REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST AIR LAW REGULATION AND OPS PROC 4

FLIGHT DISPATCH: AIR LAW, REGULATION & OPS PROC 4

Preparation Test 4 (PT4)

Purpose: This test contains nine parts/lesson. The purpose of this mastery test is to:
 To check the trainee competency and readiness to attempt the CAA Flight
Dispatch paper 1 Examination

References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

 Only the test items booklet for Preparation Test 4, PT4 and the answer
sheet.

Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

 Answer all questions because each carry 1 mark.
 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
 Remember to stay clear of any document that will be used against you as an
exhibit.
 If you need more plain sheets, just raise up your hand and someone will
attend to you.

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1. What Requirement Must Be Met Regarding Cargo That Is Carried Anywhere In the Passenger
Compartment of an Air Carrier Airplane?
A-The Bin In Which The Cargo Is Carried May Not Be Installed In A Position That Restricts Access
To, Or Use Of, Any Exit.
B-The Bin In Which The Cargo Is Carried May Not Be Installed In A Position That Restricts Access
To, Or Use Of, Any Aisle In The Passenger Compartment.=
C-The Container Or Bin In Which The Cargo Is Carried Must Be Made Of Material Which Is At Least
Flash Resistant.

2. Which Restriction Applies To A Cargo Bin In A Passenger Compartment? The Bin

A- May Have An Open Top If It Is Placed In Front Of The Passengers And The Cargo Is Secured By
A Cargo Net.
B-Must Withstand The Load Factor Required Of Passenger Seats, Multiplied By 1.15, Using the
Combined Weight of the Bin And The Maximum Weight Of The Cargo That May Be Carried In The
Bin.=
C- Must Be Constructed Of Flame Retardant Material And Fully Enclosed.

3. Each Large Aircraft Operating Over Water Must Have a Life Preserver for Each
A- Aircraft Occupant. =
B- Seat on the Aircraft.
C- Passenger Seat, Plus 10 Percent.

4- Life Preservers Required For Over-water Operations Are Stored

A-Within Easy Reach of Each Passenger.
B-Under Each Occupant Seat.
C-Within Easy Reach of Each Seated Occupant.=

5. For a Flight over Uninhabited Terrain, an Airplane Operated By Air Carrier Must Carry Enough
Appropriately Equipped Survival Kits For
A-All of the Passengers, Plus 10 Percent.
B-All Aircraft Occupants. =
C-All Passenger Seats.

6. If A Flight Engineer Becomes Incapacitated During Flight, Who May Perform The Flight
Engineer's Duties?
A- The Second in Command Only.
B- Any Flight Crewmember, If Qualified.=
C- Either Pilot, If They Have a Flight Engineer Certificate.

7. An Air Carrier Uses an Airplane That Is Certified for Operation with a Flight crew Of Two Pilots
and One Flight Engineer. In Case the Flight Engineer Becomes Incapacitated,
A- At Least One Other Flight Crewmember Must Be Qualified To Perform Flight Engineer Duties.=
B- One Crewmember Must Be Qualified To Perform The Duties Of The Flight Engineer.
C-One Pilot Must Be Qualified And Have A Flight Engineer Certificate To Perform The Flight
Engineer Duties.

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8. An Airplane Has Seats For 149 Passengers And Eight Crewmembers. What Is the Minimum
Number of Flight Attendants Required With 97 Passengers Aboard?
A- Four.
B-Three.=
C-Two.

9. The Training Required By Flight Crewmembers Who Have Not Qualified and Served In the Same
Capacity on another Airplane of the Same Group E.g Turbojet Powered Is
A- Upgrade Training.
B- Transition Training.
C- Initial Training.=

10. A Crewmember Who Has Served As Second In Command (Sic) On a Particular Type Airplane
(E.G., B727-100), May Serve As Pilot in Command upon Completing Which Training Program?
A- Upgrade Training. =
B- Recurrent Training.
C -Initial Training.

11. The Training Required For Crewmembers or Dispatchers Who Have Been Qualified and Served In
the Same Capacity on Other Airplanes of the Same Group Is
A-Difference Training.
B-Transition Training.=
C-Upgrade Training.

12. The Air Carrier Must Give Instruction on Such Subjects as Respiration, Hypoxia, and
Decompression to Crewmembers Serving on Pressurized Airplanes Operated Above
A-FL 180.
B-FL 200.
C-FL 250.=

13. How Often Must A Crewmember Actually Operate The Airplane Emergency Equipment, After
Initial Training? Once Every
A-6 Calendar Months.
B-12 Calendar Months.
C-24 Calendar Months.=

14. A Person who’s Duties Include the Handling or Carriage of Dangerous Articles and/or Magnetized
Materials Must Have Satisfactorily Completed an Established and Approved Training Program within
the Preceding
A-24 Calendar Months. =
B-12 Calendar Months.
C- 6 Calendar Months.

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15. Which Is One Of The Requirements That Must Be Met By A Required Pilot Flight Crewmember
In Reestablishing Recency Of Experience?
A-At Least One Landing Must Be Made With A Simulated Failure Of The Most Critical Engine.
B-At Least One ILS Approach To The Lowest ILS Minimums Authorized For The Certificate Holder
And A Landing From That Approach.=
C-At Least Three Landings Must Be Made To A Complete Stop.

16. What Is One Of The Requirements That Must Be Met By An Airline Pilot To Reestablish Recency
Of Experience?
A-At Least One Landing Must Be Made From A Circling Approach.
B-At Least One Full Stop Landing Must Be Made.=
C-At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate
holder.

17. What is one of the requirements that must be met by a pilot in command to re-establish recency of
experience?
A) At least one full stop landing must be made from a circling approach.
B) Three takeoffs and landings must be made as the sole manipulator of the controls, in the type, if a
type rating is required, if not in the same category and class aircraft that the person is to serve.=
C) At least one non-precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the
certificate holder.

18. What Are The Line Check Requirements For The Pilot In Command For A Domestic Air Carrier?
A-The Line Check Is Required Every 12 Calendar Months In One Of The Types Of Airplanes To Be
Flown.=
B-The Line Check Is Required Only When The Pilot Is Scheduled To Fly Into Special Areas And
Airports.
C-The Line Check Is Required Every 12 Months In Each Type Aircraft In Which The Pilot May Fly.

19. A Pilot in Command Must Complete a Proficiency Check or Simulator Training Within the
Preceding
A-6 Calendar Months.=
B-12 Calendar Months.
C-24 Calendar Months.

20. A Pilot Flight Crewmember, Other Than Pilot in Command, Must Have Received a Proficiency
Check or Line-Oriented Simulator Training within the Preceding
A-6 Calendar Months. =
B-12 Calendar Months.
C-24 Calendar Months.

21. To Remain Current as an Aircraft Dispatcher, a Person Must, In Addition To Other Requirements,
A-Within The Preceding 12 Calendar Months, Spend 2.5 Hours Observing Flight Deck Operations,
Plus Two Additional Takeoffs and Landings, In One of the Types of Airplanes in Each Group He/She
Is To Dispatch.
B-Within the Preceding 12 Calendar Months, Spend At Least 5 Hours Observing Flight Deck
Operations in One of the Types Of Airplanes In Each Group He/She Is To Dispatch.=
C-Within The Preceding 12 Calendar Months, Spend At Least 5 Hours Observing Flight Deck
Operations In Each Type Of Airplane, In Each Group That He/She Is To Dispatch.

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22. Normally, A Dispatcher Should Be Scheduled For No More Than

A-Hours of Service in Any 24 Consecutive Hours.
B-10 Hours of Duty in Any 24 Consecutive Hours.
C-10 Consecutive Hours of Duty.=

23. If a Certificate holder Schedules a Dispatcher for 13 Hours of Duty In a 24-Consecutive-Hour

Period, What Action Is Required?
A-The Dispatcher Should Be Given A Rest Period of 24 Hours at the End of the 13 Hours.
B-The Dispatcher Should Refuse To Be On Duty 13 Hours as the NCAR Limits the Duty Period to 10
Consecutive Hours.
C-The Dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10
hours of duty=

24-What is the critical phase of a flight?

A-Taxi, Takeoff, Landing, and All Other Operations Conducted Below 10,000 Feet MSL, Including
Cruise Flight.
B-Descent, Approach, Landing, and Taxi Operations, Irrespective Of Altitudes MSL.
C-Taxi, Takeoff, Landing, And All Other Operations Conducted Below 10,000 Feet, Excluding Cruise
Flight. =

25. Each Crewmember shall have readily available for Individual Use on Each Flight a
A-Key to the Flight Deck Door.
B-Certificate Holder's Manual.
C-Flash Light in Good Working Order.=

26. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic Air Carrier Flight?
A-Load Manifest (Or Information from It) and Flight Release.
B-Dispatch Release, Weight and Balance Release.
C-Dispatch Release, Load Manifest (Or Information from It), and Flight Plan.=

27. How Long Shall an Air Carrier or Commercial Operator Retain a Record of the Load Manifest,
Airworthiness Release, Pilot Route Certification, flight Release, And Flight Plan?
A-1 Month.
B-3 Months.=
C-12 Months,

28. A Domestic Air Carrier Shall Keep Copies of the Flight Plans, Dispatch Releases, and Load
Manifests for At Least
A- 3 Months.=
B- 6 Months.
C- 30 Days.

29-what information must the PIC of a commercial Air operator carry to the destination airport?
A-Cargo and passenger distribution information
B-Copy of the flight plan=
C-Names of all crewmembers and designated PIC.

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30-what is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating –engine-powered airplane may be operated
within class B airspeed?
A-180 knots
B-230 knots
C-250 knots=

31-at what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated in

within class D airspace?
A-156 knots
B-180 knots
C-200 knots=

32-an airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which
emergency equipment?
A-A signal mirror and colored smoke flares.
B-Survival kit for each passenger.
C-An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.=

33-during a supplemental or non-schedule air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining
information on meteorological conditions?
A-Aircraft dispatcher=
B-Pilot in command
C-Director of operations or flight follower.

34-when is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each
destination airport within?
A-When the forecast weather indicate s the ceiling will be less than 1000 feet and visibility less than 2
miles at the estimated time of arrival.
B-On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the
destination.=
C-When flight is schedule for than more than 6 hours en route.

35-The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is

a. 30 minutes of holding fuel consumption 1,500 feet above the destination of alternate airport
b. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the most distant alternate
airport=
c. 45 minutes of holding fuel consumption 1,500 feet above the destination of alternate airport

36-A turbine-engine-powered commercial air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no
available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
A-2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
B-2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption=
C-30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

37-What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport
for a two-engine airplane?
A-1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating.
B-1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.=
C-2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

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38-if a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums,
what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure
Airport?
A-Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative.
B-Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative=
C-Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

39-when a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier Flight, it must be located at a
distance not greater than
A-2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not
functioning.=
B-1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C-2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

40-the minimum weather condition that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the
dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
A-those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to
arrive.
B-those specified in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport, when the flight
arrives.=
C-those listed on the NOAA IAP Charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA
for that flight.

41-the pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that
might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?
A-the PIC may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude.
B-the PIC shall not continue flight into the icing condition=
C-the flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used.

42-when a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, applicant is
A-Required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
B-Is not require to have a medical certificate.=
C-Required to have a first-class medical certificate

43-when a temporary replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum
time is the document valid?
A-30 days
B-60 days=
C-90 days

44-What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a
cabin pressure in excess of 15000 feet? Enough oxygen for
A-Each passenger for the entire flight above 15000 feet cabin altitude.=
B-30 percent of the passengers.
C-10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

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45-to be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a category II authorization; what recent
instrument approach experience is required?
A-within the previous 6months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the category I DH
by use of an approach coupler.=
B-within the previous 6months, six ILS approaches, flown by the use of approach coupler to the
category I DH.
C-within the previous 12months, Three ILS approaches, flown by the use of an approach coupler to
the category II DH.

46. What Is the Minimum Number of Acceptable Oxygen-Dispensing Units for First-Aid Treatment
Of Occupants Who Might Require Undiluted Oxygen for Physiological Reasons?
A-Two.=
B-Four.
C-Three.

47-The Supplemental Oxygen Requirements for Passengers When a Flight Is Operated at FL 250 Is
Dependent upon the Airplane’s Ability to Make an Emergency Descent to a Flight Altitude of Feet
A-10,000 Feet within 4 Minutes.
B-14,000Feet within 4 Minutes.=
C-12,000 Feet Within 4 Minutes Or At A Minimum Rate Of 2,500 Ft/Min, Whichever Is Quicker.

48-What Is the Highest Flight Level That Operations May Be Conducted Without the Pilot At The
Controls Wearing and Using Oxygen Mask, While the Other Pilot Is Away From the Duty Station?
A-FL 240
B-FL 250=
C-Above FL 250

49-How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder kept, in the event of an accident or
Occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
A-60 days.=
B-90 days.
C-30 days.

50-A Passenger Briefing By a Crewmember Shall Be Given, Instructing Passengers on the Necessity
of Using Oxygen In the Event of Cabin Depressurization, Prior To Flights Conducted Above
A-FL 200.
B-FL 240.
C-FL 250.=

51-In What Altitude Structure Is a Transponder Required When Operating In Controlled Airspace
A-Above 12,500ft MSL, Excluding the Airspace At and Below 2500ft AGL
B-Above 10,000ft MSL, Excluding the Airspace At and Below 2500ft AGL=
C-Above 14,500ft MSL, Excluding the Airspace At and Below 2500ft AGL

52-The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be
assigned by the
A-Pilot in command.
B-Air carrier’s chief pilot.
C-Certificate holder.=

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53-What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two
engines on an air carrier airplane?
A-Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of
time.=
B-Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.
C-Land at the nearest suitable airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

54- What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a commercial or
domestic air carrier flight?
A-Departure airport, intermediates stops, destinations, alternate airport and trip number.=
B-Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C-Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

55. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

A-The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the AIP IAP book.
B-2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA.
C-The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.=

56-An Alternate Airport For Takeoff Is Required ………

A-If Weather Conditions Are Below Authorized Landing Minimums at the Departure Airport.=
B-When the Weather Forecast at ETD Is For Landing Minimum Only At the Departure Airport.
C-When Destination Weather Is Marginal VFR Ceiling Less Than 3000ft and Visibility Less than
5Sm

57-Which Of The Following Is True About Dangerous Goods……….

A-One That the Minister Authorizes To Carry
B-Good Specify Under Part Or Articles Of Air Regulation.
C-All of the above=

58-No AOC Holder Should Allow an Airplane To Depart Without A………………..

A-Payload
B-Passengers Manifest
C-Radio Transmitter That Transmit On 121.4 To 406MHZ=

59-How long an AOC Holder can keep a Copy of Flight Release………

A-6months
B-3months =
C-9months

60-What Information on the passenger manifest does The Pilot Take to the Destination..
A-Cargo
B-Baggage
C-Name of Passengers=

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61. A commercial Air Carrier Shall Keep Copies of the Flight Plans, Dispatch Releases, and Load
Manifests for At Least
A-3 Months.=
B-6 Months.
C-30 Days.

62-At what minimum altitude a turbine-powered or large airplane is allowed to enter class D
airspace…..
A-2000ft AGL
B-2500FT AGL
C-1500FT AGL=

63-What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A-Sweep off as much snow as possible and residue must be polished smooth
B-Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane=
C-Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off

64-What a pilot need on a VFR flight at night?

A-Navigation light, chart, indicated airspeed and VSI
B-Navigation light, chart, indicated airspeed and Magnetic compass=
C-Navigation light, chart, indicated airspeed and Pitot heated magnetic compass

65-At what altitude except when in cruise flight are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew
member prohibited
A-Up to 10,000ft=
B-10,000ft
C-Above 10,000ft

66-Use of checklist in an emergency

A-Upper and lower case texts may confuse the dispatcher
B-Routine checklist is responded to automatically rather than diligently=
C-The dispatcher may be confused.

67-Loadsheet is carried on
A-all aircraft category except private
B-all aircraft category
C-all air transport category=

68-Special VFR is permitted by

A-Day and night
B-When the visibility is less than 1500m
C-Day=

69-No pilot shall act as pic on an instrument approach unless, the pilot has within the preceding 90
days completed
A-Two actual approach in IMC=
B-Two simulator approach
C-One actual approach in IMC

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70-No person shall act as pic of an Aeroplane under IFR, or in weather condition less than the
minimum prescribed for VFR unless
A-The pilot hold CPL license with instrument ratings
B-The pilot holds ATP licenses with an appropriate Aeroplane category, class and type rating for any
type of Aeroplane
C-The pilot holds an instrument rating or ATP license with an appropriate Aeroplane category, class
and type (if require) rating for the Aeroplane being flown.=

71-No person shall act as PLC of a civil aircraft in a category ii or iii operation unless
A-He or she instrument rated on the aircraft type for the category ii & iii
B-He or she I medical fit and hold valid license issued by NCAA
C-He or she has a current category ii & iii pilot authorization for that type of aircraft=

72-At What Minimum Altitude Is A Turbine-Engine Powered, Or Large Airplane Is Allow To Enter
Class D Airspace………..
A-2000ft AGL
B-2500ft AGL
C-1500ft AGL=

73-Unless Otherwise Authorized, When Is The PIC Required To Hold A Type Rating?
A-When Operating an Aircraft That Is Certificated For More Than One Pilot
B-When Operating a Multi-Engine Aircraft Having a Gross Weight of More than 6000 Pounds
C-When Operating an Aircraft Having Gross Weight of More than 12000Ibs (5700kg)=

74-No pilot should act as a pilot in command of an instrument approach in IMC unless the pilot has
within the preceding 90 days completed at least?
a. 2 actual approach in IMC=
b. 2 simulated approaches
c. 1 actual approach in IMC

75-No aircraft owner or operator shall operate an aircraft without each seat being equipped with?
a. A seat belt=
b. A safety harness for all crew members
c. A seat belt for cabin crew members and a safety harness for each flight dock

76-DH for category 1 ILS shall in any event no be less than?

a. 200ft=
b. 150ft
c. 300ft

77-You are on the final approach to runway with a standard 3 bar VASI lighting system. the 2 rows of
lights closet to the aircraft are indicating white. Your action should be?
a. Climb as you are below the glide slope
b. Continue as you are on the glide slope
c. Descend as you are above the glide slope=

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78-A VFR flight may never be considered above?

a. Any cloud at all
b. Three eight of cloud within 5mm of A/C
c. five eight of cloud=

79-Load sheets are require for every aircraft of more than 1600kg?
a. The air transport category=
b. All categories
c. All categories except private

80-Before carrying passenger the pilot in command of an aircraft must have completed, on the aircraft
type in which he intends carrying passengers?
a. 5 take offs and landing in the preceding 90 days
b. 5 take-offs and landing in the preceding 6 months
c. 3 take-offs and landing in the preceding 90 days=

81-An airline transport pilot may not instruct in aircraft, approved flight simulators or other approved
flight training devices under Nigeria CAR part 2
a. For more than 8 hours in any 30 consecutive hour period
b. For more than 30 hours in any 7-consecutive day period
c. For more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive hours period=

82-For Aeroplane having a crew of one or two pilot the maximum flying time in 7 consecutive day is
a. 32 hours=
b. 34 hours
c. 24hours

83-A pilot who has completed instrument competency check with the authority retain currency for IFR
operations with effect from the date the check was done for period of
a. 3 months
b. 6 months=
c. 12 months

84-As stated in path 8 CAR’S the pilot of the aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen available if
flight in a non-pressurized aircraft are contemplated
a. Above 10, 000 feet=
b. Above14,000 feet
c. Above18, 000 feet

85-If a flight plan is to be filed in flight according to CAR’S part 8 section 57, at least how long must it
be filed before entering controlled or advisory airspace
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 10 minutes=

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86-Critical of phase of flight include all ground operation taxi, take off and climb to cruise
a. Up to 1500 feet
b. Above, 10,000 feet
c. Up to 10, 000feet=

87-Flight data recorder shall be recalibrated at least every

a. 3 years
b. 2 ears
c. 5 years=

88-Under part 8 of Nig.Cars minimum number of crew required for IFR commercial air transport
operation is
a. 3 flight crew
b. 2 flight crew=
c. 1 flight crew

89-The authority will consider a flight crew member to be on continuous duty aloft unless he or she
receives a rest of
a. 10 consecutive hours on the ground
b. 9 consecutive hours on the ground=
c. 8 consecutive hours on the ground

90-Who is responsible for designing a qualified person to exercise the functions and he responsibility
for operation control of each flight in commercial transport?
a. The director of operation
b. the managing director
c. AOC holder=

91-To be eligible for the practice test for the renewal of a category ii authorization, what recent
instrument approach experience is required?
A-Within the previous 6 month ,six ILS approaches three of which may be flown to category I DH by
use of an approach coupler=
B-Within the previous 6 month , six ILS approach flown by use of an approach coupler to the category
1 DH
C-within the previous 12 calendar month , tree ILS approach flown by use of an approach coupler to
the category ii DH

92-What instrument flight time may be logged by a second –in-command of an aircraft requiring two
pilots?
a. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight
instruments=
b. One half the time is on an IFR plan
c. One half the time the airplane is in actual conditions

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93-Category II ILS operation below 1600RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in
command has
A-Logged 90 hour’s flight time, 10 takeoffs and landing in make and model airplane and there category
ii ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR condition with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth
preceding month, in operations under 14CFR parts 91 and 121.
B-Made at least six category ii approach in actual IFR conditions with 100 foot DH within the preceding
12 calendar months
C-Logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and there category
ii ILS approach in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth
preceding month.=

94-The maximum numbers of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a
two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier is
A-35 hours
B-32 hours
C-30 hours =

95-Which of the following normally requires the pilot command to hold a type rating?
A-Any turbojet-powered airplane=
B-Any airplane which has a gross weight of 6, 000 pounds or more
C-Any multiengine airplane which is operated under interstate commerce.

96-A certificate holder is notified that a person specially authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be
aboard an aircraft, except in an emergency, how long before loading the flight should the air carrier be
notified?
A-Notification not required , if the certificate holder has a security co-ordinator
B-A minimum of 1 hour=
C-A minimum of 2 hours

97-What restriction applied to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin

A-May have an open top if placed in front of the passenger and the cargo is secured by a cargo net
B-Must with stand the load factor required of the passenger seat, multiplied by 1.15 using the combined
weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin=
C-Must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed

98-A crew member interphone is required on which plane?

A-a large airplane
B-a turbojet airplane
C-an airplane with more than 19 passenger seats=

99-each air carrier flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask
that can be rapidly on his face when operating at flight attitudes
A-Of FL260
B-Of FL250
C-Above FL250=

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # P1 Page 14

 REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST AIR LAW REGULATION AND OPS PROC 4

100-If either pilot of an airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL410, the other pilot
A-And the engineer shall put on their oxygen mask and breathe oxygen
B-Shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen=
C-Must have a quick-donning type oxygen available

END

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # P1 Page 15