I.

BIOCHEMICAL TERRORISM

1. A nurse is caring for patients exposed to a terrorist attack involving chemicals. The nurse
has been advised that personal protective equipment must be worn in order to five the
highest level of respiratory protection with a lesser level of skin and eye protection. What
level is this considered?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

2. A client with suspected inhalation anthrax is admitted to the emergency department.

Which action by the nurse takes the highest priority?
A. Monitor vital signs and oxygen saturation every 15 to 30 minutes
B. Suction the client as needed to obtain a sputum specimen for culture and
sensitivity
C. Assess intake and output and maintain adequate hydration
D. Reassure the client that intubation and mechanical ventilation will be temporary

3. Several clients come to the emergency department with suspected contamination by the
Ebola virus. Which nursing action is not necessary in this situation?
A. Isolate all the suspected clients in the emergency department in one area
B. Call housekeeping for diluted household bleach.
C. Restrict visitors from the emergency department.
D. Quarantine all contacts.

4. Which of the following Category A diseases does not require contact isolation?
A. Smallpox
B. Tularemia
C. Anthrax
D. Ebola
E. Plague

5. A patient has been exposed to a nerve agent in a biochemical terrorist attack. This type of
agent bonds with acetylcholinesterase, so that acetylcholine is not inactivated. What is the
pathologic effect of this type of agent?
A. Temporary deactivation of the nerve endings
B. Hyperstimulation of the nerve endings
C. Destruction of the nerve endings
D. Binding of the nerve endings
6. After the return of spontaneous circulation following the resuscitation of a patient who
had a cardiac arrest, therapeutic hypothermia is ordered. Which action will the nurse
include in the plan of care?
A. Rewarm if temperature is <91 F (32.8°C).
B. Check mental status every 15 minutes.
C. Apply external cooling devices.
D. Avoid the use of sedative medications

7. A patient is admitted to the ED who has been exposed to a nerve agent. The nurse should
anticipate the STAT administration of what drug?
A. Amyl nitrate
B. Atropine
C. Erythromycin
D. Dimercaprol

8. A patient is being treated in the ED following a terrorist attack. The patient is experiencing
visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and behavioral changes. The nurse suspects this
patient has been exposed to what chemical agent
A. Nerve agent
B. Blood agent
C. Vesicant
D. Pulmonary agent

9. The type of chemical agents that do not act within seconds (latency period)
A. Cyanide-based.
B. nerve agents.
C. sulfur mustards.
D. Vesicants.

10. A riverfront community builds a retaining wall to divert flood water away from the town.
Which term describes what has happened?
A. Rapid needs assessment
B. Mitigation
C. A natural disaster
D. Community resilience

11. In natural disasters, what percentage of trapped victims survive up to 6 hours?

A. 80%
B. 60%
C. Less than 50%
D. Greater than 80%
12. Acts of bioterrorism or natural disasters, such as earthquakes, will often have more
casualties because:
A. Those with chronic conditions cannot escape in time
B. Victims have little time to make evacuation preparations
C. They cause the most widespread destruction
D. The early warning systems are not effective

13. Which signs/symptoms should the nurse assess in the client who has been exposed to the
anthrax bacillus via the skin?
A. A scabby, clear fluid-filled vesicle
B. Tiny purple spots flush with the surface of the skin
C. Irregular brownish-pink spots around the hairline
D. Edema, pruritus, and a 2-mm ulcerated vesicle

14. A suspected outbreak of anthrax has been transmitted by skin exposure. A client is
admitted to the ED with lesions on the hands. The physician prescribes antibiotics and
send the client home. Which home instruction is the least important?
A. Expect the skin lesions to clear up within 1-2 weeks
B. Wash hands frequently
C. Avoid contact with other members of the family during the treatment period
D. Take the prescribed antibiotics for 60 days

15. Which of the following is considered an internal disaster?

A. A tornado that has touched down on the healthcare facility
B. An act of bioterrorism in a nearby factory
C. A massive train accident that brings victims to your facility
D. A severe cyclone that has destroyed nearby homes

16. A group of military nurses are reviewing the care of victims of biochemical terrorist
attacks. The nurses should identify what agents is having the shortest latency?
A. Blood agents
B. Pulmonary agents
C. Viral agents
D. Nerve agents

17. Community preparedness is being used to plan for a disaster. Which of the following tasks
is being implemented?
A. Taking a disaster training course
B. Understanding the workplace disaster plan
C. Assembling emergency supplies
D. Developing an evacuation plan to remove individuals from danger
 18. A common chemical agent that causes harm by separating the alveoli from the capillary
bed is:
A. Chlorine
B. Cyanide
C. Sarin
D. Phosgene

19. The nurse has been notified that the ED is expecting terrorist attack victims and that level
D personal protective equipment is appropriate. What does level d ppe include?
A. A chemical-resistant coverall with splash hood, chemical-resistant gloves, and
boots
B. The SCBA and a chemical-resistant suit, but the suit is not vapor tight
C. A self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and a fully encapsulating, vapor-tight,
chemical-resistant suit with chemical-resistant gloves and boots
D. The nurses typical work uniform

20. A patient has been witness to a disaster involving a large number of injuries. The patient
appears upset, but states that he feels capable of dealing with his emotions, what is the
nurses most appropriate intervention?
A. Refer the patient to social work or spiritual care
B. Encourage the patient to return to normal social roles when appropriate
C. Educate the patient about the potential harm in denying his emotions
D. Encourage the patient to take a leave of absence from his job to facilitate
emotional healing

21. A nurse is giving an educational class to members of the local disaster team. What should the
nurse instruct the members of the disaster team to do in a chemical bioterrorist attacks?

A. Cover their eyes

B. Stand up
C. Crawl to an exit
D. Put on a personal protective equipment mask

22. The ED staff has been notified of the imminent arrival of a patient who has been exposed to
chlorine. The nurse should anticipate the need to address what nursing diagnosis?

A. Excessive fluid volume

B. Impaired gas exchange
C. Chronic pain
D. Decreased cardiac output
23. When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a
temperature of 87 F (30.6), which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue active
rewarming?

A. The BP decreases to 86/42 mmHg

B. The core temperature is 94 F (34.4 C)
C. The patient develops atrial fibrillation
D. The patient begins to shiver

24. The Environmental Protection Agency has identified four categories of personal protection
equipment for health care workers in response to biological, chemical, or radiation exposure. The
highest level of respiratory protection that includes a self-contained breathing apparatus and a
chemical resistant suit is:

A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

25. Which category A agent classically causes a hemorrhagic mediastinitis with rapid progression
to respiratory failure?

A. Botulinum toxin
B. Anthrax
C. Smallpox
D. Tularemia
E. Plague

26. A military nurse is working in Iraq. Because of the potential threat of hazardous gas, which of
the following should be worn when working in a dangerous war zone?

A. A gas mask
B. Protective clothing
C. A hood, helmet, or headgear
D. A surgical mask

27. A patient has been admitted to the medical unit with signs and symptoms that are suggestive
of anthrax infection. The nurse should anticipate what intervention?

A. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)

B. Administration of acyclovir
C. Administration of penicillin
D. Hemodialysis
28. A nurse is participating in the preparedness stage of disaster management. Which of the
following describes what is happening?

A. Assembly of disaster kits for the home, workplace, and car

B. Incorporation of provision of pets into local disaster plans
C. Purchase of personal protective equipment for all citizens
D. Heightened inspection and increased security in the community

29. An example of the most toxic chemical agent in existence is:

A. Mustard nitrogen
B. Chlorine
C. Sarin
D. Cyanide

30. First line therapy for Lassa fever infection includes which of the following:

A. Gamma globulin
B. Third generation cephalosporins
C. Convalescent serum
D. Plasmapheresis
E. Ribavirin

31. The most severe form of anthrax exposure is through:

A. Ingestion
B. Open wounds or sores
C. Skin contact
D. Inhalation

32. Several clients who work in the same building are brought to the emergency point
department. They all have fever, headache, a rash over the entire body, and abdominal pain with
vomiting and diarrhea. Upon initial assessment, the nurse finds that each client has low blood
pressure and has developed petechiae in the area where the blood pressure cuff was inflated.
Which isolation precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Reverse isolation.
B. Respiratory isolation with positive pressure rooms.
C. Enteric precautions.
D. Contact isolation with double-gloving and shoe covers.
33. A nurse responds to a human-made disaster. Which of the following describes what the nurse
is responding to?
A. Structural collapse
B. Floods
C. Communicable disease epidemics
D. Mud slides

34. Which of the following Category A agents requires BSL-4 laboratory?

A. Anthrax and tularemia
B. Smallpox and anthrax
C. VHF and smallpox
D. Smallpox and plague
E. Botulism and plague

35. A 10-year-old client arrives in the emergency department with suspected inhalation anthrax.
Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
A. The nurse should move the client to a negative-pressure isolation room.
B. The nurse should prepare to admit the client to a medical-surgical
C. The nurse and other members of the health care team should put on N masks.
D. After obtaining blood cultures, the nurse should insert an IV catheter and begin
antibiotic and I.V. therapy as ordered.

36. A patient who has been exposed to anthrax is being treated in the local hospital. The nurse
should prioritize what health assessments?
A. Neurologic assessment
B. Assessment of respiratory status
C. integumentary assessment
D. Assessment for signs of hemorrhage

37. A patient with hypotension and an elevated temperature after working outside on a hot day is
treated in the emergency department (ED). The nurse determines that discharge teaching has
been effective when the patient makes which statement?
A. I will take salt tablets when I work outdoors in the summer.
B. I will move to a cool environment if I notice that I am feeling confused
C. I should drink sports drinks when working outside in hot weather.
D. I should take acetaminophen (Tylenol) if I start to feel too warm.
38. A severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) epidemic is suspectec in a community of 10,000
people. As clients with SARS are admitted to the hospital, what type of precautions should the
nurse institute?
A. Standard precautions.
B. Enteric precautions.
C. Reverse isolation.
D. Hand-washing precautions.

39. An example of a chemical agent that acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

A. Blood agent
B. Corrosive acid
C. Vesicant
D. Nerve agent

40. The vector of Zika virus is:

A. Aedes egypti
B. Aedes albopictus
C. Two of the above
D. Different species of mosquitoes

41 A nurse takes a shift with a report and finds he is taking care of a patient who has been
exposed to anthrax by inhalation. What precautions does the nurse know must be put in place
when providing care for this patient?
A. Contact precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Standard precaution

42. Zika virus is spread by

A. Fly
B. Rat
C. Mosquito
D. Pig

43. Nurses were identified by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention as the most likely to
take care of clients infected after an exposure to toxins and is an example of
A. An environmental health consequence
B. Poor planning
C. Collateral damage
D. Risk mitigation
44. A nurse responds to a natural disaster. Which of the following is the nurse most likely
responding to?
A. Pollution
B. Fire
C. Transportation accident
D. Communicable disease epidemic

45. Disasters are assigned level designations based on the anticipated level of response needed. A
disaster that requires statewide and federal assistance would be classified as
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

46. Which statements about disasters is true?

A. timing of a disaster does not influence the types of injuries that will occur
B. They can be relieved without assistance
C. There is always injury and death when a disaster occurs
D. They can be natural or manmade

47. Cole is an emergency nurse who encountered a patient who is a suspected center of a biologic
agent. Which of these if found in the patient is not classified as Category A biologic agent?
A. Yersinia petis (plague)
B. Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
C. Burkholderia pseudomallei (Meliodosis)
D. Francisella Tularensis (tularemia)
E. Clostridium Botulinum Toxin (Botulism)

48. Severe clients who work in the same building are brought to the emergency department. They
all have fever, headache, a rash over the entire body, and abdominal pain with vomiting and
diarrhea. Upon initial assessment, the nurse finds that each client has low blood pressure cuff was
inflated. Which isolation precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Reverse Isolation
B. Respiratory isolation with positive pressure rooms
C. Enteric precautions
D. Contact isolation with double gloving and shoe covers
49. Nurses were identified by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) as the people
most likely to care for clients infected after the intentional release of the smallpox virus. Based on
CDC guidelines, which group should volunteer to receive the smallpox vaccine?
A. Nurses aged 50 and older who work in the emergency departments of community
hospitals.
B. Nurses born after 1971 who are employed as triage nurses in large medical center
emergency departments.
C. Nurses who served in the military and are now working in public health settings.
D. Nurses vaccinated against smallpox as children who are now working in a pediatric unit

50. Which of the following Category A diseases is still endemic in the southwestern United States?
A. Tularemia
B. Smallpox
C. Lassa fever
D. Anthrax
E. Plague

51. Exposure to toxins and mold is an example of:

A. risk mitigation.
B. collateral damage.
C. poor planning.
D. an environmental health consequence.

52. An emergency room nurse is working when there is a bioterrorism attack in the city. Which of
the following statements is correct with regard to injuries or symptoms associated with a
bioterrorism attack?
A. The main purpose of biological weapon use is contained devastation
B. It is not uncommon for the results of a biological attack to be made known several hours
or days after the attack.
C. Detection is easy as clients go to a number of different health care facilities.
D. Biological attacks are usually known right away.

53. Level C personal protective equipment has been deemed necessary in the
response to an unknown substance. The nurse is aware that the equipment
will include what?
A. An air-purified respirator
B. A self-contained breathing apparatus
C. A vapor-tight, chemical-resistant suit
D. A uniform only
54. A group of medical nurses are being certified in their response to potential bioterrorism. The
nurses learn that if a patient is exposed to the smallpox virus he or she becomes contagious at
what time?
A. After a rash appears
B. When pustules form
C. When the patient becomes febrile
D. 6 to 12 hours after exposure

55. Emergency department (ED) staff members have been trained to follow steps that will
decrease the risk of secondary exposure to a chemical. When conducting decontamination, staff
members should remove the patients clothing and then perform what action?
A. Wash the patient chlorhexidine.
B. Rinse the patient with water.
C. Rinse the patient with hydrogen peroxide.
D. Wash the patient with a dilute bleach solution.

56. Which of the following is the most likely natural reservoir for Ebola virus?
A. Fruit bat
B. Mosquito
C. Green monkey
D. Tick
E. Small rodent

57. What is an example of a natural threat?

A. Aircraft incident.
B. Animal disease outbreak.
C. Workplace violence.
D. Hazardous material release.

58. Zika virus is related to which of the following diseases?

A. Dengue
B. Yellow fever
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. All of the above

59. The client has expired secondary to smallpox. Which information about funeral arrangements
is most important for the nurse to provide to the client's family?
A. Suggest an open casket funeral.
B. The client should be cremated.
C. Notify the public health department.
D. Bury the client within 24 hours.
60. When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the
emergency department (ED) nurse manager will plan to obtain adequate quantities of:
A. atropine
B. antibiotics
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. All of the above

61. When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the
emergency department (ED) nurse manager will plan to obtain adequate quantities of:
A. atropine.
B. antibiotics.
C. vaccine.
D. whole blood.

62. A nurse experiences a stress reaction while working with the survivors of a disaster. Which of
the following best describes what has happened?

A. The nurse cries after returning home at the end of the day.
B. The nurse refuses to follow orders.
C. The nurse tells the supervisor of the disaster the details of the care that was provided.
D. The nurse makes decisions to assist with care coordination of the survivors.

63. When assessing patients who are victims of a chemical agent attack, the nurse is aware that
assessment findings vary based on the type of chemical agent. The chemical sulfur mustard is an
example of what type of chemical warfare agent?

A. Nerve agent
B. Vesicant
C. Blood agent
D. Pulmonary agent
 II. DISASTER NURSING

1. The point of the earth’s surface directly above the point where an earthquake occurs is called
the:
A. Fracture
B. Focus
C. Fault
D. Epicenter

2. The twin tower of world trade centre in USA was destroyed by terror attack in the year:
A. 2000
B. 2001
C. 2008
D. None of the above

3. In northern hemisphere, the wind of the tropical cyclone blows in:

A. Anticlockwise direction
B. Clockwise direction
C. Straight
D. None of the above

4. Which of the following is seasonally related hazard?

A. Earthquake
B. Volcanic eruption
C. Terrorist attack
D. None of the above

5. Disaster Management includes:

A. Mitigation
B. Reconstruction
C. Rehabilitation
D. All of the above

6. The level of risk of a disaster depends on:

A. Nature of the hazard
B. Vulnerability of the elements which are affected
C. Economic value of the elements which are affected
D. All of the above

7. Which of the following is a man-made disaster?

A. Terrorism
B. Major fire
C. Pollution
D. All of the above
8. What is Ring of Fire?
A. Belt of volcanoes in the Circum-Pacific region
B. Belt of volcanoes in the mid-continental region
C. Belt of volcanoes in the mid-atlantic region
D. None of the above

9. The community health nurse is preparing to teach personnel and family preparedness for
disasters to a group of parents of school-age children. Which of the items should the nurse plan to
include the least in disaster preparedness?
A. Battery-operated radio
B. Flashlight
C. Extra pair of eyeglasses
D. 4-week supply of water and nonperishable food
E. Supply of batteries

10. A nurse is working with an older person following a disaster. Which of the following
emotions of the client should be anticipated by the nurse?
A. Violence
B. Regression
C. Fear of loss of independence
D. Anger

11. Tsunami’s can occur only during:

A. Morning
B. Afternoon
C. Any time of the day or night
D. Evening

12. Which one of the following is a geological disaster?

A. Tsunami
B. Wild fire
C. Flood
D. Storm surge

13. The common factors of wildfire hazards are:

A. Lightening
B. Volcanic eruption
C. El Niño
D. All of the above

14. In the work setting, what is the primary responsibility of the nurse in preparation for disaster
management, that includes natural disasters and bioterrorism incidents?
A. Making ethical decisions regarding exposing self to potentially lethal substances
B. Being aware of what and how to report to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C. Being aware of the signs and symptoms of potential agents of bioterrorism
D. Being aware of the agency's emergency response plan
15. High vulnerability and high hazard are associated with:
A. Low disaster risk
B. Medium disaster risk
C. High disaster risk
D. None of the above

16. The emergency response team is dealing with a radiation leak at the hospital. What action
should be performed to prevent the spread of the contaminants?
A. Floors must be scrubbed with undiluted bleach.
B. The ventilation system should be deactivated.
C. Waste must be promptly incinerated.
D. Air ducts and vents should be sealed.

17. Cyclones occurring in North Atlantic Ocean are called:

A. Typhoon
B. Hurricanes
C. Tornado
D. None of the above

18. Volcanic erupted material when inside the hill/earth/mountain is called?

A. Lava
B. Magma
C. Lahars
D. None of these

19. What is lahar?

A. Magma
B. Lava
C. Volcanic mud flow
D. None of the above

20. The cycle of disaster consists of the following components:

A. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
B. Preparedness, Vulnerability Assessment, Risk Assessment, Recovery
C. Mitigation, Risk Assessment, Response and Recovery
D. None of the above

21. Arrange the activities of disaster management cycle:

Choose the correct cycle:
A. Emergency response activities
B. Response and recovery activities
C. Mitigation and preparedness
A. C, B, A
B. A, C, B
C. A, B, C
D. B, C, A
22. The most calm part of the tropical cyclone is:
A. Limb
B. Eye
C. Periphery
D. None of the above

23. Wild fire in north America is known as:

A. Bush fires
B. Brush fires
C. Forest fire
D. None of the above

24. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to:

A. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community
B. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease
C. Encourage cooperation and support of the community
D. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic

25. What is drought?

A. No rainfall for a long continuous period
B. Heavy rainfall for a long continuous period
C. Moderate rainfall for a long continuous period
D. None of the above

26. The word disaster comes from:

A. French word
B. German
C. Latin word
D. Greek word

27. The extent to which a community, structure, services or geographic area is likely to be
damaged or disrupted by the impact of particular hazard is termed as:
A. Hazard assessment
B. Capacity
C. Vulnerability
D. Risk

28. Who among the following is the most affected during the famine?
A. Bank workers
B. Traders
C. Doctors
D. Worker
29. Which of the following groups of people is more vulnerable in the event of disaster?
A. Men, boys, old people
B. Men, women, boys
C. Women, children, old people
D. None of the above

30. Which of the following is not a component of disaster management cycle?

A. Preparedness
B. Response
C. Recovery
D. Construction

31. The word Tsunami has been derived from:

A. Greek word
B. French word
C. Latin word
D. Japanese word

32. Which is known as seismic wave?

A. Typhoon
B. El Niño
C. Tsunami
D. Hurricane

33. United Nations disaster management team are responsible for solving problems resulting from
disaster in:
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. All continents

34. A nurse is caring for a client whose wife died in a recent mass casualty accident. The client
says, "I cant believe that my wife is gone and I am left to raise my children all by myself." How
should the nurse respond?
A. can call the hospital chaplain if you wish.
B. You sound anxious about being a single parent.
C. At least your children still have you in their lives.
D. Please accept my sympathies for your loss.

35. The Richter scale expresses an earthquake’s:

A. Location
B. Magnitude
C. Depth
D. Duration
36. Vulnerability analysis comes in which part of the Disaster Management Cycle?
A. Mitigation
B. Recovery
C. Preparedness
D. Response

37. The level of harm by a hazard is governed by:

A. Magnitude of the hazard
B. Frequency of the hazard
C. Intensity at the impact point
D. All of the above

38. Which of the following is not a man-made hazard?

A. Wars and Civil Strike
B. Drought
C. Leakage of Toxic waste
D. Environmental pollution

39. The two atom bombs dropped in Hiroshima and Nagashaki in Japan by USA during:
A. World War I
B. World War II
C. Gulf War I
D. Gulf War II

40. What is it called when a large number of people in a community get a disease at the same
time?
A. Black death
B. Influx
C. Epidemic
D. Pandemic

41. What do you mean by ‘doldrums’?

A. Environmental condition found during El Niño
B. Environmental condition found on equatorial calm over the sea
C. Both and are correct
D. None of the above

42. Floods can be prevented by:

A. Tilling the land
B. Cutting the forest
C. Removing the top soil
D. Afforestation
43. The following statements about Sendai Framework are correct except:
A. This framework was passed by United Nations Organisation's conference at Sendai
(Japan) on 18th March 2015.
B. The provisions in this framework are binding on member countries.
C. This is an onward step of the Hyogo Framework about disaster management.
D. This framework is regarding measures for Disaster Risk Reduction.

44. Intensity of an earthquake is measured by:

A. Modified Mercalli Scale
B. Richter Scale
C. Seismograph
D. None of the above

45. Ultimate consequences of war are:

A. Decline in human population
B. Outbreak of diseases and epidemics
C. Rise in refugee
D. All of the above

47. An emergency department (ED) charge nurse prepares to receive clients from a mass casualty
within the community. What is the role of this nurse during the event?
A. Ask ED staff to discharge clients from the medical-surgical units in order to make room
for critically injured victims.
B. Inform the incident commander at the mass casualty scene about how many victims
may be handled by the ED.
C. Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED
while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.
D. Call additional medical-surgical and critical care nursing staff to come to the hospital to
assist when victims are brought in.

48. During volcanic eruption , the extreme risk zone is within a distance:
A. Up to 100 meters
B. 100 to 300 meters
C. 300 meters to 3 kilometers
D. None of the above

49. Generally, the number on Richter Scale ranges between:

A. 0 and 6
B. 0 and 9
C. 1 to 5
D. 1 to 12

50. Volcanoes are generally found where:

A. Intraplates pull apart or are coming together
B. Tectonic plates pull apart or are coming together
C. Earth's crust pull apart or are coming together
 D. None of these pull apart or are coming together”

51. All of the following statements are a hazard vulnerability assessment EXCEPT:
A. It identifies the financial impact of a disaster.
B. It helps focus work on hazards that would create maximum consequences.
C. It identifies potential hazards that are most likely to occur.
D. It is a tool that managers employ to screen for risk.

52. A disease that becomes unusually widespread and even global in its reach is referred to as:
A. Epidemic
B. Hyperendemic
C. Pandemic
D. Spanish flu

53. Community preparedness is being used to plan for a disaster. Which of the following tasks is
being implemented?
A. Understanding the workplace disaster plan
B. Developing an evacuation plan to remove individuals from danger
C. Assembling emergency supplies
D. Taking a disaster training course

54. Which of the following is not an atmospheric hazard?

A. Heavy rainfall
B. Hail
C. Epidemic in human
D. Hurricanes

55. Landslides occur because of?

A. Intensity of rainfall
B. Steep slopes
C. Deforestation leading to soil erosion
D. All of the above

56. The instrument which records earthquake wave is called:

A. Climograph
B. Seismograph
C. Hythergraph
D. None of the above

57. A riverfront community builds a retaining wall to divert flood water away from the town.
Which term describes what is occurring?
A. Community resilience
B. Mitigation
C. A natural disaster
D. Rapid needs assessment
58. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic?
A. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of the epidemic
B. Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable disease
C. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease
D. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease

59. In disaster management, mitigation measures involves:

A. Governmental action and administration
B. Community action and administration
C. Military action and administration
D. None of the above

60. The terrorist attack in Mumbai took place in:

A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008

61. Which is an individual health consequence during an extreme high temperature condition?
A. Hyperactivity.
B. Adequate hydration.
C. Uncontrollable chills.
D. Heat exhaustion.
 III. EMT PATIENT ASSESSMENT

1. In what phase of patient assessment do you determine the MOI/NOI?

A. Scene size-up
B. Primary assessment
C. History taking
D. Secondary assessment

2. Which of the following would you NOT detect while determining your initial general
impression of a patient?
A. Rapid heart rate
B. Cyanosis
C. Severe bleeding
D. Gurgling respirations

3. Your 12-year-old patient can speak only two or three words without pausing to take a breath.
He has a serious breathing problem known as:
A. two- to three-word dyspnea.
B. labored breathing.
C. nasal flaring.
D. shallow respirations.

4. Assessment of an unconscious patient's breathing begins by:

A. clearing the mouth with suction as needed.
B. assessing respiratory rate and depth.
C. manually positioning the head.
D. inserting an oral airway.

5. When treating a 6-year-old, you note a brassy crowing sound, especially when she breathes
in. What is this?
A. Crackle
B. Snoring
C. Stridor
D. Wheezing
6. During the scene size-up, you should routinely determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. the ratio of pediatric patients to adult patients.
B. the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.
C. if there are any hazards that will jeopardize safety.
D. whether or not additional resources are needed.

7. The ABCDE approach is based upon which of the following principles?

A. The ABCDE approach is a method for carrying out a detailed physical assessment
B. The ABCDE approach assumes that all patients have an airway problem
C. The ABCDE approach is a system of sorting ED patients into order of priority
D. The ABCDE approach is a systematic method for identifying patient problems in order
of priority

8. Which of the following devices would you use to measure a patient's ventilation, circulation,
and metabolism?
A. Pulse oximetry
B. Capnography
C. Blood glucometry
D. Sphygmomanometer

9. Which of the following statements regarding deteriorating patients is not true?

A. The ABCDE approach is well-suited to the initial assessment and management of
deteriorating patients
B. Early warning scoring systems should be used to help identify deteriorating patients
C. Deteriorating patients rarely show any signs prior to deteriorating
D. Patients most at risk of deteriorating include those with co-morbidities, the old and the
very young

10. When assessing your patient's pain, he says it started in his chest but has spread to his legs.
This is an example of what part of the OPQRST mnemonic?
A. Severity
B. Quality
C. Region/radiation
D. Onset

11. How should you determine the pulse in an unresponsive 8-year-old patient?
A. Palpate the radial pulse with your thumb.
 B. Palpate the carotid pulse in the neck.
C. Palpate the radial pulse at the wrist.
D. Palpate the brachial pulse inside the upper arm.

12. What is the primary purpose of standard precautions?

A. Infection prevention
B. Ensuring scene safety
C. Determining communication standards
D. Streamlining incident command

13. Your primary assessment of an elderly woman who fell reveals an altered level of
consciousness and a large hematoma to her forehead. After protecting her spine and
administering oxygen, you should:
A. perform a focused assessment of her head.
B. transport the patient immediately.
C. perform a rapid exam.
D. reassess your interventions.

14. A semiconscious patient pushes your hand away when you pinch his earlobe. You should
describe his level of consciousness as:
A. alert.
B. responsive to painful stimuli.
C. unresponsive.
D. responsive to verbal stimuli.

15. You arrive at the scene of an “injured person.” As you exit the ambulance, you see a man
lying on the front porch of his house. He appears to have been shot in the head and is lying in a
pool of blood. You should:
A. immediately assess the patient.
B. retreat to a safe place and wait for law enforcement to arrive.
C. proceed to the patient with caution.
D. quickly assess the scene for a gun.

16. Findings such as inadequate breathing or an altered level of consciousness should be

identified in the:
A. focused assessment.
B. secondary assessment.
 C. reassessment.
D. primary assessment.

Scenario: You are dispatched to a motel for an unknown medical emergency. The room is small
with two beds and two occupants. The patient is an approximately 33-year-old woman lying
supine on the bed. She opens her when you speak to her but is lethargic and complaining of
fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea. The man in the room tells you she has been sick for several
days and has not eaten in the past 2 days. Your assessment reveals pain and tenderness in the
right lower abdominal quadrant. Her vital signs are a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg; a pulse
rate of 140 beats/min, strong and bounding; and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and
shallow. Her skin is flushed and hot to the touch. The patient reports no significant medical
history and does not take any medications.
(For the next ten items.)

17. What is the first concern when entering this room?

A. ABCs
B. Scene safety
C. Vital signs
D. Physical assessment

18. What is this patient responsive to?

A. Painful stimuli
B. Unresponsive
C. Noxious stimuli
D. Verbal stimuli

19. What is this patient's chief complaint?

A. Lower right quadrant pain
B. Fever and chills
C. Dyspnea
D. Palpitations

20. Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
A. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the
patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.
B. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of
the severity of the patient's condition.
 C. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as
determined by the chief complaint.
D. A secondary assessment should be performed, even if you must continually manage life
threats that were identified in the primary assessment.

21. Which statement describes the infant mortality rate?

A. The rate is used to determine the overall improvement in health.
B. The rate in the United States is the lowest in the world.
C. The rate is similar between majority and minority populations.
D. The rate is gradually increasing in the United States.

22. After providing care, a nurse charts in the patient's record. Which entry should the nurse
document?
A. Appears restless when sitting in the chair
B. Apparently is asleep with eyes closed
C. Drank adequate amounts of water
D. Skin pale and cool

23. Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the
patient is:
A. In a recumbent position.
B. Sitting up at a 45° angle.
C. In a full Fowler's position.
D. In a supine position.

24. External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of:
A. Elevation and chemical ice packs.
B. Direct pressure and elevation.
C. Elevation and pressure point control.
D. Direct pressure and a tourniquet.

25. Which of the following are considered key vital statistics

A. incidence and prevalence rate
B. maternal mortality rate and fetal death rate
C. relative risk
D. attack rate and morbidity rate
26. Which is an example of a vital statistic?
A. Incidence rate of cancer
B. Prevalence rate of heart disease
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Morbidity rate from heart attack

27. A man survived a workplace accident that claimed the lives of many of his colleagues
several months ago. The man has recently sought care for the treatment of depression. How
should the nurse best understand the mans current mental health problem?
A. The man fails to appreciate the fact that he survived the disaster.
B. The man most likely feels guilty about his actions during the disaster.
C. The mans depression most likely predated the disaster.
D. The man is experiencing a common response following a disaster.

28. It is the systematic process of using administrative directives, organizations, and operational
skills and capacities to implement strategies, policies and improved coping capacities in order to
lessen the adverse impacts of hazards and the possibility of disaster.
A. Disaster Risk Reduction
B. Disaster Risk Reduction and Management
C. Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Information System
D. Disaster Risk

29. During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:

A. Immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
B. After it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
C. Upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact.
D. Any time before you load the patient into the ambulance.

30. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as
unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on:
A. Obtaining baseline vital signs.
B. Airway, breathing, and circulation.
C. Gathering medical history data.
D. Providing immediate transport.
31. A patient has an order for an analgesic medication to be given PRN. When would the nurse
administer this medication?
A. Daily
B. Every four hours
C. As needed
D. Every three hours

32. It is the ability of a system, community or society exposed to hazards to resist, absorb,
accommodate and recover from the effects of a hazard in a timely and efficient manner,
including through the preservation and restoration of its essential basic structures and
functions.
A. Risk
B. Resilience
C. Response
D. Rehabilitation

33. In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain
areas, such as the:
A. Lips.
B. Dorsum of the hand.
C. Forehead and face.
D. Back of the neck.

34. In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified?

A. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.
B. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.
C. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse.
D. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts every time she takes a deep breath.

35. A group of disaster survivors is working with the critical incident stress management (CISM)
team. Members of this team should be guided by what goal?
A. Providing individuals with education about recognizing stress reactions
B. Determining if individuals responded appropriately during the incident
C. Educating survivors on potential coping strategies for future disasters
D. Determining whether the incident was managed effectively
36. After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in
order to:
A. Identify less obvious injuries that require immediate transport.
B. Find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.
C. Determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
D. Look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.

37. What is a symptom?

A. A brief history of a patients condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies,
medications, pertinent past history last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or
illness.
B. The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient’s response to questions such as
“What’s wrong?” or “What happened?”
C. Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured.
D. Subjective findings that the patient feels but that can be identified only by the patient.

38. Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:

A. Pale, cool, and moist.
B. Flushed, cool, and dry.
C. Pink, warm, and moist.
D. Pink, warm, and dry.

39. The morbidity rate relates to the:

A. incidence of illness in a population.
B. cause of death in a population.
C. life expectancy of an individual.
D. number of people who die from a disease.

40. Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be:
A. Provoking.
B. Referred.
C. Radiating.
D. Palliating.

41. What does the "P" in SAMPLE stand for?

A. Present medical history
B. Palliation or provocation
 C. Pertinent negative findings
D. Past medical history

42. It is a group of people responding to emergencies with specific tasks following a chain-of-
command. This allows responders to adopt an integrated organizational structure.
A. Information Officer
B. Incident Command Center
C. Incident Commander
D. Safety Officer

43. An unstable patient should be reassessed at least every:

A. 5 minutes.
B. 10 minutes.
C. 15 minutes.
D. 20 minutes.

44. The goal of the primary assessment is to:

A. Determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma.
B. Determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment.
C. Identify patients that require transport to a trauma center.
D. Identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

45. The hospital administration arranges for critical incident stress debriefing for the staff after
a mass casualty incident. Which statement by the debriefing team leader is most appropriate
for this situation?
A. This session is only for nursing and medical staff, not for ancillary personnel.
B. Lets evaluate what went wrong and develop policies for future incidents.
C. You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here.
D. Lets pass around the written policy compliance form for everyone.

46. What is a pertinent negative?

A. A negative finding that requires further care and/or intervention
B. A negative finding that requires advanced life support
C. A negative finding that requires no further care or intervention
D. A negative finding that implies another condition may be present

47. In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the:
 A. Underside of the arms.
B. Palms and soles.
C. Chest and abdomen.
D. Forehead.

48. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:
A. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.
B. Falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading.
C. Falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.
D. Falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

49. An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for
eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the
following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension
B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion
C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
D. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain

50. A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions
regarding:
A. Date and event.
B. Event and person.
C. Time and place.
D. Person and place.

51. A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event.
When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should:
A. Ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient.
B. Determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.
C. Defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.
D. Wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions.

52. In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that
year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born. They were 4 recorded stillbirths.
What is the neonatal mortality rate?
 A. 27.8/1000
B. 43.5/1000
C. 86.9/1000
D. 130.4/1000

53. Which Republic Act is known for Penalizing the Unauthorized Taking, Stealing, Keeping or
Tampering Of Government Risk Reduction and Preparedness Equipment, Accessories and
Similar Facilities?
A. Republic Act No. 8749
B. Republic Act No. 10821
C. Republic Act No. 10344
D. Republic Act No. 10121

54. It is formerly known as the National Disaster Coordinating Council (NDCC), is the highest
organized and authorized body for Disaster Risk Reduction and Management (DRRM) in the
Philippines.
A. National Disaster Risk Reduction & Management Control (NDRRMC)
B. National Disaster Risk Reduction & Management Command (NDRRMC)
C. National Disaster Risk Reduction & Management Council (NDRRMC)
D. National Disaster Risk Reduction & Management Center (NDRRMC)

55. A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:

A. Without assistance.
B. At a normal rate.
C. With shallow depth.
D. Without difficulty.

56. An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will:

A. Assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.
B. Be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.
C. Have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.
D. Exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs.

57. The announcement is made that the facility may return to normal functioning after a local
disaster. In the emergency operations plan, what is this referred to as?
A. Crisis diffusion
B. Demobilization response
 C. Reversion
D. Post-incident response

58. As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:
A. Assess the rest of the body for bleeding.
B. Look in the ears for gross bleeding.
C. Maintain stabilization of the head.
D. Prepare the immobilization equipment.

59. During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least
________ times.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

60. When immobilizing a trauma patient’s spine, the EMT-B manually stabilizing the head
should not let go until:
A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied.
B. The patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.
C. The head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization.
D. The patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

61. Which PAG-ASA Rainfall Warning System constitutes an emergency and is raised when
observed rainfall is more than 30 mm within one hour or if rainfall has continued for the past
three hours and is more than 65 mm?
A. Black Rainfall Advisory
B. Yellow Rainfall Advisory
C. Red Rainfall Advisory
D. Orange Rainfall Advisory

62. If an error is made while recording, the nurse should:

A. obtain a new nurse's note and rewrite the entries
B. draw a single line through the error and initial it
C. leave a blank space in the note.
D. erase it or scratch it out
63. What is a primary assessment?
A. A systematic physical examination
B. Physical examination performed at regular intervals
C. A process that identifies life threats
D. A process that identifies the nature of illness

64. A hospital responds to a local mass casualty event. Which action should the nurse
supervisor take to prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event?
A. Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event.
B. Encourage counseling upon deactivation of the emergency response plan.
C. Schedule 16-hour shifts to allow for greater rest between shifts.
D. Assign staff to different roles and units within the medical facility.

65. A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being:

A. Flushed.
B. Diaphoretic.
C. Edematous.
D. Plethoric.

66. Which of the following terms would be used to describe a pulse rate of 140 beats/min?
A. Bradycardia
B. Dyspnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Tachypnea

67. It has been reported that 20% of the population may develop heart disease during their
lifetime. This is an example of a(n):
A. prevalence rate.
B. Morbidity rate.
C. Mortality rate.
D. Incidence rate.

68. The NDRRMC is composed of 1 chairperson and 4 vice chairpersons. Which of the following
is not part of the NDRRMC heads?
A. Secretary of Department of Science and Technology (DOST)
B. Secretary of National Economic and Development Authority (NEDA)
C. Secretary of Department of National Defense (DND)
 D. Secretary of Department of the Interior and Local Government (DILG)
E. Secretary of Department of Social Welfare and Development (DSWD)

69. A nurse is undergoing debriefing with the critical incident stress management (CISM) team
after participating in the response to a disaster. During this process, the nurse will do which of
the following?
A. Provide suggestions for improving the emergency operations plan.
B. Discuss own emotional responses to the disaster.
C. Explore the ethics of the care provided during the disaster.
D. Evaluate the care that he or she provided during the disaster.

70. A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:

A. One third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.
B. One half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.
C. Two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.
D. The entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.

71. At what point in the patient assessment process do you investigate the chief complaint?
A. Primary assessment
B. History taking
C. Secondary assessment
D. Reassessment

72. A nurse is caring for a client whose wife died in a recent mass casualty accident. The client
says, "I cant believe that my wife is gone and I am left to raise my children all by myself." How
should the nurse respond?
A. At least your children still have you in their lives.
B. You sound anxious about being a single parent.
C. Please accept my sympathies for your loss.
D. I can call the hospital chaplain if you wish.

73. A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:

A. Weak.
B. Regular.
C. Irregular.
D. Strong.
74. A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate:
A. Increased blood volume.
B. Arterial constriction.
C. Forceful cardiac contraction.
D. A loss of vascular tone.

75. It is a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society involving widespread

human, material, economic or environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of
the affected community or society to cope using its own resources.
A. Disaster
B. Disaster Mitigation
C. Disaster Preparedness
D. Disaster Prevention

76. Highly Vulnerable Population refers to members of the community with a higher probability
of being exposed to disaster who also face barriers to anticipate, cope with, resist or recover
from the event. Who is not a member of the vulnerable group?
A. A 5-year-old female patient holding her teddy bear
B. A 72-year-old widow with 2 dogs at home
C. A 32-year-old male patient with schizophrenia
D. A 27-year-old male patient who took his last PTB regimen this morning

77. During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that
his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude
that his:
A. Systolic blood pressure is normal.
B. Peripheral circulation is decreased.
C. Skin temperature is abnormally cold.
D. Respiratory status is adequate.

78. How is a disaster the same as or different from an emergency?

A. An emergency is personal, whereas a disaster is community-wide.
B. A disaster is personal, whereas an emergency is community-wide.
C. Both emergencies and disasters are devastating.
D. Both emergencies and disasters are failures resulting in extensive insurance claims.
79. Capnography is used to:
A. Assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.
B. Trend a patient’s blood pressure and assess for shock.
C. Assess how much oxygen is reaching the body’s tissues.
D. Determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

80. What is the purpose of the primary assessment?

A. To evaluate the conditions in which you are operating
B. To identify and begin to treat immediate life threats
C. To perform a systematic physical examination
D. To identify and treat changes in a patient's condition
 IV. TRIAGE AND MASS CASUALTY INDICENTS

1. Which is characteristic of a mass casually incident (MCI)?

A. Decreased demand on neighboring healthcare facilities.
B. Healthcare system is disrupted.
C. Demand for resources is equal to supply.
D. Precise inter-agency communication.

2. The nurse is the first responder after a tornado has destroyed many homes in the community.
Which victim should the nurse attend to first?
A. A child who is complaining, "My leg is bleeding so bad, I am afraid it is going to fall
off"
B. A pregnant woman who exclaims, "My
C. baby is not moving."
D. An older victim who is sitting next to her
E. husband sobbing, "My husband is dead. My husband is dead."
F. A young child standing next to an adult family member who is screaming, "I want my
mommy!"

3. Which of the following statements about triage is true?

A. Triage only ever needs to be undertaken once in a patient's ED journey
B. Triage is a detailed assessment which should lead to a clinical diagnosis
C. Triage should be undertaken as soon after arrival in the ED as possible
D. Triage is a low-risk activity and can be safely undertaken by junior staff with little
training

4. The system of "triage' is based upon which of the following principles?

A. Treating the quickest and easiest first
B. Treating first come first served
C. Treating those that complaint the most first
D. Treating patients in order of priority

5. Which statement below is INCORRECT about the yellow triage tag color in regards to a
disaster situation?
A. A survivor with this tag color is seen after patients with the green tag color.
B. A survivor with this tag color can have treatment delayed for an hour or less.
C. A survivor with this tag color has serious injuries that could eventually lead to the
compromise of breathing, circulation, or mental status, especially if treatment is
delayed more than an hour or so.
D. A survivor with this tag color has second
 E. priority for treatment of injuries.

6. The wounded victim is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent and when airway is
repositioned breathing is still absent. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color?
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green

7. The nurse in the hospital emergency department is notified by emergency medical services
that several victims who survived a plane crash will be transported to the hospital. Victims are
suffering from cold exposure because the plane. plummeted and was submerged in a local river.
What is the initial action of the nurse?
A. Call the intensive care unit to request that nurses be sent to the emergency
department.
B. Call the laundry department, and ask the department to send as many warm blankets as
possible to the emergency department.
C. Supply the triage rooms with bottles of sterile water and normal saline.
D. Call the nursing supervisor to activate the agency disaster plan.

8. The wounded victim is unable to walk, has respiratory rate of 19, capillary refill of one
second, and is able to obey your commands. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color?
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green

9. The nurse in charge of a nursing unit is asked to select the hospitalized clients who can be
discharged so that hospital beds can be made available for victims of a community disaster.
Which of the clients cannot be safely discharged?
A. A client experiencing sinus rhythm
B. A client receiving oral antibiotics
C. A client experiencing third-degree heart block who requires a pacemaker
D. A client with a Holter monitor

10. A 6 y/o was found in a back bedroom. He is semiconscious. RR are 10/min. Pulses are
present. According to JumpStart, you would tag:
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Green
 D. Black

11. The next patient is a 50 y/o welder with partial amputation of RLE at the ankle. No radial
pulses are noted. RR 28/min.
A. Tag Red
B. Tag Black
C. Tag Green
D. Tag Yellow
12. The nurse is the first responder at the scene of a 6-car crash on a highway. Which victim
should the nurse attend to first?
A. A victim experiencing confusion
B. A victim experiencing dyspnea
C. A victim experiencing tachycardia
D. A victim experiencing intense pain

13. A client arrives in the emergency unit and reports that a concentrated household cleaner
was splashed in both eyes. Which of the following nursing actions is a priority?
A. Patch the eve
B. Flush the eye repeatedly using sterile normal saline
C. Examine the client's visual acuity
D. Use Restasis (Allergan) drops in the eye

14. You first patient is 2-year-old who was thrown from the building. He is unresponsive with a
hematoma to the forehead. RR 34, Radial pulse 120. You would tag:
A. Green
B. Black
C. Yellow
D. Red

15. You third patient is 2-year-old who was trapped under building debris. He is unresponsive,
no pulse and not breathing, You would:
A. Perform CPR at 15:2 rate
B. Tag Black ,
C. Provide 5 rescue breaths
D. Provide 10 rescue breaths

16. The wounded victim is able to walk and obey commands. The wounded victim is assigned
what tag color?
A. Black
B. Green
 C. Yellow
D. Red

17. The nurse from a medical unit is called to assist with care for clients coming into the hospital
emergency department during an external disaster. Using principles of triage during a disaster,
the nurse should attend to the client with which problem first?
A. Fractured tibia
B. Penetrating abdominal injury
C. Bright red bleeding from a neck wound
D. Open massive head injury in deep coma
18. The nurse in charge of a nursing unit is asked to select the hospitalized clients who can be
discharged so that hospital beds can be made available for victims of a community disaster.
Which of the clients cannot be safely discharged?
A. The client who 24 hours earlier gave birth to her second child by caesarean delivery
B. The 2-day postoperative client who has undergone total knee replacement and is
ambulating with a walker
C. The 48-hour postoperative client who has undergone an ileostomy because of ulcerative
colitis
D. The client with peritonitis caused by a ruptured appendix who is febrile with a
temperature of 102°F (38.9°C)
E. The 3-day postoperative client who has undergone coronary artery bypass grafting and
is ready for rehabilitation

19. A nurse is field-triaging clients after an industrial accident. Which client condition should the
nurse triage with a red tag?
A. Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg
B. Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose
C. Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness
D. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath

20. A nurse cares for clients during a community-wide disaster drill. Once of the clients asks,
"Why are the individuals with black tags not receiving any care?" How should the nurse
respond?
A. With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort
care.
B. To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice
some.
C. In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many
others.
 D. Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move
on.

21. The nurse is the first responder at the scene of a train accident. Which victim should the
nurse attend to first?
A. A victim experiencing airway obstruction
B. A victim experiencing altered level of consciousness
C. A victim experiencing excruciating pain
D. A victim experiencing moderate anxiety

22. As you begin to assess a 9-month-old, you remember patients less than one year old are not
tagged:
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Red

23. You are assigned to triage at a factory where an explosion has taken place. According to the
START Triage, when you assess pulses, you would check:
A. Femoral Pulses
B. Carotid Pulses
C. Pedal Pulses
D. Radial Pulses

24. The next patient is a 42 y/o fabricator with fracture of tib/fib with deformity. He is in severe
pain 10/10. R 34, Radial pulse 120. You would tag:
A. Green
B. Black
C. Yellow
D. Red

25. You notice this patient is not breathing, you would:

A. Open the Airway, tag Red if he starts to breath.
B. Tag Red, hopefully that he will begin to breath shortly,
C. Don't waste tire with tagging process and proceed to next patient.
D. Tag Black and rapidly go to next patient

26. The wounded victim is unable to walk, has respiratory rate of 40, capillary refill is 6 seconds,
and can't follow simple commands. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color?
A. Red
 B. Yellow
C. Black
D. Green

27. After 5 rescue breaths, a 4-year-old who was trapped under the building debris takes 2
breaths, but quickly becomes apneic and pulseless. You would:
A. Tag Yellow
B. Tag Black
C. Again, give 5 rescue breaths
D. Tag Red

28. A catastrophic disaster has occurred 5 miles from the hospital you are working in. The
hospital's disaster plan is activated and the wounded are brought to the hospital. You're helping
triage the survivors. One of the wounded is able to walk around and has minor lacerations on
the arms, hands, chest, and legs. You would place what color tag on this survivor?
A. Black
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green

29. The next patient is a 36-year-old pipe fitter with fracture of humerus. He is in pain, but no
other obvious distress or injury noted. He rates pain of 8/10 when prompted. You would
anticipate to tag:
A. Green
B. Black
C. Yellow
D. Red

30. You're working as a triage nurse during a disaster situation. Based on the triage color code
tags placed on each of the wounded, which tag color represents the wounded who have the
highest priority of being treated first?
A. Green
B. Black
C. Yellow
D. Red

31. The Department of Homeland Security issues a code "blue" relative to a situation. The nurse
knows that this indicates a:
A. guarded risk.
B. possible risk but ill-defined
C. high risk with no specific site.
 D. perceived low risk.

32. A nurse is working in a temporary shelter for victims following a natural disaster. Which
condition is the nurse most likely to encounter?
A. Depression
B. Stress
C. Injuries requiring first aid
D. Communicable disease

33. While triaging the wounded from a disaster, you note that one of the wounded is not
breathing, radial pulse is absent, capillary refill >2 seconds, and does not respond to your
commands. What color tag is assigned?
A. Green
B. Black
C. Red
D. Yellow

34. The wounded victim is unable to walk, has respiratory rate of 12, capillary refill is 8 seconds,
and is unresponsive. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Black
D. Green

SCENARIO: You and your panner have just heard a news report that a plane carrying 155 people
lost use of its landing gear and has been granted permission for an emergency landing at the
local airport. As you head to your unit, the news report announces that the plane has crashed
and broke apart on impact. (For the next eight (8) questions, Numbers 35 to 42.)

35. Which of the following individuals will be in charge of the overall incident?
A. Incident commander
B. Medical director
C. Police chief
D. Shift supervisor

36. After the primary triage has been completed, the team leader should communicate what
information to the medical team leader?
A. The total number of patients
B. The number of patients in each category
C. Resources needed to complete triage
D. All of the above
37. On arrival at the scene, you and your partner need to check in to receive your assignment.
What section should you report to?
A. Planning section
B. Treatment section
C. Finance section
D. Triage section

38. Which of the following is often the key problem at a mass casualty incident or a disaster?
A. Communication
B. Resources
C. Finances
D. Planning

39. The JumpSTART triage system is used for:

A. children up to 18 years who appear to weigh less than 150 lb.
B. children younger than 5 years who appear to weigh less than 501b.
C. children younger than 8 years who appear to weigh less than 100 Ib.
D. children up to the onset of puberty who appear to weigh less than 150 lb.

40. When using the START triage system, a patient who is breathing between 10 and 29
breaths/min but does not have radial pulses should be triaged as:
A. delayed
B. immediate.
C. expectant.
D. minimal.

41. You are triaging a woman who has severe burns over the lower portion of her body and
weak carotid pulses. What color tag should you apply to the patient?
A. Green
B. Black
C. Red
D. Yellow
42. You are assigned to the triage unit. What is the primary responsibility of the triage unit?
A. Determine which patients will require evacuation with a helicopter
B. Ensure that every patient receives initial assessment of his or her condition
C. Decide which patients will be transported to each hospital
D. Begin immediate treatment of critically ill patients
For the next eight (8) questions (Numbers 43 to 50), use START or JumpSTART method in
performing initial triage to this set of patients.

43. A school aged girl crawls out of the wreckage. She's able to stand and walk toward you
crying. Jacket and shirt torn. No obvious bleeding.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black

44. A toddler lies with his lower body trapped under a seat inside the bus. Apneic. Remains
apneic with modified jaw thrust. No pulse.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black

45. Adult female driver still in the bus, trapped by her lower legs under caved-in dash. R 24. Cap
refill 4 sec > Moans with verbal stimulus.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black
46. An adult male lies inside the bus. Apneic. Remains apneic with jaw thrust.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black

47. A youngster is up and walking around but is limping. Alert, crying hysterically for his mother.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black

48. A school aged boy lies close to the bus. RR 36. Absent distal pulse. Sluggishly looks at you
when you talk to him.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
 D. Black

49. An adult male lies on the ground. RR 20. Good distal pulse. Obeys commands but cries that
he can't move his legs.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black

50. An older school aged child is found sitting outside the bus. RR 28. Good distal pulse. Groggy,
confused and slowly follows commands but won't get up and walk
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black
 V. BASIC LIFE SUPPORT

1. While at work in a hospital you find an adult victim who has collapsed, No one is available to
help. After you ensure that the scene is safe, what should you do next?
A. Check for unresponsiveness; if the victim is unresponsive, activate the emergency
response system (or phone 911) and get the AED if available
B. Phone 911 (or activate the emergency response system), then wait outside to direct the
emergency responders
C. Open the airway with a tongue-jaw lift and perform 2 finger sweeps to check if food is
blocking the airway
D. Perform CPR for 1 minute, then phone

2. You wort with an overweight 55 year old dentist with no known history of heart disease. He
begins to complain of sudden, severe, "crushing" pain under his breastbone, in the center of his
chest. The pain has lasted more than 5 minutes. What problem should you think of right away,
and what should you do?
A. Heartburn; tell him to take an antacid
B. Angina; phone his personal physician -
C. Heart attack; phone 911
D. Arrhythmia; drive him to an Emergency Department

3. You witnessed the collapse of a 45-vear-old man. You are now performing CPR after sending
someone to phone 911. You have done your best to ensure that the first 2. links in the Chain of
Survival have been completed immediately. What is the third link in the chain, which will have
the greatest effect on increasing this man's chance of survival?
A. Arrival of paramedics who will administer drugs
B. Transportation of the man to a hospital
C. Arrival of a rescuer with a defibrillator
D. Arrival of EMS personnel who can do CPR

4. You have been talking with a 60-year-old man. He is alert and has been conversing normally.
All at once he complains of a sudden weakness on one side of his face and in one arm. He is also
having trouble speaking. What is the most likely cause of his problem?
A. A seizure
B. A heart attack
C. A stroke
D. Diabetic coma
5. You remove a 3-year-old from the bottom at the Shallow end of a swimming pool. You find
that she is limp and unresponsive. No other person is available to help. When should you phone
911?
A. After you have given the child 1 minute of CPR
B. As soon as you remove the child from the pool
C. When you see that after several minutes of CPR there is no response
D. After giving a few ventilations and before beginning chest compressions

6. You are a medical advisor helping set up a public access defibrillation (PAD)) program at a
local shopping mall. The mall has purchased an AED. The mall personnel director asks, "If AEDs
are so ‘foolproof,' why do the security guards have to learn CPR and be trained to use the AED?"
Which of the following is the best explanation for the need to train rescuers to perform CPR and
use an AED?
A. Rescuers don't need to learn CPR if they can use an AED
B. Rescuers need to be able to verify the rhythm analyzed by the AED
C. Rescuers need to know when and how to use the AED safely and to perform the steps
of CPR for unresponsive victims who are not in cardiac arrest
D. Rescuers will need to learn to maintain the AD and repair it if something goes wrong

7. You are responding to an emergency call for a child who was found unresponsive in her bed
with no sign of trauma How should you open her airway?
A. Place your fingers in her mouth and pull forward on the lower jaw
B. Do the jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Tilt her head and lift her chin
D. Pull her tongue forward

8. Before providing rescue breathing for an unresponsive victim, you must check for breathing.
You do this by listening and feeling for airflow through the victim's nose or mouth and by
A. Looking into the victim's mouth to see if anything is blocking the airway
B. Shaking or tapping the victim's shoulder to stimulate him to breathe
C. Checking the pupils
D. Looking to see if the chest rises (and falls) as the victim breathes

9. Healthcare providers are cautioned to look for "adequate" breathing when they open the
airway and check for breathing in an unresponsive victim. What is the best explanation for the
requirement that the healthcare provider look for more than just the presence or absence of
breathing?
A. Healthcare providers often mistake elective breaths for absence of breaths and they
start rescue breathing unnecessarily
B. Most adult victims of cardiac arrest actually stop breathing before the cardiac arrest,
and the respiratory arrest precipitates the cardiac arrest
 C. Many victims of sudden cardiac arrest actually have a foreign body in the airway, which
will require that you check and confirm that breathing is adequate.,
D. Some victims may continue to demonstrate agonal or gasping breaths for several
minutes after a cardiac arrest, but these breaths and breaths that are too slow or too
shallow will not maintain oxygenation.

10. You are in the hospital cafeteria, where a woman appears to be in distress, She is grasping
her throat with both hands. What should you do to find out if she is choking?
A. Give her 5 back blows
B. Give her 5 abdominal thrusts
C. Ask her "Are you choking?" and look for any response
D. Shake her and shout "Are you OK?"

11. You are providing rescue breathing for a child using a bag-mask device. What action will
confirm that each of your rescue breaths is adequate?
A. Determining the child's weight, calculating the tidal volume, and delivering that amount
of air
B. Observing the child's chest rise with each rescue breath
C. Choosing the correct size bag-mask device, which will ensure delivery of adequate
rescue breaths
D. Delivering breaths quickly with high peak inspiratory pressures

12. A 3-year-old child is eating in the hospital playroom. She suddenly begins coughing
repeatedly. Her cough then quickly becomes soft and weak. She is making high-pitched noises
while breathing in and seems to be in respiratory distress. Her skin is a bluish color. What is the
most likely cause of her distress?
A. An acute asthma attack causing a swelling of the airway
B. Severe or complete airway obstruction with inadequate air exchange
C. Infected and swollen vocal cords
D. A seizure from a possible head injury

13. You are performing rescue breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen for a nonbreathing
child with signs of circulation. How often should you provide rescue breaths for the child?
A. Approximately once every 3 seconds (20 breaths per minute)
B. Approximately once every 4 seconds (15 breaths per minute)
C. Approximately once every 5 seconds (10 to 12 breaths per minute)
D. Approximately once every 10 seconds (6 breaths per minute)
14. You are performing 2-rescuer CPR. You are positioned at the victim's head. When you
initially open the unresponsive victim's airway and find that he is not breathing adequately, how
many initial breaths should you give?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

15. You are at your grandmother's house. Your grandmother is unresponsive and has stopped
breathing. You are giving her mouth-to-mouth breathing. Which of the following statements is
the best explanation for the positive effects of rescue breaths?
A. Rescue breaths help overcome any airway obstruction that may be blocking the airway
B. Rescue breaths will maintain a normal arterial oxygen content
C. Rescue breathing might help defibrillate the heart
D. Rescue breaths are a quick, effective way to provide oxygen to the victim

16. A 52-year-old man collapses at the fitness center after a workout. To determine whether he
is in cardiac arrest, you should check for signs of circulation. Part of this assessment is the pulse
check. What is the preferred site for a pulse check in this adult victim?
A. At the radial artery of the wrist
B. At the brachial artery of the arm
C. At the carotid artery of the neck
D. On the chest over the heart

17. Where should you place your hands on the chest of a victim when you are performing chest
compressions?
A. On the top half of the breastbone
B. Over the heart on the left side of the chest at the nipple line
C. Over the very bottom of the breastbone, on the xiphoid
D. On the lower half of the breastbone, at the nipple line in the center of the chest

18. You are performing CPR on an unresponsive man who was found in his bed. What is your
ratio of compressions to ventilations?
A. 15 compressions, then 2 ventilations
B. 5 compressions, then 1 ventilation
C. 10 compressions, then 2 ventilations
D. 15 compressions, then 5 ventilations

19. What is the correct rate or speed you should use to perform compressions for an adult
victim of cardiac arrest?
A. A rate of 60 times per minute
 B. A rate of 80 times per minute
C. A rate of 100 times per minute
D. A rate of 130 times per minute

20. A neighbor runs to you with his limp 5-year-old child. You verify that the child is
unresponsive and send the neighbor to phone 911. You open the child's airway, determine that
he is not breathing, and deliver 2 effective rescue breaths. You check for signs of circulation and
find that the child has no signs of circulation (including no pulse). Which of the following choices
best describes the technique you should use to perform chest compressions on this child?
A. Use both hands, one on top of the other
B. Use the heel of one hand
C. Use the tips of 2 fingers
D. Use the palm and fingers of one hand

21. You and a colleague have responded to a 911 call to attempt resuscitation of an
unresponsive man who was found in a chair. After laying the victim supine on a hard surface,
you open the airway and check for breathing. When you find no normal breathing you deliver 2
effective breaths. Next you check for signs of circulation and find no signs of circulation. What
should you and your partner do next?
A. Attach an AED (if available) or begin chest compressions and cycles of compressions
and ventilations
B. Deliver 5 abdominal thrusts
C. Check for signs of circulation again
D. Reposition the airway and reattempt rescue breaths

22. You are alone when you see a man collapse. You confirm that he is unresponsive and phone
the emergency response number. There is no AED in sight. You return to the man and perform
the steps of CPR. You open the airway and find that he has only agonal respirations. You deliver
2 effective breaths and check for signs of circulation. There are no signs of circulation, so you
begin chest compressions. When should you recheck for signs of circulation?
A. After each compression-ventilation cycle
B. After the first compression-ventilation cycle
C. After about 5 minutes of CPR
D. After the first 4 cycles of 15 compressions and 2 ventilations and every few minutes
thereafter

23. Which of the following most accurately characterizes when you should start chest
compressions?
A. As soon as you find that there are no signs of circulation
B. After you have reassessed the victim's breathing
C. After giving the 2 initial ventilations
 D. Whenever you find an unresponsive person

24. When you perform CPR, how do your chest compressions and rescue breathing help the
victim of sudden cardiac arrest?
A. CPR decreases the need for coronary artery bypass
B. CPR forces the heart in ventricular fibrillation to return to a normal heart rhythm
C. CPR has no effect on survival
D. Immediate CPR provides a flow of oxygen-rich blood to the heart and brain and "buys
time" until defibrillation

25. A 7-year-old boy is struck by a car in front of your house. You find him unresponsive and
bleeding from a wound on his forehead. How should you open his airway?
A. By tilting his head and lifting his chin
B. Jaw thrust with cervical spine immobilization
C. By sweeping out his mouth and pulling forward on his tongue
D. By not moving him at all because he might have a broken neck

26. You are leaving work for the day. In the parking lot, you find an unresponsive elderly man
laying by his car. Since you are the list rescuer, you must first
A. Ensure that the scene is safe
B. Get an AED
C. Open the airway
D. Activate EMS

27. You find a patient in his hospital bed. He is unresponsive and has agonal breathing. What
should you do?
A. Place the patient in the recovery position
B. Give two rescue breaths
C. Activate the emergency response system
D. Check for a pulse

28. Healthcare providers should take no more than seconds to check for a pulse.
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 15

29. You are alone and find an unresponsive victim not breathing. You shout for help but no one
responds. What is the proper sequence of actions in light of this:
A. Get AED, check pulse, defibrillate if needed
 B. Activate EMS, get ALD, check pulse, start CPR
C. Check pulse, CPR five cycles, activate EMS, get AED
D. Get an AED, activate EMS, check pulse, start CPR

30. For victims of any age, the lone rescuer should use the compression-ventilation ratio of 30
compressions to two breaths for CPR.
A. True
B. False

31. The foundation of CPR is

A. teamwork
B. rapid activation of EMS
C. maintaining an open airway
D. chest compressions

32. You begin chest compressions on a 42-year-old male you remember that the compression
rate is ______.
A. 80-100 /min
B. 100-120 /min
C. 60/min
D. As fast as possible

33. When performing chest compressions on an adult which of the following factors are
important?
A. ensure that the patient is on a firm surface
B. push down at least 2 inches with every compression
C. allow for full chest recoil
D. all of the above

34. Two rescuers are generally needed to perform a jaw thrust and provide breaths with the
bag-mask device. During CPR, two rescuers are recommended to deliver effective ventilation.
A. True
B. False

35. Use the head-tilt chin-lift if you suspect a head or neck injury.
A. True
B. False

36. You are performing CPR as a lone rescuer on a 60-year-old female patient. Where is the ideal
position for you around the patient as a lone rescuer?
A. Above the patient's head
 B. At the patient's feet
C. At the patient's side
D. Straddling the patient
37. For the lone rescuer; bag-mask rescue breathing is NOT recommended during CPR.
A. True
B. False

38. As you perform 2-person CPR on a patient in cardiac arrest, each breath should be delivered
over seconds.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

39. How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?

A. Approximately every 1 minute
B. Approximately every 2 minutes
C. Approximately every 3 minutes
D. Approximately every 5 minutes

40. If the jaw thrust maneuver does not work to open the airway on a suspected spinal injury,
use a head. tilt-chin lift.
A. True
B. False

A 41. After you power on an AEl) (External automated defibrillator), The AED will guide you
through the next steps.
A. True
B. False

42. The sequence of the 4 universal steps for operating an AED are:
A. Power on, attach pads, analyze, shock (If advised)
B. Attach pads, power on, analyze, shock (If advised)
C. Plug-in ADD, power on, analyze, shock (If advised)

43. You have attached the AD No a patient in cardiac arrest, what is your next step:
A. clear the victim to analyze rhythm
B. analyze rhythm
C. power on the AED
D. shock the patient
44. When using the AED, if no shock is advised you should
A. press the reanalyze button
B. check a pulse
C. immediately resume CPR
D. check if the pads are attached properly

45. Minimizing the time from the last compression and shock delivery improves the
effectiveness of the shock to result in ROSC.
A. True
B. False

46. Adult defibrillator pads should be used for victims years of age or older.
A. 8 years
B. 10 years
C. 12 years
D. 14 years

47. Special situations that may arise when using an AED would include:
A. The victim has a hairy chest
B. The victim is immersed in water
C. The victim has an implanted pacemaker or defibrillator
D. The victim has a transdermal medication patch or other object on the surface of the skin
where that AED is placed.
E. All of the above

48. You may use an AED even if the victim is laying on snow.
A. True
B. False

49. A victim is in cardiac arrest and you are preparing to place the AED patches. You notice what
appears to be an implanted pacemaker. You should:
A. Do not use the AED. Start CPR
B. If possible, avoid placing the AED pad directly over the implanted device
C. Turn off the implanted pacemaker by holding a magnet over it
D. Do nothing, the implanted device will shock the patient

50. You may place an AED pad directly over a medication patch.
A. True
B. False
51. The BLS compression-ventilation ratio for 2-rescuer CPR in the child is
A. 10:1
B. 30:2
C. 15:2
D. 15:1

52. You are providing CPR for a five-year-old child. As you begin chest compressions you
remember that the compression depth should be.
A. 1½ inches
B. One fourth the depth of the chest
C. One half the depth of the chest
D. One third the depth of the chest

53. In the child 1-year-old to puberty, compressions may be administered as 1 or 2 handed

compressions.
A. True
B. False

54. You are a lone provider. You find a child in arrest that was unwitnessed, you should provide
CPR for ____ minutes before activating EMS and retrieving the AED
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

55. You witness the sudden arrest of a child who is now unresponsive. You should provide 2
minutes of CPR prior to activating EMS.
A. True
B. False
56. The universal compression to ventilation ratio for the lone rescuer with adults, children, and
infants is:
A. 10:2
B. 15:2
C. 30:2
D. 10:1

57. The universal compression rate for all cardiac arrest victims is
A. 60-100/min
B. 100/min
 C. 100-120/min
D. 90-110/min
58. To perform a pulse check in the child, palpate a
or femoral pulse.
A. Pedal
B. Radial
C. Brachial
D. Carotid

59. When performing 2-rescuer CPR, on the child, compression to ventilation ratio is:
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 10:2
D. 15:1

60. For most infants and children, chest compressions alone are not as effective for delivering
oxygen to the heart and brain as a combination of chest compressions and breaths.
A. True
B. False
GOOD LUCK SA FINALS, MY LOVE!
YOU GOT THIS :]
Forget everything that’s happening muna right now and let’s focus sa goal natin.
In this way, things will be easier for us once everything’s done. :]
Don’t forget to rest once in awhile and don’t overwork yourself!!
Hydrate yourself, okie??

I love you, always. <3

VI. LIFTING AND MOVING PATIENTS

1. What is the first rule of lifting?

A. Twist slowly when you lift.
B. Keep your back in a straight position.
C. Bend at the waist to pick something up.
D. Use your arms to do most of the lifting.

2. When lifting a stretcher using the power lift, you should:

A. bend at the hips, knees, back, and arms.
B. bend at the waist and keep your back straight.
C. place your hands palms up on the litter handle.
D. place your hands palms down on the litter's side bars.
3. It is impractical to apply a vest-type extrication device on a critically injured patient to remove
him or her from a wrecked vehicle because it:
A. takes too long to correctly apply.
B. does not fully immobilize the spine.
C. cannot be used on patients who are in their car.
D. does not provide adequate stabilization.

4. Proper guidelines for correct reaching include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. avoiding twisting your back.
B. avoiding hyperextension of your back.
C. keeping the back in a locked-in position.
D. reaching no more than 30 inches in front of your body.

5.An injured hang glider is trapped at the top of a large mountain and must be evacuated to the
ground. The terrain is very rough and uneven. Which of the following devices would be the
safest and most appropriate to use?
A. Stair chair
B. Stokes basket
C. Scoop stretcher
D. Long backboard

6. When two EMTs are lifting a patient on a long backboard, they should:
A. lift the patient from the sides of the board.
B. make every attempt to lift with their backs
C. position the strongest EMT at the foot of the board.
D. position the strongest EMT at the head of the board.

7. Which of the following techniques is considered to be an emergency move?

A. Extremity lift
B. Supine transfer
C. Firefighter's drag
D. Direct ground lift

8. To extract a patient from the basement of a building, you must transport the patient up a
flight of stairs. In doing this, you must ensure that:
A. the elevated head of the backboard goes first.
B. the backboard with the elevated foot end goes first
C. the backboard is slightly tilted to the left to distribute weight.
D. the patient's feet are higher than his or her head, whichever end is carried first.
9. If an injured patient needs to be moved but is not in immediate danger from fire or building
collapse, you should first:
A. order the equipment you need for extrication.
B. check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation.
C. remove the patient with the rapid extrication technique.
D. determine the number of people you will need to move the patient.

10, The rapid extrication technique is a:

A. nonurgent move to remove a patient from a vehicle.
B. technique used to transfer a patient from a bed to a stretcher.
C. technique used to lift a patient with no suspected spinal injury onto a stretcher.
D. technique used to quickly remove a patient from a vehicle and onto a backboard.

11. safety depends on the use of proper lifting techniques and maintaining a proper hold when
lifting or carrying a patient.
A. your
B. your team's
C. the patient's
D. all of the above

12. You should perform an urgent move in all of the following situations except:
A. if a patient has an altered level of consciousness
B. if the patient is complaining of neck pain
C. in extreme weather conditions
D. if a patient has inadequate ventilation or shock

13. You may injure your back if you lift:

A. with your back curved
B. with your back straight, but bent significantly forward at the hips
C. with the shoulder girdle anterior to the pelvis
D. all of the above
14. When lifting, you should:
A. spread your legs past shoulder width
B. lift a patient while reaching far in front of your torso
C. keep the weight that you are lifting as close to your body as possible
D. use your back muscles by bending at the waist

15. Which of the follow statements is false regarding proper lifting?

A. avoid twisting
B. bend at the waist
 C. keep the weight close to your body
D. bend at the knees

16. In lifting with the palm down, the weight is supported by the ____ rather than the palm.
A. fingers
B. forearm
C. lower back
D. wrist

17. When you must carry a patient up or down a flight of stairs or other significant incline, use a
if possible
A. backboard
B. stair chair
C. stretcher
D. short spine board

18. Because of the weight distribution on backboards and stretchers, the stronger the EMTs
should be at the:
A. head
B. foot
C. side
D. front corner

19. A backboard is a device that provides support to patients who you suspect have:
A. hip injuries
B. pelvic injuries
C. spinal injuries
D. all of the above

20. Before any lifting is initiated, the team leader should do all of the following except:
A. give a command of execution
B. indicate where each team member is to be located
C. rapidly describe the sequence of steps that will be performed
D. give a brief overview of the stages

21. Special ___ are usually required to move any patient who weighs more than 350 pounds to
an ambulance.
A. techniques
B. equipment
C. resources
 D. all of the above

22. Which of the fellow statements Is false regarding the use of a stair chair?
A. keep your back in a locked-in position
B. lean back to help distribute the weight
C. keep the patient's weight and you arms as close to your body as possible
D. flex at the hips, not at the waist

23. When you use a body drag to move a patient:

A. your back should always be locked and straight
B. you should encourage twisting so that the vertebrae can flex during the move
C. consider hyperextending to gain more leverage
D. drag the patient by the ankles

24. When pulling a patient, you should do all of the following except:
A. extend your arms no more than about 15"-20"
B. reposition your feet so that the force of pull will be balanced equally
C. when you can pull no farther, lean forward another 15"-20"
D. pull the patient by slowly flexing your arms

25. When log rolling a patient, you should do all of the following except:
A. kneel as close to the patient's side as possible
B. lean solely from the hips
C. reach as far as possible to maintain stability
D. use your shoulder muscles to help with the roll

26. If the weight you are pushing is lower than your waist, you should push from:
A. the waist
B. a kneeling position
C. the shoulder
D. a squatting position

27. If you are alone and must remove an unconscious patient from a car, you should first move
the patients:
A. Legs
B. head
C. torso
D. pelvis

28. Situations in which you should use an emergency move include all of the following except:
 A. when fire, explosives, or hazardous materials are present
B. when the patient feels like he or she might pass out
C. when you are unable to gain access to others in a vehicle who need lifesaving care
D. when you are unable to protect the patient from other hazards

29. You can move a patient on his or her back along the floor or ground by using all of the
following methods except:
A. pulling on the patient's clothing in the neck and shoulder area
B. placing the patient in a blanket, coat, or other item that can be pulled
C. pulling the patient by the legs if they are the most accessible part
D. placing your arms under the patient's shoulders and through the armpits, and while
grasping the patient's arms, dragging the patient backward
30. The is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central
posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
A. lumbar spine
B. sacrum
C. coccyx
D. ileum
31. Which of the following is not an indication for use of the rapid extrication technique?
A. The patient is in severe pain
B. the patient's condition cannot be properly assessed before being removed from the car
C. the patient blocks access to another seriously injured patient
D. the vehicle or the scene is unsafe

32. To avoid the strain of unnecessary lifting and carrying, you should use ___ or assist an able
patient to the stretcher whenever possible.
A. the direct ground lift
B. the extremity lift
C. the draw sheet method
D. a scoop stretcher

33. You should use a rigid often called a Stokes litter, to carry a patient across uneven terrain
from a remote location that is inaccessible by ambulance or other vehicle.
A. basket stretcher
B. scoop stretcher
C. molded backboard
D. flotation device
34. You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than without a least four rescuers.
A. 220lbs
B. 230 lbs
 C. 240lbs
D. 250 lbs

35. Which of the following is false regarding the lifting and moving of geriatric patients?
A. many geriatric patients have great fear when being transported
B. most patients will be able to lie supine on a backboard without problems
C. geriatric patients tend to have brittle bones
D. some patients may require you to use towels and blankets to assist with immobilization

36. Bariatrics is;

A. the branch of medicine concerned with the elderly.
B. the branch of medicine concerned with the obese.
C. the branch of medicine concerned with infants.
D. the method used to access blood pressure.

37. You have been called to the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle collision involving two
compact cars. The first vehicle was a roll-over, ejecting the driver. The second vehicle contained
both a driver and a front-seat passenger who cannot be reached because the door is up against
a building. What device will you use to put the roll-over victim onto the wheeled ambulance
stretcher?
A. extremity lift
B. scoop stretcher
C. short backboard
D. backboard

38. You have been called to the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle collision involving two
compact cars. The first vehicle was a roll-over, ejecting the driver. The second vehicle contained
both a driver and a front-seat passenger who cannot be reached because the door is up against
a building. For the passenger in the second vehicle, you may need to perform a(n)on the driver
in order to reach the patient.
A. extremity lift
B. emergency move
C. short backboard
D. you should do nothing different; treat each patient the same

39. You have been called to the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle collision involving two
compact cars. The first vehicle was a roll-over, ejecting the driver. The second vehicle contained
both a driver and a front-seat passenger who cannot be reached because the door is up against
a building. Which of the following is an advantage of the diamond carry?
A. it uses an even number of people (less likely to drop)
B. can be done with one person, freeing up others for patient care
 C. the patient can be slid along the ground
D. it provides the best means of spinal immobilization

40. You have been called to the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle collision involving two
compact cars. The first vehicle was a roll-over, ejecting the driver. The second vehicle contained
both a driver and a front-seat passenger who cannot be reached because the door is up against
a building. You'll likely use the to transfer the patient from your stretcher to the hospital bed.
A. diamond carry
B. scoop stretcher
C. portable stretcher
D. draw sheet method

You are dispatched to a residence to find a 60-year-old man lying supine at the bottom of the
basement steps. He is conscious and complaining of pain in his hip. Your assessment reveals
pain and tenderness in the left pelvic area. Vital signs are stable, and the patient has no medical
history. You and your partner decide to use the scoop stretcher to carry him up the steps and
place him on the wheeled stretcher. The patient weighs approximately 170 lb.
(For the next five items, Numbers 41 to 45.)

41. What is the best method for carrying this patient up the steps?
A. Feet first and head elevated
B. Feet first and elevated
C. Head first and feet elevated
D. Head first and slightly elevated

42. The power lift should be done with your body in what position?
A. Legs straight and back bent
B. Back bent and knees bent
C. Knees bent and back straight
D. Back straight and legs locked

43. To perform the power grip, your palms should be facing:

A. down with your thumbs pointing sideways.
B. down with your thumbs curled over your fingers.
C. up with your thumbs curled over your fingers.
D. up with your thumbs pointing up.

44. The scoop stretcher is also known as a(n):

A. orthopedic stretcher.
B. flexible litter
C. basket litter.
 D. ambulance stretcher.

45. What is the safest way to lit a patient?

A. Extremity lift
B. Power lift
C. Direct ground lit
D. Emergency lift

A call comes in for an injured person in a wooded area. Dispatch tells you that the patient, a 42
year-old man, was cutting down a tree when it fell on him. Upon arrival you are led to an area
about 200 yards from where you have to leave the ambulance outside the tree line. When you
reach the patient, he is lying supine with a large tree trunk across his upper legs and pelvic
region. Bystanders who were working with him are using a jack to try to lift up the tree high
enough to get him out. The patient is alert and reports tremendous pain in his right hip and
upper thigh.
(For the next five items, Numbers 45 to 50.)

46. What is the best way to remove the patient once the tree is lifted?
A. Power lift
B. Clothes drag
C. Extremity lift
D. Direct lift

47. Should you consider spinal immobilization for this patient?

A. Yes, every patient should be immobilized.
B. Yes, there is a significant MOl.
C. No, he is not reporting neck or back pain.
D. No, there is no significant MOI.

48. Once the patient is free, how should he be moved to the backboard?
A. Extremity lift
B. Direct ground lift
C. Scoop stretcher
D. Log roll with attention to cervical spine

49. When you use a body drag to move a patient, your back should be locked and straight and:
A. your feet should be close together.
B. your arms should be fully extended with elbows locked.
C. your elbows should only extend just beyond the anterior torso,
D. you should bend from the waist with your feet 12 inches (30 cm) apart
50. Because you are unable to bring the stretcher to the patient, the best way to carry him to
the stretcher is using the;
A. diamond carry.
B. firefighter's carry,
C. direct carry.
D. emergency carry,