15-10-2023

MM : 720 Term Test Series for 11th NEET - 2024 Time : 03:20
Test - 4

Answer Key

1. (1) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (3) 161. (4)

2. (3) 42. (1) 82. (2) 122. (3) 162. (4)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (1) 123. (4) 163. (2)
4. (1) 44. (1) 84. (1) 124. (4) 164. (4)
5. (3) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (2) 165. (3)
6. (2) 46. (4) 86. (4) 126. (4) 166. (3)
7. (4) 47. (3) 87. (3) 127. (1) 167. (1)
8. (3) 48. (4) 88. (4) 128. (3) 168. (4)
9. (1) 49. (2) 89. (1) 129. (3) 169. (2)
10. (1) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (4) 170. (1)
11. (4) 51. (3) 91. (3) 131. (3) 171. (3)
12. (3) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (1) 172. (3)
13. (1) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (4) 173. (4)
14. (2) 54. (2) 94. (2) 134. (1) 174. (2)
15. (3) 55. (4) 95. (3) 135. (4) 175. (4)
16. (3) 56. (1) 96. (3) 136. (1) 176. (3)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (3) 137. (4) 177. (3)
18. (4) 58. (4) 98. (1) 138. (1) 178. (1)
19. (2) 59. (2) 99. (2) 139. (2) 179. (2)
20. (3) 60. (1) 100. (2) 140. (1) 180. (2)
21. (2) 61. (4) 101. (4) 141. (2) 181. (1)
22. (2) 62. (1) 102. (4) 142. (3) 182. (3)
23. (3) 63. (4) 103. (1) 143. (3) 183. (4)
24. (2) 64. (3) 104. (3) 144. (4) 184. (3)
25. (3) 65. (4) 105. (1) 145. (1) 185. (1)
26. (1) 66. (3) 106. (2) 146. (2) 186. (1)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (2) 187. (1)
28. (3) 68. (2) 108. (1) 148. (2) 188. (2)
29. (2) 69. (2) 109. (3) 149. (4) 189. (4)
30. (1) 70. (1) 110. (1) 150. (2) 190. (3)
31. (1) 71. (1) 111. (3) 151. (1) 191. (3)
32. (3) 72. (3) 112. (1) 152. (2) 192. (4)
33. (3) 73. (1) 113. (3) 153. (2) 193. (2)
34. (3) 74. (4) 114. (4) 154. (4) 194. (1)
35. (3) 75. (4) 115. (4) 155. (3) 195. (3)
36. (1) 76. (4) 116. (3) 156. (3) 196. (4)
37. (4) 77. (1) 117. (2) 157. (1) 197. (2)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (1) 158. (1) 198. (2)
39. (1) 79. (2) 119. (2) 159. (2) 199. (1)
40. (1) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (1) 200. (2)
(1)
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

SOLUTION
Physics
5000
V 2 = 20 × = 200V
500

Section A
frequency does not change in
1.1
transformer
For two concentric circular coil,
2
4.1
Mutual inductance, M
μ 0 πN 1 N 2 a
=
2b
Average energy density = 1

2
ε0 E
2
0

here, N1 = N2 = 1 1 −12 2
= × 8. 8 × 10 × (88) = 3. 4 ×
2
−8 −3
2 10 Jm
Hence, M ……. (i)
μ 0 πa
=
2b

5.3
and given I = I 0 cos ωt ……. (ii) Given, D = 25 cm; P net = 24; f net =
100 100 25
= = cm
P net 24 6
Now according to Faraday’s second
law induced emf M = (1 +
D

f
) = (1 +
25
25
) = 7
/6

dI
e = −M
dt 6.2
Blv
P = Fv = (Bil)v = B( )l × v
R+r

2 2 2
2 ×1 ×2
= 6×3
= 4W
( )+2
6+3

7.4
Conceptual
From equation (ii),
8.3
2
−μ 0 πa d
e = (I 0 cos ωt) i = i 0 sin wt
2b dt

i0
μ 0 πa
2
= i 0 sin πnt
e = I 0 ω sin ωt √2
2b
π
= πnt
2 4
πμ 0 I 0 a
e = . ω sin ωt 1
2 b
t =
4n

9.1
2.3 If the green light is just totally
When d = d m i1 = i2 , r1 = r2 internally reflected at face AC as
shown, the light emerging from face
3.4 AB will contain Yellow, orange and red
V 2 /V 1 = N 2 /N 1 ,
colours.

Page 1 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

The refractive index is highest for

√3

sin r =
2
3
= √3
1

Violet and lowest for Red. 2

2 2
cos r = √ 1 − sin r = √
Thus, critical angle is lowest for Violet 3

and highest for Red. 2 2

′
d = 2(2)√ = 4 ⋅ √ = 3.26 cm
3 3

10 . 1
P avg = I rms E rms cos ϕ (Phase 16 . 3
difference between current and voltage w =
μ 3 −μ 1

μ 2 −1
=
1.65−1.61

1.63−1

is ϕ = π 3
17 . 3
50×200 −3 π A+D
= × 10 cos = 2.5W sin
2
2 3
μ = A
,A = D
sin
2

11 . 4 sin(
A+A
)
I = I 0 Sin 2 nt π ∴ μ =
sin(
2

A
)
2

I0

√2
= I 0 sin 2 nt π μ =
sin(A)

A
sin( )
2

A A
π 2 sin( ) cos(
1

√2
π
= sin 2 nt ⇒ 2 nt = π 4
μ =
sin(
2

A
)
2

A
1 μ = 2 cos( )
t = 2
8n
−1 μ
∴ A = 2 cos ( )
2
12 . 3
6 −6
τ = RC = 0.5 × 10 × 1 × 10

= 0.5 sec
18 . 4
13 . 1 As VL=VC,
At resonance V L = −V C

It is the condition of the resonance.

So, algebraic sum of the potential
difference across the capacitor and So, VR=Vs=100 V
inductor is zero.
and, ammeter reading,
14 . 2
Δϕ Δϕ
i=100/50=2A
e = , Q =
Δt R

19 . 2
15 . 3
d′ cos r All inductors are connected in parallel.
= 0
d cos(60 )

d′= 2d cos r

sin r = sin i

Page 2 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

more nearer image.

The angle subtended at the eye

becomes 10 times larger, and the tree
appears 10 times nearer.
L
L ef f = = 1H
4

26 . 1
20 . 3 NBA(cos θ 2 −cos θ 1)
I = −
−1 4 Δt
i = 5 sin(ωt + tan ( ))
3
100×3×10
−5
π
× ×10
−2
×(−1−1)
= −
2×0.25
io 5
i 0 = 5A ∴ i rms = = A −4
√2 √2 = 3. 77 × 10 A

21 . 2 27 . 1
V1
n 1 = 4000; V 2 = 230; V 1 = 2300
V2 Current through the bulb
n1 n 1 ×V 2 4000×230
= n2 = ⇒ n2 =
n2 V1 2300
P 60
⇒ 400 i = = = 6A
V 10

22 . 2 2 2
V = √V + V
R L
ε = Bl ef f v = B(a + 2r + b)v

2 2 2
(100) + (10) + V ⇒ V L = 99.5
23 . 3 L

Volt
A coil can have both resistance and
Also V = iX L = 1 × (2πvL)
inductance in case of A.C so the net L

resistance of the coil for A.C is more ⇒ 99.5 = 6 × 2 × 3.14 × 50 × L ⇒

L = 0.052H
than D.C.
28 . 3
So the resistance will increase. Length of wire, direction of velocity
and direction of magnetic field should
be mutually perpendicular to induced
24 . 2 emf across the end points of wire.
Energy stored in capacitor = energy
ε = Bvl
stored in inductance
1 2 1 2
29 . 2
i.e., CV = LI μ 0 πr
2
μ 0 π(1) μ0 π
2 2 1
M = = =
2 2 2r 2 2(2) 4
LI 1×(2)
⇒ C = 2
= 2
= 25μF
V (400)

30 . 1
25 . 3 Frequency of water molecule is equal
Telescope is used to see the distant to frequency of microwave when it
objects. More magnifying power means

Page 3 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

heats up a food containing water 35 . 3

molecules. i W L = i rms sin Φ ⇒ √ 3 = 2 sin Φ

√3
31 . 1 ⇒ sin Φ =
2

One of the key aspects where ⇒ Φ = 60°

corpuscular theory faced challenges

so, p.f. = cosΦ=cos 60°= 1

was in explaining the phenomenon of 2

refraction, which involves the change section B

in direction and speed of light as it 36 . 1
passes from one medium to another. L = f0 − fe

The corpuscular theory could not

9 = 15 − f e
adequately account for the observed
fe = 6
behavior of light during refraction,
particularly the relationship between
f0 15
M = = = 2.5
fe 6

the change in velocity and the change

37 . 4
in direction.
f = 120 rev /min = 2 rev /s

32 . 3 ω = 2πf = 2π × 2 = 4π rad /s
B = μ 0 ni
2
Bωl
E =
2 2
ϕ = Bπa
−4 2
0.4×10 ×4π×(0.5)
=
dϕ 2 dB 2 2
ε = = πa = πa α
dt dt −5
∴ E = 6.28 × 10 V

33 . 3
The spokes are all linked together in
We know that
parallel configurations.
Distance=Speed×time Their net emf is therefore equal to the
emf across each individual spoke.
Speed is unity = 1 unit / sec T ime
= 8 min and 20sec = 8 × 60 + 20sec
= 500 sec Af ter putting values 38 . 3
Distance between Sun and Earth
= 1 × 500 = 500 units The toal energy falling on the surface is
2 2
U = (18w/ cm ) × (20 cm ) × (30 ×
34 . 3 60) = 6.4 × 10 J
5

For total internal ref lection θ > C

⇒ sin θ > sin C ⇒ sin θ >

1 Total momentum delivered (for
μ
complete absorption) is
1 1 5
or μ > ⇒ μ > ⇒ μ > 6.4×10 −3 −1
sin θ sin 45
∘
8
= 2.16 × 10 kg ms
3×10
√ 2 ⇒ μ > 1.41

Page 4 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)
−3

F =
M omentum delivere

time
=
2.16×10

30×60
aperture helps capture sufficient light
−6
for a clear and well-illuminated image.
= 1.2 × 10 N

39 . 1 Improved Low-Light Performance: In

P = V r.m.s. × i r.m.s. × cos φ environments with limited light, a wide
100 100×10
−3
π
aperture can make a significant
= × × cos
difference in the quality of the image.
√2 √2 3

This is particularly relevant in

4 −3
10 ×10 1 10
= × = = 2.5 watt
2 2 4

photography and astronomy.

40 . 1
ε rms ε rms
45 . 1
I rms = =
XL ωL
dϕ
|e| =
dt
220
= −3 22
= 5A
140×10 ×2× ×50
7 d dI d
e = (M I ) = M = M
dt dt dt

41 . 4 (5 sin 10 πt)

q
ϕE = = 5M 10 π cos (10 π t)
ϵ0

q = ϵ0 ϕE
Maximum emf
dq dϕ E
I = = ϵ0 ⋅ −2
dt dt e 0 = 5M × 10π = 5 × 2 × 10 × 10
× π = π

42 . 1
46 . 4
Induced electric field is non 3
i = e = A
→ → 4

conservative and also ∮ E. dl ≠ 0 3 ∘

= × 60 = 45
4

43 . 2
2 2 2 2
In the position of minimum deviation,
B l V B l V
F = mg sin θ =
R R

2i = A + δ m

44 . 1 or δ= 2i − A

A wider aperture allows more light to = 2 × 45

∘
− 60

enter the lens, which is crucial for = 30

∘

several reasons:
47 . 3
Brightness of Images: The more light According to Lenz law induced emf
that enters the lens, the brighter the always gives rise to a current whose
resulting image will be. This is magnetic field opposes the change in
particularly important in situations with magnetic flux. Thus, current will
low light conditions, where a wider induced in inner loop in counter
clockwise direction.

Page 5 of 10
 NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

CH 3 −CH 2 −I

− 48 . 4
→ CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 2 −
The rms value of current is I rms = CH 3 + NaI
V rms 220V
= = 2.2A
R 100Ω
SN 2

49 . 2 56 . 1
Over one time period ‘T’ average value
of 5 sin(100ωt) is zero

average over one time period ‘T’ for

i = 5 + 5 sin(100ωt)

i av = 5A

50 . 3
3l
2

e = ∫ Bω x dx =
5Bω l

2
57 . 3
2l

Chemistry
Section A
51 . 3 58 . 4
Chlorobenzene is less reactive than
benzene towards the electrophilic
substitution reaction due to -I effect

52 . 4
With the increase number of chlorine 59 . 2
atoms density increases. Tertiary alkyl halides would undergo
S 1 reaction very fast.
N

53 . 3
(a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii) 60 . 1
Reactivity series for
54 . 2 S N 2 is H 3 C − X > 1
0
> 2
0
> 3
0

, mono, penta and hexa chloro derivates

will be one each. whereas remaining 61 . 4
di,tri,tetra will be two each In S 2 reactions, the attack of
N

nucleophile occurs from a side opposite

55 . 4 to the halogen atom resulting in
Na
CH 3 − C ≡ CH ⟶ CH 3 − C ≡ C
−
inversion of the configuration.
+
Na

Page 6 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

62 . 1 68 . 2
presence of electron withdrawing
groups will increase nucleophilic
substitution reactions
stable intermediate is formed
63 . 4
All the given compounds are tertiary 69 . 2
alkyl halides but the bond formed These isomers are having large
between carbon and iodine (C - I) is the difference in melting point due to
weakest bond due to large difference in difference in their lattice arrangement
the size of carbon and iodine. So, 70 . 1
(CH ) C − I gives S 1 reaction most
3 3 N
H2SO4 + KBr is not used because HBr
readily. In other words, iodine is better formed is reducing agent and H2SO4 is
leaving group. oxidizing agent.H2SO4 oxidises HBr to
64 . 3 Br2
1
S N 2 reactivity ∝
Steric hindrance
71 . 1
S N 1 reactivity ∝ Replacement of diazonium group by
stability of carbocation
iodine does not require presence of
Correct reason : Steric hindrance is cuprous halide
CH 3 Br lesser than in C 2 H5 Br
72 . 3
65 . 4 It is an electrophilic addition reaction,
Reactivity towards ArSN ∝ EWG 30 carbocation is formed
1
∝
EDG
73 . 1
66 . 3 Carbon - oxygen bond in phenol is
Straight chain compounds have higher having partial double bond character
boiling points than their branched and is difficult to break.
isomers.
74 . 4
Boiling points ∝ No. of carbons in NaF is ionic and bond energy is very
chain high. It cannot displace Cl or Br from
alkyl halides.
67 . 1
Others are incorrect NaF being ionic is insoluble in ether,
can't be used in swarts reaction

Page 7 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

75 . 4 81 . 3

82 . 2
Oxidation state of O is +1 2

∴ oxidation state of O is + 1

83 . 1
− −
[(C 5 H 5 ) − F e − (C 5 H 5 ) ] = 26 −

2 + 6 × 2 = 36
IUPAC name is 4-Bromo-3- 84 . 1
methylpent-2-ene In [Fe(CN) −3
6]

76 . 4
−2
The O. State of Fe is +3
2
[Ni(CN) 4 ] dSP square planar.

Electronic configuration is [Ar]3d

5

77 . 1
First sequence is correct CN
−
is strong field ligand ,there will
be the pairing of electrons and only one
78 . 2
3 10 2 8
electron will be unpaired.
sp (d ), dsp (d − lowspin)

and sp
3
(d
8
− highspin) n =1

79 . 2 Magnetic moment =
Complexes of type [M a 3 b3 ] show fac- √ n(n + 2) = √ 1(1 + 2) = √3

mer isomerism. =1.732M

80 . 3 85 . 1
The formula of the complex is
[CoCl 2 (en) 2 ]Cl.

[CoCl 2 (en) ]Cl + AgN O 3 → AgCl

2

+ [CoCl 2 (en) ]N O 3
↓ 2

Moles of complex = moles of AgCl=

−3
100 × 10 × 0.024 = 0.0024

Page 8 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

​and
[PtCl 2 (en) 2 ] SO 4
CoCl 3 . 6 NH 3 . ..... +3 CoCl 3 . 5 NH 3 .
..... +2 CoCl 3 . 4 NH 3 . ..... +1 CoCl 3 .
[PtSO (en) ] Cl l represents
4 2 2
3 NH 3 . . . . . . 0

ionization isomers.
91 . 3
section B
86 . 4
Polynuclear compound contains 2 or
more central atoms in the coordination
compound.
87 . 3
Coordination number of the complex
compound is the number of coordinate
covalent bonds present around the
central atom
Oxidation number of the central atom is
the charge carried by the metal in the
complex
IUPAC naming of complex anion
as follows the order.
Names of ligands [alphabetical
order] + Name of metal +
ate(oxidation state in roman
numbers.
In the given complex, there are 6
Cyanide ligands and the oxidation
number of Fe is M-6= -3.
This implies, Fe is in +3 oxidation
state.
Hence, the IUPAC name of the
complex should
be hexacyanidoferrate(III).

92 . 4
88 . 4 The number of electrons lost by the
The total charges present on cation and metal is equal to the oxidation number
anion must be same of the metal

Cation charge +3 93 . 3
The order of the ligand in the
anion charge - 2 spectrochemical series
H 2 O < NH 3 < en
89 . 1
Thus, the wavelength absorbed will be
The IUPAC name of the compound is
in the opposite order i.e.,
tetraamminechloridonitrito-N 3+ 3+
[Co (H 2 O) ] > [Co (NH 3 ) ] >
6 6
cobalt(III) chloride [Co (en) ]
3+

Ligands are named in alphabatical wave length of light absorbed ∞

1

order strength of ligand

90 . 3 94 . 2

Page 9 of 10
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

If Δo < P, then no pairing of electrons paramagnetic

occur. Therefore d4 system Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide
configuration is t e 3
2g
1
g
ion is lower than that of ferricyanide
ion
95 . 3
Optical isomerism not possible in crystal field splitting ∞ charge on the
square planar complexes. Optical metal ion
isomerism not possible in ML6 type of
complex

96 . 3
Complexes are respectively
[Co (NH 3 ) ] Cl 3 . [Co (NH 3 ) Cl] Cl 2
6 5

and [Co (NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ] Cl

97 . 3
(Ph 3 P)
3
RhCl is Wilkinson’s catalyst.
(Ph 3 P) RhCl cannot show optical
3

isomerism and geometrical isomerism

98 . 1
EDTA ligand is used in the treatment of
lead poisoning

99 . 2
K 2 SO 4 . Al 2 (SO 4 ) . 24H 2 O
3
is an
example of double salt. It gives positive
test for all the ions present in the
formula.

Salt which on complete ionisation gives

two different cations and a simple
anion or a simple cation or two
different simple anions is double salt

100 . 2
Potassium ferrocyanide is diamagnetic
whereas potassium ferricyanide is

Page 10 of 10
NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th
BOTANY
101. Answer (4)
Sol: The code is unambiguous and specific: Each
triplet codon specifies one specific amino acid only
(except 3 stop codons). The Codons are non-
overlapping, means in a triplet codon, each
nucleotide is part of that codon only. This property
ensures that the translation of genetic information
is specific and without ambiguity.
The code is nearly universal: With few exceptions,
the genetic code dictionary is the same for all the
organisms across prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
The universality of the genetic code allowed the
emergence of r- DNA technology.
The code is palindromic: This statement is
incorrect. A palindromic sequence is one that
reads the same backward and forward. The
genetic code is not palindromic.
UGA acts as an initiator codon: This statement is
incorrect. UGA is one of the three stop codons in
the genetic code. A stop codon do not specify any
amino acid thus leads to termination of protein
synthesis.
102. Answer (4)
Sol: Conventional breeding is often constrained by
the availability of limited number of disease
resistance genes that are present and identified in
various crops or wild relatives.
Selection among soma clonal variants and genetic
engineering are necessarily not methods of
conventional plant breeding
103. Answer (1)
Sol: High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sulphur
content in maize leads to resistance to Stem
borers.
104. Answer (3)
Sol: CCC codon is the codon for proline.
105. Answer (1)
Sol: Statement (A): Neither does any
complementarity exist between nucleotides and
amino acids, nor could be drawn theoretically
Statement (B):
(5)
Term Test - 04
Change in genetic material were responsible for
change in amino acid in proteins.
106. Answer (2)
Sol: Metabolic, physiological or environmental
conditions regulate the expression of gene.
Metabolic regulation example is lac operon,
physiological regulation example is insulin
production in response to blood sugar level,
environmental regulation example is the effect of
temperature on the expression of genes involved
in cold acclimation in plants.
107. Answer (2)
Sol: If the mRNA base sequence is UUG-CCU-
AAG-AGC-UGG, the amino acid sequence would
be
Leucine-Proline-Lysine-Serine- Tryptophan
UUG-Leu, CCU-Pro, AAG-Lys, AGC-Ser and
UGG-Trp.
108. Answer (1)
Sol: Transcriptional unit is DNA flanked on either
side by promoter and terminator. Translational
unit is mRNA flanked on either side by initiator
codon (AUG) and terminator codon
(UAA/UAG/UGA).
109. Answer (3)
Sol: Nectar-less cotton varieties do not attract
bollworms.
110. Answer (1)
Sol: Traditional plant breeding involves crossing
or hybridisation followed by artificial selection.
Classical plant breeding involves the deliberate
crossbreeding of two parent plants that exhibit
desired traits.
111. Answer (3)
Sol: Suffering of human beings from the deficiency
of Proteins, Micronutrients and Vitamins is called
as hidden hunger.. Diets lacking essential
micronutrients – particularly iron, vitamin A, iodine
and zinc – increase the risk for disease, reduce
lifespan and reduce mental abilities.
112. Answer (1)
NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th
Sol: Plants, bacteria, fungi, and animals whose
genes have been altered by manipulation are
called genetically modified organisms (GMO).
113. Answer (3)
Sol: mRNA is synthesizing in nucleus. So mRNA
transports from nucleus to cytoplasm. Then this
mRNA is allowed for protein synthesis.
114. Answer (4)
Sol: P - gene y, Q- repressor, R - transacetylase.
115. Answer (4)
Sol: Gene 'y' of lac operon has information for the
formation of permease which carries lactose into
the cell cytoplasm of E.coli.
116. Answer (3)
Sol: Spirulina is the filamentous blue green alga
used as SCP.
117. Answer (2)
Sol: A shift from grain to meat diet also rises more
demand for cereal crops as it required nearly 3-10
kgs of grains to produce 1000 grams of meat of
animals.
118. Answer (1)
Sol: Agriculture contributes about 33% of India’s
GDP and gives employment to nearly 62% of the
population.
119. Answer (2)
Sol: Hybrids are selected and evaluated for their
yield and other agronomic traits of qualities in
research fields. After this they are transferred to
farmer's field, for at least three growing seasons
at several locations in the country.
120. Answer (2)
Sol: Parbhanikranti is a Bhindi hybrid variety not a
mutant, but resist to yellow mosaic virus.
121. Answer (3)
Sol: Beta-galactosidase is the product of lac z
gene in E.coli. It hydrolyses lactose into glucose
and galactose.
122. Answer (3)
Sol: During artificial hybridization, the progeny is
superior to both parents, this is known as hybrid
vigor. These hybrids are self-pollinated for a few
(6)
Term Test - 04
successive generations in order to increase
homozygosity.
For stable inheritance of desired traits from
parents to off spring, it is essential for the parent
to be homozygous for the given trait.
123. Answer (4)
Sol: The repressor of the operon is synthesised
(all-the-time constitutively) from the i gene. The
repressor protein binds to the operator region of
the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from
transcribing the operon.
124. Answer (4)
Sol: Tropical canes grown in south India -
Saccharum officinarum had thicker stems and
higher sugar content but did not grow well in north
India
125. Answer (2)
Sol: Polynucleotide phosphorylase or Severo
Ochoa enzyme can add ribonucleotides while
synthesising RNA in template independent
manner. This enzyme is named after Severo
Ochoa for his discovery of mechanism of
synthesis.
126. Answer (4)
Sol: Diets lacking essential micronutrients –
particularly iron, vitamin A, iodine and zinc –
increase the risk for disease, reduce lifespan and
reduce mental abilities
127. Answer (1)
Sol: Outbreeding is an important strategy of
animal husbandry because it is useful in
overcoming inbreeding depression.
Inbreeding depression is a phenomenon in which
the offspring of closely related individuals exhibit
reduced fitness, fertility or productivity. This
occurs because inbreeding increases the
likelihood of inheriting harmful recessive genes
from both parents, which can lead to genetic
disorders, reduced fertility and other negative
effects.
Inbreeding depression can be overcome through
outbreeding. Outbreeding can bring new alleles
into the population, increasing genetic diversity
and reducing the prevalence of harmful recessive
NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th Term Test - 04

genes. A single outcross often helps overcome
inbreeding depression.
Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that
can be eliminated by selection.
Selective inbreeding helps in accumulation of
superior genes.
Inbreeding is useful in producing purelines of
animals.
128. Answer (3)
Sol: Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice
of breeding and raising livestock.
Sol: For sequencing of human genome, the total
DNA from a cell is isolated and converted into
random fragments of relatively smaller sizes.
These fragments were inserted into a vector (e.g.,
BAC or YAC), and introduced into a suitable host
cell (e.g., bacteria or yeast). Then, each time the
host cell divides, it replicates the DNA sequence
along with its own DNA. The cloning resulted in
amplification of each piece of DNA fragment so
that it subsequently could be sequenced with
ease.
137. Answer (4)

129. Answer (3) Sol: lac z gene can hydrolyse lactose as glucose
and galactose and can also convert the lactose as
Sol: The average human gene consists of 3,000
allolactose. i.e. can act as hydrolase as well as
bp but sizes vary greatly, with the largest known
isomerase.
human gene being dystrophin gene with 2.4
million bp. 138. Answer (1)
130. Answer (4) Sol:

Sol: Hallucinogens (psychedelics) are a class of Column I Column II

drugs that cause distortions in a person's
(Plant disease (Pathogen)
perceptions of reality. The influence of
hallucinogens users might see images, feel (A) Black rot of crucifers (II) Bacteria
sensations, hear sounds that seems to be real but
aren't. (B) Turnip mosaic disease (I) Virus

Cocaine (obtain from Erythroxylem coca), Datura (C) Red rot of sugarcane (IV) Fungi
and Atropa are hallucinogens.
(D) Root knot of tobacco (III) Nematode
131. Answer (3)
Sol: Hisardale is developed by crossing Bikaneri 139. Answer (2)
ewes and Marino rams. So, it is a crossbreed. Sol: Frame-shift mutations occur when a base
132. Answer (1) insertion or deletion from the sequence. Here ATE
is inserted.
Sol: Human protein, α1-antitrypsin obtained from
140. Answer (1)
a transgenic sheep is used to treat emphysema.
Sol: A best plant breeder tries to produce a variety
133. Answer (4)
Which trait or character that he has firstly tried to
Sol: The first clinical gene therapy was given for incorporate into crop plants Increase crop yield
the deficiency of adenosine de aminase enzyme and improved quality
134. Answer (1) 141. Answer (2)
Sol: Mule is formed by interspecific hybridisation. Sol: Pusa gaurav and Pusa swarnim are the
135. Answer (4) varieties of Brassica. Pusa swarnim is resistant to
Sol: The DMD gene, encoding the dystrophin white rust disease. Pusa gaurav is resistant to
protein covers 2.3 megabases (0.08%) of the aphids.
human genome 142. Answer (3)
136. Answer (1) Sol: The products of regulatory genes may be
either activators that promote the binding of RNA

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NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th
polymerase to the promoter of structural genes or
repressors which bind to the sequences known as
operators usually present after promoter.
Repressors bind to the operator sequences and
bring about some conformational change at the
promoter and prevent the binding of RNA
polymerase to the promoter.
143. Answer (3)
Sol: Atlas 66 has high protein content and used as
donor for improving cultivated wheat.
144. Answer (4)
Sol: Nectar less cotton does not attract bollworms.
It is a plant breeding technique in which the plants
develop resistance to insects pest.
145. Answer (1)
Sol: Plant breeding for improved nutritional quality
is undertaken with the objectives of improving – (i)
Protein content and quality; (ii) Oil content and
quality; (iii) Vitamin content; and (iv) Micronutrient
and mineral content.
ZOOLOGY
151. Answer (1)
Sol: The flower tops, leaves and the resin of
cannabis plant are used in various combinations
to produce marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja.
152. Answer (2)
Sol: Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release
adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood
circulation, both of which raise blood pressure and
increase heart rate.
153. Answer (2)
Sol: The period between 10-18 years of age may
be thought of as adolescence period.
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Term Test - 04
146. Answer (2)
Sol: Homozygosity is increased by inbreeding,
while heterozygosity is obtained by out breeding
devices.
Inter specific hybridisation in animals allows
production of sterile offspring mostly.
147. Answer (2)
Sol: Repetitive DNA forms the basis of DNA
fingerprinting.
148. Answer (2)
Sol: Honeybee produce beeswax, which finds
many uses in industry, such as in the preparation
of cosmetics and polishes of various kinds.
149. Answer (4)
Sol: Continued inbreeding, especially close
breeding reduces fertility and productivity.
150. Answer (2)
Sol: Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases
are exactly the same in all people.
Largest known human gene is dystrophin with 2.4
million bases.
SNPs occur at 1.4 million locations in human
genome (not billion).
Chromosome 1 itself has 2968 genes.
So, there are far more number of genes
154. Answer (4)
Sol: Mental illness
155. Answer (3)
Sol: Cannabinoid receptors are present in brain
156. Answer (3)
Sol: Cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca
157. Answer (1)
Sol: Morphine is extracted from the latex of poppy
plant.
158. Answer (1)
NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th
Sol: The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
the plasmid vector became possible with DNA
ligase. DNA ligase is an enzyme that is able to join
together two portions of DNA and therefore plays
an important role in DNA repair. DNA ligase is also
used in recombinant DNA technology as it
ensures that the foreign DNA is bound to the
plasmid into which it is incorporated.
159. Answer (2)
Sol: DNA or RNA segment tagged with a
radioactive molecule is called probe. They are
used to detect the presence of complementary
sequences in nucleic acid samples. Probes are
used for identification and isolation of DNA and
RNA.
160. Answer (1)
Sol: Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that
makes cuts at specific positions within the DNA
molecule. They acts as molecular scissors. They
recognise specific base sequence at palindromic
sites in DNA duplex and cut its strands.
161. Answer (4)
Sol: In gel electrophoresis, agarose extracted
from sea weed used as gel agarose, made of
0.7% gel show good resolution of large DNA and
2% gel will show good resolution of small
fragments.
162. Answer (4)
Sol: PCR and Restriction Fragment Length
Polymorphism are the methods for : Genetic
fingerprinting
163. Answer (2)
Sol: Cloning is the production of an organism with
exactly similar genetic make up as in the mother
individual. Cloning is done to preserve genotype
of an individual. This is achieved by cell culture,
tissue culture or genetic engineering.
164. Answer (4)
Sol: Retrovirus has the ability to transform normal
cells into cancerous cells. Hence, it can used as a
vector for cloning desirable genes into animal
cells.
165. Answer (3)
Sol: Electroporation is the method of making cell
membrane permeable for the entry of recombinant
DNA into the bacteria.
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Term Test - 04
166. Answer (3)
Sol: The Southern blot is used to detect and
identify certain DNA sequences in a sample of
bodily fluid. It uses single-stranded DNA to search
out their complementary strands. When a
Southern blot is performed on DNA, the first step
is digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes.
Restriction enzymes cut DNA at known
sequences, and produces DNA fragments of a
certain length. Once the DNA is cut into pieces,
scientists conduct electrophoresis to separate
them by size.
167. Answer (1)
Sol: PCR is now a common and often
indispensable technique, developed in 1984 by
Kary Mullis, used in medical and biological
research labs for a variety of applications. These
include DNA cloning for sequencing, DNA-based
phylogeny, or functional analysis of genes; the
diagnosis of hereditary diseases; the identification
of genetic fingerprints (used in forensic sciences
and paternity testing); and the detection and
diagnosis of infectious diseases. In 1993, Mullis
won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his work on
PCR.
168. Answer (4)
Sol: For gene transfer into the host cell without
using vector microparticles made of tungsten and
gold coated with foreign DNA are bombarded into
target cells at a very high velocity.
169. Answer (2)
Sol: The first fecombinant DNA was constructed
by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972.
They cut the piece of DNA from a plasmid carrying
antibotic-resistance gene in the bacterium
Salmonella typhimurium and linked it to the
plasmid of Escherichia coli. The vector transfers
the piece of DNA attached to it.
170. Answer (1)
Sol: Genetic engineering is the artificial synthesis,
isolation, modification, combination, addition and
repair of the genetic material (DNA) to alter the
phenotype of the host organims to suit human
needs. It is the manipulation of genes by man in
vitro. Restriction endonucleases play major role in
genetic engineering as they can cut DNA at
specific sites.
NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th
171. Answer (3)
Sol: Electrophoresis is a technique of separation
of molecules such as DNA, RNA or protein, under
the influence of an electrical field, so that they
migrate in the direction of electrode bearing the
opposite charge, viz, positively charged molecule
move towards cathode (–ve electrode) and
negatively charged molecues travel towards
anode (+ve electrode) under an electric filed
through a matrix of agarose gel. The DNA
fragments separate according to their size through
the agarose gel, with smaller fragments moving
farther away as compared to larger ones. The
DNA fragments can be visualized by staining them
with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
radiations. Bright orange coloured bands of DNA
can be observed. The separated DNA bands are
then cut out from the agarose gel and extracted
from the gel piece. This step is known as elution.
The DNA fragments purified in this manner are
used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining
them with cloning vectors.
172. Answer (3)
Sol: The DNA used as a carrier for transferring a
fragment of foreign DNA into a suitable hosts is
called vehicle DNA of cloning vector or gene
carrier. When desired gene is introduced into a
vector, recombinant DNA is formed. Vectors may
be plasmids, bacteriophages, cosmids,
phagemids, Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)
Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs),
transposons, viruses, etc.
173. Answer (4)
Sol:
174. Answer (2)
Sol: ELISA
175. Answer (4)
Sol: Escherichia coli is a bacterium found in
human colon. On this bacterium scientists have
made extensive genetic experiments to make
some vital chemicals like insulin. Another
176. Answer (3)
Sol: Transformation is a process by which a cell
takes up naked DNA fragment from the
environment, incorporates it into its own
chromosomal DNA and finally expresses the trait
controlled by the incoming DNA. Since DNA is a
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Term Test - 04
hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through
membranes, so that bacterial cells must be made
competent to take up DNA. This is done by
treating them with a specific concentration of a
divalent cation, such as calcium (Ca2+) which
increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the
bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
Recombination DNA (rDNA) can then be forced
into such cells by incubating them briefly at 42° C
(heat shock), and then putting them back on ice.
This enables the bacteria to take up the
recombination DNA.
177. Answer (3)
Sol: Polymerase chain reaction is a technique
used to replicate a fragment of DNA so as to
produce many copies of a particular DNA
sequence. A single PCR amplification cycle
involves three basic steps: denaturation,
annealing and extension
178. Answer (1)
Sol: Eukaryotic genes do not function properly
when transferred into bacterial cell because
introns are present in eukaryotic cells but are
absent in prokaryotic cells. Hence, when bacterial
cell is transformed with recombinant DNA
generated using human gene, it could not process
it. As a result desired protein will not be produced.
179. Answer (2)
Sol: Plasmid
180. Answer (2)
Sol: Deleting tumour forming genes
181. Answer (1)
Sol: Northern blotting
182. Answer (3)
Sol: DNA Legase
183. Answer (4)
Sol: Direct gene transfer is the transfer of naked.
DNA into plant cells but the presence of rigid plant
cell wall acts as a barrier to uptake. Therefore,
protoplasts are the favoured target for direct gene
transfer. Polyethylene glycol mediated DNA
uptake is a direct gene transfer method that
utilizes the interaction between polyethylene
glycol, naked DNA, salts and the protoplast
membrane to effect transport of the DNA into the
cytoplasm
NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th
184. Answer (3)
Sol: Common activities in bioinformatics include
mapping and analysing DNA and protein
sequences, aligning different DNA etc. are the part
of human genome project.
185. Answer (1)
Sol: Dolly sheep was obtained by cloning the
udder cell (somatic cell) fused with enucleated
oocyte.
186. Answer (1)
Sol:
187. Answer (1)
Sol:
188. Answer (2)
Sol: Biowar or biological war or bioterrorism is the
development of biological weapons against
people, their crops and animals
189. Answer (4)
Sol: The transgenic food, containing enzyme
190. Answer (3)
Sol: Two cry genes, cry IAc and cry IIAb have
been incorporated in cotton. The genetically
modified crop is called Bt cotton as it contains Bt
toxin genes. The genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab
control cotton bollworms.
191. Answer (3)
Sol: Hirudin is a protein that stops blood clotting.
The gene encoding hirudin was chemically
synthesized. This gene was then transferred ito
Brassica napus, where hirudin accumulates in
seeds. The hirudin is purified and used as
medicine.
192. Answer (4)
Sol: Using conventional methods of diagnosis
(serum and urine analysis, etc.) early detection is
not possible. Recombinant DNA technology,
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Term Test - 04
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and Enzyme
Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) are some
of the techniques that serve the purpose of early
diagnosis.
193. Answer (2)
Sol: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that
allows correction of gene defect that has been
diagonsed in a child/embryo. Correcting of a
genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene
into the individual or embryo to take over the
function of and compensate for the non-functional
gene.
194. Answer (1)
Sol: Bioethics may be viewed as the set of
standards that may be used to regulate various
activities based on their effects on the biological
world. This is because biotechnology has aroused
social as well as political concerns, which have
ranged from biotechnology being unnatural to
detrimental to biodiversity.
195. Answer (3)
Sol: Tomato Transgenic variety
196. Answer (4)
Sol: All of the above
197. Answer (2)
Sol: Human Insulin is produced commercially
198. Answer (2)
Sol: It will help in Vitamin A
199. Answer (1)
Sol: It is produced by streptomyces
200. Answer (2)
Sol: They are having transposition