The nurse is conducting a prenatal class on the female reproductive system.

When a
client in the class asks why the fertilized ovum stays in the fallopian tube for 3 days,
what is the nurse's best response? *
1/1

"It promotes the fertilized ovum's chances of survival"

"It promotes the fertilized ovum's normal implantation in the top portion of the uterus"
"It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating
hormone"
"It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to estrogen and progesterone"

You are counseling an 11-year-old girl and her mother in the rural health unit. The
mother is communicating concerns to you about anticipatory guidance about
menstruation. The family appears receptive and interested about the importance of
health care. You would know that including menstruation as a part of health education
on this visit would be important because: *
1/1

menstruation is an initiation to sexuality and womanhood.

the patient is in jeopardy for experiencing regular cyclic hormonal changes.
menopausal changes that could be a threat to the patient’s health may be occurring.
menarche should have occurred at age 9 years.

Which explanation should the nurse provide to the prenatal client about the purpose of
the placenta? *
1/1

It is the way the baby gets food and oxygen

It maintains the temperature of the baby
It prevents all antibodies and viruses from passing to the baby
It cushions and protects the baby

The Malandi family was a single-parent family before Mrs. Malandi remarried. What is
a common concern of single-parent families? *
1/1

Finances are inadequate.

Children miss many days of school.
Reading disorders are common.
Children do not know any other family like theirs.

During the menstrual cycle, there is a hormone that causes a rise in the basal body
temperature. This hormone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation and is *
1/1

FSH
LH
progesterone
estrogen

Which of the following regarding menarche is CORRECT? *

1/1

It is a sign of puberty.
All of the above.
It occurs between the ages 11 – 18.
It is indicative of sexual maturity.

When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’ gestation, the nurse would
use which of the following? *
1/1

External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus

Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus

Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic? *

1/1

The action of Doderlein bacillus

Secretions from Bartholin’s glands
Cervical mucus changes
Secretions from Skene’s gland

The normal circulation differs from the fetal circulation because *

1/1

The blood in the left side of the fetal heart contains oxygenated blood while the blood on the right
side contains unoxygenated blood.
The fetal lungs are non-functioning as an organ and most of the blood in the fetal circulation is
mixed blood.
None of the above
The blood at the left atrium of the fetal heart is shunted to the right atrium to facilitate its passage
to the lungs

A nursing student is assigned to care for a client in labor. The nursing instructor asks
the student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus. Which
statement is correct regarding the ductus venosus? *
1/1
Is an opening between the right and left atria
Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava
Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta
Connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava

This procedure entails the aspiration of amniotic fluid from the pregnant mother for
examination. *
1/1

Percutaneous umbilical cord sampling

Alpha-fetoprotein
Chorionic villi sampling
Amniocentesis

The nurse has performed a nonstress test on a pregnant client and is reviewing the
fetal monitor strip. The nurse interprets the test as reactive. How should the nurse
document this finding? *
1/1

The need for further evaluation

Normal
That findings were difficult to interpret.
Abnormal

Clitoral erection during sexual arousal is due to the congestion of blood by the: *
1/1

Ischiocavernosus muscle
Levatorani muscle
Bulbocavernosus muscle
Grafenberg spot

After the first four months of pregnancy, the chief source of estrogen and progesterone
is the: *
1/1

Anterior hypophysis
Adrenal cortex
Corpus luteum
Placenta

The developing cells are called a fetus from the: *

1/1

Eighth week to the time of birth

Time the fetal heart is heard
Implantation of the fertilized ovum
End of the send week to the onset of labor
Which of the following is most likely the reason why couples cohabitate? *
1/1

Parents of both parties do not agree of their marriage.

No financial resources, because it means a lot of money to be married this day.
It is their way of getting to know a potential life partner better before marriage.
It can serve as the mark of a wealthy man as wives cost money

In a normal 28-day menstrual cycle when would you expect ovulation to take place? *
1/1

Days 14
Day 11
Day 12
Days 13

Which of the following hormones is responsible for the differentiation of male

reproductive organs during fetal life? *
1/1

Progesterone
Luteinizing hormone
Estrogen
Testosterone

The nursing student is preparing to teach a prenatal class about fetal circulation.
Which statement should be included in the teaching plan? *
1/1

"Two arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus"
"Two veins carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste products away from the
fetus to the placenta"
"Two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta"
"One artery carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus"

Elevated alpha-fetoprotein is associated with which of the following conditions? *

0/1

Facial malformations
Down syndrome
Fetal liver damage
Spinal cord defect

A pregnancy client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the gender of her baby
as soon as it can be determined. The nurse understands that the client should be able
to find out the gender at 12 weeks' gestation because of which factor. *
1/1
The fetal testes are descended into the scrotal sac
The internal differences in males and females become apparent
The beginning of differentiation in the fetal groin
The appearance of the fetal external genitalia

The DISADVANTAGE of polygamous family is? *

1/1

Low income, difficulty with role modeling or clearly identifying their role in the family.
Family resources, both financial and psychological, must be stretched to accommodate all
members.
Problems that can arise are jealousy and rivalry between wives because of perceived favoritism.
It provides other options when the need for sexual intercourse is felt.

This family is described as cults or composed of group of people who follows a

charismatic leader. *
1/1

Remarriage
Blended
Reconstituted
Communal

When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the
correct method of measurement used by the nurse? *
1/1

From the fundus to the umbilicus

From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus

Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception? *
1/1

Trophoblast
Chromosome
Zygote
Blastocyst

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of menstrual cycle? *

0/1

Allows a woman to shed off dirty blood from the circulation.

Initiates childbearing and childrearing.
Makes a woman achieve positive self-identity.
Brings an ovum to maturity and renews intrauterine tissue.
The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the
result of which of the following? *
1/1

Lanugo
Vernix
Meconium
Hydramnios

A student nurse Roger is describing the process of fetal circulation to a client during a
prenatal visit. The student nurse accurately tells the client that fetal circulation consists
of: *
1/1

Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus

Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery
Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the fetus
Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

Which of the following statements are true about menstruation? *

1/1

During menstruation the basal layer of the endometrium is shed, with the functional layer
remaining intact.
Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy.
During menstruation the entire endometrium is shed.
During menstruation only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with the basal layer
remaining intact.

During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. The nurse
determines that the fetal heart rate is normal if which of the following is noted? *
1/1

180 BPM
80 BPM
100 BPM
150 BPM

In the menstrual cycle, the proliferative phase which is characterized by the growth of
endometrium is under the influence of *
1/1

corpus luteum
estrogen
HCG
progesterone.
Clarissa had been married for 5 years, and now has 3 children. Her husband is
working in the nearby town. The type of family that she establishes is known as. *
1/1

Family of origin
Family of procreation
Family of orientation
Family of generation

The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client who is scheduled for an

amniocentesis. What instruction should the nurse provide? *
1/1

Hospitalization is necessary for 24 hours after the procedure.

Strict bed rest is required after the procedure.
An informed consent needs to be signed before the procedure.
A fever is expected after the procedure because of the trauma to the abdomen.

FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following? *

1/1

12 weeks gestation
8 weeks gestation
20 weeks gestation
16 weeks gestation

The nurse in the health care clinic is instructing a pregnant client how to perform “kick
counts”. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? *
1/1

“I should place my hands on the largest part of my abdomen and concentrate on the fetal
movements to count the kicks.”
“I will record the number of movements or kicks in an hour.”
“If I count fewer than 10 kicks in a 2-hour period, I should walk around a little and count the kicks
again over the next 2-hour.”
“I need to lie flat on my back to perform the procedure for 3 hours.”

When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the
nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following? *
1/1

Thrombophlebitis
Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
Pregnancy-induced hypertension
Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? *
1/1

Diagnostic signs
Probable signs
Positive signs
Presumptive signs

Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy? *
1/1

Positive serum pregnancy test

Skin pigmentation changes
Nausea and vomiting
Hegar’s sign

Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse
expect to occur during the first trimester? *
1/1

Anxiety, passivity, extroversion

Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness
Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism
Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic
changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition? *
1/1

Second trimester
Third trimester
First trimester
Prepregnant period

A nurse is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in a clinic

during her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an
abnormal physical finding necessitating further testing? *
1/1

Braxton hicks’ contractions

Quickening
Consistent increase in fundal height
Fetal heart rate of 180 BPM
A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test
is positive. The physician has documented the presence of a Goodell’s sign. The nurse
determines this sign indicates: *
1/1

A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus.
A softening of the cervix
The presence of hCG in the urine
The presence of fetal movement

A nursing instructor asks a nursing student who is preparing to assist with the
assessment of a pregnant client to describe the process of quickening. Which of the
following statements if made by the student indicates an understanding of this term? *
1/1

“It is the thinning of the lower uterine segment.”

“It is the irregular, painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy.”
“It is the fetal movement that is felt by the mother.”
“It is the soft blowing sound that can be heard when the uterus is auscultated.”

A nurse midwife is performing an assessment of a pregnant client and is assessing the

client for the presence of ballottement. Which of the following would the nurse
implement to test for the presence of ballottement? *
1/1

Palpating the abdomen for fetal movement

Initiating a gentle upward tap on the cervix
Auscultating for fetal heart sounds
Assessing the cervix for thinning

The nurse is assisting in performing an assessment on a client who suspects that she
is pregnant and is checking the client for probable signs of pregnancy. Select all
probable signs of pregnancy. i. Uterine enlargement ii. Fetal heart rate detected by
nonelectric device iii. Outline of the fetus via radiography or ultrasound iv. Chadwick’s
sign v. Braxton Hicks contractions vi. Ballottement *
1/1

Iii, v, vi
all of the above
iv, v, vi
I, ii, iii

Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is prescribed for a woman following delivery of a
newborn infant and the nurse provides information to the woman about the purpose of
the medication. The nurse determines that the woman understands the purpose of the
medication if the woman states that it will protect her next baby from which of the
following? *
1/1

Developing a rubella infection

Developing physiological jaundice
Being affected by Rh incompatibility
Having Rh positive blood

In the 12th week of gestation, a client completely expels the products of conception.
Because the client is Rh negative, the nurse must: *
0/1

Make certain she receives RhoGAM on her first clinic visit

Not give RhoGAM, since it is not used with the birth of a stillborn
Administer RhoGAM within 72 hours
Make certain the client does not receive RhoGAM, since the gestation only lasted 12 weeks.

The nurse recognizes that an expected change in the hematologic system that occurs
during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy is: *
1/1

In increase in hematocrit
An increase in blood volume
A decrease in WBC’s
A decrease in sedimentation rate

The nurse is aware than an adaptation of pregnancy is an increased blood supply to

the pelvic region that results in a purplish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa, which is
known as: *
1/1

Ladin’s sign
Goodell’s sign
Hegar’s sign
Chadwick’s sign

An expected cardiopulmonary adaptation experienced by most pregnant women is: *

0/1

Progression of dependent edema

Tachycardia
Dyspnea at rest
Shortness of breath on exertion
SITUATION: Mrs. Mary Ann Melchor, G2P1 is in the labor room. She is becoming very
quiet and irritable. 16. Mrs. Melchor’s cervix is completely dilated but on IE, the nurse
noted that the station has not progressed. What is the next appropriate action of the
nurse? *
0/1

Request for an ultrasound.

Notify the physician.
Document the finding in the client’s chart.
Palpate if the client’s bladder is full.

The nurse transfers Mrs. Melchor to the delivery room when: *

0/1

as soon as her cervix is 7 cm dilated.

when on IE she is completely effaced and dilated.
when her bag of waters ruptures.
when the client says she cannot control her urge to push.

In the second stage of labor, the nurse places Mrs. Melchor in this position to facilitate
pushing. *
1/1

Semi-fowler’s position
Trendelenburg position
High backrest
Sim’s position

As soon as the infant’s head is delivered, the nurse should do which of the following
actions? *
0/1

Cleanse the infant’s face.

Insert fingers to check for nuchal cord.
Stimulate the infant to cry.
Facilitate delivery of the anterior shoulder.

At the end of the second stage of labor, the nurse administers oxytocin per doctor’s
order. The nurse understands that the desired effect of oxytocin is achieved when: *
1/1

the uterus is firm on palpation.

the amount of lochial flow is not excessive.
the mother says that she feels comfortable now.
the mother complains of uterine cramping.
Which is NOT true in the Schultz mechanism of placental expulsion? *
1/1

Maternal surface appears first.

Most common type of placental separation.
Fetal surface appears first.
Side showing the insertion of the cord.

After the placenta separates, the nurse’s next action would be: *
0/1

disposing immediately the placenta.

inserting vaginal speculum to assess retained placental fragments.
inserting the entire fingers and manually evacuate retained fragments.
massaging the uterus immediately.

Increasing intensity refers to which phase of uterine contraction? *

1/1

Increment
Intervals
Acme
Decrement

How will you interpret the partograph if the dilatation line does not cross the alert line
after several hours? *
0/1

Slow labor progression.

Needs immediate referral.
Poor cervical dilatation.
Good labor progression.

Several factors affect labor. Which of the following factors refers to passageway? *
1/1

Size of the fetal head and its ability to mold to the maternal pelvis.
The fetal attitude and the relationship of fetal parts to one another.
The distance of the presenting part from the ischial spines.
The structure of the maternal pelvis.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the thinning and shortening of the
cervix that occurs just before and during labor? *
1/1

Dilatation
Ballotement
Multiparous
Effacement

Your client asks how long will she be in labor. All of the following factors will influence
the length of her labor, EXCEPT: *
0/1

size of the baby.

mental attitude of the mother
position of the fetus inside the utero.
size of the placenta.

The nurse’s action that has the highest priority for a client in the second stage of labor
is to: *
0/1

prepare the client to breastfeed on the delivery table.

check the fetal position.
administer medication for the pain.
help the client push effectively.

Relationship to fetal parts to each other is called fetal attitude. In which fetal attitude
the presenting anterior-posterior diameter of the fetal head is 9.5 cm? *
0/1

Military position
Extreme extension
Partial extension
Full flexion

On palpation of the client’s uterus, you noticed that it is boggy and displaced to the
right. With this finding, it is important for you to: *
1/1

check if the oxytocin is infusing properly.

assess if client has bladder distension.
check under the buttocks for pooling of blood.
assess if lochial flow is within normal limits.

Normal head circumference of the newborn ranges from? *

1/1

13 – 14 inches
33 – 37 cm
10 – 13 inches
30 – 35 cm
Nurse Jane measures the head circumference of a newborn and it measures 38 cm.
She would suspect that the baby has. *
0/1

Acephaly
Macrocephaly
Microcephaly
Hydrocephalus

It is the flow of heat from the newborn’s body surface to cooler surrounding air. *
1/1

Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Evaporation

It is the transfer of body heat to a cooler solid object in contact with a baby *
1/1

Convection
Conduction
Evaporation
Radiation

It is the transfer of body heat to a cooler solid object not in contact with the baby. *
1/1

Convection
Evaporation
Radiation
Conduction

Which of the following data would alert that nurse that the infant is experiencing
dehydration? *
1/1

Urine specific gravity 1.006.

Urine volume 2 mL/kg/hr.
Low serum sodium.
Sunken anterior fontanel.
Beginning of verbal communication is one of the most important tasks that infants
need to achieve. The nurse teaches Jane’s mother that by 12 months of age she
should display which characteristics? *
0/1

“Children this age can usually say around two words, plus ‘ma-ma’ and ‘da-da’”
“A 12-month-old child can express his or her basic needs verbally”
“One-year-olds can usually say more words than they are able to understand”
“An infant who is this age usually can’t understand spoken words.

At what age should and infant begin to locate an object hidden under a blanket? *
0/1

6 months
10 months
12 months
8 months

The school age child is causing concern because he lacks manners at mealtime. You
suggest: *
1/1

Setting an example is better than continual scolding

Deprive him of his favorite foods until his manner improves
Minimize the problem and it will go away
Send the child away from the table each time he forgets his manner

The peripheral circulation of a newborn remains sluggish for at least the first 24 hours.
It is common to observe cyanosis in the infant’s feet and hands and termed as? *
1/1

Central cyanosis
Acrocyanosis
Peripheral cyanosis
Differential cyanosis

When preparing a preschooler for hospitalization, you would plan interventions to

address which fear? *
1/1

Fear of the dark

Fear of abandonment
Fear of losing control
Fear of loving
The nurse is discussing object permanence to Ramon’s mother. Which action by her
infant best illustrates that he understands object permanence? *
1/1

The child smiles when the mobile on the crib jingles

The child prefers a large yellow ball to a small red one.
The child cries when either hungry or lonely.
The child looks for the mother after she walks away.

You’re assessing the one-minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment,

you note the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 101, cyanotic body and
extremities, no response to stimulation, no flexion of extremities, and strong cry. What
is your patient’s APGAR score? *
1/1

APGAR 6
APGAR 4
APGAR 2
APGAR 3

On the third postpartum day, Mrs. Jessa tells the nurse that she sometimes has
difficulty getting the infant to suck. She describes the infant opening her mouth when
the breast touches her face but turning her head in the opposite direction. The nurse
would explain that this behavior is related to: *
1/1

the extrusion reflex, normal for newborns, and demonstrates the need for much assistance to
endure adequate nutrition.
turning neck reflex, which suggests that breastfed infants are most sensitive to tactile stimulation.
the rooting reflex, which suggests improper technique when placing the infant on the breast.
the infant’s immaturity and unfamiliarity with the technique of feeding.

A mother arrives at a clinic with her preschooler and tells the nurse that she has a
difficult time getting the child to go to bed at night. Which of the following is appropriate
for the nurse to suggest to the mother? *
1/1

Allow the child to set bedtime limits

Allow the child to have temper and tantrums
Inform the child of bedtime a few minutes before it is time for bed
Avoid a nap during the day

Nurse is preparing to care for a 5-year-old who has been placed in traction following a
fracture of the femur. The nurse plans care, knowing that which of the following is the
most appropriate activity for this child? *
1/1

Crayons and coloring book

Large picture books
A radio
A sports video

Based on the principles of growth and development, which of the following

assessment findings would lead you to determine that a child is developing normally? *
1/1

He can throw a large but not a small ball.

He has not gained weight for 3 months.
He pulled himself to his feet before he sat steadily
The left side of his chest is larger than the right.

A newborn's five-minute APGAR score is 5Which of the following nursing interventions

will you provide to this newborn? *
1/1

Routine post-delivery care

Some resuscitation assistance such as oxygen and rubbing baby’s back and reassess APGAR
score.
Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutes.
Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR score.

The mother of a 3-month-old is concerned because her daughter does not yet sit by
herself. Which of the following statements best reflects average sitting ability? *
1/1

Most babies do not sit steadily until 8 months; she is normal.

Sitting ability and the age of first tooth eruption are correlated.
Most babies sit steadily at 3 months; she is slightly delayed.
Most babies sit steadily at 4 months; she is normal.

Baby Ochua was hospitalized for several weeks. Her mother was not able to visit her
frequently than twice a month. To prevent emotional deprivation during this time, the
most important measure could be taken by a nurse is: *
1/1

giving her many toys to keep her occupied.

assigning the same staff on duty to provide care for her each day.
placing her crib near the entrance so that she will not be alone.
placing her each day in a playpen near other same age group of hers.
A child is always talking about her teacher. She always sees to it that all her actions
are in accordance with what her teacher says. As a nurse, you will conclude that the
child is under what stage of the Psychosexual Theory? *
1/1

Latency stage
Phallic stage
Genital stage
Anal stage

They are the greatest determinants or influencing factors of an adolescent’s

behavior: *
0/1

Parents
Peers
Teachers
Siblings

Which of the following types of play is primarily demonstrated by preschoolers? *

0/1

Solitary
Cooperative
Parallel
Imaginary

According to Erikson’s theory of emotional development, infants will develop a sense

of trust when *
1/1

they can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met.
nutritional and hygiene needs are provided on a daily basis.
they can identify and distinguish their mother and father.
they feel a sense of belonging and being accepted as part of the family.

Because bile pigments are not entering the intestinal tract, a newborn with bile duct
obstruction has. *
1/1

Mucus-mixed stools
Tarry stools
Blood-streaked stools
Clay colored stools

The following are methods to prevent cold stress. Except. *

1/1

Dry and wrap the baby

Place the baby near the wall
Skin-to-skin contact
Place them under a radiant heat source

Which action would be most appropriate to help lessen the feelings of rivalry among
siblings? *
0/1

Separate siblings and give individual attention separately

Allow the older siblings to practice adult roles to comfort him or her.
Punish for unacceptable behavior
Interact with younger and older siblings together

When assessing the visual ability of a 7-month-old boy, you should *

0/1

Use a brightly colored object and check the infant’s ability to follow object
Attempt to place a familiar object in the infant’s hand and observe his response
Observe the infant’s ability to follow hand motions
Use a mirror to observe the infant’s response to his image.

You admitted a preschooler in the hospital the day before scheduled surgery. This is
the child’s first hospitalization. Which action will best help the child’s anxiety about the
upcoming surgery? *
1/1

Give the child dolls and medical equipment to play out the experience
Explain that the child will be put to sleep during surgery and won’t feel anything
Begin preoperative teaching immediately
Describe preoperative and postoperative procedures in detail

It is special tissue found in mature newborns, apparently helps to conserve or produce

body heat by increasing metabolism. *
1/1

Adipose tissue
Brown fats
Saturated fats
White fats

In assessing the newborn’s RR the nurse must observe primarily the. *

0/1

Nostrils
Mouth
Abdomen
Diaphragm

The nurse reviews infant safety. It is most important to teach his mother about
preventing which common injuries among infants? *
1/1

Drowning and hypersensitivities

Poisoning and suffocation
Aspiration and falls
Auto accidents and burns

You’re assessing the one-minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment,

you note the following about your newborn patient: weak cry, some flexion of the arm
and legs, active movement and cries to stimulation, heart rate 145, and pallor all over
the body and extremities. What is your patient’s APGAR score? *
1/1

APGAR 9
APGAR 6
APGAR 5
APGAR 12

Keeping in mind the leading cause of accidents in infants, the nurse should advise
parents to *
1/1

buy clothes for the infant with buttons rather than snaps.
check all toys for small, removable parts.
provide round, cylinder-type toys.
avoid finger foods before the age of 15 months.

The mother of a 16-year-old tells the nurse that she is concerned because the child
sleeps about 8 hours every night until noontime every weekend. The appropriate
nursing response is which of the following? *
1/1

“If the child eats properly, that should not be happening.”

“The child probably is anemic and should not eat more foods containing iron.”
“The child should not be staying up so late at night.”
“Adolescents need that amount of sleep every night.”
1 . A Filipino-American registered nurse tries to speak with a Indonesian pregnant
client who cannot understand the English language. To effectively communicate to a
client with a different language, which of the following should the nurse implement? *
1/1

Have an interpreter to translate.

Speak to the client and family together.
Speak very slow.
Speak loudly and closely to the client.

2. What best describes the pattern of genetic transmission known as autosomal

recessive inheritance? *
0/1

Disorders in which the abnormal gene for the trait is expressed even when the other member of
the pair is normal
Disorders in which a single gene controls the particular trait
Disorders in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed

3. Luna, a maternity nurse is providing instruction to a new mother regarding the

psychosocial development of the newborn infant. Using Erikson’s psychosocial
development theory, the nurse would instruct the mother to: *
1/1

Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant

Attend to the newborn infant immediately when crying
Allow the newborn infant to signal a need
Avoid the newborn infant during the first 5 minutes of crying

4. Mrs. Wright at 35 weeks of gestation has had an amniocentesis. The results reveal
that surface-active phospholipids are present in the amniotic fluid. The nurse is aware
that this finding indicates: *
1/1

The fetus is at risk for Down syndrome.

The woman is at high risk for developing preterm labor.
Lung maturity.
Meconium is present in the amniotic fluid.

5. The nurse is conducting a reproductive assessment of a postmenopausal woman.

Which assessment finding reported by the client requires immediate intervention by
the nurse? *
0/1

Vaginal dryness
Painful intercourse
Urinary incontinence
Returning periods

6. When scheduling an annual pelvic examination and Pap test, the client asks if she
should abstain from intercourse before the test. Which is the nurse's best response? *
0/1

"Yes. Avoid having intercourse for 2 hours before the test."

"No. Intercourse can actually enhance the test results."
"Yes. Avoid having intercourse for 24 hours before the test."
"No. Intercourse does not interfere with this test."

7. The Clinical Instructor explains certain obstetrical terms to the junior students in the
OB ward. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Nidation happens in the
upper third of the uterus. 2. The union of the ovum and the sperm is conception which
happens in the ampulla of the fallopian tube. 3. Gametogenesis is the development of
mature male gamete called egg cell. 4. Oogenesis is the development of the mature
female gamete. *
1/1

2,3 & 4
1,2,3 & 4
1,2,& 4
1,3 & 4

8. The Clinical Instructor is discussing with the nursing students the differences
between the male and female reproductive organs, emphasizing the organs / parts that
are analogous; which is INCORRECT? *
0/1

Spermatocytogenesis-oogenesis
Scrotum – labia majora
Glans penis-clitoris
Penis-vagina

9. Various biological and psychosocial theories have been proposed regarding

homosexuality. Which etiological factor has emerged consistently? *
1/1

Homosexual behavior is an individual preference.

Homosexual behavior is the result of negative Oedipal position.
Homosexual behavior has no definitive etiological evidence supporting either biologic or
psychosocial
Homosexual behavior is based on the orientation of the individual.
10. The Reproductive Health Bill R.A.10354 allows the Filipino people right to choose
and make decisions for themselves in accordance with their religious convictions,
ethics, cultural beliefs but does not include the demands of responsible parenthood. *
1/1

False
Partly true
True
Partly false

11. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between biologic
sex and gender identity? *
1/1

biologic sex and gender identity are both modifiable by surgery and medical interventions
biologic sex and gender identity are considered synonyms in nursing practice
sex is chromosomally determined, while gender is a psychosocial construct
biologic sex is genetically determined but gender identity is chosen during adolescence

12. In starting a focused group discussion, Nurse Bimby wants to stress out the
confidentiality of the topics that they will be discussing. Which of the following
instruction convey confidentiality? *
1/1

“This discussion should only be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed
should be told publicly.”
“This discussion should not be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed
should not be told publicly.”
“This discussion should not only be confined within this group of people. Any information
discussed should be told publicly.”
“This discussion should only be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed
should not be told publicly.”

13. What lunar month is considered the age of gestation when sex (gender) of the
fetus can be determined? *
1/1

Second
Fourth
Third
Fifth

14. A pregnant client will start to feel the fetus move at what age of gestation? *
1/1

6 to 8 weeks
10 to12 weeks
16 to 20 weeks
8 to 10 weeks

15. Nurse Roxy is child care health consultant and is working in different day care
centers. Child care health consultants are professionals who: (Select all that apply) *
0/1

Know about child health, child development, and health and safety in child care settings
Promote healthy and safe environments for the elderly
Keep track of the records for children and young adults
Help create environments that best support the healthy growth and development of young
children.

16. Nurse Amy is a newly registered nurse. She is very warmhearted and passionate
towards the children. In what nursing field can Amy work in? *
1/1

Day care center

Nursing Home
Hospice Care
Specialist care: Pallative

17. A woman could only give birth in an alternative birthing center if: *
1/1

She does not have any complications with her pregnancy.

She does not have the funds to give birth at a hospital.
Her location is far from a hospital.
She has a complicated pregnancy.

18. Why should a couple plan their birth setting in advance? *

1/1

To give the couple a sense of control over the experience.

To determine if the woman is allowed to give birth at any birth setting provided that she has no
complications.
To provide more choices on the birth setting.
To avoid cramming over last minute decisions.

19. Mrs. Lim has missed three periods and thinks she might be pregnant. During her
first visit to the prenatal clinic, it is confirmed that she is pregnant. If Mrs. Lim’s last
menstrual period (LMP) began on April 10, 2009, what is her estimated date of
confinement (EDC)/delivery (EDD) according to Naegele’s Rule? *
1/1

January 3
March17
January 17
July 3

20. The senior head nursing student in the maternity unit was asked to calculate the
EDD of Mrs. Juan, pregnant for the second time, whose LMP is April 10, 2009. What is
Mrs. Juan’s EDD/EDC? *
1/1

January 20
January 25
January 30
January 27

21. The clinical instructor is having a discussion with her students on fetal circulation.
Which of the following statements indicate understanding of the umbilical cord? *
1/1

“The umbilical cord is composed of one artery and two veins.”

“The umbilical cord is composed of two veins.”
“The umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein.”
“The umbilical cord is composed of one artery and one vein.”

22. The rebounding of fetus on the examiner’s fingers on palpation is known as: *
1/1

Hegar’s Sign
Ballottement
Goodell’s sign
Braxton Hicks contractions

23. The nurse measures the fundal height of a client at 20 weeks’ gestation. The nurse
expects to note uterine height to be: *
1/1

Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus

At the level of the umbilicus
Slightly below the xiphoid process
At the level of the xiphoid process

24. Hilda, a pregnant client is making her first Antepartum visit. She has a two year old
daughters born at 40 weeks, a 6 year old daughter born at 38 weeks, and 8 year old
twin daughters born at 35 weeks. She had a spontaneous abortion 3 years ago at 10
weeks. Using the GTPAL format, the nurse should identify that the client is: *
1/1

G5 T2 P2 A1 L4
G4 T3 P1 A1 L4
G4 T3 P2 A1 L4
G5 T2 P1 A1 L4

25. Nurse Mitch is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in

a clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an
abnormal physical finding necessitating further testing? *
1/1

Fetal heart rate of 180 BPM

Consistent increase in fundal height
Braxton Hicks contractions
Quickening

26. Nurse Mimi is providing instructions to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy
regarding measures to assist in reducing breast tenderness. The nurse tells the client
to: *
1/1

Avoid wearing a bra

Wash the nipples and areola area daily with soap, and massage the breasts with lotion.
Wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry
Wear tight-fitting blouses or dresses to provide support

27. A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage, how frequently should
the nurse in charge assess her uterine contractions? *
1/1

Every 5 minutes
Every 60 minutes
15 minutes
Every 30 minutes

28. What are some theories about the initiation of labor? Select that all apply: *
1/1

An increase in uterine sensitivity to oxytocin

An increase in cervical sensitivity to oxytocin
Increased synthesis of prostaglandin
Decrease in progesterone
An Increase in pituitary output of oxytocin
An increase in uterine sensitivity to prostaglandin

29. The doctor ordered 1 liter of NSS to be infused over 24 hours using a a drop factor
of 60 gtts/mL. You will set the flow rate at how many drops per minute to accomplish
this order? *
1/1

41.66 gtts/min
42 gtts/min
42.66 gtts/min
40.66 gtts/min

30. After endorsement you made your nurses rounds and you noticed that there's only
200 ml left to count in your patient’s IV bag. The IV is infusing at 80 ml/hr. How much
longer in hours will the IV run? *
1/1

4o mins
2 hrs and 30 mins
1 hr an 40 mins
2 hrs

31. The doctor ordered an IV of 1,000 ml of Normal Saline over 8 hours. How many ml
in an hour will it consume? *
1/1

120 ml/hr
12 ml/hr
110 ml/hr
125 ml/hr

32. The doctor ordered an IV of 1000 ml of Normal Saline over 8 hours. How many
drops per minute would you set the gravity IV tubing with a drip factor of 15
drops/ml? *
1/1

35 gtts/min
31 gtts/min
30 gtts/min
32 gtts/min

33. In your shift, you need to infuse 1000 mL of normal saline IV over 6 hours. How
many ml per hour will it consume? *
1/1

166 ml/hr
165 ml/hr
167 ml/hr
167.66 ml/hr
34. In checking for the water temperature, what part of your body will you use? (select
all that apply) *
1/1

wrist
index finger
elbow
thumb

35. In giving an infant bath, the water must be pleasantly warm this means that water
temperature is *
1/1

approximately 35 to 36 degree celsius

approximately 30 degree celsius
approximately 37 to 38 degree celsius
approximately 36 to 37 degree celsius

36. In doing the hair care for the baby, the best position should be: *
1/1

Put the baby's body inside the tub

Place baby in a side lying position
Carry in infant in prone position
Carry the infant in football hold, facing upright

37. In performing leopold's maneuver, how will you ensure that your hand are not
cold? *
1/1

use candle light to warm hands

submerge your hands into a hot water
drink hot coffee
warm hands by rubbing together

38. In performing perineal preparation the best position for your patient will be? *
1/1

prone position
fowler's position
lithotomy position
trendelenberg position

39. It is a contractions that is barely noticeable, aid in maintaining pressure in the

intervillous spaces by closing off the veins during contraction. *
1/1
FSH
Villi
Uterine Perfusion
Braxton Hicks

40. It is a gelatinous mucopolysaccharide which gives the cord body & prevents
pressure on the Blood volume. *
1/1

Bartholin's gland
Whaleton's Jelly
Wharton's Jelly
Amniotic fluid

41. There is an increase in frequency of urination or sciatic pain(pain across her

buttock radiating down her leg) from the lowered fetal position. *
1/1

Uterine contractions
Show
Lightening
Rupture of Membranes

42. It is when true labor starts in the back & sweep forward across the abdomen like
the tightening of a band *
1/1

Show
Uterine contractions
Lightening
Rupture of membranes

43. This consists of a mucous, often blood-streaked vaginal discharge & indicates the
beginning of cervical dilatation *
1/1

Uterine contractions
Lightening
Show
Rupture of membranes

44. This is to determine the length of fetus in cm. *

1/1

Haase's Rule
Ninth Rule
Hasae's Rule
Rule of thumb
45. This helps determine vascular resistance in women with Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypertension of pregnancy and whether placental insufficiency occurred *
1/1

Doppler umbilical Velocimetry

Amniotic fluid assessment
Doppler spirometry
Placental grading

46. This used to measure the response of the FHR to fetal movement *
1/1

Cardiff method
Non-stress test
Sandovsky method
Fetal heart rate

47. At this point in time the fetal heart sounds is already audible with the use of an
ordinary stethoscope. *
1/1

End of the month

End of 16th gestational week
End of 2oth gestation week
End of pregnancy

48. This time when lanugo begins to diminish. *

1/1

End of 4oth gestational week

End of 36th gestational week
End of 46th gestational week
End of time

49. It is when vernix caseosa is fully formed and fingernails extend over fingertips. *
0/1

End of 32nd gestational week

End of 36th gestational week
End of 4oth gestational week
End of 42nd gestational week

50. This refers to a disease that results from infection with the toxoplasma gondii
parasite. *
1/1

HIV
Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus

51. All are vertex fetal presentation except: *

1/1

Right occipitoanterior
Left occipitoanterior
Right mentoanterior
Right occipitoposterior
Right occipitotransvere

52. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? *

0/1

Fetal movement felt by mother

Enlargement of the uterus
(+) pregnancy test
(+) ultrasound

53.The hormone responsible for the maturation of the Graafian follicle is: *
1/1

Follicle stimulating hormone

Progesterone
Estrogen
Testosterone

54.You performed Leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech presentation.
Fetal back at the right side of the mother. Based on these findings. You can hear the
fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location? *
1/1

Left lower quadrant

Right lower quadrant
Left upper quadrant
Right upper vertex

55.Which of the following findings in a women would be consistent with a pregnancy of

two months duration? *
1/1

Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. And the presence of striae gravidarum.

Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency.
Braxton Hicks contraction and quickening.
Increased respiratory rate and ballottement.
56.The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is: *
1/1

Estrogen
Progesterone
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
Follicle Stimulating Hormone

57.In Leopold’s maneuver step #1. You palpated a soft. Broad mass that moves with
the rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is: *
1/1

The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.

The presentation is breech.
The mass palpated is the back.
The mass palpated is the buttocks.

58.The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is: *

1/1

Transverse position
Vertical position
Oblique position
None of the above

59.In the later part of the 3rd trimester. The mother may experience shortness of
breath. This compliant maybe explained as: *
1/1

A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen.

The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards.
The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones.
The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy.

60.In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round mass at the supra pubic
area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is: *
1/1

The buttocks because the presentation is breech.

The mass palpated is the head.
The mass is the fetal back.
The mass palpated is the small fetal part.

61.What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept
the pregnancy? *
1/1
Lightening
Ballotment
Psuedocyesis
Quickening

62.During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”? *
1/1

Second stage
First stage
Third stage
Fourth stage

63.FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following? *

1/1

5 weeks gestation
20 weeks gestation
15 weeks gestation
10 weeks gestation

64.What instrument is used to detect clear sounds of fetal heart rate during 5 months
gestation, in which we need to auscultate it in the midline suprapubic region?
0/1

Doppler ultrasound transducer

Stethoscope
Cardiotachometer
Tocotransducer

65.A nurse is caring for a 32-week-pregnant client. The client asks how the nurse will
monitor the baby’s growth and determine if the baby is “really okay.” Based on current
evidence, during the third trimester, which assessment should the nurse perform to
evaluate the fetus for adequate growth and viability? *
0/1

Auscultate maternal heart tones.

Measure fundal height.
Measure the woman’s abdominal girth.
Complete a third-trimester ultrasound.

66.A nurse is caring for a 24-year-old client whose pregnancy history is as follows:
elective termination in 1988, spontaneous abortion in 2001, term vaginal delivery in
2003, and currently pregnant again. Which documentation by the nurse of the client’s
gravity and parity is correct? *
0/1
G4P1
G4P2
G3P1
G2P1

67.If a pregnant woman is at 20 weeks gestation, at what level should a clinic nurse
expect to palpate the woman’s uterine height? *
1/1

Two finger-breadths above the symphysis pubis.

Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
At the umbilicus.
Two finger-breadths above the umbilicus.

68. A nurse is assessing the fundal height for multiple pregnant clients. For which
client should the nurse conclude that a fundal height measurement is most accurate? *
1/1

A pregnant client with uterine fibroids.

A pregnant client who is obese.
A pregnant client with polyhydramnios.
A pregnant client experiencing fetal movement.

69.A pregnant woman asks a nurse, who is teaching a prepared childbirth class, when
she should expect to feel fetal movement. The nurse responds that fetal movement.
The nurse responds that fetal movement usually can be felt between which time
frame? *
1/1

8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy

2 and 16 weeks of pregnancy
18 and 20 weeks of pregnancy
22 and 26 weeks of pregnancy

70.Which universal screenings should a nurse complete during the initial prenatal
visit? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. *
0/3

Taking the blood pressure.

Testing the urine for protein.
Testing the urine for glucose.
Screening for domestic violence.
Screening for smoking.
71.A nurse is assessing a prenatal client. Which findings should be most concerning to
the nurse? Prioritize the nurse’s assessment findings at the first prenatal visit from the
most significant finding to the least significant finding. *
0/1

2, 4, 3, 1.
1, 3, 4, 2.
1, 2, 3, 4.
4, 2, 3, 4.

72. A nurse is taking the health of a new, pregnant client. Which medical conditions
are most likely to be risk factors for complications during pregnancy? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY. *
4/4

Diabetes
Previous pregnancy
Controlled chronic hypertension
Anemia
Hemorrhage with a previous pregnancy

73.A new pregnant client (G1P0) presents at clinic and states that she is anxious
regarding her pregnancy, her prenatal care, and her labor and birth. Which teaching
need is priority during the first trimester? *
1/1

Sexual relations with her spouse

Fetal growth and development
Labor and delivery options
Completion of preparations for the baby

74.A nurse is teaching a woman who wishes to travel by airplane during the first 36
weeks of her pregnancy. Which is the primary risk of air travel for this woman that the
nurse should address? *
0/1

Pretem labor
Deep vein thrombosis
Spontaneous miscarriage
Nausea and vomiting

75.A first-trimester pregnant woman asks a nurse if the activities in which she
participates are safe in the first trimester. Which activity should the nurse verify as a
safe activity during the client’s first trimester? *
0/1

Hair coloring
Hot tub use
Sauna use
Sexual activity

76. A nurse should recommend which preconceptual supplement as a preventive

measure to decrease the incidence of neural tube defects? *
1/1

Folic acid supplementation.

Iron supplementation.
Vitamin C supplementation.
Vitamin B6 supplementation

77. A woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 7 weeks. What is the primary nursing
intervention for a woman who is bleeding during the first trimester? *
1/1

Monitor vital signs.

Prepare equipment for examination.
Have oxygen available.
Assess family’s response to the situation.

78. A nurse is caring for a woman with decreased fetal movement at 35 weeks
gestation. Interventions have been ordered by the physician. Prioritize the prescribed
interventions in the order in which they should be performed. 1.Prepare for nonstress
test 2. Prepare for biophysical profile 3. Palpate for fetal movement 4. Apply and
explain the external fetal monitor *
1/1

3, 4, 1, 2.
2, 1, 4, 3.
1, 2, 3, 4.
4, 3, 2, 1.

79. A nurse is assessing a laboring client who is morbidly obese. The nurse is unable
to determine the fetal position. Which is the most accurate method of determining fetal
position in this client? *
1/1

Inspection of the fetal abdomen

Palpation of the abdomen
Vaginal examination
Ultrasound
80. A laboring client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and
hypotension. A nurse suspects aortocaval compression. Which intervention should the
nurse implement immediately? *
1/1

Turning the client onto her left side

Turning the client onto her right side
Positioning the bed in reverse Trendelenburg’s
Positioning the client in a supine position

1. A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After
the delivery, the nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from
evaporation by: *
0/2

A. Warming the crib pad

B. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
C. Closing the doors to the room
D. Drying the infant in a warm blanket

8. Gestational age can be evaluated using fundal space ruler. *

2/2

True
False

Feedback

Gestational age can be evaluated using fundal height or McDonald rule.

3. The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is: *

2/2

A.Transverse position
B. Vertical position
C. Oblique position
D. None of the above

Feedback

Vertical position means the fetal spine is parallel to the maternal spine thus making it easy for the
fetus to go out the birth canal

12. Perineal trauma is any damage to the genitalia during childbirth that occurs
spontaneously or intentionally by surgical incision (episiotomy). *
2/2

true
False

11. This maneuver involves the examiner placing the palms of both hands on either
side of the lower abdomen, with the tips of the fingers facing downward toward the
pelvic inlet *
2/2

A. first manuever
B. second manuever
C. third manuever
D. fourth manuever

Feedback

This fourth maneuver resembles the first maneuver; however, the examiner faces towards the
maternal pelvis. This maneuver involves the examiner placing the palms of both hands on either side
of the lower abdomen, with the tips of the fingers facing downward toward the pelvic inlet. The
fingertips of each hand are used to apply deep pressure from the outside to the inside and in a
craniocaudal direction along the lower contour of the uterus towards the birth canal.

5. You performed Leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech presentation.
fetal back at the right side of the mother. Based on these findings. you can hear the
fetal heart beat BEST in which location? *
2/2

A.Left lower quadrant

B.Right lower quadrant
C.Left upper quadrant
D.Right upper quadrant

Feedback

B. Right lower quadrant. The landmark to look for when looking for PMI is the location of the fetal
back in relation to the right or left side of the mother and the presentation. whether cephalic or
breech. The best site is the fetal back nearest the head.

10. The third maneuver was modified by Karel Pawlík (1849–1914), a Czech
gynecologist and obstetrician, and is referred to as the *
2/2

A. Umbilical grip
B. Pawlik grip
C. Hand grip
D. None of the above

Feedback
The third maneuver was modified by Karel Pawlík (1849–1914), a Czech gynecologist and
obstetrician, and is referred to as the Pawlik grips. This maneuver aids in confirmation of fetal
presentation.

9. The second maneuver, sometimes called the umbilical grip: *

2/2

A. Still facing the maternal xiphoid cartilage, both hands slide down from the uterine fundus
towards the lateral uterine walls.
B. The public symphysis at the 12th week
C. A point midway between the pubic symphysis and the transverse and the transverse umbilical
plane at the 16th week
D. Having crossed this line, it is assumed each transverse finger breath corresponds to two
weeks

6. The Leopold maneuvers are used to: *

2/2

A. palpate the gravid uterus systematically

B. This method of abdominal palpation is of low cost, easy to perform, and non-invasive.
C. It is used to determine the position, presentation, and engagement of the fetus in utero.
D. All of the above

2. A nurse in a newborn nursery is performing an assessment of a newborn infant. The

nurse is preparing to measure the head circumference of the infant. The nurse would
most appropriately: *
0/2

A. Wrap the tape measure around the infant’s head and measure just above the eyebrows.
B. Place the tape measure under the infant's head at the base of the skull and wrap around to the
front just above the eyes
C. Place the tape measure under the infant's head, wrap around the occiput, and measure just
above the eyes
D. Place the tape measure at the back of the infant’s head, wrap around across the ears, and
measure across the infant’s mouth.

4. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the
supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is: *
2/2

A.The buttocks because the presentation is breech.

B.The mass palpated is the head.
C.The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the small fetal part

Feedback

B. The mass palpated is the head. When the mass palpated is hard round and movable. it is the fetal
head.
13. The purpose of perineal care is to not only clean the area but to also check for
infections or lesions in the area. *
2/2

True
False

14. Patient who require special attention to perineal area. *

2/2

A.Patient with indwelling catheters.

B. Postpartum patients.
C. Patients after surgery on the genitor-urinary system.
D. All of the above

15. How can you protect patient privacy during perineal care? *
2/2

A.Put on disposable gloves.

B. Help the client to back-lying or side-lying position with knees apart and legs bent.
C. Expose only the client's genital area.
D. Provide drapes.
E.Place towel under hips.
F. Both A and B ONLY
G. All of the above

7. The first maneuver aims to determine the gestational age and the fetal lie.
0/2

true
False

4. A client had a 1000 mL bag of 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride hung at 3pm.
The nurse making rounds at 3:45 pm finds that the client is complaining of a pounding
headache and is dyspneic, is experiencing chills, and is apprehensive, with an
increased pulse rate. The IV bag has 400 mL remaining. The nurse should take which
action first? *
1/1

A. Call the physician

B. Slow the IV infusion
C. Sit the client up in bed
D. Remove the IV catheter
6. The nurse is preparing a continuous IV infusion at the medication cart. As the nurse
goes to attach the distal end of the IV tubing to a needleless device, the exposed
tubing drops and hits the top of the medication cart. Which of the following is the
appropriate action by the nurse? *
1/1

A. Obtain new IV tubing

B. Attach a new needleless device.
C. Wipe the distal end of the tubing with Betadine
D. Scrub the needleless device with an alcohol swab

8. The aim of Leopold maneuvers is to determine the fetal presentation and position by
systematically palpating the gravid abdomen.
1/1

true
False

17. You performed Leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech presentation.
fetal back at the right side of the mother. Based on these findings. you can hear the
fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location? *
1/1

A. Left lower quadrant

B.Right lower quadrant
C.Left upper quadrant
D. Right upper quadrant

Feedback

The landmark to look for when looking for PMI is the location of the fetal back in relation to the right
or left side of the mother and the presentation. whether cephalic or breech. The best site is the fetal
back nearest the head.

22. Wipe the eyes from outer canthus to inner canthus with cotton swabs . *
1/1

True
False

20. Assessment of the skin before bathing an infant. Select all that apply *
5/5

Colour
Moisture
Temperature
Texture
Turgor
Smell or Odor
Edema

15. Match the following Maneuvers to their respective procedure. *

Facing foot part of the woman, palpate fetal head pressing downward about 2 inches above the
inguinal ligament. Use both hands.
Using thumb and finger, grasp the lower portion of the abdomen above symphisis pubis, press in
slightly and make gentle movements from side to side.
One hand is used to steady the uterus on one side of the abdomen while the other hand moves
slightly on a circular motion from top to the lower segment of the uterus to feel for the fetal back
and small fetal parts. Use gentle but deep pressure.
Using both hands, feel for the fetal part lying in the fundus.
Score
First Maneuver: Fundal Grip
5/5
Second Maneuver: Umbilical Grip
5/5
Third Maneuver: Pawlik’s Grip
5/5
Fourth Maneuver: Pelvic Grip
5/5
First Maneuver: Fundal Grip
Second Maneuver: Umbilical Grip
Third Maneuver: Pawlik’s Grip
Fourth Maneuver: Pelvic Grip

1. When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a patient care procedure, the best
action would be to: *
1/1

A) Ask another nurse.

B) Discuss the procedure with the patients physician.
C) Look up the procedure in a nursing textbook.
D) Consult the agency procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the procedure .

25. At the change of shift, you notice 200 ml left to count in your patient’s IV bag. The
IV is infusing at 80 ml/hr. How much longer in hours will the IV run? *
2/2

A. 5 hrs
B. 3 hrs
C. 2.5 hrs
D. 8 hrs

9. Assesses the uterine fundus to determine its height and which fetal pole—that is,
cephalic or podalic—occupies the fundus. *
1/1

A. First Maneuver
B. Second Maneuver
C. Third Maneuver
D. Fourth Maneuver

3. IV therapy can be effective for a number of conditions including: Select all that
apply *
5/5

A. Pain management
B. Hydration
C. Blood Transfusions
D. Distended bladder
E. Monitoring Intake and Output
f. IV Drug therapy

13. This maneuver aids in confirmation of fetal presentation. *

1/1

A. First Maneuver
B. Second Maneuver
C. Third Maneuver
D. Fourth Maneuver

23. What position should be done when doing perineal prep for a Mother prior to giving
birth. *
1/1

A. Prone
B. Lithotomy
C. Trendelenburg
D. None of the above

19. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the
supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is: *
1/1

A. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.

B. The mass palpated is the head.
C. The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the small fetal part
5. The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess the condition of
assigned clients. The nurse notes that a client's IV site is cool, pale, and swollen, and
the solution is not infusing. The nurse concludes that which of the following
complications has occurred. *
1/1

A. Infection
B. Phlebitis
C. Infiltration
D. Thrombosis

24. How are patients wiped during perineal care *

1/1

A. Side to side
B. Front to back
C. Back to back
D. None of the above

7. What is the significance of Leopold's Maneuver? Select all that apply *

0/5

The Leopold maneuvers are used to palpate the gravid uterus systematically.
To relax the muscles in the perineum before giving birth.
It is used to determine the position, presentation, and engagement of the fetus in utero.
This activity describes the four Leopold maneuvers and explains the method of systematic
abdominal palpation used to assess fetal presentation and position in the third trimester of
pregnancy.
This method of abdominal palpation is of high cost, difficult to perform, and less-invasive.

12. Sometimes called the umbilical grip, involves palpation of the lateral uterine
surfaces. *
1/1

A. First Maneuver
B. Second Maneuver
C. Third Maneuver
D. fourth Maneuver

16. Match the following purposes to its Maneuver. *

Third
First
Fourth
Second
Score
To determine fetal part lying in the fundus.To determine presentation
 5/5
To identify location of fetal back. To determine position.
5/5
To determine engagement of presenting part.
5/5
To determine the degree of flexion of fetal head.To determine attitude or habitus
5/5
To determine fetal part lying in the fundus.To determine presentation
To identify location of fetal back. To determine position.
To determine engagement of presenting part.
To determine the degree of flexion of fetal head.To determine attitude or habitus

14. This maneuver involves the examiner placing the palms of both hands on either
side of the lower abdomen, with the tips of the fingers facing downward toward the
pelvic inlet. *
1/1

A. First Maneuver
B. Second Maneuver
C. Third Maneuver
D. Fourth Maneuver

21. Explain procedure to the mother and encourage her participation in bathing an
infant. *
1/1

True
False

10. Aims to determine the gestational age and the fetal lie. *
1/1

A. First Maneuver
B. Second Maneuver
C. Third Maneuver
D. Fourth Maneuver

2. The following factors affect the infusion rate if an infusion pump is not used: Select
all that apply *
0/5

A. Size of the catheter.

B. Height of the IV bag.
C. Position of the insertion site.
D. Component of the fluid (ex. Normal saline)

18. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1. you palpated a soft. broad mass that moves with
the rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is: *
1/1

A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.

B. The presentation is breech.
C. The mass palpated is the back
D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.

11. Gestational age can be evaluated using fundal height or McDonald rule. *
1/1

True
False

19. When the bag of waters ruptures spontaneously, the nurse should inspect the vaginal
introitus for possible cord prolapse. If there is part of the cord that has prolapsed into the vaginal
opening the correct nursing intervention is: *
Push back the prolapse cord into the vaginal canal
Place the mother on semifowler’s position to improve circulation
Cover the prolapse cord with sterile gauze wet with sterile NSS and place the woman on
trendellenberg position
Push back the cord into the vagina and place the woman on sims position
11. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the
following assessments would warrant notification of the physician? *
A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client
A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum
Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery
A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
16. The proper technique to monitor the intensity of a uterine contraction is *
Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen and time the contraction
Place the finger tips lightly on the suprapubic area and time the contraction
Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal area and try to indent the abdominal wall at the
height of the contraction
Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area and feel the contraction at the fundal area
3. During the first hours following delivery, the post partum client is given IVF with oxytocin
added to them. The nurse understands the primary reason for this is: *
To facilitate elimination
To promote uterine contraction
To promote analgesia
To prevent infection
17. The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the *
Acceleration
Acme
Deceleration
Axiom
10. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours’ postpartum that are as follows: BP
90/60; temperature 100.4ºF; pulse 100 weak, thready; RR 20 per minute. Which of the following
should the nurse do first?
Report the temperature to the physician
Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
Assess the uterus for firmness and position
Determine the amount of lochia
9. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and position in relation to the
umbilicus and midline, which of the following should the nurse do first? *
Assess the vital signs
Administer analgesia
Ambulate her in the hall
Assist her to urinate
20. When doing perineal care in preparation for delivery, the nurse should observe the following
EXCEPT *
Use up-down technique with one stroke
Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
Use mild soap and warm water
Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area
14. Upon assessment, the nurse got the following findings: 2 perineal pads highly saturated with
blood within 2 hours post partum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft and boundaries not well defined.
The appropriate nursing diagnosis is *
Normal blood loss
Blood volume deficiency
Inadequate tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage
Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
12. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the
correct method of measurement used by the nurse? *
From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
From the fundus to the umbilicus
15. The primary power involved in labor and delivery is *
Bearing down ability of mother
Cervical effacement and dilatation
Uterine contraction
Valsalva technique
13. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the contractions of a primigravida client are
not strong enough to dilate the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate doing? *
Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion
Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest for several hour
Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress
Increasing the encouragement to the patient when pushing begins
8. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed findings in cystitis? *
Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank pain
Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain
Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills, and fever
High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and frequency
18. When the bag of waters ruptures, the nurse should check the characteristic of the amniotic
fluid. The normal color of amniotic fluid is: *
Clear as water
Bluish
Greenish
Yellowish
1. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently
experience during the first trimester: *
frequency
dysuria
incontinence
burning
2. The nurse is preparing Mrs. Go for cesarean delivery. Which of the following key concept
should the nurse consider when implementing nursing care? *
Explain the surgery, expected outcome and kind of anesthetics.
Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or emergency cesarean
birth.
Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia department to explain what to expect post-
operatively.
Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the family lounge until after the delivery.
4. Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?
*
Hematocrit 33.5%
Rubella titer less than 1:8
White blood cells 8,000/mm3
One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
7. When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of the following key concepts should be
considered when implementing nursing care? *
Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the family lounge until after the delivery
Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia department to explain what to expect
postoperatively
Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or emergency cesarean
birth
Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and kind of anesthetics
5. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of
the LMP is unknown? *
Uterus in the pelvis
Uterus at the xiphoid
Uterus in the abdomen
Uterus at the umbilicus
6. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes overstimulated by oxytocin during
the induction of labor?
Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70 seconds
Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90 seconds
Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
Increased restlessness and anxiety
7. Some women have a greater risk of gestational diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes
include the following: *

A. Overweight and obesity.

B. A lack of physical activity.

C. Previous gestational diabetes or prediabetes.

D. All of the above

11. A 39-year-old at 37 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with complaints of vaginal
bleeding following the use of cocaine 1 hour earlier. Which complication is most likely causing
the client’s complaint of vaginal bleeding? *

A. Placenta previa

B. Abruptio placentae

C. Ectopic pregnancy

D. Spontaneous abortion

17. When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the correct nursing intervention to relieve
the muscle cramps is:

A. Allow the woman to exercise

B. Let the woman walk for a while

C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the knees

D. Ask the woman to raise her legs

5. Preeclampsia develops only as a complication of pregnancy. Risk factors include: *

A. A personal or family history of preeclampsia significantly raises your risk of preeclampsia.

B. The risk of preeclampsia is higher for very young pregnant women as well as pregnant
women older than 35.
C. The risk of preeclampsia is higher if you're malnourished.

D. If you already have chronic hypertension, you have a higher risk of developing
preeclampsia.

13. A maternity nurse is caring for a client with abruptio placentae and is monitoring the client for
disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. Which assessment finding is least likely to be
associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation? *

A. Swelling of the calf in one leg

B. Prolonged clotting times

C. Decreased platelet count

D. Petechiae, oozing from injection sites, and hematuria

16. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This
complaint maybe explained as: *

A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen

B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards

C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones

D. The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy

19. Upon assessment the nurse found the following: fundus at 2 fingerbreadths above the
umbilicus, last menstrual period (LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB) not appreciated.
Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis of this condition? *

A. Hydatidiform mole

B. Missed abortion

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease

D. Ectopic pregnancy

1. Preterm labor occurs when regular contractions result in the opening of your cervix after week
20 and before week 37 of pregnancy. *

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

6. Complications of preeclampsia may include: *

A. Preterm birth

B. Postpartum depression

C. Blood loss

D. Septic Shock

9. An event that results in the loss of a fetus before 20 weeks of pregnancy. *

A. Gestational diabetes

B. Eclampsia

C. CVD bleed

D. Miscarriage

8. If you have gestational diabetes, your baby may be at increased risk of: *

A. Excessive birth weight.

B. Early (preterm) birth.

C. Low blood sugar (hypoglycemia).

D. Untreated gestational diabetes can result in a baby's death either before or shortly after
birth.

15. An ultrasound is performed on a client at term gestation that is experiencing moderate

vaginal bleeding. The results of the ultrasound indicate that an abruptio placentae is present.
Based on these findings, the nurse would prepare the client for: *

A. Complete bed rest for the remainder of the pregnancy

B. Delivery of the fetus

C. Strict monitoring of intake and output

D. The need for weekly monitoring of coagulation studies until the time of delivery

4. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia may include: *

A. Excess protein in your urine (proteinuria) or additional signs of kidney problems

B. Upper abdominal pain, usually under your ribs on the right side

C. Changes in vision, including temporary loss of vision, blurred vision or light sensitivity

D. Increased levels of platelets in your blood.

18. Which of the following are the functions of amniotic fluid? 1.Cushions the fetus from
abdominal trauma 2.Serves as the fluid for the fetus 3.Maintains the internal temperature
4.Facilitates fetal movement *

A. 1 & 3

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 3

D. All of the above

20. A pregnant mother is admitted to the hospital with the chief complaint of profuse vaginal
bleeding, AOG 36 wks, not in labor. The nurse must always consider which of the following
precautions:

A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery under strict asepsis with a double set-up

B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal

C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be made ready before examining the
patient

D. Internal exam must be done following routine procedure

3. is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to

another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. *

A. Miscarriage

B. Gestational diabetes

C. Placenta previa

D. Preeclampsia

10. Conditions that can interfere with fetus development include: *

A. poor diet, or malnutrition

B. drug and alcohol use

C. advanced maternal age

D. All of the above

12. A pregnant woman arrives at the emergency department (ED) with abruptio placentae at 34
weeks’ gestation. She’s at risk for which of the following blood dyscrasias? *

A. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).

C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

D. Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT)

2. Preterm labor can affect any pregnancy. Many factors have been associated with an
increased risk of preterm labor includes: *

A. Previous preterm labor or premature birth, particularly in the most recent pregnancy or in
more than one previous pregnancy

B. Problems with the uterus or placenta

C. Shortened cervix

D. All of the above

14. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy who was admitted
to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which of the following
assessment findings would the nurse expect to note if this condition is present? *

A. Absence of abdominal pain

B. A soft abdomen

C. Uterine tenderness/pain

D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding

HS AT BEDTIME

OD daily

BID twice a day

TID thrice

QID four times

AC before meals

PC after meals

LMP last menstrual period

AOG age of gestation

EFW estimated fetal weight

FH fundal height

FHT fetal heart tones

EDC estimated date of confinement

DAT diet as tolerated

NPO nothing by mouth

NSVD normal spontaneous vaginal delivery

UA urinalysis

D5LR dextrose 5 % lactated ringers

PLAIN LR lactated ringers

EDC estimated date of confinement

1/1

Partial extension

Complete extension

Moderate flexion

Complete flexion

The nurse is reviewing the record of the patient in the labor room and notes that the fetus is in
+2 station. The nurse notes that the fetal presenting part is: *

1/1

2 cm above the ischial spine

2 cm below the ischial spine

2 inches below the ischial spine

2 inches above the ischial spine

Which of the following measurements indicates that the fetal presenting part is engaged? *
1/1

-2

+2

+4

Which of the following is an essential intrapartum fetal assessment? *

1/1

Determination of the duration, frequency and intensity of contractions

Inspection of the maternal abdomen to determine lie

Examination of the vagina to assess effacement and cervical dilatation

Evaluation of the mother to determine knowledge about childbirth education.

Theories Related to Maternal and Child Health Nursing are except *

1/1

Callista Roy’s Adaptation Theory

Dorothea Orem’s Self-Care Theory

Patricia Benner’s Novice-Expert Mode

Florence Nightingale Theory

It is the upper half of the pelvis which supports the uterus during the late months of pregnancy
& aids in directing the fetus into the true pelvis for birth *

1/1

Inlet

Outlet

False pelvis

True pelvis

It is a landmark of the mid pelvis and is important for determining engagement *

1/1
symphysis pubis

iliac crest

Ischial tuberosities

Ischial spines

These are functions of the pelvis except: *

1/1

Support & protect the reproductive & other pelvic organs

Accommodation of the growing fetus

Anchorage of the pelvic support structures

Nourishment of the growing fetus

It is a the most reliable measurement of the outlet *

1/1

Bi-ischial diameter

Diagonal conjugate

Obstetric conjugate

True conjugate

Influences the development of uterus, fallopian tubes, and vagina; typical fat distribution; hair
patterns; breast development. *

1/1

Role of Testosterone:

Role of Estrogen:

Role of Progesterone

Role of androgen

What is the best position to assume by a low-risk parturient who is in early labor? *

1/1

Supine
Lithotomy

Left lateral recumbent

Squatting

The decision is made to encourage a woman in early labor to ambulate around the unit fpr a
while then to reassess her status. What assessment distinguishes between true and false
labor? *

1/1

confirmation of spontaneous rupture of membranes

signs and symptoms of increasing discomfort

evidence of cervical dilatation

presence of copious bloody vaginal discharge

The position that the nurse teaches the client to avoid when experiencing back pain during
labor would be the: *

1/1

Sitting position

Supine position

Right lateral position

Left-side-lying position

Which of the following is not true regarding duration of uterine contractions? *

1/1

Duration of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the
same contraction

Duration decreases as labor progresses

Duration increases as labor progresses

Duration should not exceed 70 seconds

Also known as pre-gestational, luteal, premenstrual, or secretory phase *

1/1
First Phase of the Menstrual Cycle (PROLIFERATIVE PHASE) = from day 4 or 5 to day 14

Second Phase of the Menstrual Cycle (Secretory Phase) = Day 14 to 24 of menstrual cycle

Third Phase of Menstrual Cycle (Ischemic Phase) = Day 24 to 28 of menstrual cycle

Fourth Phase of Menstrual Cycle (Menses or Menstrual Phase) = first day of the menstrual flow
to 5 days

Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements can occur? *

1/1

Descent

Flexion

Extension

External rotation

After the baby’s head extends, which of these actions should be carried out first? *

1/1

Suction the nose, then the mouth

Feel the nape for any cord coil

Promote internal rotation of the head

Stimulate cry

The cardinal movements of labor in proper sequence are: *

1/1

Engagement, internal rotation, external rotation, expulsion and flexion

Engagement, descent, internal rotation, external rotation, extension

Extension, internal rotation, external rotation and expulsion

Expulsion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension

Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, External Rotation, Expulsion

Which of the following mechanisms of labor occurs when the widest diameter of the
presenting part has passed the pelvic inlet and usually corresponds to a 0 station? *
1/1

Engagement

Restitution

Flexion

Descent

Are the two like genes on autosomes. *

1/1

Alleles

Phenotype

Genotype

Genome

The management of a client in the transition phase of labor is primarily directed toward: *

1/1

helping the patient maintain control

decreasing intravenous fluid intake

reducing the client’s discomfort with medications

having the client follow simple breathing patterns during contractions

You received a client in the delivery room. On assessment, the baby’s head is crowning and
she is bearing down, and delivery appears imminent. The nurse should BEST: *

0/1

Suction the nose and then the mouth

Feel the nape for any cord coil

Promote internal rotation of the head.

Stimulate cry.

A client delivers a healthy baby girl. An indication to the nurse that the placenta is beginning to
separate from the uterus and is ready to be delivered would be the: *
1/1

presence of strong contractions

descent of the uterus

appearance of a sudden gush of blood

retraction of the umbilical cord into the vagina

After placental delivery, the nurse examines the cord and evaluates that it is normal with the
identification of which findings? *

1/1

One umbilical vein and one umbilical artery

two umbilical veins and two umbilical arteries

One umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries

A placental weight of 1,000 g.

Refers to the cultural group into which the person was born, although the term is sometimes
used in a narrower context to mean only race *

1/1

Diversity

Transcultural nursing

Culture

Ethnicity

A woman delivered a newborn 12 hours ago. Which of the following assessment would the
nurse expect to find? *

0/1

Lochia alba

Soft, boggy fundus

Transient tachycardia

Complaints of hunger
Lochia serosa is characterized by which of the following? *

1/1

Creamy yellow color

No odor

Serosanguinous appearance

White to colorless

During lecture of a childbirth class, the nurse explains that in the postpartum period the
process whereby the uterus returns to its pre-pregnancy state is called: *

1/1

Involution

Puerperium

Uterine atony

Lochia rubra

The labor and delivery experience is frequently reviewed by the mother. During which of the
following periods according to Reva Rubin, is this commonly done? *

1/1

Letting-down

Letting go

Taking hold

Taking in

Ovum is capable of fertilization for *

1/1

4h

8h

16h

24h
Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn? *

1/1

The anterior is triangle-shaped, the posterior is diamond-shaped

The posterior closes at 18 months, the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks

The anterior is larger in size when compared to the posterior.

The anterior is bulging and the posterior is sunken

The first period of reactivity begins at birth. Which of the following is characteristic of this
period? *

1/1

This period lasts about 30 minutes

The infant is asleep.

A poor suck is present.

Respirations may be increased to 110cpm

Which of the following groups of reflexes are present at birth and remains unchanged through
adulthood? *

1/1

Blink, cough, rooting and gag

Blink, cough, sneeze and gag

Rooting, sneeze, swallowing and cough

Stepping, blink, cough and sneeze

Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a
newborn? *

1/1

Mucus

Uric acid crystals

Bilirubin

Excess iron
It consists of a mucous, often blood-streaked vaginal discharge & indicates the beginning of
cervical dilatation *

1/1

LIGHTENING

SHOW

RUPTURE OF THE MEMBRANE

UTERINE CONTRACTIONS

You’re caring for children in a day-care center. According to the theorist Jean Piaget, an infant
who learns about objects by placing them in his mouth is in which stage of development? *

1/1

Preoperational

Sensorimotor

Concrete operational

Formal operational

When preparing to teach a class in child development, you review the work of a theorist who
postulated that the personality is a structure with three parts, called the id, ego and superego.
The theorist is: *

1/1

Sigmund Freud

Erik Erikson

Jean Piaget

Lawrence Kohlberg

Directional trends in growth and development are easily seen in the neonate. Which term
describes development in the head-to-tail direction? *

1/1

Sequential trend

Proximodistal pattern
Cephalocaudal trend

Mass to specific pattern

According to Erikson, infancy is the age for developing which psychosocial task? *

1/1

Sense of initiative vs. guilt

Sense of trust vs. mistrust

Sense of identity vs. role diffusion

Sense of industry vs. inferiority

To stimulate the senses of infants and provide early mental feeding is to meet the needs of
this cognitive stage of infancy. According to Piaget, which stage is this? *

1/1

preoperational stage

sensorimotor stage

formal operations

concrete operations stage

Used to diagnose complications like ectopic pregnancy *

0/1

Electrocardiography

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Ultrasonography

Amnioscopy

An infant’s mother asks you, “When should I expect my daughter to begin to walk?” Which of
the following is an appropriate response? *

0/1

“Probably by 9 months.”

“Most children walk around 12 months.”

“It varies so much I couldn’t even guess.”

“Try not to worry. When she’s ready, she’ll walk.”

An appropriate toy that the nurse should offer to a 3-month-old infant would be a: *

1/1

Push-pull toy

Stuffed animal

Metallic mirror

Large plastic ball

The nurse is aware that the play of a 5-month-old infant would probably consist of: *

1/1

Picking up a rattle or toy and putting it in the mouth

Exploratory searching when a cuddly toy is hidden from view

Simultaneously kicking the legs and batting the hands in the air.

Waving and clenching fists and dropping toys placed in the hands

A mother tells the nurse that her 7-month-old child has just started sitting without support. The
nurse should inform the mother that this: *

1/1

Its an expected developmental behavior at this stage

Activity signifies the upper 10% of physical development

Could be a developmental delay that requires further evaluation

Behavior is early and indicates that the baby will be walking soon

Fetal heart sounds audible with ordinary stethoscope *

1/1

END OF 4TH GESTATIONAL WEEK

END OF 8TH GESTATIONAL WEEK

END OF 12TH GESTATIONAL WEEK (1ST TRIMESTER)

END OF 16TH GESTATIONAL WEEK

A toddler seems unable to remain dry despite toilet training. Which patient teaching should be
included in his plan of care? *

1/1

He probably is not yet physically ready for toilet training.

He is reacting to his emotional outbursts, responsible for delaying toilet training.

He may need to be examined by a child psychologist to solve this problem.

He must be under undue stress to be behaving this way.

A toddler’s mother is concerned because her toddler takes her blanket everywhere. Which
advice would be most appropriate for her regarding this? *

1/1

Have her daughter evaluated by a child psychologist.

Understand that this is probably a normal event.

Make subtle efforts to remove the blanket.

Destroy the blanket by cutting off a strip from it every day.

While evaluating nursing care in a community clinic, you find that toddlers are at high risk for
injuries because of their increasing curiosity, advancement in cognition, and improved motor
skills. All these hazards are a concern for this age group except: *

1/1

burns

poisoning

sports injury

falls

The public health nurse is conducting a class for mothers of 1-3 years. Which of these
characteristics are least likely to be observed in toddlers? *

1/1

negativistic
dawdling

exhibits temper tantrums

cooperative

If the school age child has an unsuccessful resolution of the psychological crisis according to
Erikson, which of the following may result? *

1/1

Trust-fear conflict and general difficulties relating to people

Independence-fear conflict and severe feelings of self-doubt

Sense of inferiority and difficulty learning and working

Aggression-fear conflict and feelings of inadequacy or guilt

Which of the following toys is best for school age? *

1/1

tricycle

sorting games and toys

painting

balls

The clinic nurse provides information to the mother of a school age child about nutrition.
Which of the following is not a component of the information session? *

0/1

The child will normally select nutritious snacks.

The child should help in preparing his snacks

The child will need to shift to a low-fat snack.

The child needs extra money so he can participate in snack selection on school

Which of the following fears is highest in the school age child? *

1/1

fear of image alteration

fear of death

fear of separation from parents

fear of strangers

It prepares the body for the work of labor ahead *

1/1

Lightening

Increase in level of activity

Braxton hicks contractions

Ripening of the cervix

The parents of an adolescent boy are concerned about the amount of sleep he seems to
require. What advice would you give them? *

1/1

“As long as he seems otherwise well, this sounds like a typical teenager.”

“Adolescents only need 8 hours of sleep a night; anything over this is excessive.”

“Your son is probably engaged in too many activities and is wearing himself out.”

“Your son may be taking drugs; the side effect of many drugs is to cause sleepiness.”

The nurse working with adolescents understands which to be the most widely used drug
among adolescents? *

1/1

Alcohol

Heroin

Cocaine

Speed

When encouraging an adolescent who is hospitalized and physically challenged or chronically

ill to develop and maintain a sense of identity, which is the best nursing action? *

1/1
Providing the opportunity for individual decision making

Providing physical comfort to the individual

Asking the parents what the adolescent is capable of doing

Providing care until the adolescent insists on being independent

The following is/are fears of adolescents. Which is the LEAST common? *

1/1

hospitalization

Acne

Obesity

Death

It’s transverse diameter is narrow; the anteroposterior diameter of the inlet is larger than
usual. *

1/1

Gynecoid Pelvis

Android

Anthropoid

Platypelloid

33. Risk for Infection: At increased risk for being invaded by pathogenic organisms. Risk factors may
include: Select all that apply *

Rupture of amniotic membranes

Break in the skin

Decreased Hb

Exposure to pathogens

38. A adult female patient is using the rhythm (calendar-basal body temperature) method of family
planning. In this method, the unsafe period for sexual intercourse is indicated by; *

Return preovulatory basal body temperature

Basal body temperature increase of 0.1 degrees to 0.2 degrees on the 2nd or 3rd day of cycle

3 full days of elevated basal body temperature and clear, thin cervical mucus

Breast tenderness and mittelschmerz

15. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of the
following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching? *

“Daily soap and water cleansing is best”

‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”

“An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection”

“He can have a tub bath each day”

29. Correct statements about breast-feeding and formula-feeding include which of the following? *

There is a lower incidence of milk-protein allergy in formula-fed infants

There is an improved immunity in breast-fed infants

There is a faster return to prepregnancy weight in mothers of formula-fed infants

All of the above

10. Which of the following factors might result in a decreased supply of breastmilk in a PP mother? *

Supplemental feedings with formula

Maternal diet high in vitamin C

An alcoholic drink

Frequent feedings

3. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in which muscle
site? *

Deltoid
Triceps

Vastus lateralis

Biceps

5. The primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the: *

Heart rate

Respiratory rate

Presence of meconium

Evaluation of the Moro reflex

17. Apgar is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. *

true

False

7. The nurse is aware that a healthy newborn’s respirations are: *

Regular, abdominal, 40-50 per minute, deep

Irregular, abdominal, 30-60 per minute, shallow

Irregular, initiated by chest wall, 30-60 per minute, deep

Regular, initiated by the chest wall, 40-60 per minute, shallow

13. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum
discharge? *

Promoting comfort and restoration of health

Exploring the emotional status of the family

Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care

Teaching about the importance of family planning

4. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the procedure for administering erythromycin
ointment into the eyes if a neonate. The instructor determines that the student needs to research this
procedure further if the student states: *

“I will cleanse the neonate’s eyes before instilling ointment.”

“I will flush the eyes after instilling the ointment.”

“I will instill the eye ointment into each of the neonate’s conjunctival sacs within one hour after birth.”

“Administration of the eye ointment may be delayed until an hour or so after birth so that eye contact
and parent-infant attachment and bonding can occur.”

24. If there is active motion, the infant scores 0 for muscle tone. *

true

False

1) A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the
nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by: *

Warming the crib pad

Turning on the overhead radiant warmer

Closing the doors to the room

Drying the infant in a warm blanket

6. When performing a newborn assessment, the nurse should measure the vital signs in the following
sequence: *

Pulse, respirations, temperature

Temperature, pulse, respirations

Respirations, temperature, pulse

Respirations, pulse, temperature

27. What are the Advantages of breastfeeding? Select all that apply: *

Breastfeeding protects your baby from infections and diseases.

It decreases allergies

it is FREE

It is available whenever and wherever your baby needs a feed.

Greater chances of diarrhea and vomiting for your baby

Exclusive breastfeeding can also delay the return of your periods

36. Five hours after birth, a neonate is transferred to the nursery, where the nurse intervenes to prevent
hypothermia. What is a common source of radiant heat loss? *

Low room humidity

Cold weight scale

Cools incubator walls

Cool room temperature

26. Breastfeeding provides your baby with a variety of health and developmental benefits. The natural
ingredients found in breast milk help protect your baby from illness and disease during infancy. *

True

False

19. The 1-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby tolerated outside the mother's
womb. *

true

False

28. Physical and emotional benefits of breastfeeding includes: Select all that apply:
Boosts Development and Growth

Strengthens Immune System

Difficult to digest.

Speeds Up Post-Pregnancy Weight Loss

16. During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for breathing techniques during preparation
for labor based on the understanding that breathing techniques are most important in achieving which
of the following? *

Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents something to do

Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing uteroplacental perfusion

Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of pain

Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are needed

11. Which of the following interventions would be helpful to a breastfeeding mother who is experiencing
engorged breasts? *

Applying ice

Applying a breast binder

Teaching how to express her breasts in a warm shower

Administering bromocriptine (Parlodel)

20. The Apgar test is done by a doctor, midwife, or nurse. The provider examines the baby's. Select all
that apply *

Breathing effort

Heart rate

Muscle tone

Reflexes

Skin color
34. While the client is in active labor with twins and the cervix is 5 cm dilates, the nurse observes
contractions occurring at a rate of every 7 to 8 minutes in a 30-minute period. Which of the following
would be the nurse’s most appropriate action? *

Note the fetal heart rate patterns

Notify the physician immediately

Administer oxygen at 6 liters by mask

Have the client pant-blow during the contractions

12. What type of milk is present in the breasts 7 to 10 days Postpartum? *

Colostrum

Hind milk

Mature milk

Transitional milk

32. In getting the vital signs of the newborn's heart rate it is counted at the apical pulse by auscultating
for 1 full minute. *

true

False

8. By keeping the nursery temperature warm and wrapping the neonate in blankets, the nurse is
preventing which type of heat loss? *

Conduction

Convection

Evaporation

Radiation
23. If the infant cries well, the respiratory score is 2. *

true

False

18. The 5-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process. *

true

False

41. A method of assessing the newborn’s adjustment to extrauterine life. It is taken at one minute and
five minutes after birth. *

APGAR SCALE

14. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78; apical
hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at the end of expiration.
Which of the following should the nurse do? *

Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention

Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.

Suction the infant’s mouth and nares

Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity

37. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell
the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time? *

Between 10 and 12 weeks’ gestation

Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation

Between 21 and 23 weeks’ gestation

Between 24 and 26 weeks’ gestation

35. A female adult patient is taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive, or mini pill. Progestin use may
increase the patient’s risk for: *

Endometriosis

Female hypogonadism

Premenstrual syndrome

Tubal or ectopic pregnancy

39. Which of the following would be inappropriate to assess in a mother who’s breast-feeding? *

The attachment of the baby to the breast.

The mother’s comfort level with positioning the baby.

Audible swallowing.

The baby’s lips smacking

40. The nurse in charge is caring for a postpartum client who had a vaginal delivery with a midline
episiotomy. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority for this client? *

Risk for deficient fluid volume related to hemorrhage

Risk for infection related to the type of delivery

Pain related to the type of incision

Urinary retention related to periurethral edema

9. When teaching umbilical cord care to a new mother, the nurse would include which information? *

Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change

Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing

Keep the cord dry and open to air

Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath
21. If the infant is not breathing, the respiratory score is 5. *

true

False

25. Grimace response or reflex irritability is a term describing response to stimulation, such as a mild
pinch, the following assessments are true. Select all that apply. *

If there is no reaction, the infant scores 0 for reflex irritability.

If there is grimacing, the infant scores 1 for reflex irritability.

If there is grimacing and a cough, sneeze, or vigorous cry, the infant scores 2 for reflex irritability.

If the skin color is pale blue, the infant scores 3 for color.

30. Ineffective or shallow infant latch with breast-feeding may lead to increased: *

Nipple pain

Uterine contractions

Breast milk supply

None of the above

31. Walking improves blood flow which aids in quicker wound healing. *

true

False

2. A nurse prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to a newborn infant. The mother asks the nurse
why her newborn infant needs the injection. The best response by the nurse would be: *

“You infant needs vitamin K to develop immunity.”

“The vitamin K will protect your infant from being jaundiced.”

“Newborn infants are deficient in vitamin K, and this injection prevents your infant from abnormal
bleeding.”
“Newborn infants have sterile bowels, and vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria in the bowel.”

22. If the respirations are slow or irregular, the infant scores 1 for respiratory effort. *

true

False