
periods of more rapid global warming whilst
cold PDO events have been linked to severe
droughts spanning many years in south
western USA, as well as increased rainfall
over eastern Australia.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The Pacific
Decadal Oscillation (PDO) is a long-term
climate pattern that affects the temperature
of the Pacific Ocean and the weather
patterns around it.
Supplementary notes:
O
Pacific Decadal Oscillation (PDO)
 The Pacific Decadal Oscillation (PDO)
is a climatic event which covers vast areas
SC
of the Pacific Ocean over periods of 20 to
30 years.
 The PDO has positive and negative phases.
The climate impacts experienced during
a PDO event can go hand-in-hand with
impacts from El Nino or La Nina. If both
GS
™™™™™
PTS2024/AIOMT/102023/07
phenomena are in the same phase, their
associated impacts can be amplified. In
the opposite phase, the associated impacts
on global climate may be reduced.
100. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: India ratified
the UNTOC in 2011 becoming the fourth
South Asian country to do so. The nodal
agency for all dealings with UNTOC is the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
Supplementary notes:
United Nations
 The United Nations Convention against
Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC,
often known as the Palermo Convention) is
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a multinational treaty against transnational
organized crime that was established by the
United Nations in 2000.
 The United Nations Convention against
Transnational Organized Crime, which
was enacted by the General Assembly in
Resolution 55/25 on November 15, 2000,
is the most important international tool in
the battle against transnational organized
crime.
 It was signed by the Member States at
a High-level Political Conference held in
Palermo, Italy, on December 12-15, 2000,
and came into force on September 29, 2003.
Why in news?
 20 years of United Nations Convention
against Transnational Organized Crime.
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