Current Affair Aug2023

For Internal Circulation Only Not for Sale Current Affairs Aug 2023
Current Affairs August 2023
Rahul's IAS
Rahul’s IAS
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Complimentary Copy only for the students of Rahul’s IAS Page 1
INDEX
1. Abbreviations……………………………………………………………………………………………..…..3
2. General News: India………………………………………………………………………………………..4
3. General News: World…………………………………………………………………………………....35
4. Awards………………………………………………………………………………………………………….47
5. Legal and Indian Polity..…………………………………………………………………………........49
6. Personality: India…………………………………………………………………………………….......60
7. Personality: World…………………………………………………………………………………........62
8. Economics……………………………………………………………………………………………….......65
9. Science & Technology……………………………………………………………………………………75
10. Sports…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..97
11. Al Index report 2023…………………………………………………………………………………….110
12. Monsoon Session of 2023…………………………………………………………………………….117
13. 69th National Film Awards…………………………….……………………………………………..123
14. Essay………………………………………………………………………………………………………….136
15. Translation…………………………………………………………………………………………………149
16. Precise Writing.………………………………………………………………………………………… 159
17. Practice Paper-1………………………………………………………………………………………..…161
18. Practice Paper-2……………………………………………………………………………………..……211
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Abbreviations
1. ACTO- Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization

2. AI- Artificial Intelligence
3. ANIIDC- Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation
4. ASCA- Acoustic Side Channel Attack
5. BEE- Bureau of Energy Efficiency
6. BRI- Belt and Road Initiative
7. BVR- Beyond Visual Range
8. CGST- Central Goods and Services Tax
9. CWDT- Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal
10. DRDO- Defence Research & Development Organization
11. ECOWAS- Economic Community of West African States
12. EEZ- Exclusive Economic Zone
13. ENSO- El Nino Southern Oscillation
14. GeM- Government e-Marketplace
15. GIDH- Global Initiative on Digital Health
16. GRSE- Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd.
17. IAEA- International Atomic Energy Agency
18. IARC- International Agency for Research on Cancer
19. ICE- Internal Combustion Engine
20. IFFCO- Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
21. IGST- Integrated Goods and Services Tax
22. IUCN- International Union for Conservation of Nature
23. LEO- Low Earth Orbit
24. NCERT- National Council of Educational Research and Training
25. NESIDS- North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme
26. NITIE- National Institute of Industrial Engineering
27. NRF- National Research Foundation
28. RAM- Random Access Memory
29. RCAF- Royal Cambodian Armed Force
30. UMANG- Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance
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General News: India
1. Seven products from across India, including four from Rajasthan, were given the
Geographical Indication (GI) tag by the Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai. The GI
tags were secured by ‘Jalesar Dhatu Shilp’ (a metal craft), ‘Goa Mankurad Mango’, ‘Goan
Bebinca’, ‘Udaipur Koftgari Metal Craft’, ‘Bikaner Kashidakari Craft’, ‘Jodhpur Bandhej
Craft’, and ‘Bikaner Usta Kala Craft’.
 The application for the mankurad mango was filed by the All Goa Mango Growers
Association, Panaji. This variety of mango is also known as malcorada, cardozo
mankurad, corado, and Goa mankur. The Portuguese named the fruit malcorada, which
means ‘poor coloured’, and with time, it became mankurad aamo (mango) in Konkani.
 The application for the Goan bebinca was filed by the All Goa Bakers and Confectioners
Association. Bebinca, also known as the ‘queen of Goan desserts’, is a traditional Indo-
Portuguese pudding.
 At Jalesar in Uttar Pradesh’s Etah district, once the capital of Magadha king Jarasandha,
over 1,200 small units are engaged in making ‘Jalesar Dhatu Shilp’, including ghungrus
(anklets), ghantis (bells) and other decorative metal craft and brassware. The Thatheras
community, which resides in a mohalla (locality) named Hathuras, makes these
products.
 Among the four different crafts from Rajasthan given GI tags is ‘Udaipur Koftgari Metal
Craft’. According to the documents submitted to the GI Registry, weapons are
exquisitely ornamented by a complicated process of etching designs, heating, and then
cooling, intertwined with embedding gold and silver wire into the metal, pressing and
flattening it to a smooth surface with moonstone, and finally polishing it.
 The GI tag has also been secured by the ‘Bikaner Kashidakari Craft’ traditionally created
on cotton, silk or velvet with a variety of fine stitches and mirror-work, mainly for
objects associated with marriage, especially gift items. The mirrors are believed to repel
the ‘evil eye’ with their reflective surfaces. The weaving of fabrics by hand used to be
done by the Meghwal community in Bikaner and nearby districts.
 The ‘Jodhpur Bandhej Craft’ is the Rajasthani art of tying and dyeing. Bandhej is one of
the most famous textile art forms of Rajasthan. The fabrics used for Bandhej are muslin,
silk and voile. Cotton thread is used for tying the fabric.
 The ‘Bikaner Usta Kala Craft’ is also known as gold nakashi or gold manauti work due to
the prominence of its long-lasting golden colour. Untreated raw camel hide is processed
and moulded by the Dapgar community of leather craftspeople for the requirements of
the Usta.
2. The Railway Board has constituted a six-member high-level committee to suggest systemic
measures to ascertain mental health of RPF staff.
 The committee will examine the precautions to be taken before weapon is issued to RPF
personnel. We will also examine what type of weapon should be issued.
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 The committee will also give recommendations on how to ascertain if the staff is
mentally fit for deployment with weapon or otherwise, based on a medical
examination.
The Railway Board has asked the committee to review existing guidelines regarding physical
and mental health assessments and submit a report within three weeks.
The committee that will conduct the high-level inquiry into the incident is headed by Sanjay
Sankrityayan, Additional Director-General (ADG), RPF. It includes Inspector-Generals P.C.
Sinha and Ajoy Sadly, Principal Chief Security Commissioners of Western Railway and
Central Railway respectively; J.P. Rawat, Principal Chief Medical Director of North Central
Railway; Narsingh, Principal Chief Commercial Manager, North Western Railway; and Mr.
Prabhat, Principal Chief Personnel Officer of West Central Railway.
3. The Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, has launched the scheme, “Vivad se
Vishwas II – (Contractual Disputes), to effectively settle the pending contractual disputes of
government and government undertakings. The scheme was announced in the Union
Budget 2023-24 by the Union Finance Minister.
In Para 67 of the Union Budget speech, Union Finance Minister and Corporate Affairs Smt.
Nirmala Sitharaman had announced-
“To settle contractual disputes of government and government undertakings, wherein
arbitral award is under challenge in a court, a voluntary settlement scheme with
standardized terms will be introduced. This will be done offering graded settlement terms
depending on pendency level of the disputes”
The Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, had issued an order on 29.05.2023
indicating detailed guidelines of the scheme. The last date for submission of claims is
31.10.2023.
Cases satisfying the following criteria will be eligible for settlement under this scheme:
Status of dispute The award shall have been issued
upto the following date
Arbitral Award passed 31.01.2023
Court Award passed 30.04.2023
The scheme will apply to all domestic contractual disputes where one of the parties is either
the Government of India or an organisation working under its control.
Under the scheme, for Court Awards passed on or before 30.04.2023 the settlement
amount offered to the Contractor will be up to 85% of the net amount awarded/ upheld by
the court.
For Arbitral Awards passed on or before 31.01.2023, the settlement amount offered is up to
65% of the net amount awarded.
Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has developed a dedicated web-page for
implementation of this scheme. Eligible claims shall be processed only through GeM. For
non-GeM contracts of Ministry of Railways, contractors may register their claims on IREPS
(www.ireps.gov.in). The details of the scheme are available on the website of Ministry of
Finance, Department of Expenditure.
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4. Great Nicobar Development Plan is a planned mega infrastructure project for the southern
tip of Great Nicobar Island in Andaman Sea of India. The island is comes under the
administration of the Indian Union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Nicobar
district).
Total project costing Rs. ₹75,000 crore (US$9.4 b in 2022), conceived by NITI Aayog & being
developed by Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development
Corporation (ANIIDC), with geostrategic importance for defence, logistics, commerce and
industries, eco-tourism, coastal tourism, Coastal Regulation Zone, etc, has four components:
a) Galathea Bay International Container Transhipment Terminal (Galathea Bay ICTT): with
14.2 million TEUs (unit of cargo) capacity eventually.
b) Great Nicobar International Airport (GNIA): greenfield airport with peak hour capacity
of 4,000 passengers.
c) Great Nicobar Gas and Solar Power Plant (Great Nicobar GSPP): with 450-MVA
capacity, spread over 16,610 hectares.
d) Coastal cities: two new greenfield coastal cities.
Indian Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change's Expert Appraisal
Committee had already granted the environmental clearance in 2022 after considering the
environmental risks and mitigation strategies.
5. The Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023 passed by both the house of parliament. Bill
seeks to provide for the processing of digital personal data in a manner that recognizes both
the right of individuals to protect their personal data and the need to process personal data
for lawful purposes, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
The Bill provides for the processing of digital personal data in a manner that recognizes both
the rights of the individuals to protect their personal data and the need to process such
personal data for lawful purposes and for matters connected therewith or incidental
thereto.
i. The Bill protects digital personal data (that is, the data by which a person may be
identified) by providing for the following:
a. The obligations of Data Fiduciaries (that is, persons, companies and government
entities who process data) for data processing (that is, collection, storage or any
other operation on personal data);
b. The rights and duties of Data Principals (that is, the person to whom the data
relates); and
c. Financial penalties for breach of rights, duties and obligations.
The Bill also seeks to achieve the following:
a. Introduce data protection law with minimum disruption while ensuring
necessary change in the way Data Fiduciaries process data;
b. Enhance the Ease of Living and the Ease of Doing Business; and
c. Enable India’s digital economy and its innovation ecosystem.
ii. The Bill is based on the following seven principles:
a. The principle of consented, lawful and transparent use of personal data;
b. The principle of purpose limitation (use of personal data only for the purpose
specified at the time of obtaining consent of the Data Principal);
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c. The principle of data minimisation (collection of only as much personal data as is

necessary to serve the specified purpose);
d. The principle of data accuracy (ensuring data is correct and updated);
e. The principle of storage limitation (storing data only till it is needed for the
specified purpose);
f. The principle of reasonable security safeguards; and
g. The principle of accountability (through adjudication of data breaches and
breaches of the provisions of the Bill and imposition of penalties for the
breaches).
iii. The Bill has few other innovative features:
The Bill is concise and SARAL, that is, Simple, Accessible, Rational &Actionable Law
as it-
a. Uses plain language;
b. Contains illustrations that make the meaning clear;
c. contains no provisos (“Provided that…”); and
d. Has minimal cross-referencing.
iv. By using the word “she” instead of “he”, for the first time it acknowledges women in
Parliamentary law-making.
v. The Bill provides for following rights to the individuals:
a. The right to access information about personal data processed;
b. The right to correction and erasure of data;
c. The right to grievance redressal; and
d. The right to nominate a person to exercise rights in case of death or incapacity.
For enforcing his/her rights, an affected Data Principal may approach the Data
Fiduciary in the first instance. In case he/she is not satisfied, he/she can complain
against the Data Fiduciary to the Data Protection Board in a hassle-free manner.
vi. The Bill provides for following obligations on the data fiduciary:
a. To have security safeguards to prevent personal data breach;
b. To intimate personal data breaches to the affected Data Principal and the Data
Protection Board;
c. To erase personal data when it is no longer needed for the specified purpose;
d. To erase personal data upon withdrawal of consent;
e. To have in place grievance redressal system and an officer to respond to queries
from Data Principals; and
f. To fulfill certain additional obligations in respect of Data Fiduciaries notified as
Significant Data Fiduciaries, such as appointing a data auditor and conducting
periodic Data Protection Impact Assessment to ensure higher degree of data
protection.
vii. The Bill safeguards the personal data of children also.
a. The Bill allows a Data Fiduciary to process the personal data of children only with
parental consent.
b. The Bill does not permit processing which is detrimental to well-being of children
or involves their tracking, behavioural monitoring or targeted advertising.
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viii. The exemptions provided in the Bill are as follows:

a. For notified agencies, in the interest of security, sovereignty, public order, etc.;
b. For research, archiving or statistical purposes;
c. For startups or other notified categories of Data Fiduciaries;
d. To enforce legal rights and claims;
e. To perform judicial or regulatory functions;
f. To prevent, detect, investigate or prosecute offences;
g. To process in India personal data of non-residents under foreign contract;
h. For approved merger, demerger etc.; and
i. To locate defaulters and their financial assets etc.
ix. The key functions of the Board are as under:
a. To give directions for remediating or mitigating data breaches;
b. To inquire into data breaches and complaints and impose financial penalties;
c. To refer complaints for Alternate Dispute Resolution and to accept Voluntary
Undertakings from Data Fiduciaries; and
d. To advise the Government to block the website, app etc. of a Data Fiduciary who
is found to repeatedly breach the provisions of the Bill.
Key Features-
 Applicability: The Bill applies to the processing of digital personal data within India
where such data is: (i) collected online, or (ii) collected offline and is digitised. It will
also apply to the processing of personal data outside India if it is for offering goods or
services in India. Personal data is defined as any data about an individual who is
identifiable by or in relation to such data. Processing has been defined as wholly or
partially automated operation or set of operations performed on digital personal data.
It includes collection, storage, use, and sharing.
 Consent: Personal data may be processed only for a lawful purpose after obtaining the
consent of the individual. A notice must be given before seeking consent. The notice
should contain details about the personal data to be collected and the purpose of
processing. Consent may be withdrawn at any point in time. Consent will not be
required for ‘legitimate uses’ including: (i) specified purpose for which data has been
provided by an individual voluntarily, (ii) provision of benefit or service by the
government, (iii) medical emergency, and (iv) employment. For individuals below 18
years of age, consent will be provided by the parent or the legal guardian.
 Rights and duties of data principal: An individual whose data is being processed (data
principal), will have the right to: (i) obtain information about processing, (ii) seek
correction and erasure of personal data, (iii) nominate another person to exercise rights
in the event of death or incapacity, and (iv) grievance redressal. Data principals will
have certain duties. They must not: (i) register a false or frivolous complaint, and (ii)
furnish any false particulars or impersonate another person in specified cases. Violation
of duties will be punishable with a penalty of up to Rs 10,000.
 Obligations of data fiduciaries: The entity determining the purpose and means of
processing, (data fiduciary), must: (i) make reasonable efforts to ensure the accuracy
and completeness of data, (ii) build reasonable security safeguards to prevent a data
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breach, (iii) inform the Data Protection Board of India and affected persons in the event
of a breach, and (iv) erase personal data as soon as the purpose has been met and
retention is not necessary for legal purposes (storage limitation). In case of government
entities, storage limitation and the right of the data principal to erasure will not apply.
 Transfer of personal data outside India: The Bill allows transfer of personal data
outside India, except to countries restricted by the central government through
notification.
 Exemptions: Rights of the data principal and obligations of data fiduciaries (except data
security) will not apply in specified cases. These include: (i) prevention and investigation
of offences, and (ii) enforcement of legal rights or claims. The central government may,
by notification, exempt certain activities from the application of the Bill. These include:
(i) processing by government entities in the interest of the security of the state and
public order, and (ii) research, archiving, or statistical purposes.
 Data Protection Board of India: The central government will establish the Data
Protection Board of India. Key functions of the Board include: (i) monitoring compliance
and imposing penalties, (ii) directing data fiduciaries to take necessary measures in the
event of a data breach, and (iii) hearing grievances made by affected persons. Board
members will be appointed for two years and will be eligible for re-appointment. The
central government will prescribe details such as the number of members of the Board
and the selection process. Appeals against the decisions of the Board will lie with
TDSAT.
 Penalties: The schedule to the Bill specifies penalties for various offences such as up to:
(i) Rs 200 crore for non-fulfilment of obligations for children, and (ii) Rs 250 crore for
failure to take security measures to prevent data breaches. Penalties will be imposed by
the Board after conducting an inquiry.
6. Continuation of the North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme (NESIDS) with
an approved outlay of Rs.8139.50 crore for the period from 2022-23 to 2025-26 was also
approved by the Cabinet, with two components viz. NESIDS-Road and NESIDS-Other Than
Road Infrastructure (OTRI).
 The scheme is a central sector scheme with 100% central funding. The decisions of the
Government including merger of the erstwhile North East Road Sector Development
Scheme (NERSDS) into NESIDS-Road component etc. necessitated formulation of fresh
guidelines to administer and implement the restructured NESIDS during the balance
period of the 15th Finance Commission. Accordingly, the newly-formulated separate
Guidelines to administer and implement both the components of the NESIDS have now
been issued after having extensive consultations with the stake holders and detailed
discussions internally. The objective of the NESIDS is to support infrastructure
development in identified sectors including connectivity in the North Eastern States.
 The Union Cabinet had also approved continuation of the ‘Schemes of NEC’ for the
period from 2022-23 to 2025-26 with a total outlay of Rs.3202.7 crore. The fresh
guidelines for the “Schemes of NEC” has also been issued after having detailed
discussion and consultations.
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 The objectives of the aforesaid schemes of the MDoNER are to supplement the efforts
of the different Central Ministries & Departments on one hand and the felt needs of the
NE States on the other, for uncovered development/welfare activities. The MDoNER
Schemes help provide gap-filling support to the eight North Eastern States as per their
felt needs, by taking up projects– e.g., for developing infrastructure to mitigate
connectivity and social sector deficits and enhancing livelihood and employment
opportunities in the region.
 The newly issued detailed schemes’ guidelines combined with the concerted efforts of
the Ministry and with the kind support of NE States will facilitate to achieve intended
objectives in a transparent and accelerated manner.
7. Researchers have recorded the first instance of captive breeding of the Himalayan vulture
(Gyps himalayensis) in India at the Assam State Zoo, Guwahati. Categorised as ‘Near
Threatened’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of
threatened species, the Himalayan vulture is a common winter migrant to the Indian plains,
and a resident of the high Himalayas.
Details of the successful breeding were recently been published in a paper titled ‘Breeding
of Himalayan Vulture Gyps himalayensis Hume, 1869 (Aves: Accipitriformes: Accipitridae) in
the Assam State Zoo, Guwahati, Assam, India’ in the Journal of Threatened Taxa.
The paper states that the successful hatching was noted on March 14, 2022 and the nestling
was shifted to the artificial brooding facility on 15 March. “During first month, the nestling
was kept in the brooder made up of a plastic box (1 x 1 x ½ f) with a mat for the grip. The
temperature was maintained around 30-35°C with a lamp, a water bowl and it was
monitored with a thermo-hygrometer. The nestling was provided with sufficient space to
move towards and away from the heat source,” the publication said.
Along with the housing for nestling, the paper points out that the food, frequency of feed,
and the growth and colouration of the nestling were observed.
As per Sachin Ranade, lead author of the publication, the Himalayan vultures successfully
bred at the zoo were rescued in 2011-2012 from different poisonings and accidents. The
two other co-authors of the paper are Jay Gore, and Ashwini Kumar, Director of the
Guwahati Zoo.
Four Vulture Conservation Breeding Centre’s (VCBC) established by Bombay Natural History
Society (BNHS) at Pinjore in Haryana, Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh, Rani in Assam, and
Rajabhatkhawa in West Bengal are involved in conservation breeding of the White-rumped
vulture (Gyps bengalensis), Slender-billed vulture (Gyps tenuirostris), and the Indian vulture
(Gyps indicus).
The unprecedented scale and speed of declines in vulture populations has left all the three
resident Gyps vulture species categorised ‘Critically Endangered’.
8. To enhance healthcare quality and aligne dental education with global standards, the
Parliament has passed the National Dental Commission Bill, 2023. This landmark legislation
underscores the government's unwavering commitment to ensuring the highest standards
of dental care for its citizens.
The National Dental Commission Act 2023, will introduce a groundbreaking regulatory
framework by establishing the National Dental Commission (NDC), which will replace the
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existing Dental Council of India (DCI) and repeal the Dentists Bill, 1948. The Act envisions a
complete overhaul of the dental education and profession landscape to bring it on par with
international benchmarks. Key features include:
 Constitution of National Dental Commission and State Dental Councils:The Act
establishes the National Dental Commission and mandates the formation of State
Dental Councils or Joint Dental Councils. This structure aims to decentralize authority
and enhance effective regulation.
 Three Autonomous Boards:The Act will empower three distinct Autonomous Boards:
the Under-Graduate and Post-Graduate Dental Education Board, the Dental Assessment
and Rating Board (DARB), and the Ethics and Dental Registration Board (EDRB). These
boards will carry out specific functions, contributing to a comprehensive regulatory
framework.
 Fixed Tenure and Professional Development:The Act will introduce a fixed tenure for
the Chairperson, Members, and Secretary of the Commission, with no possibility of
reappointment. The NDC will emphasize promotive and preventive dental care services
and will focus on fostering the soft skills necessary for career advancement among
dentists and dental auxiliaries.
 Industry Collaboration and Technological Innovation:Recognizing the importance of
collaboration and research, the Act will encourage partnerships with industry and
institutions to promote advancements in dental research. It also emphasizes the
integration of cutting-edge technology into dental education.
 Online National Register and Dental Advisory Council:The Act will provide for
maintaining an online and live National Register of licensed dentists and dental
auxiliaries. Furthermore, it establishes a Dental Advisory Council with representation
from all States/Union Territories to ensure comprehensive insights and guidance.
 Merit-Based Selection Process:Under the Act, the NDC will be led by a 'selected'
Regulator. This entails the appointment of the NDC Chairman and Members through a
merit-based selection process conducted by a Search–cum-Committee chaired by the
Cabinet Secretary.
 Collaborative Approaches:The Act will facilitate joint sittings with relevant statutory
bodies, including the National Medical Commission, Pharmacy Council of India, Indian
Nursing Council, National Commission for Indian System of Medicine, National
Commission for Homeopathy, and National Commission for Allied and Healthcare
Professions.
 Fee Regulation and Constitutions:The Act will empower the Commission to frame
guidelines for fee determination for fifty percent of seats in private dental colleges and
deemed Universities. Additionally, within a year of the Act’s commencement, all State
governments will establish State Dental Councils or Joint Dental Councils.
 The National Dental Commission Act 2023, is poised to usher in vital regulatory reforms
in the dental education sector. It champions transparency, accountability, and
professionalism to safeguard the interests of the public. By promoting affordable oral
healthcare availability and boosting the employability of Indian dental professionals
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globally, the Commission is set to enhance both domestic and international dental care
standards.
9. The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP), earlier known as the Revised
National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), is the Public Health initiative of
the Government of India that organizes its anti-Tuberculosis efforts. It functions as a
flagship component of the National Health Mission (NHM) and provides technical and
managerial leadership to anti-tuberculosis activities in the country. As per the National
Strategic Plan 2017–25, the program has a vision of achieving a "TB free India", with a
strategies under the broad themes of "Prevent, Detect, Treat and Build pillars for universal
coverage and social protection". The program provides, various free of cost, quality
tuberculosis diagnosis and treatment services across the country through the government
health system.
10. India’s Sugar Surplus and associated problems:
In 2021-2022, India surpassed Brazil to become the largest sugar producer in the world,
producing 359 lakh tonnes, an all-time high.
For farmers across most of India, sugarcane is one of the most profitable cash crops. This
has led to chronic over-cultivation of sugarcane, reflected in the country’s sugar surplus and
high sugar exports. The impact of this on the country’s groundwater is, however, disastrous.
We need to address the chronic overuse of groundwater in the sugar industry soon.
Excess sugar production:
India is the world’s largest consumer of sugar, and thus has to produce enough to meet its
huge domestic demand. But the excess production stems from policies and measures that
make farmers favour sugarcane cultivation. The Central government offers a fair and
remunerative price (FRP) scheme, which mandates a minimum price that sugar mills have to
pay to sugarcane farmers, ensuring that farmers always get fair profits for their crop.
State governments also offer heavy subsidies to incentivise sugarcane cultivation. Some
have argued that this is done to win farmers’ votes in politically important rural areas.
The resulting sugar surplus has led to higher exports, with a record 110 lakh tonnes
exported in 2021-2022. In fact, Brazil, Australia, and Guatemala filed a complaint with the
World Trade Organisation against India for violating international trade rules by offering
excessive export subsidies and domestic support to farmers to outcompete other countries
in the global sugar market. The Organisation ruled against India and India also lost its
appeal.
Addressing the sugar surplus issue:
To deal with the sugar surplus, the Indian government considered diverting it to the
production of ethanol, an organic compound made by fermenting sugarcane molasses or
sugar. Ethanol is the active ingredient in alcoholic beverages and is also used in the
chemicals and cosmetics industries. In the transport sector, the use of ethanol-blended
petrol (EBP) significantly reduces harmful emissions, such as of carbon monoxide and
various hydrocarbons, from vehicles.
The government launched the EBP programme in 2003 to reduce crude oil imports and
curtail greenhouse gas emissions from petrol-based vehicles; it has been fairly successful. It
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started with the modest goal of achieving a blending rate of 5%, but the target set for 2025
is 20%.
The government also reduced the Goods and Services Tax on ethanol from 18% to 5% in
2021. In the same year, of the 394 lakh tonnes of total sugar produced, about 35 lakh
tonnes were diverted to produce ethanol, while India achieved a blending rate of 10%
months ahead of target.
How does excessive sugarcane cultivation impact groundwater?
While the EBP programme has helped India significantly reduce its crude-oil imports and
sugar exports and overall greenhouse-gas emissions- sugarcane over-cultivation has exacted
a steep natural cost. Sugarcane is a highly resource-intensive cash crop: it needs a large
swath of land and needs large amount of groundwater.
India’s top sugarcane-growing states are Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Gujarat,
and Tamil Nadu. The first three account for 85-90% of the sugar produced in the country. If
sugarcane were a purely rainfed crop, it will need around 3,000 mm of rainfall a year to be
irrigated. But these three states receive around 1,000-1,200 mm a year. The remaining
water requirement is met by groundwater.
Most of this groundwater resides in confined aquifers, i.e. the water is trapped between
two impermeable layers of rock. It can only be extracted by drilling a borewell through the
upper layer. Such groundwater can’t be recharged by rainfall, so it is a limited resource.
Normally, 100 kg of sugar is produced from one tonne of sugarcane, which consumes
around 2 lakh litres of groundwater for irrigation alone. Add to this the water for industrial
sugar-manufacturing and -refining. In other words, the 110 lakh tonnes of sugar that India
exported in 2021-2022 ‘includes’ 26 lakh crore litres of groundwater.
The top sugarcane growing states are already drought-prone as well as groundwater-
stressed. In a 2022 report, the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) noted that a third of all
its groundwater assessment units in Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Karnataka were
‘semi-critical’, ‘critical’ or ‘over-exploited’.
Solutions to this problem:
While the environmental implications of excess sugar production should be clear, surplus
production and export have enormous financial gain, amounting to lakhs of crores of rupees
a year. So simply cutting sugar production isn’t a viable solution.
A better and more sustainable way would be to assess and then correct incentives that
skew in favour of sugarcane over other crops, leading to the consistent surplus. Introducing
fair and comprehensive subsidy schemes for a variety of crops can help farmers diversify as
well as distribute cultivation evenly, prevent monocultures, and ensure an equitable
income. Availability of a wider range of profitable and less resource-intensive crops can
lower the strain on vital natural resources.
This must be complemented by environmentally responsible sugarcane cultivation practices
that prioritise groundwater, such as drip irrigation, to tackle the issue in the long run. In drip
irrigation, water is allowed to drip slowly but directly to the roots of sugarcane plants,
reducing water consumption by up to 70% relative to the current flood irrigation method.
Drip irrigation has already been made mandatory in many parts of India (including in the
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three states), and the government has also offered subsidies to farmers for setting up the
systems.
Next, India needs to invest in overall water-saving and management systems. Concerted
efforts to adopt cleaner practices such as rainwater harvesting, wastewater treatment, and
canal irrigation networks, will help minimise stress on groundwater reservoirs as other
water sources become available for irrigation.
11. To bring transformative changes to the nursing education and practice landscape, the
Parliament has passed the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission (NNMC) Bill, 2023.
The Act will replace the existing Indian Nursing Council with a modern regulatory structure,
marking a significant legislative reform in the sector.
The NNMC Act, 2023, will introduce several crucial provisions to elevate the standards of
nursing education and services, enhance professional conduct, and ensure greater
transparency and accountability. The key highlights of the proposed Act are as follows:
 Establishment of National and State Commissions:Under the NNMC Act, a National
Nursing and Midwifery Commission and Autonomous Boards at the National level will
be established. Corresponding State Nursing and Midwifery Commissions will also be set
up to regulate and maintain education and service standards, oversee professional
conduct, and manage online and live Registers.
 Tenure and Accountability:One of the pivotal reforms introduced by the Act will be the
provision of fixed tenures for members and the chairperson of the Commission,
eliminating reappointment and preventing vested interests. This measure ensures
transparency and accountability among regulators in the nursing education sector. The
Act will also grant the government the authority to issue directions to the Commission in
the interest of the public.
 Uniform Admission Process and Competence:The National Commission will implement
a standardized admission process to ensure consistency across nursing education.
Moreover, it will focus on maintaining the competence of nursing and midwifery
professionals to ensure high-quality healthcare services.
 Embracing Innovation and Collaboration:The NNMC Act will encourage the use of
cutting-edge technology and innovation in nursing education. The Commission will
collaborate with industry and other institutions to foster synergy, excellence, and
research in the nursing field.
 Development of Soft Skills and Specialized Courses:The Act will emphasize on the
development of soft skills among registered professionals and recognizes specialized
courses and certification programs in nursing and midwifery. This move aims to enhance
the expertise of nursing professionals in various domains.
 Global Mobility and Expertise:The NNMC Act will seek to facilitate global mobility and
employability of Indian nurses by inviting foreign experts and domain specialists to
participate in the National Commission's meetings. This international collaboration will
contribute to enhancing the skills and expertise of Indian nurses.
 National Advisory Council and Coordination:The Act will provide for the formation of a
National Advisory Council to ensure balanced representation from all states and Union
Territories. This Council will offer advice on matters related to nursing education,
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services, training, and research. Additionally, joint sittings with relevant statutory
bodies, including the National Medical Commission, Pharmacy Council of India, National
Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions, National Commission of Indian
system of Medicine, and National Commission of Homeopathy, will promote a team-
based approach to healthcare delivery.
The passing of National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Bill 2023, signifies a major step
towards elevating nursing education and practice standards, fostering innovation, and
enhancing collaboration across the healthcare sector. It is a crucial milestone that
underscores the government's commitment to nurturing a highly skilled and competent
nursing workforce, thus ensuring the delivery of quality healthcare services to the nation.
12. The Lok Sabha has passed the Inter-Services Organisation (Command, Control & Discipline)
Bill- 2023. The bill seeks to empower Commander-in-Chief and Officer-in Command of Inter-
Services Organisations (ISOs) with all disciplinary and administrative powers in respect of
the personnel serving in or attached to such organisations.
Currently, the Armed Forces personnel are governed in accordance with the provisions
contained in their specific Service Acts- Army Act 1950, Navy Act 1957 and Air Force Act
1950. The enactment of the Bill will have various tangible benefits such as maintenance of
effective discipline in inter-services establishments by the Heads of ISOs, no requirement of
reverting personnel under disciplinary proceedings to their parent Service units, expeditious
disposal of cases of misdemeanour or indiscipline and saving of public money & time by
avoiding multiple proceedings.
The Bill would also pave the way for much greater integration and jointness amongst the
three Services; lay a strong foundation for creation of Joint Structures in times to come and
further improve the functioning of the Armed Forces.
Salient Features
 The ‘ISO Bill- 2023’ shall be applicable to all personnel of regular Army, Navy, and Air
force, and to persons of other forces as notified by the Central Government, who are
serving in or attached to an Inter-Services Organisation.
 This Bill empowers the Commander-in-Chief, Officer-in-Command or any other officer
specially empowered in this behalf by the Central Government with all the disciplinary
and administrative powers in respect of personnel serving in or attached to their Inter-
Services Organisations for the maintenance of discipline and proper discharge of their
duties, irrespective of the service to which they belong.
 The Commander-in-Chief or the Officer-in-Command means General Officer/Flag
Officer/Air Officer who has been appointed as Commander-in-Chief of Officer-in-
Command an Inter-Services Organisation.
 To maintain Command and Control in absence of the Commander-in-Chief or the
Officer-in-Command, the officiating incumbent or the officer on whom the command
develops in absence of a C-in-C or Oi/C, will also be empowered to initiate all
disciplinary or administrative actions overs the service personnel, appointed, deputed,
posted or attached to an Inter-Services organisation.
 The Bill also empowers the Commanding Officer of an Inter-Services organisation to
initiate all disciplinary or administrative actions over the personnel appointed, deputed,
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posted or attached to that Inter-Services Organisation. For the purpose of this Act,
Commanding Officer means the officer in actual command of the unit, ship or
establishment.
 The Bill empowers the Central Government to constitute an Inter- Services
Organisation.
The ‘ISO Bill-2023’ is essentially an Enabling Act and it does not propose any change in the
existing Service Acts/Rules/Regulations which are time-tested and have withstood judicial
scrutiny over the last six decades or more. Service personnel when serving in or attached to
an Inter-Services Organisation will continue to be governed by their respective Service Acts.
What it does is to empower Heads of Inter-Services Organisations to exercise all the
disciplinary and administrative powers as per the existing Service Acts/Rules/Regulations,
irrespective of the service they belong to.
13. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 was passed in Lok Sabha on 27th
June 2023 and Rajya Sabha on 2nd August 2023.
The Bill was first introduced in Lok Sabha on 22nd December 2022. Subsequently, it was
referred to the Joint Committee of the Parliament. The Joint Committee on the Jan Vishwas
(Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2022 held detailed discussions with all the 19
Ministries/Departments along with Legislative Department and Department of Legal Affairs.
The Committee conducted clause-by-clause examination of the Bill through a series of 9
sittings between 09.01.2023 and 17.02.2023. The Committee finally adopted its Report in its
sitting held on 13.03.2023.
The Report of the Committee was laid before Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha on 17 th March
2023 and 20th March 2023 respectively. The Committee recommended a few more
amendments in the Bill. Committee also made 7 general recommendations which provide
advice and guidance for future decriminalization efforts. One of the recommendations
include constitution of a group consisting of legal professionals, industry bodies, members
of bureaucracy and regulatory authorities, etc. to examine other acts and carry out exercise
similar to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023. Working group has been
constituted as per the recommendation of the Committee.
Through The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023, a total of 183 provisions are
being proposed to be decriminalized in 42 Central Acts administered by 19
Ministries/Departments. Decriminalization is proposed to be achieved in the following
manner-
i. Both Imprisonment and/or Fine are proposed to be removed in some provisions.
ii. Imprisonment is proposed to be removed and fine retained in few provisions.
iii. Imprisonment is proposed to be removed and Fine enhanced in few provisions.
iv. Imprisonment and Fine are proposed to be converted to Penalty in some provisions.
v. Compounding of offences is proposed to be introduced in few provisions.
For effective implementation of the above, the bill proposes measures such as (a) pragmatic
revision of fines and penalties commensurate to the offence committed; (b) establishment
of Adjudicating Officers; (c) establishment of Appellate Authorities; and (d) Periodic increase
in quantum of fine and penalties. It is also ensured that degree and nature of punishment is
commensurate with the severity of the offence.
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The benefits of the Amendment Bill are outlined as under:

a) The Amendment Bill will contribute to rationalizing criminal provisions and ensuring that
citizens, businesses and the government departments operate without fear of
imprisonment for minor, technical or procedural defaults.
b) The nature of penal consequence of an offence committed should be commensurate
with the seriousness of the offence. This bill establishes a balance between the severity
of the offence/violation committed and the gravity of the prescribed punishment. The
proposed amendments ensure the adherence to law by businesses and citizens, without
losing the rigor of the law.
c) The criminal consequences prescribed for technical/procedural lapses and minor
defaults, clog the justice delivery system and puts adjudication of serious offences on
the back burner. Some of the amendments proposed in the Bill are to introduce suitable
administrative adjudication mechanisms, wherever applicable and feasible. This would
go a long way in reducing undue pressure on the justice system, reduce the pendency of
cases and help in a more efficient and effective justice dispensation.
d) Decriminalization of provisions which affect citizens and certain categories of
government employees will help them live without the fear of imprisonment for minor
violations.
e) The enactment of this legislation would be a landmark in the journey of rationalizing
laws, eliminating barriers and bolstering growth of businesses. This legislation would
serve as a guiding principle for future amendments in various laws. Consolidated
amendments in various laws with a common objective will save time and cost for both
Government and Businesses alike.
Ministry/Department-wise List of 42 Acts:
(Covered under The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023)
Sl. No. Name of the Acts Name of Ministries /

Departments
1. The Agricultural Produce (Grading and D/o Agriculture, &
Marking) Act, 1937 Farmers Welfare
2. The Marine Products Export Development D/o Commerce
Authority Act, 1972
3. The Rubber Act, 1947
4. The Tea Act, 1953
5. The Spices Board Act, 1986
6. The Legal Metrology Act, 2009 D/o Consumer Affairs
7. The Cantonments Act 2006 D/o Defence
8. The Government Securities Act, 2006 D/o Economic Affairs
9. The High Denomination Banknotes
(Demonetization) Act, 1978
10. The Public Debt Act, 1944
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11. The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial M/o Electronics and

and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Information Technology
Act, 2016
12. The Information Technology Act, 2000
13. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) M/o Environment, Forest
Act, 1981 and Climate Change
14. The Environment Protection Act, 1986
15. The Indian Forest Act, 1927
16. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 19941
17. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee D/o Financial Services
Corporation Act, 1961
18. The Factoring Regulation Act, 2011
19. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development Act, 1981
20. The National Housing Bank Act, 1987
21. The Payment and Settlement Systems Act,
2007
22. The Food Corporations Act, 1964 D/o Food & Public
23. The Warehousing Corporation Act, 1962 Distribution
24. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 D/o Health & Family
25. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 Welfare
26. The Pharmacy Act, 1948
27. The Metro Railways (Operation and M/o Housing & Urban
Maintenance) Act, 2002 Affairs
28. The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867 M/o Information &
29. The Cinematography Act, 1952 Broadcasting
30. The Cable Television Networks (Regulation)
Act, 1995
31. The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 M/o Ports, Shipping &
Waterways
32. The Indian Post Office Act, 1898 D/o Posts
33. The Boilers Act, 1923 Department for
34. The Copyright Act, 1957 Promotion of Industry &
35. The Geographical Indications of Goods Act, Internal Trade
1999
36. The Industries (Development and Regulation)
Act, 1951
37. The Patents Act, 1970
38. The Trade Marks Act, 1999
39. The Railways Act, 1989 M/o Railways
40. The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 M/o Road Transport &
Highways
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41. The Prevention of Money-laundering Act, D/o Revenue

2002
42. The Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 M/o Statistics &
Programme
Implementation
Illustrative examples of amendments carried out-

 The Indian Post Office Act, 1898
o 23 Sections related to misconduct, voluntary withdrawal from duty, making false
entry in register, defiling or injuring post office letter boxes, etc. are proposed to be
omitted. These provisions relate to default by postal employees, other postal
workers, employees of other agencies and other individuals. Provisions for
appropriate action against such defaulting employees, workers and other
individuals can effectively be taken under various Acts and Rules including CCS
(CCA) Rules, 1965 or GDS (Conduct and Engagement) Rules, 2020, the Indian
Contract Act, 1872 and the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
 Indian Forest Act, 1927
o This act (Section 26 (1) (d)) had Imprisonment provision for pasturing cattle in
Forest land. This provision is being amended by removing imprisonment and fine.
Now this contravention will attract penalty. This amendment will benefit
tribals/villagers who may unknowingly enter forest land while pasturing cattle. Since
the violation is not serious in nature and may not be intentional, imprisonment
provisions were not justified. However, deterrence is proposed to be achieved by
levying penalty of Rs. 500/-
 The Food Corporations Act, 1964 & The Warehousing Corporations Act, 1962
o These acts provide imprisonment and fine for using the name of Food/warehouse
Corporation without Corporation’s consent. Imprisonment (up to 6 months) and
fine (₹1,000) is proposed to be removed for the use of Food/Warehouse
Corporation’s name in any prospectus or advertisement without Corporation’s
consent
 The Cantonments Act, 2006
o This act (Section 289 (5)) had imprisonment provisions for carrying or using non-
biodegradable nature-polythene bags in cantonment area. This provision is being
removed as most of the times, citizens using polyethene bags may not be aware
about them being bio-degradable or not.
 Legal Metrology Act, 2009
o Giving false information to legal metrology officer, controller or director (Legal
Metrology Act, 2009) is proposed to be made compoundable (Section 48)
 Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
o Contraventions related to driving regulations, obstructing to free flow of traffic and
producing false registration document (Motor Vehicles Act, 1988) are proposed to
be made compoundable (Section 200 (1)).
 Collection of Statistics Act, 2009
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o This act facilitates collection of statistics on economic, demographic, social,

scientific, environmental aspects. This act had imprisonment provisions for Minor
procedural offenses like failure to produce books, accounts, documents, or records,
making any false or misleading statement or information, destroying, defacing,
removing, or mutilating any information. Violations of provisions of this act are not
severe in nature and do not cause any damage. These criminal provisions are being
removed from the Act now.
14. According to recent reports in The Lancet and The Lancet Global Health, nutritional
support has helped prevent both tuberculosis (TB) among household contacts and
mortality among TB patients in a trial in Jharkhand. In 2017, the World Health Organization
had estimated that undernutrition is responsible for twice the number of TB cases than HIV
globally. Any attempt to end/eliminate TB in India by 2025 will become possible only if
undernutrition among people is addressed. As per conservative estimates, 40% of new TB
cases annually in India are due to undernutrition.
Key achievements of the trial:
 A large field-based trial was undertaken between August 2019 and August 2022 in four
districts of Jharkhand by a team led by Dr. Anurag Bhargava and Dr. Madhavi Bhargava
from the Yenepoya Medical College, Mangaluru in collaboration with the National
Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) and the National Institute for Research in
Tuberculosis-Indian Council of Medical Research (NIRT-ICMR).
 The RATIONS (Reducing Activation of Tuberculosis by Improvement of Nutritional
Status) trial enrolled 2,800 people with pulmonary TB disease and 10,345 household
contacts of TB patients. While all the TB patients received nutritional support,
household contacts were randomly assigned to receive either nutritional support or
usual diet alone. There were 5,621 household contacts in the intervention arm and
4,724 contacts in the control group.
While there were 108 (4%) deaths among TB patients across all body weights, mortality
among those under 35 kg body weight (severely underweight) was 7%. In comparison, in a
study carried out by the Chennai-based NIRT in Tiruvallur district, Tamil Nadu, which did not
provide any nutrition support to the TB patients, mortality was 14% in those weighing under
35 kg; mortality dropped to 4% among those weighing over 35 kg. Incidence of TB deaths
reduced by 12% with a one-unit increase in BMI and by 23% for a two-unit increase in BMI.
With the nutritional support, at six months, the proportion of those with normal BMI
increased from 16.5% to 43.5%. In general, extreme undernutrition- BMI less than 13 in
men and BMI less than 11 in women- can often be fatal. However, in the current trial, more
than 85% of such TB patients survived with nutritional support. Over 80% of TB patients had
a BMI less than 18.5 and nearly 49% had a BMI less than 16 (severely underweight). There
was 5% weight gain in the first two months which was associated with 60% lower risk of TB
mortality. As per a 2022 study undertaken in India, the absence of weight gain during
treatment in patients with severe undernutrition was associated with a five-fold higher
death rate.
Among the household contacts, nutritional support led to a 39%-48% reduction in TB
disease in the intervention group compared with the control arm. In the study that lasted
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for six months, 122 people in the control group developed TB whereas the intervention arm
had only 96 TB cases. There was a 39% reduction in TB incidence- pulmonary and extra-
pulmonary- while there was 48% reduction in pulmonary TB. The 39%-48% reduction in TB
disease in the household contact intervention arm was after adjusting for confounding
factors such as TB preventive treatment to children below five years, diabetes, smoking, and
alcohol use.
Nutritional support provided:
Each adult household contact in the intervention arm received 5 kg of rice, 1.5 kg of split
pigeon peas (tur dal), and micronutrient pills every month for six months. Each child (below
10 years) household contact received 50% of the adult nutrition support. Those in the
control arm did not get any nutritional supplementation.
For TB patients, monthly nutritional support included 5 kg of rice, 1.5 kg of milk powder, 3
kg of roasted chickpea flour, 500 ml of oil, and micronutrient pills for a period of six months
for people with drug-susceptible TB, and 12 months for people with MDR-TB.
15. ‘State of Elementary Education in Rural India’:
Delhi-based Development Intelligence Unit (DIU), an initiative of Transforming Rural India
Foundation (TRIF) in association with Sambodhi Research and Communications Pvt. Ltd.,
Noida, have launched what would be India’s first report about the ‘state of elementary
education in rural India’.
 The 40-page report based on analysis of a survey data of 6,229 parents in 20 states and
UTs, has reinforced several popular perceptions and narratives about children and
schooling in rural India.
 The survey revealed, out of the total dropped out children, around one-fourth of male
children discontinued their education during primary schooling. Comparatively, the
dropout rate at that stage was higher for female children, reaching 35%. A higher
proportion of both boys and girls dropped out of school after completing the primary
school education (75% for boys and 65% for girls).
 According to the survey, 80% of parents desired for both their female and male children
to become college graduates. Parents of 82% of boys and 78% of girls in the sample said
to educate their children to graduation and above. In the same breathe, 84% of the SCs
and 73% of the STs have a desire for their children to become college graduates. The
survey didn’t observe any difference is expectations among parents from different social
groups.
 Among the various reasons cited by parents, 43.5% expressed their desire for their
children to avoid labor work in the future. Additionally, 62.1% of parents emphasized
the importance of their children’s learning skills for securing better-paying jobs, while
57.5% expressed their hope for their child’s future success exceeding their own.
 On expected lines smartphone usage in children studied in the research indicated that
49.3% of children aged between 6 and 16 years have access to smartphones. The
distribution this access shows that while children of non-earners and low-income
parents have relatively lower access to smartphones at 37.7% and 45.9%, respectively,
the disparity is not significantly pronounced compared to affluent families. This suggests
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that smartphone usage among children has been well distributed across all income
groups.
 The survey found nearly 73% of children utilize smartphones for less than 2 hours daily.
Notably, older children tend to spend more time on their phones, with 25.4% of children
in class 8 and above dedicating 2 to 4 hours, in contrast to 16.8% of children in classes 1
to 3.
 Usage behavior of children and revealed that while smartphones are primarily used for
entertainment purposes, such as playing games, downloading, and watching movies,
and listening to songs, their role in education is also noteworthy. Only a fifth of the
participants highlighted that smartphones are utilized for educational purposes through
online tutorials. Nearly 69% of parents believe that smartphones have played a
significant role in increasing their children’s interest in studies.
 The report reveals that a majority of children (62.5%) are under the supervision of their
mothers when it comes to their studies, while 49% are supervised by their fathers.
Additionally, over 38% of parents opt for private tutors to further enhance their
children’s education. 25.6 % of the children study under the guidance of an elder sibling,
3.8% are supervised by Anganwadi workers, and 7.6 % are taught by community
teachers. Comparatively, 64% of these children receive supervision from their mothers,
while 50% are supervised by their fathers. About 26% of the children study under the
supervision of a private tutor.
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 Close to 40% of parents across different income groups regularly ask their children
about their education received in school. Among parents who never went to school,
28.7% regularly inquire about school education, while 25.1% rarely or never do so. In
contrast, 46.3% of parents with education above higher secondary actively follow up on
their child’s education regularly, with only 4% rarely engaging in their child’s education.
The survey also revealed that that 89% of parents participated in extra-curricular
activities with their children.
16. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment,
Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023, was introduced in Rajya Sabha on
August 10, 2023. It repeals the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election
Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.
 Election Commission: As per Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission
consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election
Commissioners (ECs), as the President may decide. The CEC and other ECs are
appointed by the President. The Bill specifies the same composition of the Election
Commission. It adds that the CEC and other ECs will be appointed by the President on
the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
 Selection Committee: The Selection Committee will consist of: (i) the Prime Minister as
Chairperson, (ii) the Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha as member, and (iii) a Union
Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister as member. If the Leader of
Opposition in Lok Sabha has not been recognised, the leader of the single largest
opposition party in Lok Sabha will assume the role.
 Search Committee: A Search Committee will prepare a panel of five persons for the
consideration of the Selection Committee. The Search Committee will be headed by the
Cabinet Secretary. It will have two other members, not below the rank of Secretary to
the central government, having knowledge and experience in matters related to
elections. The Selection Committee may also consider candidates who have not been
included in the panel prepared by the Search Committee.
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 Qualification of CEC and ECs: Persons who are holding or have held posts equivalent to
the rank of Secretary to the central government will be eligible to be appointed as CEC
and ECs. Such persons must have expertise in managing and conducting elections.
 Salary and allowances: The 1991 Act provides that the salary of the ECs will be equal to
that of a Supreme Court judge. The Bill provides that salary, allowance, and service
conditions of the CEC and other ECs will be the same as that of the Cabinet Secretary.
 Term of office: The 1991 Act mandates that the CEC and other ECs will hold office for a
term of six years or until they reach the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. If an EC is
appointed as the CEC, his total term cannot exceed six years. The Bill retains the same
tenure. Further, under the Bill, the CEC and other ECs will not be eligible for re-
appointment.
 Conduct of business: All business of the Election Commission is to be conducted
unanimously. In case of difference of opinion between the CEC and the other ECs on
any matter, it shall be decided through majority.
 Removal and resignation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the CEC can only be
removed from his office in a manner similar to that of a Supreme Court judge. This is
done through an order of the President, based on a motion passed by both Houses of
Parliament in the same session. The motion for removal must be adopted with: (i)
majority support of total membership of each House, and (ii) at least two-thirds support
from members present and voting. An EC can only be removed from office on the
recommendation of the CEC. The Bill retains this removal procedure.
 Further, the 1991 Act provides that the CEC and other ECs may submit their resignation
to the President. The Bill has the same provision.
17. Nyoma is a principal village of southern Ladakh in India, the headquarters of
an eponymous subdivision, tehsil, community development block and Indian Air Force
Base in the Leh district. It is located on the bank of the Indus river after its 90-degree bend
near Dungti east of Nyoma and before the valley narrows to a gorge near Mahe northwest
of Nyoma. Nyoma gompa, a Buddhist monastery, is located on the hill slope north of the
village.
Nyoma is home to an Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) of Indian Air Force that was built in
1962 but remained unutilized. It was reactivated in 2009 when an An-32 landed in this
airfield. Now the airbase at Nyoma of the Indian Military is fully operational.
The airbase received the Wildlife Board's forest clearance in 2022 to expand into
508 hectare of land inside Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary. The Government of India
announced in January 2023 that this airstrip will be upgraded in two years by the end of
2024 to a 1,235 acre full fighter jet airbase at 13,700 feet (4,200 m) elevation with an
expanded 2.7 km paved runway with ability to recover airplanes and minor repair facilities.
Aeroplanes can land from both directions on this airstrip. Chushul, Fukche & Leh are other
nearby airbases & ALG airstrips.
18. The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has formed a 19-
member committee responsible for aligning school syllabi, textbooks, teaching materials,
and learning resources with the National Curriculum Framework (NCF). The committee’s
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mandate covers Classes 3 to 12, and it also aims to ensure a seamless transition from
Classes 1 and 2 to subsequent grades.
The 19-member committee responsible for the revision of school textbooks and alignment
with the National Curriculum Framework (NCF) comprises experts from various domains.
i. MC Pant – Chancellor of NIEPA and Committee Head
ii. Manjul Bhargava – Distinguished Professor and Fields Medallist
iii. Bibek Debroy – Economist and Chairman of Economic Advisory Council to PM
iv. Chamu Krishna Shastry – Founding Member of Samskrita Bharati
v. Sudha Murty – Philanthropist and Social Worker
vi. Shankar Mahadevan – Renowned Singer and Musician
vii. Sanjeev Sanyal – Economist and Economic Advisory Council Member
viii. U Vimal Kumar – Former Chief National Badminton Coach
ix. M D Srinivas – Chairperson of Centre for Policy Studies
x. Shekhar Mande – Former Director-General of CSIR and Professor
xi. Surina Ranjan – Retired IAS Officer and Education Administrator
xii. Michael Danino – French Author and IIT Gandhinagar Professor
xiii. Sujatha Ramadorai – Mathematics Professor at University of British Columbia
xiv. Pratyusha Kumar Mandala – NCERT Representative
xv. Dinesh Kumar – NCERT Representative
xvi. Kirti Kapoor – NCERT Representative
xvii. Ranjana Arora – NCERT Representative
xviii. Rabin Chetri – Director of SCERT, Sikkim
xix. K Kasturirangan – Scientist and Former Head of National Steering Committee
In an internal note circulated in the Ministry of Education, the high-powered committee is
named The National Syllabus and Teaching Learning Material Committee (NSTC).
The NSTC will be assisted by “Curricular Area Groups (CAGs)“ to develop textbooks and
other teaching learning materials for each of the subjects included in the syllabus. “The
Chairperson and Co-chairperson of NSTC will constitute the CAGs with appropriate experts
and with the support of NCERT. The NSTC will be free to invite other experts for advice,
consultation, and support as and when required. The NSTC will be assisted by a Programme
Office set-up by the NCERT and NCERT shall provide all necessary expertise and support as
per the needs of the INSTC,” the note mentions.
The committee will work to align the curriculum with the National Curriculum Framework
for School Education (NCF-SE) developed by the K. Kasturirangan-led steering committee as
a part of the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
While the final NCF-SE has already been submitted to the Union Ministry of Education, it is
yet to be released in public domain. The draft of the framework was released in April.
19. The Ministry of Education released the National Curriculum Framework for School
Education (NCF), 2023. It aims to provide the guiding principles, goals, structure, and
elements for the development of school curricula. It replaces the National Curriculum
Framework, 2005. It has been formulated in pursuance of the objectives of the National
Education Policy (NEP). The NEP envisioned changes in school education, which included: (i)
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a schooling system divided across four stages, (ii) multidisciplinary education, (iii)
multilingualism, and (iv) flexibility in subject selection. Key features include:
 Comprehensive curriculum framework covering all 4 stages of schooling. The NCF-SE
comprehensively covers all the four stages of schooling. The NCF-SE has articulated the
learning standards to be achieved and the principles for selection of content, pedagogy,
and assessments for achieving the learning standards.
 Enable real improvement in practise of education in the country. The NCF-SE is
designed to enable and help actual change in practise on the ground. The NCF-SE has
made conscious and deliberate effort to communicate to all stakeholders in school
education including Curriculum and Syllabus developers, so that it is useable in practical
circumstances. Teachers and parent community can also comprehend the intention of
the curricula that is developed on the basis of the NCF-SE.
 Learning Standards with clear, specific, and rigorous flow-down. It articulates specific
learning standards for all school subjects that gives clear direction for action for all
stakeholders in the school system, particularly Teachers. The Learning Standards have
defined specific competencies to be achieved at the end of each stage for each school
subject. There is a clear, specific, and rigorous flow-down of curricular logic from the
broad aims of school education to specific curricular aims of each subject, resulting in
curricular goals and competencies for a specific stage in that subject.
 Development of Knowledge, Capacities, and Values. The curriculum focuses on
development of knowledge with genuine understanding, fundamental capacities such as
critical thinking and creativity, and constitutional and human values.
 Empowering teachers and schools. The NCF-SE designed to enable and empower
teachers and schools for the full flowering of their creativity and enhanced engagement.
 Engaging and effective pedagogy. It enables the entire range of age and context
appropriate pedagogy, from play-based, activity-based, inquiry-based, dialogue based,
and more. This would also use effective, widely available, and highly engaging teaching-
learning-material, including textbooks.
 Transforming assessment including exams. Assessment and exams at all levels to be
transformed, to enable genuine learning and reduce stress, including the Board exams.
 Importance of School Culture. School culture and practises are to be developed as an
integral and important part of the curriculum.
 Rooted in India. The curriculum is rooted in India and is informed by the wealth of
Indian knowledge and thought on education. Contributions to the knowledge in various
disciplines by Indians from the ancient to contemporary times have been integrated into
the curricular goals of all school subjects.
 Multidisciplinary education. All children to go through multidisciplinary education to
develop an integrated and holistic perspective and learning.
 Equity and inclusion. The NCF-SE is informed by principles to ensure equity and
inclusion in all its aspects, from content and pedagogy, to, school culture and practises.
 Renewed emphasis on Art, and, Physical Education & Well-being. The school subjects
of Art Education and Physical Education & Well-being are given a renewed emphasis in
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the curriculum by defining specific learning standards to be achieved and recommended

time allocation in the school timetables. Art Education encompasses both visual arts and
performing arts and has equal emphasis on making, thinking about, and appreciating
artwork. Physical Education and Well-being gives emphasis to sports, mind-body
wellness through practices like Yoga, and ideas on incorporating traditional Indian
games and sports into the curriculum.
 Environmental Education. Responding to the triple challenge of climate change,
biodiversity loss, and pollution, and the criticality of environmental awareness and
sustainability in today’s world, Environmental Education is given due emphasis across all
stages of schooling culminating in a separate area of study in the Secondary Stage.
 Vocational Education. The NEP 2020 has made strong recommendations for Vocational
Education to be an integral part of school education and the NCF-SE has included
specific learning standards, content, pedagogy, and assessments for Vocational
Education for all stages of schooling. The curriculum proposes engagement in the three
different forms of work – work with life forms (agriculture, animal husbandry), work
with materials and machines, and work in human services.
 Multilingualism and Indian Languages. The NCF-SE has given the necessary emphasis on
multilingualism and on learning languages native to India. Given the rich multilingual
heritage of India, it expects all students to be proficient in at least three languages, at
least two of which are native to India. It expects students to achieve a “literary level” of
linguistic capacity in at least one of these Indian languages.
 Conceptual understanding and procedural fluency in Mathematics. The school subject
of Mathematics & Computational Thinking has emphasis on conceptual understanding
along with procedural fluency - with a goal to appreciate the beauty and universality of
mathematics and reduce fear of the subject. Higher order curricular goals such as
problem solving, mathematical thinking, coding, and communication are given due
importance.
 Capacities for Scientific Inquiry. Science Education emphasises the development of
capacities for scientific inquiry along with acquiring knowledge of fundamental theories,
laws, and conceptual structures of science in disciplines such as Biology, Chemistry,
Physics, and Earth Science.
 Interdisciplinary understanding of Social Science through themes. The social science
curriculum expects students to systematically study human societies and explore the
relationships between individuals, society, the natural environment, social institutions,
and organizations. This is to be studied through themes in an interdisciplinary manner in
the Middle Stage and developing disciplinary depth in the Secondary Stage.
 Flexibility and Choice in Secondary Stage. The Secondary Stage has been significantly
redesigned to offer more flexibility and choice for students. There are no hard
separations between academic and vocational subjects, or between science, social
science, art, and physical education. Students can choose interesting combinations of
subjects for receiving their school-leaving certificates.
 Interdisciplinary Areas of Study. Interdisciplinary Areas of Study has been introduced as
a separate subject of study in the Secondary Stage. In this subject, students develop the
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ability to reason about contemporary challenges using knowledge from multiple

disciplines including moral and ethical concerns. They are expected to use these abilities
to understand and respond effectively to the concerns of environmental degradation
that include climate change and biodiversity loss.
The NCF-SE is organised into five parts:
 Part A articulates the broad aims of school education, and the desirable values and
dispositions, capacities and skills, and knowledge that are required for achieving these
aims. It also lays down the principles and approaches for content selection, pedagogy,
and assessment and gives the rationale and design principles for the four stages of
schooling.
 Part B focuses on some of the important cross-cutting themes of NCF-SE, viz.,
rootedness in India, education for values, learning and caring about the environment,
inclusive education, guidance and counselling, and use of educational technology.
 Part C has separate chapters for each school subject. Each of these chapters have
Learning Standards defined for all the relevant stages of schooling along with specific
guidelines for content selection, pedagogy, and assessments appropriate for that
subject. The part also has a chapter on the Foundational Stage and one on design and
range of subjects in Grades 11 and 12.
 Part D handles school culture and processes that enable a positive learning environment
and inculcate desirable values and dispositions.
 The last part, Part E, outlines the requirements for an overall ecosystem of schooling
that would enable the achievement of the aims of the NCF-SE. This includes aspects of
teacher capacities and service conditions, physical infrastructure requirements, and the
role of the community and family.
20. The Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved a bus
scheme “PM-eBus Sewa” for augmenting city bus operation by 10,000 e-buses on PPP
model. The Scheme would have an estimated cost of Rs.57,613 crore, out of which support
of Rs.20,000 crore will be provided by the Central government. The Scheme will support bus
operations for 10 years.
Reaching the Unreached:
The scheme will cover cities of Three lakh and above population as per census 2011
including all the Capital cities of Union Territories, North Eastern Region and Hill States.
Under this scheme priority will be given to cities having no organized bus service.
Direct Employment Generation:
The scheme will generate 45,000 to 55,000 direct jobs through deployment of around
10,000 buses in city bus operation.
The Scheme has two segments:
Segment A – Augmenting the City bus services: (169 cities)
The approved bus scheme will augment city bus operations with 10,000 e-buses on Public
Private Partnership (PPP) model.
Associated Infrastructure will provide support for Development/ up-gradation of depot
infrastructure; and Creation of behind-the-meter power infrastructure (substation, etc.) for
e-buses.
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Segment B– Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (GUMI): (181 cities)

The scheme envisages green initiatives like bus priority, infrastructure, multimodal
interchange facilities, NCMC-based Automated Fare Collection Systems, Charging
infrastructure, etc.
Support for Operation: Under the scheme, States/Cities shall be responsible for running the
bus services and making payments to the bus operators. The Central Government will
support these bus operations by providing subsidy to the extent specified in the proposed
scheme.
Boost to E-Mobility:
 The scheme will promote e-mobility and provide full support for behind-the-meter
power infrastructure.
 Cities will also be supported for development of charging infrastructure under Green
Urban Mobility Initiatives.
 The support to bus priority infrastructure shall not only accelerate the proliferation of
state-of-the-art, energy efficient electric buses but also foster the innovation in the e-
mobility sector as well as development of resilient supply chain for electric vehicles.
 This scheme shall also bring in economies of scale for procurement of electric buses
through aggregation for e-buses.
 Adoption to Electric mobility will reduce noise and air pollution and curb carbon
emission.
 Modal shift due to increased share of bus-based public transportation will lead to GHG
reduction.
21. The Standing Committee on Communications and Information Technology (Chairman: Mr.
Prataprao Jadhav) released its report on ‘Review of Functioning of Central Board of Film
Certification’ on August 1, 2023. Key observations and recommendations of the Committee
include:
 Power of CBFC to make modifications: The Committee discussed whether the Board
should: (i) simply certify films, (ii) be allowed to make cuts/excisions before certifying
films or (iii) not regulate films at all. It noted that a simple certification model provides
viewers with the choice of content. CBFC noted that filmmakers often volunteer to
make cuts as they are unaware whether particular scenes violate the regulations.
 However, the Committee noted that the number of films that have been certified
without cuts has sharply reduced. The Committee noted that deliberation and
certification is warranted in a diverse country like India, where people’s sensibilities
must be accounted for. At the same time there is a need to protect the freedom of
speech and artistic expression. The Committee suggested that CBFC strike a balance
between these two. It also suggested that a new certification model with more objective
parameters be determined with the changing ways of creating and consuming content.
 Composition of the Board: CBFC has 12-25 members who are eminent personalities
from spheres such as education, art, film, and social sciences. The Committee noted that
CBFC has adequate numerical strength and has sufficient representation of women.
However, it recommended making it obligatory to have one- third women members. It
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also suggested that CBFC should have some representation from the general public to
ensure inclusivity.
 Initiatives for individuals with special needs: In October 2019, the Ministry had issued an
advisory to make films more accessible by using audio descriptions and closed
captioning. Since then, only one film has been certified as accessible. The Committee
urged the Ministry to ensure tangible outcomes for such initiatives.
22. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra
Modi approved a new Central Sector Scheme “PM Vishwakarma” with a financial outlay of
Rs.13,000 crore for a period of five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28). The scheme aims to
strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional
skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. The scheme also aims
at improving the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and
craftspeople and to ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and
global value chains.
Under PM Vishwakarma scheme, the artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition
through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card, Credit Support upto Rs.1 lakh (First
Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) with a concessional interest rate of 5%. The
Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentive, Incentive for Digital
Transactions and Marketing Support.
The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople of rural and urban areas
across India. Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM
Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer;
(iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith
(Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x)
Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii)
Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber
(Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and
(xviii) Fishing Net Maker.
23. Digital India programme was launched on 1st July, 2015 to enable digital delivery of services
to citizens. It has proved to be a very successful program.
The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, on 16 th Aug 2023 approved
the expansion of the Digital India programme. The total outlay is ₹14,903 crores.
This would enable the following:
 6.25 lakh IT professionals will be re-skilled and up-skilled under the FutureSkills Prime
Programme;
 2.65 lakh persons will be trained in information security under the Information Security
& Education Awareness Phase (ISEA) Programme;
 540 additional services will be available under the Unified Mobile Application for New-
age Governance (UMANG) app/ platform. At present over 1,700 services are already
available on UMANG;
 9 more supercomputers will be added under National Super Computer Mission. This is in
addition to 18 supercomputers already deployed;
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 Bhashini, the AI-enabled multi-language translation tool (currently available in 10

languages) will be rolled out in all 22 schedule 8 languages;
 Modernisation of the National Knowledge Network (NKN) which connects 1,787
educational institutions;
 Digital document verification facility under DigiLocker will now be available to MSMEs
and other organisations;
 1,200 startups will be supported in Tier 2/3 cities;
 3 Centres of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence on health, agriculture and sustainable
cities will be set up;
 Cyber-awareness courses for 12 crores college students;
 New initiatives in the area of cyber security including development of tools and
integration of more than 200 sites with National Cyber Coordination Centre
 Announcement will give a boost to the digital economy of India, drive digital access to
services and support India’s IT and electronics ecosystem.
24. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by Prime Minister, Narendra Modi
approved Seven projects of Ministry of Railways with estimated cost of around Rs.32,500
Crore, with 100% funding from Central Government. The proposals of Multi-tracking will
ease operations and reduce congestion, providing the much required infrastructural
development on the busiest sections across Indian Railways.
The projects covering 35 Districts in 9 States i.e. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Telangana, Andhra
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal will increase the
existing network of Indian Railways by 2339 Kms. and will provide employment of 7.06
crore man-days to the people of the states.
The projects include:
S.No. Name of the Project Nature of the Project
1 Gorakhpur-Cantt-Valmiki Nagar Doubling of existing line
2 Son Nagar-Andal Multi tracking Project Multi Tracking
3 Nergundi-Barang and Khurda Road- 3rd Line
Vizianagaram
4 Mudkhed-Medchal and Mahbubnagar-Dhone Doubling of the existing line
5 Guntur-Bibinagar Doubling of the existing line
6 Chopan-Chunar Doubling of existing line
7 Samakhiali-Gandhidham Quadrupling
These are essential routes for transportation of varied basket of commodities such
as foodgrains, fertilizers, coal, cement, fly-ash, iron and finished steel, clinkers, crude oil,
lime stone, edible oil etc. The capacity augmentation works will result in additional freight
traffic of magnitude 200 MTPA (Million Tonnes Per Annum). The Railways being
environment friendly and energy efficient mode of transportation, will help both in
achieving climate goals and for reducing logistics cost of the country.
The projects are in line with Prime Minister’s Vision of a New India which will make people
of the region “Atmanirbhar” by creating Multi-tasking work force in the region and will
enhance their employment/self employment opportunities.
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The projects are result of PM-Gati Shakti National Master Plan for Multi-model connectivity
which have been possible through integrated planning and will provide seamless
connectivity for movement of people, goods and services.
25. Vindhyagiri, a Project 17A Frigate, was launched by the President of India Smt Droupadi
Murmu, at Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited, Kolkata on 17 Aug 2023.
 Vindhyagiri, named after the mountain range in Karnataka, is the sixth ship of the
Project 17A Frigates. These warships are follow-ons of the Project 17 Class Frigates
(Shivalik Class), with improved stealth features, advanced weapons and sensors and
platform management systems. ‘Vindhyagiri’, a technologically advanced Frigate, pays a
befitting tribute to the distinguished service of its predecessor, the erstwhile
INS Vindhyagiri, the Leander Class ASW Frigate. The old Vindhyagiri in its nearly 31 years
of service from 08 Jul 81 to 11 Jun 12, had witnessed various challenging operations and
multinational exercises. The newly christened Vindhyagiri stands as a symbol of India's
determination to embrace its rich naval heritage while propelling itself towards a future
of indigenous defence capabilities.
 Under the Project 17A program, a total of four ships by M/s MDL and three ships byM/s
GRSE are under construction. The project's first five ships have been launched by MDL &
GRSE, between 2019-2022.
 Project 17A ships have been designed in-house by Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau,
the pioneer organisation for all warship design activities. Aligning with the country's
resolute commitment to 'Aatma Nirbharta', a substantial 75% of the orders for
equipment and systems of Project 17A ships are from indigenous firms, including Micro,
Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). The launch of Vindhyagiri is an apt testament
to the incredible progress our Nation has made in building a self-reliant naval force.
26. Katchatheevu is a 163-acre uninhabited island administered by Sri Lanka. It was a disputed
territory between India and Sri Lanka until 1974. It was never demarcated by the Indian
government.
The island is located between Neduntheevu, Sri Lanka and Rameswaram, India and has
been traditionally used by both Sri Lankan Tamil and Tamil Nadu fishermen. In 1974, then
Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi accepted Katchatheevu as Sri Lankan area under
the "Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement" aimed at resolving the maritime boundaries in
the Palk Strait. Another agreement signed in 1976 restricted both the countries’ fishermen
from fishing in the other’s exclusive economic zones.
Earlier, it was owned by the Ramnad Kingdom of Ramanathapuram Rameshwaram which
later came under the Madras Presidency during British rule of India. It was recognised by
Ceylon as part of British India after the delimitation of Gulf of Mannar and Palk
Strait between the then governments of Madras and Ceylon. However in 1921, Sri Lanka
reinstated its claims to Katchatheevu.
27. The Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was passed by Parliament.
The Bill amends the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017. The Act declares Indian
Institutes of Management (IIMs) as institutes of national importance and regulates their
functioning. IIMs provide post-graduate education in the field of management and allied
areas. Key features of the Bill include:
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 The Bill designates the President of India as Visitor of every Institute covered by the Act.
The Visitor is granted powers that include: (i) initiating inquiries into the functioning of
IIMs, (ii) taking action against Institutes to ensure compliance, and (iii) appointing the
Chairperson of the Co-ordination Forum.
 Under the Act, the Director of an IIM is appointed by the Board of Governors, based on
the recommendations of a Search-cum-Selection Committee. The Bill mandates the
Board to obtain the prior approval of the Visitor before appointing an Institute Director.
The procedure for selecting the Director will be prescribed by the central government.
Under the Act, the Search Committee comprises of the Chairperson of the Board, and
three members from amongst eminent administrators, industrialists, educationists. The
Bill reduces these three members to two, and adds another member to be nominated
by the Visitor.
 Under the Act, the Board may remove the Director from office on grounds such as: (i)
insolvency, (ii) mental and physical incapacity, (iii) conflict of interest. The Bill adds that
the Board will require prior approval of the Visitor before removing a Director. The Bill
also grants the Visitor the authority to terminate the services of the Director, as may be
prescribed.
 Under the Act, the Chairperson of the Board of Governors of each Institute is appointed
by the board. The Bill amends this to provide that the Chairperson of the Board will be
nominated by the Visitor.
 The Bill classifies the National Institute of Industrial Engineering (NITIE), Mumbai as IIM
Mumbai.
National Institute of Industrial Engineering (NITIE), established by the Government of India
in 1963 in the financial capital of the country, has been consistently ranking among the top
B-schools in India. With more than 60 academicians and around 1,200 students across
various programs, NITIE is a leader in management education in the country and ranked 7th
in the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) rankings for 2023 among
Management institutes across India. NITIE is committed to creating skilled professionals in
diverse functional areas like Operations Management, Analytics, Finance, Marketing,
Project Management, HR, Information Technology, and Sustainability Management.
28. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has rolled out an indigenous star-rating
system for crash testing cars under which vehicles will be assigned between one to five stars
indicating their safety in a collision. Called the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme
(NCAP), the rating system will be voluntary and will come into effect from October 1, 2023.
Bharat NCAP:
Under the Bharat NCAP, cars voluntarily nominated by automobile manufacturers will be
crash tested as per protocols laid down in the soon-to-be-published Automotive Industry
Standard 197.
 The programme is applicable to passenger vehicles with not more than eight seats in
addition to the driver’s seat with gross vehicle weight not exceeding 3,500 kgs. Only the
base model of a particular variant will be tested.
 Cars will be assigned a rating between one star to five stars after being evaluated on
three parameters- adult occupant protection, child occupant protection and safety
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assist technologies present in the car. The first two parameters will be calculated with
the help of three different kinds of tests, which include a frontal offset test where a
vehicle is driven at 64 kmph and with 40% overlap into a deformable barrier which
represents the oncoming vehicle, which replicates a crash between two cars of the same
weight. Other tests are the side impact test at 50 kmph and the pole-side impact test
(where a car is crashed into a rigid pole sideways) at 29 kmph.
 Though Bharat NCAP is voluntary, in certain cases, cars may be subjected to a crash test
such as for a base model of a popular variant (minimum clocked sale of 30,000 units), or
when the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways recommends a model for testing
based on market feedback or in the interest of public safety. Officials of the Ministry of
Road Transport and Highways say that automobile manufacturers have offered a total
of 30 car models for crash testing under Bharat NCAP, without revealing the names of
the auto companies willing to participate.
 The objective of the programme is to help consumers make an informed decision before
purchasing a car, thereby spurring demand for safer cars. India sees nearly 1.5 lakh road
fatalities in a year, accounting for 10% of deaths due to road crashes globally with only
1% of the world’s vehicles. According to a World Bank study, road crashes are estimated
to cost the Indian economy between 5 to 7% of GDP a year.
 The testing protocols adopted by the Bharat NCAP are modelled on the Global NCAP,
which is a project of the U.K.-based NGO, Towards Zero Foundation. It serves as a
platform for cooperation among new car assessment programmes worldwide, including
countries such as the U.S. which has the world’s oldest crash testing regime since 1978.
The NGO launched a Safer Cars for India campaign in 2014 when it released the
country’s first independent crash tests covering the Suzuki-Maruti Alto 800, the Tata
Nano, Ford Figo, Hyundai i10 and Volkswagen Polo. All but one of the five models failed
the test at 56km/h and all scored zero stars at 64 km/h. With no airbags, the Swift also
scored zero stars but a separate test of a version sold in Latin America with air bags
scored three stars which demonstrated the model’s potential for improvement,
according to the Towards Zero Foundation.
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General News: World
1. Vogtle Unit 3:
Georgia Power declared on 31 Jul 2023 that Plant Vogtle Unit 3 has entered commercial
operation and is now serving customers and the State of Georgia. The new unit represents a
long-term investment in the state’s clean energy future and will provide reliable, emissions-
free energy to customers for decades to come.
Vogtle Unit 3 is the first newly-constructed nuclear unit in the U.S. in over 30 years and can
power an estimated 500,000 homes and businesses. Once all four units are online, the Plant
Vogtle site will be the largest generator of clean energy in the nation and support continued
growth in Georgia as more industries, businesses and families come to the state.
Nuclear energy is the only zero-emission baseload energy source available today, offering
high reliability, and efficient operations around the clock. Nuclear energy currently provides
approximately 25% of Georgia Power’s overall energy mix, including the existing units at
Plant Vogtle and Georgia’s other nuclear facility at Plant Hatch in Baxley, Ga.
The final stages of construction and testing continue at Vogtle Unit 4, with the unit
projected to be placed in service during the late fourth quarter 2023 or the first quarter of
2024. The unit completed hot functional testing in May, in significantly less time than Unit
3 as the team continues leveraging best practices and learnings from the earlier unit. The
Vogtle site has also received nuclear fuel for Unit 4, with a total of 157 fuel assemblies
necessary for the safe and reliable startup of the unit.
2. On 26 July 2023, a coup d'état occurred in the Republic of the Niger, in which the country's
presidential guard removed and detained President Mohamed Bazoum. Presidential guard
commander General Abdourahamane Tchiani proclaimed himself the leader of a military
junta shortly after confirming the coup to be a success.
The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) gave Niger's coup leaders a
one-week deadline on 30 July 2023 to reinstate Bazoum or face international
sanctions and use of force. The ultimatum's deadline expired on 6 August and, although no
use of force followed, ECOWAS ordered the immediate activation of its standby force on 10
August. ECOWAS has previously intervened in The Gambia to restore democracy following
the country's 2016–2017 constitutional crisis.
All active member states of ECOWAS, with the exception of Cape Verde, have pledged to
contribute military troops from their armed forces in the event of an ECOWAS-led military
intervention against the Nigerien junta, while the military juntas of Burkina
Faso and Mali threatened to join the military intervention on Niger's side if it were to ever
be launched.
3. Pakistan and China on July 31 signed six important documents to expand and expedite
cooperation under the ambitious multi-billion dollar China-Pakistan Economic Corridor
(CPEC) project.
 Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif and Chinese Vice Premier He Lifeng witnessed the signing
ceremony held to mark 10 years of the CPEC, a collection of infrastructure and other
projects under construction throughout Pakistan since 2013.
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 The CPEC, which connects Gwadar Port in Pakistan's Balochistan with China's Xinjiang
province, is opposed by India as it is being laid through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
 Minister for Planning and Development Ahsan Iqbal and Vice Chairman of China’s
National Development and Reforms Commission Zhao Chenxin signed the document on
the joint cooperation committee of CPEC as well as another agreement on the
establishment of an expert exchange mechanism within the framework of the CPEC.
 The third document was signed by the Secretary Ministry of National Food Security
Zafar Hassan and the Chinese Charge D’Affaires Pang Chunxue to export dried chillies
from Pakistan to China.
 Member Planning of National Highway Authority Asim Amin and Pang signed the fourth
document on the realignment of the Karakoram Highway Phase II project feasibility
study.
 The two sides also signed the MOU on the Industrial Workers' Exchange Programme
through diplomatic channels and agreed to promote the strategic ML-1 rail upgradation
project.
China played a significant role in helping the country by rolling over more than USD 5 billion
in loans. CPEC, which was initially a USD 46 billion project, later on, expanded to USD 62
billion. The key agreement for the CPEC projects was agreed in 2013 but it was formally
launched when President Xi Jinping visited Pakistan in 2015.
The BRI was launched by Chinese President Xi in 2013. It aims to link Southeast Asia, Central
Asia, the Gulf region, Africa and Europe with a network of land and sea routes. The BRI is
seen as an attempt by China to further its influence abroad with infrastructure projects
funded by Chinese investments all over the world.
The initiative also led to allegations of smaller countries reeling under mounting Chinese
debt after Sri Lanka gave its Hambantota port in a debt swap to China in 2017 on a 99-year
lease.
The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI, or B&R), known within China as the One Belt One Road
or OBOR for short, is a global infrastructure development strategy adopted by the Chinese
government in 2013 to invest in more than 150 countries and international organizations. It
is considered a centerpiece of the Chinese leader Xi Jinping's foreign policy. The BRI forms a
central component of Xi's "Major Country Diplomacy" strategy, which calls for China to
assume a greater leadership role for global affairs in accordance with its rising power and
status. It has been compared to the American Marshall Plan. As of August 2023, 155
countries were listed as having signed up to the BRI. The participating countries include
almost 75% of the world's population and account for more than half of the world's GDP.
4. China’s cyberspace watchdog has put forward plans to limit the usage of smartphones by
children to no more than two hours a day and to require all tech companies to introduce a
“minor mode” to enable restrictions.
 A draft “Guidelines for the Construction of Minor Mode of the Mobile Internet” is
open for public comments until September 2.
 If the guidelines are adopted as is expected, China will be introducing some of the
world’s most strict regulations for children in the usage of smartphones.
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 The proposed guidelines suggest restrictions for five different age groups: under 3, 3-8,
8-12, 12-16, and 16-18. For children under 8, the “minor mode” will only permit 40
minutes per day, and for those under 3, the guidelines said, “online internet providers
should recommend children’s songs, enlightenment education and other parent-child
companionship programs, and they are recommended to play via audio.”
 The 16-18 age group will be given two hours of usage, and the minor mode “is
prohibited from providing services to minors from 10 p.m. to 6 a.m. the next day.”
Some questions about how this will be enforced remain unclear, but the guidelines are the
latest effort by the authorities to curb what they have seen as uncontrolled digital addiction
among the youth, which has been reflected in numerous government surveys.
 The draft said parents will have to sign on and sign off the minor mode and will be asked
to back the campaign once the guidelines are rolled out across the country. The minor
mode is being seen as offering parents a tool to manage how their children use devices.
The onus is also likely to fall on tech companies who will be required to provide regular data
to the authorities and will be subject to regular checks.
There is some precedence in how companies have been made to comply with such
restrictions. In 2021, authorities put in place new rules to restrict online gaming by children,
forcing providers to only allow one hour of service for those under 18, limited to between 8
and 9 pm on and on the weekend. Time limits have also been enforced by requiring all
gamers to provide real name registration and identification.
5. ‘Communication Interoperability and Security Memorandum of Agreement’ (CIS-MOA):
The Cabinet of Pakistan has approved the formalisation of the ‘Communication
Interoperability and Security Memorandum of Agreement’ (CIS-MOA), a new security
agreement with the United States (US). This action signifies a renewed beginning in the
realm of defence collaboration following a prolonged period of mistrust between the two
nations, potentially paving the way for Islamabad to acquire military equipment from
Washington. The recent occurrence follows a mutual agreement between Pakistan and the
US to strengthen their bilateral relations, particularly in the defence realm. This agreement
was reached during a meeting between General Michael Erik Kurilla, the Chief of the US
Central Command (CENTCOM), and General Asim Munir, the Chief of Army Staff (COAS) of
Pakistan. Nevertheless, both parties refrained from making a formal declaration regarding
the signing of the agreement.
What is CIS-MOA?
The CIS-MOA is a fundamental agreement entered into by the US with its allied nations and
countries with which it seeks to foster strong military and defence relationships. The deal
provides the US Department of Defence constitutional safeguards about selling military
equipment and hardware to foreign nations. The CIS-MOA facilitates the exchange of
classified military communications and information while establishing criteria for the
compatibility of military communication networks if involved.
The significance of the CIS-MOA lies in its facilitation of enhanced military cooperation
between the US and Pakistan. The implications of this matter lie in the fact that Pakistan
holds a pivotal position as a strategic ally for the US within the region. Pakistan is
geographically adjacent to Afghanistan and has played an integral part as an essential link in
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the US-led counterterrorism efforts. Implementing the CIS-MOA will enable the US to
enhance its provision of advanced military equipment and training to Pakistan. This, in turn,
as claimed, will bolster Pakistan's defensive capabilities against various threats posed by
terrorist organisations and other adversaries.
The initial signing of the CIS-MOA occurred in October 2005, between the Joint Staff
Headquarters of Pakistan and the US Department of Defence, with duration of 15 years. The
agreement reached its expiration in the year 2020. Now the Pakistani cabinet recently
renewed the contract. The renewal of the CIS-MOA is a sign of the strong commitment of
both countries to their military relationship.
Pakistan has been facing insurgencies, particularly in the tribal regions along the border
with Afghanistan. The country has struggled with extremist groups like the Tehreek-i-
Taliban Pakistan (TTP) and other militant organisations that have caused instability and loss
of life. By studying and implementing the principles outlined in the CIS-MOA doctrine,
Pakistani security forces may be able to address these challenges better and promote peace
and stability within their borders. The knowledge gained from understanding this doctrine
can also be applied to other countries facing similar challenges.
Countries that have Signed CIS-MOA with the US
Countries that have entered a CIS-MOA with the US include India, Japan, South Korea,
Australia, New Zealand, and the Philippines. The Indo-Pacific region encompasses these
nations that serve as allies and partners to the US, with whom they share mutual strategic
interests and security concerns. The CIS-MOA facilitates access to sophisticated US military
technology and equipment while strengthening their ability to collaborate and synchronise
operations with US forces.
6. The Durra gas field (Arash gas field) is an offshore natural gas field located in the neutral
zone between Kuwait, Iran and Saudi Arabia. It was discovered in 1967. It began production
in 2013 and produces natural gas and condensates. The total proven reserves of the Durra
gas field are around 20 trillion cubic feet (571×109m3) and production is slated to be around
1.5 billion cubic feet/day (43×106m3).
In December 2022, Saudi Aramco and Kuwait Gulf Oil Company signed a Memorandum of
Understanding to develop the Durra field jointly. The development aims at producing 1
billion cubic feet of gas and 84,000 barrels of LNG per day.
As of July 5, 2023, the natural resources within this region are confirmed to be fully owned
by Saudi Arabia and Kuwait, as affirmed by a source from the Saudi Foreign Ministry stated
in a Saudi Gazette Article. The Saudi gazette article highlights the exclusive sovereign rights
of both nations over the use of the offshore resources and emphasizes the call for
negotiations with Iran to demarcate the eastern border of the divided offshore area in
accordance with international law.
7. Typhoon Doksuri, known in the Philippines as Super Typhoon Egay, was a powerful, deadly
and destructive tropical cyclone, which became the costliest typhoon to hit China on record,
the strongest typhoon to impact Fujian since Typhoon Meranti in 2016, and the most
powerful typhoon to strike the province since records began in 1950. Doksuri caused
extensive damage in the Philippines, Taiwan, China and Vietnam, in late July 2023. The
name "Doksuri" means eagle in Korean. The fifth named storm and third typhoon of
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the 2023 Pacific typhoon season, Doksuri started as a low-pressure area in the Philippines,
far off the coast of Mindanao. Tracking northwestward, it rapidly intensified into a typhoon
over the Philippines prior to making landfall over the Babuyan Islands. Together with the
southwest monsoon, Doksuri showered most of the northern and central Luzon island with
heavy rains, triggering floods in various regions of the country. Doksuri steadily weakened
after interacting with land, but by late July 27, Doksuri underwent another round of rapid
intensification in the South China Sea. Doksuri moved towards Fujian, China, before rapidly
weakening overland, and Doksuri dissipated early on the next day.
In Fujian, the rainfall set records for 24-hour totals, including an accumulation of more than
648 mm (25.5 in). Torrential rains impacted many areas, with accumulations
in Xiamen, Quanzhou and Putian reaching 50 mm (2.0 in). The remnants of the storm
produced heavy rainfall in Beijing. The remnants dropped up to 744.8 mm (29.32 in) of
rainfall in Wangjiayuan Reservoir in Changping District with Doksuri setting maximum
rainfall records since recordkeeping began during the Qing dynasty in 1883.
8. The Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO) is an intergovernmental organization
formed by the eight Amazonian countries: Bolivia, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru,
Suriname, and Venezuela, which signed the Amazon Cooperation Treaty (ACT), becoming
the only socio-environmental block in Latin America. ACTO, with a broad vision of the
South-South cooperation process, works in different dimensions within the framework of
the implementation of the ACT: political-diplomatic, strategic, and technical, building
synergies among governments, multilateral organizations, cooperation agencies, organized
civil society, social movements, scientific community, productive sectors and society as a
whole.
The Amazon Cooperation Treaty (ACT) signed on July 3, 1978 gave rise to the ACTO, that is
oriented to promote the harmonious development of the Amazonian territories in such a
way that the joint actions of the Amazonian countries produce equitable and mutually
beneficial results in achieving the sustainable development of the Amazon Region.
ACTO – Strategic objectives
 Facilitate exchange and cooperation among the Member Countries, promoting strategic
sustainable development and sustainable livelihoods in the region to improve the
quality of life of its inhabitants, with emphasis on vulnerable populations, indigenous
peoples, and other tribal communities.
 Ensure that the interests and sovereignty of the Member Countries are respected and
promoted.
 Facilitate and foster actions to preserve, protect, conserve and sustainably use the
forest, biodiversity and water resources of the Amazon.
 Promote management of Amazonian resources in a context of respect and harmony
with nature and the environment.
 Promote and disseminate the cultures of the Amazon, and foster respect and protection
of ancestral and current knowledge and wisdom.
 Promote coordination of plans and programs of Member Countries for the development
of Amazonian populations, paying particular attention to vulnerable populations,
indigenous peoples, and other tribal communities.
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9. On August 1, Meta announced that it will block users in Canada from posting and accessing
news reports on its Facebook and Instagram platforms. This is after Canada’s Online News
Act came into effect on July 22, stipulating that large digital players such as Meta and
Google should pay news publishers for content that is made available on their platforms.
Canada’s Online News Act:
The legislation “requires that digital platforms that make news available and have a
strategic market dominance bargain fairly, and in good faith, with Canadian news
businesses for the use of their news content on their services.”
Essentially, Google and Meta will have to, under government oversight, enter into
compensation agreements with authorised news publishers in Canada. The law states that
there will be a minimum contribution that the platforms need to make, based on their
revenue in Canada. The bargaining process will be overseen by the Canadian Radio-
television and Telecommunications Commission, a government body. The law also has
language which seems to say the government can restrict how digital platforms treat news
items or topics, such as algorithmically promoting or downplaying them.
 In 2021, Australia passed the News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining
Code, which became the blueprint for the Canadian law and similar laws being
considered in Europe and many other countries.
The Australian and Canadian laws seek to level this playing field by forcing a negotiation and
setting the terms. In India, organisations such as the Digital News Publishers Association
have been pursuing similar legislation and recently the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting said in a statement that, “For the growth of the news industry, it is important
that the digital news platforms get a fair share of the revenue from the Big Tech platforms.”
10. Palm manuscripts from the 18th Century titled Gnanamuyarchi have been discovered in an
Armenian monastery in Northern Italy. Tamil Bharathan, a doctoral scholar of the Special
Centre for Tamil Studies in Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), was allowed access to the
manuscripts.
He sought the help of Margherita Trento, a professor who has studied the history of the
literary and social techniques employed by Roman Catholics to localise Christianity in early
modern Tamil Nadu. According to her, it could be a copy of the first translation of
Ignatius’ Spiritual Exercise in Tamil.
As per Ms. Margherita, who has written extensively about the text, “This translation is most
likely by Michele Bertoldi, known in Tamil as Gnanaprakasasamy. This is a prose text from
the early 18th Century (likely the 1720s) and has been printed several times in the
19th Century by the Mission Press in Puducherry”.
He has started cataloguing the manuscripts and also has plans to visit Roja Muthiah Library
in Chennai since it also has a copy of the work in its possession.
11. The 27th edition of Exercise MALABAR, concluded on the East Coast of Australia off Sydney
on 21 Aug 23. The exercise saw participation of Ships, Submarines and aircraft from the
Indian Navy (IN), Royal Australian Navy (RAN), Japan Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF)
and the US Navy (USN). Exercise MALABAR 23 was conducted in two phases, which included
a harbour phase from 11-15 August 2023 and a sea phase from 16-21 August 2023.
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The Indian Navy was represented by indigenously built Destroyer INS Kolkata, Frigate INS
Sahyadri and P8I Maritime Patrol Aircraft. Other participating units included RAN ships
HMAS Choules and HMAS Brisbane, USS Raphael Peralta, JS Shiranui, along with
submarines, fighter aircraft, maritime patrol aircraft and shipborne helicopters. While the
ships sailed out for the sea phase from Sydney harbour, the Air assets operated from RAAF
Amberley Brisbane, where the P-8I Dets involving IN, RAAF and US P-8 crew were stationed.
The sea phase of Ex Malabar witnessed complex and high intensity exercises in air, surface
and undersea domains, weapon firings and cross deck helicopter operations. The joint
exercises at sea honed the war-fighting skills and enhanced interoperability between the
four navies to undertake advanced maritime operations. The seamless integration of air
assets also showcased the exceptional coordination and interoperability between the
Indian, Australian and US maritime patrol aircraft units. The exercise not only reaffirmed the
ability of the four navies to operate together as an integrated force but also highlighted
their shared commitment to maritime security and regional stability through collaborative
training and mutual understanding.
At the culmination of five days of multifarious exercises, Exercise MALABAR vividly
showcased the strong cooperation, shared values and the collective ability of the four
participating nations to ensure a free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific promoting peace and
security for all.
12. The International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples is observed on 9 August each year
to raise awareness and protect the rights of the world's indigenous population. This event
also recognizes the achievements and contributions that indigenous people make to
improve world issues such as environmental protection. It was first pronounced by
the United Nations General Assembly in December 1994, marking the day of the first
meeting of the UN Working Group on Indigenous Populations of the Sub-Commission on the
Promotion and Protection of Human Rights in 1982.
History:
In December 1992 the General Assembly of the United Nations adopted a resolution to
make 1993 the International Year of the World's Indigenous Peoples.
The International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples was first pronounced by the UN
General Assembly in December 1994, to be celebrated every year during the
first International Decade of the World's Indigenous Peoples (1995–2004). In 2004, the
Assembly proclaimed a Second International Decade, from 2005–2015, with the theme of
"A Decade for Action and Dignity". People from different nations are encouraged to
participate in observing the day to spread the UN's message on indigenous peoples.
Activities may include educational forums and classroom activities to gain an appreciation
and a better understanding of indigenous peoples.
By resolution 49/214 of 23 December 1994, the United Nations General Assembly decided
that the International Day of the World's Indigenous People shall be observed on 9 August
every year during the International Decade of the World's Indigenous People. The date
marks the day of the first meeting, in 1982, of the UN Working Group on Indigenous
Populations of the Sub-Commission on the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights.
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13. On August 1, rating agency Fitch downgraded the United States of America’s (U.S.A.)
rating to ‘AA+’ from ‘AAA’- a rating that it had been holding at the agency since 1994. This
was the first major downgrade for the country since Standard & Poor’s (S&P) actions in
2011. Fitch argued the downgrade cumulatively reflected the expected fiscal deterioration
over the next three years, “high and growing” general government debt burden and the
“erosion of governance” in comparison to similarly rated peers over the last two decades.
Downgrade:
Before moving to the downgrade, it is pertinent to note that rating agencies are institutions
that assess the creditworthiness or financial capability of a region, country, its institutions
or individual organisations. They assess its ability to meet payment obligations- particularly
important for those making investment decisions.
Fitch rates credit quality from ‘AAA’ (its highest rating) to ‘D’ (lowest rating). ‘AAA’ is
assigned to entities with “exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial
commitments”. The downgrade in discussion, that is ‘AA’, denotes “very low default risk”, in
other words, “very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments”. Important to
note, both reflect strong profiles- varying only on a comparative basis.
AAA credit rating:
 The AAA or "triple-A" rating is the highest rating that an agency gives to a country,
locality or company concerning its ability to repay its debts.
 The top three global ratings agencies: S&P Global, Fitch and Moody's, use the same
system of letters, ranging from a top AAA rating through B, C and D for payment
defaults.
 The ratings are intended to reflect the economic and/or financial health of a borrower.
For countries, the agencies look at economic growth, tax revenue, government
spending, deficits and debt levels to determining their ratings. These ratings are
intended for use by investors to guide them in their investment choices.
 The lower a rating, the more investors are likely to demand higher interest payments
from a borrower to compensate for the risk of not getting repaid.
 Only a small group of nations have a triple-A rating from all three major ratings
agencies: Australia, Denmark, Germany, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway,
Singapore, and Switzerland.
 Several others have an AAA from one or two of the agencies. That is the case with the
United States, which still has a triple-A from Moody's. S&P stripped the United States of
its AAA in 2011. Canada and the European Union are in a similar situation.
Who has lost their triple-A:
 In Europe, several countries including France lost theirs in the wake of the 2008 global
financial crisis.
 For France, "it was a leap into the unknown," the founder of the Global Sovereign
Advisory consultancy, said earlier this year of the country's downgrades in 2012 and
2013.
 But the county "didn't lose investors" then or when Fitch lowered its rating in March
when the country was in the midst of a wave of strikes over a contentious pension
reform.
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 Fitch's downgrade of the United States was the first time it has changed its rating for
Washington since it began rating it in 1994.
 Moody's has not changed its rating for the United States since 1949.
14. China’s Deflation:
 China slipped into deflation as consumer prices contracted last month for the first time
in more than two years, official data showed on August 9, as slowing domestic spending
weighs on the country’s post-Covid economic recovery. The Consumer Price Index, the
main gauge of inflation, fell 0.3 in July, the National Bureau of Statistics said, having
flatlined in June.
 Deflation refers to falling prices of goods and services and is caused by a number of
factors, including waning consumption. And while cheaper goods may appear beneficial
for purchasing power, deflation poses a threat to the broader economy.
 As prices fall, consumers tend to postpone purchases in the hopes of further price cuts.
A lack of demand then forces companies to reduce production, freeze hiring or lay off
workers, and agree to new discounts to sell off their stocks weighing on profitability
even as costs remain the same.
 China experienced a short period of deflation at end of 2020 and early 2021, due largely
to a collapse in the price of pork, the most widely consumed meat in the country. Prior
to that, the last deflationary period was in 2009.
 The producer price index (PPI) fell for a 10th consecutive month, down 4.4% from a year
earlier after a 5.4% drop the previous month. That compared with a forecast for a 4.1%
fall.
 The government has set a consumer inflation target of around 3% this year, which be up
from 2% recorded in 2022.
15. The World Health Organization (WHO) and the G20 India presidency announced a
new Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) at the Health Minister’s Meeting of the G20
Summit hosted by the Government of India.
The new GIDH initiative will operate as a WHO-managed network and platform to support
the implementation of the Global Strategy on Digital Health 2020–2025. WHO serves as the
Secretariat for the strategy implementation to converge and convene global standards, best
practices and resources to fast track digital health system transformation.
The GIDH initiative aims to bring countries and partners together to achieve measurable
outcomes by:
 developing clear priority-driven investment plans for digital health transformation;
 improving reporting and transparency of digital health resources;
 facilitating knowledge exchange and collaboration across regions and countries to
accelerate progress;
 supporting whole-of-government approaches for digital health governance in countries;
and
 increasing technical and financial support to the implementation of the Global Strategy
on Digital Health 2020–2025 and its next phase.
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WHO and partners announced substantial commitments in cash and kind from multiple
stakeholders to support the launch of this new Initiative.
The key components of the GIDH will leverage existing evidence, tools and learnings and
will be co- created through a transparent and inclusive process. Through this evidence-
based and comprehensive co-creation process, GIDH will ultimately aim to:
 ALIGN efforts to support the Global Strategy on Digital Health 2020–2025;
 SUPPORT quality assured technical assistance to develop and strengthen standards-
based and interoperable systems aligned to global best practices, norms and standards;
 FACILITATE the deliberate use of quality assured digital transformation tools that enable
governments to manage their digital health transformation journey.
The Global Strategy on Digital Health was endorsed by Member States in 2020 as a way to
align actions and goals, while defining a roadmap towards digital health transformation. The
GIDH will enable us to address over 70% of the proposed actions in the Global Strategy.
Digital health is a proven accelerator to advance health outcomes towards achieving
Universal Health Coverage and the health-related Sustainable Development Goals by 2030.
Digital health interventions improve health care in many ways, from supporting individuals
in managing their health and wellness journeys, to enabling care providers to adhere to
guidelines and provide high quality care, to strengthening health systems by improving
supply chains and workforce management.
16. The 2023 BRICS summit was the fifteenth annual BRICS summit, an international relations
conference attended by the heads of state or heads of government of the five member
states: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. South African President Cyril
Ramaphosa also invited the leaders of 67 countries to the summit.
Several countries have expressed interest in joining the BRICS group. At the summit, South
African President Cyril Ramaphosa announced that Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi
Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates have been invited to join the bloc. Full membership
will take effect on 1 January 2024.
For 2023, the theme of South Africa’s Chairship of BRICS has the following priorities:
a) Developing a partnership towards an equitable Just Transition
b) Transforming Education and Skills Development for the Future
c) Unlocking Opportunities through the African Continental Free Trade Agreement
d) Strengthening Post-Pandemic Socio-Economic Recovery and the Attainment of the 2030
Agenda on Sustainable Development
e) Strengthening Multilateralism, including Working Toward Real Reform of Global
Governance Institutions and Strengthening the Meaningful Participation of Women in
Peace Processes.
17. In a historic decision, Ecuadorians voted against the oil drilling of a protected area in the
Amazon that's home to two uncontacted tribes and serves as a biodiversity hotspot.
 Ecuadorians rejected the oil exploration in Block 44, situated within Yasuni National
Park, one of the world’s most biodiverse regions. The area is inhabited by the Tagaeri
and Taromenani, who live in self-isolation.
 In 1989, Yasuni was designated a world biosphere reserve by the United Nations
Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation, also known as UNESCO. Encompassing
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a surface area of over 1 million hectares (2.5 million acres), it boasts 610 species of
birds, 139 species of amphibians, and 121 species of reptiles. At least three species are
endemic.
The outcome represents a significant blow to Ecuadorian President Guillermo Lasso, who
advocated for oil drilling, asserting that its revenues are crucial to the country’s economy.
As a result of the vote, state oil company Petroecuador will be required to dismantle its
operations in the coming months.
The referendum took place alongside the presidential election, which will be decided in a
runoff between leftist candidate Luisa González and right-wing contender Daniel Noboa.
The country is experiencing political turmoil following the assassination of one of the
candidates, Fernando Villavicencio.
18. The Northern Sea Route (NSR) is a shipping route about 5,600 kilometres (3,500 mi) long,
defined by Russian legislation as running from the entrances to the Novaya Zemlya straits in
the west, along the Russian Arctic coast above Siberia through the Kara Sea, Laptev
Sea, East Siberian Sea, and Chukchi Sea, to Cape Zhelaniya on the Bering Strait, at parallel
66° N and meridian of 168° 58′37 ″ W.
The entire route lies in Arctic waters and within Russia's exclusive economic zone (EEZ), and
is included in what has been called the Northeast Passage, analogous to
Canada's Northwest Passage. The Northern Sea Route itself does not include the Barents
Sea, and it therefore does not reach the Atlantic.
The Northern Sea Route currently serves the Arctic ports and major rivers of Siberia by
importing fuel, equipment, food and exporting timber and minerals. Some parts of the
route are only free of ice for two months per year, but melting Arctic ice caps are likely to
increase traffic and the commercial viability of the Northern Sea Route.
19. China and Bhutan have held the first meeting of newly set up joint technical team on the
delimitation of their disputed boundary, as officials from both sides met for four days in
China and agreed to speed up a boundary resolution.
A joint press release from Beijing and Thimphu said the 13 th Expert Group Meeting (EGM)
was held in Beijing and described as an “important outcome” the setting up of a Joint
Technical Team on the Delimitation of the China-Bhutan Boundary, which held its first
meeting along the sidelines of the EGM.
In recent months, both sides have portrayed the long-running talks as picking up speed and
nearing towards a possible solution, which would have ramifications for India. They agreed
in Beijing to hold the next 14th round as soon as possible and to hold the 25th round of
boundary talks to “keep the positive momentum”. It did not however announce a date for
the already much delayed 25th round of boundary talks, which have not been held since
2016.
While there was a two-year gap between the 10 th round of the EGM held in April 2021 and
the 11th round of the EGM held in January 2023, the last two rounds have been held in
relatively quick succession.
The boundary talks between Bhutan and China began in 1984, and the 24 th round was held
in 2016. The talks have largely focused on disputed areas to Bhutan’s north, and to its west,
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abutting the Doklam plateau. However, these have been stalled since 2016, especially after
the 2017 Doklam stand-off.
20. The Biden administration has approved a $500 million arms sale to Taiwan as it ramps up
military assistance to the island despite fervent objections from China.
As per, the State Department it had signed off on the sale of infrared search tracking
systems along with related equipment for advanced F-16 fighter jets. The sale includes the
infrared systems as well as test support and equipment, computer software and spare
parts.
21. Radioactive water from the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant in Japan began being
discharged into the Pacific Ocean on 11 March 2011, following the Fukushima Daiichi
nuclear disaster triggered by the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami. Due to the massive
tsunami that disabled the cooling systems at the nuclear plant, three reactors experienced
meltdowns, leaving behind melted fuel debris. Water used subsequently to cool the debris
became contaminated with radioactive nuclides. The majority of these radioactive
materials resulted in immediate atmospheric leaks, with 80% eventually depositing into the
ocean and nearby rivers.
Leakage to groundwater had persisted since the disaster and was only first admitted by the
nuclear plant in 2013. Since then, the contaminated water has been treated using the
Advanced Liquid Processing System (ALPS) to eliminate most radionuclides, except
notably tritium with a half-life of 12.32 years.
In 2021, the Japanese cabinet approved the dumping of ALPS-treated water containing 1.8 g
(0.1 oz) of tritium, which after dilution has tritium levels reportedly meeting safety
standards, into the ocean.
On 24 August, 2023, the power plant started releasing the treated water into the Pacific
Ocean. This involves processing and discharging more than a million tonnes of radioactive
water stored at the nuclear plant over a course of 30 years.
The review report by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) shows that the
approach to the discharge of ALPS-treated water into the sea is consistent with relevant
international safety standards. It also emphasizes that the release of the treated water is a
national decision by the Government of Japan and its report is neither a recommendation
nor an endorsement of the decision.
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Awards
1. The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi was conferred the Lokmanya Tilak National Award in
Pune, Maharashtra. The Award was constituted by Tilak Smarak Mandir Trust in 1983 to
honor the legacy of Lokmanya Tilak. The Prime Minister donated the cash prize to the
Namami Gange Project.
Background
The Award was constituted by Tilak Smarak Mandir Trust in 1983 to honor the legacy of
Lokmanya Tilak. It is awarded to people who have worked for the progress and
development of the nation and whose contribution can only be seen as remarkable and
extraordinary. It is presented every year on the 1st of August- Lokmanya Tilak’s death
anniversary.
The Prime Minister became the 41st recipient of the award. It has previously been
presented to luminaries such as Dr Shankar Dayal Sharma, Shri Pranab Mukherjee, Shri Atal
Bihari Vajpayee, Mrs Indira Gandhi, Dr Manmohan Singh, Shri N. R. Narayana Murthy, Dr E.
Sreedharan among others.
2. Exiled Belarusian opposition leader Svetlana Tikhanovskaya won a rights prize in memory
of Sweden's assassinated foreign minister Anna Lindh for her "tireless" fight for democracy,
the award's organisers said.
The Anna Lindh Prize, worth 100,000 Swedish kronor ($9,400), is given "to encourage
primarily women and youth who, in Anna Lindh's spirit, show the courage to work against
indifference, prejudice, oppression and injustice", according to the Anna Lindh Memorial
Fund that awards the honour.
Tikhanovskaya, who claimed victory against Belarusian leader Alexander Lukashenko in
2020 presidential elections, has been in exile since the aftermath of the disputed vote, and
lives in Lithuania.
Belarus is an authoritarian state in which opposition voices and independent media have
been stifled during Lukashenko's nearly three decades in power. The award was announced
on the third anniversary of the 2020 election that critics and Western leaders say was
rigged.
Anna Lindh was murdered on September 11, 2003 by a mentally ill young Swedish man,
Mijailo Mijailovic, who was of Serbian origin. The prize will be officially awarded to
Tikhanovskaya on September 11 in a ceremony in Stockholm marking the 20th anniversary
of Lindh's death.
3. Chris Evert will be honoured on opening night of the 2023 US Open as the recipient of the
USTA Foundation's Serving Up Dreams Award.
Awarded annually in all but one year since 2015, the Serving Up Dreams Award is presented
to those who embody the values of dedicated service to help advance the USTA
Foundation's mission and the National Junior Tennis & Learning (NJTL) network.
Chairperson of the USTA Foundation since 2019, the 18-time Grand Slam singles champion
also serves as its spokesperson, advancing its mission and increasing the impact of its
national outreach efforts to under-resourced youth. In her tenure, she's overseen two of
the USTA Foundation's signature fundraising campaigns: Rally to Rebuild, an emergency
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fund that raised more than $5 million in support of NJTLs during the COVID-19 pandemic;
and Rally for the Future, the most ambitious campaign in the three-decade history of the
USTA Foundation. It has raised more than $20 million in its first two years.
Evert first collaborated with the USTA Foundation in 2016 to establish the Jimmy Evert
Fund, in honour of her late father, which supports scholarships for NJTL student-athletes
across the country. NJTL is the flagship in- and after-school tennis and education program of
the USTA Foundation, which supports the athletic and academic endeavours of more than
130,000 youth across the United States through its more than 270 chapters.
4. Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred with the Grand Cross of the Order of Honour
by Katerina N. Sakellaropoulou, President of Greece on 25 August 2023. He is the first
foreign Head of Government to receive this honour.
The Order of Honour is an order of Greece. It comes second in rank to the Order of the
Redeemer, and was established in 1975, replacing the abolished Royal Order of George I.
It is conferred by the Greek government upon "Greek citizens who are distinguished in
struggles for the Fatherland, to senior executives of the public administration, to eminent
personalities of the arts and letters as well as to distinguished scientists or individuals who
excelled in the field of trade, shipping and industry. It is also conferred upon foreigners
who, due to their distinguished position and through their personal worth, have contributed
to the promotion of Greece."
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Legal and Indian Polity
1. The Justice G. Rohini-headed Commission for the sub-categorisation of Other Backward

Classes (OBC) caste groups on July 31 submitted its report on the issue to the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment, nearly six years after the Union government first assigned
the task to it, a task that was initially meant to be finished in 12 weeks.
 The Commission’s report was submitted on the last day of its functioning, after it had
received up to 14 extensions from the government in the last six years. The government
had formed the Commission in 2017, to be headed by former Delhi High Court Chief
Justice, Justice G. Rohini. The Commission also had as a Member, J.K. Bajaj from the
Centre for Policy Studies, along with others.
 The Commission was asked to examine the extent to which reservation and other
benefits for OBCs are concentrated among some dominant caste groups. Based on this,
the Commission was then tasked with suggesting a break-up of the over 2,600 caste
groups in the Central OBC list so that these benefits could be equitably redistributed.
In addition to the recommendations on sub-categorising OBC caste groups, the Commission
also undertook an exercise to minutely examine the entries in the OBC list, and suggest
omissions and corrections in spellings of the entries to rationalise the list of castes.
2. The Justice G. Rohini-led Commission on the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes
groups, constituted in October 2017, submitted its report to the President of India on July
31, after having received 14 extensions in the last six years. The Commission was initially
asked to finish its report in 12 weeks.
What has the Commission examined?
The President had formed the Commission headed by former Delhi High Court Chief Justice
G. Rohini in October 2017, to examine the question of sub-categorising the over 2,600 caste
groups listed in the Central OBC list.
The Commission had as a Member, Dr. J.K. Bajaj of the Centre for Policy Studies with
representatives from the Anthropological Survey of India, the Office of the Registrar
General of India, and the Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry.
In the notification announcing its formation, the Commission was tasked with first
examining how much of 27% reservation (jobs and education) and other government
benefits meant for OBCs was dominated by which caste groups.
The Commission had arrived at the conclusion that a small number of caste groups among
all OBC groups, were dominating reservation and other government benefits.
Further, the Commission went on to explore ways of sub-categorising these existing OBC
groups in order to make sure benefits can be redistributed equitably. This involved breaking
up all OBC caste groups into further categories based on how dominant the communities
have been in availing government benefits meant for OBCs.
Subsequently, the Commission proceeded to work out a formula for breaking up the caste
groups in a way that would make the highest share of the 27% reservation pie available to
the groups that have historically been crowded out of them; and the least share of the pie
going to caste groups that have so far dominated this sphere.
While the Commission’s report has now been submitted to the President.
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In addition to this, the Commission was also tasked with rationalising the Central OBC list by
suggesting corrections and replacements in spellings, which will result in minor changes to
the entries.
 With the Rohini Commission’s findings expected to throw up exact numbers on OBC
communities that have availed benefits since reservation for them began in 1992, this
data set will for the first time show the changes, if any, in the socio-economic status of
OBC communities that have historically been able to avail benefits.
Terms of Reference of the Rohini Commission-
 Examining Inequitable Distribution: The commission was to assess the extent of uneven
allocation of reservation benefits among various OBC castes or communities included in
the Central List.
 Mechanism for Sub-Categorization: It was mandated to devise a scientific approach,
criteria, norms, and parameters for the sub-categorization within the broader OBC
category.
 Identifying and Classifying: The commission was required to identify and classify
specific castes, communities, sub-castes, or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs into
their respective sub-categories.
 Identifying any discrepancies or errors: The commission was tasked with examining the
entries in the Central List of OBCs and suggesting necessary revisions to address issues
such as repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies, and errors in spelling or transcription.
Findings of the Report-
 The Commission's analysis of 1.3 lakh central jobs and OBC admissions to central higher
education institutions unveiled a significant disparity.
 Unequal Distribution: It showed that 97% of the total opportunities were concentrated
by only 25% of the OBC sub-castes and 24.95% of these jobs and seats have gone to just
10 OBC communities.
 Underrepresented OBC Communities: Around 37% of the total OBC communities,
amounting to 983 groups, were identified as having absolutely no representation within
both job positions and educational institutions.
 Limited Representation: Within the framework of OBC sub-castes, a mere 2.68%
representation in terms of recruitments and admissions was observed among 994 OBC
sub-castes.
3. An arguments is ongoing before a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court on
the abrogation of Jammu and Kashmir’s special status under Article 370.
J&K Special Status:
Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special status because of the circumstances in which it
acceded to India soon after Independence. Sandwiched between the two new Dominions of
India and Pakistan, the State did not make an immediate decision on which country to join,
as it had vital economic and cultural links with both. Maharaja Hari Singh, in August 1947,
offered to have ‘Standstill Agreements’, which meant that existing arrangements will
continue on all matters, with both Pakistan and India. Pakistan agreed immediately. India
offered to negotiate a ‘Standstill Agreement’, but no such pact materialised.
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However, by October 1947, the Maharaja was faced with regular military attacks from the
Pakistan side by “soldiers in plainclothes, desperadoes with modern weapons”. There was
mass infiltration by heavily armed tribesmen from the North-West Frontier into Kashmir,
and the Maharaja felt this could not happen without the support of the governments of
Pakistan and of the North-West Frontier Province. In a desperate letter to India’s Governor-
General, Lord Mountbatten, on October 26, 1947, he sought help from India, noting that
“naturally they cannot send the help asked for” without his State acceding to the Dominion
of India. Therefore, he attached an ‘Instrument of Accession’ with the letter. However, it
was not unconditional. He specified matters on which the Dominion legislature may make
laws for Jammu and Kashmir, but the rest of the powers were to be retained by the State.
These subjects were Defence, Foreign Affairs and Communications.
Was the accession temporary?
While India was then ruled under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935,
Jammu and Kashmir had its own Constitution since 1939. In the Instrument of Accession,
Hari Singh had laid down a condition that it cannot be altered unless he accepted the
change. Quite significantly, he said: “Nothing in this Instrument shall be deemed to commit
in any way to acceptance of any future Constitution of India or to fetter my discretion to
enter into arrangement with the Government of India under any such future Constitution.”
When Article 370 was adopted in the Constituent Assembly of India, care was taken to see
that it reflected the clauses and spirit of the Instrument of Accession. Hence, the key issue
of whether the status could have been abrogated unilaterally is being argued in historical
terms, and not merely in legal terms.
What are the features of Article 370?
Many believe that Article 370 is the sole mechanism by which Jammu and Kashmir can be a
part of India, and that without it, the conditions of its accession will be breached. It falls
under a heading ‘Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir’. It
has three core principles:
a) On items in the Union List and Concurrent List, the power of Parliament to make laws
for the State will be limited to those matters that correspond to those specified in the
Instrument of Accession; and, even that will be in ‘consultation’ with the State
government.
b) On other matters in these Lists, Parliament can make laws for the State only with the
State government’s ‘concurrence’. This is why until before the abrogation, Indian laws
did not automatically apply to Jammu and Kashmir.
c) Article 1 (which declares India a Union of States) and Article 370 itself were made
applicable as such to J&K. However, the rest of the Constitution of India would be
applicable only through Orders passed by the President from time to time “with
exceptions and modifications”.
Even these Orders could be promulgated only with the State government’s consultation (if
it pertained to matters conceded to India under the Instrument of Accession) and
concurrence, in respect of other provisions. Finally, the Article provided for its own demise:
the President could declare it inoperative if there is such a recommendation from the State
Constituent Assembly. (In 1951, Yuvaraj Karan Singh, who was ruling Kashmir then after his
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father Hari Singh’s abdication, called for the formation of a Constituent Assembly to frame a
separate Constitution for the State. It was formed through an election based on adult
franchise).
4. The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023, was passed by Parliament.
It amends the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969. The Act provides for the
regulation of registration of births and deaths. Key features of the Bill include:
 The Act requires certain persons (informants) to report births and deaths to the
Registrar. For example, the medical officer in charge of a hospital where a baby is born
must report the birth. The Bill adds that, in cases of births, the informant shall also
provide the Aadhaar number of the parents and the informant, if available. This
provision also applies to: (i) jailor in case of births in a jail, and (ii) manager of a hotel or
lodge in case of births in such a place. Further, it expands the list of specified persons to
include: (i) adoptive parents for non-institutional adoption, (ii) biological parent for
births through surrogacy, and (iii) the parent in case of birth of a child to a single parent
or unwed mother.
 The Act provides for the appointment of a Registrar-General, India who may issue
general directions for registration of births and deaths. The Bill adds that the Registrar
General will maintain a national database of registered births and deaths. Chief
Registrars (appointed by states) and Registrars (appointed by states for each local area
jurisdiction) will be obligated to share data of registered births and deaths to the
national database. The Chief Registrar shall maintain a similar database at the state
level.
 The Bill states that the national database may be made available to other authorities
preparing or maintaining other databases. Such databases include: (i) population
register, (ii) electoral rolls, (iii) ration card, and (iv) any other national databases as
notified. The use of the national database must be approved by the central government.
Similarly, the state database may be made available to authorities dealing with other
state databases, subject to the state government’s approval.
5. On August 14, the Tamil Nadu government sought the Supreme Court’s intervention to
make Karnataka immediately release 24,000 cubic feet per second (cusecs) from its
reservoirs and ensure the availability of the specified quantity of water at Biligundlu on the
inter-State border for the remainder of the month. It also urged the Court to direct
Karnataka to ensure the release of 36.76 TMC (thousand million cubic feet) stipulated for
September 2023 as per the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT)’s final award of
February 2007 that was modified by the SC in 2018.
Water Sharing:
A monthly schedule is in place for Karnataka, the upper riparian State of the Cauvery basin,
to release water to Tamil Nadu. As per the schedule, Karnataka is to make available to Tamil
Nadu at Biligundlu a total quantity of 177.25 TMC in a “normal” water year (June to May).
Of this quantity, 123.14 TMC is to be given during the period from June to September, also
marking the season of the southwest monsoon. Invariably, it is during this period that the
Cauvery issue gets flared up, when the monsoon yields lower rainfall than anticipated. After
the SC gave its judgment in February 2018 on the CWDT’s 2007 award, the Cauvery Water
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Management Authority (CWMA) and Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) were
established four months later to ensure the implementation of the judgment. Since then,
the two bodies have been holding meetings to take stock of the situation.
6. The Government of NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2023:
Highlights of the Bill-
 The Bill establishes the National Capital Civil Services Authority, which consists of the
Chief Minister, Chief Secretary of Delhi, Principal Home Secretary of Delhi. The
Authority will make recommendations to the Lieutenant Governor (LG) regarding
transfers and postings of officials and disciplinary matters.
 The Bill empowers the LG to exercise his sole discretion on several matters including
those recommended by the National Capital Civil Services Authority, and the
summoning, prorogation and dissolution of the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
 It authorises department secretaries to bring to the notice of the LG, the Chief Minister
and the Chief Secretary any matter that may bring Delhi Government into controversy
with the Central Government.
Key Features-
 National Capital Civil Services Authority: The Bill establishes the National Capital Civil
Services Authority to make recommendations to the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi (LG)
on certain matters related to services. These include: (i) transfers and postings, (ii)
matters related to vigilance, (iii) disciplinary proceedings, and (iv) prosecution sanctions
of Group A of All India Services (except Indian Police Service), and DANICS.
 The Authority will consist of the: (i) Chief Minister of Delhi as Chairperson, (ii) Principal
Home Secretary of the Delhi government as Member Secretary, and (iii) Chief Secretary
of the Delhi government as member. The central government will appoint both the
Principal Home Secretary and Chief Secretary. All decisions of the Authority will be
based on a majority vote of the members present and voting. The quorum for a
meeting is two people.
 Powers of the Lieutenant Governor: Under the Act, matters where the LG may act on
his discretion are: (i) matters outside the legislative competence of the Delhi Legislative
Assembly but which have been delegated to the LG, or (ii) matters where he is required
by a law to act in his discretion or exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions. The
Bill specifies that in these matters, the LG will act in his sole discretion. It expands the
discretionary role of the LG by giving him powers to approve the recommendations of
the Authority, or return them for reconsideration. In the case of a difference of opinion
between the LG and the Authority, the former’s decision will be final.
 Disposal of matters by Ministers: A Minister of the Delhi government may issue
standing orders for the disposal of matters brought to his attention. The order should
be issued in consultation with the concerned Department Secretary. Certain matters
must be submitted to the LG, through the Chief Minister and the Chief Secretary, for his
opinion prior to the issue of any order. These include proposals affecting: (i) the peace
and tranquillity of Delhi, (ii) relations between the Delhi government and the central
government, Supreme Court, or other state governments, (iii) summoning, prorogation,
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and dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, and (iv) matters on which LG is to give an
order in his sole discretion.
 Duties of Secretaries: Additionally, the concerned Department Secretary must bring
certain matters to the notice of the LG, the Chief Minister, and the Chief Secretary.
These include matters which may bring the Delhi Government into controversy with the
central or any state government, the Supreme Court, or High Court of Delhi.
Table: Timeline on Key Legislations and Judgements on Delhi

Year Development
1956  States Reorganization Act is passed. Delhi classified as a Union Territory
1991-92  The 69th Constitutional Amendment (Article 239AA) is passed to make Delhi
a UT with legislature.
 The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991 is
passed.
 The 70th Constitutional Amendment is passed which provides for certain
laws of Parliament (amending Article 239AA) to not be deemed as an
amendment to the Constitution.
2015  Ministry of Home Affairs issues a notification taking away the control over
services from the Delhi legislature, and empowering the LG to discharge
functions of the Central Government in relation to the same.
2016  Delhi High Court holds that services lie outside the purview of the Delhi
legislative assembly and executive.7
2018  The Supreme Court rules that the LG must act on the “aid and advice” of the
council of ministers of Delhi.8
2019  A two-judge bench of the Supreme Court delivers a split verdict while ruling
over the issue of services.9
2021  Union government amends the GNCTD Act, 1991, expanding the list of
matters where the LG’s opinion was mandatory and the nature of Bills that
LG could refer to the President.
2023  Supreme Court rules that Delhi government has control over services in
Delhi.11
 Central government promulgates an Ordinance to amend the GNCTD Act,
1991 to exclude “services” from the purview of Delhi legislature.
 The GNCTD (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August
1, 2023 to replace the Ordinance.
7. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 11, 2023. The
Bill repeals the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC). IPC is the principal law on criminal offences.
Categories of offences covered under it include those affecting: (i) human body such as
assault and murder, (ii) property such as extortion and theft, (iii) public order such as
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unlawful assembly and rioting, (iv) public health, safety, decency, morality, and religion, (iv)
defamation, and (v) offences against the state.
 The Bill retains several parts of the IPC. Changes include introduction of offences of
organised crime and terrorism, enhancement in penalties for certain existing offences,
and introduction of community service as a punishment for certain petty offences.
Certain offences under the IPC that have been struck down or read down by courts
have been omitted. These include offences of adultery and same-sex intercourse
(Section 377).
Key changes proposed in the Bill include:
 Sedition: IPC defines sedition as bringing or attempting to bring hatred or contempt, or
exciting disaffection towards the government. It is punishable with imprisonment term
between three years and life imprisonment, and/or a fine. The Bill removes this
offence. It instead penalises the following: (i) exciting or attempting to excite secession,
armed rebellion, or subversive activities, (ii) encouraging feelings of separatist activities,
or (iii) endangering sovereignty or unity and integrity of India. These offences may
involve exchange of words or signs, electronic communication, or use of financial
means. These will be punishable with imprisonment of up to seven years or life
imprisonment, and a fine.
 Terrorism: The Bill defines terrorism as an act that intends to threaten the unity,
integrity, and security of the country, to intimidate the general public or disturb public
order. Terrorist acts include: (i) using firearms, bombs, or hazardous substances
(biological or chemical) to cause death, danger to life, or spread a message of fear, (ii)
destroying property or disrupting essential services, and (iii) activities included in the
treaties listed in the Second Schedule of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
such as unlawful seizure of aircraft or taking of hostages. Punishment for attempting or
committing terrorism includes: (i) death or life imprisonment, where the offence has
resulted in death of any person, (ii) imprisonment term between five years and life in
other cases. An offender will also be liable to a fine of at least five lakh rupees.
 The Bill also penalises conspiring, organising, or assisting in preparation of any terrorist
act with an imprisonment term between five years and life imprisonment, and a fine of
at least five lakh rupees.
 Organised crime: The Bill defines organised crime as: (i) a continuing unlawful activity
such as kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, land grabbing, financial scams, and
cybercrime, (ii) carried out by use of violence, intimidation, or other unlawful means, (iii)
to obtain material or financial benefit, and (iv) carried out by individuals acting singly or
jointly, as members of or on behalf of a crime syndicate. Attempting or committing
organised crime will be punishable with: (i) death or life imprisonment, where the
offence results in death of any person, and (ii) imprisonment term between five years
and life, in other cases. The offender will also be liable to pay a fine.
 Petty organised crime: The Bill makes attempting or committing petty organised crime
punishable with imprisonment between one and seven years, and a fine. Petty
organised crimes are those which cause general feelings of insecurity among citizens,
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and are committed by organised criminal groups/gangs. These include organised pick
pocketing, snatching, and theft.
 Murder by a group of persons on grounds of caste or race: The Bill specifies separate
penalty for murder committed by five or more people on specified grounds. These
include race, caste, sex, place of birth, language, or personal belief. Each offender will
be punishable with imprisonment between seven years and life, or death. It will also
attract a fine.
 Death penalty for gang rape of minor: IPC allows death penalty for gang rape of
women below 12 years of age. The Bill allows death penalty for gang rape of women
below 18 years of age.
 Sexual intercourse by deceitful means: The Bill penalises the act of sexual intercourse
with a woman (not amounting to rape) through deceitful means or a promise of
marriage without intending to fulfil it. It will be punishable with simple or rigorous
imprisonment up to 10 years, and a fine.
 Extending applicability of certain offences to boys: Under the IPC, importing girls
under the age of 21 years for illicit intercourse with another person is an offence. The
Bill specifies that importing boys under the age of 18 years for illicit intercourse with
another person will also be an offence.
8. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 11,
2023. It repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. The Code provides for the
procedure for arrest, prosecution, and bail for offences under various Acts including the
Indian Penal Code, 1860. The Bill retains most of the provisions of the Code. Key changes
proposed under the Bill include:
 Detention of undertrials: Under the Code, if an accused has spent under detention half
of the maximum period of imprisonment for an offence, during investigation or trial, he
must be released on his personal bond. This does not apply to offences which are
punishable by death. The Bill adds that this provision will also not apply to: (i) offences
punishable by life imprisonment, and (ii) persons against whom proceedings are
pending in more than one offence. It further adds that first-time offenders will be
released on bail if they have completed detention for one-third of the maximum
imprisonment which can be imposed for the offence. The superintendent of the jail
where the accused is detained must make the application seeking the release of such
undertrials on bail.
 Trials in electronic mode: The Bill provides that all trials, inquires, and proceedings may
be held in electronic mode. It also provides for the production of electronic
communication devices, likely to contain digital evidence, for investigation, inquiry, or
trial. Electronic communication includes communication through devices such as
mobiles, computers, or telephone.
 Medical examination of accused: The Code allows conducting a medical examination of
the accused in certain cases, including cases of rape. Such examination is carried out by
a registered medical practitioner on the request of at least a sub-inspector level police
officer. The Bill provides that any police officer can request for such an examination.
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 Forensic investigation: The Bill mandates forensic investigation for offences punishable
with at least seven years of imprisonment. In such cases, forensic experts will visit crime
scenes to collect forensic evidence and record the process on mobile phone or any
other electronic device. If a state does not have forensics facility, it shall utilise such
facility in another state.
 Power to prohibit carrying arms: The Code empowers the District Magistrate to prohibit
the carrying of arms in any procession, mass drills, or mass training with arms in public
places. This may be done to preserve public peace, public safety, or maintain public
order. Such prohibitions may be in place for up to six months. However, the provision
was not notified under the Code. The Bill omits this provision.
 Signatures and finger impressions: The Code empowers a Metropolitan/Judicial
Magistrate to order any person to provide specimen signatures or handwriting. Such an
order can be given for any investigation or proceeding under the Code. However, such
specimen cannot be collected from a person who has not been arrested under the
investigation. The Bill expands this to include finger impressions and voice samples.
These samples may also be taken from a person who has not been arrested.
 Timelines for procedures: The Bill prescribes timelines for various procedures. For
instance, it requires medical practitioners who examine rape victims to submit their
reports to the investigating officer within seven days. Other specified timelines include:
(i) giving judgement within 30 days of completion of arguments (extendable up to 60
days), (ii) informing the victim of progress of investigation within 90 days, and (iii)
framing of charges by a sessions court within 60 days from the first hearing on such
charges.
 Trial in absence of offender: The Bill provides for conduct of trial and pronouncement
of judgement in the absence of a proclaimed offender. This shall be done when such a
person has absconded to evade trial and there is no immediate prospect of arresting
him. Proclaimed offender refers to a person who: (i) is accused of an offence punishable
with imprisonment of at least 10 years or death and (ii) fails to appear at a specified
time and place as specified by a Court.
 Metropolitan magistrates: The Code empowers the state governments to notify any city
or town with a population of more than one million as a metropolitan area. Such areas
have Metropolitan Magistrates. The Bill omits this provision.
9. The Bhartiya Sakshya Bill, 2023
The Bhartiya Sakshya Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 11, 2023. It repeals
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The Act provides rules for the admissibility of evidence in
legal proceedings. The Bill retains several parts of the Act. It removes certain colonial
references from the Act, widens the ambit of electronic records admissible as evidence, and
removes provisions related to telegraphic messages. Key changes proposed in the Bill
include:
 Admissibility of electronic or digital records as evidence: The Act provides for two kinds
of evidence – documentary and oral evidence. Documentary evidence includes
information in electronic records that have been printed or stored in optical or magnetic
media produced by a computer. Such information may have been stored or processed
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by a combination of computers or different computers. The Bill provides that electronic

or digital records will have the same legal effect as paper records. It expands electronic
records to include information stored in semiconductor memory or any communication
devices (smartphones, laptops). This will also include records on emails, server logs,
smartphones, locational evidence and voice mails. As per the Bill, the information may
have been created on, stored in, or processed by one or more computers or
communication devices: (i) which may be standalone systems or on a computer
network, or (ii) through an intermediary.
 Oral evidence: Under the Act, oral evidence includes statements made before Courts by
witnesses in relation to a fact under inquiry. The Bill adds any information given
electronically to be considered as oral evidence.
 Secondary evidence: Under the Act, documentary evidence includes primary and
secondary evidence. Primary evidence includes the original document and its parts,
such as electronic records and video recordings. Secondary evidence contains
documents that can prove the contents of the original. Secondary evidence includes
certain copies of the original documents and oral accounts of the document’s content.
The Bill expands secondary evidence to include: (i) oral and written admissions, and (ii)
the testimony of a person who has examined the document and is skilled in the
examination of documents. Under the Act, secondary evidence may be required under
various conditions, such as when the original: (i) is in the possession of the person
against whom the document is sought to be proved, or (ii) has been destroyed. The Bill
adds that secondary evidence may be required if the genuineness of the document itself
is in question.
 Production of documents: The Act provides for the production of documents. If a
witness is summoned to produce a document and has it in their possession or power,
they must bring it to Court regardless of any objection to its production or admissibility.
The Court will determine the validity of such a document. The Bill adds that no Court
will require any privileged communication between the Ministers and the President to
be produced before it.
 Joint trials: A joint trial refers to the trial of more than one person for the same offence.
The Act states that in a joint trial, if a confession made by one of the accused which also
affects other accused is proven, it will be treated as a confession against both. The Bill
adds an explanation to this provision. It states that a trial of multiple persons, where an
accused has absconded or has not responded to an arrest warrant, will be treated as a
joint trial.
10. The Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, and Law and Justice (Chairman:
Mr Sushil Kumar Modi) submitted its report on “Judicial Process and their Reforms”. Key
recommendations of the Committee include:
 Regional benches of the Supreme Court: The Committee observed that the Supreme
Court being Delhi-centric creates a significant hurdle for litigants coming from faraway
areas of the country. The Committee recommended the establishment of four or five
regional benches of the apex Court. It suggested that the regional benches may decide
appellate matters, while constitutional matters may be dealt with at Delhi.
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 Social diversity in the appointment of judges: The Committee observed that the higher
judiciary (Supreme Court and High Courts) suffers from a diversity deficit. It noted that
the representation of Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Other Backward
Classes, women, and minorities is far below the desired levels and does not reflect
India’s social diversity. For instance, since 2018, the percentage of High Court judges
appointed from SC communities was 3% and 1.5% from ST communities. It suggested
that the Supreme Court and High Court’s Collegiums should recommend an adequate
number of women and candidates from marginalised communities including minorities.
It recommended that the Department of Justice collect data of the social status of
judges presently serving in the higher judiciary.
 Retirement age for judges: The Committee observed that the retirement age of judges
needs to be increased to keep pace with advances in medical sciences and increased
longevity. Currently, the retirement age for Supreme Court judges is 65 years and 62
years for High Court judges. It recommended increasing the retirement age for Supreme
Court and High Court judges and amending the relevant Articles of the Constitution.
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Personality: India
1. Nitin Chandrakant Desai (9 August 1965 – 2 August 2023) was an Indian art
director, production designer, and film and television producer. He was most known for his
work in Marathi and Hindi Films, World Cultural Festival 2016 at Delhi and films like, Hum
Dil De Chuke Sanam (1999), Lagaan (2001), Devdas (2002), Jodhaa Akbar (2008) and Prem
Ratan Dhan Payo (2015). During his career spanning twenty years, he worked with directors
like Ashutosh Gowarikar, Vidhu Vinod Chopra, Rajkumar Hirani and Sanjay Leela Bhansali. In
2002, he turned film producer with Chandrakant Productions' Desh Devi, a devotional film
on the Devi Mata of Kutch.
Desai won National Film Award for Best Art Direction four times, and Filmfare Best Art
Direction Award three times. In 2005, he opened his ND Studios spread over 52 acres
(21 ha) at Karjat, Navi Mumbai, near Mumbai, which has since hosted films like Jodhaa
Akbar, Traffic Signal as also Color's reality show Big Boss.
2. Namdeo Dhondo Mahanor (16 September 1942 – 3 August 2023) was an Indian poet,
lyricist and farmer from Maharashtra. He was also a nominated member of Maharashtra
Legislative Council.
In 1991, Mahanor was awarded the Padma Shri, the fourth-highest civilian honour of India,
by the president of India. In addition to writing books, he wrote lyrics for Marathi films such
as Jait re Jait, Doghi, and Ek Hota Vidushak.
Namdeo Dhondo Mahanor died in Pune on 3 August 2023, at the age of 80.
3. Bindeshwar Pathak (2 April 1943 – 15 August 2023) was an Indian sociologist and social
entrepreneur. He was the founder of Sulabh International, an India-based social service
organisation promoting human rights, environmental sanitation, non-conventional sources
of energy, waste management and social reforms through education. He was the Brand
Ambassador for Swachh Rail Mission of Indian Railways, a complement to the
broader Swachh Bharat Mission.
His work is considered pioneering in social reform, especially in the field of sanitation and
hygiene. He received various national and international awards for his work with this
organisation. He was presented with the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence
in Public Administration, Academics and Management for the year 2017. He was conferred
the Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, in 1991.
4. Mohammed Habib (17 July 1949 – 15 August 2023) was an Indian footballer who played as
a forward for the India national team which he also captained. He is also considered by
many Indians as one of the best footballers the country has ever produced. He was
popularly known as Bade Mia in the Indian football world.
Habib represented the India national team in international tournaments. He won a bronze
medal at the 1970 Asian Games in Bangkok on a team led by Syed Nayeemuddin and
managed by P. K. Banerjee. He scored 11 goals in 35 international matches.
5. Vallampadugai Srinivasa Raghavan Arunachalam (V S R Arunachalam) (10 November
1935–16 August 2023) was an Indian scientist and former head of Defence Research &
Development Organization (DRDO). He was the founder and chairman of CSTEP, a science
and technology think tank.
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Arunachalam worked as a scientist at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, National

Aeronautical Laboratory in Bangalore, and Defence Metallurgical Research
Laboratory in Hyderabad. He was the head of DRDO for about ten years in the 1980s. During
his tenure the budget of DRDO increased eightfold, and he is credited with being able to get
over both bureaucratic and financial hurdles. He initiated major defence projects like the
Light Combat Aircraft and the Integrated Guided Missiles programmes.
Arunachalam received numerous awards and medals, including the Shanti Swarup
Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology in Engineering Science in 1980. He was the first
Indian to be elected as a Fellow of the Royal Academy of Engineering, UK.
Arunachalam was conferred Padma Bhushan (1985) and Padma Vibhushan (1990) for his
contribution to Indian science. In 2015, he was awarded Defence Research and
Development Organisation's (DRDO's) lifetime achievement award for his outstanding
contribution in the field of scientific research and technology.
6. Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao, FRS (10 September 1920 – 22 August 2023), commonly
known as C. R. Rao, was an Indian-American mathematician and statistician. He
was professor emeritus at Pennsylvania State University and Research Professor at
the University at Buffalo. Rao was honoured by numerous colloquia, honorary degrees,
and festschrifts and was awarded the US National Medal of Science in 2002.
The American Statistical Association has described him as "a living legend whose work has
influenced not just statistics, but has had far reaching implications for fields as varied as
economics, genetics, anthropology, geology, national planning, demography, biometry, and
medicine." The Times of India listed Rao as one of the top 10 Indian scientists of all time.
In 2023, Rao was awarded the International Prize in Statistics, an award often touted as the
"statistics’ equivalent of the Nobel Prize". Rao was also a Senior Policy and Statistics advisor
for the Indian Heart Association non-profit focused on raising South Asian cardiovascular
disease awareness.
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Personality: World
1. Shuhada' Sadaqat (born Sinéad Marie Bernadette O'Connor; 8 December 1966 – 26 July
2023), known professionally as Sinéad O'Connor, was an Irish singer, songwriter, and
activist. Her debut studio album, The Lion and the Cobra, was released in 1987 and achieved
international chart success. Her 1990 album, I Do Not Want What I Haven't Got, marked her
greatest accomplishment, selling over seven million copies worldwide. Its lead single,
"Nothing Compares 2 U", was honored as the top world single of the year at
the Billboard Music Awards.
O'Connor achieved chart success with Am I Not Your Girl? (1992) and Universal
Mother (1994), both certified gold in the UK, as well as Faith and Courage (2000), certified
gold in Australia. Throw Down Your Arms (2005) achieved gold status in Ireland. Her career
encompassed songs for films, collaborations with numerous artists, and appearances at
charity fundraising concerts. O'Connor's memoir, Rememberings, released in 2021, became
a bestseller.
In 2017, O'Connor changed her name to Magda Davitt. After converting to Islam in 2018,
she adopted the name Shuhada' Sadaqat while continuing to perform and record under her
birth name.
2. J. Robert Oppenheimer (April 22, 1904 – February 18, 1967) was an American theoretical
physicist and director of the Manhattan Project's Los Alamos Laboratory during World War
II. He is often called the "father of the atomic bomb".
He made significant contributions to theoretical physics, including achievements
in quantum mechanics and nuclear physics such as the Born–Oppenheimer
approximation for molecular wave functions, work on the theory of electrons and positrons,
the Oppenheimer–Phillips process in nuclear fusion, and early work on quantum tunneling.
With his students, he also made contributions to the theory of neutron stars and black
holes, quantum field theory, and the interactions of cosmic rays.
In 1942, Oppenheimer was recruited to work on the Manhattan Project, and in 1943 he was
appointed director of the project's Los Alamos Laboratory in New Mexico, tasked with
developing the first nuclear weapons. His leadership and scientific expertise were
instrumental in the project's success. On July 16, 1945, he was present at the first test of the
atomic bomb, Trinity. In August 1945, the weapons were used against Japan in
the bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, the only use of nuclear weapons in an armed
conflict.
The Manhattan Project was a research and development undertaking during World War
II that produced the first nuclear weapons. It was led by the United States with support
from the United Kingdom and Canada. From 1942 to 1946, the project was under the
direction of Major General Leslie Groves of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. The nuclear
physicist J. Robert Oppenheimer was the director of the Los Alamos Laboratory that
designed the bombs. The Army component was designated the Manhattan District, as its
first headquarters were in Manhattan; the name gradually superseded the official
codename, Development of Substitute Materials, for the entire project. The project
absorbed its earlier British counterpart, Tube Alloys. The Manhattan Project began
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modestly in 1939, but employed nearly 130,000 people at its peak and cost nearly
US$2 billion (equivalent to about $24 billion in 2021). Over 90 percent of the cost was for
building factories and to produce fissile material, with less than 10 percent for development
and production of the weapons. Research and production took place at more than 30 sites
across the United States, the United Kingdom, and Canada.
3. Hun Manet (born 20 October 1977) is a Cambodian politician and general who has served
as the prime minister of Cambodia since August 2023, succeeding his father, Hun
Sen. Before his political appointment, he served in the Royal Cambodian Armed
Forces (RCAF) as its deputy commander-in-chief and the commander of the Royal
Cambodian Army. He is the second-eldest son of former prime minister Hun Sen and Bun
Rany. Upon appointment as prime minister, he was granted the highest civilian honourary
title of Samdech Moha Borvor Thipadei Hun Manet (meaning "Great Lord and Supreme
Leader Hun Manet").
Manet grew up and received his general education in Phnom Penh and later joined the
armed forces in 1995, the same year, he entered the United States Military Academy at
West Point. After receiving his diploma in 1999, Manet became the first Cambodian to
graduate from the academy.
Following the 2023 Cambodian general election, Hun Sen announced his resignation as
prime minister on 26 July, officially making Manet the prime minister-designate.
4. Anwaar-ul-Haq Kakar is a Pakistani politician who is currently serving as the Caretaker
Prime Minister of Pakistan. He succeeded Shehbaz Sharif. He previously served as the
spokesperson of the Government of Balochistan from 2015 to 2017.
He was nominated to serve as Caretaker Prime Minister of Pakistan by the outgoing
opposition leader and the outgoing Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif. The president Arif
Alvi signed on the summary making him the 8th Caretaker Prime Minister of Pakistan. He
took oath on the 76th independence day of Pakistan, 14 August 2023. He resigned from the
Senate on 14 August 2023 and on the same day, his resignation was accepted by
the Chairman of the Senate Sadiq Sanjrani.
5. Francina Armengol, is a Spanish politician from the Socialist Party of the Balearic Islands.
She currently serves as president of the Congress of Deputies since 2023 and as member of
the Congress of Deputies from the Balearic Islands since 2023.
Armengol served as president of the Balearic Islands between 2015 and 2023, and also the
first woman to ever hold the office. Inti Landaur ruled in coalition with the hard-
left Podemos.
In the 2023 Spanish general election Armengol was elected to the 15 th Congress of
Deputies representing the Balearic Islands. In August 2023, the Socialists had Armengol
appointed speaker of the lower house of congress with support from Catalan separatist
parties.
6. Srettha Thavisin is a Thai politician and real estate developer who has served as prime
minister of Thailand since 22 August 2023 following the result of the joint sitting of both
houses of Parliament. He was previously the chief executive and president of Sansiri.
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He co-founded Sansiri in 1988, which later became one of Thailand's largest real estate
developers, leading Srettha to become a property tycoon and billionaire. He is a known
confidant of former Prime Minister Thaksin Shinawatra.
7. Andrew Yan-Tak Ng is a British-American computer scientist and technology
entrepreneur focusing on machine learning and artificial intelligence (AI). Ng was a
cofounder and head of Google Brain and was the former Chief Scientist at Baidu, building
the company's Artificial Intelligence Group into a team of several thousand people.
Ng is an adjunct professor at Stanford University (formerly associate professor and Director
of its Stanford AI Lab or SAIL). Ng has also made substantial contributions to the field
of online education as the cofounder of both Coursera and DeepLearning.AI. He has
spearheaded many efforts to "democratize deep learning" teaching over 2.5 million
students through his online courses. He is one of the world's most famous and influential
computer scientists being named one of Time magazine's 100 Most Influential People in
2012, and Fast Company's Most Creative People in 2014. In 2018, he launched and currently
heads the AI Fund, initially a $175-million investment fund for backing artificial intelligence
startups. He has founded Landing AI, which provides AI-powered SaaS products.
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Economics
1. India exported $2.43 billion worth of smartphones in April-May this fiscal, driven by a
multifold jump in shipments to the U.S. which emerged as the biggest destination for India-
made devices, according to government data.
 Smartphone exports to the U.S. jumped multiple times to $812.49 million during the
first two months of this fiscal as against $92.2 million in April-May 2022-23, commerce
ministry data showed. The US accounted for one-third of the shipments in value terms.
 The US was followed by the UAE ($484.52 million), the Netherlands ($205 million), the
U.K. ($151.33 million), Italy ($136.57 million), and the Czech Republic ($115.5 million).
 Overall, India’s export of smartphones in 2022-23 was worth $10.95 billion. During April-
May 2023-24, smartphone exports soared by 157.82% over April-May 2022-23. Prior to
2022-23, smartphone exports were non-existent so data was not captured.
After the announcement of the Product Linked Incentives (PLI) scheme and the entry of US-
based iPhone maker Apple into domestic manufacturing, India is emerging as a major
production hub for smartphones.
 For diamonds also, the US is the most dominant market for India with $1.3 billion during
the two months, though the growth declined by about 23%.
 For manufacturing electronic goods for exports and meeting domestic demand, India
imported $1.85 billion worth of monolithic integrated circuits of which $597.89 million
came from China.
 Other sources of these circuits were Ireland ($258 million), Hong Kong ($255.45 million),
Taiwan ($204.38 million) and Singapore ($162.35 million). In 2022-23, the total imports
of integrated circuits was $10.23 billion.
2. The Central Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Bill, 2023 and the Integrated Goods and
Services Tax (Amendment) Bill, 2023 were passed by Parliament. They amend the Central
Goods and Services Tax (CGST) Act, 2017 and the Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST)
Act, 2017, respectively.
As per the amendments, CGST will be applicable on casinos, horse racing, gambling, and
online money gaming. IGST will apply to online money gaming. Online money gaming refers
to online games where players pay or deposit money (including virtual digital assets) with
the expectation of winning money or money’s worth. This applies to any game, scheme,
competition, or other activity irrespective of its outcome being based on skill, chance, or
both. It includes online money games which may be allowed or banned under any law.
3. The Central government restricted all imports of laptops, tablets, all-in-one and small-factor
personal computers or PCs, requiring licences for these products to be brought into the
country and sold to consumers. The move is expected to particularly impact short-term
laptop availability from laptop brands that rely on assembly abroad, such as Dell, HP,
Lenovo and Apple.
Laptops can still be purchased online from overseas, the government clarified; however,
when these are imported by individual buyers, the import duty and shipping fees may make
this an expensive prospect, as tax may also have to be paid in the country from where the
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laptop is purchased. Devices imported for research and development, and those repaired
abroad, are exempt from these restrictions.
Electronics such as laptops are generally sold at lower rates than the maximum retail price
(MRP), which allows manufacturers to hike prices on short notice when needed.
Initially meant to be enforced with immediate effect, a revised order deferred the
enforcement until November 1.
What does the order state?
Import of all items categorised under the Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN) 8471,
that is, automated data processing machines and units, would be restricted from November
1. A valid licence would be required to import them for sale to consumers. Exemption to
licensing requirements would be extended in four circumstances. First, purchasing a single
unit of the mentioned products on an e-commerce website that are being brought into the
country through post or courier. It would only draw relevant duties. This also applies to
(reimport of) products meant for repair and return. Permission has been given to import up
to 20 such items in a consignment for purposes entailing research and development,
testing, benchmarking and evaluation, repair and re-export or product development
purposes. Following their intended use, the products would either have to be destroyed
beyond use or re-exported. Finally, items may be imported if they serve as an essential part
of an entity’s capital good.
Domestic Production-
Domestic production of electronic goods, as per industry estimates, increased to $87.1
billion in 2021-22 from $49 billion in 2016-17, registering a compound annual growth rate
(CAGR) of 15%. Further, as per figures from the Commerce Ministry, the country’s imports
with respect to the products in discussion stood at approximately $10.1 billion in FY 2022-
23, about 13% lower on a year-over-year basis.
As per market intelligence firm International Data Corporation’s report for Q1-23, HP
commanded the highest share in the domestic PC market at 33.8%, followed by Lenovo
(15.7%), Dell (13.9%), Acer (12.3%), Asus (6.6%) and all others combined at 17.6%. It is
estimated that these players would be particularly impacted by import curbs.
4. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) retained the
policy repo rate (the rate at which RBI lends money to banks) at 6.5%. Other decisions of
the Committee are as follows:
 The standing deposit facility rate (the rate at which the RBI borrows from banks without
giving collateral) has been retained at 6.25%.
 The marginal standing facility rate (the rate at which banks can borrow additional
money from RBI), and the bank rate (rate at which RBI buys bills of exchange) have been
retained at 6.75%.
The MPC decided to remain focused on withdrawal of accommodation. This is in order to
ensure that inflation progressively aligns with the target of 4%, while supporting growth.
RBI had increased the repo rate to from 6.25% to 6.5% in February 2023.
5. On August 2, Parliament passed the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation)
Amendment Bill, 2023, in a bid to attract private sector investment in the exploration of
critical and deep-seated minerals in the country. The Bill puts six minerals, including lithium-
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used in electric vehicle batteries and other energy storage solutions into a list of “critical
and strategic” minerals. The exploration and mining of these six minerals, previously
classified as atomic minerals, were restricted to government-owned entities.
Mineral Export of India:
 A variety of minerals, besides those used in creating fuel, are crucial to a country’s
manufacturing, infrastructure, and advancement. Moreover, the clean energy
transitions of countries including India, seeking to meet their net-zero emission goals,
are contingent on the availability of critical minerals such as lithium, which has also
been called ‘white gold’, and others including cobalt, graphite, and rare earth elements
(REEs). These are also crucial for the manufacture of semiconductors used in smart
electronics; defence and aerospace equipment; telecommunication technologies and so
on. A World Bank study suggests that the demand for critical metals such as lithium (Li)
and cobalt is expected to rise by nearly 500% by 2050.
 The lack of availability of such minerals or the concentration of their extraction or
processing in a few geographical locations leads to import dependency, supply chain
vulnerabilities, and even disruption of their supplies. For instance, China has majority
ownership of cobalt mines in the Democratic Republic of Congo, where 70% of the
world’s cobalt is mined. China also has by far the largest amount of reserves of Rare
Earth Elements (REEs) of any country in the world, followed by Vietnam, Brazil and
Russia; it produces of 65% of the world’s REEs, which are crucial in making wind
turbines, solar panels etc. India, meanwhile, has 6% of the world’s rare earth reserves
but it only produces 1% of global output.
 Major economies including the United States, United Kingdom, and European Union in
the recent past have moved to secure supply-chain resilience for such minerals and to
reduce reliance for their availability on countries like China. This has been done by way
of the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), which India became party to this year.
Countries like the U.S., Australia, Japan, and the EU bloc have also created lists of critical
minerals based on their specific economic needs and the supply risk of the minerals.
 The Ministry of Mines, in June this year, came out with a list of 30 minerals critical to the
country’s economic development and national security. However, India is highly
dependent on imports for a majority of minerals on this list. For instance, as per figures
quoted by the Ministry, India is 100% import-dependent on countries including China,
Russia, Australia, South Africa, and the U.S. for the supply of critical minerals like
lithium, cobalt, nickel, niobium, beryllium, and tantalum. In the case of lithium, for
instance, India’s imports were worth $22.15 million in 2021-2022. As for the finished
product lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles, a report by Fortune India notes
that India imported 5,486.18 lakh units of lithium-ion batteries, spending $1,791.35
million.
 Also for deep-seated minerals like gold, silver, copper, zinc, lead, nickel, cobalt, platinum
group elements (PGEs) and diamonds, which are difficult and expensive to explore and
mine as compared to surficial or bulk minerals, India depends largely on imports. For
instance, in 2022-23, India imported close to 12 lakh tonnes of copper (and its
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concentrates) worth over Rs. 27,000 crore as per official figures. It imported 32,298.21
tonnes of Nickel worth Rs. 6,549.34 crore.
Private sector participation in exploration of critical and deep-seated minerals:
 Studies by organisations such as the Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and
Research and the Centre for Social and Economic Progress (CESP) note that India’s
unique geological and tectonic setting is conducive to hosting potential mineral
resources and that its geological history similar to the mining-rich regions of Western
Australia and Eastern Africa. However, the primary step to discovering mineral
resources and eventually finding economically viable reserves is mineral exploration,
which comes in various stages before mining. With each stage of mineral exploration,
starting from reconnaissance (preliminary survey to determine mineral resources),
followed by prospecting (exploring, locating, or proving mineral deposits), and detailed
exploration (estimating of mineral ore and grade), the knowledge of about mineral’s
availability improves. The stages of exploration are also divided as per the United
Nations Framework for Classification of Resources into G4 (Reconnaissance), G3
(Prospecting), G2 (General Exploration), and G1 (Detailed Exploration).
 Notably, it is estimated that India has explored just 10% of its Obvious Geological
Potential (OGP), less than 2% of which is mined and the country spends less than 1% of
the global mineral exploration budget. Not many significant mineral discoveries have
taken place in the country in the last couple of decades and a majority of exploration
projects have been carried out by the government agency Geological Survey of India and
other PSUs like Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited (MECL), with very little private
sector participation. India’s mining policy had kept greenfield exploration of minerals
out of the purview of private-sector explorers for some years which meant they could
only get licences to further prospect and mine resources that had been explored by a
government entity. Companies also saw a lack of adequate incentives.
 Exploration requires techniques like aerial surveys, geological mapping, and
geochemical analyses and is a highly specialised, time-intensive and monetarily risky
operation with less than 1% of explored projects becoming commercially viable mines.
Union Minister of Mines Prahlad Joshi pointed out that while Indian PSUs were in a
relatively better position to explore surficial and bulk minerals like coal and iron ore,
they had not fared well when it came to deep-seated and critical minerals owing to the
high expenditure and long duration of risky projects while being under pressure to
increase the supply of bulk minerals.
How does the Mines and Minerals Bill 2023 aim to encourage private players?
 The Bill omits at least six previously mentioned atomic minerals from a list of 12 which
cannot be commercially mined. Being on the atomic minerals list, the exploration and
mining of these six- lithium, beryllium, niobium, titanium, tantalum, and zirconium, was
previously reserved for government entities. Secondly, the Act prohibits pitting,
trenching, drilling, and sub-surface excavation as part of reconnaissance, which included
mapping and surveys. The Bill allows these prohibited activities.
 The Bill proposes a new type of license to encourage reconnaissance-level and or
prospective stage exploration by the private sector. This exploration licence (EL), for a
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period of five years (extendable by two years), will be granted by the state government
by way of competitive bidding. In these auctions, eligible explorers would bid on their
desired percentage share of the auction premium which will be paid eventually by a
mining lease holder up the sale of a successfully explored mind by the state
government. The lowest bid by an explorer would win the EL auction. This license will be
issued for 29 minerals specified in the Seventh Schedule of the amended Act, which
would include critical, strategic, and deep-seated minerals.
 It also specifies the maximum area for exploration; activities in upto 1,000 sq kms will be
allowed under a single exploration licence. It also states that the licencee will be allowed
to retain up to 25% of the originally authorised area after the first three years after
submitting a report to the state government stating reasons for retention of the area.
 While most auctions are reserved for state governments in the Act, the Bill also reserve
the conduct of auctions for composite licence and mining lease for specified critical and
strategic minerals for the central government.
6. The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill was passed by
Parliament. The Bill amends the Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act,
2002. The Act regulates offshore mining in the maritime zones of India.
 Introduction of a composite licence: The Bill introduces a composite licence for granting
rights for exploration and production operations. Under the composite license, the
licensee will be required to complete exploration within three years. This may be
extended by two years upon application by the licensee. If mineral resources have been
established, the licensee will be granted one or more production leases for the explored
area. The production lease will be valid for 50 years.
 Auction mandatory for certain concessions: The Act provides for the grant of
concessions through administrative allocation. The Bill mandates competitive bidding
for a production lease and a composite license to private entities. Applications for
production leases before the date on which provisions of the Bill come into effect, will
be void. An exploration licence granted before the date on which provisions of the Bill
come into effect will be ineligible to acquire a production lease on the explored area.
 Offshore Areas Mineral Trust: The Bill sets up the Offshore Areas Mineral Trust.
Concession holders will be required to pay an amount to the Trust in addition to any
royalty. The funds will be used for specified purposes including: (i) exploration in
offshore areas, (ii) research and studies about the mitigation of adverse effects of
offshore mining on the ecology, and (iii) relief upon the occurrence of a disaster.
7. Fertiliser maker Coromandel International’s subsidiary Dhaksha Unmanned Systems, which
manufactures drones, has bagged an order to supply 200 medium altitude logistics drones
and accessories to the Indian Army.
The firm also bagged a contract from agri inputs cooperative IFFCO recently for supply of
400 agri-spraying drones. These are planned to be delivered over the course of the next 12
months. Dhaksha’s orders in the current year, including those from the Army and IFFCO,
have exceeded ₹165 crore.
Coromandel has 51% stake in the drone manufacturer. Chennai-based Dhaksha has a
technology collaboration with Anna University and is the only player in the country to
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receive type certificates from DGCA for three drone models in medium and small categories
for agriculture and surveillance applications.
8. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (at constant prices) grew at 7.8% in the first quarter (April-
June) of 2023- 24, over the corresponding period in 2022-23.2 In the first quarter of 2022-
23, GDP had grown by 13.1%. In the fourth quarter (January-March) of 2022-23, GDP had
grown by 6.1%.
GDP across economic sectors is measured in terms of Gross Value Added (GVA). Growth in
all sectors was positive in the first quarter of 2023-24. Financial, real estate and professional
services registered the highest growth (12.2%), followed by trade (9.2%), construction
(7.9%), and public services (7.9%).
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released a framework for resetting floating interest rates
in equated monthly instalments (EMIs). When sanctioning EMI based floating rate personal
loans, regulated entities (such as banks) are required to account for the borrower’s
repayment capacity. Regulated entities should ensure that sufficient headroom exists to
provide for increases in loan tenor and/or increase in EMI. Such an increase can happen due
to the increase in the external benchmark rate (such as the repo rate). RBI has received
consumer grievances on increases in loan tenor and/or increases in EMI amounts without
proper communication or consent of the borrower. Key features of the policy include:
 Disclosure to borrowers: At the time of sanctioning loans, regulated entities must
clearly communicate the possible impact of changes in benchmark interest rates on the
loan tenor, EMI, or both. Any increase must be communicated to the borrower
immediately.
 Fixed interest rate: When resetting interest rates, borrowers must be given the option
to switch to a fixed interest rate. The policy framed by regulated entities may specify the
number of times a borrower will be allowed to switch during the tenor of the loan. All
charges for switching loans from floating to fixed rate must be transparently disclosed in
the loan sanction letter.
 Options for borrowers: The borrowers must be allowed to opt for: (i) an increase in
EMI, loan tenor, or combination of both and (ii) prepaying the loan at any point during
its tenor.
10. On August 17, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) commenced a pilot programme endeavouring
to evaluate the feasibility of the ‘Public Tech Platform for Frictionless Credit’. The
announcement was first made when the central banking regulator enumerated
developmental and regulatory policies following the conclusion of the Monetary Policy
Committee (MPC) meeting on August 14. The suggested platform would strive to “enable
delivery of frictionless credit by facilitating seamless flow of required digital information to
lenders.”
What is the platform for?
Digital delivery of credit (or delivering credit/loans though digital means) is preceded by a
process of scrutiny known as credit appraisal. The process attempts to evaluate and
accordingly predict the prospective borrowers’ ability for repayment of credit/loan and
adhering to the credit agreement. The process rests on three important pillars, namely, the
problem of adverse selection (that results from the asymmetry of information from either
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the borrower or lender), measurement of exposure risk and the assessment of default risk
(the probability that the borrower may default in repayment).
This pre-disbursal process is particularly important for banks since it would in turn
determine their interest income and impact on the balance sheet.
The central banking regulator has observed that the data required for the process rest with
different entities like central and state governments, account aggregators, banks, credit
information companies, and digital identity authorities. Thus, being in separate systems, it
creates “hindrances in frictionless and timely delivery of rule-based lending,” the regulator
notes.
This new platform would bring all of it together in a single place.
To facilitate “frictionless” and “timely delivery” of loans, the central banking regulator had
instituted a pilot project for digitalisation of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) loans, of less than Rs
1.60 lakh, in September 2022. It tested “end-to-end digitalisation of the lending process in a
paperless and hassle-free manner”. The pilot is currently ongoing in select districts of
Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra. It provides for
“doorstep disbursement of loans in assisted or self-service mode without any paperwork.”
As per the regulator, the initial results were “encouraging”.
A similar pilot is being carried out for dairy loans based on milk pouring data with Amul in
Gujarat.
What do we know about how the pilot works?
The platform is premised around the learnings from all the ongoing programmes, and
further expands the scope to all types of digital loans. The public platform will be developed
by its wholly owned subsidiary, the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH). The proposed end-
to-end platform will have an open architecture, open Application Programming Interfaces
(API) and standards, to which all financial sector players would be able to connect
seamlessly in a ‘plug and play’ model.
With the expansion and with participation of banks, the platform would extend its focus
also towards dairy loans, MSME loans (without collateral), personal loans and home loans.
It is expected to linkage with services like Aadhar e-KYC, Aadhar e-signing, land records from
onboarded state governments (Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh and
Maharashtra), satellite data, PAN validation, transliteration, account aggregation by account
aggregators (AAs), milk pouring data from select dairy co-operatives, and house/property
search data. Thus, it would cover all aspects of farming operations (essential to understand
the exposure and default risk for loans of the nature) alongside those necessary for
ascertaining financial profiles.
The platform would be rolled out in a “calibrated fashion.” Based on the learnings from this
project, the scope and coverage would be further expanded to include more products,
information providers and lenders during the pilot.
What purpose does it serve?
Essentially, it would provide a basis for improved credit risk and overall credit portfolio
management. Experts, including the World Bank, point out that improved access to
information provides the basis for fact-based and quick credit assessments. It ensures that
credit or other financial instruments are extended to a larger set of borrowers with good
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credit history. The borrowers too would benefit by the resulting lower cost of accessing
capital, which would translate into productive investment spending (essentially, money
spent for purchasing capital goods used in the production of capital, final goods and
services).
Availing formal credit may entail multiple visits to the bank alongside cumbersome
documentation. Depending on the type and nature of the credit instrument, further up to
date information would have to be presented for perusal. All of this translates to higher
operational costs for lenders which may also get distributed to borrowers. As per media
reports, an RBI survey indicated that processing of farm loans took two to four weeks and
cost about 6% of the loan’s total value.
11. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued instructions on the levy of penal interest/charges
on loans. Penal interest/charges are levied to inculcate credit discipline. Such charges are
not meant to be used for revenue enhancement over and above the contracted rate of
interest. Supervisory reviews by RBI have indicated divergent practices amongst regulated
entities (such as banks) for penal interest/charges on loans. Key instructions include:
 Levying penal charges: Penalty for non- compliance of material terms and conditions of
the loan must be treated as penal charges and not as penal interest. There must be no
capitalisation of penal charges, which implies that no interest should be computed on
such charges. The quantum of penal charges shall be reasonable and commensurate
with non-compliance of material terms and conditions of the loan contract.
 Individual borrowers: Penal charges on loans given to individual borrowers for non-
business purposes must not be higher than such charges on loans to non-individual
borrowers.
 Disclosure to borrowers: The quantum and reason for penal charges must be clearly
disclosed in the loan agreement. The Regulated entities must not introduce any
additional components to the interest rate.
The instructions will apply from January 1, 2024.
12. To check the domestic prices and to ensure domestic food security, the Government has
been taking measures to restrict export of rice from India. The export of non-basmati white
rice was prohibited on 20th July 2023.
It has been noticed that despite restriction on certain varieties, rice exports have been high
during the current year.
 Up to 17th August 2023, total exports of rice (other than broken rice, export of which is
prohibited) were 7.33 MMT compared to 6.37 MMT during the corresponding period of
previous year, registering an increase of 15.06%.
 There has been a spurt in the export of parboiled rice and Basmati rice; both of these
varieties did not have any restriction on exports. While the export of parboiled rice has
grown by 21.18% (3.29 MMT during the current year compared to 2.72 MMT during
previous year), export of Basmati rice has increased by 9.35% (1.86 MMT during the
current year compared to 1.70 MMT during previous year).
 Export of non-basmati white rice, which had an export duty of 20% since 9 th September
2022 and has been prohibited w.e.f. 20th July 2023, has also registered an increase of
4.36% (1.97 MMT compared to 1.89 MMT during previous year).
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 On the other hand, as per third Advanced Estimate of Department of Agriculture &
Farmers Welfare, during the Rabi Season 2022-23, the production was only 158.95 LMT
against 184.71 LMT during Rabi Season of 2021-22 i.e., there was a decline of 13.84%.
Internationally, due to strong demand from Asian buyers, production disruptions registered
in 2022/23 in some major producing countries like Thailand, and fears of possible adverse
effect of the onset of El Nino, international rice prices have also been rising continuously
since last year. The FAO Rice Price Index reached 129.7 points in July 2023; its highest value
since September 2011, registering an increase of 19.7% over past year levels. As the prices
of Indian rice are still cheaper than the international prices, there has been a strong
demand for Indian rice, resulting in record exports during 2021-22 and 2022-23.
The Government has received credible field reports regarding misclassification and illegal
export of non-basmati white rice, export of which has been prohibited with effect from
20th July 2023. It has been reported that non-basmati white rice is being exported under the
HS codes of parboiled rice and Basmati rice.
As the Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is
responsible for regulation of export of Basmati rice and already has a web-based system in
place for the purpose, the Government has issued following instructions to APEDA to
introduce additional safeguards to prevent the possible illegal exports of white non-basmati
rice in the garb of Basmati rice:
i. Contracts for Basmati exports with the value of USD 1200 per MT only and above
should be registered for issue of Registration – cum – Allocation Certificate (RCAC).
ii. Contracts with the value of below USD 1200 per MT may be kept in abeyance and
may be evaluated by a committee to be set up by the Chairman, APEDA, for
understanding the variation in prices and use of this route for export of non-
Basmati white rice. It has been noted that there has been large variation in the
contract price of Basmati being exported with lowest contract price being USD 359
Per MT in backdrop of average export price of USD 1214 per MT during the current
month. The Committee should submit its report within a period of one month,
whereafter a decision on lower price exports of Basmati planned by industry can be
taken appropriately.
iii. APEDA should hold consultations with trade to sensitize them about the matter and
work with them to discourage any use of this window for export of non-basmati
white rice.
13. The Standing Committee on Commerce (Chairman: Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi) submitted
its report on ‘Ecosystem of Startups to Benefit India’. Key recommendations of the
Committee include:
 Access to funding: Investments in startups are cyclical in nature. They witness market
corrections based on various factors such as macroeconomic conditions, investor
sentiments, and monetary policies. The Committee observed that there was a need to
create a pool of additional funds to help good startups in such periods. It recommended
that the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) should
conduct an assessment to identify areas that require additional funding. The Committee
also expressed concerns at the lack of government-supported mechanisms to monitor
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funds received by startups from private investors. Startups may be encouraged to adopt
best accounting practices.
 Single implementation agency: Forty-two ministries/departments/bodies are
overseeing the implementation of various schemes and initiatives related to startups.
The Committee noted that this leads to lack of coordination and delay in scheme
implementation. It recommended the creation of a single implementing body to oversee
and manage the entire startup ecosystem. It also recommended creating a grievance
redressal mechanism to address issues in real-time and provide solutions.
 Regulatory support: The Committee noted that easing regulatory/legal framework to
facilitate direct overseas listing of unlisted Indian startups could give a boost to the
ecosystem. It also recommended simplifying the registration process for startups and
eliminating the extensive list of eligibility criteria for registration with DPIIT.
14. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) notified amendments to the SEBI (Listing
Obligations and Disclosure Requirements), 2015. The amendments provide the framework
for the voluntary delisting of non-convertible debt securities and non- convertible
redeemable preference shares. Such preference shares cannot be converted into equity
shares. Key features include:
 Approval of stock exchange: A listed entity must seek an in-principle approval of the
relevant stock exchange for delisting of the specified securities. The approval is to be
taken within 15 working days from the passing of the delisting resolution by the entity’s
board.
 Obligations of the listed entity: The listed entity must start the process to obtain
approval from the holders of the debt securities and preference shares. This has to be
done within three working days of the grant of in-principle approval by the stock
exchange.
 Failure of delisting proposal: The delisting proposal will be deemed to have failed in
case of non-receipt of: (i) in-principle approval from stock exchanges, (ii) requisite
approval from holders of non-convertible debt securities or non-convertible redeemable
preference shares, or (ii) a no- objection letter from the debenture trustee if delisting
debt securities.
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Science & Technology
1. Hybrid EVs:
Net-zero for a vehicle includes emissions at both the tailpipe of the vehicle and at the
power plant. Making vehicles net-zero requires cutting emissions from both new and
existing vehicles. Figure 1 shows the global sales of full EVs and plug-in hybrid EVs.
Different types of EVs-
Any vehicle propelled by an electric drivetrain, taking electric power from a portable,
electrical energy source, is called an Electric vehicle (EV).
In a hybrid EV, an internal combustion engine (ICE) is used to produce electricity with an
electrical generator. A small battery, typically 1-5kWh, is used in a hybrid EV as an energy
buffer to store the electricity. The battery can’t be charged from the grid.
A full EV – a.k.a. a battery EV or a plug-in EV has no ICE and hence no tailpipe emissions. The
battery typically is much larger at 20-120 kWh. And it can only be charged from the grid.
A plug-in hybrid EV is still a hybrid EV with a much larger battery, typically 5-15 kWh. This
larger batteryIt can also be charged from the grid. This means a plug-in hybrid operates like
a fully electric vehicle as long as there is energy in the battery.
A fuel-cell EV uses a fuel cell to produce electricity for the drivetrain together with a small
battery buffer to manage variations.
Fuel economy of hybrid and fully electric EVs-
The use of an ICE in combination with a generator and battery in a hybrid EV results in the
fuel economy of these vehicles being 1.5-2x times higher than in conventional ICE vehicles
for city driving and 1-1.5x times higher for highway driving.
A plug-in hybrid EV combines the best of both hybrid and full EVs. Using a small battery (5-
15kWh) that can be charged from the grid, it can cover 80-90% of all short, day-to-day
commutes in a fully electric mode with 3-4x higher fuel economy than conventional
vehicles. A driver on intercity trips can switch to the hybrid mode.
Net emissions of hybrid EVs-
Apart from fuel economy, an important metric is the net emissions of a vehicle. Well-to-
wheel emissions include both tailpipe emissions and emissions due to fuel production –
electricity or fossil fuels. The life-cycle emissions is a more comprehensive index that
includes well-to-wheel emissions and emissions due to vehicle and battery production,
maintenance, and end-of-life recycling.
The grids of different countries are decarbonised to different extents at present (Figure 2).
In the case of full EVs: the lower the emissions from power production, the lower the
vehicle’s well-to-wheel and life-cycle emissions.
Challenges to transitioning to electric mobility-
First, a successful transition to full EVs requires fast-charging infrastructure along highways.
This is vital because people generally want to own one affordable car serving both short and
long-distance travel needs over 5-15 years, and want to drive without range anxiety. The
lack of a fast-charging infrastructure will discourage people from buying full EVs.
Fast-charging means power levels of 50-350 kW for cars and up to 1,000 kW for heavy-duty
vehicles. To compare, our smartphones charge at 10-25 W. Fast-charging will enable drivers
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to make long-distance trips using their EVs with 10-20-minute stops to gain ranges of 300-
400 km. The indicative prices for EV fast-chargers are: capital cost of $500-1,000/kW,
service and maintenance at 5% per year; and an installation cost of around 50% of the
charger cost.
The high cost and wide variation are due to the high-capacity power connections required,
the cost of making and installing a new transformer and cables; service-level agreements;
DC charger plug options and quantities; customisation costs; labour costs; and permits.
Second, many parts of the world, especially economically developing nations, don’t yet have
access to a grid or the grid isn’t 100% reliable. The relatively high charging power for slow-
charging (<22kW) and fast-charging (<350kW) make the problem more prominent vis-à-vis
generation and transmission capacities. This in turn could retard the transition to EVs.
Third, mass-market price points of cars in the economically developing world are much
lower, ~$12,000– whereas EVs with a range of 300-400 km will reach parity with
conventional vehicles in the richest countries at a price of $25,000-35,000 in the short term.
This is due to the high battery costs, between $130-200/kWh at the pack level. EVs with
higher range will need larger battery packs and thus be more expensive.
How can hybrid or plug-in hybrid EVs help us decarbonise?
The current focus in the industry is on full EVs, which isn’t practical for the immediate
future, given grid reliability, state of highway charging infrastructure, and prohibitive vehicle
costs. Hybrid EVs– either full or plug-in hybrids present a big opportunity to lower emissions
in the interim.
The 1.5-2x higher fuel economy of hybrids and 3-4x higher fuel economy of plug-in hybrids
in electric mode drastically reduces fuel costs, emissions, and oil imports.
Plug-in hybrids in particular can match several (but not all) of the benefits of full EVs vis-à-
vis emissions and performance without requiring large batteries. With a limited all-electric
range, this may not cater to all use cases, such as taxis.
Regenerative braking in hybrid EVs – i.e. recovering the kinetic energy of the vehicle while
slowing down instead of dissipating it as heat in the braking system – can improve fuel
economy esp. in urban areas with frequent stop-go conditions and in hilly conditions. An
engine start-stop mechanism can also save fuel at traffic junctions and in heavy traffic.
Finally, the purchase price of hybrid cars is only 5-15% higher than conventional vehicles
and is independent of the vehicle range.
In an ideal future, all our electricity comes from renewable sources and we power our EVs
using solar energy during the day and with wind energy at night. For countries that can
already work towards this goal now, our priority must be to realise this vision.
In places where transitioning to renewables for power and building fast-charging
infrastructure will take a decade or more, we need to switch to hybrid EVs as a short-term
solution due to the fuel-economy and emissions benefits.
2. An El Nino corresponds to diminished rainfall in India. The converse, or a La Nina, is linked
to increased rain. A recent study however suggests that this cyclical swing called the El Nino
Southern Oscillation (ENSO) affects vast regions of India differently.
Since 1981, the study published in Scientific Reports notes, monsoon rainfall over Central
India- known as the monsoon core zone and where agriculture is largely rainfed is
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increasingly getting disassociated from the ENSO with only 10% of droughts or excess rains
linked to ENSO fluctuations. On the other hand, the ENSO link to North India was
strengthening, with 70% of rainfall fluctuations linked to the ENSO cycle. In southern India,
the relationship has remained largely stable.
While past research into monsoon patterns have suggested a “weakening” of the
relationship between ENSO and monsoon, the latest suggests that this too has varied since
1901. Authors noted that, the ENSO–ISMR inverse relationship started getting stronger
from 1901 to 1940, became stable from 1941 to 1980 and then the relationship has
weakened in the recent epoch (1981 onwards).
What causes an El Nino?
El Nino is a natural climate pattern borne out of unusually warm waters in the eastern
Pacific.
It forms when the trade winds blowing east-to-west along the equatorial Pacific slow down
or reverse as air pressure changes, although scientists are not entirely sure what kicks off
the cycle. Because the trade winds affect the sun-warmed surface waters, a weakening
causes these warm western Pacific waters to slosh back into the colder central and eastern
Pacific basins.
During the 2015-16 El Nino- the strongest such event on record anchovy stocks off the coast
of Peru crashed amid this warm water incursion. And nearly a third of the corals on
Australia's Great Barrier Reef died. In too-warm waters corals will expel living algae, causing
them to calcify and turn white. This build-up of warm water in the eastern Pacific also
transfers heat high into the atmosphere through convection, generating thunderstorms.
How does El Nino affect the world’s weather?
This shift in storm activity affects the current of fast-flowing air that moves weather around
the world called the subtropical jet stream- pushing its path southward and straightening it
out into a flatter stream that delivers similar weather along the same latitudes.
During an El Nino, the southern United States experiences cooler and wetter weather, while
parts of the U.S. West and Canada are warmer and drier. Hurricane activity falters as the
storms fail to form in the Atlantic due to changes in the wind, sparing the United States. But
tropical cyclones in the Pacific get a boost, with storms often spinning toward vulnerable
islands.
Some parts of Central and South America experience heavy rainfall, although the Amazon
rainforest tends to suffer from drier conditions. And Australia endures extreme heat,
drought and bushfires. El Nino could offer a reprieve to the Horn of Africa, which recently
suffered five consecutive failed rainy seasons. El Nino brings more rain to the Horn, unlike
the triple-dip La Nina which desiccated the region.
Historically, both El Nino and La Nina have occurred about every two to seven years on
average, with El Nino lasting 9 to 12 months. La Nina, which takes hold when waters are
cooler in the Eastern Pacific, can last one to three years.
3. Single Pill Strategy to Beat Cardiovascular Diseases:
In a major policy change, the WHO included three fixed dose combinations of cardiovascular
medicines or polypills on its revised Model Lists of Essential Medicines (EML) 2023 for use in
primary and secondary prevention of atherosclerotic cardiovascular diseases.
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The WHO Expert Committee on Selection and Use of Essential Medicines noted the
evidence from large randomised-controlled trials that the use of the polypill is associated
with reduced risks of cardiovascular events, including fatal and non-fatal myocardial
infarction and stroke, and the need for revascularisation in primary and secondary
prevention settings.
For Salim Yusuf, a cardiologist and researcher at McMaster University, Canada, and a
Keralite, this endorsement from the WHO is the culmination of the two decades or more
that he spent on building clinical evidence that polypills are a safe and effective strategy to
reduce the future risk of heart attacks and strokes.
Dr. Yusuf and his co-researchers, N.J. Wald and M.R. Law, both from the U.K., had proposed
in early 2000 that a polypill which combined two or more blood pressure lowering drugs
plus a statin and aspirin could significantly reduce the risk of future heart attacks and
strokes.
One of the polypills that has been included in the EML is Polycap (manufactured by Cadila in
India). This four-drug combination (simvastatin + ramipril + atenolol + hydrochlorothiazide),
along with acetylsalicylic acid or aspirin, is what Dr. Yusuf and his co-researchers from India
had been studying since 2005.
It is a simple treatment that can be administered with very little monitoring to a majority of
people, with backup from physicians. The polypill is not a new drug but a drug delivery
mechanism, which improves medication adherence (because it is a single pill) and saves
money by preventing hospitalisations. It has, however, taken more international research as
well as several applications before the WHO was willing to include the polypill in the EML.
Now that the polypill has made it to the EML, it is hoped that governments would purchase
the drug and provide it through public hospitals at low or no cost.
4. The Holocene Climate Optimum (HCO) was a warm period that occurred in the interval
roughly 9,500 to 5,500 years ago BP (Before Present), with a thermal maximum around
8000 years BP. It has also been known by many other names, such as Altithermal, Climatic
Optimum, Holocene Megathermal, Holocene Optimum, Holocene Thermal
Maximum, Hypsithermal, and Mid-Holocene Warm Period.
The warm period was followed by a gradual decline, of about 0.1 to 0.3 °C per millennium,
until about two centuries ago. However, on a sub-millennial scale, there were regional
warm periods superimposed on this decline.
 For other temperature fluctuations, see temperature record.
 For other past climate fluctuation, see paleoclimatology.
 For the pollen zone and Blytt–Sernander period, associated with the climate optimum,
see Atlantic (period).
The HCO consisted of increases of up to 4 °C near the North Pole (in one study, winter
warming of 3 to 9 °C and summer of 2 to 6 °C in northern central Siberia). Northwestern
Europe experienced warming, but there was cooling in Southern Europe. The average
temperature change appears to have declined rapidly with latitude and so essentially no
change in mean temperature is reported at low and middle latitudes. Tropical reefs tend to
show temperature increases of less than 1 °C.
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5. The World Health Organization (WHO) recently declared aspartame, an artificial sweetener
used in the food industry, as a possible carcinogen. Substances that potentially cause cancer
are called carcinogens.
Aspartame is present in a wide range of food products– sugar-free diet soda, ice tea, ice
cream, low fat yoghurt, cereals, and medicines such as chewable vitamins. In fact, it is quite
difficult to avoid consuming at least some amount of aspartame in our diet.
The expert committee
The report in which aspartame was evaluated and several such declarations that christen a
substance as being carcinogenic– are authored by a committee of experts under the
authority of the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC).
The agency, headquartered in Lyon, France, was established under the WHO in 1965 with a
mandate to study the causes of cancer. To date, the IARC has assessed more than a
thousand substances or putative risk factors for their roles in carcinogenesis.
In order to create a common reference point for the recommendations that arise from the
deliberations of the expert working committees, the IARC uses a grading system.
 Grade 1 substances are factors known to cause cancer in humans, with sufficient
evidence supporting their carcinogenicity. This category includes smoking, asbestos, and
processed meats, all of which have been linked to a higher cancer hazard.
 Grade 2 substances, or exposures, are classified as being probably or possibly
carcinogenic to humans. Within Grade 2, there are two subcategories. ‘2A’ includes
agents that are probably carcinogenic in humans, supported by ample evidence of
carcinogenicity in experimental animals but limited data regarding humans. Red meats,
DDT pesticide, and night-shift work fall into the 2A category.
 On the other hand, ‘2B’ includes agents that are possibly carcinogenic in humans but for
which there is insufficient evidence of carcinogenicity in animals and limited or
inadequate evidence in humans. For example, cell phone radiation and occupational
exposure as a hairdresser falls under 2B.
 A Grade 3 recommendation is assigned to agents that can’t be classified as carcinogenic
due to limited or inadequate data, even in experiments. Coffee, mercury, and
paracetamol are examples of agents in this category.
Risk v. hazard
While the IARC grading system assesses the hazards with a substance for carcinogenicity, it
does not measure the risk of cancer itself. A hazard is a source of harm- whereas a risk is the
chance that you will be harmed by that hazard.
IARC only categorises substances or exposures based on the strength of the available data
about its properties and behaviour for carcinogenicity. It does not incorporate details
regarding the level of harm each substance or exposure may pose to individuals.
For example, both smoking and the consumption of processed meat are graded as
carcinogens. But it is quite easy to comprehend that consuming small quantities of
processed meat will not have the same level of harm as any amount of tobacco exposure.
So it is not advisable to compare the IARC grades of two agents. A Grade 1 classification for
both smoking and processed meat simply indicates that both agents can potentially cause
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cancer in certain situations. It does not provide any insight into the chance of a person
developing cancer when exposed to such agents.
In other words, exposure or substances within the same category of IARC grade does not
carry the same risk, but it bears the same hazard.
6. LK-99:
LK-99 is the name that a group of South Korean scientists named Sukbae Lee, Ji-Hoon Kim,
and Young-Wan Kwon have conferred to a material that is- they recently reported,
a superconductor at room temperature and pressure. The material is a copper-doped lead
apatite, a type of phosphate mineral.
While the labels ‘L’ and K can commonsensically be traced to the initials of the three
scientists, the number 99 continues to be a bit of a puzzle (although some have associated it
with the year of its discovery). Nonetheless, the significance of christening this claimed
novel apparently-superconducting material after themselves cannot be lost. If indeed
independent scientists are able to confirm that LK-99 is an ambient-condition
superconductor, the scientists will have etched their names in history in more than just the
material’s moniker.
Room-temperature superconductor-
The scientists’ claim has unsurprisingly caught the community of physicists by storm. We
are taught as early as middle school that an electric current carried by a metal wire suffers
losses owing to the wire’s electrical resistance. Indeed, a significant amount of electricity
generated in power plants is lost in transmission for this reason. What if we could make
materials that would offer no resistance to current flow?
Scientists discovered such materials more than a century ago. They found that elemental
mercury, a liquid metal at ambient conditions, becomes a superconductor at an
unimaginably cold temperature of -268 degrees Celsius. Years of painstaking research
revealed that superconductivity is a rather common phenomenon in metals if they can be
cooled down to similar temperatures.
In fact, in the late 1970s, scientists believed that we can’t have a superconductor at more
than -240 degrees Celsius, which is well below the liquefaction temperature of nitrogen, -
195 degrees Celsius. At the same time, it became clear that superconductors aren’t just
perfect conductors of electricity – they also have many other exotic properties, as a result
of their unique quantum nature. Physicists are currently using these exotic properties to
help build, among other things, quantum computers and other sophisticated devices that
could change the course of human evolution.
Against this background, the paramount importance of discovering a material that is a
superconductor in ambient conditions should be evident.
What did tests of LK-99 reveal?
The South Korean group’s new work occurred in a rather unexpected material called an
apatite. Apatites are minerals that have a phosphate scaffold with a tetrahedral, or
pyramidal, motif: one phosphorus atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms. Other atoms
can sit in between these pyramids; different apatites have different properties based on
which atoms these are. A mineral called hydroxyapatite contributes to the strength of tooth
enamel and the bones of living organisms.
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The novelty of the Korean group’s work is to start with lead apatite, obtained by filling the
space between the phosphate pyramids with lead and oxygen ions. Then, some of the lead
atoms are replaced with those of copper. This process is called a substitution.
The group reported that at 10% copper substitution, the wonder material LK-99 arises:
copper-substituted lead appetite. The group subjected this material to a variety of tests and
claimed that it has essentially zero resistance to the flow of an electric current. When the
scientists increased the amount of current beyond a threshold value, called the critical
current, a resistance to current flow suddenly appears – which is just as expected in a
superconductor.
We also know that an external magnetic field is detrimental to superconductivity. The
investigators found that in the presence of a magnetic field, the material continues to be a
superconductor until the field strength crosses a critical threshold – another positive sign.
Crucially, the dependence of the critical current and the critical magnetic field was found to
be qualitatively consistent with the known behaviour of superconductors. The group also
reported heat capacity data – i.e. the amount of energy required to raise the temperature
of the material by 1 centigrade per gram – but this was less convincing.
Why are copper oxides of interest?
In 1986, superconductivity physics witnessed a revolution when scientists found that some
copper oxide materials became superconducting at above -240 degrees Celsius. Then again,
despite the best efforts of a generation of scientists, the maximum temperature achieved in
this system wouldn’t exceed -100 degrees Celsius, that too under an immense pressure.
More recently, scientists have synthesised sulphide and hydride materials that become
superconductors at near room temperatures but under extreme pressure, such as that
found at the centre of earth, which is achievable only in laboratory conditions.
Because of the lucre of a room-temperature superconductor, the field hasn’t been without
controversy either. Some recent claims of superconductivity in a hydride material didn’t
withstand scrutiny. The holy grail of an ambient condition superconductor has thus
remained one of the most elusive and coveted prizes of the field. The South Korean group’s
claim, if proved true, will therefore be groundbreaking.
7. Researchers described the species named Perucetus colossus, or “the colossal whale from
Peru”- in the journal Nature. Each vertebra weighs over 220 pounds (100 kilograms) and its
ribs measure nearly 5 feet (1.4 metres) long.
The bones were discovered more than a decade ago by Mario Urbina from the University of
San Marcos’ Natural History Museum in Lima. An international team spent years digging
them out from the side of a steep, rocky slope in the Ica desert, a region in Peru that was
once underwater and is known for its rich marine fossils. The results: 13 vertebrae from the
whale’s backbone, four ribs and a hip bone.
After the excavations, the researchers used 3D scanners to study the surface of the bones
and drilled into them to peek inside. They used the huge but incomplete skeleton to
estimate the whale's size and weight, using modern marine mammals for comparison, said
study author Eli Amson, a paleontologist at the State Museum of Natural History in
Stuttgart, Germany.
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They calculated that the ancient giant weighed somewhere between 94 and 375 tons (85
and 340 metric tons). The biggest blue whales found have been within that range at around
200 tons (180 metric tons).
Its body stretched to around 66 feet (20 metres) long. Blue whales can be longer with some
growing to more than 100 feet (30 metres) in length.
8. The Indian eagle-owl was classified as a species only in recent years, thus distinguishing it
from the Eurasian eagle-owl. The slightly larger female can reach a total length of two and a
half feet, with a wingspan of six feet. Prominent ear tufts that look like horns are seen to
project from its head. One theory holds that these have evolved to impart a threatening
look that keeps away predators. If so, the horns are indeed successful at imparting an aura
of menace.
Its nocturnal habits have meant that very little is known about this bird. The widespread
range- the entire Indian peninsula would seem to indicate that it is a stable population. But
nobody knows for sure, as it is not a very common bird. Their total numbers have never
been estimated. Many bird species face decline today as the total forested area in our
country has suffered a decline. But the Indian eagle-owl does not have a dependency on
forests. The regular items on their menu, such as rats, bandicoots, and even bats and doves
are best hunted over open scrubland and agricultural tracts. Nearby rocky perches and
crags provide ideal settings for its nests.
Bubo bengalensis was the scientific name used by James Franklin in 1831 for an eagle-owl,
that was collected in the Bengal region of the Indian Subcontinent.
9. Starlink is a satellite internet constellation operated by
American aerospace company SpaceX, providing coverage to over 60 countries. It also aims
for global mobile phone service after 2023. SpaceX started launching Starlink satellites in
2019. As of August 2023, Starlink consists of over 5,000 mass-produced small
satellites in low Earth orbit (LEO), which communicate with designated ground transceivers.
In total, nearly 12,000 satellites are planned to be deployed, with a possible later extension
to 42,000. SpaceX announced reaching more than 1 million subscribers in December
2022 and 1.5 million subscribers in May 2023.
The SpaceX satellite development facility in Redmond, Washington, houses the Starlink
research, development, manufacturing, and orbit control teams. The cost of the decade-
long project to design, build, and deploy the constellation was estimated by SpaceX in May
2018 to be at least US$10 billion (equivalent to US$10.73 billion in 2021). SpaceX expects
more than $30 billion in revenue by 2025 from its satellite constellation, while revenues
from its launch business were expected to reach $5 billion in the same year.
SpaceX has attempted to mitigate astronometric interference concerns with measures to
reduce their brightness during operation. The satellites are equipped with Hall-effect
thrusters allowing them to orbit raise, station-keep, and de-orbit at the end of their life.
Additionally, the satellites are designed to autonomously and smoothly avoid collisions
based on uplinked tracking data.
Similar or competitive systems:
 OneWeb satellite constellation – a satellite constellation project that began operational
deployment of satellites in 2020.
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 China national satellite internet project – a planned satellite internet offering for the
Chinese market.
 Kuiper Systems – a planned 3,276 LEO satellite Internet constellation by an Amazon
subsidiary.
 Hughes Network Systems – a current broadband satellite provider providing fixed,
cellular backhaul, and airborne antennas.
 Viasat, Inc. – a current broadband satellite provider providing fixed, ground mobile, and
airborne antennas.
 O3b – Medium Earth orbit constellation that provides access to mobile phone operators
and internet service providers. It covers only the equatorial region.
10. A recent publication by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) points out that about 5% of birds
found in the country are endemic and are not reported in other parts of the world. The
publication, titled 75 Endemic Birds of India, was recently released on the 108th foundation
day of the ZSI.
 India is home to 1,353 bird species, which represents approximately 12.40% of global
bird diversity. Of these 1,353 bird species, 78 (5%) are endemic to the country.
 Of the 78 species, three species have not been recorded in the last few decades. They
are the Manipur Bush Quail (Perdicula manipurensis), listed as ‘Endangered’ by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species
with its last recorded sighting in 1907; the Himalayan Quail (Ophrysia superciliosa),
listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ with its last recorded sighting in 1876; and the Jerdon’s
Courser (Rhinoptilus bitorquatus), listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ with its last confirmed
sighting in 2009.
 The highest number of endemic species have been recorded in the Western Ghats, with
28 bird species. Some of the interesting species recorded in the country’s bio-
geographic hotspot are the Malabar Grey Hornbill (Ocyceros griseus); Malabar
Parakeet (Psittacula columboides); Ashambu Laughing Thrush (Montecincla
meridionalis); and the White-bellied Sholakili (Sholicola albiventris).
 Some interesting bird species which are only found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
are Nicobar Megapode (Megapodius nicobariensis); Nicobar Serpent Eagle (Spilornis
klossi); Andaman Crake (Rallina canningi); and Andaman Barn Owl (Tyto deroepstorffi).
Four species of birds are endemic to the Eastern Himalayas, and one each to the
Southern Deccan plateau and central Indian forest.
 The publication also throws light on the conservation status of these endemic species of
the 78 endemic species, 25 are classified as ‘Threatened’ by the IUCN. Three
species (Bugun Liocichla or Liocichla bugunorum; Himalayan Quail or Ophrysia
superciliosa; Jerdon’s Courser or Rhinoptilus bitorquatus) are listed as ‘Critically
Endangered’. Five of the endemic birds in India are categorised as ‘Endangered’, and 17
as ‘Vulnerable’, while 11 are categorised as ‘Near Threatened’ on the IUCN Red List.
11. Generative artificial intelligence (also generative AI or GenAI) is artificial
intelligence capable of generating text, images, or other media, using generative
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models. Generative AI models learn the patterns and structure of their input training
data and then generate new data that has similar characteristics.
In the early 2020s, advances in transformer-based deep neural networks enabled a number
of generative AI systems notable for accepting natural language prompts as input. These
include large language model chatbots such as ChatGPT, Bing Chat, Bard, and LLaMA,
and text-to-image artificial intelligence art systems such as Stable Diffusion, Midjourney,
and DALL-E.
Generative AI has uses across a wide range of industries, including art, writing, software
development, product design, healthcare, finance, gaming, marketing, and
fashion. Investment in generative AI surged during the early 2020s, with large companies
such as Microsoft, Google, and Baidu as well as numerous smaller firms developing
generative AI models. However, there are also concerns about the potential misuse of
generative AI, including cybercrime or creating fake news or deepfakes which can be used
to deceive or manipulate people.
A generative AI system is constructed by applying unsupervised or self-supervised machine
learning to a data set. The capabilities of a generative AI system depend on the modality or
type of the data set used.
Generative AI can be either unimodal or multimodal; unimodal systems take only one type
of input, whereas multimodal systems can take more than one type of input. For example,
one version of OpenAI's GPT-4 accepts both text and image inputs.
12. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023:
The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on
August 4, 2023. It repeals the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008 and
dissolves the Science and Engineering Research Board set up under it. The Bill provides for
establishing the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (NRF).
 NRF will be the apex body in the country to provide strategic direction for research,
innovation, and entrepreneurship in the fields of: (i) natural sciences including
mathematics, (ii) engineering and technology, (iii) environmental and earth sciences, (iv)
health and agriculture, and (v) scientific and technological interfaces of humanities and
social sciences.
 Key functions of NRF include: (i) preparing short-term, medium-term, and long-term
roadmaps and formulating programs for research and development (R&D), (ii)
facilitating and financing the growth of R&D and related infrastructure in universities,
colleges, and research institutions, (iii) providing grants for research proposals, (iv)
supporting translation of research into capital intensive technology, (v) encouraging
international collaboration, (vi) encouraging investments in the Foundation by private
and public sector entities, and (vii) undertaking annual survey of scientific research,
outcomes, and spending.
 The Foundation will be financed through: (i) grants and loans from the central
government, (ii) donations to the fund, (iii) income from investments of the amounts
received by the Foundation, and (iv) all amounts with the Fund for Science and
Engineering Research set up under the 2008 Act.
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 The following Funds will be constituted by the Foundation for allocation purposes: (i)
the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Fund for salaries, allowances, and
administrative purposes, (ii) the Innovation Fund for funding outstanding creativity in
the areas supported by the Foundation, (iii) the Science and Engineering Research Fund
for the continuation of projects initiated under the 2008 Act, and (iv) one or more
special purpose funds for any specific project or research. The central government will
prescribe rules for the utilisation of these Funds. CAG will audit the accounts of the
Foundation annually.
 NRF will have a Governing Board headed by the Prime Minister of India. The Board will
provide strategic direction to the Foundation and monitor the implementation. Other
members of the Board are: (i) the Union Ministers of Science and Technology, Education
as Vice Presidents, (ii) the Principal Scientific Advisor as Member Secretary, and (iii)
Secretaries to the Departments of Science and Technology, Biotechnology, and Scientific
and Industrial Research.
 The President of the Board may appoint or nominate additional members to the Board.
These may include: (i) up to five members from business organisations or industries, (ii)
one member from the fields of social sciences and humanities, and (iii) up to six experts
from natural sciences, engineering, and technology. The President may appoint a Chief
Executive Officer, who should be of the rank of an Additional Secretary, or above.
 The Foundation will have an Executive Council to undertake implementation. The
functions of the Executive Council include: (i) considering applications for the grant of
financial assistance, (ii) prescribing regulations regarding applications for financial
assistance, requirements for extension of assistance, and grounds for revocation of
assistance, and (iii) preparing budget of the Foundation and maintaining its accounts.
The Council will have the power to authorise an officer to visit the applicants for grants
and verify the accuracy of submissions made by them.
 The Principal Scientific Advisor will be the chairperson of the Council. Other members of
the Council include: (i) secretaries to various departments of the central government
including Science and Technology, Higher Education, Health Research, Agricultural
Research, and Defence Research, and (ii) the Chief Executive Officer of the Foundation.
The President of the Foundation may nominate or appoint to the Council: (i) up to two
secretaries of departments not covered under the Bill, and (ii) up to three experts.
13. India’s Defence Ministry has decided to replace Microsoft Operating System (OS) in all its
computers that can connect to the Internet with Maya, an Ubuntu-based OS built locally.
The new OS is currently being rolled out only in the Defence Ministry computers, and not
the three Services. While the Navy is said to have cleared Maya for use in its systems, the
Army and the Air Force are still evaluating the software.
 Maya has been developed by Indian government agencies within six months, and it is
aimed at preventing malware attacks by cybercriminals who are increasingly targeting
critical infrastructure and government agencies. The new OS will be backed by a
protection system called Chakravyuh. This end point system is also being deployed in
the computers that have Maya installed.
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 Windows is a commercial software sold by Microsoft for a license fee. It is the most
widely used OS, and it is easy to install and run. Devices powered by Microsoft’s OS run
on the Windows NT kernel. A kernel is the core of an operating system. It runs on a
computer’s Random Access Memory (RAM) and gives the device instructions on how to
perform specific tasks.
 Prior to building the kernel architecture, progammers used to run codes directly on the
processor. In the 1970s, Danish computer scientist Per Brinch Hansen pioneered the
approach of splitting what needs to be done by a processor from how it executes that
task, thus introducing the kernel architecture in the RC 4000 multiprogramming system.
It separated policy from mechanism in the OS design.
 This design was monolithic, meaning a single programme contained all necessary codes
to perform kernel-related tasks. This architecture provided rich and powerful
abstraction for the underlying hardware. But it was also large and difficult to maintain as
the lines of codes ran in the millions.
 Limitations in the traditional architecture led to a new kernel design called the
microkernel. This design broke down the monolithic system into multiple small servers
that communicate through a smaller kernel while giving more space for user
customisations.
 This change allowed developers to run patches easily without rebooting the entire
kernel. It did have some drawbacks like larger running memory space and more
software interactions that reduced the computer’s performance.
 Windows runs on a hybrid kernel architecture which is a microkernel design coupled
with additional codes that help enhance performance. Apple’s MacOS also uses a hybrid
kernel called XNU. And Ubuntu, a Linux OS that was used to build Maya, runs on
monolithic architecture. Linux versions are called “distributions” or “distro”, and they
comprise free and open-source software. In fact, Android is also based on the Linux
kernel.
14. U.N. Sustainable Development Goal 7: “to ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable
and modern energy for all”.
Since the world still depends on fossil fuels for 82% of its energy supply, decarbonising the
power sector is critical; the share of electricity in final energy consumption will also increase
by 80-150% by 2050. The recent uptick in coal consumption in Europe, despite the increase
in solar and wind power, suggests that reliable, 24/7 low-carbon electricity resources are
critical to ensure the deep decarbonisation of power generation, along with grid stability
and energy security. Small modular reactors- a type of nuclear reactor can be helpful to
India in this regard.
Decarbonisation:
The transition from coal-fired power generation to clean energy sources poses major
challenges for all countries, and there is a widespread consensus among policymakers in
several countries that solar and wind energy alone will not suffice to provide reliable and
affordable energy for everyone.
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In decarbonised electricity systems with a significant share of renewable energy, the

addition of at least one firm power-generating technology can improve grid reliability and
reduce costs.
According to the International Energy Agency, the demand for critical minerals like lithium,
nickel, cobalt, and rare earth elements, required for clean-energy production technologies,
is likely to increase by up to 3.5x by 2030. This jump poses several global challenges,
including the large capital investments to develop new mines and processing facilities. The
environmental and social impacts of developing several new mines and plants in China,
Indonesia, Africa, and South America within a short time span, coupled with the fact that
the top three mineral-producing and -processing nations control 50-100% of the current
global extraction and processing capacities, pose geopolitical and other risks.
Nuclear power:
Nuclear power plants (NPPs) generate 10% of the world’s electricity and help it avoid 180
billion cubic metres of natural gas demand and 1.5 billion tonnes of CO2 emissions every
year. Any less nuclear power could make the world’s journey towards net-zero more
challenging and more expensive. NPPs are efficient users of land and their grid integration
costs are lower than those associated with variable renewable energy (VRE) sources
because NPPs generate power 24x7 in all kinds of weather. Nuclear power also provides
valuable co-benefits like high-skill jobs in technology, manufacturing, and operations.
Conventional NPPs have generally suffered from time and cost overruns. As an alternative,
several countries are developing small modular reactors (SMRs)– nuclear reactors with a
maximum capacity of 300 MW to complement conventional NPPs. SMRs can be installed in
decommissioned thermal power plant sites by repurposing existing infrastructure, thus
sparing the host country from having to acquire more land and/or displace people beyond
the existing site boundary.
Small Modular Reactor (SMR):
SMRs are designed with a smaller core damage frequency (the likelihood that an accident
will damage the nuclear fuel) and source term (a measure of radioactive contamination)
compared to conventional NPPs. They also include enhanced seismic isolation for more
safety.
SMR designs are also simpler than those of conventional NPPs and include several passive
safety features, resulting in a lower potential for the uncontrolled release of radioactive
materials into the environment.
The amount of spent nuclear fuel stored in an SMR project will also be lower than that in a
conventional NPP. Studies have found that SMRs can be safely installed and operated at
several brownfield sites that may not meet the more stringent zoning requirements for
conventional NPPs. The power-plant organisation can also undertake community work, as
the Nuclear Power Corporation did in Kudankulam, Tamil Nadu, before the first unit was
built.
SMRs are designed to operate for 40-60 years with capacity factors exceeding 90%. Since
the first-of-a-kind SMR projects will be commissioned by 2030, the current capital costs for
SMRs in the U.S. are about $6,000 per MW. The overnight costs will come down rapidly
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after 2030, especially once the many SMR projects that have already been ordered by
European countries come online by 2035.
The costs for India will decline steepest when reputed companies with experience in
manufacturing NPPs, such as BHEL, L&T or Godrej Industries, manufacture SMRs for India,
and the world with technology transfer from abroad. This will allow zero-carbon nuclear
power to expand by attracting “green” finance from the Green Climate Fund and
international investors, without unduly burdening the government exchequer.
15. Luna-25 was a failed Russian lunar lander mission by Roscosmos in August 2023 that
planned to land near the lunar south pole, in the vicinity of the crater Boguslawsky.
Initially called the Luna-Glob lander, it was renamed Luna 25 to emphasize continuity with
the Soviet Luna programme from the 1970s, though it was still part of what was at one
point conceptualized as the Luna-Glob lunar exploration programme. It was the first lunar
lander that the Russian space agency Roscosmos has sent to the Moon (notwithstanding the
ones sent by the Soviet space program) and would have been the first lander to land on the
lunar south pole.
The Luna 25 mission lifted off on 10 August 2023, atop a Soyuz-2.1b rocket from
the Vostochny Cosmodrome in Russia's far eastern Amur Region, and on 16 August
entered lunar orbit. On 19 August, the lander crashed on the Moon's surface after a failed
orbital manoeuvre.
16. ZARTH App:
Many people look up at the night sky and think of it as this calm, serene place. It is not!
Stars die violent deaths as supernovae, monster black holes eat anything that gets too close
and star couples dance the spiralling dance of death. Our eyes don't see most of these
events, but our telescopes do. ZARTH brings real astronomical data about such objects
straight to the palm of your hand, allowing you to "catch" and explore them.
ZARTH is the ZTF Augmented Reality Transient Hunter, an app developed by astronomers
and astronomy students, for everyone interested in the constantly changing universe.
ZARTH lets you hunt for transients using data from the Zwicky Transient Facility robotic
telescope at Palomar Observatory. Point your phone to the night sky and find what
transients the universe is displaying every night.
17. Australia’s Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA), the country’s regulator of medicines,
medical devices and biologicals, issued a medical advisory warning Australians of the risk of
liver injury from using medicines and herbal supplements containing turmeric or its active
ingredient, curcumin.
Why was this advisory issued?
The TGA said that until June 29, 2023, it had received 18 reports of liver problems
experienced by consumers taking products containing curcuma longa (turmeric) and/or
curcumin. These followed an investigation the agency undertook to review the safety of the
products, after instances of their consumption and liver injury were reported in Australia
and internationally. The evidence from nine of these reports had enough information to
suggest that a liver injury may have been caused by curcuma longa or a curcumin product.
Two of these cases were severe, including one that resulted in death. In four of the nine
cases, there were no other ingredients likely to have contributed to the liver injury. The
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other five cases involved products that contained other ingredients that may have
contributed to the liver injury, the advisory noted.
The TGA’s verdict, following the investigation, is that there is a “rare risk” of liver injury
from taking curcuma longa and/or curcumin in medicinal dosage forms. People with existing
or previous liver problems were more likely to develop this rare adverse event. This isn’t the
last word on turmeric, with the TGA considering further regulatory action, including a
potential label warning on turmeric and curcumin supplements, following wider
consultation, the results of which will be known later this year. There are over 600 listed
medicines, legally available in Australia, that contain these curcuma species and/or
curcumin, according to the advisory.
Does turmeric have health benefits?
The TGA warning says that the risk of liver injury did not appear to relate to curcuma longa
consumed in “typical” dietary amounts as a food. As a staple ingredient in South and South
East Asian cuisine, turmeric is also used in Ayurvedic and Chinese-medicine concoctions.
Several studies, over the last five decades, have investigated the properties of curcumin and
report it to have anti-oxidant properties that can help with inflammation. These include
arthritis and infections. Curcumin-based extracts have also been investigated in leading
research labs of India. Research teams at the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru have
reported that curcumin used along with the drug Artemisinin was effective in treating
malaria when tested on mice. There have also been studies investigating the drug as an
adjuvant in chemotherapy based on results in mice and animal studies. However, their
effect in human trials have been inconclusive.
Why is curcumin being used in supplements?
One of the challenges of turmeric and by extension curcumin is that very little of it is
absorbed, or made ‘bioavailable’, by the body. Much scientific effort has been expended
over the decades to improve its bioavailability. A popular approach is to use piperine, the
major active component of black pepper, which improves bioavailability by 2000%, says a
2017 review in the peer-reviewed journal Foods. However, whether increasing the
bioavailability of curcumin and packaging them in supplements makes them effective and
safe for use in medicines is still being debated with no conclusive evidence emerging from
trials.
Is Australia the only country to warn about turmeric supplements?
The Australian TGA cites reports of 20 hepatitis cases in France and an investigation by
ANSES, the French Agency for Food, Environmental and Occupational Health & Safety, into
100 reports of adverse effects, including 15 reports of hepatitis, potentially related to the
consumption of food supplements containing turmeric or curcumin. The ANSES report
underlines that turmeric has “choleretic” properties, which means it stimulates the
secretion of bile to improve digestion, and therefore, it is advisable that those with bile duct
disease should avoid turmeric. Curcumin could also interact with medications such as
anticoagulants, cancer drugs and immunosuppressants, reducing their safety and
effectiveness, they note.
Is there a ‘safe limit’ on the amount of turmeric that can be consumed?
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The European Food Safety Authority has set an acceptable daily intake of 180 mg of
curcumin per day for a 60 kg adult as the safe level of consumption. The average
consumption in France remains low, with 27 mg for heavy consumers of foods containing
turmeric. A World Health Organization/Food and Agricultural Organisation advisory
recommends 3 mg/kg of body weight. A 75 kg person can have about 200 mg a day. India’s
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has standards that packaged turmeric must
comply with but nothing on the recommended dietary allowance.
18. In August, a research paper titled “A Practical Deep Learning-Based Acoustic Side Channel
Attack on Keyboards”, published and supported by the ethics committee of Durham
University, U.K., revealed that Artificial Intelligence (AI) can be used to decode passwords by
analysing the sound produced by keystrokes. The study highlighted the accuracy of Acoustic
Side Channel Attacks (ASCA) when state-of-the-art deep learning models were used to
classify laptop keystrokes and their mitigation. While ASCA is not new, the development of
AI and deep learning has increased the risks posed by side channel attacks.
ASCA:
To understand Acoustic Side Channel Attacks, one should know Side Channel Attacks (SCAs).
SCAs are a method of hacking a cryptographic algorithm based on the analysis of auxiliary
systems used in the encryption method. These can be performed using a collection of
signals emitted by devices, including electromagnetic waves, power consumption, mobile
sensors as well as sound from keyboards and printers to target devices. Once collected,
these signals are used to interpret signals that can be then used to compromise the security
of a device.
In an ASCA, the sound of clicks generated by a keyboard is used to analyse keystrokes and
interpret what is being typed to leak sensitive information. These attacks are particularly
dangerous as the acoustic sounds from a keyboard are not only readily available but also
because their misuse is underestimated by users. While most users hide their screens when
typing sensitive information, no precautionary steps are taken to hide the sound of the
keystrokes. And though over time, the sound of keyboard clicks has become less profound
with devices making use of non-mechanical keyboards, the technology with which the
acoustics can be accessed and processed has also improved drastically.
Additionally, the use of laptops has increased the scope of ASCAs as laptop models have the
same keyboard making it easier for AI-enabled deep learning models to pick up and
interpret the acoustics.
Accuracy of Acoustic Side Channel Attacks:
The research conducted by a group of scientists from Cornell University, Durham University,
University of Surrey, and the Royal Holloway University of London investigated the use of
audio recordings taken from Zoom video conferencing calls, smartphone microphones, and
off-the-shelf equipment and algorithms to launch ASCA attacks. The study found that when
trained on keystrokes by a nearby phone, the classifier achieved an accuracy of 95%, the
highest accuracy seen without the use of a language model.
When a deep learning model was trained on the data with default values, the model was
able to acquire a meaningful interpretation of the data. On a MacBook Pro, which features a
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keyboard identical in switch design to Apple’s models from the last two years, the model
was able to achieve state-of-the-art accuracy with minimal training data.
Additionally, when the AI model was made to recognise keystrokes using audio captured
through a smartphone microphone, it was able to achieve 95% accuracy. However, accuracy
dropped to 93% when Zoom calls were used.
ASCA attacks are not new and have been around since 1950 when acoustic emanations of
encryption devices were used to crack their security. Additionally, the United States
National Security Agency (NSA) declassified documents listed acoustic emanations as a
source of compromise in 1982. Over the past decades, researchers have published papers
talking about the threats from ASCA attacks with the advent of modern technology that
brought more microphones in close proximity to keyboards, making it easier to collect and
interpret acoustic data.
However, with the increasing use of AI and the accuracy with which deep learning models
can recognise and analyse keystrokes, the threat from ASCA has resurfaced. Especially since
users may not take ample precautions while typing in sensitive information including
banking data and password on their laptops in public spaces like coffee shops, airports, and
cafes.
Protecting against ASCAs:
While there is no explicit means of defence against ASCAs, simple changes to typing could
reduce the chances of attacks. Using touch-based typing can also reduce the chances of
successful keystroke recognition from 64% to 40%, making it more difficult for threat actors
to leak sensitive information.
Additionally, changes in typing style and creating stronger passwords that use a
combination of upper- and lower-case alphabets can make it more difficult for criminals to
launch successful ASCA attacks; the study found that even deep learning models had a
difficult time recognising the use of shift key to change the case of alphabets when typing.
Users should also avoid the use of easily recognisable phrases which can make it easier for
AI models to predict the text.
19. The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas successfully fired the Astra indigenous Beyond Visual
Range (BVR) air-to-air missile off the coast of Goa. The aircraft was also monitored by a
Chase Tejas twin-seater aircraft.
The test launch was monitored by the Test Director and scientists of the Aeronautical
Development Agency (ADA), the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO),
the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) along with officials from the Centre for Military
Airworthiness and Certification (CEMILAC) and the Directorate General of Aeronautical
Quality Assurance (DG-AQA).
Astra is a BVR air-to-air missile to engage and destroy highly manoeuvring supersonic aerial
targets, designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Laboratory
(DRDL), Research Centre Imarat (RCI) and other laboratories of the DRDO. Defence Minister
Rajnath Singh said the launch would significantly enhance the combat prowess of Tejas and
reduce the dependency on imported weapons.
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The IAF has earlier contracted 40 LCA-MK1 in two batches which include 32 single-seat
fighters and eight twin-seat trainers. Further, the IAF has contracted 83 LCA Mk1A in 2021
and the deliveries are scheduled to begin by February 2024.
20. Chandrayaan-3 is the third mission in the Chandrayaan programme, a series of lunar-
exploration missions developed by the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO). Launched on 14 July 2023, the mission consists of a lunar
lander named Vikram and a lunar rover named Pragyan, similar to those launched
aboard Chandrayaan-2 in 2019.
Chandrayaan-3 was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre on 14 July 2023. The
spacecraft entered lunar orbit on 5 August, and the lander touched down near the lunar
south polar region on 23 August, making India the fourth country to successfully land on
the Moon, and the first to do so near the region of the lunar south pole.
Lander payloads: Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) to measure the
thermal conductivity and temperature; Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) for
measuring the seismicity around the landing site; Langmuir Probe (LP) to estimate the
plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is
accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies.
Rover payloads: Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown
Spectroscope (LIBS) for deriving the elemental composition in the vicinity of landing site.
The mission objectives of Chandrayaan-3 were:
i. To demonstrate Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface
ii. To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and
iii. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments.
To achieve the mission objectives, several advanced technologies were present in Lander
such as,
i. Altimeters: Laser & RF based Altimeters
ii. Velocimeters: Laser Doppler Velocimeter & Lander Horizontal Velocity Camera
iii. Inertial Measurement: Laser Gyro based Inertial referencing and Accelerometer
package
iv. Propulsion System: 800N Throttleable Liquid Engines, 58N attitude thrusters &
Throttleable Engine Control Electronics
v. Navigation, Guidance & Control (NGC): Powered Descent Trajectory design and
associate software elements
vi. Hazard Detection and Avoidance: Lander Hazard Detection & Avoidance Camera
and Processing Algorithm
vii. Landing Leg Mechanism.
Lander
The Vikram lander is responsible for the soft landing on the Moon. It is also box-shaped,
with four landing legs and four landing thrusters capable of producing 800 newtons of
thrust each. It carries the rover and various scientific instruments to perform on-site
analysis. The lander has four variable-thrust engines with slew rate changing capabilities,
unlike Chandrayaan-2's lander, which had five, with the fifth one being centrally mounted
and capable only of fixed thrust. One of the main reasons for Chandrayaan-2's landing
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failure was attitude increase during the camera coasting phase. This was removed by
allowing the lander to control attitude and thrust during all phases of descent. Attitude
correction rate is increased from Chandrayaan-2's 10°/s to 25°/s with Chandrayaan-3.
Additionally, the Chandrayaan-3 lander is equipped with a laser Doppler velocimeter
(LDV) to allow measuring attitude in three directions. The impact legs have been made
stronger compared to Chandrayaan-2 and instrumentation redundancy has been improved.
It will target a more precise 16 km2 (6.2 sq mi) landing region based on images previously
provided by the Orbiter High-Resolution Camera (OHRC) onboard Chandrayaan-2's orbiter.
ISRO improved the structural rigidity, increased polling in instruments, increased data
frequency and transmission, and added additional multiple contingency systems to improve
lander survivability in the event of failure during descent and landing.
Rover
The Pragyan rover is a six-wheeled vehicle with a mass of 26 kilograms (57 pounds). It is 917
millimetres (3.009 ft) x 750 millimetres (2.46 ft) x 397 millimetres (1.302 ft) in size. The
rover is expected to take multiple measurements to support research into the composition
of the lunar surface, the presence of water ice in the lunar soil, the history of lunar impacts,
and the evolution of the Moon's atmosphere.
Payloads:
On lander
 Chandra's Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) will measure the thermal
conductivity and temperature of the lunar surface.
 Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) will measure the seismicity around the
landing site.
 Langmuir Probe (LP) will estimate the near-surface plasma density over time.
On rover
 An alpha particle X-ray spectrometer (APXS) will derive the chemical composition and
infer the mineralogical composition of the lunar surface.
 Laser-induced breakdown spectroscopy (LIBS) will determine the elemental composition
(Mg, Al, Si, K, Ca, Ti, Fe) of lunar soil and rocks around the lunar landing site.
Team associated:
 ISRO Chairperson: S. Somanath
 Mission Director: S. Mohanakumar
 Associate Mission Director: G. Narayanan
 Project Director: P. Veeramuthuvel
 Deputy Project Director: Kalpana Kalahasti
 Vehicle Director: Biju C. Thomas
PM Narendra Modi announced that August 23, the day the Chandrayaan-3’s lander made a
historic soft-landing on the Moon will be commemorated as National Space Day.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi also announced that the point where the Moon lander of
Chandrayaan-3 touched down will now be known as Shiv Shakti and the point where the
Chandrayaan-2 left its footprints will now be called Tiranga.
SCIENCE RESULTS:
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ChaSTE (Chandra's Surface Thermophysical Experiment) measures the temperature profile

of the lunar topsoil around the pole, to understand the thermal behaviour of the moon's
surface. It has a temperature probe equipped with a controlled penetration mechanism
capable of reaching a depth of 10 cm beneath the surface. The probe is fitted with 10
individual temperature sensors.
The presented graph illustrates the temperature variations of the lunar surface/near-
surface at various depths, as recorded during the probe's penetration. This is the first such
profile for the lunar south pole. Detailed observations are underway.
The payload is developed by a team led by the Space Physics Laboratory (SPL), VSSC in
collaboration with PRL, Ahmedabad.
The Laser-Induced Breakdown Spectroscopy (LIBS) instrument onboard Chandrayaan-3

Rover has made the first-ever in-situ measurements on the elemental composition of the
lunar surface near the south pole. These in-situ measurements confirm the presence of
Sulphur (S) in the region unambiguously, something that was not feasible by the
instruments onboard the orbiters.
LIBS is a scientific technique that analyzes the composition of materials by exposing them to
intense laser pulses. A high-energy laser pulse is focused onto the surface of a material,
such as a rock or soil. The laser pulse generates an extremely hot and localized plasma. The
collected plasma light is spectrally resolved and detected by detectors such as Charge
Coupled Devices. Since each element emits a characteristic set of wavelengths of light when
it's in a plasma state, the elemental composition of the material is determined.
Preliminary analyses, graphically represented, have unveiled the presence of Aluminum (Al),
Sulphur (S), Calcium (Ca), Iron (Fe), Chromium (Cr), and Titanium (Ti) on the lunar surface.
Further measurements have revealed the presence of manganese (Mn), silicon (Si), and
oxygen (O). Thorough investigation regarding the presence of Hydrogen is underway.
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LIBS payload is developed at the Laboratory for Electro-Optics Systems (LEOS)/ISRO,

Bengaluru.
What are lunar soil and rocks made of in the south polar region where Chandrayaan-3
landed? How's it different from other highland regions?
These are the questions that the Chandrayaan-3 rover is trying to find answers with its
scientific instruments.
Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) onboard rover deploys down to observe the lunar
sample as seen in the video, which is captured by the lander imager.
APXS instrument is best suited for in-situ analysis of the elemental composition of soil and
rocks on the surface of planetary bodies having little atmosphere, such as the Moon. It
carries radioactive sources that emit alpha particles and X-rays onto the surface sample. The
atoms present in the sample in turn emit characteristic X-ray lines corresponding to the
elements present. By measuring the energies and intensities of these characteristic X-rays,
researchers can find the elements present and their abundances.
APXS observations have discovered the presence of interesting minor elements, including
Sulfur, apart from the major expected elements such as Aluminum, Silicon, Calcium, Iron. It
may be recalled that LIBS instrument onboard the Rover also confirmed the presence of
Sulfur. Detailed scientific analysis of these observations are in progress.
APXS is developed by the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad with support
from the Space Application Centre (SAC) Ahmedabad, whereas UR Rao Satellite Centre
(URSC), Bengaluru has built the deployment mechanism.
First in-situ measurements of the surface-bound Lunar plasma environment over the
south polar region have been carried out by the Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound
Hypersensitive ionosphere and Atmosphere- Langmuir Probe (RAMBHA-LP) payload
onboard Chandrayaan-3 Lander.
Langmuir (after Irving Langmuir) probe is a device used for characterising a plasma. It
features a 5 cm metallic spherical probe mounted on a 1-meter boom attached to the
Chandrayaan-3 Lander's upper deck. The probe is deployed using a hold-release mechanism
after the lander's lunar touchdown. The extended boom length ensures that the spherical
probe operates within the undisturbed lunar plasma environment, isolated from the
lander's body. The system can detect minute return currents, as low as pico-amperes, with
a dwell time of 1 millisecond. By applying a sweeping bias potential ranging from -12 to +12
V in increments of 0.1 V to the Langmuir probe, the system can accurately determine ion
and electron densities as well as their energies based on the measured return current.
The initial assessment indicates that the plasma encompassing the lunar surface is relatively
sparse, characterized by a number density ranging from approximately 5 to 30 million
electrons per cubic meter. This evaluation specifically pertains to the early stages of the
lunar daytime. The Probe operates without interruption, aiming to explore the changes
occurring in the near-surface plasma environment throughout the lunar day. These ongoing
observations hold significant implications for comprehending the process of charging within
the lunar near-surface region, particularly in response to the fluctuations in solar space
weather conditions.
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Development of RAMBHA-LP was led by Space Physics Laboratory (SPL), Vikram Sarabhai
Space Centre (VSSC), Thiruvananthapuram.
21. SpaceX Crew-7 is the seventh crewed operational NASA Commercial Crew flight of a Crew
Dragon spacecraft, and the eleventh overall crewed orbital flight. The mission launched on
26 August 2023. The Crew-7 mission is transporting four crew members to the International
Space Station (ISS), consisting of one NASA astronaut, Jasmin Moghbeli,
one ESA astronaut, Andreas Mogensen of Denmark, one JAXA astronaut, Satoshi
Furukawa and one Roscosmos cosmonaut, Konstantin Borisov. Mogensen is the first non-
American to serve as a pilot of Crew Dragon.
Prime Crew:
Position Astronaut
Spacecraft commander Jasmin Moghbeli, NASA
Expedition 69 / 70
First spaceflight
Pilot Andreas Mogensen, ESA
Expedition 69 / 70
Second spaceflight
Mission Specialist 1 Satoshi Furukawa, JAXA
Expedition 69 / 70
Second spaceflight
Mission Specialist 2 Konstantin Borisov, Roscosmos
Expedition 69 / 70
First spaceflight
22. A somatic mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of a somatic cell of a multicellular
organism with dedicated reproductive cells; that is, any mutation that occurs in a cell other
than a gamete, germ cell, or gametocyte. Unlike germline mutations, which can be passed
on to the descendants of an organism, somatic mutations are not usually transmitted to
descendants. This distinction is blurred in plants, which lack a dedicated germline, and in
those animals that can reproduce asexually through mechanisms such as budding, as in
members of the cnidarian genus Hydra.
While somatic mutations are not passed down to an organism's offspring, somatic
mutations will be present in all descendants of a cell within the same organism.
Many cancers are the result of accumulated somatic mutations.
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Sports
1. Asian Youth and Junior Weightlifting Championships 2023:

The Indian weightlifting contingent finished the Asian Youth and Junior Weightlifting
Championships 2023 with a total of 42 medals.
India’s overall medals tally comprised 15 medals won by the junior weightlifters and 27 by
the youth weightlifters. The weightlifting event was held at the Gautam Buddha University
in Greater Noida.
Besides the overall category, medals were also awarded for the snatch and clean and jerk
sections. India won a total of 13 medals in the snatch while 14 came in the clean and jerk.
Of India’s 15 medals in the overall category, five were won by junior lifters while 10 came in
the youth competitions.
 Jyoshna Sabar opened India’s tally with three medals on the first day. The lifter from
Uttar Pradesh won the bronze medal in the women’s youth 40kg category. Sabar also
pocketed bronze medals in the snatch and the clean and jerk.
 Siddhanta Gogoi won India’s first gold medal on the third day after topping the men’s
junior 61kg category. Gogoi lifted a total weight of 265kg (116kg snatch + 149kg clean
and jerk).
 Bedabrate Bharali continued India’s gold medal rush by dominating the men's youth
67kg category. Bharali also won a gold medal in the snatch category while settling for
silver in clean and jerk.
 Gyaneshwari Yadav won the silver medal in the junior women’s 49kg category. Yadav
lifted a total of 175kg (78 kg snatch + 97kg clean and jerk) to finish second overall and
also bagged silver medals in both snatch and clean and jerk.
With 14 medals, India also won the Best Team Youth Girls award for the meet. India’s junior
women’s team, meanwhile, finished runners up behind Uzbekistan.
Asian Junior Weightlifting Championships 2023: India’s medal winners
 Mukund Santosh Aher - silver medal in men’s junior 55kg (overall)
 Mukund Santosh Aher - silver medal in men’s junior 55kg (snatch)
 Mukund Santosh Aher - bronze medal in men’s junior 55kg (clean and jerk)
 Gyaneshwari Yadav - silver medal in women’s junior 49kg (overall)
 Gyaneshwari Yadav - silver medal in women’s junior 49kg (snatch)
 Gyaneshwari Yadav - silver medal in women’s junior 49kg (clean and jerk)
 Siddhanta Gogoi - gold medal in men’s junior 61kg (overall)
 Siddhanta Gogoi - gold medal in men’s junior 61kg (snatch)
 Siddhanta Gogoi - gold medal in men’s junior 61kg (clean and jerk)
 Sankar Lapung - bronze medal in 61kg men’s junior (overall)
 Sanapathi Pallavi - silver medal in women’s junior 64kg (overall)
 Sanapathi Pallavi - gold medal in women’s junior 64kg (snatch)
 Sanapathi Pallavi - silver medal in women’s junior 64kg (clean and jerk)
 Sanjana - silver medal in women’s junior 76kg (clean and jerk)
 Anjana Sreejith - bronze medal in women’s junior 108kg (clean and jerk)
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Asian Youth Weightlifting Championships 2023: India’s medal winners

 Sabar Jyoshna - bronze medal in women’s youth 40kg (overall)
 Sabar Jyoshna - bronze medal in women’s youth 40kg (snatch)
 Sabar Jyoshna - bronze medal in women’s youth 40kg (clean and jerk)
 Sanapathi Guru Naidu - silver medal in men’s youth 55kg (overall)
 Sanapathi Guru Naidu - silver medal in men’s youth 55kg (snatch)
 M Tomchou Meetei - bronze medal in men’s youth 55kg (overall)
 M Tomchou Meetei - bronze medal in men’s youth 55kg (snatch)
 M Tomchou Meetei - bronze medal in men’s youth 55kg (clean and jerk)
 Koyel Bar - silver medal in women’s youth 49kg (overall)
 Koyel Bar - silver medal in women’s youth 49kg (snatch)
 Koyel Bar - silver medal in women’s youth 49kg (clean & jerk)
 Bedabrate Bharali - gold medal in men's youth 67kg (overall)
 Bedabrate Bharali - gold medal in men's youth 67kg (snatch)
 Bedabrate Bharali -silver medal in men's youth 67kg (clean and jerk)
 Bellana Harika - bronze medal in women’s youth 59kg (overall)
 Bellana Harika - gold medal in women’s youth 59kg (clean and jerk)
 Krishna Venkata - silver medal in men’s youth 73kg (overall)
 Krishna Venkata - silver medal in men’s youth 73kg (snatch)
 Krishna Venkata - silver medal in men’s youth 73kg (clean and jerk)
 Sanjana - silver medal in women’s youth 76kg (overall)
 Sanjana - silver medal in women’s youth 76kg (snatch)
 Sanjana - gold women’s youth 76kg (clean and jerk)
 Kapil Sonowal - bronze medal in men’s youth 102kg (overall)
 Kapil Sonowal - bronze medal in men’s youth 102kg (snatch)
 M Martina Devi - silver medal in women’s youth +81 Kg (overall)
 M Martina Devi - silver medal in women’s youth +81 Kg (snatch)
 M Martina Devi - silver medal in women’s youth +81 Kg (clean and jerk)
2. Shubhankar Sharma (born 21 July 1996) is an Indian professional golfer. In December 2017,
he recorded his first tour win in the Joburg Open and followed this with a second win at
the Maybank Championship in February 2018. He studied at Bal Bhawan School, Bhopal.
The Open Championship, among the oldest and most prestigious golf tournaments in the
world, is not synonymous with fine performances by Indians. It was back in 2004 when Jyoti
Randhawa recorded the best performance by an Indian at The Open. Randhawa, who had
earned his third appearance at The Open via a good show in the International Final
Qualifying tournament, carded a three-over 287 overall to take tied 27 th.
With a terrific run over four rounds at the Royal Liverpool Golf Course, Shubhankar Sharma
wrote himself into the record book. Shubhankar grabbed the headlines with a tied-eighth
finish, comfortably erasing Randhawa’s mark.
Shubhankar became only the third Indian to claim a top-10 spot at a Major. Anirban
Lahiri’s tied-fifth at the 2015 PGA Championship set the benchmark for the nation, while
Jeev Milkha Singh rounds the list with his tied-ninth effort at the 2008 PGA Championship.
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3. Around 230 Indian athletes, including Jyothi Yarraji, Manu Bhaker and Tejaswin Shankar,
participated at the FISU World University Games 2023 in Chengdu, the People’s Republic of
China, during July 28 to August 8 2023.
 India won 26 medals- 11 gold, five silver and 10 bronze to finish seventh in the World
University Games 2023 medals table. China topped the table with 178 medals, including
103 gold.
 Amlan Borgohain, Priyanka Goswami, Tejaswin Shankar and Srihari Nataraj were among
the other high-profile names representing India at the multi-sport meet. Badminton
player Tanisha Singh, 18, is the youngest member of the contingent.
 The FISU World University Games 2023 featured a total of 269 medal events across 18
different sports. Indians, though, competed in 11 sports - archery, athletics, badminton,
fencing, judo, shooting, swimming, table tennis, taekwondo, tennis and volleyball. The
wushu team was also slated to compete but was withdrawn later.
 The 2023 World University Games was the 31st edition of the biennial multi-sport event.
The 2021 edition was postponed due to COVID-19.
 At the last edition in 2019 held in Naples, Italy, India won four medals– one gold, one
silver and two bronze. Dutee Chand won the gold medal in women’s 100m while the
remaining three came in shooting.
 Shooters also headlined India’s medal rush at Chengdu 2023, winning a total of 14 of the
26 medals.
FISU World University Games 2023: India’s medal winners

Athlete Sport Event Medal
Manu Bhaker Shooting Women’s 10m air pistol Gold
Elavenil Valarivan Shooting Women’s 10m air rifle Gold
Manu Bhaker, Abhidnya Shooting Women’s 10m air pistol Gold
Ashok Patil and team
Yashaswini Singh Deswal
Aishwary Pratap Singh Shooting Men's 50m rifle 3P Gold
Tomar
Aishwary Pratap Singh Shooting Men's 10m air rifle Gold
Tomar
Arjun Babuta, Aishwary Shooting Men's 10m air rifle team Gold
Pratap Singh Tomar and
Divyansh Singh Panwar
Ashi Chouksey, Manini Shooting Women’s 50m rifle 3P Gold
Kaushik and Sift Kaur team
Samra
Sift Kaur Samra Shooting Women’s 50m rifle 3P Gold
Aman Saini and Pragati Archery Mixed compound team Gold
Avneet Kaur Archery Women's compound Gold
Sangampreet Singh Bisla Archery Men's compound Gold
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Avneet Kaur, Purvasha Archery Women's compound Silver

and Pragati team
Vijayveer Sidhu, Shooting Men's 25m pistol rapid Silver
Udhayveer Sidhu and fire team
Adarsh Singh
Divyansh Singh Panwar Shooting Men's 10m air rifle Silver
Elavenil Valarivan and Shooting Mixed 10m air rifle team Silver
Divyansh Singh Panwar
Ashi Chouksey Shooting Women’s 50m rifle 3P Silver
Aman Saini , Rishab Archery Men's compound team Bronze
Yadav and Sangampreet
Singh Bisla
Reeta Sawaiyan, Archery Women's recurve team Bronze
Sangeeta and Tanisha
Verma
Aman Saini Archery Men's compound Bronze
Sartaj Singh Tiwana, Shooting Men's 50m rifle 3P team Bronze
Surya Pratap Singh and
Aishwary Pratap Singh
Tomar
Varun Tomar, Arjun Shooting Men’s 10m air pistol Bronze
Singh Cheema and team
Anmol Jain
Yamini Mourya Judo Women's 57kg Bronze
Bhavani Yadav Athletics Women's long jump Bronze
Jyothi Yarraji Athletics Women's 100m hurdles Bronze
Amlan Borgohain Athletics Men's 200m Bronze
Priyanka Goswami, Athletics Women's 20km race walk Bronze
Mansi Negi, Nikita team
Lamba and Pooja
Kumawat
FISU World University Games 2023 medals tally - Top 10

Rank Country Gold Silver Bronze Total
1 China 103 40 35 178
2 Japan 21 29 43 93
3 Korea 17 18 23 58
4 Italy 17 18 21 56
5 Poland 15 16 12 43
6 Turkey 11 12 12 35
7 India 11 5 10 26
8 Chinese 10 17 19 46
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Taipei
9 Lithuania 6 4 2 12
10 France 5 8 10 23
4. Gianluigi Buffon (born 28 January 1978), also known as Gigi Buffon, is an Italian former
professional footballer who played as a goalkeeper. Widely regarded as one of the greatest
goalkeepers of all time, he is one of the few recorded players to have made over 1,100
professional career appearances and holds the record for the most appearances in the Serie
A.
Buffon was named by Pelé in the FIFA 100 list of the world's greatest living players in 2004.
He is the only goalkeeper to win the UEFA Club Footballer of the Year award, which he
achieved after reaching the 2003 Champions League final; he also won UEFA's award for
best goalkeeper that year, and was additionally voted into the UEFA Team of the Year on
five occasions. Buffon was the runner-up for the Ballon d'Or in 2006, and was elected part
of the FIFPro World11 three times. He was the first ever goalkeeper to win the Golden
Foot Award, and was also named the IFFHS World's Best Goalkeeper a record five times,
alongside Iker Casillas and Manuel Neuer. He would go on to be named the best goalkeeper
of the 21st century, of the past 25 years and of the decade by the same organisation.
5. A distinguished paralympian and a four-time Paralympic medallist, Manuela Schmermund
of Germany, has joined the Gagan Narang Sports Promotion Foundation as the rifle coach
for the Para Project Leap. The project has gained momentum at the Gun for Glory
Sanskardham Academy in Gujarat.
The Project Leap, an initiative of Olympic Gold Quest (OGQ) and Gagan Narang Sports
Promotion Foundation, aims at providing comprehensive training, personalised mentoring,
sports science testing along with best facilities for athletes who have exceptional skill and
commitment.
6. Jeswin Aldrin is an India Long Jumper. He is a national record holder in long jump with
8.42m.
He qualified in Long Jump for 2022 World Athletics Championships but failed to qualify for
finals. In the 2023 World Athletics Championships, he qualified for the finals in the 12 th and
last position. He holds national record with 8.42m jump.
The 2023 World Athletics Championships, the nineteenth edition of the World Athletics
Championships, were held from 19 to 27 August 2023 at the National Athletics Centre,
in Budapest, Hungary.
These are the first World Athletics Championships in Hungary. The city of Budapest had
previously stated an interest in hosting the 2007 World Championships, but withdrew and it
was eventually held in Osaka. The official mascot of the event is a Racka, called Youhuu.
Neeraj Chopra won the first gold for India at the 2023 World Athletics Championships.
Chopra is the Indian record holder for the javelin throw. He won the gold medal with a
throw of 88.17m.
7. Megan Anna Rapinoe (born July 5, 1985) is an American professional soccer player who
plays as a winger for OL Reign of the National Women's Soccer League (NWSL), as well as
the United States national team. Winner of the Ballon d'Or Féminin and named The Best
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FIFA Women's Player in 2019, Rapinoe won gold with the national team at the 2012 London
Summer Olympics, 2015 FIFA Women's World Cup, and 2019 FIFA Women's World Cup and
she played for the team at the 2011 FIFA Women's World Cup where the U.S. finished in
second place. Rapinoe co-captained the national team alongside Carli Lloyd and Alex
Morgan from 2018 to 2020. She previously played for the Chicago Red Stars, Philadelphia
Independence, and MagicJack in Women's Professional Soccer (WPS), as well as Olympique
Lyon in France's Division 1 Féminine.
2023 FIFA Women's World Cup-
On June 21, 2023, Andonovski named Rapinoe to the United States squad for the 2023 FIFA
Women's World Cup in Australia. On July 8, she announced that the 2023 World Cup would
be her last major tournament, and that she would retire from professional soccer at the end
of the year. On August 6, 2023, the USWNT was knocked out of the tournament on
penalties against Sweden in the Round of 16. Rapinoe was one of the three U.S. players to
miss a penalty kick in what would be Rapinoe's final World Cup match.
8. The 2023 FIFA Women's World Cup was the ninth edition of the FIFA Women's World Cup,
the quadrennial international women's football championship contested by women's
national teams and organised by FIFA. The tournament, which took place from 20 July to 20
August 2023, was jointly hosted by Australia and New Zealand. It was the first FIFA
Women's World Cup with more than one host nation, as well as the first World Cup to be
held across multiple confederations, as Australia is in the Asian confederation, while New
Zealand is in the Oceanian confederation. It was also the first Women's World Cup to be
held in the Southern Hemisphere.
This tournament was the first to feature an expanded format of 32 teams from the previous
24, replicating the format used for the men's World Cup from 1998 to 2022. The opening
match was contested between New Zealand and Norway at Eden Park in Auckland on 20
July 2023.
Spain were crowned champions after defeating reigning European champions England 1–0
in the final. It was Spain's first title, as well as being the first European nation to win it
since 2007. Spain became the second nation to win both the women's and men's World Cup
since Germany in the 2003 edition. In addition, Spain became the first nation to
concurrently hold the FIFA women's U-17, U-20, and senior World Cups. Japanese
player Hinata Miyazawa won the Golden Boot scoring five goals throughout the
tournament. Spanish player Aitana Bonmatí was voted the tournament's best player,
winning the Golden Ball, whilst Bonmatí's teammate Salma Paralluelo was awarded
the Young Player Award. England goalkeeper Mary Earps won the Golden Glove, awarded to
the best performing goalkeeper of the tournament.
Awards:
The following World Cup awards were given at the conclusion of the tournament:
the Golden Boot (top scorer), Golden Ball (best overall player) and Golden Glove (best
goalkeeper)
Golden Ball Silver Ball Bronze Ball

Aitana Bonmatí Jennifer Amanda Ilestedt (Sweden)
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(Spain) Hermoso
(Spain)
Golden Boot Silver Boot Bronze Boot
Hinata Miyazawa Kadidiatou Alexandra Popp (Germany)
(Japan) Diani (France)
5 goals, 1 assist 4 goals, 3 4 goals, 0 assists
assists
Golden Glove
Mary Earps (England)
FIFA Young Player Award
Salma Paralluelo (Spain)
FIFA Fair Play Trophy
Japan
9. The 2023 World Cadets Wrestling Championships (30th) (U17) will be World Cadets
Wrestling Championships of combined events, and took place from July 31 to 6 August
in Istanbul, Turkey. World Cadet Wrestling Championships renamed to World U17 Wrestling
Championships since 2021.
Medal Tally (Top Ten):
Rank Nation Gold Silver Bronze Total

1 Japan 9 3 0 12
2 United States 6 0 8 14
– Individual Neutral Athletes a 3 6 16 25
3 Iran 3 3 4 10
4 Azerbaijan 3 1 2 6
5 Georgia 2 1 2 5
6 India 1 7 3 11
7 Turkey 1 3 4 8
8 Croatia 1 0 0 1
Greece 1 0 0 1
10 Armenia 0 2 6 8
(a^ In accordance with sanctions imposed following by the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine,
wrestlers from Russia and Belarus were not permitted to use the name, flag, or anthem of
Russia or Belarus. They instead participated as "Individual Neutral Athletes (AIN)", their
medals were not included in the official medal table.)
Team Ranking:
Rank Men's freestyle Men's Greco-Roman Women's freestyle
Team Points Team Points Team Points
1 Iran 156 Iran 113 Japan 200
2 United States 126 Azerbaijan 108 United States 122
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3 Japan 106 Georgia 96 India 118

4 Azerbaijan 84 India 88 Turkey 104
5 Armenia 79 Armenia 77 Uzbekistan 79
6 India 74 Uzbekistan 72 Germany 40
7 Georgia 72 Kazakhstan 64 Kazakhstan 36
8 Kazakhstan 64 Turkey 52 Poland 28
9 Turkmenistan 38 United States 43 Norway 27
10 Turkey 35 Kyrgyzstan 39 Croatia 25
Men's freestyle
Event Gold Silver Bronze
51 kg Yamato Ogawa Rohit Sasha Petrosyan
Japan India Armenia
Usman Indirbaev
Authorised Neutral
Athletes
55 kg Marcus Glenn Blaze Ankush Samvel Gevorgyan
United States India Armenia
Akhmad Musakhadzhiev
Authorised Neutral
Athletes
Men's Greco-Roman
51 kg Ilia Kandalin Artur Broyan Manu Yadav
Authorised Neutral Armenia India
Athletes Koba Karumidze
Georgia
55 kg Jordyn Raney Suraj Aytjan Khalmakhanov
United States India Uzbekistan
Kuttubek Rysmatov
Kyrgyzstan
65 kg Zaur Beslekoev Yusif Ahmadli Islombek Karimjonov
Authorised Neutral Azerbaijan Uzbekistan
Athletes Kumar Sachin
India
110 kg Cemal Yusuf Bakır Ronak Eldar Emirov
Turkey India Authorised Neutral
Athletes
Amirhossein Abdevali
Iran
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Women's freestyle
40 kg Koharu Akutsu Rachana Jaclyn Bouzakis
Japan India United States
Shokhista Shonazarova
Uzbekistan
46 kg Natsumi Masuda Muskan Hava Konca
Japan India Turkey
Diana Rybchenko
Authorised Neutral
Athletes
57 kg Sowaka Uchida Eylem Engin Neha
Japan Turkey India
Viktoria Boynova
Bulgaria
61 kg Savita Konami Ono Leah Samsonsen
India Japan Norway
Haylie Jaffee
United States
69 kg Veronika Vilk Srishti Liliana Kazmina
Croatia India Authorised Neutral
Athletes
Jasmine Dolores
United States
10. The Indian under-31 bridge team comprising Sagnik Roy, Sayantan Kushari, Souvik Kar,
Pritam Das, Wrik Chakraborty and Swarnashish Chatterjee has won a bronze medal in the
18th World Youth Teams Bridge Championships held in Veldhoven, the Netherlands.
11. The 2023 World Archery Championships was held from 31 July to 6 August 2023 in Berlin,
Germany. The event served as a qualification event for the 2024 Summer Olympics in Paris,
France.
Medal Table:
Rank Nation Gold Silver Bronze Total

1 India 3 0 1 4
2 South Korea 2 0 1 3
3 Germany 1 1 0 2
Poland 1 1 0 2
Turkey 1 1 0 2
6 Czech Republic 1 0 0 1
United States 1 0 0 1
8 Mexico 0 3 1 4
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9 Canada 0 1 0 1
Colombia 0 1 0 1
Denmark 0 1 0 1
France 0 1 0 1
13 Japan 0 0 2 2
Netherlands 0 0 2 2
15 Brazil 0 0 1 1
Italy 0 0 1 1
Luxembourg 0 0 1 1
Totals (17 entries) 10 10 10 30
Indian
Medal Summary:
Compound
Men's India Poland Netherlands
individual Ojas Pravin Deotale Łukasz Przybylski Mike Schloesser
Women's India Mexico India
individual Aditi Gopichan Swami Andrea Becerra Jyothi Surekha Vennam
Women's India Mexico South Korea
team Parneet Kaur Andrea Becerra Oh Yoo-hyun
Aditi Gopichand Swami Ana Sofía Hernández Jeon So Chae-won
Jyothi Surekha Vennam Dafne Quintero Song Yun-soo
12. In a major boost to the sport in the country, Badminton Association of India inaugurated the
National Center of Excellence (NCE) that will not only hone players' skill but will develop
coaches.
 Renowned Indonesian coach Mulyo Handoyo will be looking into the development of
singles players, former All England champion Russia’s Ivan Sozonov and Korea’s Park
Tae-Sang will be in-charge of the coaching panel. The duo will train and develop a string
of Indian coaches to meet the global standards.
 An MoU was signed between BAI and the Government of Assam during the ceremony.
 The NCE boasts of 16 courts designed to meet rigorous training needs of 60 athletes in
phase 1. In addition, the centre features a 4,000 square feet gymnasium with modern
fitness equipment, 60-bed hostel for players and a dedicated 2,000sqft physiotherapy
center.
13. Indian wrestlers finished their campaign at the World Under-20 Wrestling Championships
2023 with 14 medals- four gold, three silver and seven bronze. The event was held in
Amman, Jordan, from August 14 to 20.
The week-long event at the Amman International Stadium saw bouts in men’s and
women’s freestyle and men’s Greco-Roman categories. A total of 30 Indian wrestlers- one
in each medal event competed in the 46th edition of the junior wrestling championships.
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 The 19-year-old Antim Panghal, who made history by becoming the first Indian woman
to become an U20 wrestling world champion in Sofia, Bulgaria, last year, successfuly
defended her women’s 53kg crown in Amman and spearheaded the Indian medal rush.
With the win, Antim Panghal became the first Indian woman wrestler to win two U20
world titles.
 Mohit Kumar, meanwhile, became the U-20 world champion in the 61kg freestyle
category after he bounced back from 0-6 score in the final against the Russian
Federation's Eldar Akhmaduninov to win the match 9-8.
 Priya Malik became only the second Indian woman to be crowned the U-20 world
champion. She defeated Laura Celine Kuehn of Germany 5-0 in the final of the women's
76kg. Savita (women's 62kg) accounted for India's fourth gold at the Amman meet.
 India also claimed the women's team title at the World Under-20 Wrestling
Championships 2023 with seven medals, including three gold. The men's freestyle team
finished third.
India bagged just one gold, four silvers and 11 bronze medals last year.
World Under-20 Wrestling Championships 2023: India full squad:
Men’s freestyle: Sagar (57kg), Mohit Kumar (61kg), Jaskaran Singh (65kg), Narender (70kg),
Jaideep (74kg), Sagar Jaglan (79kg), Mukul Dahiya (86kg), Vinay (92kg), Deepak Chahal
(97kg), Rajat Ruhal (125kg)
Women’s freestyle: Priyanshi Prajapat (50kg), Antim Panghal (53kg), Jyoti (55kg), Reena
(57kg), Nitika (59kg), Savita (62kg), Antim (65kg), Arju (68kg), Harshita Mor (72kg), Priya
Malik (76kg)
Men’s Greco-Roman: Anil Mor (55kg), Sumit Dalal (60kg), Sandeep (63kg), Umesh (67kg),
Ankit Gulia (72kg), Deepak Punia (77kg), Rohit Dahiya (82kg), Mohit Khokhar (87kg), Sahil
(97kg), Parvesh (130kg)
U20 World Wrestling Championships 2023: Indian medallists

Wrestler Category Medal
Mohit Kumar Men's freestyle 61kg Gold
Priya Malik Women's 76kg Gold
Antim Panghal Women's 53kg Gold
Savita Women's 62kg Gold
Sagar Jaglan Men's freestyle 79kg Silver
Antim Women's 65kg Silver
Sumit Men's Greco Roman 60kg Silver
Jaideep Men's freestyle 74kg Bronze
Deepak Chahal Men's freestyle 97kg Bronze
Rajat Ruhal Men's freestyle 125kg Bronze
Arju Women's 68kg Bronze
Reena Women's 57kg Bronze
Harshita Mor Women's 72kg Bronze
Deepak Punia Men's Greco Roman 77kg Bronze
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14. The Chess World Cup 2023 was a 206-player single-elimination chess tournament that took
place in Baku, Azerbaijan from 30 July to 24 August 2023. It was the 10 th edition of
the Chess World Cup. The top three finishers in the tournament qualified for the 2024
Candidates Tournament. The tournament was held in parallel with the Women's Chess
World Cup 2023.
Jan-Krzysztof Duda was the defending champion but lost in the fifth round to Fabiano
Caruana.
Final positions
Champion Magnus Carlsen (Norway)
Runner-up R Praggnanandhaa (India)
3rd place Fabiano Caruana (USA)
Praggnanandhaa, who turned 18 during the World Cup and knocked out second seed Hikaru
Nakamura on the way, become the third youngest to qualify for the Candidates Tournament
after Bobby Fischer and Magnus Carlsen. He is also the first Indian to reach the World Cup
final since the knockout format was introduced in 2005.
Magnus Carlsen (born 30 November 1990) is a Norwegian chess grandmaster. He is a five-
time World Chess Champion, the reigning four-time World Rapid Chess Champion, the
reigning six-time World Blitz Chess Champion, and the reigning Chess World Cup Champion.
He has held the No. 1 position in the FIDE world chess rankings since 1 July 2011 and trails
only Garry Kasparov in time spent as the highest-rated player in the world. His
peak rating of 2882 is the highest in history. He also holds the record for the longest
unbeaten streak at the elite level in classical chess.
15. The Women's Chess World Cup 2023 is a 103-player single-elimination chess tournament,
the second edition of the Women's Chess World Cup, taking place in Baku, Azerbaijan, from
29 July to 22 August 2023. The top three finishers in the tournament will qualify for
the Women's Candidates Tournament 2024.
Final positions
Champion Aleksandra Goryachkina (FIDE)
Runner-up Nurgyul Salimova (Bulgaria)
3rd place Anna Muzychuk (Ukraine)
16. Noah Lyles (born July 18, 1997) is an American professional track and
field sprinter competing in the 100 meters and 200 meters. He is the 2020 Tokyo
Olympic 200 m bronze medalist and a six-time World champion, having won the 200 m and
4 x 100 m at the 2019 World Championships, the 200 m at the 2022 World Championships,
and the 100 m, 200 m, and 4 x 100 m events at the 2023 World Championships, becoming
the first man since Usain Bolt in 2015 to complete the sprint treble at a World
Championships. At the 2022 Championships, Lyles also earned a silver medal in the 4 ×
100 m relay. He holds personal bests of 9.83 seconds for the 100 m and 19.31 seconds for
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the 200 m, the latter being an American record making him the third fastest on the
respective world all-time list.
Lyles won a gold medal in the 200 m during the 2014 Youth Olympic Games. He won gold
medals for the 100 m and 4 × 100 m relay during the 2016 World U20 Championships. He is
a five-time Diamond League champion, having secured the 100 m/200 m double in 2019.
2023:
 On August 20, 2023, during the World Athletics Championships held in Budapest Lyles
won gold in the 100m and setting a personal best in the final of 9.83.
 On August 25, 2023, Lyles won a gold medal at the 2023 World Athletics
Championships in the 200-meter men's final with the time 19.52.
 This is his third gold medal in the 200 m and fifth gold medal overall in the World
Athletics Championships. With his three 200 m gold medals in the World Athletics
Championships, he surpasses Michael Johnson (2) and Calvin Smith (2) and this places
him to second on the world all-time list at 200 metres at the World Athletics
Championships, only behind Usain Bolt with four gold medals.
4×400m relay national record
The Indian men's team comprising Muhammed Anas Yahiya, Amoj Jacob, Muhammed Ajmal
and Rajesh Ramesh clocked 2:59.05 at the World Athletics Championships 2023 in Budapest
to set the 4×400m relay national record. The time is also an Asian record.
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
Al Index report 2023
According to Stanford University’s annual Al Index report 2023, India ranked fifth in terms of
investments received by startups offering artificial intelligence (Al)-based products.
Top Ten Takeaways
1. Industry races ahead of academia. Until 2014, most significant machine learning models
were released by academia. Since then, industry has taken over. In 2022, there were 32
significant industry-produced machine learning models compared to just three produced by
academia. Building state-of-the-art AI systems increasingly requires large amounts of data,
computer power, and money—resources that industry actors inherently possess in greater
amounts compared to nonprofits and academia.
2. Performance saturation on traditional benchmarks. AI continued to post state-of-the-art
results, but year-over-year improvement on many benchmarks continues to be marginal.
Moreover, the speed at which benchmark saturation is being reached is increasing.
However, new, more comprehensive benchmarking suites such as BIG-bench and HELM are
being released.
3. AI is both helping and harming the environment. New research suggests that AI systems
can have serious environmental impacts. According to Luccioni et al., 2022, BLOOM’s
training run emitted 25 times more carbon than a single air traveler on a one-way trip from
New York to San Francisco. Still, new reinforcement learning models like BCOOLER show
that AI systems can be used to optimize energy usage.
4. The world’s best new scientist… AI? AI models are starting to rapidly accelerate scientific
progress and in 2022 were used to aid hydrogen fusion, improve the efficiency of matrix
manipulation, and generate new antibodies.
5. The number of incidents concerning the misuse of AI is rapidly rising. According to the
AIAAIC database, which tracks incidents related to the ethical misuse of AI, the number of AI
incidents and controversies has increased 26 times since 2012. Some notable incidents in
2022 included a deepfake video of Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy surrendering
and U.S. prisons using call-monitoring technology on their inmates. This growth is evidence
of both greater use of AI technologies and awareness of misuse possibilities.
6. The demand for AI-related professional skills is increasing across virtually every American
industrial sector. Across every sector in the United States for which there is data (with the
exception of agriculture, forestry, fishing, and hunting), the number of AI related job
postings has increased on average from 1.7% in 2021 to 1.9% in 2022. Employers in the
United States are increasingly looking for workers with AI related skills.
7. For the first time in the last decade, year-over-year private investment in AI decreased.
Global AI private investment was $91.9 billion in 2022, which represented a 26.7% decrease
since 2021. The total number of AI-related funding events as well as the number of newly
funded AI companies likewise decreased. Still, during the last decade as a whole, AI
investment has significantly increased. In 2022 the amount of private investment in AI was
18 times greater than it was in 2013.
8. While the proportion of companies adopting AI has plateaued, the companies that have
adopted AI continue to pull ahead. The proportion of companies adopting AI in 2022 has
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more than doubled since 2017, though it has plateaued in recent years between 50% and
60%, according to the results of McKinsey’s annual research survey. Organizations that have
adopted AI report realizing meaningful cost decreases and revenue increases.
9. Policymaker interest in AI is on the rise. An AI Index analysis of the legislative records of
127 countries shows that the number of bills containing “artificial intelligence” that were
passed into law grew from just 1 in 2016 to 37 in 2022. An analysis of the parliamentary
records on AI in 81 countries likewise shows that mentions of AI in global legislative
proceedings have increased nearly 6.5 times since 2016.
10. Chinese citizens are among those who feel the most positively about AI products and
services. Americans not so much. In a 2022 IPSOS survey, 78% of Chinese respondents (the
highest proportion of surveyed countries) agreed with the statement that products and
services using AI have more benefits than drawbacks. After Chinese respondents, those
from Saudi Arabia (76%) and India (71%) felt the most positive about AI products. Only 35%
of sampled Americans (among the lowest of surveyed countries) agreed that products and
services using AI had more benefits than drawbacks.
Research and Development

 The United States and China had the greatest number of cross-country collaborations in AI
publications from 2010 to 2021, although the pace of collaboration has slowed. The
number of AI research collaborations between the United States and China increased
roughly 4 times since 2010, and was 2.5 times greater than the collaboration totals of the
next nearest country pair, the United Kingdom and China. However the total number of
U.S.-China collaborations only increased by 2.1% from 2020 to 2021, the smallest year-over-
year growth rate since 2010.
 AI research is on the rise, across the board. The total number of AI publications has more
than doubled since 2010. The specific AI topics that continue dominating research include
pattern recognition, machine learning, and computer vision.
 China continues to lead in total AI journal, conference, and repository publications. The
United States is still ahead in terms of AI conference and repository citations, but those
leads are slowly eroding. Still, the majority of the world’s large language and multimodal
models (54% in 2022) are produced by American institutions.
 Industry races ahead of academia. Until 2014, most significant machine learning models
were released by academia. Since then, industry has taken over. In 2022, there were 32
significant industry-produced machine learning models compared to just three produced by
academia. Building state-of-the-art AI systems increasingly requires large amounts of data,
computer power, and money resources that industry actors inherently possess in greater
amounts compared to nonprofits and academia.
 Large language models are getting bigger and more expensive. GPT-2, released in 2019,
considered by many to be the first large language model, had 1.5 billion parameters and
cost an estimated $50,000 USD to train. PaLM, one of the flagship large language models
launched in 2022, had 540 billion parameters and cost an estimated $8 million USD- PaLM
was around 360 times larger than GPT-2 and cost 160 times more. It’s not just PaLM: Across
the board, large language and multimodal models are becoming larger and pricier.
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Technical Performance
 Performance saturation on traditional benchmarks. AI continued to post state-of-the-art
results, but year-over-year improvement on many benchmarks continues to be marginal.
Moreover, the speed at which benchmark saturation is being reached is increasing.
However, new, more comprehensive benchmarking suites such as BIG-bench and HELM are
being released.
 Generative AI breaks into the public consciousness. 2022 saw the release of text-to-image
models like DALL-E 2 and Stable Diffusion, text-to-video systems like Make-A-Video, and
chatbots like ChatGPT. Still, these systems can be prone to hallucination, confidently
outputting incoherent or untrue responses, making it hard to rely on them for critical
applications.
 AI systems become more flexible. Traditionally AI systems have performed well on narrow
tasks but have struggled across broader tasks. Recently released models challenge that
trend; BEiT-3, PaLI, and Gato, among others, are single AI systems increasingly capable of
navigating multiple tasks (for example, vision, language).
 Capable language models still struggle with reasoning. Language models continued to
improve their generative capabilities, but new research suggests that they still struggle with
complex planning tasks.
 AI is both helping and harming the environment. New research suggests that AI systems
can have serious environmental impacts. According to Luccioni et al., 2022, BLOOM’s
training run emitted 25 times more carbon than a single air traveller on a one-way trip from
New York to San Francisco. Still, new reinforcement learning models like BCOOLER show
that AI systems can be used to optimize energy usage.
 The world’s best new scientist… AI? AI models are starting to rapidly accelerate scientific
progress and in 2022 were used to aid hydrogen fusion, improve the efficiency of matrix
manipulation, and generate new antibodies.
 AI starts to build better AI. Nvidia used an AI reinforcement learning agent to improve the
design of the chips that power AI systems. Similarly, Google recently used one of its
language models, PaLM, to suggest ways to improve the very same model. Self-improving AI
learning will accelerate AI progress.
Technical AI Ethics
 The effects of model scale on bias and toxicity are confounded by training data and
mitigation methods. In the past year, several institutions have built their own large models
trained on proprietary data and while large models are still toxic and biased, new evidence
suggests that these issues can be somewhat mitigated after training larger models with
instruction-tuning.
 Generative models have arrived and so have their ethical problems. In 2022, generative
models became part of the zeitgeist. These models are capable but also come with ethical
challenges. Textto-image generators are routinely biased along gender dimensions, and
chatbots like ChatGPT can be tricked into serving nefarious aims.
 The number of incidents concerning the misuse of AI is rapidly rising. According to the
AIAAIC database, which tracks incidents related to the ethical misuse of AI, the number of AI
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incidents and controversies has increased 26 times since 2012. Some notable incidents in
2022 included a deepfake video of Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy surrendering
and U.S. prisons using call-monitoring technology on their inmates. This growth is evidence
of both greater use of AI technologies and awareness of misuse possibilities.
 Fairer models may not be less biased. Extensive analysis of language models suggests that
while there is a clear correlation between performance and fairness, fairness and bias can
be at odds: Language models which perform better on certain fairness benchmarks tend to
have worse gender bias.
 Interest in AI ethics continues to skyrocket. The number of accepted submissions to FAccT,
a leading AI ethics conference, has more than doubled since 2021 and increased by a factor
of 10 since 2018. 2022 also saw more submissions than ever from industry actors.
 Automated fact-checking with natural language processing isn’t so straightforward after
all. While several benchmarks have been developed for automated fact-checking,
researchers find that 11 of 16 of such datasets rely on evidence “leaked” from fact-checking
reports which did not exist at the time of the claim surfacing.
The Economy
 The demand for AI-related professional skills is increasing across virtually every American
industrial sector. Across every sector in the United States for which there is data (with the
exception of agriculture, forestry, fishing, and hunting), the number of AI-related job
postings has increased on average from 1.7% in 2021 to 1.9% in 2022. Employers in the
United States are increasingly looking for workers with AI-related skills.
 For the first time in the last decade, year-over-year private investment in AI decreased.
Global AI private investment was $91.9 billion in 2022, which represented a 26.7% decrease
since 2021. The total number of AI-related funding events as well as the number of newly
funded AI companies likewise decreased. Still, during the last decade as a whole, AI
investment has significantly increased. In 2022 the amount of private investment in AI was
18 times greater than it was in 2013.
 Once again, the United States leads in investment in AI. The U.S. led the world in terms of
total amount of AI private investment. In 2022, the $47.4 billion invested in the U.S. was
roughly 3.5 times the amount invested in the next highest country, China ($13.4 billion). The
U.S. also continues to lead in terms of total number of newly funded AI companies, seeing
1.9 times more than the European Union and the United Kingdom combined, and 3.4 times
more than China.
 In 2022, the AI focus area with the most investment was medical and healthcare ($6.1
billion); followed by data management, processing, and cloud ($5.9 billion); and Fintech
($5.5 billion). However, mirroring the broader trend in AI private investment, most AI focus
areas saw less investment in 2022 than in 2021. In the last year, the three largest AI private
investment events were: (1) a $2.5 billion funding event for GAC Aion New Energy
Automobile, a Chinese manufacturer of electric vehicles; (2) a $1.5 billion Series E funding
round for Anduril Industries, a U.S. defense products company that builds technology for
military agencies and border surveillance; and (3) a $1.2 billion investment in Celonis, a
business-data consulting company based in Germany.
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 While the proportion of companies adopting AI has plateaued, the companies that have
adopted AI continue to pull ahead. The proportion of companies adopting AI in 2022 has
more than doubled since 2017, though it has plateaued in recent years between 50% and
60%, according to the results of McKinsey’s annual research survey. Organizations that have
adopted AI report realizing meaningful cost decreases and revenue increases.
 AI is being deployed by businesses in multifaceted ways. The AI capabilities most likely to
have been embedded in businesses include robotic process automation (39%), computer
vision (34%), NL text understanding (33%), and virtual agents (33%). Moreover, the most
commonly adopted AI use case in 2022 was service operations optimization (24%), followed
by the creation of new AI-based products (20%), customer segmentation (19%), customer
service analytics (19%), and new AI-based enhancement of products (19%).
 AI tools like Copilot are tangibly helping workers. Results of a GitHub survey on the use of
Copilot, a text-to-code AI system, find that 88% of surveyed respondents feel more
productive when using the system, 74% feel they are able to focus on more satisfying work,
and 88% feel they are able to complete tasks more quickly.
 China dominates industrial robot installations. In 2013, China overtook Japan as the nation
installing the most industrial robots. Since then, the gap between the total number of
industrial robots installed by China and the next-nearest nation has widened. In 2021, China
installed more industrial robots than the rest of the world combined.
Education
 More and more AI specialization. The proportion of new computer science PhD graduates
from U.S. universities who specialized in AI jumped to 19.1% in 2021, from 14.9% in 2020
and 10.2% in 2010.
 New AI PhDs increasingly head to industry. In 2011, roughly the same proportion of new AI
PhD graduates took jobs in industry (40.9%) as opposed to academia (41.6%). Since then,
however, a majority of AI PhDs have headed to industry. In 2021, 65.4% of AI PhDs took jobs
in industry, more than double the 28.2% who took jobs in academia.
 New North American CS, CE, and information faculty hires stayed flat. In the last decade,
the total number of new North American computer science (CS), computer engineering
(CE), and information faculty hires has decreased: There were 710 total hires in 2021
compared to 733 in 2012. Similarly, the total number of tenure-track hires peaked in 2019
at 422 and then dropped to 324 in 2021.
 The gap in external research funding for private versus public American CS departments
continues to widen. In 2011, the median amount of total expenditure from external sources
for computing research was roughly the same for private and public CS departments in the
United States. Since then, the gap has widened, with private U.S. CS departments receiving
millions more in additional funding than public universities. In 2021, the median
expenditure for private universities was $9.7 million, compared to $5.7 million for public
universities.
 Interest in K–12 AI and computer science education grows in both the United States and
the rest of the world. In 2021, a total of 181,040 AP computer science exams were taken by
American students, a 1.0% increase from the previous year. Since 2007, the number of AP
computer science exams has increased ninefold. As of 2021, 11 countries, including
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Belgium, China, and South Korea, have officially endorsed and implemented a K–12 AI
curriculum.
Policy and Governance
 Policymaker interest in AI is on the rise. An AI Index analysis of the legislative records of
127 countries shows that the number of bills containing “artificial intelligence” that were
passed into law grew from just 1 in 2016 to 37 in 2022. An analysis of the parliamentary
records on AI in 81 countries likewise shows that mentions of AI in global legislative
proceedings have increased nearly 6.5 times since 2016.
 From talk to enactment- the U.S. passed more AI bills than ever before. In 2021, only 2%
of all federal AI bills in the United States were passed into law. This number jumped to 10%
in 2022. Similarly, last year 35% of all state-level AI bills were passed into law.
 When it comes to AI, policymakers have a lot of thoughts. A qualitative analysis of the
parliamentary proceedings of a diverse group of nations reveals that policymakers think
about AI from a wide range of perspectives. For example, in 2022, legislators in the United
Kingdom discussed the risks of AI-led automation; those in Japan considered the necessity
of safeguarding human rights in the face of AI; and those in Zambia looked at the possibility
of using AI for weather forecasting.
 The U.S. government continues to increase spending on AI. Since 2017, the amount of U.S.
government AI-related contract spending has increased roughly 2.5 times.
 The legal world is waking up to AI. In 2022, there were 110 AI-related legal cases in United
States state and federal courts, roughly seven times more than in 2016. The majority of
these cases originated in California, New York, and Illinois, and concerned issues relating to
civil, intellectual property, and contract law
Diversity
 North American bachelor’s, master’s, and PhD-level computer science students are
becoming more ethnically diverse. Although white students are still the most represented
ethnicity among new resident bachelor’s, master’s, and PhD-level computer science
graduates, students from other ethnic backgrounds (for example, Asian, Hispanic, and Black
or African American) are becoming increasingly more represented. For example, in 2011,
71.9% of new resident CS bachelor’s graduates were white. In 2021, that number dropped
to 46.7%.
 New AI PhDs are still overwhelmingly male. In 2021, 78.7% of new AI PhDs were male.
Only 21.3% were female, a 3.2 percentage point increase from 2011. There continues to be
a gender imbalance in higher-level AI education.
 Women make up an increasingly greater share of CS, CE, and information faculty hires.
Since 2017, the proportion of new female CS, CE, and information faculty hires has
increased from 24.9% to 30.2%. Still, most CS, CE, and information faculty in North
American universities are male (75.9%). As of 2021, only 0.1% of CS, CE, and information
faculty identify as nonbinary.
 American K–12 computer science education has become more diverse, in terms of both
gender and ethnicity. The share of AP computer science exams taken by female students
increased from 16.8% in 2007 to 30.6% in 2021. Year over year, the share of Asian,
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Hispanic/Latino/Latina, and Black/African American students taking AP computer science

has likewise increased.
Public Opinion
 Chinese citizens are among those who feel the most positively about AI products and
services. Americans… not so much. In a 2022 IPSOS survey, 78% of Chinese respondents
(the highest proportion of surveyed countries) agreed with the statement that products and
services using AI have more benefits than drawbacks. After Chinese respondents, those
from Saudi Arabia (76%) and India (71%) felt the most positive about AI products. Only 35%
of sampled Americans (among the lowest of surveyed countries) agreed that products and
services using AI had more benefits than drawbacks.
 Men tend to feel more positively about AI products and services than women. Men are
also more likely than women to believe that AI will mostly help rather than harm. According
to the 2022 IPSOS survey, men are more likely than women to report that AI products and
services make their lives easier, trust companies that use AI, and feel that AI products and
services have more benefits than drawbacks. A 2021 survey by Gallup and Lloyd’s Register
Foundation likewise revealed that men are more likely than women to agree with the
statement that AI will mostly help rather than harm their country in the next 20 years.
 People across the world and especially America remain unconvinced by self-driving cars.
In a global survey, only 27% of respondents reported feeling safe in a self-driving car.
Similarly, Pew Research suggests that only 26% of Americans feel that driverless passenger
vehicles are a good idea for society.
 Different causes for excitement and concern. Among a sample of surveyed Americans,
those who report feeling excited about AI are most excited about the potential to make life
and society better (31%) and to save time and make things more efficient (13%). Those who
report feeling more concerned worry about the loss of human jobs (19%); surveillance,
hacking, and digital privacy (16%); and the lack of human connection (12%).
 NLP researchers… have some strong opinions as well. According to a survey widely
distributed to NLP researchers, 77% either agreed or weakly agreed that private AI firms
have too much influence, 41% said that NLP should be regulated, and 73% felt that AI could
soon lead to revolutionary societal change. These were some of the many strong opinions
held by the NLP research community.
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Monsoon Session of 2023
The Monsoon Session of 2023 was held from July 20, 2023 to August 11, 2023. Lok Sabha
functioned for 43% of its scheduled time and Rajya Sabha functioned for 55%. This session also
saw the discussion on the first no-confidence motion of the 17 th Lok Sabha. 56% of Bills
introduced in this session passed; three referred to Standing Committees
 This session saw high legislative activity despite Parliament working for just half of its
scheduled time. Most Bills were passed with little scrutiny. 56% of Bills introduced in this
session were passed by both Houses. On average, a Bill introduced in this session was
passed within eight days of introduction.
 For example, Bills expanding the discretionary powers of the LG in Delhi, allowing for mining
of strategic minerals like lithium, and regulating personal data were passed by Parliament
within seven days of introduction. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023
was passed within five days of introduction.
 Out of 25 Bills introduced, three have been referred to committees. In this Lok Sabha, so
far, 17% Bills have been referred to Committees. This is lower as compared to the last three
Lok Sabhas. Of the 23 Bills passed in this session, seven have been examined by Standing
Committees.
During the Session 20 Bills were introduced in Lok Sabha and 5 Bills were introduced in Rajya
Sabha. 22 Bills were passed by Lok Sabha and 25 Bills were passed by Rajya Sabha. One Bill each
was withdrawn with the leave of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively. Total number of Bills
passed by both Houses of Parliament during the Session is 23.
A Bill replacing the Ordinance, namely, The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2023 which was promulgated by the President before Monsoon
Session, was considered and passed by the Houses with a view to give effect to the intent and
purpose behind the provisions of article 239AA of the Constitution, by a permanent authority,
headed by the Chief Minister of Delhi along with the Chief Secretary, Government of National
Capital Territory of Delhi and the Principal Secretary, Home, Government of National Capital
Territory of Delhi, is being constituted to make recommendations to the Lieutenant Governor
regarding matters concerning transfer postings, vigilance and other matters.
Some of the major Bills passed by both Houses during the Session are as under:
 The Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks to make the process of sanctioning of
films for exhibition more effective and in tune with the changed times by including enabling
provisions in the Act to check film piracy, introduce age-based categories of certification
and remove redundant provisions in the existing Act.
 The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks
for inclusion of Hattee community of Trans Giri area of Sirmour district in the list of
Scheduled Tribes in Himachal Pradesh.
 The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fifth Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks for inclusion
of Bhuinya, Bhuiyan, and Bhuyan communities as synonyms of the Bharia Bhumia
community. It also includes three Devanagari versions of the name of the Pando
community in Chhattisgarh.
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 The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks (i) to strengthen
governance, enhancing transparency, increasing accountability reforming electoral process
etc.in the Multi-State Cooperative Societies by supplementing existing legislation and
incorporating the provisions of Ninety Seventh Constitutional Amendment. (ii) to improve
monitoring mechanism and ensuring Ease of Doing Business for Multi-State Cooperative
Societies.
 The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks to (i) reduce the pressure on wild
medicinal plants by encouraging cultivation of medicinal plants; (ii) encourage Indian system
of medicine; (iii) facilitate fast-tracking of research, patent application process, transfer of
research results while utilising the biological resources available in India without
compromising the objectives of United Nation Convention on Biological Diversity and its
Nagoya Protocol; (iv) decriminalise certain provisions; (v) bring more foreign investments in
the chain of biological resources, including research, patent and commercial utilisation,
without compromising the national interest.
 The Mines and Mineral (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023 seeks to
Amend the Mines and Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 for introducing
Exploration Licence & to delist some minerals from the list of atomic minerals.
 The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023 seeks
to provide for grant of production lease to private sector only through auction by
competitive bidding to enable early allocation of operating rights through a transparent and
non-discretionary process. Also to adopt other features of the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, such as, establishment of trusts for mining
affected persons and encouraging exploration, removing process of discretionary renewals
and providing uniform lease period of fifty years, introduction of composite licence,
providing for area limits, easy transfer of composite licence or production lease, etc.
 The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023 intends to amend the Forest
(Conservation) Act, 1980 by inter-alia clarifying the applicability of the Act in various types
of lands and to streamline the process of approvals under the Act.
 The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 Besides decriminalisation of minor
offences, the Bill envisages rationalisation of monetary penalties, depending on the gravity
of offence, bolstering the trust-based governance. Yet another novelty involved in the
proposal is increase of ten per cent. of the minimum amount of fine and penalty levied,
after the expiry of every three years, once the Bill becomes a law
 The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks to accommodate
progressive changes in the society during the last five decades, making registration process
people friendly and to update other databases at national and state level using database of
registered births and deaths.
 The Mediation Bill, 2023 seeks to promote and facilitate mediation, especially institutional
mediation, for resolution of disputes, commercial or otherwise, enforce mediated
settlement agreements, provide for a body for registration of mediators, to encourage
community mediation and to make online mediation as acceptable and cost effective
process and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
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 The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Bill, 2023 seeks to
empower the Commander - in - Chief or the Officer -in- Command of Inter-Services
Organisations in respect of persons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Navy Act, 1957 and
the Air Force Act, 1950, who are serving under or attached to his Command, for
maintenance of discipline and proper discharge of their duties.
 The Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks to provide for (i)
alignment of IIM Act with Acts governing the IITs and other Institutes of National
Importance. (ii) inclusion of NITIE, Mumbai in the schedule of the IIM Act, 2017 and
renaming NITIE, Mumbai as IIM Mumbai.
 The National Dental Commission Bill, 2023 seeks to regulate the profession of dentistry in
the country, to provide for quality and affordable; dental education, to make accessible high
quality oral healthcare and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
 The National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Bill, 2023 seeks to provide for regulation
and maintenance of standards of education and services by nursing and midwifery
professionals, assessment of institutions, maintenance of a National Register and State
Registers and creation of a system to improve access, research and development and
adoption of latest scientific advancement and for matters connected therewith or incidental
thereto.
 The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks Inclusion of
Mahra, Mahara community as a synonyms of Mahar, Mehra, Mehar at Sl. No. 33 in the list
of Scheduled Castes of Chhattisgarh.
 The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023 To establish the Anusandhan
National Research Foundation to provide high level strategic direction for research,
innovation and entrepreneurship in the fields of natural sciences including mathematical
sciences, engineering and technology, environmental and earth sciences, health and
agriculture, and scientific and technological interfaces of humanities and social sciences, to
promote, monitor and provide support as required for such research and for matters
connected therewith or incidental thereto.
 The Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023 seeks to provide for the processing of digital
personal data in a manner that recognizes both the right of individuals to protect their
personal data and the need to process personal data for lawful purposes, and for matters
connected therewith or incidental thereto.
 The Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks : (a) to revise the
provisions of the Act so as to reduce the regulatory compliance burden to the stakeholders
without diluting the core principles of environment protection in coastal areas; (b) to
decriminalize the offence(s) under the Act; (c) to expand the scope of the Act to bring all
coastal aquaculture activities under its ambit; and (d) to remove difficulties and regulatory
gaps in the Act for effective implementation, and to facilitate ease of doing business.)
 The Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks to provide that any person whose name has
been entered in the register of pharmacist maintained under the Jammu and Kashmir
Pharmacy Act, 2011 or possesses qualification (medical assistant/pharmacist) prescribes
under the said act shall be deem to have been entered in the register of pharmacist
prepared and maintained under chapter IV of the said act subject to condition that an
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application to be made in this behalf with in a period of one year from the commencement
of the Pharmacy (Amendment) Act, 2023 on payment of such fees, in such a manner, as
may be prescribed by the Government of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and
administration of Union Territory of Ladakh.
No-confidence motion in the Council of Ministers moved by Shri Gaurav Gogoi was discussed
for approx. 20 hours. 60 Members including Ministers participated in the discussion, which was
replied to by Prime Minister. The Motion was negatived by the House via voice vote.
The productivity of Lok Sabha was approximately 45% and that of Rajya Sabha was
approximately 63%.
LEGISLATIVE BUSINESS TRANSACTED DURING THE 12 TH SESSION OF 17TH LOK SABHA AND
260TH SESSION OF RAJYA SABHA (MONSOON SESSION)
I – BILLS INTRODUCED IN LOK SABHA
1. The National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Bill, 2023.
2. The National Dental Commission Bill, 2023.
3. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2023
4. The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023
5. The Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Bill, 2023
6. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2023
7. The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order (Amendment) Bill, 2023
8. The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order (Amendment) Bill, 2023
9. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023
10. The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023.
11. The Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2023
12. The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2023
13. The Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023
14. The Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023
15. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023
16. The Central Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Bill, 2023
17. The Integrated Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Bill, 2023
18. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023.
19. The Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita Bill, 2023
20. The Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, 2023
II – BILLS INTRODUCED IN RAJYA SABHA
1. The Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023
2. The Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2023
3. The Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023
4. The Post Office Bill, 2023
5. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment,
Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023
III- BILLS PASSED BY LOK SABHA
1. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2022.
2. The Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Bill, 2022
3. The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023
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4. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023

5. The Repealing and Amending Bill, 2022
7. The National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Bill, 2023
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fifth Amendment) Bill, 2023
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Bill, 2023
11. The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023
12. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order Amendment Bill, 2023
15. The Inter-services Organisations (Command, Control & Discipline) Bill, 2023
19. The Mediation Bill, 2023
20. The Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Bill, 2023
IV – BILLS PASSED/RETURNED BY RAJYA SABHA
1. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fifth Amendment) Bill, 2022
2. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Bill, 2022
6. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2023
11. The Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023
12. The Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2023
15. The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control & Discipline) Bill, 2023
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V – BILLS PASSED BY BOTH THE HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT
2. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fifth Amendment) Bill, 2023
3. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Bill, 2023
5. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2023
13. The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control & Discipline) Bill, 2023
VI – BILL WITHDRAWN IN LOK SABHA
1. The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019
VII – BILL WITHDRAWN IN RAJYA SABHA
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69th National Film Awards
The Jury for the 69th National Film Awards announced the winners for the year 2021. The Jury
comprised of eminent film makers and film personalities from across the Indian cine-world.
The awards were announced by Ketan Mehta, Chairperson, Feature Films Jury, Vasanth S Sai,
Chairperson, Non-feature Films Jury, Yatindra Mishra, Best Writing on Cinema Jury.
Best feature film award has been given to Rocketry: The Nambi Effect and the Best Non-
Feature Film has been bagged by Ek Tha Gaon directed by Srishti Lakhera.
The Kashmir Files has been awarded with Nargis Dutt Award for Best Feature Film on National
Integration, while RRR has bagged the Award for Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome
Entertainment.
Allu Arjun has won the award for Best Actor for his stellar performance in the movie Pushpa
(The Rise Part I) while Alia Bhatt and Kriti Sanon have become joint winners of Best Actress
Award for Gangubai Kathiawadi and Mimi respectively.
The complete list of the awardees is provided below
69th National Film Awards 2021

Best Writing on Cinema
Award for Best Book on Cinema:

Sr. Title of the Book Language Name of Name of the Medal and
No. the Author Publisher Cash prize
1. MUSIC BY English Rajiv Rupa Publications Swarna
LAXMIKANT Vijayakar India Pvt. Ltd. Kamal and
PYARELAL : THE Rs. 75,000/-
INCREDIBLY
MELODIOUS
JOURNEY
Award for Best Film Critic:

Sr. No. Name of Critic Language Medal and Cash Prize
1. Purushothama Telugu Swarna Kamal and Rs. 75,000/-
Charyulu
Special Mention - Critic

Sr. Name of Critic Language Prize
No.
1. Subramanya Badoor Kannada Certificate only
Non-Feature Films Results
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
S.No. Category of Award Title of the Film Awardee Medal &

Cash
Prize
1. BEST NON-FEATURE Ek Tha Gaon Producer & Swarna
FILM Director: Srishti Kamal
Lakhera and Rs.
1,50,000/
-each
2. BEST DEBUT NON- Paanchika Producer: Shreya Rajat
FEATURE FILM OF A Kapadiya Kamal
DIRECTOR and Rs.
Director: Ankit Kothari 75,000/-
each
3. BEST Fire on Edge Producer: Risen North Rajat
ANTHROPOLOGICAL East. Non Govt. Kamal
Organization and Rs.
50,000/-
Director: Pranab Jyoti each
Deka
4. BEST BIOGRAPHICAL 1. Rukhu Matir 1.Producer & Rajat
FILM/HISTORICAL Dukhu Majhi Director: Somnath Kamal
RECONSTRUCTION/ Mondal and Rs.
COMPILATION FILM 2. Beyond Blast 50,000/-
2.Producer: Luwang (Shared)
Apokpa Mamikon
Director: Saikhom
Ratan
5. BEST ARTS FILM T.N. Krishnan Producer: NFDC Rajat
Bow Strings to Kamal
Divine Director: V. and Rs.
Packirisamy 50,000/-
each
6. BEST SCIENCE & Ethos of Producer: Sri Ganesh Rajat
TECHNOLGY FILM Darkness Productions Kamal
Director: Avijit and Rs.
Banerjee 50,000/-
each
7. BEST PROMOTIONAL Endangered Producer: Baba Rajat
FILM (to cover tourism, Heritage Cinemas Kamal
exports, crafts, industry, ‘Warli Art’ and Rs.
etc.) Director: Hemant 50,000/-
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Verma each
8. BEST ENVIRONMENT Munnam Producer: Sree Rajat

FILM INCLUDING Valavu Gokulam Movies Kamal
AGRICULTURE and Rs.
Director: R S Pradeep 50,000/-
each
9. BEST FILM ON SOCIAL 1. Mithu Di Producer & Rajat

ISSUES Director: Asim Kumar Kamal
Sinha and Rs.
2. Three 50,000/-
Two One Producer: FTII each
Director: Himanshu (Shared)
Prajapati
10. BEST EDUCATIONAL Sirpigalin Producer: KKV Media Rajat

FILM Sirpangal Venture Kamal
and Rs.
Director: B Lenin 50,000/-
each
11. BEST EXPLORATION / Ayushman Producer: Mathew Rajat

ADVENTURE FILM (to Varghese, Dinesh Kamal
include sports) Rajkumar N, Naveen and Rs.
Francis 50,000/-
each
Director: Jacob
Varghese
12. BEST INVESTIGATIVE Looking For Producer: IGNCA Rajat

FILM Challan Kamal
Director: Bappa Ray and Rs.
50,000/-
each
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13. BEST ANIMATION FILM Kandittundu Producer: Studio Rajat

Eeksaurus Productions Kamal
Pvt.Ltd and Rs.
50,000/-
Director: Adithi each
Krishnadas
14. SPECIAL JURY AWARD Rekha Director: Shekhar Rajat

Bapu Rankhambe Kamal
and Rs.
1,00,000/
- each
15. BEST SHORT FICTION Dal Bhat Producer: Nemil Shah Rajat
FILM Kamal
Director: Nemil Shah and Rs.
50,000/-
each
16. BEST FILM ON FAMILY Chand Saanse Producer: Chandrakan Rajat
VALUES t Kulkarni Kamal
and Rs.
Director: Pratima Joshi 50,000/-
each
17. BEST DIRECTION Smile Please Director: Bakul Swarna
Matiyani Kamal
and Rs.
1,50,000/
-
18. BEST Pataal - Tee Cinematographer: Bitt Rajat
CINEMATOGRAPHY u Rawat Kamal
and Rs.
50,000/-
each
19. BEST AUDIOGRAPHY(Re- Ek Tha Gaon Re-recordist (final Rajat

recordist of the final mixed track): Unni Kamal
mixed track) krishnan and Rs.
50,000/-
20. BEST PRODUCTION Meen Raag Production sound Rajat
SOUND RECORDIST recordist: Suruchi Kamal
(LOCATION/SYNC Sharma and Rs.
SOUND) 50,000/-
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21. BEST EDITING If Memory Editor: Abhro Banerjee Rajat

Serves Me Right Kamal
and Rs.
50,000/-
22. BEST MUSIC DIRECTION Succelent Music Director: Ishaan Rajat

Divecha Kamal
and Rs.
50,000/-
23. BEST NARRATION/ Hathibondhu Voice Over: Kulada Rajat
VOICE OVER Kumar Bhattacharjee Kamal
and Rs.
50,000/-
24. SPECIAL MENTION 1.Baale Bangara Aniruddha Jatkar Certificat

e Only
2.Karuvarai Srikanth Deva
3.The Healing Sweta Kumar Das

Touch
Ram Kamal Mukherjee
4.Ek Duaa
Feature Films – Results
S.No. Category of Award Title Of The Awardee Medal

Film & Cash
Prize
1. Best Feature Film Rocketry: The Producer: Rocketry Swarna
Nambi Effect Entertainment LLP Kamal
and
(Hindi) Director: R Rs.
Madhavan 2,50,000
(each)
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2. Indira Gandhi Award Meppadiyan Producer: Unni Swarna

for Best Debut Film of (Person above Mukundan Films Kamal
a Director mentioned) Private Ltd. and
Rs.1,25,0
(Malayalam) Director: Vishnu 00 (each)
Mohan
3. Award for Best RRR (Telugu) Producer: DVV Swarna
Popular Film Entertainments LLP Kamal
Providing Wholesome and
Entertainment Director: S S Rs.
Rajamouli 2,00,000
/- (each)
4. Nargis Dutt Award for Rajat
Best Feature Film on The Kashmir Producer :Zee Kamal
National Integration Files Studios Limited and
(Hindi) Rs.
Director : Vivek 1,50,000
Ranjan Agnihotri /- (each)
5. Best Film on Social Rajat

Issues Anunaad-The Producer: Assam Kamal
Resonance State Film and
Corporation Ltd. Rs.
(Assamese) 1,50,000
Director: Reema /- (each)
Borah
6. Best Film on Aavasavyuham Producer : Krishand Rajat

Environment (Malayalam) Films Kamal
Conservation/Preserv and
ation Director : Krishand Rs.
1,50,000
/- (each)
7. Best Children's Film Gandhi&Co. Producer : MD Swarna
(Gujarati) Media Corp Kamal
and
Director: Manish Rs.
Saini 1,50,000
/- (each)
8. Best Direction Godavari (The Director: Nikhil Swarna
Holy Water) Mahajan Kamal
(Marathi) and
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Rs.
2,50,000
/-
9. Best Actor Pushpa (The Lead Actor : Allu Rajat
Rise Part I) Arjun Kamal
and
(Telugu) Rs.
50,000/-
10. Best Actress 1. Gangubai Lead Actress : Alia Rajat

Kathiawadi (Hi Bhatt Kamal
ndi) and
Rs.
50,000/-
2. Mimi (Hindi) Lead Actress : Kriti
Sanon
11. Best Supporting Actor Mimi (Hindi) Supporting Actor: Rajat
Pankaj Tripathi Kamal
and
Rs.
50,000/-
12. Best Supporting The Kashmir Supporting Rajat
Actress Files Actress: Pallavi Joshi Kamal
(Hindi) and
Rs.
50,000/-
13. Best Child Artist Last Film Show Child Artist : Bhavin Rajat
(Chhello Show) Rabari Kamal
(Gujarati) and
Rs.
50,000/-
14. Best Male Playback RRR Singer : Kaala Rajat
Singer (Telugu) Bhairava Kamal
and
(Song : Komuram Rs.
Bheemudo) 50,000/-
15. Best Female Playback Iravin Nizhal Singer : Shreya Rajat

Singer (Shadow of Ghoshal Kamal
the Night) and
(Tamil) (Song : Maayava Rs.
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Chaayavaa) 50,000/-
16. Best Cinematography Sardar Udham Cameraman: Avik Rajat

(Hindi) Mukhopadhayay Kamal
and
Rs.
50,000/-
17. Best Screenplay Nayattu (The Screenplay writer Rajat
Hunt) (original): Shahi Kamal
(Malayalam) Kabir and
Rs.
50,000/-
Gangubai (each)
Kathiawadi Screenplay writer
(Hindi) (Adapted) :
Sanjay Leela Bhansali

& Utkarshini
Gangubai Vashishtha
Kathiawadi
(Hindi)
Dialogue
Writer: Utkarshini
Vashishtha & Prakash
Kapadia
18. Best Audiography Chavittu Best Production Rajat

(Malayalam) Sound Recordist Kamal
(Location / sync and
sound) : Rs.
50,000/-
Jhilli (Discards) Arun Asok & Sonu K (each)
(Bengali) P
Sardar Udham Sound Designer

(Hindi) : Aneesh Basu
Re- Recording (Final

Mixing): Sinoy
Joseph
19. Best Editing Gangubai Editor: Sanjay Leela Rajat
Kathiawadi Bhansali Kamal
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(Hindi) and
Rs.
50,000/-
20. Best Production Sardar Udham Production Rajat
Design (Hindi) Designer: Dmitrii Kamal
Malich & Mansi and
Dhruv Mehta Rs.
50,000/-
(Shared)
21. Best Costume Sardar Udham Costume Rajat
Designer (Hindi) Designer: Veera Kamal
Kapur Ee and Rs.
50,000/-
(Shared)
22. Best Make-up Artist Gangubai Make-up Rajat
Kathiawadi Artist: Preetisheel Kamal
(Hindi) Singh D’souza and
Rs.
50,000/-
23. Best Music Direction Pushpa (The Music Director Rajat
Rise Part I) (Songs): Kamal
(Telugu) and
Devi Sri Prasad Rs.
50,000/-
RRR (each)
(Telugu) Music Director
(Background Score) :
M.M. Keeravaani
24. Best Lyrics Konda Polam Lyricist: Chandrabos Rajat
(Telugu) e Kamal
and
(Song : Dham Dham Rs.
Dham) 50,000/-
25. Special Jury Award Shershaah Director : Vishnu Rajat
Varadhan Kamal
and
Rs.
2,00,000
/-
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26. Best Special Effects RRR Special Effects Rajat

(Telugu) Creator : V Srinivas Kamal
Mohan and
Rs.
50,000/-
27. Best Choreography RRR Choreographer: Pre Rajat

(Telugu) m Rakshith Kamal
and
Rs.
50,000/-
28. Best Action Direction RRR Stunt Rajat

Award (Stunt (Telugu) Choreographer : King Kamal
Choreography) Soloman and
Rs.
50,000/-
29. Best Feature Film in
each of the language
specified in the
Schedule VIII of the
Constitution
a. Best Assamese Film Anur (Eyes on Producer: Gopendra Rajat
the Sunshine) Mohan Das Kamal
and
Director: Monjul Rs.
Baruah 1,00,000
/- (each)
b. Best Bengali Film Kalkokkho – Producer: Aurora Rajat
House of Time Film Corporation Kamal
Pvt.Ltd and
Rs.
Director: Rajdeep 1,00,000
Paul & Sarmistha /- (each)
Maiti
c. Best Hindi Film Producer: Kino Rajat
Sardar Udham works LLP Kamal
(Hindi) and
Director: Sujit Sircar Rs.
1,00,000
/- (each)
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d. Best Gujarati Film Last Film Show Producer : Jugaad Rajat

(Chhello Show) Motion Pictures Kamal
and
Director : Pan Nalin Rs.
1,00,000
/- (each)
e. Best Kannada Film 777 Charlie Producer: Parmvah Rajat
Studios Pvt.Ltd Kamal
and
Director: Kiranraj K Rs.
1,00,000
/- (each)
f. Best Maithili Film Samanantar Producer : Anirati Rajat
(The Parallel) Films Kamal
and
Director: Niraj Rs.
Kumar Mishra 1,00,000
/- (each)
g. Best Marathi Film Ekda Kay Zala Producer Rajat
: Gajavadana Kamal
Showbox LLP and
Rs.
Director: Saleel 1,00,000
Shrinivas Kulkarni /- (each)
h. Best Malayalam Film Home Producer: Friday Film Rajat
House Pvt.Ltd. Kamal
and
Director: Rojin.P.Tho Rs.
mas 1,00,000
/- (each)
i. Best Meiteilon Film Eikhoigi Yum Producer: Chingsub Rajat
(Our Home) am Sheetal Kamal
and
Director: Mayangla Rs.
mbam Romi Meitei 1,00,000
/- (each)
j. Best Odia Film Pratikshya Producer: Amiya Rajat
(The Wait) Patnaik Procutions Kamal
and
Director: Anupam Rs.
Patnaik 1,00,000
/- (each)
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k. Best Tamil Film Kadaisi Producer : Tribal Arts Rajat

Vivasayi Kamal
(The Last Director: M. and
Farmer) Manikandan Rs.
1,00,000
/- (each)
xx. Best Telugu Film Uppena Producer: Mythri Rajat

(Wave) Movie Makers Kamal
and
Director: Sana Rs.
Buchibabu 1,00,000
/- (each)
31 Best Feature Film in
each of the languages
other than those
specified in Schedule
VIII of the
Constitution
(a) Best Mishing Film Boomba Ride Producer: Quarter Rajat
Moon productions Kamal
and
Director: Biswajit Rs.
Bora 1,00,000
/- (each)
32. Special Mention 1. Kadaisi Late Shri Nallandi Certificat
Vivasayi (The e only
Last Farmer)
Aranya Gupta &
2. Jhilli Bithan Biswas
(Discards)
Indrans
3. Home
Jahanara Begum
4. Anur - Eyes
on the
Sunshine
69th National Film Awards 2021: Jury
FEATURE FILMS JURY

CENTRAL PANEL
1. Sh. Ketan Mehta (Chairperson)
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2. Sh. Sabyasachi Mohapatra (Member)

3. Sh.V.N. Aditya (Member)
4. Sh. Paresh Vora(Member)
5. Sh. Manas Choudhury (Member)
6. Sh. Malay Ray (Member)
7. Sh. G. Suresh Kumar (Member)
8. Sh. Sunil Kumar Desai (Member)
9. Ms. Papia Adhikary (Member)
10. Sh. Muthu Ganesh (Member)
11. Sh. Shantanu Ganesh Rode (Member)
NON FEATURE FILMS JURY

1. Sh. Vasanth S Sai, (Chairperson )
2. Sh. Borun Thokchom(Member)
3. Sh. Shankhajeet De (Member)
4. Sh. Panchakshri C E (Member)
5. Sh. Hari Prasad (Member)
6. Sh. Amol Vasant Gole (Member)
7. Sh. Kamakhya Narayan Singh (Member)
BEST WRITING ON CINEMA JURY

1 Sh. Yatindra Mishra (Chairperson)
2 Sh.Veejay Sai (Member)
3 Sh. Ramadasa Naidu (Member)
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ESSAYS
1. Increasing mental stress among the youth in 21st century

Young people form precious human resources in every country. However, there is considerable
ambiguity in the definition of young people and terms like young, adolescents, adults, young
adults are often used interchangeably. World Health Organization (WHO) defines ‘adolescence’
as age spanning 10 to 19 years, “youth” as those in 15-24 years age group and these two
overlapping 00age groups as “young people” covering the age group of 10-24 yr. Adults include
a broader age range and all those in 20 to 64 yr. Adolescence is further divided into early
adolescence (11-14 years), middle adolescence (15-17 years), and late adolescence (18-21
years). Individuals in the age group of 20 - 24 years are also referred to as young adults. The
National Youth Policy of India (2003) defines the youth population as those in the age group of
15-35 years. Population aged 10-24 years accounts for 373 million (30.9%) of the 1,210 million
of India's population with every third person belonging to this age group. Among them, 110 and
273 million live in urban and rural India, respectively. Males account for 195 million and females
178 million, respectively. As per the National Sample Survey (NSS), (2007-08) 32.8 per cent of
this group attend educational institutions and 46 per cent (2004-05) are employed.
What characterizes adolescents and youth?
Youth - the critical phase of life, is a period of major physical, physiological, psychological, and
behavioural changes with changing patterns of social interactions and relationships. Youth is
the window of opportunity that sets the stage for a healthy and productive adulthood and to
reduce the likelihood of health problems in later years. A myriad of biological changes occur
during puberty including increase in height and weight, completion of skeletal growth
accompanied by an increase in skeletal mass, sexual maturation and changes in body
composition. The succession of these events during puberty is generally consistent among the
adolescents often influenced by age of onset, gender, duration, along with the individual
variations. These changes are also accompanied by significant stress on young people and those
around them, while influencing and affecting their relationships with their peers and adults. It is
also an age of impulsivity accompanied by vulnerability, influenced by peer groups and media
that result in changes in perception and practice, and characterized by decision making
skills/abilities along with acquisition of new emotional, cognitive and social skills.
Young people's health is vital and crucial Most young people are presumed to be healthy but,
as per WHO, an estimated 2.6 million young people aged 10 to 24 years die each year and a
much greater number of young people suffer from illnesses ‘behaviours’ which hinder their
ability to grow and develop to their full potential. Nearly two-thirds of premature deaths and
one-third of the total disease burden in adults are associated with conditions or behaviours
initiated in their youth (e.g. tobacco use, physical inactivity, high risk sexual behaviours, injury
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
and violence and others). The behavioural patterns established during this developmental
phase determine their current health status and the risk for developing some chronic diseases
in later years . A significant reduction in the mortality and morbidity of communicable, maternal
and neonatal disorders since 1990 due to concerted and integrated efforts led to a shift in focus
towards the health, safety and survival of the young people. It is crucial to understand health
problems of this population, processes and mechanisms that affect their health, identify
interventions and strategic approaches that protect their health and develop and implement
policies and programmes.
According to the World Health Organization, over 90 million Indians, or 7.5% of the
population, suffer from mental health issues . A study published in Lancet in December2019,
titled The burden of mental disorders across the states of India: the Global Burden of Disease
Study 1990–2017, also highlights the scale of the challenge. Mental health issues are among
the leading causes of non-fatal disease burden in India; one in every seven Indian was
affected by mental health issues in 2017; the proportional contribution of mental health to
the total disease burden has almost doubled since 1990; and suicide was the leading cause of
deaths among young people — aged 15 to 39 — in 2016.Bollywood actor Sushant Singh
Rajput’s tragic death has triggered a much-needed conversation on mental health in India.
The pandemic also doesn’t seem to be helping, playing on the minds of lakhs of people and
causing stress.
Status of Mental health in India:
According to an estimate by the World Health Organization (WHO), mental illness makes about
15% of the total disease conditions around the world.
The same estimate also suggests that India has one of the largest populations affected from
mental illness.
As a result, WHO has labelled India as the world’s ‘most depressing country’.
Moreover, between 1990 to 2017, one in seven people from India have suffered from mental
illness ranging from depression, anxiety to severe conditions such as schizophrenia, according
to a study. It is no exaggeration to suggest that the country is under a mental health epidemic.
More than 450 million people suffer from mental disorders. According to WHO, by the year
2020, depression will constitute the second largest disease burden worldwide
Importance of mental health:
Emotional and mental health is important because it’s a vital part of your life and impacts your
thoughts, behaviours and emotions.
Being healthy emotionally can promote productivity and effectiveness in activities like work,
school or caregiving.
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
It plays an important part in the health of your relationships, and allows you to adapt to
changes in your life and cope with adversity.
Our mental health encompasses our psychological, emotional and social well-being. This means
it impacts how we feel, think and behave each day.
Our mental health also contributes to our decision making process, how we cope with stress
and how we relate to others in our lives. Global burden of mental health will be well beyond
the treatment capacities of developed and developing countries. The social and economic costs
associated with growing burden of mental ill health focused the possibilities for promoting
mental health as well as preventing and treating mental illness.
Stigma of mental illness
At one point of time the stigma of mental illness was all around the globe. It still exist all around
the globe, but is significantly less in Europe, US and some of the developed countries because
of the awareness programmes and the science having reached. In some parts of Asia and Africa
the stigma still continues.
The major focus is on reducing the stigma of mental illness, mainly on not misunderstanding
any psychiatric problem or mental health problem as severe mental disorder or lunacy. People
with bipolar disorder and schizophrenia are significantly disturbed, danger to self or others,
and socially embarrassing. These were referred to as lunacy.100 or 150 years ago society was
not concerned about the welfare of people with mental illness. They were put in asylums and
mental hospitals for the society’s safety. In the last 50 years treatment methods are available
for mental illness which is significant in the last 20 years. Reducing the stigma is very important.
Respecting the human rights of the persons who are living with mental illness is important.
One of the notable examples is the depression and their commonly noted complication is the
suicide behaviour.
Reasons for degenerating mental health of late:
The first and foremost reason for India to lose its mental health is the lack of awareness and
sensitivity about the issue.
There is a big stigma around people suffering from any kind of mental health issues.
They are often tagged as ‘lunatics’ by the society. This leads to a vicious cycle of shame,
suffering and isolation of the patients.
According to WHO, in 2011, there were 0·301 psychiatrists and 0·047 psychologists for every
100,000 patients suffering from a mental health disorder in India.
Treatment gap: According to estimates nearly 92% of the people who need mental health care
and treatment do not have access to any form of mental healthcare.
The economic burden of mental illness contributes significantly to the treatment gap in India.
There are both direct (cost of long-term treatment) and (the inability of the patient and
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
caregiver to work, social isolation, psychological stress) contribute significantly to the economic
burden.
Violations of human rights have been reported in mental asylums and also at homes and places
of traditional healing. In India, mental hospitals still practice certain obscure practices that
violate human rights. Further poor infrastructure such as closed structures, a lack of
maintenance, unclean toilets and sleeping areas etc clearly violate the basic human right to a
life with dignity.
Conclusion:
Stigma and Awareness need to be addressed in parallel in order to tackle the burden of mental
illness in India. If individuals continue to view mental illness with apprehension and resistance,
it will remain difficult for people with mental health concerns to seek the support they require
due to the fear of being labelled or judged.
State mental health institutions, general hospitals, private practice, and NGOs can together
help achieve the dream of mental health care for all.
WHO says if we don’t act urgently, by 2030 depression will be the leading illness globally. In
conclusion, be kind, compassionate and empathetic towards all. Everyone is fighting their own
battle, some more silently than others. It’s time to add value and enrich one another’s lives.
Mental Illness is real, hard, disabling and needs addressal and treatment. People should seek
professional help as soon as the need arises. Early detection and intervention of a psychological
condition will allow you to live the life you deserve.
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2. ORGANIC FARMING : BANE OR BOON
According to FSSAI,’organic farming’ is a system of farm design and management to create an

ecosystem of agriculture production without the use of synthetic external inputs such as
chemical fertilisers, pesticides and synthetic hormones or genetically modified organisms.
Organic farm produce means the produce obtained from organic agriculture, while organic
food means food products that have been produced in accordance with specified standards for
organic production.
Organic farming aims for long-term sustainability, ensuring that crops are free of toxic residues
and employing practises that are both sustainable and in tune with nature. Organic food
consumption has been one of the most popular trends among the general population in recent
years. Organic food is perceived to be considerably healthier for consumers and that the
farming procedures used to produce it are more environmentally friendly. When it comes to
organic food production, however, there are benefits and drawbacks, and many farmers choose
not to produce organic food. Organic farming has been shown to have a lower impact on the
environment than traditional methods. However, there is no evidence that eating organic foods
provides any significant nutritional benefits or deficits when compared to conventionally grown
foods, and there are no well-powered human studies that directly demonstrate health benefits
or disease protection because of eating an organic diet.
Organic food is purchased by consumers for a variety of reasons, including personal health,
flavour, and animal welfare, but also because they feel organic farming is more sustainable and
better for the environment. Organic farming has grown rapidly in popularity over the last few
decades, resulting in a significant shift in agriculture in most developed countries. The organic
system is supposed to provide solutions to environmental problems created by traditional
agriculture, such as non-renewable resource exhaustion and contamination from agricultural
chemicals. Internal variables relating to farmers and their personal situations in relation to their
decision to adopt an organic farming system have been extensively investigated through
international collaboration. Several characteristics of organic farms and farmers have been
identified in this regard.
Indian Scenario Regarding Organic Farming
Sikkim became the first State in the world to become fully organic in 2016. North East India has
traditionally been organic and the consumption of chemicals is far less than the rest of the
country. Similarly the tribal and island territories have been traditionally practicing organic
farming. The major organic exports from India have been flax seeds, sesame, soybean, tea,
medicinal plants, rice and pulses. There was an increase of nearly 50% in organic exports in
2018-19, touching Rs. 5151 crore. Commencement of exports from Assam, Mizoram, Manipur
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and Nagaland to UK, USA, Eswatini and Italy have proved the potential by increasing volumes
and expanding to new destinations as the demand for health foods increases.
Benefits of organic farming:
A. Organic farming improves the soil's fertility and productivity.
Soil that has been naturally nurtured through composting, green manure, symbiotic
partnerships, and minimal tillage is more productive and fertile. Organic fertilizer-treated soil is
home to billions of beneficial microorganisms from over a thousand different species. These
beneficial bacteria and fungi convert pollutants, plant residues, and livestock wastes into usable
soil nutrients that improve soil binding and structural properties, resulting in more stable
systems .
B. Organic farming contributes to the preservation of biodiversity.
Organic farmers are the guardians of biodiversity's resilience. Resistance to infectious diseases
and climatic change are ensured using traditional and non-conventional seeds, breeds, and
farming methods. When compared to inorganic farming practises, organic farming reduces
agricultural biodiversity loss and increases species richness and abundance by about 30%. The
absence of chemical use on farms creates a rich organic environment for pollinators and pest
predators. C. Water conservation and management are promoted by organic farming
Organic farmers do not allow water to be exposed to any pollutants and do not use antibiotics
on their livestock to avoid water contamination. Organic matter-rich soil holds moisture well
and promotes water retention and infiltration. Healthy soil serves as a sponge, retaining
moisture for plants. Furthermore, organic farms recharge underground water by up to 20%.
D. Climate change and air quality
Organic farming reduces the usage of conventional energy by reducing the need for agricultural
chemicals. By sequestering carbon in the soil, non-traditional farming methods address the
issue of GHG emissions and global warming. Reduced tillage, crop rotation, nitrogen-fixing
legumes, and other organic agriculture practises increase carbon concentration in the soil.
Agriculture's potential to mitigate climate change is proportional to the amount of organic
carbon stored in the soil.
E. Algal blooms are prevented by organic farming
Algal blooms are triggered by runoff from farms where nitrogen and phosphorus-rich fertilisers
are utilised. Even organic fertilisers, it may be argued, include nitrogen and phosphorus. They
do, however, include a variety of additional nutrients that help to maintain a nutritional
balance. Organic farming also enhances soil binding and decreases runoff. A nutrient-rich soil is
complete, with earthworms and nematodes, resulting in improved soil density and decreased
sandiness, resulting in less runoff. Organic farming also encourages the growth of bacteria
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known as rhizobia, which help plants fix nitrogen and use and transform these nutrients before
they run off.
PROBLEMS, CONSTRAINTS AND PROSPECTS
It is quite natural that a change in the system of agriculture in a country of more than a billion
people should be a well thought out process, which requires utmost care and caution. There
may be several impediments on the way. An understanding of these problems and prospects
will go a long way in decision making.
Problems and Constraints
The most important constraint felt in the progress of organic farming is the inability of the
government policy making level to take a firm decision to promote organic agriculture. Unless
such a clear and unambiguous direction is available in terms of both financial and technical
supports, from the Centre to the Panchayath levels, mere regulation making will amount to
nothing. The following are found to be the major problem areas for the growth of organic
farming in the country:
Lack of Awareness
It is a fact that many farmers in the country have only vague ideas about organic farming and its
advantages as against the conventional farming methods. Use of bio-fertilizers and bio
pesticides requires awareness and willingness on the part of the farming community.
Knowledge about the availability and usefulness of supplementary nutrients to enrich the soil is
also vital to increase productivity. Farmers lack knowledge of compost making using the
modern techniques and also its application. The maximum they do is making a pit and fill it with
small quantities of wastes. Often the pit is flooded with rainwater and result is the top of the
compost remains under composted the bottom becomes like a hard cake. Proper training to
the farmers will be necessary to make vermicompost on the modern lines. Attention on the
application of composts/organic manure is also lacking. The organic matter is spread during the
months when the right moisture level is absent on the soil. The whole manure turns into wastes
in the process. The required operation is of course labour intensive and costly, but it is
necessary to obtain the desired results.
Output Marketing Problems
It is found that before the beginning of the cultivation of organic crops, their marketability and
that too at a premium over the conventional produce has to be assured. Inability to obtain a
premium price, at least during the period required to achieve the productivity levels of the
conventional crop will be a setback. It was found that the farmers of organic wheat in Rajasthan
got lower prices than those of the conventional wheat. The cost of marketing of both types of
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products was also same and the buyers of wheat were not prepared to pay higher prices to the
organic variety .
Shortage of Bio-mass
Many experts and well informed farmers are not sure whether all the nutrients with the
required quantities can be made available by the organic materials. Even if this problem can be
surmounted, they are of the view that the available organic matter is not simply enough to
meet the requirements. The crop residues useful to prepare vermi-compost are removed after
harvest from the farms. and they are used as fodder and fuel. Even if some are left out on the
farms termites, etc destroy them. Experiments have shown that the crop residues ploughed
back into soil will increase productivity and a better alternative is conversion into compost. The
small and marginal cultivators have difficulties in getting the organic manures compared to the
chemical fertilizers, which can be bought easily, of course if they have the financial ability. But
they have to either produce the organic manures by utilizing the bio-mass they have or they
have to be collected from the locality with a minimum effort and cost. Increasing pressure of
population and the disappearance of the common lands including the wastes and government
lands make the task difficult.
Inadequate Supporting Infrastructure
In spite of the adoption of the NPOP during 2000, the state governments are yet to formulate
policies and a credible mechanism to implement them. There are only four agencies for
accreditation and their expertise is limited to fruits and vegetables, tea, coffee and spices. The
certiiying agencies are inadequate, the recognized green markets are non-existent, the trade
channels are yet to be formed and the infrastructure facilities for verification leading to
certification of the farms are inadequate.
High Input Costs
The small and marginal farmers in India have been practicing a sort of organic farming in the
form of the traditional farming system. They use local or own farm renewable resources and
carry on the agricultural practices in an ecologically friendly environment. However, now the
costs of the organic inputs are higher than those of industrially produced chemical fertilizers
and pesticides including other inputs used in the conventional farming system. The groundnut
cake, neem seed and cake, vermi-compost, silt, cow dung, other manures, etc. applied as
organic manure are increasingly becoming costly making them unaffordable to the small
cultivators.
Marketing Problems of Organic Inputs
Bio-fertilizers and bio-pesticides are yet to become popular in the country. There is a lack of
marketing and distribution network for them because the retailers are not interested to deal in
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these products, as the demand is low. The erratic supplies and the low level of awareness of the
cultivators also add to the problem. Higher margins of profit for chemical fertilizers and
pesticides for retailing, heavy advertisement campaigns by the manufacturers and dealers are
other major problems affecting the markets for organic inputs in India.
Absence of an Appropriate Agriculture Policy
Promotion of organic agriculture both for export and domestic consumption, the requirements
of food security for millions of the poor, national self-sufficiency in food production, product
and input supplies, etc. are vital issues which will have to be dealt with in an appropriate
agriculture policy of India. These are serious issues the solution for which hard and consistent
efforts along with a national consensus will be essential to go forward. Formulation of an
appropriate agriculture policy taking care of these complexities is essential to promote organic
agriculture in a big way.
Lack of Financial Support
The developing countries like India have to design a plethora of national and regional standards
in attune with those of the developed countries. The adoption and maintenance of such a
regulatory framework and its implementation will be costly. The cost of certification, a major
component of which is the periodical inspections carried out by the certifying agencies, which
have freedom to fix the timings, type and number of such inspections appears to be
burdensome for the small and marginal farmers. Of course, the fees charged by the
international agencies working in India before the NPOP were prohibitive and that was a reason
for the weak response to organic agriculture even among the large farms in the country. No
financial support as being provided in advanced countries like Germany is available in India.
Supports for the marketing of the organic products are also not forthcoming neither from the
State nor from the Union governments. Even the financial assistance extended to the
conventional farming methods are absent for the promotion of organic farming. Low Yields
In many cases the farmers experience some loss in yields on discarding synthetic inputs on
conversion of their farming method from conventional to organic. Restoration of full biological
activity in terms of growth of beneficial insect populations, nitrogen fixation from legumes, pest
suppression and fertility problems will take some time and the reduction in the yield rates is the
result in the interregnum. It may also be possible that it will take years to make organic
production possible on the farm. Small and marginal farmers cannot take the risk of low jaelds
for the initial 2-3 years on the conversion to organic farming. There are no schemes to
compensate them during the gestation period. The price premiums on the organic products will
not be much of help, as they will disappear once significant quantities of organic farm products
are made available.
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Inability to Meet the Export Demand

The demand for organic products is high in the advanced countries of the west like USA,
European Union and Japan. It is reported that the US consumers are ready to pay a premium
price of 60 to 100 per cent for the organic products. The upper classes
in India are also following this trend as elsewhere. The market survey done by the International
Trade Centre (ITC) during 2000 indicates that the demand for organic products is growing
rapidly in many of the world markets while the supply is unable to match it. India is known in
the world organic market as a tea supplier and there is a good potential to export coffee,
vegetables, sugar, herbs, spices and vanilla. In spite of the several initiatives to produce and
export organic produces from the country, the aggregate production for export came to only
about 14000 tonnes. This also includes the production of organic spices in about 1000 ha under
certification. Some export houses like Good Value Marketing Ltd and Burmah Trading
Corporation are also engaged in exporting of organic fruits, vegetables and coffee from India.
The country could export almost 85 per cent of the production indicating that demand is not a
constraint in the international markets for organic
products.
Vested Interests
Hybrid seeds are designed to respond to fertilizers and chemicals. The seed, fertilizer and
pesticide industry as also the importers of these inputs to the country have a stake in the
conventional farming. Their opposition to organic farming stems from these interests.
Lack of Quality Standards for Biomanures
The need for fixing standards and quality parameters for biofertilizers and biomanures has
arisen with the increasing popularity of organic farming in the country. There are a very large
number of brands of organic manures, claiming the high levels of natural nutrients and
essential elements. But most farmers are not aware of the pitfalls of using the commercially
available biomanure products. While the concept of organic farming itself lays great stress on
the manures produced on the farm and the farmers' household, many of the branded products
available in the market may not be really organic. Elements of chemicals slipping into the
manures through faulty production methods could make the product not certifiable as organic.
The process of composting which is a major activity to be carefully done is achieved usually by
one of the two methods, vermi-composting or microbe composting. While the former is ideal
for segregated waste material without foreign matter, microbe composting is suitable for large
scale management of solid wastes, especially in cities and metres. Even though the farmers are
using manure produced by different methods, proper parameters for biomanure are yet to be
finalized. Most farmers are still unaware of the difference between biomanure and bio-
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fertilizer, it is point out. While biomanure contains organic matter, which improves the soil
quality, bio-fertilizers are nutritional additives separated from the organic material, which could
be added to the soil, much like taking vitamin pills. Biofertilizers do nothing to enhance soil
quality while the loss of soil quality has been the major problem faced by farmers these days.
Improper Accounting Method
An understanding of the real costs of erosion of soil and human health, the loss of welfare of
both humans and other living things and the computation of these costs are necessary to
evaluate the benefits of organic farming. These costs will have to be integrated to a plan for the
implementation of organic agriculture.
Political and Social Factors
Agriculture in India is subject to political interventions with the objectives of dispensing favours
for electoral benefits. Subsidies and other supports from both the Central and state
governments, government controlled prices of inputs like chemical fertilizers, the public sector
units' dominant role in the production of fertilizers, government support/floor prices for many
agricultural products, supply of inputs like power and water either free of cost or at a
subsidized rate, etc. are the tools often used to achieve political objectives. Any movement for
the promotion of organic farming in India will have to counter opposition from the sections
who benefit from such policies in the conventional farming system. The political system in a
democracy like India is likely to evade the formulation of policies, which affect the interests of
the voting blocks unless there are more powerful counter forces demanding changes. In the
absence of alternative employment opportunities and other considerations, the organized
workforce particularly in the public sector fertilizer, pesticide and seed industries is also likely to
oppose moves on the part of the government to promote organic farming on a large scale.
Environmental impact and production efficiency
Impact on the Environment, the question of whether organic farming methods have a lower
environmental impact, can be similarly productive, and are not more expensive than
conventional ones is a popular issue in the organic debate. Several surveys and research have
sought to compare these difficulties for organic and conventional farming. Many people believe
that organic farming is better for the environment since it doesn't utilise or release synthetic
pesticides into the environment, which can affect soil, water, and nearby terrestrial and aquatic
fauna. Furthermore, organic farms are regarded to be better than conventional farms at
sustaining various ecosystems, including populations of plants, insects, and animals, due to crop
rotation strategies. Organic farms utilise less energy and produce less trash when measured per
unit area or per unit yield. Organically maintained soil has been shown to be of superior quality
and retain more water, potentially increasing organic farm production during drought years.
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Government Initiatives to Promote Organic Farming

Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North East Region (MOVCD)
Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North East Region (MOVCD-NER) is a Central
Sector Scheme, a sub-mission under National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) It was
launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare in 2015 for implementation in the
states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and
Tripura.
The scheme aims to develop certified organic production in a value chain mode to link growers
with consumers and to support the development of the entire value chain.
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana, launched in 2015 is an elaborated component of Soil Health
Management (SHM) of major project National Mission of Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
Under PKVY, Organic farming is promoted through adoption of organic villages by cluster
approach and Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) certification.
Certification Schemes
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is the food regulator in the country and is
also responsible for regulating organic food in the domestic market and imports.
Participatory Guarantee System (PGS): PGS is a process of certifying organic products, which
ensures that their production takes place in accordance with laid-down quality standards. PGS
Green is given to chemical free produce under transition to ‘organic’ which takes 3 years. It is
mainly for domestic purpose.
National Program for Organic Production (NPOP): NPOP grants organic farming certification
through a process of third party certification for export purposes.
Soil Health Card Scheme has led to a decline of 8-10% in the use of chemical fertilizers and also
raised productivity by 5-6%.
Agri-export Policy 2018
Focus on clusters and Marketing and promotion of “Produce of India” have positively impacted
the organic farming in India
One District - One Product (ODOP)
The programme aims to encourage more visibility and sale of indigenous and specialized
products/crafts of Uttar Pradesh, generating employment at the district level.
The presence of aggregators is imperative to bring about economies of scale for the small and
marginal farmers.
PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PM FME)
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The Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) launched the PM FME scheme as a part of
‘Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan’.
It aims to bring in new technology, apart from affordable credit to help small entrepreneurs
penetrate new markets.
Zero Budget Natural Farming
Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional
Indian practices.
Conclusion
One of the most popular trends among the public is the eating of organic foods. Synthetic or
chemical fertilisers are used in the traditional system. To nourish the soil and stimulate plant
growth, the organic system of cultivation encourages the use of natural fertilisers such as
manure or compost. Organic and conventional yields have been demonstrated to be
comparable in studies. Organic farming is more efficient than conventional farming since it uses
less energy. Conventional agriculture emits more greenhouse gases as compere to organic
farming.
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TRANSLATION
Translate the following given Passage from English to Hindi
Religion and Secularism
In our own country, the Constitution declares that every Indian citizen has a right to live with
freedom and dignity in any part of the country. Yet in reality, many forms of exclusion and
discrimination continue to persist.
Secularism is first and foremost a doctrine that opposes all such forms of inter-religious
domination. This is however only one crucial aspect of the concept of secularism. An equally
important dimension of secularism is its opposition to intra-religious domination.
Some people believe that religion is merely the ‘opium of the masses’ and that, one day, when
the basic needs of all are fulfilled and they lead a happy and contented life, religion will
disappear. Such a view comes from an exaggerated sense of human potential. It is unlikely that
human beings will ever be able to fully know the world and control it. We may be able to
prolong our life but will never become immortal. Disease can never be entirely eliminated, nor
can we get rid of an element of accident and luck from our lives. Separation and loss are
endemic to the human condition. While a large part of our suffering is man-made and hence
eliminable, at least some of our suffering is not made by man. Religion, art and philosophy are
responses to such sufferings. Secularism too accepts this and therefore it is not anti-religious.
However, religion has its share of some deep-rooted problems. For example, one can hardly
think of a religion that treats its male and female members on an equal footing. In religions
such as Hinduism, some sections have faced persistent discrimination. For example dalits have
been barred from entering Hindu temples. In some parts of the country, Hindu woman cannot
enter temples. When religion is organised, it is frequently taken over by its most conservative
faction, which does not tolerate any dissent. Religious fundamentalism in parts of the US has
become a big problem and endangers peace both within the country and outside. Many
religions fragment into sects which leads to frequent sectarian violence and persecution of
dissenting minorities.
Thus religious domination cannot be identified only with interreligious domination. It takes
another conspicuous form, namely, intra-religious domination. As secularism is opposed to all
forms of institutionalised religious domination, it challenges not merely interreligious but also
intra-religious domination.
We now possess a general idea of secularism. It is a normative doctrine which seeks to realise a
secular society, i.e., one devoid of either inter-religious or intra-religious domination. Put
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positively, it promotes freedom within religions, and equality between, as well as within,
religions. Within this larger framework, let us now consider a narrower and more specific
question, namely: What kind of state is necessary to realise these goals? In other words, let us
consider how a state committed to the ideal of secularism should relate to religion and religious
communities.
Perhaps one way of preventing religious discrimination is to work together for mutual
enlightenment. Education is one way of helping to change the mindset of people. Individual
examples of sharing and mutual help can also contribute towards reducing prejudice and
suspicion between communities. It is always inspiring to read stories of Hindus saving Muslims
or Muslims saving Hindus in the midst of a deadly communal riot. But it is unlikely that mere
education or the goodness of some persons will eliminate religious discrimination. In modern
societies, states have enormous public power. How they function is bound to make a crucial
difference to the outcome of any struggle to create a society less ridden with inter-community
conflict and religious discrimination. For this reason, we need to see what kind of state is
needed to prevent religious conflict and to promote religious harmony.
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धम और धमिनरपे ता
हमारे अपने देश म, संिवधान घोिषत करता है िक येक भारतीय नाग रक को देश के िकसी भी िह से म
वतं ता और स मान के साथ जीने का अिधकार है। िफर भी वा तव म, बिह कार और भेदभाव के कई प
अभी भी जारी ह।
धमिनरपे ता सबसे पहले और सबसे मह वपणू एक िस ातं है जो अतं र-धािमक वच व के ऐसे सभी प का
िवरोध करता है। हालाँिक यह धमिनरपे ता क अवधारणा का के वल एक मह वपूण पहलू है। धमिनरपे ता
का एक समान प से मह वपणू आयाम अंतर-धािमक वच व का िवरोध है।
कुछ लोग का मानना है िक धम के वल 'जनता क अफ़ म' है और एक िदन, जब सभी क बुिनयादी ज़ रत
परू ी हो जाएंगी और वे सख
ु ी और संतु जीवन यतीत करगे, तो धम गायब हो जाएगा। ऐसा ि कोण मानवीय
मता क अितरंिजत भावना से आता है। यह संभावना नह है िक मनु य कभी भी दिु नया को परू ी तरह से
जानने और इसे िनयंि त करने म स म ह गे। हम अपना जीवन तो बढ़ा सकते ह लेिकन कभी अमर नह हो
सकते। बीमारी को कभी भी परू ी तरह ख़ म नह िकया जा सकता है, न ही हम अपने जीवन से दघु टना और
भा य के िकसी त व को ख़ म कर सकते ह। अलगाव और हािन मानवीय ि थित के िलए थािनक ह। जबिक
हमारे क का एक बड़ा िह सा मानव िनिमत है और इसिलए इसे समा िकया जा सकता है, कम से कम हमारे
कुछ क मनु य ारा िनिमत नह ह। धम, कला और दशन ऐसे क क िति या ह। धमिनरपे ता भी इसे
वीकार करती है और इसिलए यह धम-िवरोधी नह है।
हालाँिक, धम म कुछ गहरी जड़ जमाई हई सम याओ ं का िह सा है। उदाहरण के िलए, कोई ऐसे धम के बारे म
शायद ही सोच सकता है जो अपने पु ष और मिहला सद य के साथ समान यवहार करता हो। िहदं ू धम जैसे
धम म, कुछ वग को लगातार भेदभाव का सामना करना पड़ा है। उदाहरण के िलए, दिलत को िहदं ू मिं दर म
वेश करने से रोक िदया गया है। देश के कुछ िह स म िहदं ू मिहलाएं मंिदर म वेश नह कर सकत । जब धम
संगिठत होता है, तो अ सर उसके सबसे िढ़वादी गुट ारा उस पर क ज़ा कर िलया जाता है, जो िकसी भी
असहमित को बदा त नह करता है। अमे रका के कुछ िह स म धािमक क रवाद एक बड़ी सम या बन गया है
और देश के भीतर और बाहर दोन जगह शांित को खतरे म डाल रहा है। कई धम सं दाय म िवभािजत हो जाते
ह िजससे अ सर सां दाियक िहसं ा होती है और असहमत अ पसं यक पर अ याचार होता है।
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इस कार धािमक वच व क पहचान के वल अंतरधािमक वच व से नह क जा सकती। यह एक और िविश

प लेता है, अथात,् अंतर-धािमक वच व। चँिू क धमिनरपे ता सभी कार के सं थागत धािमक वच व का
िवरोध करती है, यह न के वल अंतरधािमक बि क अतं र-धािमक वच व को भी चनु ौती देती है।
अब हमारे पास धमिनरपे ता का एक सामा य िवचार है। यह एक मानक िस ातं है जो एक धमिनरपे समाज
को साकार करने का यास करता है, अथात, अंतर-धािमक या अंतर-धािमक वच व से रिहत। सकारा मक प
से कह तो, यह धम के भीतर वतं ता और धम के बीच और भीतर समानता को बढ़ावा देता है। इस बड़े ढांचे
के भीतर, आइए अब एक संक ण और अिधक िविश पर िवचार कर, अथात:् इन ल य को साकार करने
के िलए िकस कार का रा य आव यक है? दसू रे श द म, आइए िवचार कर िक धमिनरपे ता के आदश के
िलए ितब रा य को धम और धािमक समदु ाय से कै से संबंिधत होना चािहए।
शायद धािमक भेदभाव को रोकने का एक तरीका आपसी ान के िलए िमलकर काम करना है। िश ा लोग
क मानिसकता को बदलने म मदद करने का एक तरीका है। साझाकरण और आपसी मदद के यि गत
उदाहरण भी समदु ाय के बीच पवू ा ह और संदेह को कम करने म योगदान दे सकते ह। घातक सां दाियक दगं े
के बीच िहदं ओ
ु ं ारा मसु लमान को बचाने या मुसलमान ारा िहदं ओ
ु ं को बचाने क कहािनयाँ पढ़ना हमेशा
ेरणादायक होता है। लेिकन यह सभं ावना नह है िक महज िश ा या कुछ यि य क अ छाई से धािमक
भेदभाव ख म हो जाएगा। आधुिनक समाज म, रा य के पास अपार सावजिनक शि होती है। अंतर-
सामदु ाियक संघष और धािमक भेदभाव से कम त समाज बनाने के िलए िकसी भी सघं ष के नतीजे म वे कै से
काय करते ह, इससे मह वपणू अंतर पड़ता है। इस कारण से, हम यह देखने क आव यकता है िक धािमक
संघष को रोकने और धािमक स ाव को बढ़ावा देने के िलए िकस कार के रा य क आव यकता है।
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िन निलिखत अवतरण का िहंदी से अं ेजी म अनुवाद क िजए :

देश क आ मा है िह दी
एक भाषा के प म िहदं ी न िसफ भारत क पहचान है बि क यह हमारे जीवन मू य , सं कृित एवं सं कार क
स ची सवं ाहक, सं ेषक और प रचायक भी है। बहत सरल, सहज और सगु म भाषा होने के साथ िहदं ी िव
क सभं वतः सबसे वै ािनक भाषा है िजसे दिु नया भर म समझने, बोलने और चाहने वाले लोग बहत बड़ी
सं या म मौजदू ह। यह िव म तीसरी सबसे यादा बोली जाने वाली भाषा है जो हमारे पार प रक ान, ाचीन
स यता और आधिु नक गित के बीच एक सेतु भी है। िहदं ी भारत सघं क राजभाषा होने के साथ ही यारह
रा य और तीन सघं शािसत े क भी मख ु राजभाषा है। सिं वधान क आठव अनसु चू ी म शािमल अ य
इ क स भाषाओ ं के साथ िहदं ी का एक िवशेष थान है।
देश म तकनीक और आिथक समिृ के साथ-साथ अं ेजी पूरे देश पर हावी होती जा रही है। िह दी देश क
राजभाषा होने के बावजदू आज हर जगह अं जे ी का वच व कायम है। िह दी जानते हए भी लोग िह दी म
बोलने, पढ़ने या काम करने म िहचकने लगे ह। इसिलए सरकार का यास है िक िह दी के चलन के िलए
उिचत माहौल तैयार क जा सके ।
राजभाषा िहदं ी के िवकास के िलए खासतौर से राजभाषा िवभाग का गठन िकया गया है। भारत सरकार का
राजभाषा िवभाग इस िदशा म यासरत है िक क सरकार के अधीन कायालय म अिधक से अिधक काय
िहदं ी म हो। इसी कड़ी म राजभाषा िवभाग ारा येक वष 14 िसतंबर को िहदं ी िदवस समारोह का आयोजन
िकया जाता है। 14 िसतंबर, 1949 का िदन वतं भारत के इितहास म बहत मह वपणू है। इसी िदन संिवधान
सभा ने िहदं ी को सघं क राजभाषा के प म वीकार िकया था। इस िनणय को मह व देने के िलए और िह दी
के उपयोग को चिलत करने के िलए साल 1953 के उपरांत हर साल 14 िसतंबर को िह दी िदवस मनाया
जाता है।
क सरकार के कायालय म िहदं ी का अिधकािधक उपयोग सुिनि चत करने हेतु भारत सरकार के राजभाषा
िवभाग ारा उठाए गए कदम के प रणाम व प कं यटू र पर िहदं ी म काय करना अिधक आसान एवं
सिु वधाजनक हो गया है। इसी म म राजभाषा िवभाग ारा वेब आधा रत सूचना बंधन णाली िवकिसत क
गई है िजससे भारत सरकार के सभी कायालय म िहदं ी के उ तरो तर योग से संबंिधत ितमाही गित रपोट
तथा अ य रपोट राजभाषा िवभाग को व रत गित से िभजवाना आसान हो गया है। सभी मं ालय और
िवभाग ने अपनी वेबसाइट िहदं ी म भी तैयार कर ली ह। सरकार के िविभ न मं ालय एवं िवभाग ारा
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संचािलत जन क याण क िविभ न योजनाओ ं क जानकारी आम नाग रक को िह दी म िमलने से गरीब,

िपछड़े और कमजोर वग के लोग भी लाभाि वत होते हए देश क मु यधारा से जुड़ रहे ह।
देश क वतं ता से लेकर िह दी ने कई मह वपणू उपलि धयां ा त क ह। भारत सरकार ारा िवकास
योजनाओ ं तथा नाग रक सेवाएं दान करने म िहदं ी के योग को बढ़ावा िदया जा रहा है। िहदं ी तथा ातं ीय
भाषाओ ं के मा यम से हम बेहतर जन सिु वधाएं लोग तक पहचं ा सकते ह। इसके साथ ही िवदेश मं ालय ारा
‘‘िव िहदं ी स मेलन’’ और अ य अतं ररा ीय स मेलन के मा यम से िहदं ी को अंतररा ीय तर पर
लोकि य बनाने का काय िकया जा रहा है। इसके अलावा येक वष सरकार ारा ‘‘ वासी भारतीय िदवस’’
मनाया जाता है िजसम िव भर म रहने वाले वासी भारतीय भाग लेते ह। िवदेश म रह रहे वासी भारतीय
क उपलि धय के स मान म आयोिजत इस काय म से भारतीय मू य का िव म और अिधक िव तार हो
रहा है। िव वभर म करोड़ क सं या म भारतीय समदु ाय के लोग एक संपक भाषा के प म िह दी का
इ तेमाल कर रहे ह। इससे अंतरा ीय तर पर िह दी को एक नई पहचान िमली है। यनू े को क सात भाषाओ ं म
िहदं ी को भी मा यता िमली है।
भारतीय िवचार और सं कृित का वाहक होने का ेय िह दी को ही जाता है। आज संयु रा जैसी सं थाओ ं
म भी िहदं ी क गजूं सनु ाई देने लगी है। िपछले वष िसतबं र माह म हमारे धानमं ी ारा सयं ु रा महासभा म
िहदं ी म ही अिभभाषण िदया गया था। िव िहदं ी सिचवालय िवदेश म िहदं ी का चार- सार करने और सयं ु
रा म िहदं ी को आिधका रक भाषा बनाने के िलए कायरत है। उ मीद है िक िहदं ी को शी ही संयु रा क
आिधका रक भाषा का दजा भी ा हो सके गा।
िहदं ी आम आदमी क भाषा के प म देश क एकता का सू है। सभी भारतीय भाषाओ ं क बड़ी बहन होने के
नाते िहदं ी िविभ न भाषाओ ं के उपयोगी और चिलत श द को अपने म समािहत करके सही मायन म भारत
क संपक भाषा होने क भिू मका िनभा रही है। िहदं ी जन-आंदोलन क भी भाषा रही है। िहदं ी के मह व को
गु देव रवी नाथ टैगोर ने बड़े संदु र प म ततु िकया था। उ ह ने कहा था, ‘भारतीय भाषाएं निदयां ह और
िहदं ी महानदी’। िहदं ी के इसी मह व को देखते हए तकनीक कंपिनयां इस भाषा को बढ़ावा देने क कोिशश कर
रही ह। यह खश ु ी क बात है िक सचू ना ौ ोिगक म िह दी का इ तेमाल बढ़ रहा है। आज वै ीकरण के दौर
म, िहदं ी िव तर पर एक भावशाली भाषा बनकर उभरी है। आज पूरी दिु नया म 175 से अिधक
िव िव ालय म िह दी भाषा पढ़ाई जा रही है। ान-िव ान क पु तक बड़े पैमाने पर िहदं ी म िलखी जा रही है।
सोशल मीिडया और सचं ार मा यम म िहदं ी का योग िनरंतर बढ़ रहा है।
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भाषा का िवकास उसके सािह य पर िनभर करता है। आज के तकनीक के युग म िव ान और इजं ीिनय रंग के
े म भी िहदं ी म काम को बढ़ावा देना चािहए तािक देश क गित म ामीण जनसं या सिहत सबक
भागीदारी सिु नि त हो सके । इसके िलए यह अिनवाय है िक िह दी और अ य भारतीय भाषाओ ं म तकनीक
ान से संबंिधत सािह य का सरल अनवु ाद िकया जाए। इसके िलए राजभाषा िवभाग ने सरल िहदं ी श दावली
भी तैयार क है। राजभाषा िवभाग ारा रा ीय ान-िव ान मौिलक पु तक लेखन योजना के ारा िहदं ी म ान-
िव ान क पु तक के लेखन को बढ़ावा िदया जा रहा है। इससे हमारे िव ािथय को ान-िव ान सबं ंधी पु तक
िहदं ी म उपल ध ह गी। िह दी भाषा के मा यम से िशि त यवु ाओ ं को रोजगार के अिधक अवसर उपल ध हो
सक, इस िदशा म िनरंतर यास भी ज री है।
भाषा वही जीिवत रहती है िजसका योग जनता करती है। भारत म लोग के बीच संवाद का सबसे बेहतर
मा यम िह दी है। इसिलए इसको एक-दसू रे म चा रत करना चािहये। इस कारण िह दी िदवस के िदन उन सभी
से िनवेदन िकया जाता है िक वे अपने बोलचाल क भाषा म भी िहदं ी का ही उपयोग कर। िहदं ी भाषा के सार
से परू े देश म एकता क भावना और मजबतू होगी।
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Hindi is the soul of the country

Hindi as a language is not only the identity of India but it is also the true carrier, communicator
and representative of our life values, culture and traditions. Apart from being a very simple,
easy and accessible language, Hindi is probably the most scientific language in the world, which
is understood, spoken and loved by a large number of people all over the world. It is the third
most spoken language in the world which is also a bridge between our traditional knowledge,
ancient civilization and modern progress. Apart from being the official language of the Union of
India, Hindi is also the main official language of eleven states and three union territories. Hindi
has a special place along with other twenty-one languages included in the Eighth Schedule of
the Constitution.
Along with the technological and economic prosperity in the country, English is becoming
dominant in the entire country. Despite Hindi being the official language of the country, today
English continues to dominate everywhere. Despite knowing Hindi, people have become
hesitant in speaking, reading or working in Hindi. Therefore, the government is trying to create
a suitable environment for the prevalence of Hindi.
The Department of Official Language has been formed especially for the development of the
official language Hindi. The Department of Official Language of the Government of India is
making efforts to ensure that more and more work is done in Hindi in the offices under the
Central Government. In this series, Hindi Day celebration is organized by the Department of
Official Language every year on 14 September. The day of September 14, 1949 is very
important in the history of independent India. On this day, the Constituent Assembly accepted
Hindi as the official language of the Union. To give importance to this decision and to popularize
the use of Hindi, Hindi Day is celebrated every year on 14 September after 1953.
As a result of the steps taken by the Department of Official Language, Government of India to
ensure maximum use of Hindi in Central Government offices, working in Hindi on computers
has become easier and more convenient. In this sequence, a web-based information
management system has been developed by the Department of Official Language, which has
made it easier to send quarterly progress reports and other reports related to the progressive
use of Hindi in all the offices of the Government of India to the Department of Official Language
at a fast pace. All ministries and departments have also prepared their websites in Hindi. With
the common citizens getting information in Hindi about various public welfare schemes run by
various ministries and departments of the government, the poor, backward and weaker
sections are also getting benefited and joining the mainstream of the country.
Hindi has made many important achievements since the independence of the country. The use
of Hindi is being promoted by the Government of India in development schemes and providing
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
civil services. We can provide better public facilities to the people through Hindi and regional
languages. Along with this, the work of popularizing Hindi at the international level is being
done by the Ministry of External Affairs through "World Hindi Conference" and other
international conferences. Apart from this, every year “Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas” is celebrated
by the government in which NRIs living all over the world participate. This program organized in
honor of the achievements of NRIs living abroad is further spreading Indian values in the
world. Crores of people of the Indian community around the world are using Hindi as a
communication language. From this Hindi has got a new identity at the international level. Hindi
has also been recognized among the seven languages of UNESCO.
The credit of being the carrier of Indian thought and culture goes to Hindi. Today the echo of
Hindi has started being heard even in organizations like the United Nations. Last year, in the
month of September, our Prime Minister had addressed the United Nations General Assembly
in Hindi only. World Hindi Secretariat is working to promote Hindi abroad and make Hindi an
official language in the United Nations. It is expected that Hindi will soon get the status of the
official language of the United Nations.
Hindi as the language of the common man is the formula for the unity of the country. Being the
elder sister of all the Indian languages, Hindi is truly playing the role of being the link language
of India by assimilating the useful and popular words of different languages. Hindi has also been
the language of mass movements. The importance of Hindi was presented in a very beautiful
form by Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore. He had said, 'Indian languages are rivers and Hindi is
the great river'. Considering this importance of Hindi, technical companies are trying to
promote this language. It is a matter of happiness that the use of Hindi is increasing in
information technology. Today in the era of globalization, Hindi has emerged as an influential
language globally. Today Hindi language is being taught in more than 175 universities all over
the world. Books on knowledge and science are being written in Hindi on a large scale. The use
of Hindi in social media and communication mediums is continuously increasing.
The development of a language depends on its literature. In today's technological era, work in
Hindi should also be promoted in the field of science and engineering so that participation of
everyone including the rural population can be ensured in the progress of the country. For this,
it is essential that simple translation of literature related to technical knowledge be done in
Hindi and other Indian languages. For this, the Official Language Department has also prepared
simple Hindi terminology. The writing of knowledge-science books in Hindi is being promoted
by the Department of Official Language through the National Knowledge-Science Original Book
Writing Scheme. With this, knowledge-science related books will be available in Hindi to our
students. Continuous efforts are also necessary in this direction so that more employment
opportunities can be available to the youth educated through Hindi language.
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Only that language survives which is used by the people. Hindi is the best medium of
communication among people in India. Therefore it should be propagated among each
other. For this reason, on Hindi Diwas, all of them are requested to use Hindi in their spoken
language also. The spread of Hindi language will further strengthen the feeling of unity in the
entire country.
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PRECISE WRITING
PRECIS 1
The basic core of evolution – survival, and reproduction- has been proven over and over
through our various behavioral patterns. Let’s retrograde and explore what are some exciting
concepts that have been performed by humans before us and how did it occur.
Almost every organism has the tendency to react to certain stimuli for survival. This reaction to
each and every situation has an evolutionary basis of adaptation. The study of human emotions
dates back to the 19th century and psychologists have since then discovered many reasons for
every emotion, yet these are just theories. The arousal of emotions and their assumed
structures is said to occur due to repeated encounters with a situation followed by the
adaptation of the encounter. Human emotions have been linked to adaptively regulate
emotion-gathering mechanisms. The emotion of fear which is associated with ancient parts of
the brain has presumably evolved among our pre-mammal ancestors while the emotion of a
mother’s love called the ‘filial emotion’ has seen to evolve among early mammals. Various
emotions work as manipulative strategies that favours survival. Feigning emotions by an
accused person may help him be saved from the punishment. An exaggerated display of anger
is also associated with manipulating or threatening someone.
Despite there being several emotions for various events, ironically the most interesting emotion
is the emotion of disgust. Disgust is aroused when the body senses a danger to the immunity or
the physiology of the human. The disgusted memory is associated with alerting the brain of a
potentially dangerous substance. A few studies have shown that the encoding triggered in
adaptive memory for problems is stronger than any other behaviour. This makes us instantly
have a disgusted expression at the sight of something that makes us uncomfortable or uneasy.
These expressions are also closely linked to self-protective communication. (282 Words)
Precis
Title: Human Evolution and Emotions
The emotions that humans express and react to stimuli in the environment have an
evolutionary basis. Emotions are assumed to be a result of repeated encounters with a certain
event.
According to evolution, emotions like fear, love, feigning, anger, and disgust are results of
consistent reactions in particular situations. Some expressions are often built up or adapted as
a form of self-protection. (62 Word)
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PRECIS 2
Original Passage: Religion seems to me to be based primarily and mainly on fear. It is partly the
terror of the unknown and the desire to feel that you have a kind of big brother who will stand
by you in all your troubles and conflicts. Fear is the basis of the whole thing – fear of the
mysterious, fear of failure, fear of death. Fear is the parent of cruelty and therefore, it is not
surprising that cruelty and religion go together.
For fear in this world is the foundation of these two things, that we now understand certain
things, and can master them with the help of science, which has forced its way step by step
against Christianity: against the churches, and against all the opposition of the old doctrines.
Science can help us overcome this terrible fear that mankind has lived in for generations.
Science can no longer teach us to look for allies in the sky but to look below at our own efforts
to make this earth a habitable place.
(186 words)
Precis
Title – Science Versus Religion
Precis: Fear of the unknown and the desire to get help from other sources in his plight led men
to believe in religion. Science has freed man from these. With the help of science, people have
overcome the fear of invisible forces. As a result, science is thus undermining the power of
Christianity and the fears and churches. (56 words)
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
Practice Paper - 1
Current Affairs (July & August) –2023
1. Who was honoured with the Lokmanya Tilak National Award?
(a) Draupadi Murmu
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Rajnath Singh
(d) Rahul Gandhi
2. In which city the G20 Empower Summit is being organized under the
chairmanship of India?
(a) Jaipur
(d) New Delhi
(c) Guwahati
(d) Gandhinagar
3. Which union minister launched the mobile app of 'ULLAS: New India Literacy
Programme'?
(a) Rajnath Singh
(b) Amit Shah
(c) Smriti Irani
(d) Dharmendra Pradhan
4. Which Formula One driver won the Belgian Grand Prix title for the 8th time in a
row?
(a) Sergio Perez
(b) Charles Leclerc
(c) Max Verstappen
(d) Daniel Ricciardo
5. When is World Lung Cancer Day observed annually?
(a) 30th July
(b) 31st July
(c) 01st August
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(d) 02nd August

6. ISRO launched seven satellites of which country with PSLV-C56 rocket?
(a) Singapore
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Argentina
(d) Cambodia
7. In which city is the 7th Hockey Men's Asian Champions Trophy being organized?
(a) Patna
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Chennai
(d) Varanasi
8. 'Naya Savera Yojana' has been launched by which union ministry?
(a) Ministry of Minority Affairs
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Education
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
9. Who has built the first 'Radio Frequency Seeker' of Akash Missile?
(a) Bharat Dynamics Limited
(b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(c) Bharat Electronics Limited
(d) Indian Ordnance Factory
10. Which Indian-American has been made the head of the FBI field office in Salt
Lake City?
(a) Shohini Sinha
(b) Preeti Kapoor
(c) Aanchal Ranjan
(d) Varsha Gopinathan
11. TRAI has tied up with whom to establish cooperation in the field of
telecommunication?
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(a) Meta
(b) Reliance
(c) Google
(d) C-DOT
12. Who has been named the captain of the Indian T20 team for the tour of Ireland?
(a) Hardik Pandya
(b) Jasprit Bumrah
(c) Rituraj Gaikwad
(d) Suryakumar Yadav
13. Who has become India's number 1 chess player?
(a) Viswanathan Anand
(b) R. Praggnananda
(c) Gukesh D
(d) Pantala Harikrishna
14. Who jointly launched the 'Study in India Portal'?
(a) S. Jaishankar and Dharmendra Pradhan
(b) Rajnath Singh and Dharmendra Pradhan
(c) Rajnath Singh and S. Jaishankar
(d) Amit Shah and Dharmendra Pradhan
15. Who has launched the mobile application 'Rajmargyatra'?
(a) NIC
(b) NHAI
(c) C-DAC
(d) NITI Aayog
16. Who has been appointed as the new President of Qualcomm India?
(a) Savi Soin
(b) Ajay Nadar
(c) Ashok Sinha
(d) Mahesh Awasthi
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
17. Which portal has been launched to monitor child care institutions across the
country?
(a) Raksha Portal
(b) Masi Portal
(c) Kavach Portal
(d) Bal Suraksha Portal
18. Which organization has recently launched 'Jaldost Airboat'?
(a) National Aerospace Laboratories
(b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(c) DRDO
(d) Garuda Aerospace
19. Who has been appointed as the new Prime Minister of Cambodia?
(a) Hun Sen
(b) Norodom Sihamoni
(c) Hun manet
(d) none of these
20. Which Indian player has won the doubles title in the women's tennis hardcourt
event in Spain?
(a) Prarthana Thombare
(b) Ankita Bhambri
(c) Mehak Sinha
(d) Ankita Raina
21. Which Indian became the youngest world champion in archery?
(a) Neha Bisht
(b) Shreya Sinha
(c) Deepika Kumari
(d) Aditi Swamy
22. When is National Handloom Day celebrated every year?
(a) 05 August
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(b) 06 August
(c) 07 August
(d) 08 August
23. How many railway stations across the country will be modernized under the
'Amrit Bharat Station' scheme?
(a) 308
(b) 408
(c) 508
(d) 608
24. When is National Javelin Day celebrated annually?
(a) 06 August
(b) 07 August
(c) 08 August
(d) 09 August
25. Which Indian-American has been appointed as the new Chief Financial Officer of
Tesla?
(a) Deepak Ahuja
(b) Vaibhav Taneja
(c) Diljit Singh
(d) Arun Sinha
26. Who has become the second youngest Indian to score a fifty in T20I cricket?
(a) Tilak Verma
(b) Ishan Kishan
(c) Shubman Gill
(d) Yashasvi Jaiswal
27. What is the title of the short film made by the Sports Authority of India on the
athletes participating in the Asian Games?
(a) 'Chak De India'
(b) 'Namaste India'
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(c) 'Halla Bol'

(d) 'Khelo India'
28. Which country will host the 10-day Malabar Exercise this year?
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) USA
29. Which pair won gold medal in SL3-SL4 category in Para-Badminton International-
2023?
(a) Deep Ranjan Bisoyee and Manoj Sarkar
(b) Pramod Bhagat and Sukant Kadam
(c) Manoj Sarkar and Pramod Bhagat
(d) Sukant Kadam and Deep Ranjan
30. The Union Cabinet has approved how much rupees for broadband connectivity
in villages under the BharatNet project?
(a) 1. 00 Lakh Crore
(b) 1.29 Lakh Crore
(c) 1.39 Lakh Crore
(d) 1.49 Lakh Crore
31. Who will lead the Indian team in the World Athletics Championships?
(a) Neeraj Chopra
(b) Tajinderpal Singh Toor
(c) Hima Das
(d) Rohit Yadav
32. Which nationwide campaign has been started in honor of the martyred brave
soldiers of the country?
(a) ‘Desh ke Veer Jawan’
(b) 'Meri Mati Mera Desh’
(c) 'Desh ke Veer Saput'
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(d) 'Mera Bharat Mahan'

33. BRICS Startup Forum will be launched by which country?
(a) South Africa
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Brazil
34. Who has taken over as the chairman of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and
Customs?
(a) Sanjay Kumar Agarwal
(b) Vivek Johri
(c) Sanjay Sinha
(d) SK Mishra
35. Indian Army Chief General Manoj Pandey has recently visited which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Japan
(d) Australia
36. Who has been sworn in as the Chief Justice of the Orissa High Court?
(a) Daya Shankar Pandey
(b) Subhasis Talapatra
(c) Prem Prakash Sinha
(d) Deepak Kumar Mishra
37. Which state has announced the Indira Gandhi free smartphone Yojana 2023?
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Karnataka
(d) Chhattisgarh
38. Which state/UT has been given GI tag to 'Rajouri Chikri Woodcraft'?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(b) Assam
(c) Odisha
(d) Delhi
39. What is the rank of India in Internet Resilience Index?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
40. Which bank has recently launched eco-friendly debit card?
(a) Bandhan Bank
(b) Paytm Payments Bank
(c) Airtel Payments Bank
(d) Union Bank of India
41. When is World Lion Day celebrated annually?
(a) 09th August
(b) 10th August
(c) 11th August
(d) 12th August
42. Who inaugurated the 9th India- International MSME Expo and Summit 2023 in
New Delhi?
(a) Manoj Sinha
(b) Amit Shah
(c) Rajnath Singh
(d) Arvind Kejriwal
43. Which state assembly has passed a resolution urging the Centre to change the
name of the state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(d) Kerala
44. Who has been awarded the Tech Startup of the Year (AI) at the 13th Annual
Entrepreneur India Awards?
(a) Dream 11
(b) Garuda Aerospace
(c) Cred
(d) Jio Haptik
45. India's first post office near LoC has been inaugurated in which district of Jammu
and Kashmir?
(a) Udhampur
(b) Kupwara
(c) Rajouri
(d) Kishtwar
46. What is the name of the Indian mission sent by ISRO to study the Sun?
(a) Aditya- 1
(b) Surya Mission
(c) Aditya-L1
(d) Bhaskar-1
47. Which country won the title of Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2023?
(a) India
(b) Malaysia
(c) Pakistan
(d) Nepal
48. Which player holds the record for most sixes in T20Is for India at the age of 20 or
under?
(a) Ishan Kishan
(b) Tilak Verma
(c) Yashasvi Jaiswal
(d) Shubman Gill
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
49. With whom is the Ministry of AYUSH organizing the Global Summit on
Traditional Medicine?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) World Health Organization
(c) United Nation
(d) AIIMS
50. Recently 'Graphene-Aurora Program' has been launched in collaboration with
which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Education
51. Union Minister Parshottam Rupala launched the 'A-Help' program in which
state?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Gujarat
52. Recently scientists of which institute of India have discovered a new star?
(a) Indian Institute of Astrophysics
(b) C-DAC
(c) Indian Astrobiology Research Centre
(d) None of these
53. In which city is the G20 Film Festival being organized?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Jaipur
54. Nehru Memorial Museum and Library has been renamed as?
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(a) PM Museum and Library

(b) Gandhi Memorial Museum and Library
(c) Patel Museum and Library
(d) None of these
55. How many gallantry awards have been approved by the President on the
occasion of 77th Independence Day?
(a) 76
(b) 77
(c) 78
(d) 79
56. In which city the warship 'INS Vindhyagiri' was inaugurated by President
Draupadi Murmu?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) Visakhapatnam
57. India has signed MoU with which country to share 'India Stack'?
(a) Kenya
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Trinidad and Tobago
(d) Maldives
58. The Union Cabinet has approved the expansion of 'Digital India Project' with an
outlay of Rs.
(a) 14,103 crores
(b) 14,503 crores
(c) 14,903 crores
(d) 15000 crores
59. Where is the Youth 20 Summit being organized under the G20 Presidency of
India?
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(a) Patna
(b) Varanasi
(c) Jaipur
(d) Kolkata
60. Who has been appointed as the new Managing Director of Life Insurance
Corporation of India?
(a) Ajay Kumar
(b) Ashok Sinha
(c) R Doraiswamy
(d) Awadhesh Puri
61. Which Indian athlete has been banned for 4 years for doping?
(a) Hima Das
(b) Annu Rani
(c) Dutee Chand
(d) Deepika Sinha
62. India's first 3D printed post office building has been inaugurated in which city?
(a) Bangalore
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
63. Who has become the fourth Indian to win a gold medal in the U20 World
Championships?
(a) Deepak Punia
(b) Mohit Kumar
(c) Ravi Dahiya
(d) Palwinder Cheema
64. How many Indian youths have been nominated for the International Young Eco-
Hero Award 2023?
(a) 2
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
65. Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services has launched which app
for seafarers?
(a) SETHUSAMUDRAM
(b) SAMUDRA
(c) MAHASAGAR
(d) SAGAR
66. Who has become the second Indian wrestler to win a gold medal at the U20
World Wrestling Championships?
(a) Priya Malik
(b) Shreya Malik
(c) Antim Panghal
(d) Vinesh Phogat
67. Who was honored with the first 'Udyog Ratna' award instituted by the
Government of Maharashtra?
(a) Ratan Tata
(b) Mukesh Ambani
(c) Gautam Adani
(d) Adar Poonawala
68. Which Indian won the gold medal in the under-17 category of the Asian Junior
Squash Championship?
(a) Aditi Sinha
(b) Ankita Raina
(c) Anahat Singh
(d) Mohini Singh
69. Which country has won the FIFA Women's World Cup 2023 title?
(a) Argentina
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(b) Brazil
(c) England
(d) Spain
70. In which research institute the new variety of lotus flower 'NAMOH 108' has
been developed?
(a) National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow
(b) FSSAI
(c) National Botanical Research Institute, Howrah
(d) none of these
71. What rank did India secure in the 16th International Olympiad of Astronomy and
Astrophysics?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
72. The 15th summit of the BRICS group is being held under the chairmanship of
which country?
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) China
(d) South Africa
73. In which state has the Mukhyamantri Sikho-Kamao Yojana been launched?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Bihar
74. Who has become the second Indian to reach the final of Chess World Cup?
(a) Krishnan Sasikiran
(b) Nihal Sarin
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(c) R. Praggnanandha
(d) Pentala Harikrishna
75. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency has signed an MoU with which
ministry?
(a) Ministry of Education
(b) Ministry of Mines
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Defense
76. Who has been appointed as the new Chief Justice of Nepal?
(a) Bishombhar Prasad Shrestha
(b) Rambaran Yadav
(c) Pushpa Kamal Dahal 'Prachanda'
(d) None of these
77. Who launched the Bharat New Car Assessment Program (Bharat NCAP)?
(a) Amit Shah
(b) Rajnath Singh
(c) Nitin Gadkari
(d) Smriti Irani
78. Where was the 20th ASEAN-India Economic Ministers' Meeting held?
(a) Malaysia
(b) India
(c) Indonesia
(d) Thailand
79. Who has been selected as the National Icon by the Election Commission of India?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) Saurabh Ganguly
80. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of the National Green Tribunal?
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(a) Justice Prakash Srivastava

(b) Justice Umesh Sinha
(c) Justice Ramesh Kumar Singh
(d) Justice Deepak Kumar Mishra
81. What name has ISRO given to the rover sent with Chandrayaan-3 mission?
(a) Vikram
(b) Gyan Ganga
(c) Jigyasha
(d) Pragyan
82. Indian Coast Guard has signed an MoU with which country to enhance maritime
cooperation?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Philippines
(c) France
(d) Germany
83. Who has been elected as the new Prime Minister of Thailand?
(a) Chan-o-cha used
(b) Shretha Thavisin
(c) Yingluck Shinawatra
(d) None of these
84. Khelo India Women's League has been renamed as?
(a) Jagrati Mahila League
(b) Asmita Mahila League
(c) Kiran Mahila League
(d) Beti Mahila League
85. Who won the title of Chess World Cup 2023?
(a) Viswanathan Anand
(b) Levon Aronian
(c) Magnus Carlsen
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(d) R. Praggnananda
86. BRICS has recently invited how many new countries to join the group?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
87. Who is the project director of Chandrayaan-3 mission launched by ISRO?
(a) S Somnath
(b) S. Unnikrishnan Nair
(c) M Sankaran
(d) P Veeramuthuvel
88. Which country has become the first country in the world to reach the South Pole
of the Moon?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) South Korea
89. ISSF World Championship 2023 Which shooter of India has won gold medal?
(a) Rituraj Singh
(b) Amanpreet Singh
(c) Saurabh Chaudhary
(d) None of the Above
90. What is the name of the Invoice Incentive Scheme launched by the Government
of India recently?
(a) 'Mera Bill Mera Haque'
(b) 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar'
(c) 'Mera Bill Nai Pahal'
(d) None of these
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
91. Which city has got the first position in the '10 lakh population' category of the
Clean Air Survey-2023?
(a) Indore
(b) Bhopal
(c) Agra
(d) Jaipur
92. Neeraj Chopra has qualified for Paris Olympics 2024 with a throw of how many
metres?
(a) 88.77 Meters
(b) 88.55 Meters
(c) 88.00 Meters
(d) 88.33 Meters
93. Which film won the Best Feature Film Award at the 69th National Film Awards?
(a) Sardar Udham Singh
(b) Rocketry
(c) The Kashmir Files
(d) Gangubai Kathiawadi
94. President Smt. Draupadi Murmu released a postal stamp in whose memory?
(a) Parkash Singh Badal
(b) Arun Jaitley
(c) Grandmother Prakashmani
(d) none of these
95. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited has tied up with whom to explore business
opportunities in the civil aviation sector?
(a) Go Air
(b) Air India
(c) Hevas Aerotech India
(d) Indigo
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
96. Who has become the first Indian to win a gold medal in the World Athletics
Championships?
(a) Neeraj Chopra
(b) DP Manu
(c) Kishore Jena
(d) Rohit Yadav
97. Who has been appointed as the first woman field director of Kaziranga National
Park?
(a) Rita Chauhan
(b) Dr. Sonali Ghosh
(c) Aditi Sinha
(d) Premlata Thakur
98. Which Indian player won the bronze medal in the World Badminton
Championship 2023?
(a) Shrikant Kidambi
(b) Lakshya Sen
(c) H. S. Prannoy
(d) Parupalli Kashyap
99. Which country has created a new Asian record in the men's 4x400m relay team
event at the World Athletics Championships?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Bangladesh
100. Which day has been announced to be celebrated as National Space Day?
(a) 22 August
(b) 23 August
(c) 24 August
(d) 25 August
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
101. Who won the Formula One Dutch Grand Prix 2023 award?
(a) Sergio Perez
(b) Max Verstappen
(c) Sebastian Vettel
(d) Fernando Alons
102. FIFA has lifted the ban from which country's football federation with immediate
effect?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Canada
103. In which country the Joint Military Exercise Bright Star-23 will be organized?
(a) France
(b) Turkiye
(c) Qatar
(d) Egypt
104. Which country has hosted the first 'Karnataka Cultural Festival'?
(a) Maldives
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Thailand
(d) Bhutan
105. Who is the President of Zimbabwe who has been re-elected for a second five-
year term?
(a) Emmerson Mnangagwa
(b) Robert Pereiro
(c) Jacob Zuma
(d) None of these
106. When is National Sports Day celebrated annually in India?
(a) 27 August
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(b) 28 August
(c) 29 August
(d) 30 August
107. Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited has tied up with which state for a 28.12
MW green energy project?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Himachal Pradesh
108. Who won the title of Miss Earth India 2023?
(a) Priyan Sen
(b) Vanshika Parmar
(c) Sweta Sharda
(d) Rakhi Kapoor
109. In which city will the Miss World 2023 event be organized?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Kashmir
110. The amount of Chief Minister Kanya Sumangala Yojana has been increased, it is
related to which state?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Madhya Pradesh
111. When is World Sanskrit Day celebrated every year?
(a) 28 August
(b) 29 August
(c) 30 August
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(d) 31 August
112. Warship 'Mahendragiri' has been built by which Shipbuilders Limited?
(a) Goa Shipyard Limited
(b) Cochin Shipyard Limited
(c) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
(d) ABG Shipyard Limited
113. Which region is unique for the cultivation of Chokuwa rice and its award of the
GI tag?
(a) Ganges River region
(b) Brahmaputra River region
(c) Indus River region
(d) Yamuna River region
114. Which city has been recognized as the best city in the India Smart Cities Awards
2022?
(a) Surat
(b) Agra
(c) Indore
(d) Coimbatore
115. What is the main focus of the Kampala Ministerial Declaration?
(a) Economic development in Africa
(b) Human rights protection for migrants
(c) Addressing climate-induced migration challenges
(d) Promoting international trade agreements
116. The Hubble Space Telescope is renowned for its ability to provide high-resolution
images of celestial objects. It operates primarily in which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Radio waves
(b) Infrared
(c) Ultraviolet
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(d) Visible light

117. Where was the successful testing of the ‘Nabhmitra’ device conducted?
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Neendakara
118. The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet, led by Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath, has approved
the establishment of how many ‘Atal Residential Schools’ across the state’s
divisions?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
119. When was the first-ever International Day for People of African Origin observed
by the United Nations?
(a) August 31, 2020
(b) September 10, 2021
(c) August 15, 2021
(d) August 31, 2021
120. What is the popular name given to the rice variety recently granted the
Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
(a) Heritage Rice
(b) Ahom Rice
(c) Magic Rice
(d) Glutinous Rice
121. What role will “Vyommitra” play in the Gaganyaan mission?
(a) Spacecraft pilot
(b) Mission commander
(c) Female astronaut
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
(d) Space-faring humanoid robot

122. How many astronauts are expected to participate in the manned mission of the
Gaganyaan project?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
123. Which web portal complements the Khanan Prahari App in curbing illegal coal
mining?
(a) Coal Surveillance App
(b) Mineral Management Portal
(c) Mining Watchdog System
(d) Coal Mine Surveillance & Management System (CMSMS)
124. Where were the BWF World Badminton Championships 2023 held?
(a) Beijing, China
(b) Tokyo, Japan
(c) Bangkok, Thailand
(d) Copenhagen, Denmark
125. Who won the Dutch Grand Prix in 2023 for the third consecutive year?
(a) Lewis Hamilton
(b) Sebastian Vettel
(c) Max Verstappen
(d) Fernando Alonso
126. Where is Exercise BRIGHT STAR-23 taking place?
(a) New Delhi, India
(b) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
(c) Athens, Greece
(d) Cairo (West) Air Base, Egypt
127. When is the International Day Against Nuclear Tests observed every year?
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(a) 15 August
(b) 22 September
(c) 29 August
(d) 5 July
128. Which countries are part of the BRICS economic alliance?
(a) Brazil, Russia, India, Canada, Australia
(b) Belgium, Romania, Iran, China, South Africa
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa
(d) Britain, Russia, Italy, China, Sweden
129. Where did the Ninth India Region Conference of the Commonwealth
Parliamentary Association (CPA) take place?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Jaipur
(d) Udaipur
130. What is the main objective of the Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodaraste Scheme
initiated by the Maharashtra government?
(a) Enhancing urban infrastructure
(b) Promoting industrial growth
(c) Improving healthcare services
(d) Connecting tribal villages to main roads
131. What is the primary focus of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed
between India and Trinidad and Tobago?
(a) Environmental conservation
(b) Military cooperation
(c) Sharing INDIA STACK technology
(d) Economic trade agreements
132. Who has been elected as the chair of the 13th Ministerial Conference of the
World Trade Organization (WTO) to be held in Abu Dhabi in February 2024?
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(a) Dr. Thani Al Zeyoudi

(b) Thuraiya Hamid Alhashmi
(c) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
(d) Thani Al Zeyoudi
133. The New Development Bank (NDB) was established by which group of countries?
(a) G7
(b) ASEAN
(c) BRICS
(d) NAFTA
134. The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill 2023 aims to expand the scope of the
Forest (Conservation) Act enacted in which year?
(a) 1972
(b) 1980
(c) 1992
(d) 2002
135. The child helpline is being integrated with which Emergency Response Support
System (ERSS) pan-India number?
(a) 101
(b) 112
(c) 1200
(d) 1800
136. What is the name of the new forum created by OpenAI, Microsoft, Google, and
Anthropic?
(a) Frontier Model Forum
(b) Learning Model Forum
(c) Knowledge Model Forum
(d) Public Model Forum
137. Micron is set to establish India’s first semiconductor plant in which state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
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(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
138. Which Indian city is the host of the ‘SemiconIndia 2023 conference’?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Gandhi Nagar
139. Where is the ‘World Police and Fire Games 2023’ held?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) Japan
(d) Canada
140. Who is the highest goal scorer with headers in football history, as of 2023?
(a) Lionel Messi
(b) Cristiano Ronaldo
(c) Gerd Muller
(d) Kylian Mbappé
141. ICAR is an autonomous organisation under which Union Ministry?
(a) Ministry of MSME
(b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
142. Iceberg Alley, which was seen in the news, is located in which country?
(a) Ukraine
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
143. Which Union Ministry has launched the ‘Company Law Committee (CLC)’?
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(a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of MSME
(d) Ministry of Justice
144. As per recent Home Ministry data, which state recorded the most number of
missing girls between 2019 and 2021?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Manipur
(d) Uttarakhand
145. Which country launched the ‘Silk Roadster’ platform?
(a) Pakistan
(b) China
(c) Ukraine
(d) South Africa
146. Which country has organised the ‘Ocean Shield-2023’ in the Baltic Sea?
(a) Russia
(b) Ukraine
(c) USA
(d) Japan
147. Which Union Ministry is associated with ‘Digital Personal Data Protection Bill,
2023’?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
148. Which country’s researchers achieved net energy gain in a nuclear fusion
reaction for the second time?
(a) China
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(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Israel
148. The oldest fossilized remains of a plant-eating dinosaur ‘Tharosaurus indicus’ has
been found in which Indian state?
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Gujarat
149. Which Indian state is adopting an Early Warning System to reduce Student
Dropout?
(a) Goa
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Odisha
150. Where is the ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) located?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Mahendra Giri
(c) Cochin
(d) Sikkim
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Practice Paper - 1
Current Affairs (July & August) –2023
Answers and explanations
Q.N. Ans. Explanations

1. B PM Modi has been awarded the Lokmanya Tilak National Award in Pune. The
award was instituted in 1983 by the Tilak Smarak Mandir Trust. This award is
given every year on August 1, the death anniversary of Lokmanya Tilak. The
Prime Minister has become the 41st recipient of this award.
2. D As part of India's G20 Presidency, the G20 EMPOWER Summit is being organized
in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. On this occasion, Union Women and Child Development
Minister Smriti Irani launched the G20 Empower Digital Inclusion Platform. The
theme of the two-day conference is "Women-led development: ensuring
sustainable, inclusive and equitable global economic growth".
3. D Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the logo, slogan and
mobile application of 'ULLAS: New India Literacy Program' in Delhi. The ULLAS
(Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society) initiative has been launched
to strengthen basic literacy. This app can be downloaded from Google Playstore
or iOS App Store.
4. C Formula One champion Max Verstappen has won the Belgian Grand Prix for the
eighth time in a row. This is also his 10th overall win of this season. He was 22.3
seconds ahead of his teammate Sergio Perez. Ferrari driver Charles Leclerc
finished third in this race.
5. C World Lung Cancer Day is celebrated every year on 1 August all over the world. It
was started in the year 2012. This day is organized to raise awareness about the
deadly lung disease. Lung cancer cases in India may increase from 1.46 million in
2022 to 1.57 million in 2025.
6. A Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) launched seven satellites of Singapore
with PSLV-C56 (PSLV-C56) rocket from Satish Dhawan Space Center in
Sriharikota. ISRO told that 23 minutes after the launch, the rocket was separated
from the satellites. ISRO said, this was the 58th launch of PSLV and 17th launch
of PSLV in core alone configuration.
7. C The 7th Hockey Men's Asian Champions Trophy began in Chennai. A total of six
teams are participating in this tournament which includes India, Pakistan, South
Korea, Japan, China and Malaysia. This tournament will be held till 10 threes. The
Men's Asian Champions Trophy is organized annually by the Asian Hockey
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Federation since 2011.

8. A Minority Affairs Minister Smriti Irani told in the Lok Sabha that about 1 lakh 20
thousand minority students have benefited under the Naya Savera Scheme.
'Naya Savera Yojana' is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
The scheme provides special coaching facilities for admission to various courses.
This scheme has been launched for students belonging to Sikh, Jain, Muslim,
Christian, Buddhist and Parsi communities.
9. A Bharat Dynamics Limited has handed over the first Radio Frequency (RF) Seeker
of Akash to DRDO built at its state-of-the-art Seeker Facility. The seeker is an
important subsystem used in surface-to-air and air-to-air missiles for target
tracking in the terminal phase. Bharat Dynamics Limited was established in 1970
at Hyderabad.
10. A Indian-American Shohini Sinha has been appointed as the field chief of the FBI in
Salt Lake City. Sinha most recently served as Executive Special Assistant to the
Director at FBI Headquarters in Washington, DC. She joined the FBI in 2001 as a
special agent.
11. D Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) and Center for Development of
Telematics (C-DOT) have signed MoU to establish technical and institutional
cooperation mechanism in Telecom. TRAI is a regulatory body established under
the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Its headquarter is located in
New Delhi.
12. B Jasprit Bumrah has been made the captain of the Indian team for the three-
match T20I series to be held in Ireland in mid-August. BCCI recently announced
the 16-member squad. Karnataka's famous fast bowler Krishna and Rinku Singh,
who performed brilliantly in IPL, have also been included in the team. At the
same time, Rituraj Gaikwad has been made the vice-captain of the team.
13. C Leaving behind Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand, 17-year-old Grandmaster
Gukesh D has become India's number 1 chess player. Gukesh has left behind
Anand in the live ratings of Classic Chess. Gukesh is also the third Indian after
Anand and Pantala Harikrishna to enter the world's top 10. Viswanathan Anand
has slipped in the live world rankings only twice since 1986.
14. A Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan and External Affairs Minister Dr. S.
Jaishankar jointly launched the Study in India (SII) portal in New Delhi. The portal
is a one-stop platform that will simplify education for international students in
India. With its help, comprehensive information about Indian higher education
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institutions can be obtained.

15. B The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has launched an integrated
mobile application 'Rajmargyatra'. It aims to provide comprehensive information
and a better grievance redressal facility to the National Highway users. Fastag
services have been added to this app.
16. A Smartphone processor maker Qualcomm on August 3 appointed Savi Soin as the
President of Qualcomm India. Along with this, he will also hold the post of Senior
Vice President of Qualcomm India. Rajen Vagadia was the President of
Qualcomm India for the last five years. Qualcomm is an American multinational
company.
17. A The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has launched an
application 'MASI' (Monitoring App for Seamless Inspection-MASI) - Monitoring
App for real time monitoring of Child Care Institutions (CCIs) and their inspection
system across the country. Women and Child Development Minister Smriti Irani
said that since 2014, 27,085 children have been adopted.
18. A Recently, National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) has launched JALDOST airboat.
It is an airboat that moves on water, it is designed to remove floating waste in
water. The National Aerospace Laboratories is a part of the Council of Scientific
and Industrial Research (CSIR), established in the year 1959.
19. C King Norodom Sihamoni of Cambodia has appointed Hun Manet, the son of
former Prime Minister Hun Sen, as the new Prime Minister of the country. By
issuing a royal decree by the King, for the 7th mandate of the Parliament, Dr.
Hun Manet was appointed Prime Minister of Cambodia. During the Cambodian
elections 2023, the Cambodian People's Party of Hun Sen's party won a major
victory. Cambodia is a Southeast Asian country.
20. A Prarthana Thombare has won the doubles title in the women's tennis hardcourt
event in Barcelona, Spain. The Asian Games bronze medalist teamed up with
Russia's Anastasia Tikhonova to beat France's Estelle Cassino and Latvia's Diana
Marcinkevica in the final. This is the second title of the year and 26th overall for
Prarthana. Prarthana had won a bronze medal in Incheon in 2014 along with
Sania Mirza.
21. D Maharashtra's 17-year-old Aditi Gopichand Swamy has become the youngest
world champion in the individual event in the senior category in archery. She is
ranked 30th in women's compound archery and had won the Junior World
Championship title two months back. Aditi's father is a mathematics teacher in a
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government school.
22. C National Handloom Day is celebrated every year on 7th August in India. Its
objective is to promote the handloom industry. This year the nation is
celebrating the 9th National Handloom Day. The day was first organized by the
Government of India on August 7, 2015 in Chennai. The Swadeshi movement
was started on August 7, 1905 as an important aspect of India's freedom
struggle.
23. C Ministry of Railways has prepared a new policy for modernization of railway
stations under 'Amrit Bharat Station' scheme. Under this, 508 railway stations
across India will be developed as world class stations. PM Modi recently started
this scheme. The total cost of this scheme is more than Rs 25,000 crore. These
include 55-55 stations in UP and Rajasthan, 49 in Bihar, 44 in Maharashtra, 34 in
MP, 25 in Odisha, 22 in Punjab, 21-21 in Gujarat and Telangana, 20 in Jharkhand
and 15 in Haryana.
24. B National Javelin Day is celebrated every year on 7th August in India to
commemorate an important day in Indian athletics history. On this day during
the 2021 Tokyo Olympics, Neeraj Chopra won the first individual gold medal in
athletics. The Athletics Federation of India, established in 1946, is the governing
body of athletics sports in India. Its headquarter is located in New Delhi.
25. B Bharatvanshi Vaibhav Taneja has been appointed as the new Chief Financial
Officer (CFO) of electric vehicle manufacturer Tesla. Vaibhav Taneja will replace
Tesla CFO Zachary Kirkhorn as his new responsibility. Prior to this, Vaibhav was
leading the accounting department. Vaibhav Taneja is a commerce graduate
from the prestigious Delhi University in India. Before starting work with Tesla, he
was associated with SolarCity Corporation and PricewaterhouseCoopers (PwC).
26. A Indian young batsman Tilak Verma has become the second youngest Indian to
score a fifty in the history of men's T20I cricket. Tilak Verma achieved this feat in
the second T20I against West Indies. Tilak Verma played a brilliant inning of 51
runs in 41 balls. The record of scoring the youngest half-century in the history of
T20I cricket is in the name of Indian team captain Rohit Sharma. He scored his
first half-century at the age of 20 years and 143 days.
27. C Sports Authority of India (SAI) has launched a short film series 'Halla Bol' on the
journey of athletes going to the Asian Games under the umbrella program
'Cheer4India'. Under this campaign, the athletes participating in the Hangzhou
Asian Games will be made aware and motivated about the Asian Games. SAI said
that a total of 12 short films will be screened in the coming weeks.
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28. A The latest edition of Exercise Malabar will begin in Australian waters from August
11-21, in which navies of the United States, Japan, India and Australia will
participate. Australia is going to host the Malabar Exercise for the first time.
Malabar Exercise was started in 1992 between India and America. Japan joined
this exercise in 2015. After this, from 2020, the Australian Navy also started
participating in it.
29. B World No. 1 men's doubles pair Pramod Bhagat and Sukant Kadam defeated
compatriots Deep Ranjan Bisoyee and Manoj Sarkar to win gold in the SL3-SL4
category at the Four Nations Para-Badminton International-2023 in Sheffield,
England. Bhagat also won a silver medal in the singles SL3 category and a silver
medal in the mixed doubles SL3-SU5 category with Manisha Ramdas. And
'Kadam' won the bronze medal in the single SL4 category.
30. C The Union Cabinet has allocated Rs 1.39 lakh crore for the last-mile broadband
connectivity scheme for 6.4 lakh villages across the country under the BharatNet
project. At present, about 1.94 lakh villages have been connected under the
BharatNet project. This connectivity is being provided by Bharat Broadband
Network Limited (BBNL) which is a branch of BSNL.
31. A Olympic champion javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra will once again lead the Indian
contingent at the World Athletics Championships starting in Budapest, Hungary
from August 19. India will field a 28-member team in the World Athletics
Championships. Shot putter Tajinderpal Singh Toor has withdrawn his name
from the championship due to a back injury.
32. B Countrywide 'Meri Mati Mera Desh' campaign has been started to pay tribute to
the martyred brave soldiers of the country. This campaign will continue till 30th
of this month. This will include programs at the national, state, block and village
levels as well as local urban bodies. PM Modi had recently announced this
campaign during the 'Mann Ki Baat' program broadcast on All India Radio.
33. C India is going to launch a BRICS Startup Forum this year to establish cooperation
between investors, incubators and entrepreneurs. India's Commerce and
Industry Minister Piyush Goyal announced this during the 7th BRICS Industry
Ministers' meeting held virtually with South Africa. BRICS is a group of Brazil,
Russia, India, China and South Africa.
34. A IRS officer Sanjay Kumar Agarwal has taken charge as the chairman of the
Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC). Aggarwal succeeds Vivek
Johri who retired as CBIC chief on May 31. CBIC is a statutory body under the
Ministry of Finance.
35. B Army Chief General Manoj Pandey has left for UK on a five-day visit. Apart from
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attending a prestigious military event, he will hold talks with top British defense
officials on bilateral strategic issues. General Pandey will also review the 201st
Sovereign Parade of Commissioning Course at the prestigious Royal Military
Academy, Sandhurst.
36. B Justice Subhasis Talapatra was sworn in as the Chief Justice of the Orissa High
Court. Odisha Governor Professor Ganeshi Lal administered the oath of office to
the new Chief Justice at a ceremony in the Orissa High Court premises. Justice
Subhassis Talapatra succeeded Justice S Muralidhar as the 33rd Chief Justice of
the Orissa High Court.
37. B The Government of Rajasthan, headed by Ashok Gehlot has recently announced
a new scheme known as the Indira Gandhi free smartphone Yojana 2023.
Under the scheme, the state Government will provide internet and voice call
services with a free mobile phone for all the women in the state of Rajasthan.
The state is aiming to distribute a total of 40 Lakh phones in the first round of the
scheme.
38. A Rajouri Chikri woodcraft of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir has been
granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Along with this, GI tag has also
been given to Mushqbudji variety of rice of Anantnag district of the state. GI Tag
is the short form of Geographical Indications in India. GI tags are given to both
natural or man-made products.
39. D India has secured the sixth position in the South Asian region with an overall
score of 43 per cent in the Internet Resilience Index. Countries like Bhutan (58
percent), Bangladesh (51 percent), Maldives (50 percent), Sri Lanka (47 percent)
and Nepal (43 percent) are ahead of India in this ranking. This ranking has been
prepared by the Internet Society.
40. C Airtel Payments Bank has become the first Indian bank to launch eco-friendly
debit card for its new and existing customers having savings bank account. This
debit card is made from R-PVC material which is a certified eco-friendly material.
Airtel Payments Bank has launched two cards in the Classic variant, which
include the Personalized Classic Card and the Insta Classic Card.
41. B World Lion Day is celebrated every year on 10 August across the world. Its
purpose is to promote awareness about the conservation of lions. World Lion
Day was celebrated for the first time in 2013. World Lion Day is being celebrated
in Gujarat through various programs. Gir National Park in Gujarat is the only
natural habitat of Asiatic lions in the world.
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42. A Jammu and Kashmir Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha has inaugurated the 9th
India International MSME Expo and Summit 2023 in New Delhi. More than 40
exhibitors from Jammu and Kashmir participated in this expo. Along with this,
the Lieutenant Governor also inaugurated a District One Product (ODOP) box of
Jammu and Kashmir.
43. D The Kerala Assembly has passed a resolution urging the Center to change the
name of the state to "Keralam" in the constitution and all office records. The
resolution moved by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan was passed unanimously.
There are many theories about the origin of the name 'Kerala'. The earliest
epigraphic record to mention Kerala is Emperor Ashoka's Edict II of 257 BC.
44. D Jio Haptik has been awarded the Tech Startup of the Year (Artificial Intelligence)
award at the 13th Annual Entrepreneur India Awards. Aakriti Vaish is the CEO
and co-founder of Jio Haptic. This award was organized by Entrepreneur India.
The Entrepreneur India Awards recognize the country's most innovative
entrepreneurs and businesses across various sectors.
45. B India's first post office near LoC has been inaugurated in Kupwara district of
Jammu and Kashmir. This post office is located on the banks of the Kishanganga
River near the Line of Actual Control (LoC). Pin code of this post office is 193224.
46. C The first Indian mission Aditya-L1 (Aditya-L1) sent by ISRO to study the Sun will
be launched next month. It was told by ISRO that the satellite prepared at UR
Rao Satellite Centre, Bengaluru has been delivered to Sriharikota Spaceport in
Andhra Pradesh. This satellite will be installed in the Halo orbit near the
Lagrange point L1 of the Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5 million kilometers
from the Earth.
47. A The Indian men's hockey team has won the title by defeating Malaysia 4-3 in the
final of the Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2023 at the Mayor Radhakrishnan
Stadium in Chennai. With this win, India became the most successful team in the
Asian Champions Trophy, surpassing three-time champions Pakistan. This was
India's fourth title.
48. B India's young batsman Tilak Verma has set a new record for hitting most sixes for
India in T20Is at the age of 20 or less. He has hit 7 sixes in T20Is so far. Earlier this
record was in the name of Indian captain Rohit Sharma who had hit 4 sixes for
India at the age of 20 or less.
49. B The first of its kind Global Summit on Traditional Medicine, organized by the
World Health Organization (WHO) and co-hosted by the Ministry of AYUSH, will
be held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat on August 17-18, 2023. In the year 2022, WHO
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established the Global Centre for Traditional Medicine in collaboration with the
Government of India.
50. B Alkesh Kumar Sharma, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology, launched the 'Graphene-Aurora Program' at a function held at
Maker Village, Kochi, Kerala. This program has been launched in collaboration
with Digital University Kerala, Ministry of Electronics & IT and Government of
Kerala. A budget of Rs 94.85 crore has been kept for this programme. With its
help, the emerging graphene technology and innovation ecosystem will be
promoted.
51. D Union Animal Husbandry and Dairying Minister Parshottam Rupala launched the
'A-HELP' (Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production)
program along with infertility camps in the state of Gujarat. The Union Ministry
has started this initiative as part of the 'Pashudhan Jagruti Abhiyan'.
52. A Scientists at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) in Bengaluru have
discovered a new star. Scientists have named this star HE 1005-1439. Scientists
have classified this new star as Carbon-Enhanced-Metal-Poor (CEMP). The
spectrograph (HDS) attached to the SUBARU telescope was used to analyze the
star's chemical composition.
53. C The G20 Film Festival is being organized in New Delhi from 16 August. The
festival has been started with Satyajit Ray's Pather Panchali. The festival is being
organized by the India International Center and the G20 Secretariat of the
Ministry of External Affairs. It was inaugurated by actor Victor Banerjee and
India's G20 Sherpa Amitabh Kant. This film festival will run on 2 September.
54. A Nehru Memorial Museum and Library (NMML) has been officially renamed as
Prime Minister's Museum and Library Society. The Nehru Memorial Museum was
established in 1964 on the 75th birth anniversary of Nehru. The decision was
taken in a special meeting of the NMML Society chaired by Defense Minister
Rajnath Singh.
55. A The President has approved 76 gallantry awards, including nine posthumous, to
armed forces and CAPF personnel on the eve of 77th Independence Day. These
include four Kirti Chakras (posthumously), 11 Shaurya Chakras including five
posthumously, two Sena Medals (gallantry), 52 Sena Medals (gallantry), 3 Navy
Medals (gallantry) and four Vayu Sena Medals (gallantry).
56. B President Draupadi Murmu inaugurated India's latest warship, INS Vindhyagiri, at
the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) facility in Kolkata.
Vindhyagiri is the name of the third ship being built by GRSE for the Indian Navy.
The first five ships of the P17 project are being launched between 2019 and
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2022. GRSE is one of the major shipyards in India.

57. C India and Trinidad and Tobago have signed an MoU to share India Stack. India
Stack is a collection of open APIs and digital public goods. It aims to facilitate
identity, data and payment services on a large scale. Trinidad and Tobago is a
Caribbean country, its capital is Port of Spain.
58. C The Union Cabinet approved the expansion of the Digital India project with an
outlay of Rs 14,903 crore. In the cabinet meeting chaired by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi, the expansion of Digital India program was approved. Nine more
supercomputers will be added under the National Supercomputing Mission
under the expanded Digital India project.
59. B The four-day Youth 20 Summit under India's G20 Presidency began today in
Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. It is being organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and
Sports. Five identified themes of Y20 will be discussed during this summit.
Significantly, this year India is presiding over the G20 group.
60. C The Central Government has appointed R Doraiswamy as the new Managing
Director of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC). He will assume his charge on
September 1, 2023 and will remain on this post till his retirement on August 31,
2026. LIC is an Indian multinational public sector life insurance company,
established in 1956, headquartered in Mumbai.
61. C Indian sprinter Dutee Chand has been banned for four years in December 2022
for failing two out-of-competition dope tests for selective androgen receptor
modulator. This ban on 29-year-old Dutee Chand will be effective from January
3, 2023 and will remain till January 3, 2027. The Anti-Doping Disciplinary Panel
(ADDP) has taken this decision. Dutee won two silver medals in the 2018 Asian
Games.
62. A Union Minister for Railways, Communications and IT Ashwini Vaishnav
inaugurated India's first 3D printed post office building in Bengaluru. 3D printing
technology was used in the post office building in Bengaluru with technical
know-how from IIT Madras and L&T.
63. B Indian wrestler Mohit Kumar created history by winning the Under-20 World
Championship title in the men's 61 kg freestyle category in Amman City, Jordan.
Mohit defeated Eldar Akhmadudinov of Russia in the final. He has become the
fourth Indian freestyle wrestler to win the Junior World Championship. Before
Mohit, Palwinder Cheema and Ramesh Kumar in 2001 and Deepak Punia in 2019
have won gold medals in the U20 World Championships.
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64. D Five youths from India have been named among 17 teenage environmental
activists from around the world for the International Young Eco-Hero Award
2023. These youth have taken the initiative to tackle the world's most pressing
environmental challenges. The International Young Eco-Hero Awards Program
recognizes adolescents between the ages of 8 and 16 who have made efforts to
address the most pressing environmental issues.
65. B Recently, the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has
launched a new mobile application called Samudra (SAMUDRA) for the boaters
and fishing community. It is a state-of-the-art app that helps users navigate the
marine area for their safety and fishing operations. The Indian National Center
for Ocean Information Services was established in 1999 as an autonomous body
under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
66. A Indian wrestler Priya Malik won the gold medal at the 2023 U20 World Wrestling
Championships in Jordan. Priya has become the second female wrestler from
India to win the U20 World Championship title. Last year, Panghal was the first
woman from India to win the junior world title in wrestling. Priya Malik defeated
Laura Celine Kuehn of Germany in the final of women's 76 kg freestyle wrestling.
67. A Renowned industrialist Ratan Tata was honoured with the first 'Udyog Ratna'
award instituted by the Government of Maharashtra. Chief Minister Eknath
Shinde, Deputy Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis and Ajit Pawar were present
on the occasion. In the financial year 2021-22, the combined revenue of Tata
companies was $ 128 billion.
68. C India's Anahat Singh won the gold medal in the Under-17 category at the Asian
Junior Squash Individual Championship held in Dalian, China. This tournament
was organized from 16 to 20 August. He had won his first gold medal in last
year's edition held in Thailand. Anahat Singh was born on 13 March 2008 in
Delhi.
69. D Spain has won the title of FIFA Women's World Cup 2023 Final. In the final, the
women's team of Spain registered a historic victory by defeating England 1-0.
Spain's women's football team has become the world champion for the first
time.
70. A Union Science and Technology Minister Jitendra Singh unveiled a new variety of
lotus flower with 108 petals 'NaMoh 108'. This variety of lotus has been
developed by the National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI) located in
Lucknow. Flowers of 'NBRI Namoh 108' variety of lotus bloom from March to
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December and this is the first flower of this variety.

71. B India has secured the second rank in the 16th International Olympiad of
Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA) to be held in Chorzow, Poland from 10 to 20
August 2023. India won four gold and one silver medal. United Kingdom secured
the first position with five gold. A total of 236 students from 50 countries
participated in this Olympiad, and collectively won 27 gold, 41 silver and 50
bronze medals in all categories.
72. D The 15th summit of the BRICS grouping of the world's major emerging
economies - Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa - is being held in
Johannesburg from August 22 to 24, hosted by South Africa. Indian Prime
Minister Narendra Modi has reached South Africa to participate in it. This is the
first in-person BRICS summit after three consecutive years of virtual meetings
due to the COVID-19 pandemic. The first BRICS summit was organized in the year
2009. Brazil, Russia, India and China are its founding members.
73. A Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan has launched the Chief
Minister's Seekho-Kamao scheme in the state. Under this scheme, on-the-job
training is being provided on the lines of 'learn and earn along with skill
development'. Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan inaugurated the scheme by
distributing contract letters to the youth.
74. C 18-year-old Indian chess player R Praggnanandhaa has become the second
Indian after Viswanathan Anand to reach the final of the Chess World Cup. R
Praggnanandha defeated world number three Grandmaster Fabiano Caruana in
the semi-finals. He will face Magnus Carlsen of Norway in the final. R
Praggnanandhaa has also become the youngest player to reach the final of the
Chess World Cup.
75.
76. A Nepal's President Ram Chandra Paudel appointed Bishombhar Prasad Shrestha
as the Chief Justice of Nepal. Earlier, the parliamentary hearing committee had
unanimously supported Shrestha for the post. Bishombhar Prasad Shrestha has
been appointed for the next 14 months.
77. C Union Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari launched the India
New Car Assessment Program (India NCAP) in New Delhi, which aims to enhance
road safety by raising vehicle safety standards for vehicles up to 3.5 tonnes in
India.
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78. C India participated in the 20th ASEAN-India Economic Ministers' Meeting in

Semarang, Indonesia. Rajesh Agrawal, Additional Secretary, Department of
Commerce, Ministry of Commerce represented India. The main agenda of this
year's meeting was the timely review of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods
Agreement (AITIGA) which was signed in 2009.
79. C The Election Commission of India has designated India's legendary cricketer
Sachin Tendulkar as a National Icon to encourage greater voter participation in
the electoral process. An MoU was signed with Tendulkar in the presence of
Chief Election Commissioner Rajeev Kumar for a period of three years. Last year,
the Commission had recognized actor Pankaj Tripathi as a National Icon.
80. A Former Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court, Justice Prakash Srivastava has
been appointed as the Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT),
replacing Justice AK Goel. The National Green Tribunal has been constituted for
speedy and effective adjudication of matters relating to environmental
protection. It was formed in the year 2010, its headquarter is located in New
Delhi.
81. D Former Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court, Justice Prakash Srivastava has
been appointed as the Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT),
replacing Justice AK Goel. The National Green Tribunal has been constituted for
speedy and effective adjudication of matters relating to environmental
protection. It was formed in the year 2010, its headquarter is located in New
Delhi.
82. B With a view to strengthen bilateral cooperation between India and the
Philippines, the Indian Coast Guard has signed a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) with the Philippine Coast Guard (PCG) of the Philippines. This was the first
bilateral meeting between the two countries on maritime issues. The Indian
Coast Guard is a maritime law enforcement and search-rescue agency of India. It
was formed in 1977.
83. B Srettha Thavisin has been elected as the new Prime Minister of Thailand.
Thavisin's candidature was voted after a five-hour debate in which he won. He is
the head of one of the biggest real estate companies in the country. Thailand is a
Southeast Asian country located in the Indochinese peninsula, its capital is
Bangkok.
84. B Union Youth Affairs and Sports Minister Anurag Singh Thakur has officially
renamed Khelo India Women's League as Asmita Women's League. The Asmita
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Portal serves as a comprehensive resource that provides information on

upcoming leagues.
85. C Norwegian chess player Magnus Carlsen has won the FIDE World Cup title, his
first title. In the final match, Carlsen defeated India's young chess player
Rameshbabu Praggnananda. Magnus Carlsen has also won the World
Championship 5 times. India's Viswanathan Anand and Levon Aronian have won
the FIDE World Cup title 2-2 times.
86. D The group of BRICS countries has invited six new countries to join the group.
These new countries include Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and
the United Arab Emirates. Significantly, this time the BRICS summit has been
hosted by South Africa. The new membership will be effective from January 1,
2024. BRICS currently includes India, Brazil, South Africa, China and Russia.
87. D The project director of the Chandrayaan-3 mission is P Veeramuthuvel, he took
over as the project director of Chandrayaan-3 in the year 2019. Prior to this, he
has served as Deputy Director in Space Infrastructure Program Office of ISRO. P
Veeramuthuvel had earlier played an important role in the Chandrayaan-2
mission. He hails from Villupuram, Tamil Nadu and has studied at the Indian
Institute of Technology Madras (IIT-M).
88. A Creating history, India has become the first country in the world to land a lander
on the south pole of the Moon. Recently Vikram Lander has landed near the
south pole of the Moon. With the successful landing of Chandrayaan-3, India has
become the fourth country in the world to make a soft landing on the moon.
America, China and the former Soviet Union (now Russia) have been successful
in soft landing on the moon. Now India has also joined this list.
89. B Amanpreet Singh won the men’s 25m standard pistol to give India their fifth gold
medal in the ongoing ISSF Shooting World Championship on Wednesday, even as
the women’s standard pistol trio picked up a bronze in the team competition.
90. B Government of India is starting an 'Invoice Promotion Scheme' named 'Mera Bill
Mera Adhikaar' to encourage the initiative of customers seeking bills for all
purchases. It is being taken forward in collaboration with all the state
governments. This pilot scheme will be launched on September 1, 2023. It will be
initially launched in the states of Puducherry, Dadra Nagar Haveli, Daman and
Diu and Assam, Gujarat and Haryana.
91. A In the Clean Air Survey-2023, Indore has secured the first position, Bhopal fifth,
Jabalpur 13th and Gwalior 41st in the category of cities with a population of
more than 10 lakhs. Principal Secretary Environment Gulshan Bamra said that in
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the category of cities with a population of 3 lakh to 10 lakh, Sagar has got 10th
place in the country with 188.0
92. A Olympic champion Neeraj Chopra has qualified for the Paris Olympics 2024 with
his career fourth best throw of 88.77m. The 2024 Paris Olympics qualifying mark
is 85.50 metres.
93. B The 69th National Film Awards have been announced. The Best Actress award
went to Alia Bhatt (Gangubai Kathiawadi) and Kriti Sanon (Mimi). And the Best
Feature Film award was given to Rocketry The Nambi Effect (R Madhavan). Best
Actor Award was given to Allu Arjun for the film Pushpa. The film 'RRR' won the
award for Best Action Direction, Best Special Effects and Best Choreography.
94. C President Smt. Draupadi Murmu released a postal stamp in the memory of
Grandmother Prakashmani, former head of Brahma Kumaris at the Rashtrapati
Bhavan Cultural Centre. This postage stamp was released under the 'My Stamp'
initiative of the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, on the
occasion of the 16th death anniversary of Dadi Prakashmani.
95. C Aircraft services provider Hevas Aerotech India has signed a pilot agreement
with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited to explore business opportunities in the civil
aviation sector, both in the domestic and international markets. Hindustan
Aeronautics Limited is an Indian public sector aerospace and defense company
headquartered in Bangalore.
96. A India's star javelin thrower and golden boy Neeraj Chopra has won the gold
medal in the World Athletics Championship 2023 by performing brilliantly. With
this, Neeraj Chopra has become the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in
the World Athletics Championships. The World Athletics Championship was
organized in Budapest, Hungary. Neeraj has also become the first Indian to win
more than one medal in the Athletics Championships. He won this medal with a
throw of 88.17 meters.
97. B As the first woman Field Director of Kaziranga National Park, Dr. Sonali Ghosh
has been appointed. She will replace Indian Forest Service officer Field Director
Jatindra Sarma who is retiring on August 31. Dr. Sonali will assume her charge
from 01 September. According to a forest department official, she will be the
first woman to take charge as the director of the 118-year-old Kaziranga National
Park.
98. C India's star badminton player H. S. Prannoy has won bronze medal in BWF World
Championship 2023. He has become the fifth Indian to win a medal in the men's
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singles matches of the World Championships. PM Modi has also congratulated

him on his victory. India has so far won one silver and 4 bronze in men's singles
in the history of the World Badminton Championships.
99. A The Indian men's 4x400m relay team produced a stellar performance at the
World Athletics Championships in Budapest, Hungary, setting a new Asian record
and also qualifying for the final in the event. The Indian quartet of Mohd Anas
Yahiya, Amoj Jacob, Mohd Ajmal Variathodi and Rajesh Ramesh finished second
behind USA in the event. The Indian team completed the race in 2 minutes 59.05
seconds, before this record was in the name of Japan.
100. B Prime Minister Narendra Modi has announced to celebrate August 23 as
'National Space Day'. Chandrayaan-3 made a successful soft landing on the South
Pole of the Moon on 23 August. To make this day historic, it has been declared as
National Space Day. Also, the point (surface) of Chandrayaan-3 mission's Vikram
Lander on the Moon's south pole was named as 'Shiv Shakti Point'. The point at
which the hard landing of Chandrayaan-2 took place in 2019 has been named as
'Tiranga' point.
101. B Max Verstappen of the Red Bull team has won the Dutch Grand Prix Formula
One race for the third consecutive year. With this, Verstappen has also equaled
Sebastian Vettel's all-time record of nine consecutive F1 wins. The race was held
on August 27, 2023 at Zandvoort Circuit in Netherlands. At the same time,
Fernando Alonso of the Aston Martin team was second in the race.
102. A FIFA has lifted its ban on the Sri Lankan Football Federation with immediate
effect. FIFA had banned the Football Federation of Sri Lanka on 21 January this
year. This ban was imposed due to violation of FIFA rules by FSL in
administration. Due to these restrictions, the Sri Lankan football team could not
take part in the SAFF Championship 2023 held in July.
103. D Joint Military Exercise Bright Star-23 (BRIGHT STAR- 23) will be organized in
Egypt. In this, armies of 34 countries of the world including India and America
are participating. This military exercise will be conducted from 31st August to
14th of next month at Mohamed Naguib Military Base in Egypt. Bright Star- 23 is
a multinational tri-services joint military exercise which will be led by US
CENTCOM and Egyptian Army.
104. B Sri Lanka hosted its first Karnataka cultural festival. It was organized by the
International Cultural Council of India, Swami Vivekananda Cultural Center and
M.E. Done in collaboration with the Global Peace Foundation. The event marked
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an important moment in the cultural diversity shared cultural heritage of India

and Sri Lanka.
105. A Zimbabwe's President Emmerson Mnangagwa has been re-elected for a second
and final five-year term after the results of Zimbabwe's presidential election
were announced. By the way, there has been a history of irregularities in
elections in Zimbabwe, with the help of which former President Robert Mugabe
remained in power for almost four decades. Zimbabwe is a South African
country, whose capital is Harare.
106. C National Sports Day is celebrated every year on 29 August in India. National
Sports Day in India is celebrated in the memory of the great hockey player Major
Dhyanchand. On this day India's great hockey player Major Dhyanchand was
born in Prayagraj in the year 1905. Major Dhyanchand had given gold medals to
India in the Olympics in the years 1928, 1932 and 1936.
107. C Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited (TPREL) has partnered with Sanyo Special
Steel Manufacturing India Pvt Ltd (SSMI) to set up a 28.12 MW green energy
plant in Maharashtra. TPREL, an arm of Tata Power, has signed a Power Delivery
Agreement (PDA) with Sanyo through TP Alpha Limited. This plant will be set up
at Achegaon in Solapur district of Maharashtra.
108. A Priyan Sen, who hails from Rajasthan, won the Miss Earth India 2023 title during
the Miss Divine Beauty 2023 National Finals held in New Delhi. She was crowned
by Korea's current Miss Earth Mina Soo Choi. While Praveena Anjana was named
Miss International India 2023, both Pema Choden Bhutia and Tejaswini
Srivastava were declared runners-up.
109. D The 71st Miss World 2023 contest will be held in Kashmir later this year, in which
140 countries will participate. Julia Morley, CEO of Miss World Organization has
given information about this. Sini Shetty will represent India in Miss World 2023.
This prestigious international beauty pageant is being organized in India after 27
years.
110. B Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath has announced to increase the
amount fixed for the beneficiaries of Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana
from Rs 15,000 to Rs 25,000. Chief Minister Kanya Sumangala Yojana was started
in the year 2019. Under this scheme, financial assistance is provided to girls to
complete their education and have a better future.
111. D World Sanskrit Day is celebrated globally on 31 August every year.
Congratulating the people, PM Modi said in a social media post that India has a
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very special relationship with Sanskrit. World Sanskrit Day is celebrated in

ancient India to raise awareness about the language used by scholars and sages
in many prestigious books, especially religious teachings.
112. C The warship 'Mahendragiri', built at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited,
Mumbai. It is the seventh stealth frigate under Project 17A of the Indian Navy.
113. B Chokuwa rice is cultivated in the unique geographical area of the Brahmaputra
River region. This region encompasses places like Tinsukia, Dhemaji, and
Dibrugarh in Assam. The distinctiveness of this region contributes to the
uniqueness of Chokuwa rice.
114. C The India Smart Cities Awards 2022 recognized Indore as the best city. The city’s
remarkable track record, including being ranked as the cleanest city in the
Swachh Bharat Mission for six consecutive years, contributed to its recognition
as the best city.
115. C The Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate
Change (KDMECC) primarily aims to address the complex relationship between
climate change and human mobility, particularly focusing on migration
challenges that arise due to environmental changes. It provides an action-
oriented framework for member states to effectively manage climate-induced
migration.
116. D The Hubble Space Telescope operates primarily in the visible light portion of the
electromagnetic spectrum. Its high-resolution images provide valuable insights
into celestial objects such as galaxies, nebulae, and stars, helping astronomers
study the universe’s mysteries.
117. D The successful testing of the ‘Nabhmitra’ device took place at Neendakara. This
location was chosen to assess the device’s capabilities on a fishing vessel in real-
world conditions, with the presence of both scientists and officials from the
Fisheries department.The ‘Nabhmitra’ device, developed by ISRO, aims to
enhance the safety of fishermen during their sea expeditions. It achieves this by
using advanced satellite communication technology to provide seamless two-
way messaging between fishing boats and maritime authorities, improving
communication channels and safety measures for fishermen.
118. C The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet has approved the establishment of 18 ‘Atal
Residential Schools’ across all 18 divisions of the state. These schools are
envisioned to provide high-quality education and become centers of excellence
in education. Modeled after Navodaya Vidyalayas, they are expected to offer
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quality education to students from classes six to twelve, with a capacity of 1,000
students in each school, including 500 girls and 500 boys.
119. D The United Nations marked the inaugural International Day for People of African
Origin on August 31, 2021. This day serves as a global acknowledgment of the
cultural, social, and historical contributions of individuals with African heritage. It
emphasizes the significance of recognizing the diversity and rich heritage
stemming from African roots.
120. C The rice variety that has been recently granted the Geographical Indication (GI)
tag is fondly known as “Magic rice.” This name reflects the uniqueness and
exceptional attributes of this rice variety that has historical significance in
Assam’s culinary heritage.
121. D Vyommitra is a humanoid robot designed to simulate tasks that humans would
perform in a space environment.
122. C The manned mission of the Gaganyaan project is expected to involve sending
one to three astronauts into space.
123. D The CMSMS web portal complements the Khanan Prahari App by centralizing
and analyzing data collected through the app, aiding surveillance and
enforcement efforts.
124. B HS Prannoy secured the bronze medal in the men’s singles category at the BWF
World Badminton Championships 2023.The BWF World Badminton
Championships 2023 were held in Copenhagen, Denmark.
125. C Max Verstappen won the Dutch Grand Prix in 2023 for the third consecutive
year.
126. D Exercise BRIGHT STAR-23 is taking place at Cairo (West) Air Base in Egypt.
127. C
The International Day Against Nuclear Tests is observed every year on 29 August.
128. C The BRICS economic alliance consists of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South
Africa.
129. D The eagerly awaited Ninth India Region Conference of the Commonwealth
Parliamentary Association (CPA) took place in the historic city of Udaipur, located
in the state of Rajasthan. Stretched across a duration of two days, the event
received its inauguration from the distinguished Lok Sabha Speaker, Om Birla.
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130. D The Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodaraste Scheme aims to link tribal villages in
Maharashtra with main roads to improve accessibility and the quality of life for
tribal communities.The scheme involves the construction of around 6,838
kilometers of roads to connect tribal villages with primary roads. The Tribal
Development Department is responsible for executing and implementing the
Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodaraste Scheme.
131. C The MoU between India and Trinidad and Tobago is aimed at sharing the
renowned INDIA STACK technology to enhance identity, data, and payment
services on a large scale.
132. A Dr. Thani Al Zeyoudi. He has been elected as the chair of the 13th Ministerial
Conference of the WTO, which is scheduled to take place in Abu Dhabi in
February 2024. This role will involve leading discussions and setting the roadmap
for future work within the organization.
133. C The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development institution
established by Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (BRICS) to finance
sustainable development projects in emerging economies.
134. B The Lok Sabha has recently passed the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill
2023. It aims to expand the scope of the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
The Bill acknowledges India’s international commitments and the national target
set by the country for achieving Net Zero Emission by 2070.
135. B The government has said that integration of child helpline with Emergency
Response Support System, ERSS -112 has been completed in nine States in the
first phase.
These States are Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, Dadra, and Nagar
Haveli and Daman and Diu, Goa, Gujarat, Ladakh, Puducherry, and Mizoram. A
24×7 dedicated WCD Control Room is set up for Child Helpline in each State and
Union Territory and integrated with ERSS-112.
136. A OpenAI, Microsoft, Google, and Anthropic have teamed up to create the Frontier
Model Forum, aiming to regulate the development of large machine learning
models, particularly “frontier AI models” that surpass current advanced
capabilities.
These foundation models pose potential risks to public safety, and the forum will
focus on ensuring their safe and responsible development, collaborating with
policymakers, academics, and companies to advance AI safety research and
establish best practices for deploying such models.
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137. B Micron reaffirmed its commitment to establish India’s first semiconductor plant
in Gujarat, creating 5,000 direct jobs and addressing demand from domestic and
international markets.
The project entails a total investment of USD 2.75 billion. The first Made in India’
chip should be ready by December 2024.
138. D The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) added two semiconductor design
startups, Aheesa Digital Innovations, and Calligo Technologies, to the
SemiconIndia futureDESIGN DLI scheme.
This was announced during the 2nd edition of the SemiconIndia 2023 conference
in Gandhinagar. These startups/MSMEs will receive support under the scheme.
139. D The 2023 World Police and Fire Games is a community-wide sports event that is
held from July 28 – August 6, 2023 at Winnipeg, Canada.
India is represented by the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), and the athletes
of CRPF bagged five gold and one silver medal for India on the first day of the
event.
140. B Cristiano Ronaldo recently scored his 145th headed goal, breaking the long-
standing record of late German striker Gerd Muller.
Ronaldo achieved the feat when he scored his first goal of the season for Saudi
Pro League club Al Nassr with a header against Tunisian club Monastir in a 2-1
win.
141. B The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation
under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry
of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It is the highest authority responsible for
coordinating, directing, and overseeing research and education related to
agriculture.
The government has formed an 11-member high-level committee, led by
Additional Secretary (DARE) and Secretary of ICAR, to propose measures for
rationalizing and right-sizing ICAR.
142. C A massive iceberg was observed drifting towards Newfoundland, a Canadian
island, recently.
The location, known as ‘Iceberg Alley’, frequently witnesses such colossal ice
formations and was where the Titanic struck an iceberg and sank in 1912.
143. A The Company Law Committee (CLC) has been established in 2019 by the Union
Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
It is expected to explore the implementation of regulatory measures specific to
startups. This initiative comes in response to growing concerns about corporate
governance matters within startup entities.
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144. B Over 13.13 lakh girls and women went missing in the country between 2019 and
2021, with Madhya Pradesh reporting the highest cases at nearly two lakhs,
followed by West Bengal.
The data, which was presented by the Union Ministry of Home Ministry (MHA),
revealed that 10,61,648 women above 18 years and 2,51,430 girls below that
age went missing between 2019 and 2021 across the country. The data was
compiled by the National Crime Records Bureau.
145. B China has initiated a series of new projects under its Belt and Road Initiative
(BRI) through Nepal, aiming to enhance collaboration with Southeast and South
Asian countries, which may impact India’s strategic interests in the region.
These projects, collectively known as the ‘Silk Roadster’ platform, were launched
to commemorate the 10th anniversary of the BRI.
146. A Ocean Shield-2023 exercises are live-fire naval exercises carried out in the Baltic
Sea by Russia.
Drill involves over 30 military vessels and boats, 20 support vessels, 30 naval
aviation and Aerospace Forces of Russia aircraft, and about 6,000 troops.
147. B After five years of negotiations, the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023,
was introduced in the Indian Parliament by the Ministry of Electronics and IT.
It recognizes both the rights of the individuals to protect their personal data and
the need to process such personal data for lawful purposes.
148. B American researchers have achieved net energy gain in a nuclear fusion reaction
for the second time, following a significant accomplishment in December 2022.
This achievement is considered a significant advancement in the journey towards
harnessing a nearly boundless, secure, and environmentally friendly energy
resource.
149. B The Uttar Pradesh government is adopting an “early warning system” inspired by
the Netherlands to reduce student dropout rates in schools.
The system closely monitors student attendance, and if a student is absent for
more than 40 days, educational authorities intervene by contacting parents or
guardians to ensure the student’s return to school and sustained engagement in
their education.
150. A The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) completed the Lunar-Orbit
Insertion (LOI) to successfully put the Chandrayaan-3 spacecraft into the moon’s
orbit.
The LOI manoeuvre was performed from Mission Operations Complex (MOX) in
the ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) in Bengaluru.
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Practice Paper - 2
(July & August) –2023
1. The Federal Court of India was established in which of the following year?
(a) 1935
(b) 1937
(c) 1946
(d) 1947
2. In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to
(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State Governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
3. The objective of Ilbert Bill in reference to colonial rule in India was-
(a) To bring Indians and Europeans at equal status as far as the penal
jurisdiction of courts was concerned.
(b) To put a strict restriction on local press because they were considered
anti to colonial rulers.
(c) To conduct Administrative Service Exams in India to encourage Indians to
participate in it.
(d) To amend the Arms Act for weapon permit to Indians.
4. Who among the following persons was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
(a) William Wood
(b) Pethick-Lawrence
(c) Stafford Cripps
(d) A.B. Alexander
5. Who chaired the first meeting of Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
6. Who was the Chairman of Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities
constituted by the Constituent Assembly?
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(a) Pandit Nehru

(b) Sardar Patel
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) Ambedkar
7. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in India has been adopted from the Constitution of –
(a) U.K
(b) U.S.A.
(c) U.S.S.R.
(d) Australia
8. The Indian Federalism is based on the pattern of which country?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Canada
(c) Australia
(d) Germany
9. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29
10. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian
Constitution is to establish:
(a) Political Democracy
(b) Social Democracy
(c) Gandhian Democracy
(d) Social and Economic Democracy
11. The Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution of India is taken from the
Constitution of which country?
(a) Australia
(b) America
(c) France
(d) Ireland
12. The idea of India as Welfare State is found in-
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(a) Preamble of the Constitution

(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Both (a) and (c)
13. Directive Principles of State Policy are-
(a) Justiciable
(b) Non-Justiciable
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) None of these
14. Panchayati Raj System in India is laid down under-
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Election Commission Act
15. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with
the promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 51
(b) 48A
(c) 43A
(d) 41
16. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Article 39A - Equal Justice and free legal aid
(b) Article 40 - Organisation of Village Panchayats
(c) Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code
(d) Article 48 - Separation of Judiciary from Executive
17. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks.
(b) Prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves.
(c) Protection and improvement of the environment.
(d) Free education for children up to the age of 16 years.
18. Under the Constitution of India which of the following is NOT Fundamental Duty?
(a) To vote in General Election
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(b) To develop the scientific temper

(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideas
19. When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution?
(a) In 1976
(b) In 1979
(c) In 1975
(d) In 1978
20. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions recommended the inclusion of
Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
(a) Swaran Singh Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Balram Jakhar Committee
(d) Sarkaria Commission
21. Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are enumerated in–
(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part IV A of the Constitution
(c) Part II of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
22. The President of India is elected by-
(a) Only the members of Rajya Sabha
(b) Only the members of Lok Sabha
(c) Only by the Members of State Legislative Assemblies and Lok Sabha
(d) By the Elected Members of Rajya Sabha Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies.
23. Minimum number of electors needed to be proposer of the presidential candidate is—
(a) Ten electors
(b) Twenty electors
(c) Fifty electors
(d) Fifteen electors
24. If the office of both the President and The Vice-President falls vacant who among the
following acts as the President?
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(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Senior most judge of the Supreme Court of India
(d) None of the above
25. To whom does the President of India submit his resignation?
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Vice-President of India
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Prime Minister of India
26. The President of India can be removed from his post by –
(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Parliament
27. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the President be impeached?
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 75
(b) Article 76
(d) Article 61
28. At least how many days of prior notice is required for the impeachment of the President
of India?
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 30 days
29. The vacant post of the President is to be filled within –
(a) 90 days
(b) Six months
(c) Nine months
(d) One year
30. All the executive power in Indian Constitution are vested in –
(a) Prime Minister
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(b) Council of Ministers

(c) President
(d) Parliament
31. Who among the following can call the joint session of Indian Parliament?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
32. Under which Article of the Constitution the President of India has been empowered to
promulgate an Ordinance?
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 200
(d) Article 123
33. An ordinance promulgated by the President must be placed before the Parliament
within what time frame after the start of its session?
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 8 weeks
(d) 6 months
34. Who among the following is appointed by the President:
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Governor of State
(d) All of the above
35. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to consult the
Supreme Court?
(a) Article 129
(b) Article 132
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 32
36. The President of India does not have the right to –
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(a) Give pardon

(b) Remove a judge of Supreme Court
(c) Declare emergency
(d) Pass ordinances
37. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution mentions the 'Doctrine of
Pleasure'?
(a) Article 200
(b) Article 301
(c) Article 310
(d) Article 311
38. Which President of India was called the ‘Missile Man’?
(a) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
39. Who was among following to receive first Bharat Ratna?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawahar lal Nehru
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) S. Radhakrishnan
40. Who has the Constitutional Power to declare a geographical area as a ‘’Scheduled
Area’’?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
41. Who is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice President
(c) The Prime Minister
42. Article 78 of the Constitution of India lays down the duties of the –
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(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Prime Minister
43. Who exercises the actual/executive power under the parliamentary form of
Government?
(a) Parliament
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Bureaucracy
44. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which of the following?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
45. In which part of Himalayas is 'Karewa' landform found?
(a) North-East Himalaya
(b) Eastern Himalaya
(c) Himachal-Uttarakhand Himalaya
(d) Kashmir Himalaya
46. The Kumaon Himalaya is situated between which of the rivers?
(a) Indus and Satluj
(b) Kali and Tista
(c) Satluj and Kali
(d) Tista and Brahmputra
47. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats
meet?
(a) Anamalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevaroy Hills
48. Doda Betta Peak is situated in:
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(a) The Anaimalai Hills

(b) The Nilgiri Hills
(c) The Vindhya Range
(d) The Satpura Range
49. The Dhupgarh peak is situated in –
(a) Satpura Range
(b) Maikal Range
(c) Vindhya Range
(d) None of these
50. Nanda Devi Peak is located in:
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Sikkim
51. In which state is the Guru Shikhar Peak located?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat.
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
52. Which of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) Bomdi-la Pass - Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Nathu-la Pass - Sikkim
(c) Bhorghat Pass - Himachal Pradesh
(d) Palghat - Kerala
53. Meghalaya plateau is the part of –
(a) Himalayan Range
(b) Peninsular Plateau
(c) Mountains of Eastern Ghats
(d) Satpura Range
54. Which one of the following is not a part of the Meghalaya Plateau?
(a) Bhuban Hills
(b) Garo Hills
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(c) Khasi Hills

(d) Jaintia Hills
55. In which part of India, Dandakaranya is situated?
(a) Northern
(b) Eastern
(c) Central
(d) Western
56. The sea coast of Tamil Nadu is known as
(a) Circar coast
(b) Konkan coast
(c) Malabar coast
(d) Coromandel coast
57. "Saddle peak" the highest peak of Andaman & Nicobar is located in-
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Middle Andaman
(c) Little Andaman
(d) North Andaman
58. Which one of the following is a volcanic island of India?
(a) Little Andaman
(b) Little Nicobar
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Barren Island
59. Palk Strait is located between
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) India and Bangladesh
(c) India and Sri Lanka
(d) India and Maldives
60. Which of the following is a coral island?
(a) New Moore
(b) Car Nicobar
(c) Andaman
(d) Lakshadweep
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61. Which of the following state is known as the “Kohinoor of India”

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
62. Which state is known as "Silicon State" of India?
(a) Goa
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala
63. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Assam - Shillong
(b) Meghalaya - Kohima
(c) Mizoram - Aizawl
(d) Nagaland - Guwahati
64. Part of which state of the country is not included in National Capital Region.
(a) Delhi
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Madhya Pradesh
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists:
List-I List-II
(Tribes) (Location)
A. Jarawas 1. Uttar Pradesh
B. Kukkis 2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Tharus 3. Manipur
D. Gonds 4. Andaman and Nicobar
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2314
(b) 4312
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(c) 3421
(d) 1234
66. Which amongst the following states has not identified tribal community?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Haryana
(d) Karnataka
67. Which of the following tribes is found in Kerala?
(a) Chenchu
(b) Lepcha
(c) Dafla
(d) Dafar
68. The largest Scheduled Tribe of Uttaranchal is –
(a) Bhoksa
(b) Bhotia
(c) Jaunsari
(d) Tharu
69. River Ganga, after entering Bangladesh is known by which of the following names?
(a) Lohit
(b) Padma
(c) Kaliganga
(d) Nabaganga
70. India and Asia's first Dolphin Research Centre – NDRC is being set up on the banks of the
Ganga River at
(a) Haridwar
(b) Patna
(c) Varanasi
(d) Bhagalpur
71. Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi?
(a) Vishnuprayag
(b) Karnaprayag
(c) Rudraprayag
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(d) Devprayag
72. The longest flowing river in India is-
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Godavari
(c) Ganga
(d) Narmada
73. Identify the only tributary of River Ganges which rises in the plains.
(a) Son
(b) Sharda or Saryu
(c) Gomti
(d) Ram Ganga
74. The river Yamuna originates from –
(a) Chaukhamba
(b) Bandar Poonch
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Neelkanth
75. Which of the following rivers does not fall into river Yamuna -
(a) Ken
(b) Betwa
(c) Son
(d) Chambal
76. Manas is the tributary of river:
(a) Godavari
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Brahamaputra
77. Which one of the following is the most important factor responsible for the decline of
biodiversity?
(a) Genetic assimilation
(b) Controlling assimilation
(c) Destruction of habitat
(d) Controlling pests
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78. The ‘Hotspot’ of Biodiversity in India are:

(a) Western Himalayas and Eastern Ghat
(b) Western Himalayas and Sunderban
(c) Eastern Himalayas and the Western Ghats
(d) Eastern Himalayas and Silent Valley
79. "Red Data Book" is published by –
(a) USEPA
(b) IUCN
(c) WWF
(d) IG-BP
80. The maximum biodiversity is found in:
(a) Tundra
(b) Coniferous forests
(c) Tropical rain forests
(d) Temperate forests
81. ‘Valley of Flowers’ is situated in –
(a) Kerala
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Himachal Pradesh
82. Which of the following wetlands are designated as Ramsar sites?
1. Chilka Lake
3. Wuller Lake
2. Keoladeo
4. Loktak
Select the correct answer form the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All
83. The Ramsar Convention was associated with the conservation of –
(a) Bio-fuels
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(b) Forests
(c) Wetlands
(d) Drylands
84. Bihar's first Ramsar Site is located in:
(a) Begusarai
(b) Banka
(c) Bhagalpur
(d) Bhojpur
85. The temples of Khajuraho are related with
(a) Buddhist religion
(b) Hindu religion
(c) Hindu and Jain
(d) Jain religion
86. Which dynasty gave India its famous temples of Khajuraho?
(a) Paramara
(b) Mauryas
(c) Chandelas
(d) Holkars
87. Which dynasty constructed the Ellora Kailasa Temple?
(a) Rashtrakuta
(b) Satvahana
(c) Maurya
(d) Pallava
88. Who built the Konark Sun Temple?
(a) Narasimhadeva Varman
(b) Rajendra Chola
(c) Ashoka
(d) Krishnadev Rai
89. Which temple is known as ‘Black Pagoda’?
(a) Shore Temple
(b) Khajuraho Temple
(c) Konark Sun Temple
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(d) Deogarh Temple

90. The Rath temples at Mahabalipuram were built by
(a) Cholas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Chedis
(d) Chalukyas
91. Dilwara Jain Temple is in
(a) Mount Abu in Aravali Mountain
(b) On the bank of Indus
(c) Khajuraho
(d) Nilgiri Hills
92. Who among the following Chola rulers is credited to have built a huge artificial lake
known as Chola Gangam?
(a) Rajaraja-I
(b) Rajendra
(c) Rajadhiraja
(d) Rajaraja-II
93. Where was the capital of Chalukyas located?
(a) Vatapi
(b) Shravasti
(c) Kanchi
(d) Kannauj
94. Which river was the lifeline of Pandya state?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Tungabhadra
(d) Vengi
95. Third Sangam was held at
(a) Arikamedu
(b) Ernakulam
(c) Madurai
(d) Tuticorin
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96. Who among the following Chinese travellers has given an account of the relationship of
China with India during the reign of Chalukyas?
(a) Fa-Hien
(b) Hiuen-Tsang
(c) It-Sing
(d) Matwalin
97. Which dynasty did not rule over North India?
(a) Chalukyas
(b) Rajputs
(c) Gupta
(d) Mauryas
98. Meenakshi temple is located at
(a) Madurai
(b) Pudukottai
(c) Sri Rangam
(d) Thanjavur
99. Who of the following was the writer of Mudrarakshasa?
(a) Ashwaghosha
(b) Vishakhadatta
(c) Kalidasa
(d) Bhas
100. ‘Rajatarangini’ written by Kalhan is associated with which of the following?
(a) Chandragupta’s reign
(b) Anthology of lyrics
(c) History of Kashmir
(d) Reign of Krishna Deva Raya
101. The foundation of the Mughal painting was laid by
(a) Akbar
(b) Humayun
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan
102. Who of the following compiled ‘Adi Granth or Guru Granth Saheb’?
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(a) Guru Nanak Dev

(b) Guru Tegh Bahadur
(c) Guru Gobind Singh
(d) Guru Arjun Dev
103. Shivaji defeated the Mughals in the battle of
(a) Purandar
(b) Raigarh
(c) Salher
(d) Shivner
104. Where was the capital of Shivaji?
(a) Raigarh
(b) Satara
(c) Purandar
(d) Tanjore
105. Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers
(a) In the Gupta administration
(b) In the Chola administration
(c) In the Vijayanagara administration
(d) In the Maratha administration
106. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought in the year
(a) 1526 A.D.
(b) 1761 A.D.
(c) 1556 A.D.
(d) 1857 A.D.
107. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between
(a) Hemu and Akbar
(b) Humayun and Sher Shah
(c) Marathas and Ahmad Shah Abdali
(d) Nadir Shah and the Mughals
108. Which was the following war consolidated British supremacy over India?
(a) Battle of Buxar
(b) Battle of Plassey
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(c) Third battle of Mysore

(d) Independence struggle of 1857
109. The battle field of Plassey is situated in
(a) Bihar
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) West Bengal
110. Who was the Nawab of Bengal when the Battle of Buxar was fought?
(a) Siraj-ud-Daula
(b) Mir Jafar
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) Najmuddaula
111. At the time of the establishment of Asiatic Society in Calcutta, who was the Governor-
General of Bengal?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Bentinck
112. Who established the judicial organization in India?
(a) Lord Mayo
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Attlee
(d) Lord Curzon
113. Subsidiary Alliance was implemented during the reign of
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Sir John Shore
(d) Lord Auckland
114, Who among the following formulated and implemented the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?
(a) Wellesley
(b) Hastings
(c) Dalhousie
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(d) Clive
115. The first railway line was opened in India between
(a) Howrah and Serampore
(b) Bombay and Thane
(c) Madras and Guntur
(d) Delhi and Agra
116. In whose rule the Widow Remarriage Act was implemented in
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Sir Henry Hardinge
(d) Lord Lawrence
117. ‘Permanent Settlement’ was introduced during the tenure of
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Sir John Shore
(d) Lord Wellesley
118. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Lord Cornwallis – Permanent Settlement
(b) Lord Wellesley – Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Lord Dalhousie – Doctrine of Lapse
(d) Lord Canning – Masterly Inactivity
119. Who were the first Europeans to set up sea trade centres in India?
(a) The English
(b) The French
(c) The Portuguese
(d) The Dutch
120. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Suppression of Thuggee – William Bentinck
(b) Ilbert Bill – Ripon
(c) Ring Fence Policy – Warren Hastings
(d) Vernacular Press Act – Curzon
121. The 1st census in India during the British period was held during the tenure of
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(a) Lord Dufferin

(b) Lord Lytton
(c) Lord Mayo
(d) Lord Ripon
122. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists.
List-I
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Rippon
(D) Lord Curzon
List-II
1. Prohibition of Sati
2. Local Self-Government
3. Division of Bengal
4. Doctrine of Lapse
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 3 2 4
123. Sir Thomas Munro is associated with the land revenue settlement
(a) Permanent Settlement
(b) Mahalwari Settlement
(c) Ryotwari Settlement
124. Who authored the book ‘Poverty and the Unbritish Rule in India’?
(a) Amartya Kumar Sen
(b) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
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125. ‘Nagananda’, ‘Ratnavali’ and ‘Priyadarshika’ was written by

(a) Bana Bhatta
(b) Vishakha Datta
(c) Vatsyayan
(d) Harshavardhana
126. Who was the Governor-General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Lytton
127. Who is the author of ‘Neel Darpan’ a book written on the miserable condition of indigo
farmers?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra
(c) Sharat Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
128. The Moplah Rebellion of 1921 took place in
(a) Telangana
(b) Malabar
(c) Marathwada
(d) Vidarbha
129. Charles Wood’s Despatch was related with which of the following?
(a) Education
(b) Trade
(c) Administrative Reforms
(d) Military Reforms
130. The type of energy transformed in a microphone is
(a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(b) Chemical energy into heat energy
(c) South energy into electrical energy
(d) Light energy into electrical energy
131. The oil in the wick of a lamp rises due to
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(a) Capillary action

(b) Surface tension
(c) Buoyant force
132. The relative density is measured by which instrument?
(a) Lactometer
(b) Hydrometer
(c) Venturi meter
(d) Hygrometer
133. Match the following:
Instrument Use
(A) Pyrometer (i) Measures heat radiation
(B) Galvanometer (ii) measures very high temperature
(C) Hypsometer (iii) to determine boiling point of liquids
(D) Radio Micrometer (iv) Measures electric current
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) I IV II III
(c) IV III I II
(d) II IV III I
134. Jet Engine is invented by
(a) T.A. Edison
(b) Sir Frank Whittle
(c) Z. Jansen
(d) Martin Kooper
135. Dynamite was discovered by
(a) Henery Becquerel
(b) Alfered Nobel
(c) Rutherford
(d) Edison
136. Match the following
Quantity S.I Unit
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(a) Electric Current I. Watt

(b) Work and Energy II. Ampere
(c) Force III. Newton
(d) Power IV. Joule
A B C D
(a) II IV III I
(b) I IV II III
(c) IV III I II
(d) III I II IV
137. Who among the following was known as the father of periodic table?
(a) Lavoisier
(b) Mendeleev
(c) Madam Curie
(d) G.S. Ohm
138. Which acid is found in Grapes?
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Oxalic acid
(d) Tartaric acid
139. Which acid is used in the purification of gold and silver?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Boric acid
(d) Formic acid
140. Bauxite is the ore of
(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Aluminium
(d) Potassium
141. The Alloy Brass is a composition of
(a) Copper and Zinc
(b) Copper and Tin
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(c) Copper, Nickel and Zinc

(d) Copper, Zinc and Iron
142. Wood Furnitures are coated with _______ to prevent termites.
(a) Zinc Phosphide
(b) Zinc Chloride
(c) Calcium Hybride
(d) Hydrogen Peroxide
143. Which of the following is used in artificial rain?
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver iodide
(c) Silver sulphide
(d) Iron pyrites
144. Which of the following is not a noble metal?
(a) gold
(b) platinum
(c) silver
(d) Aluminium
145. The father of operation flood was
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Dr. Norman Borlaug
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam
146. Which country is the largest milk producing country in the world?
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) France
147. The increase in oil-seeds production was due to
(a) Yellow Revolution
(b) Blue Revolution
(c) White Revolution
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
148. Which organisation has released the National income of the country?
(a) CSO
(b) NSSO
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Reserve Bank of India
149. Planning in India derives its objectives and social premises from the
(a) Direction principles of state policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Preamble
150. The second five-year planning was based on the
(a) Harrod-Domar Model
(b) Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis Model
(c) Sukhmoy Chakraborty Model
(d) John W. Miller Model
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
Practice Paper – 02
General Studies
Answer Key
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1. B 31. A 61. A 91. A 121. C
2. D 32. D 62. C 92. B 122. A
3. A 33. B 63. C 93. A 123. C
4. A 34. D 64. D 94. D 124. D
5. C 35. C 65. B 95. C 125. D
6. B 36. B 66. C 96. D 126. A
7. B 37. C 67. A 97. A 127. B
8. B 38. B 68. D 98. A 128. B
9. C 39. D 69. B 99. B 129. A
10. D 40. D 70. B 100. C 130. C
11. D 41. B 71. D 101. B 131. A
12. D 42. D 72. C 102. D 132. B
13. B 43. B 73. C 103. C 133. D
14. C 44. D 74. B 104. A 134. B
15. A 45. D 75. C 105. D 135. B
16. D 46. C 76. D 106. B 136. A
17. D 47. C 77. C 107. C 137. B
18. A 48. B 78. C 108. B 138. D
19. A 49. A 79. B 109. D 139. B
20. A 50. B 80. C 110. C 140. C
21. B 51. A 81. C 111. B 141. A
22. D 52. C 82. D 112. B 142. B
23. C 53. B 83. C 113. B 143. B
24. A 54. A 84. A 114. C 144. D
25. B 55. C 85. C 115. B 145. A
26. D 56. D 86. C 116. B 146. C
27. D 57. D 87. A 117. B 147. A
28. B 58. D 88. A 118. D 148. A
29. B 59. C 89. C 119. C 149. A
30. C 60. D 90. B 120. D 150. B
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581
References-
1. Newspaper (English)-
a. The Hindu
b. The Times of India
2. Newspaper (Hindi)-
a. Hindustan
3. Magazine-
a. Frontline
b. India Today
4. www.wikipedia.com
5. www.indiabudget.nic.in
6. www.economictimes.indiatimes.com
7. Judgments Information system (www.judis.nic.in)
8. Press Information Bureau (www.pib.nic.in)
Ph.: 011- 27374216, 27655845, 27654216, 9811195920, 9811197581

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For Internal Circulation Only Not for Sale Current Affairs Aug 2023

Current Affairs August 2023

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