Allen NECRT Based Objective Chemistry (XI, XII)

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CHEMISTRY
NCERT Based Objective Questions
Contents
1. PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY : 1-22
(i) Mole Concept .......................................................................................................................... 1
(ii) Redox ..................................................................................................................................... 4
(iii) Atomic Structure ..................................................................................................................... 5
(iv) States of matter (BOG) ............................................................................................................. 7
(v) Chemical Thermodynamics ....................................................................................................... 8
(vi) Chemical equilibrium ............................................................................................................. 10
(vii) Ionic equilibrium, Acid & Base pH, Buffer & indicators ............................................................ 13
(viii) Solutions .............................................................................................................................. 15
(ix) Electro Chemistry ................................................................................................................. 16
(x) Chemical Kinetics ................................................................................................................. 18
(xi) Solid State ........................................................................................................................... 20
(xii) Surface Chemistry ................................................................................................................ 21
2. INORGANIC CHEMISTRY : 23-39
(i) Periodic Table ....................................................................................................................... 23
(ii) Chemical Bonding .................................................................................................................. 25
(iii) s-Block elements .................................................................................................................... 28
(iv) p-Block elements ................................................................................................................... 30
(v) Hydrogen & its compounds ..................................................................................................... 33
(vi) d & f-Block elements .............................................................................................................. 34
(vii) Coordination Chemistry .......................................................................................................... 36
(viii) Metallurgy ............................................................................................................................. 38
3. ORGANIC CHEMISTRY : 40-69
(i) Nomenclature & Isomerism .................................................................................................... 40
(ii) Reaction mechanism .............................................................................................................. 43
(iii) Hydro-Carbon (Alkane, Alkene & Alkyne) ................................................................................ 45
(iv) Aromatic Hydrocarbon .......................................................................................................... 48
(v) Alkyl halides .......................................................................................................................... 50
(vi) Alcohol, Phenol & Ether ......................................................................................................... 53
(vii) Carbonyl compounds .............................................................................................................. 55
(viii) Carboxylic acids & Its Derivatives ............................................................................................ 58
(ix) Nitrogen Containing Compounds ............................................................................................. 61
(x) Polymers ............................................................................................................................... 64
(xi) Biomolecules ......................................................................................................................... 65
(xii) Chemistry in Action ................................................................................................................ 66
(xiii) Environmental Chemistry ........................................................................................................ 68
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ALLEN NCERT-Chemistry 1
MOLE - CONCEPT
1. Select a correct statement :– 9. Which of the following relations is incorrect?
(1) Chemistry studies about matter (1) 1 Kilometre = 1000 metre
(2) Chemistry is a science of atoms & molecules (2) 1 picometre = 1000 nano metre
(3) Both statements are correct (3) 1 petametre = 1030 femto metre
(4) None of them (4) 1 micro metre = 10–12 megametre
2. Drugs effective in cancer therapy are :– 10. Which of the following relation is incorrect regarding
(1) Cisplatin (2) Taxol temperature?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) AZT (Azidothymidine) 9
(1) °F = (°C) + 32 (2) K = °C + 273.15
3. Characteristics of a liquid are :– 5
5
(1) Definite shape & definite volume (3) °C = K + 273.15 (4) °C = (°F – 32)
9
(2) Indefinite shape & indefinite volume
11. The law stating that a given compound always
(3) Definite shape & indefinite volume contains exactly the same proportion of elements
(4) Indefinite shape & definite volume by weight was given by :–
4. On cooling & heating a liquid it changes its state (1) Lavoisier (2) Proust
respectively as follows : (3) Dalton (4) Avogadro
(1) On cooling ® Gas 12. Equal volume of gases contains equal number of
On heating ® Solid molecules at same temp & pressure, this law was
(2) On cooling ® Solid given by :–
On heating ® Gas (1) Berzillius (2) Gay – Lussac
(3) Its can change in either of the states (3) Dalton (4) Avogadro
(4) No change in state will occur. 13. Carbon + oxygen ® Carbon dioxide
5. Air is an example of : – 12g 32g 44g
(1) Element Carbon + Oxygen ® Carbon monoxide
(2) Compound 12g 16g 28g
(3) Homogeneous mixture This data illustrates which of the following law :–
(4) Heterogeneous mixture (1) Law of multiple proportion
6. The standard unit for temperature measurement is (2) Law of reciprocal proportion
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_CHEM(INSIDER)\ENG\01-PHYSICAL-E.P65
(1) Celsius (2) Fahrenheit (3) Law of conservation of mass

(3) Kelvin (4) All of the above (4) Both (1) & (3)
7. Luminous intensity is measured in which unit? 14. Which statement is incorrect regarding Dalton's
(1) Kelvin (2) Candela Atomic Theory?
(3) Ampere (4) Mole (1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
8. Length, mass and time are respectively measured (2) All atoms of a given element have indentical
in _________ S.I. units? properties
(1) Centimetre, gram & minute (3) Compounds are formed when atoms of different
(2) metre, kg & second elements combine in a fixed ratio
(3) metre, gram & second (4) Atoms are either created or destroyed in a
(4) centimetre, kg & second chemical reaction
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2 NCERT-Chemistry ALLEN
15. The term 'amu' stands for : 20. Which option is correct regarding the percentage
(1) Atomic mass unit composition of CaCO3 ?
(2) Unified mass
(1) Ca is 40% by mass (2) O is 48% by mass
(3) Mass exactly equal to one-twelfth the mass of
one carbon - 12 atom (3) C is 12% by mass (4) All are correct
(4) All of the above 21. Pick out the correct statement?
16. Average atomic mass of elements can be calculated
(1) An empirical formula represents the simplest
by which of the following formula?
whole no. ratio of various atoms present in a
(M = Molar mass, X = mole fraction, n = moles)
compound
n
n1M1 + n2M2
å n iM i (2) The molecular formula shows the exact number
i =1
(1) Avg. atomic mass = =
n1 + n2 n of different types of atoms present in a molecule
å ni
i =1 of a compound
n
(2) Avg. atomic mass = X1M1 + X2M2 = å X i Mi (3) Both (1) & (2) are incorrect
i =1
(4) Both (1) & (2) are correct
n
(3) Avg. atomic mass = å ( %age )i .Mi 22. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2 & the
i =1
ratio of molecular mass and empirical formula mass
(4) All of the above
17. The mass of sodium chloride (NaCl) is known as : is 2, then pick out the incorrect statement?
(1) Atomic mass (2) Molecular mass (1) Molecular formula is C2H4
(3) Formula mass (4) All of the above
(2) Molecular mass is 28
18. Which statement is correct regarding mole?
(3) Empirical formula mass is 14
(1) Mole is one of the seven base quantities in SI
system. (4) % of carbon in compound is 80
(2) One mole contains as many particles or entities
23. Which of the following statement is correct?
as there are atoms in exactly 12g of t he
(1) Stoichiometry deals with the calculation of masses
C–12 isotope
(3) The number of entities in one mole is equal to of the reactants & the products involved in a
Avogadro number chemical reaction

(4) All of the above are correct. (2) According to law of conservation of mass, a
19. Which of the following formulaes are correct
balanced chemical equation has the same
regarding mole calculations?
number of atoms of each element on both sides
mass
(1) mole = of equation
molar mass
volume of gas at STP (3) The reactant which gets fully consumed & limits
(2) mole =
22.4 litre the amount of product formed is known as
number of entities
(3) mole = limiting reagent
Avogadro number ( N A )
(4) All of the above (4) All are correct
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24. For the following reaction, pick out the incorrect 25. Which of the following statement is incorrect
interpretations? regarding concerntration terms?
2A(g) + B(g) ® 4C(g) + D(g) (1) Molarity is the no.of moles of solute present in
(1) 2 moles of A & 1 mole of B reacts to form 4 1 kg of solvent.
moles of C & 1 mole of D (2) Molality is the no. of moles of the solute present
(2) 2 gm of A & 1 gm of B reacts to give 4 gm of in 1 kg of solvent
C & 1 gm of D. (3) Molarity is the no. of moles of solute present
(3) 2 molecules of A & 1 molecule of B reacts to in 1 litre of the solution
give 4 molecules of C & 1 molecule of D (4) Mole fraction is the ratio of number of moles of
(4) 2 volume of A & 1 volume of B reacts to give a particular component to the total number of
4 volume of C & 1 volume of D(At STP) moles of the solution
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 2 1
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REDOX
1. Strongest reducing agent among the following is 8. Which of the following can have both positive and
(1) K (2) Mg (3) Al (4) Ba negative oxidation states
2. Which is not a Redox reaction (1) F (2) I (3) Na (4) He
(1) CaCO3 ¾¾® CaO + CO2 9. In balancing the half reaction S2 O3-2 ¾¾® S(s) .
the number of electrons that must be added is

(2) 2H2 + O2 ¾¾® 2H2O
(1) 2 on the right
(3) Na + H2O ¾¾® NaOH + 1/2 H2 (2) 2 on the left
(3) 3 on the right
(4) MnCl3 ¾¾® MnCl2 + 1/2 Cl2
(4) 4 on the left
3. In a conjugate pair of reductant and oxidant, the 10. 0.1 M solution of KMnO4 (in acidic medium) may
oxidant has oxidise
(1) Higher oxidation number
(1) 0.25 M C2 O4-2 (2) 0.8 M Fe+3
(2) Lower oxidation number
(3) Same oxidaiton number 2-
(3) 0.1 M SO4 (4) 0.6 M Cr2 O7-2
(4) None of these
11. In KMnO4, K2MnO4, MnO2 and Mn2O3 compound
4. A sulphur containing species that can not be act as
in which element Mn shows its lowest oxidation
oxidising agent is
number is
(1) H2SO4 (2) H2S
(1) KMnO4 (2) K2MnO4
(3) SO2 (4) H2SO3
(3) MnO2 (4) Mn2O3
5. In which is transfer of five electrons takes place
12. Standard reduction electrode potentials of 3 metals
(1) MnO-4
+2
CrO4-2
+3 A, B, C are +5V, –3V and –1.2V respectively. The
¾¾® Mn (2) ¾¾® Cr
reducing power of these metals are–
(3) MnO-4 ¾¾® MnO2 (4) Cr2O7-2 ¾¾® 2Cr+3 (1) B > C > A (2) A > B > C
(3) C > B > A (4) A > C > B
6. In which of the following compound N has lowest
13. A reagent which can increase the oxidation number
oxidation number
of an element in a given substance in called as–
(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) N2O (4) N2O5
(1) oxidant (2) reductant
7. Nitrogen has fractional oxidation number in
(3) proton acceptor (4) proton donor
(1) N2H4 (2) NH+4 (3) HN3 (4) N2F2
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 4 1 4 1 1
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ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1. The electronic configuration of an atom/ion can be 8. Which of the following will violates Aufbau principle
defined by– as well as Pauli's exclusion principle–
(1) Aufbau principal 1s 2s 2p
(2) Hund's rule (1) ¯ ¯ ¯
(3) pauli exclusion principle 1s 2s 2p
(4) All the above (2) ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
2. Angular momentum of electrons in fourth orbit is– 1s 2s 2p

(3) ¯
2h
(1) 0 (2) (4) None of these
p
9. Energy of electron of hydrogen atom in second Bohr
1 orbit is–
3h æ 3 ö2
h (1) – 5.44 × 10–19 J (2) – 5.44 × 10–19 KJ
(3) (4) ç ÷
2p è ø p
2
(3) – 5.44 × 10–19 cal (4) – 5.44 × 10–19 ev
3. If Aufbau rule is not used, 19th electron in Sc 10. In H-atom if electron falls from n = 3 to n = 2, then
(Z = 21) will have:– emitted energy is–
(1) n = 3, l = 0 (2) n = 3, l = 1 (1) 10.2 eV (2) 12.09 eV
(3) n = 3, l = 2 (4) n = 4, l = 0 (3) 1.9 eV (4) 0.65 eV
4. The energy of a radiation of wavelength 8000 Å 11. de-Broglie equation is–
is E1 and energy of a radiation of wavelength
l
16000 Å is E2. What is the relation between these (1) h = (2) E = hn
mv
two:–
(1) E1 = 6 E2 (2) E1 = 2 E2
h
(3) E = mc2 (4) l =
E2 mv
(3) E1 = E2 (4) E1 =
2 12. The shape of an orbital is given by the quantum
5. Simultaneous determination of exact position and number–
momentum of an electron in an atom is:– (1) n (2) l (3) m (4) s
(1) Possible 13. An ion has 18 electrons in the outer most shell, it is:
(2) Impossible (1) Cu+ (2) Th4+
(3) Sometimes possible sometimes impossible (3) Cs+ (4) K+
(4) None of these
14. The energy corresponding to second line of Balmer

6. When the value of (n + l) is not more than 3 which series for hydrogen atom will be–
of the following subshells is not possible to exist? (1) 12.1 eV (2) 1.89 eV
(1) 2s (2) 3s (3) 2.55 eV (4) 13.6 eV
(3) 3p (4) 2p 15. If ionization potential of hydrogen like species is
7. Given Rydberg constant R = 105 cm–1. Supposing 36 V, then the second excitation potential of
if electron jumps from M shell to K shell of H-atom, electron will be–
the frequency of the radiation emitted in cycle/s
(1) 10.2 V (2) 12 V
would be–
(3) 27 V (4) 32 V
8 5 8 15
(1) ´ 10 (2) ´ 10 16. If the value of principal quantum number is 4, the
9 3
8 11 8 15
possible values for magnetic quantum number will be–
(3) ´ 10 (4) ´ 10
3 9 (1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 9
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17. Bohr's model could explain successfully:– 21. Which is not the characteristic property of plank's
(1) The spectrum of helium quantum theory?
(2) The spectrum of species containing only one (1) Energy is neither obsorbed nor emitted in simple
electron multiples of quanta
(3) The spectrum of multi-electron (2) Radiation is related to energy
(4) The spectrum of hydrogen molecule (3) Energy is not radiated continuously but in small
18. Calculate de Broglie wavelength of a proton packages of energy called quantum
(mass, m= 1.6 ×10–27 kg) moving with kinetic energy (4) The energy of a quantum is proportional to its
of 0.04 eV– frequency
(1) 146 Å (2) 14.6 Å 22. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (z = 24). The
(3) 1460 Å (4) 1.46 Å number of electrons with azimuthal quantum
19. Consider the following statements– numbers, l = 1 and 2 are respectively:–
(1) 16 and 4 (2) 12 and 5
(A) Electron density in XY plane in 3d x2 - y2 is zero
(3) 12 and 4 (4) 16 and 5
(B) Electron density in XY plane in 3d 2 orbital is zero
z 23. The energy of electron in 3rd orbit of hydrogen atom is–
(C) 2s orbital has only one spherical node (1) – 1311.8 KJ/mol (2) –82 KJ/mol
(D) For 2Pz orbital YZ is the nodal plane (3) –145.7 KJ/mol (4) –327.9 KJ/mol
The correct statements are– 24. A certain radiostation broadcasts at a frequency of
(1) (b) and (c) 900 KHz. The wavelength of electromegnetic
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) radiations broadcast by radiostation is–
(3) only (b) (1) 900 m (2) 270 m
(4) only (c) (3) 2.70 km (4) 330 m
20. If the electron can be located in the orbit with in 25. The radius of Bohr's first excited state is a0. The
0.1Å. What is the uncertainty in its velocity– electron in nth orbit has a radius:
(1) 5.76 × 107 ms–1
(2) 0.576 × 107 ms–1 n2 a 0 a0
(1) (2)
4 n
(3) 0.576 × 10–4 ms–1
(4) 5.76 × 10–4 ms–1
a0
(3) n2a0 (4)
n2
A N SW ER K EY
Q .N o. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A ns . 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 3 4
Q .N o. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A ns . 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 3 4 1
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STATES OF MATTER (BEHAVIOUR OF GASES)
1. According to Charle's law– 7. If 500 ml of a gas is compressed at constant

temperature by increasing its pressure by 10%.
æ dV ö æ dV ö Then calculate the final volume
(1) ç dT ÷ = k (2) ç dT ÷ = -k
è øp è øp (1) 454.5 mL (2) 354.5 mL
(3) 254.5 mL (4) 154.5 mL
æ dV ö -k
(3) ç dT ÷ = T (4) None of these 8. Air contains 79% N2 and 21% O2 by volume. If the
è øp
total pressure is 750 mm of Hg. then the partial
pressure of O2 is–
2. The rate of diffusion of SO2, CO2, PCl3 and SO3 are
in the following order– (1) 157.2 mm of Hg
(1) PCl3 > SO3 > SO2 > CO2 (2) 175.5 mm of Hg
(2) CO2 > SO2 > PCl3 > SO3 (3) 315.0 mm of Hg
(3) SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 > CO2 (4) 592.8 mm of Hg
(4) CO2 > SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 9. Kinetic theory of gases proves
3. The compressibility factor for H2 and He is usually (1) Only Boyle's law (2) Only Charle's law
(3) Only Avogadro's law (4) All of these
(1) > 1 (2) < 1 (3) = 1 (4) = 0
10. Which gas can most readly liquified
4. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas
(1) NH3 (2) Cl2 (3) SO2 (4) CO2
(1) 0 (2) ¥ (3) 1 (4) –1
11. 1 mol CO2 ocupies 0.4 lit at 27°C and 40 atm
5. The kinetic energy of molecule is zero at
calculate the compressibility factor
(1) 0°C (2) 273°C (3) –273°C (4) 116°C
(1) 0.65 (2) 0.85 (3) 0.15 (D) 1.65
6 The term that correct for the attractive force present
12. Density of a gas is found to be 5.46gm/lit at 27°C
in a real gas in the vander waal's equation is
and 2 atm pressure. what will be its density at STP
an2 an2 (1) 3 gm/lit (2) 2 gm/lit
(1) nb (2) 2 (3) - 2 (4) – nb
V V (3) 1.5 gm/lit (4) 1 gm/lit
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 1 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 3 1 1
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CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS
1. A + B ¾¾® C + D 8. A swimmer coming out from a pool is covered with
DH = – 10,000 J mol –1 a film of water weighing about 80g. How much heat
must be suplied to evaporte this water
DS = – 33.3 J mol–1 K–1
(Dvap.H0 = 40.79 KJ mol–1) –
At what temperature the reaction will occur
(1) 181 KJ (2) 362 KJ
spontaneous from left to right?
(3) 90.5 KJ (4) 40.79 KJ
(1) = 300.3 K (2) > 300.3 K
9. Calculate the entropy change in melting of one gm
(3) < 300.3 K (4) None of these
ice at 0°C if latent heat of ice is 80 cal/g
2. C2H4 + Cl2 ¾¾® C2H4 Cl2 (1) 80 Cal K–1 (2) 20 Cal K–1
DH = – 270.6 KJ mol–1 (3) 4.4 Cal K–1 (4) 0.3 Cal K–1
DS = – 139.0 J K–1 mol–1 10. For the water gas reaction

C(s) + H2O (g) CO(g) + H2(g)
Find value of DG at T = 300 K.
(1) –328.9 KJ mol–1 (2) –228 .9 KJ mol–1 The standard Gibb's energy of reaction (at 1000 K)
(3) –129.8 KJ mol–1 (4) –528.9 KJ mol–1 is – 8.1 KJ mol–1. Value of equilibrium constant is–
(1) 2.6 (2) 6.2 (3) 8.2 (4) 10
3. 0.16 g of methane was subjected to combustion at
27°C in a bomb calorimeter system. The temperature 11. Gibb's energy change for the dissolution of potassium
nitrate in water at 298 K is–
of the calorimeter system (including water) was found
to rise by 0.5°C. Heat of combustion of methane at KNO3 (S) + water ¾¾® K+(aq) + NO3- (aq)
constant pressure is– (Heat capacity of the
DH0 = 34 KJ mol–1
calorimeter system is 17.7 KJ K–1).
DS0 = 0.116 KJ K–1 mol–1
(1) –890 KJ (2) –885 KJ
(1) +0.568 KJ mol–1
(3) +890 KJ (4) +885 KJ
(2) –0.568 KJ mol–1
4. The standard heats of formation of CH 4(g), CO2(g)
(3) – 1.036 KJ mol–1
and H2O(l) are –76.2, –394.8 and –241.6 KJ mol–1
(4) +1.036 KJ mol–1
respectively. Heat evolved by burning 1m3 of
12. Determine the entropy change for the reaction given
methane measured at NTP will be–
below:
(1) –801.8 KJ (2) –35794.6 KJ
2H2(g) + O2(g) ¾¾® 2H2O(l) at 300 K.
(3) –890 KJ (4) –3570 KJ
If standard entropies of H2(g), O2(g) and H2O(l) are
5. 10 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and 126.6, 201.20 and 68.0 J K–1 mol–1 respectively.
reversibly from a pressure of 5 atm to 1atm at
(1) –218.4 J K–1 mol–1
300K. what is work done–
(2) –318.4 J K–1 mol–1

(1) –40.15 × 103 J (2) –20.30 × 103 J
(3) –520.2 J K–1 mol–1
(3) –18 × 103 J (4) –55 × 103 J
(4) –128.6 J K–1 mol–1
6. Enthaly of formation of H2O is – 68 Kcal/mole.
13. Out of E, H, q, W and S which are state function?
Ent halpy of formation of OH – i ons is –
(1) E, H, W (2) E, S, H, W
é Given DH o (HÅ ) = 0 ù (3) E, H, S (4) E, H, q, W, S
ë f û
14. Bond energy of C – H bond is–
(1) –13.7 Kcal mol–1 (2) –57.3 Kcal mol–1
Given that the heat of formation of CH4, heat of
(3) –54.3 Kcal mol–1 (4) –20.1 Kcal mol–1
sublimation of carbon and heat of dissociation of H2
7. Heat released upon combustion of 2gm of C graphite
are –74.8, +719 .6 an d 435.4 KJ mol – 1
is X KJ. Heat of formation of CO2 is–
respectively?
(1) –6X KJ (2) –X KJ
(1) 1665.2 KJ (2) 416.3 KJ
(3) +6X KJ (4) +X KJ
(3) 816.3 KJ (4) 614.2 KJ
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15. Energy required to raise the temperature of 10.0 g of 20. A 1.250 g sample of octane (C8H18) is burned in
iron from 25°C to 500°C, if specific heat capacityof excess of oxygen in a bomb calorimeter. The
iron is 0.45 J °C–1 g–1 is– temperture of the calorimeter rises from 294.05K
to 300.78 K. If heat capacity of the calorimeter is
(1) 3020.2 J (2) 2137.5 J
8.93 KJ/K, enthalpy of combustion of the sample
(3) 1537 J (4) 836 J of octane at constant volume is–
16. Calculate the Gibb's energy change when 1 mole (1) –6285 KJ mol–1 (2) –5481.1 KJ mol–1
of NaCl is dissolved in water at 25°C. (3) –2800 KJ mol–1 (4) –3680 KJ mol–1
Lattice energy of NaCl = 777.8 KJ mol–1 ; 21. Which has maximum internal energy?
(1) O3 gas (2) O2 gas
DS for dissolution = 0.043 KJ mol–1 and (3) He gas (4) Both (2) and (3)
Hydration energy of NaCl = –774.1 KJ mol–1 22. Which is not true about G?
(1) If DG > 0, reaction is spontaneous
(1) –9.114 KJ mol–1 (2) –11.4 KJ mol–1
(2) G is a state function
(3) –5.4 KJ mol–1 (4) –4.5 KJ mol–1 (3) –DG = Wuseful
17. In which reactions DS is positive (4) At equilibrium, DG = 0
23. For the reaction
(1) H2 O(l) ¾¾® H2O(s)
F2 + 2HCl ¾¾® 2HF + Cl2 ;
(2) 3O2 (g) ¾¾® 2O3 (g)
DH0 = –84.4 K Cal
(3) H2O(l ) ¾¾® H2O(g) 0
If DHf (HF) = –64.2 K Cal mol–1 then DH0f (HCl) is–
(4) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ¾¾® 2NH3 (g) (1) 44.0 K Cal mol–1 (2) –44.0 K Cal mol–1
18. When enthalpy and entropy change for a chemical (3) 22 K Cal mol–1 (4) –22 K Cal mol–1
reaction are –2.5 × 103 cal. and 7.4 cal. deg–1 24. For the reaction Na(s) ¾¾® Na(g), the heat of
respectively predict the reaction at 298 K is–
reaction is called as
(1) Spontaneous (2) Non spontaneous (1) Heat of vaporisation
(2) Heat of atomisation
(3) At equilibrium (4) None of these
(3) Heat of sublimation
19. If a gas at constant temperature and pressure (4) Both (2) and (3)
expands then its– 25. Red phosphorus reacts with liquid bromine in
(1) Internal energy increases exothermic reaction as follows –
(2) Internal energy remains the same 2P(s) + 3Br2(l) ¾¾® 2PBr3(g)
(3) Internal energy decreases DrH0 = – 243 KJ

Enthalpy change when 2.63 g of phosphorus reacts
(4) Entropy increases and then decreases with an excess of bromine is–
(1) –20.6 KJ (2) –10.3 KJ
(3) –5.3 KJ (4) –25.6 KJ
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 1 3 1 2 2 1 1 4 4 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
1. Equilibrium can be established – 8. What will happen if temperature is increased in the
(1) Only for physical processes dissolution of CO2 gas in water in a closed container?
(2) Only for chemical processes (1) solubility decreases
(3) for both physical & chemical processes (2) solubility increases
(4) None of these (3) solubility remains unchanged
2. At equilibrium – (4) None of these
(1) concentration of reactants and products are equal. 9. For the equilibrium H2O(l) H2O(g) attained in a
(2) concentration of reactants is double to that of closed container at 40°c. The vapour pressure of
products. water is 23 mm of Hg. What is Kp for reaction?
(3) concentration of reactants and products becomes (1) 46 mm of Hg (2) 23 mm of Hg
constant.
(3) 15 mm of Hg (4) data insufficient
(4) None of these
10. The Kp for the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g),
3. In the reaction X(g) 2Y(g), the concentration of
is 16. If pressure at equilibrium is doubled, then Kp
X is increased, when –
will be –
(1) pressure is increased
(1) 32 (2) 8
(2) pressure is decreased
(3) 24 (4) 16
(3) inert gas is added at constant volume
11. In the reaction A B + C, initially 3 moles of A
(4) None of these
were taken. At equilibrium 0.75 moles of B are
4. Which of the following is correct?
formed. The degree of dissociation of A is –
(1) At equilibrium rate of forward reaction is greater
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.25
than that of rate of backward reaction.
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.40
(2) Equilibrium can be attained from either of the
direction. 12. The reactant will be most stable if the value of KC
(3) On addition of catalyst the equilibrium state gets for the reaction is –
affected. (1) 2 × 10–7 (2) 5 × 108
(4) None of these (3) 1.7 × 10–3 (4) 1 × 10–15
5. Which of the following is correct for the reaction in 13. The Kc for the reaction PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 is 0.04.
which volume change has no effect – At a given time 0.1 M PCl5, 0.3 M each of PCl3
(1) Kp < Kc (2) Kp = Kc and Cl2 are present then predict direction of
(3) Kp > Kc (4) None of these reaction –
6. For which of the following reaction Kp is unit less ? (1) forward (2) backward
(1) CaCO3(s) CO2(g) + CaO(s) (3) at equilibrium (4) None of these
(2) Ni(s) + 4CO(g) [Ni(CO)4 ](g) 14. If Kc < 10–3 then
(3) C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO(g) (1) The reaction proceeds nearly to completion
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) (2) The extent of reaction is very low
7. If a reversible reaction shifting from right to left then
(3) Appreciable concentrations of both reactants &
which of the following is correct?
products are present
(1) Qp < Kp (2) Qp = Kp
(4) None of these
(3) Qp > Kp (4) None
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
15. For reaction 22. At a given temperature equilibrium is attained when
50% of each reactant is converted into the products

H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) at 200 K if

A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)
Kc is 4.0 × 1031 then we conclude that–
(1) The reaction proceeds nearly to completion If amount of B(g) is doubled, percentage of B
(2) The reaction proceeds rarely converted into products will be–
(3) Appreciable concentrations of both reactants &
(1) 100% (2) 50%
products are present
(3) 66.67% (4) 33.33%
(4) None of these
23. The position of the equilibrium for a system when
16. By the Equilibrium constant we can–
Kc = 4.6 ×10–15 can be described as being favoured
(1) predict the extent of a reaction on the basis of
to........., the concentration of products is
its magnitude
relatively.......
(2) predict the direction of the reaction
(1) The right, larger (2) The left, small
(3) Calculate equilibrium concentrations
(3) the left, larger (4) the right, small
(4) All of these
24. In the following equilibrium
17. The liquid which has a higher vapour pressure is
more volatile and has a–
I : A + 2B C ; Keq = K1
(1) Higher boiling point
(2) Lower boiling point
II : C+D
3A ; Keq = K2
(3) Higher force of attraction molecules
(4) None of these III :
6B + D 2C ; Keq = K3
18. Boiling point of the liquid depends on the–
hence, reaction between K1, K2 and K3 is :
(1) atmospheric pressure (2) amount of liquid
(3) Equilibrium constant (4) None of these (1) 3K1 K2 = K3 (2) K13 K 22 = K 3
19. Temperature changes affect–
(3) 3K1 K22 = K 3 (4) K13 K 2 = K 3
(1) The Equilibrium constant
(2) rates of reactions
25.
For the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2 (g), Kc = 4.
(3) Equilibrium System
This reversible reaction is studied graphically as
(4) All of these
shown in the given figure. Select the correct statements
20. Naphthalene, a white solid used to make moth balls
out of I, II and III.
has a vapour pressure of 0.10 mm Hg at 27°C.
I : Reaction quotient has maximum value at point A
Hence Kp and Kc for the equilibrium are:
II : Reaction proceeds left to right at a point when

C10H8 (s) C10H8 (g) [N2O4] = [NO2] = 0.1 M
III: Kc = Q when point D or F is reached.
(1) 0.10 atm, 0.10 atm
(2) 0.10 atm, 4.1 × 10–3 atm
A D E
(3) 1.32 × 10–4 atm, 5.34 × 10–6 atm
concemtration
(4) 5.36 × 10–6 atm, 1.32 × 10–4 atm

C
21. For the following equilibrium
G
F
N2O4 (g) 2NO2(g) B Time
Kp is found to be equal to Kc. This is attained when–
(1) T = 1 K (2) T = 12.18 K (1) I, II (2) II, III
(3) T = 27.3 K (4) T = 273 K (3) I, III (4) I, II, III
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
26. In the dissociation of N2O4 into NO2. x varies with 29. Increase in the pressure for the following equilibrium
D
H2O (l) H2O(g) result in the
according to– (x = Degree of dissociation)
d I : Formation of more H2O(l)
II : Formation of more H2O(g)
x x III : Increase in boiling point of H2O(l)
IV : Decrease in boiling point of H2O (l)
(1) (2) Hence, correct statements are–
o o (1) I, II (2) II, III (3) I, III (4) I, IV
D D
30. Formation of acetone is favoured for the following
d d equilibrium if
(CH 3) 2CHOH(g) (CH 3) 2CO(g) + H 2(g),

x x DH=+57.3 KJ
(1) The temperature is increased
(3) (4) (2) The volume is increased at constant temperature
o o (3) H2(g) is withdrawn
D D
(4) Under all the conditions given above
d d
31. In each of the following total pressure at equilibrium
is assumed to be equal and is 1 atm with equilibrium
27. Consider following equilibrium in gaseous phase
constant Kp given

I : PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
I : CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g), K1

II : 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) II :
NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g), K2
III : NH2CO2NH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), K3

III :2CH3COOH(g) (CH3COOH)2(g)
Increasing order of Kp is –
observed vapour density is larger than theoretical (1) K1 = K2 = K3 (2) K1 < K2 < K3
value in case of
(3) K3 < K2 < K1 (4) None of these
(1) I, II (2) I, III 32. DH for reaction does not affected by Catalyst
(3) II, III (4) I, II, III because–
28. The equilibrium constants for the reaction (1) It lowers the activation energy for the forward
reaction.

H3BO3 + glycerine (H3BO3. glycerine) is 0.90. (2) It lowers the activation energy for the forward
Glycerine present per litre of 0.1 M H3BO3 to and backward reactions by exactly the same
convert 60% of H3BO3 into (H3BO3. glycerine) is– amount.
(1) 0.167 M (2) 1.67 M (3) It decreases the rate of forward reaction.
(4) It does not change the rate of reaction.
(3) 0.0167 (4) 10.67 M
33. The equilibrium constant for the hydrolysis of sugar

is 2 × 1013 at 300K. The DG° of the reacttion is –
(1) –7.6 × 104 J.mol–1 (2) –15.8 × 104 J.mol–1
(3) 7.6 × 104 J.mol–1 (4) 15.8 × 104 J. mol–1
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 1
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 1 4 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 3 2 3 4
Q.No. 31 32 33
Ans. 3 2 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
IONIC EQUILIBRIUM, ACID & BASE, pH, BUFFER & INDICATOR

1. Solution is acidic when: 10. The solubility of salts depends on which factor (s)–
(1) Temperature
(1) [H3O+] = [OH–] (2) [H3O+] < [OH–]
(2) lattice enthalpy of salt
(3) [H3O+] >[OH–] (4) None
(3) Solvation enthalpy of ions in a solution
2. The pH of 0.2 M mono basic acid is 3.50 then Ka is: (4) All of these
(1) 3.2 × 10–8 (2) 5.12 × 10–7 11. If the molar solubility of Zirconium phosphate is S
then solubility product (Ksp) of zironium phosphate is–
(3) 5.12 × 10–8 (4) None
(1) 108 S5 (2) 729 S6
3. The pH of 0.004 M nicotine solution is 9.7 then pKb (3) 6912 S7 (4) None
is– 12. Which salt is most soluble?
(1) 6.20 (2) 4.20 (1) CaF2 (Ksp = 5.3 × 10–9)
(3) 9.71 (4) 5.19 (2) BaCrO4 (Ksp = 1.2 × 10–10)
(3) CaC2O4 (Ksp = 4 × 10–9)
4. Among these which is strongest base–
(4) Hg2Cl2 (Ksp = 1.3 × 10–18)
(1) H2 A (2) HA– 13. The solubility of salts of weak acids increases at
(3) A–2 (4) H3 AÅ (1) higher pH (2) Lower pH
5. Correct order of acidic strength is– (3) same pH (4) Can't say anything
14. Which is lewis acid?
(1) CH4 < H2O < NH3 < HF
(2) H2O < NH3 < CH4 < HF (1) H2O (2) NH+4
(3) CH4 < NH3 < H2O < HF (3) H+ (4) OH–
(4) HF < NH3 < H2O < CH4 15. Molar solubility of Cd(OH)2 (Ksp = 2.5 × 10–14) in
0.1 M KOH solution is–
6. Correct order of basic strength is–
(1) 2.5 × 10–7 M (2) 5 × 10–8 M
(1) OH– > HSe– > HS– > HTe– (3) 5 × 10 M –7
(4) 2.5 × 10–12 M
(2) HTe– > HSe– > SH– > OH– 16. Molar solubility of Ca(OH)2 in a solution that has a
– –
(3) OH > HS > HSe > HTe – – pH of 12. [Ksp [Ca(OH)2] = 5.6 × 10–12]
(4) HS– > HTe– > OH– > HSe– (1) 5.6 × 10–10 M (2) 5.6 × 10–8 M
–4
(3) 4 × 10 M (4) None
7. Which pair shows common ion effect?
17. Degree of hydrolysis of the following is independent
(1) HCl + NaCl (2) HCl + KOH of concentration for :
(3) HCN + KCN (4) Ba(NO3)2 + BaCl2 I. NH4CN II. NH4HCO3
8. pH of solution when 50 mL of 0.10 M ammonia III. Mg2S IV. CH3NH3Cl
solution is treated with 50 mL of 0.05 M HCl (1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, IV
(3) I, III, IV (4) I, II, III

solution–
What is éëNH4 ùû in a solution in a mixture of
+
(pKbof ammonia = 4.74) 18.
(1) 8.26 (2) 9.26 0.02 M NH3 and 0.01 M KOH?
(3) 4.74 (4) None [Kb (NH3) = 1.8 × 10–5]
(1) 3.6 × 10–5 M (2) 1.8 × 10–5 M
9. For WA WB type of salt, pH is given by this formula –5
(3) 0.9 × 10 M (4) 7.2 × 10–5 M
1 19. The conjugate base of NH2- is–
pH = 7 + (pKa – pKb)
2 +
(1) NH3 (2) NH4
The pH of solution can be greater than 7, if the (3) NH–2 (4) N2H4
difference between pKa and pKbis –
20. pKb of a base is 6, then Ka of its conjugate acid
(1) Negative (2) zero will be –
(3) positive (4) None (1) 10–6 (2) 10–8 (3) 10–14 (4) 10–12
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
21. Which of the following is correct for the dissociation 30. Which of the following has maximum conductivity?
of H2CO3 – (1) HF (2) HCOOH
(1) K a1 = K a 2 (2) K a1 < K a2 (3) HBr (4) HCN
31. Which of the following can act as a Bronsted acid
(3) K a1 > K a 2 (4) None
but not as an Arrhenius acid?
(Here K a1 & K a2 are first and second dissociation (1) HCl (2) HNO2
constant of H2CO3 respectively) (3) CH3COOH (4) H3O+
22. Aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3 is – 32. The pH of 0.004 M N2H4 solution is 9.7. Calculate
(1) Strong acidic (2) Weak acidic its Kb –
(3) Strong basic (4) Weak basic (1) 6.25 × 10–7 (2) 12.2 × 10–8
23. Which has least possibility to be a Lewis acid –
(3) 1.7 × 10–6 (4) 1.5 × 10–10
(1) CN– (2) SnCl2 (3) PCl3 (4) I+
33. pKa + pKb = pKw is applicable for –
24. Which of the following has maximum pH ?
(1) 1M H2S (2) 1M H2O (1) HNO3, NO2– (2) NH4+, NH4Cl
(3) 1M H2Se (4) 1M H2Te (3) HCl, CN– (4) NH3, NH2–
25. Which of the following is strongest base in aqueous 34. The conjugate acid of CH3COOH is –
solution ? +
(1) NaOH (2) RbOH (3) KOH (4) CsOH (1) CH3COO– (2) CH 3COOH 2
26. On addition of KF in the solution of HF – (3) CH3COO+ (4) H+
(1) dissociation of HF increases. 35. The pH of 0.003 M HBr solution is –
(2) concentration of H+ ions increases. (1) 2.3 (2) 3.3 (3) 3.7 (4) 2.52
(3) concentration of H+ ions decreases. 36. 0.56 g KOH is dissolved in 200 ml solution. What
(4) concentration of F– ions decreaseses. is the pH of solution ?
27. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic because –
(1) 1.3 (2) 12.7 (3) 2.3 (4) 11.7
(1) Fe+3 ions react with water to give H+ ions in solution.
(2) Cl– ions react with water to give H+ ions in solution. 37. The pH of 0.1M solution of HCNO is 2.3. The
(3) It is a salt of strong base and weak acid. dissociation constant of the acid is –
(4) None of these (1) 5 × 10–5 (2) 2 × 10–3
28. Which of the following salt solution is almost neutral (3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 25 × 10–6
and can also act as buffer solution ?
(1) NaCl (2) CH3COONH4 38. The Kw of water at 310 K is 2.7 × 10–14. The pH
(3) NH4Cl (4) CH3COONa of water at this temperature is –
29. The Ksp of Ni(OH)2 is 2 ×10–15. Its solubility in 0.1M (1) 14 (2) 7 (3) 6.79 (4) 8.21
NaOH is – 39. Which of the following is amphiprotic –
(1) 1.41 × 10–8 M (2) 2 × 10–13 M
(1) H2PO2– (2) HPO3–2 (3) HPO4–2 (4) All
(3) 2 × 10–14 M (4) 1.41 × 10– 6 M
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 3 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 3
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans. 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 3 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
SOLUTION
1. Chloroform mixed with nitrogen gas is an example of 4. Raoults law can be said to be a special case of
(1) Gas in Gas solution Henry's law in which KH (Henry's Constant) becomes
equal to –
(2) Liquid in Gas solution
(1) Mole fraction of solute
(3) Solid in Gas solution
(2) Mole fraction of solvent
(4)Liquid in Liquid solution
(3) vapour pressure of volatile component
2. Concentration of pollutants in water or atmosphere
is often expressed in terms of (4) Total vapour pressure
(a) Molarity (b) Molality (c) mg/ml (d) ppm 5. Molecular mass of polymers is determined by using
(1) a & b (2) a & d (3) b & c (4) c & d (1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure
Note – Mass %, ppm, mole fraction and molality (2) Elevation in boiling point
are independent of temperature. (3) Depression in freezing point
3. Scuba divers cope up with the situation of bends by (4) Osmotic pressure
breathing in 6. Normal saline solution which is isotonic with blood
(1) Pure air cells
(2) Pure oxygen (1) 1N salt solution
(3) Air diluted with helium (2) 0.9% mass/volume NaCl solution
(4) Air diluted with Oxygen (3) 1N NaCl solution
(4) Normal salt solution
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6
Ans. 2 4 3 3 4 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ELECTRO CHEMISTRY
1. Which statement is correct
7. Effeciency of fuel cell to produce electricity is
(1) a galvanic cell is an electro chemical cell that approximately
converts the chemical energy of a spontaneous
(1) 40% (2) 50%
redox reaction into electrical energy.
(3) 60% (4) 70%
(2) If an external opposite potential is applied on
daniel cell is more than 1.1V than it function as 8. Example of corrosion is –
an electrolytic cell. (1) Rusting of iron
(3) In a galvanic cell, the half cell in which oxidation (2) Tarnishing of silver
takes place is called anode and it has a negative (3) development of green coating on copper and
potential with respect to the solution. bronze
(4) All are correct (4) All of the above
2. Given the standard electrode potential 9. At 298K, Kc for Daniel cell is approximately
+ +
K /K = – 2.93V, Ag /Ag = 0.80 V (E°=1.10V)
Hg2+/Hg = 0.79V; Mg2+/Mg = –2.37V, (1) 2 × 1037 (2) 2 × 1038
Cr3+/Cr = – 0.74V (3) 4 × 1037 (4) 4 × 1039
Correct order of their reducing power is – 10. The volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP when
(1) Ag > Hg > Cr > Mg > K a current of 5.36 ampere is passed through
dil. H2SO4 for 5 hours will be
(2) K > Mg > Cr > Hg > Ag
(1) 5.6L (2) 11.2L
(3) K > Cr > Mg > Ag > Hg
(3) 16.8L (4) 22.4L
(4) Cr > Mg > K > Hg > Ag
11. Which one of the following statement is incorrect
3. The conductivity of Electrolytic solutions depends on –
regarding the galvanic cell in which the reaction.
(1) Size of the ions produced and their solvation
Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) ® Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) takes place
(2) The nature of the solvent and its viscosity
(1) Zn is negatively charged electrode
(3) Temperature
(2) Ag is negatively charged electrode
(4) All of the above
(3) The flow of current is partly due to flow of
4. Which statement is incorrect about cell constant electrons and partly due to flow of ions
(1) Cell constant depends on the distance between (4) Current flow from Ag to Zn in external circuit
the electrodes and their area of cross section
12. The electrolysis of silver nitrate solution is carried
(2) The dimension of cell constant is length–1 out using silver electrods. Which the following
(3) The cell constant G* = Rk reaction occurs at the anode?
(4) G* = k/R (1) Ag ® Ag+ + e–
5. How much electricity in term of Faraday is required (2) Ag+ + e– ® Ag
for the reducing 1mol of KMnO4 to MnO2
(3) 2H2O ® 4H+ + O2 + 4e–
(1) 3F (2) 5F (3) 1F (4) 2F (4) 4OH– ® 2H2 + O2 + 4e–
6. The reaction which take place at cathode in
13. The equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction
Leclanche cell is
Fe2+(aq) + Ag+(aq) ® Fe3+(aq) + Ag(s) will be
(1) HgO + H2O + 2e– ® Hg + 2OH–
Given E°(Fe3+/Fe2+) = 0.77V; E°(Ag+/Ag) = 0.80V
(2) Zn ® Zn2+ + 2e–
(3) MnO2 + NH4+ + e– ® MnO(OH) + NH3 (1) 100 (2) 3.16
(4) PbO2 + SO42– + 4H+ + 2e– ® PbSO4 + 2H2O (3) 10 (4) 0.5
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
14. The EMF of the cell 17. The molar ionic conductances at infinite dilution of
– +
Pt(s)/Br 2(l)/Br (0.010M)|| H (0.010M)/H 2(g) K+ and SO 42– are 73.5 and 160 Scm2 mol–1
(1 bar)/Pt(s) at 298 K is respectively. The molar conductance of solution of
K2SO4 at infinite dilution will be
(Given E°Br2 / Br - = 1.09V) (1) 233.5 (2) 307 (3) 153.5 (4) 467
(1) 1.09V (2) 1.21V 18. Iron can be protected by coating with zinc or tin. If
(3) –1.326V (4) 0.854 V coating is broken.
15. The emf of Daniel cell is 1.1Volt. If the value of (1) iron will corrode faster if coated with zinc.
Faraday constant is 96500 C per mol, the change (2) Iron will corrode faster if coated with tin.
in free energy in KJ is (3) iron will corrode faster in both cases
(1) 212.30 (2) –212.30 (4) iron will not undergo any corrosion in boths case
(3) 106.15 (4) –106.15 19. I2 and Br2 are added to a solution conataining 1M each
16. The ionization constant of a weak electrolyte is of I– and Br– ions. Which of the following reaction will
25 × 10– 6 while the equivalent conductance of its take place? (Given : Standard reduction potentials of
0.01M solution is 19.6 Scm2 eq–1. The equivalent I2 and Br2 are 0.53 and 1.09 Volts repectively)
conductance of the electrolyte at infinite dilution (1) Iodine will reduce bromide ions
(in Scm2 eq–1) will be (2) Bromine will reduce iodide ions
(1) 250 (2) 196 (3) 392 (4) 384 (3) Iodide ions will reduce bromine
(4) Bromide ion will reduce iodine
ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 4 4 1 3 4 4 1 2 2 1 2 3 2
Que s. 16 17 18 19
Ans. 3 2 2 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CHEMICAL KINETICS
5. Which of the following is correct–
1. For the reaction–
(1) Decomposition of NH3 on finely divided platinum
5Br - (aq) + BrO3- (aq) + 6HÅ (aq) ® 3Br2(aq)+3H2O(l) surface is first order when the pressure of NH 3
Rate of disappearance of Br–(aq) is is low
1.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 sec–1. (2) Decomposition of NH3 on finely divided platinum
surface is zero order. when the presure of NH3
Rate of appearance of Br2(aq) is–
is high
(1) 3 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) The thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface
(2) 6 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 is zero order reaction.
(3) 9 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (4) All of these
(4) 4.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 6. The rate constant of first order reaction becomes
6 times when the temperature is increased from
2. The decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 at 318K has
350 K to 410 K. Energy of activation for the
been studied by monitoring the concentration of reaction is–
N2O5 in the solution. Initially the concentration of (1) 35.63 KJ mol–1 (2) 45.63 KJ mol–1
N2O5 is 3.32 mol L–1 and after 120 minutes, it is (3) 25.20 KJ mol–1 (4) 23.62 KJ mol–1
reduced to 1.04 mol L–1. The reaction takes place
7. For the reaction, 2A + B + C ¾¾® A2 B + C, the
according to the equation–
rate law has been determined to be
2N2O5(g) ¾¾® 4NO2(g) + O2(g) Rate = K [A] [B]2 [C]0
If the value of K is 2.0 × 10–6 mol–2 L2 s–1 for the
What is the rate of production of O2(g)
reaction, Initial rate of the reaction with
(1) 1.14 mol L–1 h–1 (2) 0.57 mol L– h–1 (A) = 0.2 mol L–1 ;
–1 –1
(3) 2.28 mol L h (4) None of these (B) = 0.1 mol L–1 ;
(C) = 0.5 mol L–1 ;
3. A chemical reaction 2A ¾¾® 4B + C in gaseous
is –
phase shows an increase in concentration of B by (1) 2 × 10–9 Ms–1 (2) 4 × 10–9 Ms–1
–3
5 × 10 M in 10 second. The rate of reaction and (3) 3 × 10–9 Ms–1 (4) 1 × 10–9 Ms–1
rate of appearance of B are respectively– 8. Rate constant for first order reaction is
(1) 5 × 10 –4
Ms –1
and 1.25 × 10 –4
Ms –1 5.78 ×10–5 s–1. What percentage of initial reactant
(2) 1.25 × 10 –4
Ms –1
and 5 × 10–4
Ms –1 will react in 10 hours?
(1) 12.5% (2) 25% (3) 87.5% (4) 75%
(3) 1.25 × 10–4 Ms–1 and 2.5 × 10–4 Ms–1
9. A first order reaction with respect to reactant A has
(4) 2.5 × 10–4 Ms–1 1.25 × 10–4 Ms–1
and
a rate constant 6.0 × 10–2 min–1. If we start with
4. For the decomposition, [A] = 0.5 mol L –1; when would (A) reach the value
1 0.05 mol L–1?
N2O5(g) ¾¾® N2O4(g) + O (g),
2 2 (1) 48.4 min (2) 28.9 min
the initial pressure of N2O5 is 114 mm and after (3) 38.4 min (4) 18.6 min
20 sec, the pressure of reaction mixture becomes 10. In a reaction 2A ¾¾® products, the concentration
133 mm. The rate of reaction in terms of of A decreases from 0.5 mol L–1 to 0.4 mol L–1 in
–1
atm sec is– 10 minutes, rate of reaction is–
(1) 1.25 × 10–3 atm sec–1 (1) 0.005 mol L–1 min–1
(2) 2.5 × 10–3 atm sec–1 (2) 0.002 mol L–1 min–1
(3) 0.05 mol L–1 min–1
(3) 9.5 ×10–1 atm sec–1
(4) 0.02 mol L–1 min–1
(4) 4.75 × 10–1 atm sec–1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
11. For a first order reaction half life periods are 5000 15. Which of the following is false about catalyst–
and 1000 seconds at300 K and 310 K temperature (1) A catalyst does not alter Gibb's energy; DG of
a reaction.
respectively. Energy of activation is–
(2) It catalyses the non-spontaneous reactions
(1) 12.46 KJ mol–1 (2) 124.46 KJ mol–1 (3) Catalyst does not change the equilibrium constant
(3) 46.12 KJ mol–1 (4) 12.46 KJ mol–1 of a reaction.
12. The experimenta l da ta f or t he reaction (4) A small amount of the catalyst can catalyse a
large amount of reactants.
2A + B 2 ¾¾® 2AB are as follows. Rate law 16. For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction,
expression will be– A ¾¾® 2B + C , initial pressure was Pi while total
[A] [B2] Rate pressure after time 't' was 'Pt'. The write expression
–1 –1 for the rate constant K in terms of Pi, Pt and t is–
mol L mol L mol L–1 sec–1
0.50 0.50 1.6 × 10–4 2.303 æ 2Pi ö
(1) K = log ç ÷
0.50 1.0 3.2 × 10–4 t è 3Pi - Pt ø
1.00 1.0 3.2 × 10–4
2.303 æ 2Pi ö
(1) rate = K[B2]1 (2) rate = K[A]1[B2]1 (2) K = log ç ÷
t è 2Pt - Pi ø
(3) rate = K[A]1 (4) rate = K[A] [B2]2
13. The half life period and initial concentration for a 2.303 æ Pi ö
(3) K = log ç ÷
reaction are as follows: t è Pi - Pt ø
Initial concentration 350 540 158 (4) None of these
t½ 425 275 941 17. A first order reaction is 50% completed in
order of reaction is– 20 minutes at 27°C and in 5 minutes at 47°C. The
(1) 2 (2) 1 energy of activation of the reaction is–
(3) 0 (4) 4 (1) 43.85 KJ (2) 55.33 KJ
14. The activation energy for the reaction–
(3) 11.97 KJ (4) 6.65 KJ
1
H2 O2 ¾¾® H2O + O2
2 18. Half life period of U237 is 2.5 × 105 years. In how
is 18 K cal/mol at 300 K. calculate the fraction of much time will the amount of U237 remained 25%
molecules of reactants having energy equal to or of the original amount?
greater than activation energy?
(1) 2.5 × 105 years (2) 1.25 × 105 years
–14
Anti log (–13.02) = 9.36 × 10
(3) 5 × 105 years (4) 106 years
(1) 9.36 × 10–14 (2) 1.2 × 10–12
(3) 4.2 × 10–16 (4) 5.2 × 10–15 19. The plot of lnk versus 1/T is linear with slope of–
-E a Ea
(1) (2)
R R
Ea -E a
(3) (4)
2.303R 2.303R
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 2 1 1 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19
Ans. 1 2 3 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
SOLID STATE
1. Refractive index of a solid is observed to have the 9. For graphite which is possible?
same value along all directions. It means nature of (1) a = b = c, a = b = g = 90°
dsadsa jdkdjks
solid is– j
(2) a = b ¹ c, a = b = g = 90°
(1) Anisotropic (2) Isotropic
(3) a = b ¹ c, a = b =90°, g = 120°
(3) Crystalline (4) None of these
(4) a ¹ b ¹ c, a = b = g = 90°
2. Quartz glass is a
10. In dislocation defect, density of solid is–
(1) Amorphous Solid (2) Crystalline Solid
(1) increased (2) decreased
(3) Anisotropic (4) None of these
(3) unchanged (4) None
3. Diamond is a
11. Co-ordination number in Cu metallic crystal is–
(1) Molecular solid (2) Ionic solid
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) Metallic solid (4) Covalent solid
(3) 12 (4) 4
4. Which type of solids are electrical conductors,
12. Volume occupied by atoms in FCC unit cell is–
malleable and ductile?
(1) Molecular solid (2) Metallic solid 4 3 8 3
(1) pr (2) pr
(3) Ionic solid (4) covalent solid 3 3
5. H3BO3 is an example of which crystal system?

16 3
(3) pr (4) pr3
(1) Cubic (2) Tetragonal 3
(3) Triclinic (4) Monoclinic
13. Due to excess of lithium. It makes LiCl crystals–
6. A compound forms hexagonal close packed
(1) yellow (2) violet
structure. How many octahedral voids in 0.3 mol
(3) pink (4) white
of it?
14. Solid solution of CdCl2 and AgCl show which type
(1) 1.08 × 1023 (2) 1.80 × 1023
of defect?
(3) 5.4 × 1023 (4) None of these
(1) Schottky (2) frenkel
7. A compound is formed by three elements A, B and
(3) Impurity (4) metal excess
C. The element A forms CCP, atoms of B occupy
2/3rd of tetrahedral voids & atoms of C occupy 15. A metal crystallises in FCC lattice. If edge length of
1/3rd of octahedral voids then formula of the the cell is 4 ×10–8 cm and density is 10.5 g cm–3 then
compound is– the atomic mass of metal is–
(1) ABC (2) A3B4C3 (1) 101.2 (2) 50.6
(3) A3B4C (4) A4B3C (3) 202.3 (4) None
8. The two dimensional Co-ordination number of a

molecule in square closed-packed layer is–
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 4
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
9. For Hydrogenation reactions maximum catalytic
1. When a chalk stick is dipped in Ink solution then the
activity is shown by
ink particles are.
(1) Adsorbed (1) Group 5 – 11 elements
(2) Absorbed (2) Group 5 – 9 elements

(3) Sorption takes place (3) Group 7 – 9 elements
(4) Precipitated (4) Group 9 – 11 elements
2. In physical adsorption, when rate of adsorption and 10. If a micellar solution of soap is diluted, then
rate of desorption are equal then (1) More micelles are formed
(1) DH = 0 (2) TDS = 0
(2) lytotropic mesomorphs are formed
(3) DG = 0 (4) All the above
(3) Soap precipitates out
3. In Freundlich Adsorption isotherm equation when
(4) Micelles break into ions
1 11. Which of the following can be used to speed up the
=0
n ultrafiltration process.
(1) Adsorption is independent of pressure (a) Pressure
(2) Adsorption varies directly with pressure (b) Suction
(3) Adsorption varies inversely with pressure (c) Increase in pore size
(4) Depends on pressure value
(d) Adding dispersion medium
4. What is the probable range of 1/n in Freundlich
(1) a, b (2) a, c
Adsorption isotherm equation.
(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d
(1) 0 – 1 (2) 0 – 0.5
12. Finest gold sol has colour
(3) 0.5 – 1 (4) 0.1 – 0.5
5. Freundlich Adsorption isotherm fails at (1) Red (2) blue
(1) Low pressure (3) Purple (4) violet
(2) High pressure 13. On increasing size of colloidal particle of gold from
(3) Low temperature smallest one, the colour shifts from
(4) Low temperature & low pressure (1) Red to Golden
6. When a charcoal is put into acetic acid solution (2) blue to Red
(1) concentration increases (3) Remains same
(2) concentration decreases (4) Darks Same
(3) concentration remains same 14. Charge on sol particles is
(4) Acetic acid precipitates (A) Due to electron capture by sol particles
7. Precipitate of Mg(OH) 2 attains blue colour in (B) Due to preferential adsorption of ions
presence of magneson reagent due to
(C) Due to formulation of electrical double layer
(1) Absorption (2) Adsorption
(1) a and b (2) a and c
(3) Sorption (4) desorption
(3) a, b and c (4) b and c
x 15. Positively charged sols is/are–
8. In Freundlich equation = KC1/n, C is
m (1) Al2O3. xH2O and CrO3. x H2O
(1) Initial concentration (2) Haemoglobin
(2) Equilibrium concentration
(3) Methylene blue sol.
(3) concentration of Adsorbent
(4) All
(4) Average concentration
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
16. Tyndal effect is observed when– 19. The volume of nitrogen gas at 0°C and 1.013 bar
(A) Diameter of dispersed particles is not much required to cover a sample of silica gel with
smaller than the wavelength of light used unimolecular layer is 129 cm3/gm of gel. Then the
(B) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and surface area per gm of the gel will be if each
the dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude nitrogen molecule occupies 16.2 × 10–20 m2.
(C) Diameter of dispersed particles is much larger (1) 568 m2 gm–1
than the wavelength of the light used (2) 5.68 m2 gm–1
(1) a and b (2) a and c (3) 5680 m2gm–1
(3) b and c (4) a, b and c (4) 5680 cm2 gm–1
17. CMC [critical miscelle concentration] for soaps is– 20. The arsenious sulphide sol has negative charge. The
(1) 10–4 to 10–3 mol/lit. maximum coagulating power for precipitating it is
(2) 10–6 to 10–2 mol/lit. of–
(3) 10–10 to 10–7 mol/lit. (1) 0.1 N Zn(NO3)2
(4) 10–12 to 10–5 mol/lit. (2) 0.1 N Na3PO4
18. Optimum temperature range for enzymatic activity (3) 0.1 N ZnSO4
is– (4) 0.1 N AlCl3
(1) 298 K to 310 K (2) 273 K to 310 K
(3) 273 K to 298 K (4) 298 K to 330 K
ANSWER KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 1 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 1 1 1 3 4
Que . 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 1 1 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
PERIODIC TABLE
1. The elements which forms the bridge between active 8. In which of the following species all the atomic
metals of s-block & least reactive metals of group orbitals are fully filled according to Aufbau's principle
13 & 14 are known as (1) Cu+ (2) Zn+2
(1) Typical elements (2) bridge elements (3) Kr (4) All of the above
(3) Normal elements (4) Transition elements 9. Select the group in which the two species have same
2. The study of actinoid is more complicated than value of radius.
lanthanoid. due to
(1) Cl35, Cl37 (2) Zr, Hf
(1) Most of the actinoids are present in nature for
(3) Al, Ga (4) All of the above
few seconds
10. The size of following species is affected by
(2) The Q uantity of actin oids is obtained in
nanograms H1 D2 T3
(3) Actionoids show more no.of oxidation states than (1) Nuclear charge & atomic mass
Lanthanoids (2) Valence shell principal quantum number
(4) All of the above (3) Electron electron interaction
3. Reactivity of elements in the period on moving form (4) None of the factors because their size is same
left to right 11. Which of the following statement is correct
(1) Decreases (1) I.P1 of Mg < I.P1 of Al
(2) increases (2) I.P3 of Mg > I.P2 of Na
(3) First decreases then increases
(3) I.P1 of Mg > I.P2 of Na
(4) First increases then decreases
(4) I.P2 of Mg > I.P2 of Al
4. Reactivity of s-block metals increases on moving
12. In Lithum 2s electron experience the force of
down the group. What about halogen's reactivity on
attraction exerted by nucleus
moving down the group
(1) Increases (1) equal to the actual charge of +3
(2) Decreases (2) more than the actual charge of +3
(3) First Increases then decreases (3) less than the actual charge of +3
(4) First decreases then increases (4) Can't be predicted
5. The model to classify the elements proposed by the 13. Which of the following is not a measurable quantity?
scientists before the discovery of electron : were (1) Ionization potential
based on. (2) Atomic radii
(1) Atomic number (2) Number of Nucleons (3) Electron Affinity
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_CHEM(INSIDER)\ENG\02-INORGANIC-E.P65
(3) Isotopes (4) Atomic volume

(4) Electronegativity
6. The name of the element having atomic no. 104
14. An element 'A' has 3 electron in outermost shell and
is/are
(1) Rutherfordium (2) Unnilquadium 'B' has 6 electron in outermost shell. Formula of the
(3) Kurchatovium (4) All of the above compound formed by the combination of these two.
7. The number of elements present in each period is equal (1) A2B3 (2) A3B2
to :-
(3) A6B3 (4) A2B
(1) Twice the atomic orbitals available in the energy
level in which electron is filled. 15. Valency of which of the following element is not equal
(2) Number of atomic orbitals available in energy to the valence electron
level. (1) Na (2) Mg
(3) 2n2
(3) C (4) O
(4) None of the above
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
16. Which of the following configuration has minimum 18. Correct increasing order of acidic character is :-
1st I.P. ? (1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < Cs2O
(1) 1s22s1 (2) 1s22s22p2 (2) Cs2O < Na2O < MgO < Al2O3
10 2 5 14 10 2 5
(3) 36[Kr] 4d 5s 5p (4) 54[Xe] 4f 5d 6s 6p (3) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3 < Ca2O
17. Which of the following configuration has maximum (4) None of these
value of E.A. ? 19. Which of the following configuration belongs to
(1) 1s22s22p4 (2) 1s2, 2s1 s-block elements ?
10 1 2 2 6 2 4
(3) 36[Kr] 4d 5s (4) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p (1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1
(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 4 4 4 2 3 4 1 4
Que. 16 17 18 19
Ans. 1 4 2 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CHEMICAL BONDING
1. Which of the following can be extracted with ether? 9. CO2 is linear but H2O is bent, because–
(1) NaCl (2) LiCl (1) CO2 is polar, H2O is not
(3) KCl (4) None (2) H2O is polar, CO2 is not
2. Select the pairs for which dipole moment of first (3) Carbon has low E.N than 'H'
species is greater than second– (4) Carbon can form double bond with 'O'
(1) NH3 , NF3 10. If 'X'-axis is internuclear axis, which of the following
(2) BF3 , BCl3 orbitals will not form a 's' bond–
(3) trans-but-2-ene, cis-but-2-ene (1) 1s & 1s (2) 1s & 2px
(3) 2py and 2py (4) 1s and 2s
Cl OH
11. The Hybrid state of 'starred' carbon (*)
(4) ,
* HO
CH3 C
Cl OH (1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d
3. Dipole moment of a diatomic molecule is 1.2 D. If 12. Condition for Linear combination of Atomic orbitals
–8
its bond length is 1 ×10 cm, what fraction of charge according to M.O.T is–
exists on each atom– (1) Orbital must have same symmetry
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.3 (2) Orbitals must have same energy
4. Which one of the following species does not exist? (3) Orbitals must overlap to maximum extent
(4) All
(1) He2+2 (2) He2 (3) He2+ (4) Li2+
13. In PCl5, axial bonds are longer than equatorial
5. The species having bond order different from that bonds because–
in 'CO' is–
(1) Equatorial bonds lie in same plane
– +
(1) NO (2) NO
(2) Axial bonds are repelled more by equatorial
–
(3) CN (4) N2 bonds
6. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is (3) Irregular electron distribution in 'P'
'3'. Which statement is true–
(4) There is bond angle of 120° between equatorial
(1) bond length comparison is Unpredictable bonds.
+
(2) bond length in NO is greater than is NO
14 Which lewis dot structure for O2– ion is correct ?

(3) bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO •• ••
2–
O O
××
××
(1) (2)
••
••
(4) bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO •• ••
7. The maximum No. of 90° angles between bp-bp of 2–

2– ××
•• ••
electrons is observed in– O• (4) •O• O
••
××
(3)
•
•• ××
3 2 3
(1) sp d Hybridisation (2) sp d Hybridisation
2
(3) dsp Hybridisation (4) dsp3 Hybridisation 15 Sodium and Chlorine atoms combines–
8. The shape of 'AsF5' according to V.S.E.P.R theory–
(1) to acquire electronic configuration of argon.
(1) Pentagonal Pyramidal
(2) to acquire highest oxidation states.
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) by exchanging valence electrons.
(3) Square Pyramidal
(4) Octahedral (4) to complete their octets.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
16 The group valency of the elements generally equals to– 23 The Lewis theory does not account for the–
(1) Total number of electrons (1) cause of bond formation
(2) 8 minus, total numbers of electrons (2) Shape of molecules
(3) Number of valence electrons or 8 minus valence (3) Strength of chemical bond
electrons (4) All
(4) higher oxidation state of the elements 24 Stability of ionic crystal is mainly affected by–
17 In ammonium ion, bond in between ammonia (1) Lattice energy (2) DEN
molecule and a proton is formed by–
(3) IP (4) EA
(1) Complete transfer of electron from NH3 to H+
25 Bond enthalpy in H2 molecule is 435.8 KJ mole–1
(2) electrostatic attraction between NH+4 & H+
where as bond enthalpy in N 2 molecule is
(3) equal contribution of electrons by NH3 & H+
946.0 KJ mole–1, because
(4) One sided sharing of electrons
(1) H2 contains ionic bond where as N2 covalent.
18 The correct structure of CO and NO2- are–
(2) H2 does not have lone pair but N2 have.
•• •• •• ••
(1) C O ,O N O (3) Internuclear distance in H2 is larger than N2.
••
••
•• •• ••
••
– (4) H2 contains single bond where as N2 contains
•• ••
(2) O , O N O multiple bond.
••
C
••
••
•• ••
– 26 Isoelectronic molecules and molecular ions have–
•• • ••
(3) C O O N O
••
(1) Same bond energy

••
••
••
••
– (2) identical bond order
•• ••
(4) O , O O N
••
••
C (3) same charge on molecules

••
••
2
O (4) same bond length
19 Lewis structure of O 3 is drawn as 1 3: 27 Which among the following statements is wrong?
O O
therefore formal charge on oxygen atoms are– (1) Resonance stabilizes the molecules
(1) 0, 0, 0 (2) 0, +1, –1 (2) Energy of resonance hybrid is more than the single
(3) 0, +1, +1 (4) –1, +1, –1 canonical structuire
20 Which among the following is diamagnetic molecule (3) Resonance averages the bond characteristics as
and follow octet rule? a whole.
(1) NO2 (2) ClO2 (3) CO2 (4) NO (4) The canonical form have no real existence.
21 Elements in and beyond the third period can expand 28 In polyatomic molecules dipole moment depend
their octet in the molecules like PF5, SF6 etc, because upon–
(1) they contain more than eight-electron in the (1) Individual dipole moment of bonds.
outermost shell.
(2) Spatial arrangment of various bonds.
(2) their atomic size is large.
(3) Vector sum of the dipole moments of various
(3) they have vacant (n – 1)d orbitals.
bonds.
(4) They have vacant nd orbitals.
(4) Geometry of molecules.
22 The ionic bond is formed by–
29 Which of the following statement regarding NH3 and
(1) Complete transfer of electrons from cation to
anion NF3 is correct ?
(2) Exchanging electrons in between metal and (1) NH 3 has pyramidal and, NF 3 has trigonal
nonmetal planar shape
(3) donation of electron pair from electro positive (2) bond angle in NH3 is smaller than NF3
to electronegative element. (3) r e s u l t a n t d i p o l e m o m e n t o f N H 3 i s
(4) Complete transfer of 1, 2 or 3 electron from (4.90 ×10–30cm) and that of NF3 is (0.8 ×10–30 cm)
electropositive to electronegative element. (4) they both are sp2 hybridized.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
30 The cations having same size and charge one having 33 Which among the following structure for ClF3 is most
(n – 1)d10ns0 configuration possess more polarising stable ?
power, because is– •• F
(1) It is d-bolock element F
••
(1) Cl F (2) Cl F
(2) It has inert gas configuration F
F •• ••
(3) It has effective shielding of d-electrons
F F
(4) it has more Zeff due to poor shielding of d-
••
••
electrons. (3) Cl F (4) Cl
••
••
31 According to VSEPR theory the pairs of electrons
••
F F F
tend to occupy such position in space that–
34 In the reaction BF3 + NH3 ¾¾® F3B.NH3
(1) Maximise repulsion and thus minimise distance
from one another. (1) Bond angle F – B – F increase
(2) minimise repulsion and thus maximise distance (2) HNHˆ bond anlge decrease
from one another. (3) regular geometry of BF3 changed
(3) maximise repulsion and thus maximise distance (4) regular geometry of NH3 changed.
from one another. 35 The correct increasing order of bond order is–
(4) minimise repulsion and distance from one
(1) N2 < O2 < O2+ < O2-
another.
32 Which of the following molecule does not contain
(2) O2- < O2 < O2+ < N2
bond angle of 90° ?
(1) IF7 (2) SiCl4 + -
(3) O2 < O2 < O2 < N2
(3) XeF4 (4) PCl5
+ -
(4) O2 < N2 < O2 < O2
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 2 2 3 3 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
s-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. Which of the following gives H2O2 on hydrolysis? 11. On exposure to air, how many water molecules are
lost by washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) :-
(1) Na2O (2) Na2O2
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 1 (4) 5
(3) KO2 (4) 2 & 3 both
12. In Downs cell KCl is added in NaCl to–
2. Which of the following is coloured?
(1) Lowers its melting point
(1) Li2O (2) Na2O2 (3) KO2 (4) Na2O
3. Correct order of melting points & boiling point is– (2) Dissolve more of NaCl
(M = Alkali metal) (3) Lower conductivity

(1) MF > MBr > MI > MCl (4) Increase the dissociation
(2) MF > MCl > MBr > Ml 13. Sodium carbonate solution in H2O is alkaline due to–
(3) MI > MBr > MCI > MF
(1) Hydrolysis of Na+
(4) MI > MBr > MF > MCl
(2) Hydrolysis of CO23-
4. Which of the following releases brown gas on
heating? (3) Hydrolysis of both Na+ and CO23-
(1) NaNO3 (2) LiNO3 (3) KNO3 (4) RbNO3 (4) None
5. Which of the following does not exist in solid form? 14. In the Manufacturing of NaOH, by product obtained
(1) Na HCO3 (2) Ba(HCO3)2 is–
(3) KH CO3 (4) Rb HCO3 (1) O2 (2) Cl2 (3) Na2CO3 (4) NaCl
6. Which of the following on heating releases a gas 15. Setting of plaster of paris involves–
which gives lime water test? (1) Oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
(1) Li2SO4 (2) Na2SO4 (2) Combination with atmospheric CO2
(3) K2SO4 (4) Rb2SO4 (3) Dehydration
7. Which of the following forms chlorobridged dimer (4) Hydration to yield another Hydrate
in vapour phase? 16. A metal 'M' readily form its sulphate MSO 4. Which
(1) LiCl (2) BeCl2 (3) BaCl2 (4) MgCl2 is water soluble. It form oxide MO which becomes
8. Tendency to form halide hydrates is maximum in– inert, on heating. It forms insoluble hydroxide which
is soluble in NaOH. The metal 'M' is–
(1) MgCl2 (2) CaCl2 (3) SrCl2 (4) BaCl2
(1) Mg (2) Ba (3) Ca (4) Be
9. BeF2 is prepared by thermal decomposition of
17. In curing cement plaster. Water is sprinkled from
(1) BeCO3 (2) (NH4)2 BeF4
time to time this helps in–
(3) BeF42 - (4) BeSO4
(1) Hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement
10. KHCO3 cannot be prepared by solvay's process due to–
(2) Converting sand into silicate
(1) Unstability
(3) Developing interlocked needle like crystals of
(2) High lattice energy
hydrated silicates
(3) High solubility in water
(4) Keeping it cool.
(4) High polarising power of K+
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
18. A sodium salt on treatment with the MgCl2 gives, 20. Which compound will liberate oxygen when react
white ppt only on heating, the anion of sodium salt
is– with H2O–
(1) HCO3- (2) CO23- (1) Na2O2 (2) KO2 (3) Na2O (4) Cs2O2
(3) NO3- (4) SO24- 21. The compound formed upon combustion of sodium
19. Gypsum on heating at 120 – 130°C gives– metal in excess of air–
(1) Hemihydrate (2) Monohydrate (1) Na2O2 (2) NaO2 (3) NaOH (4) Na2SO4
(3) Dihydrates (4) Anhydrous salt
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21
Ans. 4 3 1 1 2 1
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
BORON FAMILY 9. Diborane reacts with ammonia initially it gives
1. Order of Relative stability of +1 oxidation state in B2H6.2NH3 which is formulated as–
Boron family (1) BH3 ¬NH3
(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]–
(3) Al > Ga > In < Tl
(3) [BH4]+ [BH2(NH3)2]–
(3) Al = Ga = In = Tl
(4) B3N3H6
(4) Al < Ga > In < Tl
10. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding
2. Which of the following species act as oxidising agent?
diborane
(1) Al+3 (2) Tl+3
(1) It is highly toxic gas
(3) In+3 (4) Ga+3
(2) It is Inflammable
3. Trihalide of boron family act as lewis acid. What is
the order of lewis acidic strength? (3) It is not hydrolysed by water
(1) BCl3 < AlCl3 < GaCl3 (4) It acts as lewis acid
(2) BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3 11. Al liberate H2 gas on dissolving it in
(3) BCl3 < AlCl3 > GaCl3 (1) HCl (2) HNO3
(4) BCl3 = AlCl3 = GaCl3 (3) NaOH (4) 1 & 3 both
4. Which of the following oxide gives acidic solution in
CARBON FAMILY
water?
12. Elements of group 14
(1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3
(3) Both (4) None (1) exhibit oxidation state of +4 only
5. White fumes appear around the bottle of anhy. (2) exhibit oxidation state of +2 and +4
AlCl3. It is due to (3) form M2– and M+4 ions
(1) Formation of Al(OH)3 (4) form M+2 and M+4 ions.
(2) Dimerisation of AlCl3 13. Normally SiO2 is almost non reactive due to
(3) Due to hydrolysis of AlCl3 giving HCl gas
(1) Very high Si–O bond enthalpy
(4) Due to absorption of moisture
(2) Back bonding between Si & O atom
6. Borax dissolves in water to give
(1) acidic solution (2) Basic solution (3) sp3 hybridisation of Si
(3) neutral solution (4) None (4) None of these

7. In Borax bead test characterstic colour appears due 14. SiO2 is soluble in
to formation of– (1) HNO3 (2) H2SO4 (3) HF (4) HCl

(1) Metaborate of transition metals 15. The chain length of silicones can be controlled by
(2) Sodium Metaborate
(1) (CH3)3 SiCl
(3) Boron oxide
(2) Addition of Cu powder
(4) Boric anhydride
(3) Elevation of temperature
8. Which of the following statement is wrong about
orthoboric acid (4) None of these
(1) It has a layer structure 16. Carbon monoxide does not act as
(2) In it's structure BO3 units are bonded through (1) Reducing agent
H–bond (2) Complexing agent
(3) Boric acid is tribasic acid
(3) Fuel
(4) On open heating for long time, it produces B2O3.
(4) A basic oxide
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
17. In graphite C – C bond length (141.5 pm) found 25. The electronegativity of N & Cl are almost equal
to be shorter than normal C – C bond length but N2 is inert while Cl2 is reactive because
(154 pm) this anomaly occurs due to (1) Cl – Cl bond has very high bond dissociation
energy
(1) There is pp-pp bond delocalise within layer
(2) In Hexagonal layer structure C-atom are bonded (2) N 2 molecule has very high bond dissociation
energy
more compactly.
(3) Cl2 molecule is bigger in size
(3) Hexagonal layers have weak vander waals forces
(4) N has +ve electron gain enthalpy
among them.
26. PCl3 is an oily colorless liquid, it hydrolyses in
(4) sp3 hybridisation of each carbon atom.
presence of mositure and produces–
NITROGEN FAMILY (1) H3PO3 & HCl (2) H3PO4 & HCl
18. Which of the following can form dp-dp bond with (3) H3PO2 & H3PO3 (4) H3PO3 & H3PO4
transition metal? 27. In the ostwald's process nitric acid is prepared by
(1) N(CH3)3 (2) P(C2H5)3 the catalytic oxidation of
(3) As(C6H5)3 (4) 2 & 3 both (1) N2 (2) NH3
19. Nitrogen form NX3 type trihalide. Most stable (3) N2O5 (4) NO2
trihalide is– 28. Holme signal contains
(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (3) NBr3 (4) NI3 (1) CaC2 + CaCN2 (2) CaC2 + Ca3P2
20. BiH3 is strongest reducing agent among hydride of (3) CaC2 + CaCO3 (4) Ca3P2 + CaCN2
15th group element due to OXYGEN FAMILY
(1) Most ionic hydride 29. What is the correct order of acidic nature?
(1) SO2 < SeO2 < TeO2
(2) least bond dissociation enthalpy
(2) SO2 > SeO2 > TeO2
(3) smallest bond angle
(3) SO2 = SeO2 = TeO2
(4) Highest boiling point
(4) SO2 < SeO2 > TeO2
21. PH 3 is no n-inflammable gas ,bu t becomes
30. Which of the following oxide is different from others?
inflammable owing to the presence of
(1) SO2 (2) Cl2O7
(1) P2H4 (2) P4O10
(3) Pb3O4 (4) CO2
(3) NaH2PO2 (4) NaOH 31. For the estimation of O3, it is allowed to react with
ˆ – N bond angle excess of KI solution buffered with a
22. In the gaseous state of HNO3 N – O
(1) Borate buffer
is 102° what would be the arrgangement of HNO3
(2) NH4OH + NH4+ buffer
(1) Planar (2) Tetrahedral

(3) CH3COOH + CH3COONa buffer
(3) Square planar (4) Distorted
(4) All
23. PH3 is slightly soluble in water, the solution of PH 3
32. Which of the following form of sulphur is
in water decomposes in presence of light and gives
paramagnetic?
(1) PH+4 OH- (2) H2 & P4 (red) (1) S3 (2) S6
(3) S2 (4) All of them
(3) P4O10 (4) P2H4 + energy
33. What are most favourable conditions for the
24. Which of the following oxoacid of phosphorus does production of SO3 from SO2?
not disproportionate? (1) High temp & low pressure
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO4 (2) low temp & high pressure
(3) H3 PO3 (4) All (3) low temp & low pressure
(4) High temp & high pressure
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
HALOGEN FAMILY INERT GASES
34. Interhalogen compounds are– 38. Which of the following gas found in Pitchblende &
(1) Ionic compound monazite mineral?
(2) Coordinate compound (1) Ar (2) He
(3) Molecular solid (3) Kr (4) All
39. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding
(4) Covalent compound
Noble gases?
35. In the oxyacids of chlorine Cl – O bond contains–
(1) They are readily soluble in water
(1) dp – dp bonding (2) pp – pp bonding (2) Interatomic interaction in these element is weak
(3) pp – pp bonding (4) None dispersion force
36. Which of the following oxide of chlorine is used for (3) Inert gases have the property of diffusing through
the bleaching of paper pulp & textiles? rubber and glass etc.
(1) Cl2O (2) Cl2O6 (4) MP & B.P. of these element is quite lower
40. Which of the following gas is used in magnetic
(3) Cl2O7 (4) ClO2
resonance imaging (MRI)?
37. Three part of conc. HCl & one part of HNO3 are (1) Ni (2) Liq. He
mixed, aquaregia is formed, it is used to dissolve (3) Xe (4) Rn
(1) Inert gases (2) Noble metals
(3) Alkali metal (4) All
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A ns. 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 2 3 4 2 1 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 2
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
HYDROGEN & ITS COMPOUNDS

1. Similarity of H with halogens is 10. Strong Intermolecular H-Bonding in water leads to
(1) Forms diatomic molecules (1) High heat of fusion
(2) form uninegative ions (2) High heat of vaporisation
(3) having one 'e' less to acquire stability (3) High freezing point
(4) All (4) All
2. If M.P. of Hydrogen is 13.96K then M.P. of 11. Which relation is true. regarding dielectric constant
deuterium will be (Îo)?
(1) 9.8 (2) 13.96 (3) 18.7 (4) not fixed (1) Îo H2O >ÎoD2O (2) Îo H2O <ÎoD2O
3. A mixture of H2 and CO is known as
(1) water gas (2) Syn gas (3) Îo H2O =ÎoD2O (4) Data not known
(3) Synthesis gas (4) all 12. Crystalline form of water is–
673K
(1) Dry ice (2) Ice
4. Reaction CO(g) + H2O(g) ¾¾¾¾ ® CO2 (g) + H2(g) is
Fe (3) water liq at 4°C (4) supercooled water
known as 13. At low temp ice crystallises in
(1) water gas reaction (2) water gas shift reaction (1) hexagonal form (2) Cubic form
(3) Uyenos reaction (4) eletrolytic method
(3) Both (4) None
5. dihydrogen is–
14. In clark method chemical used is
(1) water soluble (2) water insoluble
(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) CaCO3 (4) Ca(OH)2
(3) sparingly soluble (4) Highly water soluble
15. Calgon method is used to remove which type of
6. hydrides like MgH2, B2H6 are known as hardness of water?
(1) Nonstoichiometric compound (1) temporary (2) permanent
(2) Interstitial compound (3) Both (4) None
(3) Binary compound 16. Which substance is added as stabiliser in storage of
(4) Clathrates compound H2O2
7. CH4 is an example of– (1) dust (2) CaCl2 (3) Ca-silicates(4) Urea
(1) 'e' deficient covalent hydride 17. Which method is suitable to remove both temporary
(2) 'e' precise covalent hydride as well as permanet hardness?
(3) 'e' rich covalent hydride (1) Clark method (2) calgon method
(4) 'e' precise saline hydride (3) permutit method (4) 2 and 3 both
8. Term 'H-economy' means 18. Perhydrol is an aquated solution of
(1) low costing in preparation of H2 (1) Bleaching powder (2) ozone
(2) fuel efficiency of H2 (3) KMnO4 (4) H2O2
(3) transportation and storage of energy in gas/liq H2 19. Not true about H2O2
form (1) Pale Blue liquid

(4) Both 2, 3 (2) two-OH bonds lies in same plane
9. After ocean water major source of water is (3) act as both oxidant and reductant
(1) Ground water (4) stored in wax lined glass and kept in dark
(2) Atmospheric vapours 20. Mixture of hydrazine and H2O2 is a–
(3) Riverwater (1) antiseptic (2) insecticide
(4) Glacier & polar ice (3) Bleach (4) rocket fuel
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 4 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 2 2 4 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 4 2 4
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
d & f-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1 Transition element is defined as one which has– 6 Which among the following statement regarding IP
is incorrect?
(1) Fully filled (n – 1) d subshell
(1) IP1 of Mn is greater than its IP2
(2) Incompletely filled nd subshell in ground or in
(2) IP of Mn2+ is greater than IP of Fe2+
higher oxidation state
(3) IP3 of Mn is greater than IP3 of Cr
(3) Incompletely filled (n – 1) d subshell in ground
(4) IP of 3d series element increases from Sc to Zn
state
in irregular manner.
(4) Incompletely filled (n – 1) d subshell in ground 7 Most common oxidation states are matched below
state or any one of its oxidation state with the elements Which one is mismatched ?
2 Zn, Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition (1) Iron (+2, +3)
elements on the basis of electronic configuration (2) Chromium (+1, +2)
because– (3) Manganese (+2, +7)
(1) they do not have electrons in d-subshell (4) Titanium (+3, +4)
(2) their d and s-subshells remain fully filled in ground 8 Which among the following statements is incorrect
and higher oxidation states (1) In d-block elements oxidation state differ by unity.
(3) their s-subshell remain incomplete in ground and (2) In p-block metals oxidation state differ by two units.
ionic state (3) In a group of p-block lower oxidation states are
favoured by the heavier members.
(4) their penultimate shell remains completely filled
(4) In a group of d-block higher oxidation states are
in ground and in higher oxidation state
favoured by the lighter member.
3 In general melting point of transition elements in a
9 Which among the following order of oxidising
series can be explained by following relation–
character is correct?
(1) Melting point µ atomic weight (1) CrO3 > MoO3
(2) Melting point µ no of unpaired valence electrons (2) K2Cr2O7 > KMnO4
(3) Melting point µ Internuclear distance. (3) Fe(CO)5 > Mn(CO)5
(4) V2O3 > V2O5
1
(4) Melting point µ 10 Which of the following transition element does not
atomic weight
exhibit variable oxidation state?
4 In the series Sc to Zn the enthalpy of atomisation
of 'Zn' is the lowest because– (1) Mercury (2) Scandium
(3) Copper (4) All of the above
(1) Zn exist in molecular state

11 Which of the following configurations of 3d series
(2) In the crystal of Zn interatomic distance is small metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation
(3) IP of Zn is minimum in the series states?
(4) No 3d orbital involved in metallic bonding. (1) [Ar] 3d8 4s2 (2) [Ar] 3d10 4s1
5 Which among the following orders of second IP is (3) [Ar] 3d5 4s2 (4) [Ar] 3d7 4s2
correct? 12 Cr2+ is reducing in nature because–
(1) Mn > Cr (1) In Cr2+, configuration changes from d4 to d3 to
achieve half filled t2g.
(2) Zn > Cu
(2) Cr2+ gain an electron to achieve d5 configuration
(3) Na > Cu
(3) Cr2+ give an electron to achieve d5 configuration
(4) Cr > K (4) In Cr2+ configuration changes from d4 to d3 to
achieve half filled d-subshell.
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
13 The ability of fluorine to stabilize the highest oxidation 20 Which among the following pair is of interstitial
states in CrF6, VF5 is due to– compounds ?
(1) Oxidising property of higher oxidation states (1) SiH4, LiH
(2) higher lattice energy (2) Fe3H, Mn4N
(3) High bond enthalpy due to covalent character (3) Al4C3, SiC
(4) Ability to form nultiple bond. (4) TiCl4, MnO2
14 Highest stable Mn fluoride is MnF4 where as highest 21 Which of the following statement regarding
Mn oxide is Mn2O7 due to– interstitial compounds is incorrect ?
(1) O atom is smaller the F. (1) They are chemically inert
(2) Oxygen has ability to form multiple bonds (2) They are soft and nonconductive
(3) Mn7+ does not exist (3) They retain metallic conductivity
(4) F can not-stabilise higher oxidation states. (4) They have high melting point.
15 Which among the following order of oxidising power 22 Which among the following alloy does not contain
is correct? copper?
(1) CrO4- < MoO-4 < WO4- (1) Brass (2) Bronze
(2) VO2+ < Cr2O27- < MnO 4- (3) German Silver (4) Type metal
(3) CrO3 < MnO2 < Fe2O3 23 Alloys are formed by atoms with metallic radii that
(4) Pb4+ < Sn+4 < C4+ are within about–
16 Which of the following compound decomposes on (1) 15 percent of each other
heating to give metal? (2) 50 percent of each other
(1) KNO3 (2) CaCO3 (3) 30 percent of each other
(3) ZnCO3 (4) AgNO3 (4) 75 percent of each other
17 Which of the following pair of ions have same value 24 Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution, due to–
of "spin-only" magnetic moment? (1) d10 configuration
(1) Cu+, Cu2+ (2) Co3+, Fe2+ (2) disproportionation
2+ 2+ 2+ +2
(3) Ti , V (4) Sc , Zn (3) less charge
18 The magnetic moment of divalent ion in aqueous (4) pseudo inert gas configuration
solution if its atomic number is 25 is – 25 Atomic radii of Zr (160 pm) and Hf (159 pm) is a
(1) 4.9 B.M (2) 5.92 BM consequence of–
(3) 3.8 B.M (4) 2.8 B.M (1) Transition contraction
19 In which of the following metal ion frequency of light (2) Inert pair effect
absorbed lies in visible region? (3) poor shielding of 4f electrons

3+ +
(1) Sc (2) Cu (4) Actinoid contraction
2+ 3+
(3) Cd (4) Cr
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A ns. 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A ns. 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
COORDINATION CHEMISTRY
1 Compound CoCl 3.4NH 3 is observed in two 8 Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride can
different colours green and violet but distinct exhibit–
properties they are– (1) Geometrical and optical isomerism
(1) Optical isomers (2) Geometrical and ionisation isomerism
(2) geometrical isomers
(3) Optical and linkage isomerism
(3) Ionisation isomers
(4) Only geometrical isomerism
(4) coordination isomers
9 Mercury tetrathiocyanato Cobaltate (III) is–
2 Which among the following statements is wrong–
(1) [Hg(SCN)2] [Co(SCN)2]
(1) Primary valencies are ionisable
(2) Co[Hg(CN)4]
(2) Secondary valencies are satisfied by the ligands
(3) Hg[Co(NCS)4]
(3) Primary valencies are equal to coordination
number of central metal ion (4) Hg[Co(SCN)4]
(4) Primary valencies are satisfied only by the anions 10 Complex which is used as anticancer drug is–
3 The complex having square planar shape is– NH3 H2O Cl
(1) [Ni(CN)4]4– (2) [Ni(CO)4] Cl NH 3 Pt
(1) Pt (2)
(3) [Cd(CN)4]2– 2–
(4) [PtCl4] H2O Cl
Cl NH3
4 Which of the following will give two mole of AgCl NH3
H3N Cl H3N Cl
precipitated per mole of the compound with excess Pt
(3) Cu (4)
AgNO3?
H3N Cl H3N Cl
(1) PtCl4. 2HCl (2) PtCl2. 2NH3
11 The complex
(3) PtCl2. 2en (4) PtCl4. 5NH3 NH3
5 Which ligand on coordination with central metal ion, O2N NO2
form maximum number of ring structures? Co
H3N NO2
(1) Triphenyl phosphine (PPh3)
NH3
(2) diethylene triamine (dien) is–
(3) Triethylenetetraamine (trien) (1) laevo-form (2) Facial-form
(4) Acetylacetonate (acac) (3) cis-form (4) Meridional-form
6 The heteroleptic complex is– 12 Wh ich type of isomerism is exhibited by
(1) Cis-platin K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2] ?

(2) Brown ring complex (1) Ionisation (2) Hydrate
(3) Zeise salt (3) Geometrical (4) All
(4) All
13 The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2– is
7 The IUPAC name of the complex 5.9 B.M. The correct statement about the complex
[Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2 (SO4)3 is– is –
(1) Bis (triethylenediamine) cobalt (III) disulphate (1) It has tetrahedral geometry
(2) Tris (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) sulphate (2) Configuration is t2 g5 eg0
(3) Triethylene diamine dicobalt (II) sulphate
(4) Tris (ethylenediamine) cobalt (II) trisulphate (3) Configuration is t2 g2 eg3
(4) It is low spin complex
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
14 Crystal field splitting in octahedral complex causes– 17 In zeise salt, Pt to C2H4 bonding creates a synergic
(1) Stabilisation of eg energy set effect what is true regarding these two species–
(2) Lowering of energy of dxy, dyz, and dxz by (1) Pt is p-acceptor as well as s-donor
2/5D0 (2) Pt is s-acceptor and p-donor
(3) Pt is s-donor and s - acceptor
(3) Lowering of energy of d x2 - y2 ,d z2 by 3/5 D0
(4) C2H4 is p-donor and p-acceptor
(4) increase in energy of t2g set
18 Pick out the false statement about analytical
15 In d4 configuration when D0 < P fourth electron applications of complex–
enters in – (1) Brown ring complex is formed during detection
(1) dxy orbital (2) t2g energy set of NO3- by acidified FeSO4.
(3) dxz orbital (4) eg energy set (2) DMG is used to detect Ni2+ ion in the solution
16 For the same metal, and same ligands, the relation (3) EDTA is used to estimate hardness of water
in between Dt and D0 is– (4) K3[Fe(CN)6] is used to detect Fe3+ ion
19 Pick out the incorrect match among the following
9 3
(1) D t = D 0 (2) D t = D0 (1) Vitamin B12 – the antipernicious anaemia factor
4 5
(2) [RhCl (PPh3)3] – Hydrogenation of alkenes
(3) D t = 0.45 D0 (4) D t = 0.6D 0 (3) [Ag (CN)2]– – Photography
(4) D- penicillamine & desferrioxime-B is used to
remove excess of Cu and Fe from plant/animal
system.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 4 4 3 1 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19
Ans. 3 4 4 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
METALLURGY
1. Which element exists in free state 8. Froth stabilizer is–
(1) Hg (2) Fe (1) NaCN (2) Xanthate
(3) Au (4) Zn
(3) Cresol (4) pine oil
2. Which statement is true
9. Which method is suitable for separation of ore from
(1) All minerals are ore
gangue, If ore is suitably soluble in some solvent.
(2) beneficial part of ore is gangue
(1) Leaching
(3) Among metal Fe is most abundant
(2) Poling
(4) Sphalerite is the sulphide ore of Zn
(3) Cupellation
3. Which one is not a ore of Iron?
(1) Siderite (4) Zone refining method
(2) Iron pyrites 10. Vapour phase refining method is applicable on

(3) Malachite (1) Ni (2) Ti
(4) Magnetite (3) Zr (4) All
4. Suitable ore for extraction of Fe is– 11. Column chromatographic separation method is
(1) Oxide ore based on
(2) Sulphide ore
(1) Absorption (2) diffusion
(3) Carbonate ore
(3) evaporation (4) Adsorption
(4) all of these
12. Removal of different component from a adsorbent
5. Match the following
is known as–
1. Zincite P Sulphide ore
(1) Leaching
2. Malachite Q halide ore
3. Horn silver R Oxide ore (2) Elution
4. Iron pyrites S Carbonate ore (3) Constant Boiling

(1) 1 – R; 2 – P; 3 – Q; 4–S (4) Vapour phase refining
(2) 1 – R; 2 – S; 3 – Q; 4–P
13. Zinc is used for
(3) 1 – S; 2 – R; 3 – P; 4–Q
(1) Hardening of steel
(4) 1 – Q; 2 – S; 3 – P; 4–R
6. Removal of unwanted material from ore is known (2) galvanising the iron
as – (3) Softening of iron
(1) Dressing of ore
(4) galvanising of Hg
(2) Benefaction of ore
14. In froth floatation method, concentrated ore is
(3) Concentration of ore
obtained at
(4) all of these
(1) Bottom of container
7. In magnetic separation method which one is true
(1) either ore is being attracted by magnetic field (2) Skimmed off in form of upper layer
(2) either gangue is being attracted by magnetic field (3) Mixed in water-oil mixture
(3) Both
(4) Concentrated ore can't be obtained
(4) None
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
15. Malleable iron is 18. Which reaction is involved in extraction of Ag by

(1) Pig iron (2) Cast iron cyanide process?
(3) spongy iron (4) wrought iron (1) AgBr + Na2S2O3 ¾¾® Na3 [Ag(S2O3)2]
16. Which reaction shows formation of blister copper? (2) AgCl + NH4OH ¾¾® [Ag(NH3)2] Cl
(1) 2FeS + 3O2 ¾¾® 2FeO + 2SO2 (3) Ag2S + NaCN ¾¾® Na [Ag(CN)2]2
(2) 2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾¾® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 (4) None

19. Impurity present in mineral is known as
(3) 2Cu2O + Cu2S ¾¾® 6Cu + SO2 (1) Flux (2) Slag
(4) Cu2O + C ¾¾® 2Cu + CO (3) gangue (4) All
17. If Na2CO3 is used to obtain alumina from Bauxite, 20. Autoreduction process is used in metallurgy of
process is known as– (1) Cu, Ag (2) Zn, Hg
(1) Halls method (2)Bayers method (3) Cu, Hg (4) Zn, Ag
(3) serpeck method (4) Halls-Herroult method 21. Bauxite is not purified by
(1) Halls process (2) Serpeck method
(3) Baeyer process (4) Hoop's method
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 3 1 2 4 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21
Ans. 3 1 3 3 3 4
E E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NOMENCLATURE & ISOMERISM
7. The IUPAC name for the compound
O
1. has the IUPAC name– is :-
H2C——CH–CH3
(1) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexane (1) Propylene oxide (2) 1,2-Oxopropane

(2) 3-Ethyl-1,3-dimethyl cyclohexane (3) 1,2-Epoxypropane (4) 1,2-Propoxide
(3) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclohexane 8. 3-Phenylprop-2-enoic acid is IUPAC name of
(4) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-ethyl cyclohexane (1) Mendallic acid
OCH3
(2) Pivallic acid
Cl
2. is known as– (3) Succinic acid
(4) Cinnamic acid
CH3
9. The correct IUPAC name of
(1) 4-Chloro-2-methyl anisole
(2) 2-Chloro-4-methyl anisole CH3–C C–OCH3
(3) 3-Chloro-4-methyl anisole C2H5 C2H5
(4) 1-Chloro-3-methyl anisole (1) 1,2-Diethylbutane
3. CH3 —CH —CH2 —CH — Radical has IUPAC (2) 2-Ethyl-3-methylpentane
CH3 CH3 (3) 3,4-Dimethyl-hex-3-ene
name– (4) 3-Methoxy-4-methylhex-3-ene
(1) 4-Methyl pentyl (2) 1,3-Dimethyl butyl 10. One among the following is the correct IUPAC name
(3) 2,4-Dimethyl butyl (4) 3-Methyl pentyl for the compound
H H
OH
CH3CH2–N–C = O
4. has the IUPAC name–
(1) N-Formylaminoethane
(2) N-Ethylformylamine
(1) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(3) N-Ethylmethanamide
(4) Ethylaminomethanal
5. Br CH2 —CH =CH2 has the IUPAC name– O
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_CHEM(INSIDER)\ENG\03-ORGANIC-E.P65
(1) 3-Bromo prop-1-ene (2) 1-Bromo prop-2-ene CH3–C–OCOCH3 is

(3) 1-Bromo prop-1-ene (4) 2-Bromo prop-2-ene (1) Methyl ethanoate (2) Acetato ethanoate
(3) Ethanoic anhydride (4) Ethanoyl ethanoate
NO2
6. has the IUPAC name– HOOC–CH–COOH is
Cl
COOH
CH3
(1) Tricarboxymethane
(1) 4-Methyl-5-Chloro-1-nitrobenzene (2) Propanetrioic acid
(2) 1-Methyl-4-nitro-6-Chloro benzene (3) Tributanoic acid
(3) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene (4) Methanetricarboxylic acid
(4) 1-Chloro-2-methyl-5-nitrobenzene
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
13. The IUPAC name of 18. Including cyclic structures, how many strucutural
OH isomers are possible for the formula C4H8 ?
(1) 3 (2) 5
is
(3) 2 (4) 4
CH3
(1) 3-Methylcyclobut-1-en-2-ol 19. The number of isomeric aldehydes and ketones with
formula C5H10O are (structural isomers only)
(2) 4-Methylcyclobut-2-en-1-ol
(3) 4-Methylcyclobut-1-en-3-ol (1) 7 (2) 6
(4) 2-Methylcyclobut-3-en-1-ol (3) 5 (4) 8

14. The IUPAC name of the compound 20. Which of the following isomerism is shown by ethyl
OH acetoacetate ?
is (1) Enantiomerism
CH3 (2) Keto-enol isomerism
(1) 4-Methylcyclopent-1-en-2-ol
(3) Geometrical isomerism
(2) 2-Methylcyclopent-4-en-1-ol
(4) Diastereoisomerism
(3) 3-Methylcylopent-1-en-2-ol
(4) 5-Methylcyclopent-2-en-1-ol 21. C4H4O4 can be
15. The IUPAC name of the hydrocarbon (1) A cyclic ester of dibasic acid
CH º C – CH = CH – CH = CH2 is (2) A cis-dibasic acid
(1) Hexa-3, 5-dien-5-yne
(3) A trans-dibasic acid
(4) All are true
22. The total number of structural isomers of C 4H10O
will be
(1) 4 (2) 5
O O
(3) 6 (4) 7
C is
O H 23. The E-isomer amongst the following is
(1) Butane-2, 4-dione Cl Br

(1) C=C
(2) Formyl ethanoate
H3C CH2CH3
(3) Acetic anhydride
(4) Ethanoicmethanoic anhydride Cl C2H5

17. The correct IUPAC name of the (2) C=C
H3C CHO
O O O
H–C–C–C–OH is H3C CH=CH2
(3) C
(1) 3-Aldo-2-oxopropanoic acid H CH3
(2) 2,3-Dioxopropanoic acid

H CH2 Cl
(3) 1-Hydroxy propane-1, 2, 3-trione C=C
(4)
(4) 2-Aldo-2-keto methanoic acid H3C CHCl2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
24. One among the following will not show geometrical 28. The optical inactivity of meso-tartaric acid is because
isomerism, identify that compound. of
(1) absence of chiral carbon atoms
CH3 Br
C (2) external compensation
(1)
Cl CH=CH–CH3 (3) internal compensation
(4) presence of asymmetrical carbon atoms
CH2Cl CH=CH2
(2) C 29. How many chiral carbons are present in glucose
H CH3 molecule CHO(CHOH)4CH2OH?
CH2=CH CH2Cl (1) 4 (2) 3

(3) C (3) 2 (4) 1
H CH=CHCl
30. Which of the following will not be able to show
(4) CH3CH = CHCH2CH3
optical isomerism?
25. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(1) 1,2-Propadiene (2) 2,3-Pentadiene
(1) The presence of chiral carbon is essential
condition for enantiomerism (3) sec-Butyl alcohol (4) 2, 3-Butanediol
(2) Functio nal isomerism is a kind of 31. Glucose and Fructose are
stereoisomerism
(1) Chain isomers
(3) The compounds containing one chiral carbon
are always optically active (2) Position isomers
(4) All the statements are wrong (3) Functional isomers
26. The two isomers given below are
(4) Optical isomers
CO2H CO2H
32. The molecules represented by the following two
H OH H OH structures are
HO H H OH CH3 H
CO2H CO2H H OH HO CH3
(1) Enantiomers (2) Diastereomers Br H H CO2H
(3) Mesomers (4) Position isomers CO2H Br
27. Which of the following compound could be optically (1) Identical (2) Enantiomers
active?
(3) Diastereomers (4) Epimers
(1) 4-Chloro-1-hydroxybutane Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_CHEM(INSIDER)\ENG\03-ORGANIC-E.P65
(2) Tertiary butyl alcohol

(3) Secondary butyl amine
(4) n-Butyl alcohol
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 1
Que. 31 32
Ans. 3 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
REACTION MECHANISM
1. Polarisation of s-bond caused by polarisation of 6. In which of the following labelled atom represents
adjacent s-bond is referred as– correct electrophilic centre:
(1) Mesomeric effect (2) Electromeric effect
(3) Inductive effect (4) Hyperconjugation *
(1) CH3 - CH = O *
(2) CH3 - C º N
2. Select the molecule with more polar bond from each
of the indicated bonds among given set of molecules: * H3 - I
(3) C *H
(4) CH3 - CH = N
(a) H3C – H, H3C – Br
(a) O
(I) (II)
7. In nitromethane CH3 N ,
(b) H3C – NH2, H3C – OH
(I) (II) (b) O
(c) H3C – OH, H3C – SH two N – O bond lengths are:

(I) (II) (1) a = b (2) a > b
(1) I, I, I (2) II, II, II (3) b > a (4) Can not be compared
(3) II, II, I (4) II, I, II 8. Which of the following is true:
3. Which of the following is a correct statement: (1) The molecule having more no. of equivalent
(1) Canonical structures are real structures and canonical structures always has more resonance
energy
explain all the properties of a real molecule
(2) Inductive effect increases as the number of (2) Actual structure of a molecule has energy lower
than that of any of resonating structures.
intervening bonds increases
(3) Resonance energy is the difference of energies
(3) Hyperconjugation is a temporary effect
of most and the least stable canonical structures
(4) Canonical structures, contribute to the actual
(4) 1 & 2 Both
structure in proportion to their stability.
9. Correct resonating structure of acetate ion is:
4. Which of the following does not represent a correct
set of nucleophile– (1) CH3 C O (2) H2C C O
(1) HS , C2H5O O OH
•• ••
(2) (CH3 )3 N , NH2, CN, (3) CH3 C O (4) All
•• O
(3) SO3, H2O, CH3
10. Correct order of stability of the following resonating
(4) CH3 – S – CH3, NO2, I structure is

5. Which of the following is correct regarding formation
of reactive intermediates formed on heterolytic O O
bond cleavage: CH2 =CH–C–H CH2–CH=C–H
(a) (b)
••
(1) CH3 - S - CH3 ¾¾® CH3 + CH3 S
O
•• ••
(2) CH3 - Cu ¾¾® CH3 + Cu CH2 – CH = C – H
(c)
••
(3) CH3 - Cl ¾¾® CH3 + Cl (1) a > b > c (2) a > c > b
(3) b > a > c (4) c > b > a
(4) 1 & 2 both
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
11. Which of the following shows +R/+M effect: 14. Hyperconjugation can be represented as:
(1) H
C=O
H
(2) – X (1) H C C
(3) – COOH H
H
(4) – CONHR H
12. Which of the following compounds does not show H
C
electromeric effect H
(2) H C C
(1) CH3– CN
H H
(2) CH3–CHO
(3) CH2 = CH2 H
H
(4) CH3– Cl
(3) H C C
13. Which of the following is not an example of +E H
H
effect:
(4) All
(1) Hydrohalogenation of Propene
15. Hyperconjugation is not present in
(2) Hydroboration of propyne
••
(3) Formation of acetaldehydecyanohydrine (1) CH3 –CH2 (2) CH3 –CH=CH2
(4) Hydration of ethene
(3) (CH3)3C –CH2 (4) 1 & 3 both
A N SW ER K EY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 4 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 4 3 4 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
HYDRO CARBON (ALKANE + ALKENE + ALKYNE)

1. C —C and C —H bond length of C2H6 molecule is– 9. Soda lime is–
(1) 1.54 A° & 1.11 A° respectively (1) NaOH + CaO (2) NaOH + Ca(OH)2
(2) 1.34 A° & 1.10 A° respectively
(3) Na2CO3 + CaO (4) Na2CO3 + Ca(OH)2
(3) 1.20 A° & 1.08 A° respectively
(4) 1.54 A° & 1.08 A° respectively Soda lime
2. How many structures of C6H14 are possible– 'A'
D
(1) 3 (2) 4 10. CH3 CH2 CH2COOH
(3) 5 (4) 6 Red P + HI
'B'
D
3. Which one has 4° carbon
(1) n-Pentane (2) Iso pentane
Product 'A' & 'B' are–
(3) Neo pentane (4) Iso hexane
(1) Isomers (2) Identical
4. IUPAC Name of (CH3)2 C (C2H5)2 is
(3) Homologues (4) Conformer
(1) 3,3-Dimethyl pentane
11. Methane can prepared by–
(2) 1,1-Diethyl-1,1-di methyl methane
(3) 3- Ethyl-2-methyl pentane (1) Kolbe's Electrolysis
(4) 3-Iso propyl pentane (2) Wurtz reaction
5. Which of the following alkane can not be prepared (3) Carboxylic acid with soda lime
by hydrogenation of olefine– (4) Sabatier Senderens reaction
(1) Propane (2) Iso butane
12. Kolbe's Electrolysis completed by–
(3) Iso pentane (4) Neo pentane
(1) Ionic followed by free radical mechanism
6. R —CH =CH 2 + H 2 ¾¾¾
' x'
® R —CH 2 —CH 3 (2) Free radical followed by ionic mechanism
Catalyst 'x' in above reaction which complete the (3) Only ionic mechanism
reaction at lower temperature is–
(4) Only free radical mechanism
(1) Ni (2) Pt
13. Highest Boiling point is shown by–
(3) Pd (4) Both (2) & (3)
7. From how many alkyl halide we get Iso pentane on (1) Pentane
reaction with Zn + HCl (only structural isomers) (2) 2-Methyl butane
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2,2-Dimethyl propane
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) Butane
dry ether
8. C2H5Br + Na + CH3 —CH —Br ¾¾¾¾¾
® 14. Iodination of methane can be carried out in presence
of–
CH3
(1) HIO3 (2) HBrO3
Which is not product of above reaction :
(1) CH3 —CH2 —CH2 —CH3 (3) HCIO3 (4) HCl
15. During chlorination of methane which product is
(2) CH3 —CH2 —CH —CH3
formed as a by product–
CH3
(1) CH3 —CH2 —CH3 (2) CH3 —CH3
(3) CH3 —CH —CH —CH3
(3) CH2 —CH2 (4) CH3 —CH2 —CH2—CH3
CH3 CH3
Cl Cl
(4) CH 3 —CH2 —CH 2 —CH2 —CH3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
16. Which of the following can be oxidised to alcohol
by KMnO4 :– HBr / Peroxide
'A'
(1) n-pentane (2) Iso pentane CH3 —C =CH —C6H5
25.
(3) Neo pentane (4) propane CH3 'B'
HBr
Mo O
17. CH4 + O2 ¾¾¾¾
2 3
D
® 'P' (major) Product 'P' is–
Product 'A' & 'B' are respectively–
(1) CH3OH (2) HCHO Br
(3) HCOOH (4) CH3 —CH3 (1) CH3 C CH2 —C6H5 &
Cr O + Al O
CH3
18. n-hexane ¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 3
773 K
2 3
® Benzene
CH3—CH—CH —C6H5
above reaction is known as– CH3 Br
(1) Aromatization (2) Reforming (2) CH3—CH—CH —C6H5 &
(3) Cyclisation (4) All CH3 Br
19. Conversion of Higher alkane into lower alkene, Br

alkane is called as– CH 3—C—CH 2 —C 6 H 5
(1) Isomerisation (2) Cracking CH 3
(3) Reforming (4) Oxidation Br
Ni (3) Both are CH3—C—CH2 —C6H5

20. CH4 + H2O ¾¾¾¾
1273K
® 'P'. Product 'P' is–
CH3
(1) Water gas (2) Producer gas
Br
(3) Synthesis gas (4) Natural gas
(4) Both are CH3—CH—CH —C6H5
21. Alkene is known as olefine due to–
CH3
(1) It is oily in nature
CH3
(2) It gives oily liqiuid on reaction with Cl2 H OÅ
26. CH3—C—CH =CH2 ¾¾¾¾
3
® 'P' (majo r)
(3) It is obtained from oily liquid
CH3
(4) It give oil with water product 'P' is–
22. How many sigma bond present in ethene have CH3
sp2–sp2 overlaping–
(1) CH3—C—CH2 —CH2 —OH

(1) 5 (2) 4
CH3
(3) 1 (4) 2
CH3
23. Correct reactivity order of Alkyl halide towards
(2) CH3 —C — CH —CH3
dehydrohalogenation–
CH3 OH
(1) 3° > 2° > 1° (2) 1° > 2° > 3°
OH
(3) 2° > 1° > 3° (4) 1° > 3° > 2°
(3) CH3 —C — CH —CH3
24. Acidic dehydration of alcohol is an example of–
CH3 CH3
(1) a - Elimination (2) b- Elimination
OH
(3) g- Elimination (4) None
(4) CH3 —C —CH2 —CH2 —CH3
CH3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
27. Which of the following compound gives CO2 on 31. Propanal and pentan -3-one are ozonolysis product of–
reductive ozonolysis– (1) CH3 —CH2 —CH =C —CH2 —CH3
(1) CH2 = CH — CH = CH2 CH2 —CH3
(2) CH2 = C = CH — CH3 (2) CH3 —CH =C —CH2 —CH3
(3) CH3 — CH = CH — CH3 CH2 —CH3
(4) CH2 = CH – CH3

(3) CH3 —CH2 —C —CH3
28. Correct order of Acidic nature is–
CH3 —C —CH3
(1) CH º CH > CH3 —C ºCH > CH3 —C ºC—CH3
(2) CH3 —C º C—CH3 > CH3 —C ºCH > CH ºCH (4) CH3 —CH =CH —CH —CH2 —CH2 —CH3
(3) CH ºCH > CH3 —C º C —CH3 > CH3 —C ºCH CH3
(4) CH ºCH < CH3 —C º C —CH3 < CH3 —C ºCH
32. Each of the following can decolourise the reddish
HgSO4 brown colour of Br2½CCl4, Except -
29. 'x' + H2O ¾¾¾¾
H2SO 4
® CH3 —C —CH2 —CH3
(1) C2H2 (2) C2H4
O
(3) Benzene (4) Both (1) & (3)
reactant 'x' in above reaction is– 33. How many acyclic isomers of Alkyne C6H10 are
(1) CH3 —CH2 —C º CH possible–
(2) CH3 —C ºC — CH3 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 7
(3) CH3 — C º CH 34. Which one is used in manufacture of non stick

cookwares.
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Poly propene (2) Teflon
30. CH º CH + NaNH2 ¾¾® 'P' (3) Bakelite (4) Poly vinyl chloride
(Excess)
Final product 'P' is– 35. CH3 — CH = CH2 + O3 ¾¾® 'P'
(1) NaC º CNa (2) CH º CNa Product 'P' is–

(3) CH3 —CHO (4) No Reaction (1) Ethanal + methanal
(2) Ethanoic acid + Methanoic acid
(3) Propene ozonide
(4) Acetone + Formaldehyde
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 3 1 4 4 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 2 1 3 2 1 4 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 1 3 4 2 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
AROMATIC HYDROCARBANS
1. Which of the following is a polynuclear hydrocarbon 9. Oxidation of which of the following arenes does not
(1) Cumene (2) Napthalene give benzoic acid
(3) Mesitylene (4) Toluene (1) Ethylbenzene (2) Cumene
2. An aromatic compound contains . . . . . . p electrons. (3) Mesitylene (4) Sec. Butylbenzene
(1) 4n (2) 4n + 1 10. Acetylation of Benzene takes place by –
(3) 4n + 2 (4) 4n + 3 (1) Cl2 + hn
3. Number of p electrons present in Anthracene
(2) CH3COCl + AlCl3
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 14 (4) 18
(3) CH3Cl + AlCl3
4. Which of the following structure is called cumene
(4) C6H5COCl + AlCl3
CH2–CH3 CH(CH3)2 A
11. Benzene + CH3Cl ¾¾® Toluene, (A) is –
(1) (2)
CH3 CH3 (1) Ni (2) AlCl3 (3) Pd (4) pt
12. Benzene on treatment with n-Propyl chloride in
CH(CH3)2 CH=CH2
(3) (4) presence of Anhydrous AlCl3 mainly gives –
(1) Toluene (2) n-Propylbenzene
5. Cyclooctatetraene is not aromatic because (3) Ethylbenzene (4) Cumene
(1) It has four carobn-carbon double bonds 13. When benzene is heated with acetic anhydride in
(2) It has not got (4n + 2) p electrons (where n = presence of anhydrous AlCl3, the product formed is –
1, 2, 3, . . . . etc) and is non planar
(1) Benzoic acid
(3) It is planar in structure
(2) Acetophenone
(4) It decolourises potassium permagnate solution
(3) Ethylphenyl ketone
Red hot Fe or
6. A Cu tube Benzene (4) Benzophenone
Identify A :- 14. Photochlorination of Benzene finally gives –
(1) Ethyne (2) 2-Butyne (1) Benzene hexachloride
(3) Propyne (4) Methanal (2) Chlorobenzene
7. Which of the following groups of names refer to the (3) Benzyl chloride
same compound
(4) Benzylidene chloride
(1) Lindane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-Hexachlorocyclohexane,

15. Which of the following reaction is called Wurtz-Fittig
B.H.C.
reaction (f = C6H5 )
(2) Hexachlorobenzene, Benzyl chloride, AlCl3
(1) f–X + R–X ¾¾¾® f–R + X2
Benzotrichloride
AlCl3
(3) Lindane, Benzylidene chloride, D.D.T (2) f–H + R–X ¾¾¾® f–R + HX
(4) Gammexane, B.H.C, D.D.T Peroxide
(3) f–CH3 + SO2Cl2 ¾¾¾¾® f–CH2Cl + SO2 + Cl2
8. Benzene is obtained by all the following reactions except
Na
(1) Decarboxylation of sodiumbenzoate (4) f–X + R–X ¾¾¾¾
dry ether
® f–R + 2NaX
(2) Deoxygenation of phenol
16. Ozonolysis of Benzene yields –
(3) Reduction of Benzene diazonium chloride with
(1) Glyoxal (2) Glycerol
ethanol
(4) Catalytic hydrogenation of acetylene (3) Glycol (4) Glycine
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
17. Which of the following acid on decarboxylation does 18. Which of the following is not correctly matched –
not form an aromatic hydrocarbon (1) Deoxygenation of phenol – Benzene
(1) Phenylacetic acid (2) Decarboxylation of p-toluic acid – Toluene
(2) Salycylic acid (3) Oxidation of Toluene – Benzoic acid
(3) Ortho toluic acid (4) Oxidation of Ethylbenzene – Phenol
(4) Benzoic acid 19. The number of Benzylic hydrogen in ethylbenzene is –
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 7
ANSWER KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 3 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 2 4 2 1 4
Que . 16 17 18 19
Ans. 1 2 4 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALKYL HALIDES
1. Which is Chlorophenyl methane– 6. Which is Finkelstein reaction–
Cl (1) CH3 —CH2 —Cl + Na I ¾¾¾¾®

Acetone
(1)
D
CH3 (2) CH3 —CH2 —Br + AgF ¾¾®
ZnCl2
CH2 —Cl (3) CH3 —CH2 —OH + HCl ¾¾¾¾ ®
(2)
(4) CH3 —CH2 —OH + SOCl2 ¾¾®
CH2 —CH2 —Cl h n CH Na

(3) 7. + Br2 ¾¾¾® A ¾¾¾¾
3
D
® B ; 'B' is–
Cl CH3
CH3
(4) (1) (2)
CH2 —Cl CH3
2. Which is aryl halide–

(1) CH2 = CH — Cl (2) Ph —CH2 —Cl CH3
(3) (4)
(3) Ph —Cl (4) Ph —CH —CH3
Cl
CH2 —CH3
Br / Fe
3. Co rrect reacti vity ord er o f hydrogens in 8. ¾¾¾¾
2 ® ?
O2N
halogenation of alkane?
(1) Benzylic > 3° > 2° > 1° > vinylic
(2) Allylic < 1° < 2° < 3° < vinylic CH —CH3
(1) Br
(3) Allylic > vinylic > 3° > 2° > 1° O2N
(4) Allylic > vinylic > 1° > 2° > 3°
4. The reactivity order of alcohols towards Halogen acid CH2 —CH3
is– (2)
O2N Br
(1) 1° Alcohol > 2° Alcohol > 3° Alcohol
(2) Ph —CH2 —OH > CH2 =CH —CH2 —OH >

CH2 = CH —OH CH2 —CH3
(3) 3° > 2° > 1° Alcohol > CH2 = CH —CH2 —OH
(3)
(4) CH2 = CH —OH < Ph —CH2 —OH < 3° Br
Alcohol < 2° Alcohol NO2
5. In which reaction halide is not obtained
(1) R —OH + NaBr ¾¾® CH2 —CH3
(2) R —OH + H —Br ¾¾® (4)

(3) R —OH + SOCl2 ¾¾® Br
(4) R —OH + PCl5 ¾¾®
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Alcohol
9.
peroxide
CH3 —CH2 —C =CH2 + HBr ¾¾¾¾¾ ®? 12. Benzyl bromide + KNO2 ¾¾¾¾ ® major product
CH3 is–
(1) Nitro methyl benzene
Br (2) Nitro phenyl methane

(1) CH3 —CH2 —C –CH3 (3) Nitrobenzene
CH3 (4) Benzyl nitrite

13. Which is incorrect reaction–
(2) CH3 —CH2 —CH –CH2 —Br (1) Ph —Cl + C6H5 ONa ¾¾® Ph —O —C6H5
CH3
(2) Ph —CH2 —Cl + NaOC2H5 ¾¾® Ph —CH2
(3) CH3 —CH —C = CH2 —O —C2H5
Br CH3 (3) Ph —CH2 —Br + AgCN ¾¾® PH —CH2NC
(4) CH 3 —CH 2 —CH 2 —Br + LiAlH 4 ¾¾®

Br
CH3—CH2 —CH3
(4) CH3 —CH —CH —CH3
14. Correct reactivity order towards SN2 is–
CH3
CH3 —CH2 —Cl CH3 —CH2 —Br
(I) (II)
CH2 —OH
HCl (CH3)2 CH —Cl CH3 —Br
10. ¾¾¾
D
®?
HO (III) (IV)
(1) IV > I > II > IV (2) IV > II > I > III
CH2 —OH
(3) III > II > I > IV (4) IV > II > III > I
(1)
Cl 15. Reactivity order towards SN1 is
Cl CH2 —Br
CH2 —Cl
(2)
HO (I) (II)
CH3 CH3
Cl Br
CH2 —Cl
(3) (III) (IV)

Cl (1) II > I > IV > III (2) IV > III > I > II
(3) IV > III > I > II (4) II > IV > III > I
CH2 —OH D
16. CH3 –CH–CH–CH3 +Alcoholic KOH ¾¾®
(4)
Cl Cl CH3
Cl
(A) major + B (minor). A and B respectively are:
11. Which is ambident nucleophile (1) 3-methylbut-1-ene, 2-methyl but-2-ene
(2) 2-methyl but-2-ene, 3-methyl but-1-ene
(1) CN (2) NO2
(3) 2-methyl but-1-ene, 3-methyl but-1-ene
(3) NH2 —OH (4) All of these (4) 2-methyl but-2-ene, 2-methyl but-1-ene
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NaBr
19. Iodoform have antiseptic properties due to
17. CH 3 —CH 2 —CH 2 —CH 2 —OH ¾¾¾¾
H2SO4
®
(1) insolubility in water
KOH
A ¾¾¾¾¾ ® B , B is : (2) Iodoform itself
ethanol / D
(3) Liberation of Iodine

(1) CH3 —CH2 —CH = CH2
(2) CH3 —CH2 —CH2 —CH2 —OH (4) its smell
(3) CH3 —CH2 —CH —CH3 20. Which is insoluble in water
OH (1) D.D.T. (2) CHI3
(4) CH3 —CH2 —CH —CH3 (3) C6H5Cl (4) All
OCH2 —CH3
Cl
conc HNO NaOH
18. ¾¾¾¾¾
conc H SO
3
¾
® A ¾¾¾¾
443K
®B ,
2 4 (Major)
B as a major product is–

Cl
OH
OH NO2
(1) (2)
NO2
OH Cl
(3) (4)
NO2 OH
A NSWER K EY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A ns . 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 2 2 4 4 1 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
A ns . 2 1 3 3 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALCOHOL, PHENOL & ETHER

4. Reaction of propanone with CH3 MgBr followed by
COOH hydrolysis gives–
OH
1. + (CH3CO)2O ¾¾® ? (1) CH3 —CH2OH (2) CH3 —CH —OH
CH3
CH3
COOH
OH COOH (3) CH3 —CH2CH2OH (4) CH3 —C —OH
COCH3 CH3
(1) (2)
COCH3 ( i) LiAlH 4
5. R —COOH ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾
(ii) H 2O
®?
(1) R —CH =O (2) R CH2OH

COOH COOCH3 (3) R —C —R (4) (R CO)2O
OCOCH3 OH O
(3) (4)
6. Order of boiling points is–
Pentan-1-ol, n-butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane
(a) (b) (c) (d)
OH (1) b > d > c > a (2) a > c > d > b
(3) c > d > b > a (4) d > a > b > c
2. on nitration gives–
CH3 7. CH3CH2—CH—CH2—O—CH2CH3+HI ® ?
CH3
(1) CH3CH2 —CH —CH2OH +CH3CH2I

OH OH
O2N CH3
(1) (2) (2) CH3 —CH2 —CH —CH2I +CH3CH2OH
CH3 CH3
NO2 CH3
(3) CH3 —CH2 —CH —CH2I + CH3 —I

OH
CH3
(3) 1 & 2 both (4) (4) CH3 —CH2 —OH only
O 2N CH3
3. Catalytic reduction of butanal gives– 8. CH2 —O + HI ¾¾® ?
(1) CH3 —CH2 —CH2 —CH2 —OH
(1) CH2OH + I
(2) CH3 —CH —CH2OH
CH3
(2) CH2I + OH
(3) CH3 —CH2 —CH2 —CH3
(3) I only
CH3
(4) CH3 —C —CH3 (4) OH + I
OH
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
9. OH ¾¾¾¾
(i )NaOH
¾
® ? 13. CH2 —CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾
H2O / H2SO4
®?
(ii) R — X
O
OH OH OH
R
(1) (2) (1) CH2 —CH2 (2) CH2 —CH3
R OH OH
OH O —R
(3) (4) SO3H

(3) CH2 —CH2 (4) CH2 —CH
R
OH OH O
OCH3
Br2
10. ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
(in CH 3COOH )
® ? NH2
NaNO2 H2 O
14. ¾¾¾¾
+ HCl
® A ¾¾¾
boil
® B ; B is–
OCH3 OCH3
NH2
(1) (2) OH
Br
Br (1) (2)
OCH3 OH
O —Br
NH2 OH
(3) (4) OH OH
Br Br (3) (4)
11. Ortho and para nitrophenols are separated by–
(1) Simple distillation (2) Steam distillation
(3) Fractional distillation (4) Vaccum distillation CH3
12. Acidic strength order is– 15. CH3 —Br + NaO —C —CH3 ¾¾® ?
CH3
OH OH
CH3CH2CH2OH, , , CH3 CH2

NO2 O2N NO2
(1) CH3 —O —C —CH3 (2) CH3 —C
[1] [2] [3]

CH3 CH3
OH
O2N NO2
(3) CH2 =CH2 (4)CH3 —O —CH —CH3
CH3
NO2
[4]
(1) 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 (2) 2 < 1 < 4 < 3
(3) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (4) 3 < 2 < 1 < 4
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CARBONYL COMPOUNDS
C – Cl Reducing agent CHO 10. Arrange the following in decreasing order of
1. ||
O reactivity towards nucleophilic addition
Reducing agent is HCHO ( I ), CH3CHO ( II )
(1) Red P and HI (2) Pd + BaSO4 / H2 CH3COCH3 ( III ), PhCOCH3 ( IV )
+
(3) LiAlH4 / H (4) Zn–Hg /conc.HCl (1) II > IV > III > I (2) I > II > III > IV
2. Final product of the following reaction is
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II > III > IV > I
CH3 O
Å
CrO3 H3O Zn–Hg
A B 11. product
Ac2O D HCl
HO
(1) Benzylalcohol (2) Benzoic acid O
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Toluene
(1) (2)
SnCl2 H3O Å Cl
3. R - CN ¾¾¾¾
HCl
® ¾¾¾¾
® R - CHO Cl
Above reaction is
(3) (4)
(1) Mendius reaction (2) Stephen's reaction HO Cl
(3) Rosenmund reaction (4) Perkin reaction 12. How many product will be obtained in the following
4. Which of the following reaction do not form reaction
benzaldehyde CH3CHO + PhCHO ¾¾¾¾
NaOH
®
(1) Etard reaction
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
(2) Gatterman-Koch reaction
13. Which of the following contains most acidic hydrogen
(3) Reimer Tieman's reaction
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH2COCH3
(4) Rosenmund's reaction
5. Which of the following is used as a reducing agent (3) CH3COCH2COOCH3 (4) CH3COCH2CONH2
in clemmensen reduction 14. CH3CHO reacts most readily with
(1) Zn–Hg/HCl (2) NH2–NH2/ -
OH (1) NH2 –NH2 (2) NH2NH– C – NH2
||
(3) Red P and HF (4) LiAlH4/HÅ O
6. Which of the following has maximum Boiling point (3) Ph–NH–NH2 (4) H2N–OH
(1) Methoxy ethane (2) n-Butane 15. Which of the following do not give cannizaro reaction
(3) Propanal (4) Acetone (1) CCl3CHO (2) HCHO
7. Arrange the following in decreasing order of boiling
(3) PhCHO (4) (CH3)3CCHO

point :-
16. Which have pleasant frangrances
CH3CHO ( I ), CH3CH2OH ( II )
CHO CHO
CH3OCH3 ( III ), CH3CH2CH3( IV )
(1) II > III > I > IV (2) IV > III > I > II (1) (2) OH
OCH3
(3) II > I > > III > IV (4) I > II > III > IV
8. Which of the following do not reduce Fehling solution OH (Salicylaldehyde)
(1) CH3CHO (2) Ph–CHO (Vanillin)
(3) HCOOH (4) HCHO CH=CH – CHO
9. Which of the following do not give aldol reaction with
dil. NaOH (3) (4) All of them
(1) CH3CHO (2) CD3CHO
(Cinnamaldehyde)
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) PhCHO
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
17. IUPAC name of CHO and 23. The Best reagent to convert Allyl alcohol in propenal
(1) O3/H2O/Zn (2) HÅ/KMnO4

C – CH2 – CH3
||
O (3) PCC (4) H2O2
respectively are –
24. In which reaction ethyl phenyl ketone is obtained
(1) Cyclohexane carbaldehyde and 1-Phenyl
propanone H O
(1) C6H5 – C º N + Et MgBr ® A ¾¾¾
2
HÅ
®
(2) Cyclohexyl methanal and Ethyl phenyl ketone
(3) Cyclohexane methanal and Propionoxy benzene
(4) Cyclohexane methanal and 1-Phenyl propanone (2) CH3 – CH2 – C – Cl + Ph2.Cd ®
||
18. Which gives aldehyde on hydration by H2SO4 and O
HgSO4 Anhyd.
(1) CH3 – C º CH (3) + CH3 – CH2 – C – Cl ¾¾¾¾
AlCl3
®
||
(2) CH3 – C º C – CH2 – CH3 O
(4) All of them
C º CH
(3)
25. Give reactivity order towards HCN
O
|| (I) Ph – COCH3
(4) C º CH
(II) CH3 – CO – CH3
SnCl HÅ H (III) CH3 – CHO

19. CH 3 – C º N ¾¾¾¾ 2
+ HCl
® A ¾¾¾
H2O
® B ¾¾¾
2
Ni
®C
(IV) Ph – COCH2 – CH3
'C' is
(1) CH3 – CH2 – OH (2) CH3 – COOH (1) IV > I > II > III
(3) CH3 – CHO (4) CH3 – CH2 –NH2
(2) III > II > I > IV
1.DIBAL - H
20. CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CN ¾¾¾¾¾
2.H2O
®? (3) II > I > IV > III
(1) CH3(CH2)4 CN (4) III > II > IV > I

(2) CH3(CH2)5 NH2
CH2 – OH
HÅ
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CHO 26. OHC O + | ¾¾¾ ® A ' A' is
CH2 – OH
(4) CH3 (CH2)3 – CH2 – CHO (1 mole)
21. Which gives Benzaldehyde
CH3 H O CH2
(1) + CrO2Cl2 ® A ¾¾¾
2
® (1) OHC
CH2
CH3 ( CH3CO )2 O H2O

(2) + CrO3 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® A ¾¾¾
¾ D
® O – CH2
(2) OHC
CH3 O – CH2
hn aq NaOH
(3) + Cl2 ¾¾¾
® A ¾¾¾¾®
(2 moles)
CH2 – O
(4) All of them (3) CH O
CH2 – O
Anhyd.
CHO
22. + CO + HCl ¾¾¾¾
AlCl3
®
O – CH2
above reaction is called as (4) O
O – CH2
(1) Gatterman aldehyde synthesis
(2) Gatterman - Koch reaction
(3) Koch reaction
(4) Etard reaction
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
27. H Å CH3 CCl3

CH3 – C – CH3 + NH2 – C – NH – NH2 ¾¾¾® (3) C
|| || H3C OH
O O
(semicarbazide) Cl
major product is (4) CH3 C CH3
(1) CH3 – C – CH = C – NH – NH2
|| | Cl
O NH2
31. In aldol reaction of two aldehyde reaction
(2) CH3 – C = N – NH – C – NH2
| || product is
CH3 O
(1) a-Hydroxy aldehyde (2) b-hydroxy aldehyde
(3) CH3 – C = N – C – NH – NH2
| || (3) a-Hydroxy acid (4) b-Hydroxy acid
CH3 O
CH3 NH 32. CH3 CHO + C – CH3
(4) C O ||
CH3 NH O
[O ] products are —
28. CH3 – CH 2 – C – CH3 ¾¾¾
D
® OH
¾¾¾¾ ® product is
|| D
O
(1) only CH3 – COOH (1) CH = CH – C
||
(2) CH3 – CH2 – COOH + CO2 O
(3) CH3 – CH2 – COOH + HCOOH
(2) C – CH = CH CH3
(4) CH3 – COOH + CO2 ||
O
29. Which does not give Cu2O with fehling solution
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3 (3) CH = CH – C CH3

||
(3) Ph-CH2CHO (4) HCHO O
30. NaOCl
Ph – C – CH3 ¾¾¾¾ ® A + salt (4) HO – CH2 CH = CH
||
O 33. Give electrophilicity order of following carbonyl
compounds
A + CH3 – C – CH3 ® B 'B' is
|| (I) Benzaldehyde
O
(II) p-Tolualdehyde
(1) CH3 – C – CH = C – Ph (III) P-Nitrobenzaldehyde
|| |
O CH3 (IV) Acetophenone
(1) I > IV > III > II (2) III > I > II > IV
(2) Ph – C – CH = CH – C – CH3
|| || (3) IV > II > I > III (4) II > IV > I > III
O O
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 4 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 3
Que. 31 32 33
Ans. 2 2 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS & ITS DERIVATIVES
CH3 Ca(OH)2
B
COOH is D
1. IUPAC name of KMnO 4
6. ¾¾¾¾
HÅ
®A B and C are
D C
(1) 2-Methyl cyclopent-4-ene carboxylic acid O
(2) 5-Methyl cyclopent-2-ene carboxylic acid
O, O (2) O, O
(1)
(3) 5-Methyl cyclopent-2-enoic acid
(4) 5-Methyl cyclopentene methanoic acid O
O
2. The carboxylic carbon of acid is less electrophilic
than carbonyl carbon of Aldehyde/Ketone due to– O, O O
(3) (4) O,
(1) more positive charge on carboxylic carbon
O
(2) less positive charge on carboxylic carbon because
7. Correct acidic order is
of resonance
(1) CCl3 – COOH > F – CH2 – COOH > Cl – CH2
(3) trigonal planar nature of carboxylic carbon
– COOH > Ph – COOH
(4) tautomerism in carbonyl compound
(2) O2N – CH2 – COOH > CF3 – COOH > Ph –
Mg ( i ) CO2 COOH > CH3 – COOH
B ¾¾¾¾ ¾
®C
Br2
3. ¾¾¾
hn
® A ¾¾¾¾
dry ether
® ( ii ) H3OÅ
(3) F – CH2 – COOH > CCl3 – COOH > Cl – CH2
'C' is
– COOH > Ph – COOH
COOH CHO
(4) CF3 COOH > O2N – CH2 – COOH > CH3 –
(1) (2) COOH > Ph – COOH
8. Esterification in acidic medium
OH CH2 – OH
(1) acid activates carbonyl carbon towards
(3) (4) nucleophilic attack
(2) Acid deactivates carbonyl carbon
4. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COOC2H5 ¾¾¾¾
® A 'A' is NaOH (3) is irreversible
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH + C2H5 – OH (4) does not take place
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COONa + Et OH COOH D

(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH + C2H5 – O – 9. + NH3 ¾¾¾¾
(strong)
® A 'A' is
COOH
(4) CH3 – CH2 – COO– + C2H5O–
COCH3 CONH2 CONH2
(1) (2)
()i KMnO / –OH / D CONH2 COOH
5. ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ 4
® A, 'A' is
(ii )H OÅ
3
CO CO
CH 3 (3) N–H (4) O
CO CO
COCH3 COOH
Re d P
10. CH 3 CH 2 COO H + Cl 2 ¾¾¾¾
®A
NaOH / CaO Alc.KOH
(1) (2) ¾¾¾¾¾D
¾
® B ¾¾¾¾ D
¾
® C 'C' is
COOH COOH
(1) CH 3 – CH – CH3 (2) CH3 – CH = CH2
COOH COOH |
OH
(3) (4) (3) CH3 – CH2 – C – OR (4) CH2 = CH2

||
CH3 CHO O
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
11 Carboxylic carbon is.................than carbonyl
Br
carbon: Å
Mg CO H3 O
(1) less electrophilic 16 O ¾¾¾¾
dry ether
¾
® P ¾¾¾¾ 2
(dry ice)
® Q ¾¾¾® R;
NO2
(2) more electrophilic
(3) less nucleophilic R is–
(4) more nucleophilic
COOH HOOC
CH2CH2CH3
KMnO4 -KOH
(1) O (2) O
12 O ¾¾¾¾¾¾
D
®
NO2
NO2
Å
(i) NH
Y ¾¾¾¾ ® Z; Z is–
H3 O 3
CH2COOH HOOCH2C
X ¾¾¾® (ii ) D
(3) O (4) O
N NO2
CH 2CH2C CN
NO2
(1) O (2) O
17 Which of the following statement is true:
ONH2
CONH2 CH 2CH 2C (1) Most of the carboxylic acid exist as dimer in the
(3) O (4) O vapour phase
(2) Higher carboxylic acid are practically insoluble
dry ether H 3O Å in water due to increased h ydrophob ic
13 RMgX + CO2 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® P ¾¾¾¾ ® Q; Q can
interaction
also be obtained by:
(3) Amides can also be obtained by hydrolysis of
(1) hydrolysis of RCN
cyanides
(2) hydrolysis of RCONH2
(3) oxidation of R–CH2OH (4) All
(4) All 18 Which of the following is incorrect:
14 Hydrolysis of which of the following gives acid at
fastest rate: 1
(1) R–COOH + Na ® R–COONa + H
2 2
O O
|| || OH ONa
(1) R – C – OR (2) R – C – Cl 1
(2) O + Na ® + H
2 2
O O O
|| (3) R–COOH+NaHCO3 ® R–COONa + H2O + CO2
(3) R – C – NH2 (4) R —C —O —C — R
OH ONa
(4) O + NaHCO3® O + H2O + CO2
CH2OH Å
15 O HBr
¾¾¾ KCN
® A ¾¾¾® H3 O
B¾¾¾® C; 19 Which of the following can not be used to reduce
ester
C is– Å
(1) Phenyl ethanoic acid (1) LiAlH4 / H3 O
(2) Benzoic acid (2) DIBAL–H / H2O
(3) Benzyl amine
(3) NaBH4/C2H5OH
(4) Aniline
(4) Na + C2H5OH
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
20 P2O 5
H3 C – COOH ¾¾¾ ¾ PCl 5
® A ¾¾¾ C 6 H6
® B ¾¾¾¾ ®C ; 23 Which of the following is the correct order of effect
D AlCl 3
of the following groups in increasing acidity order
C is–
when a hydrogen of acetic acid is replaced by the
following groups–
(1) Cl
(1) – F < – Cl < – Ph < – NO2
(2) –Ph < – Cl < – F < – NO2
O
(3) –Ph < –Cl < –NO2 < – F
(2) C –CH3
(4) –NO2 < –F < – Cl < – Ph
24 Identify the end product:
O
Ammonical AgNO3
(3) CH 3CH2 CH2 CHO ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®
C
NaHCO3 (NaOH + CaO)
X ¾¾¾¾¾ ® Y ¾¾¾¾¾¾D
®Z
O
(1) CH3–CH2CH2–COOH
(4) C –Cl
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–COOH
21 Which of the following is not correctly matched
(4) CH3–CH2–CH3
Compound Use
25 An organic compound contains 69.77% carbon,
(1) Ethanoic acid Solvent
11.63% hydrogen and rest of oxygen. The
(2) Ester of benzoic acid Perfumes molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not
(3) Sodium benzoate Preservatives reduce tollen's reagent but forms an addition
(4) Iodoform Aneasthetic compound with sodium hydrogen sulphite and gives
22 In which of the following reaction product has acidic positive iodoform test. On vigrous oxidation it gives
ethanoic acid and propanoic acid. The possible
strength more than the initial compound used in
structure of the compound is:
reaction:
(1) Kolbe's electrolysis (1) CH3 –CH –CH2 –CH=CH2
(2) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction OH
(3) Sodalime decarboxylation OH
(4) Esterification (2)
(3) CH3 –CH2 –C –CH2 –CH3

O
(4) CH3 –C –CH2 –CH2 –CH3
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 3 4 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 1 4 4 3 2 4 2 2 4 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NITROGEN CONTAINING COMPOUND
5. Select the Primary amine

1. IUPAC Name of CH3CH2–N–CH2CH2CH3 is–
| CH3
CH2CH3
(1) CH3 C NH2
CH3
(1) N-Butyl-N-ethyl ethanamine
(2) N, N-diethyl propanamine (2) CH3 NH–CH3
(3) N, N-di methyl butanamine

(4) N, N-di ethyl butyl amine (3) CH3 CH NH CH3
CH3
NH 2CH 3Cl
2. C6H5 –CH2 –Cl ¾¾¾¾ 3
(excess)
® 'A' ¾¾¾¾ ® 'B'
(4) CH3 —C º N
6. Reactivity order of Alkyl halide towards ammonolysis
Product 'B' is–
is–
(1) C6H5 –CH2 – NH –CH3
(1) R – I > R – Br > R – Cl
(2) C6H5 –CH2 – NH2 (2) R – Cl > R – Br > R – I
(3) C6H5 –CH2 –N –CH3 (3) R – I < R – Br > R – Cl

|
CH3 (4) R – I > R – Br < R – Cl
7. Which of the following can be used to distinguish
CH3
| ethyl amine from dimethyl amine –
(4) C6H5 –N –CH3
(1) Benzene sulphonyl chloride
3. Which o f th e fo llowing compound gives (2) Diethyl oxalate
propanamine on reaction with LiAlH4– (3) p-Methyl benzene sulphonyl chloride
(4) All of these
(1) Ethyl cyanide
8. Which one can gives propanamine on reaction with
(2) Propyl cyanide LiAlH4
(3) Nitro ethane (1) Propyl cyanide

(2) N-Methyl Propanamide

(4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Propane nitrile
4. Aniline can not be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide (4) Both (1) & (3)
synthesis due to– 9. 'A' ¾¾¾¾¾
Br2 + NaOH
® CH3 —CH —CH2 —NH2
(1) Bulky nature of Benzene Ring CH3

Find out the Reduction Product of 'A'
(2) Aryl halide do no t und ergo n ucleophilic
(1) Iso pentyl amine
substitution by Phathalimide ion
(2) n-pentyl amine
(3) Aryl halide do not undergo electrophilic
(3) Iso butyl amine
substitution reaction
(4) Tertiary pentyl amine
(4) Both (1) & (3)
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
10. The amine produced by the Hoffmann degradation 15. Which one is soluble in NaOH :–
of benzamide is– (1) N-Ethyl benzensulphonamide
(2) N,N-Diethyl benzensulphonamide

NH2
(1) (2) (3) N-Ethyl aniline
CH2 —NH2 (4) N-Methyl ethanamine
NH2 NH2
NH2 NH2
(3) (4) 16. ' x'
¾¾¾
®
CH3
CH3 NO2
'x' in above reaction may be–

11. Boiling point order of isomeric amine is–
(1) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary (1) H2SO4 / 288 K
(2) Primary < Secondary < Tertiary (2) CH3COCl / HNO3, H2SO4 / H 3O Å
(3) Primary > Secondary < Tertiary (3) HNO3, H2SO4 / CH3COCl , AlCl3
(4) Primary < Secondary > Tertiary
(4) H 3O Å / HNO3, H2SO4 / CH3COCl
12. Which of the following have maximum value of pKb
17. Which one can exist as a zwitter ion–
in Aqueous phase–
(1) Sulphamic acid
(1) N-Methyl aniline
(2) N, N-diethyl ethanamine (2) Sulphanilic Acid
(3) Benzenamine (3) Anilinium hydrogen sulphate
(4) Phenyl methanamine (4) Aniline
13. Correct order of basic nature is– 18. Which of the following resonating structure is not
correct–
(1) (C2H5)2 NH > C2H5NH2> (C2H5)3 N > NH3
NºN
(2) (C2H5)2 NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3 (1)
(3) (C2H5)2 NH < (C2H5)3N < C2H5NH2 < NH3 –

N=N
(4) NH3 < (C2H5)2 NH < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)3N (2)
14. Isocyanide test is used for–

–
N=N
(1) Only Primary amine (3)
(2) Only secondary amine –

N=N
(3) Only chloroform (4)
(4) Both chloroform & Primary amine
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
19. Gattermann reaction is– CH3
Br2 Sn / HCl (1) NaNO2HCl

(1) Ar N2 Br + CuCl/HCl ¾¾
® ArCl + N2 22. ¾¾¾¾
FeBr
® A ¾¾¾¾ ¾
®B C
3 (2) H3PO2+H2O
NO2
(2) Ar N2 Br + CuCN/KCN ¾¾
® ArCN + N2
Product 'C' is–
(3) Ar N2 Br + Cu/HBr ¾¾
® Ar Br + N2 CH3
Br
(4) Ar N2 Br + KI ¾¾
® Ar I + N2 (1) (2)
Br
20. Benzene diazonium chloride can be converted into NO2 CH3
benzene by using–
CH3
(1) H3PO2 + H2O (2) SnCl2 + HCl CH3
(3) (4)
(3) H3PO4 (4) H2O (warm) ClN 2 Br
NH2 Br
-
OH
21. Benzendiazonium chloride + 'x' ¾¾¾ ® Yellow dye
'x' in above reaction is
(1) Phenol (2) Aniline
(3) Benzene (4) Benzene sulphonic acid

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 3 2 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
Ans. 2 2 4 3 1 2 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
POLYMERS
1. Which of the following is an example of synthetic 9. Which of the following is incorrect statement
polymer
(1) Nylon-2-Nylon 6 is a copolymer of glycine and
(1) Protein (2) Cellulose
amino caproic acid
(3) Starch (4) P.V.C.
2. Which of the following is cross linked polymers (2) Glyptal is polymer of ehtylene glycol and phthalic acid
(1) P.V.C. (3) Bakelite is polymer of phenol and formaldehyde
(2) Low density polythene (4) Neoprene is polymer of Isoprene
(3) Bakelite 10. Cellulose is a polymer of
(4) High density polythene
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
3. Which of the following is Addition copolymer
(3) Ribose (4) Sucrose
(1) Buna-S (2) Nylon-6 (3) Terylene (4) Teflon
4. Nylon-6,6 is a polymer of 11. Which of the following is chain growth polymer
(1) Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid (1) Nucleic acid (2) Polystyrene
(2) Hexamethylene diamine and sebasic acid (3) Protien (4) Starch
(3) Phenol and formaldehyde 12. Which of the following is prepared by condensation
(4) Urea and formaldehyde
poylmerisation
5. Which of the following is not correctly matched
(1) styrene (2) Nylon-6,6
(3) Teflon (4) Rubber
(1) Terylene ® – OCH2CH2– O– C C– 13. Novolac is
|| ||
O O n (1) linear condensation product of phenol and
– C – (CH2)5 – NH – formaldehyde
(2) Nylon – 6 ® ||
O n (2) Cross linked condensation product of urea and
(3) Teflon ® [– CF2 – CF2 –]n formaldehyde
(4) Melamine polymer ® Melamine + Acetaldehyde (3) Cross linked condensation product of phenol and
6. Natural rubber is also called as formaldehyde
(1) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene (4) linear condensation product of urea and
(2) trans-1, 4-polyisoprene
formaldehyde
(3) cis-1, 4-neoprene
14. Soft drinks bottles are generally made of
(4) trans-1, 4-neoprene
7. Buna-N is copolymer of (1) Polyester (2) Polyurethane
(1) 1, 3-Butadiene and Vinyl chloride (3) Polystyrene (4) Polyamide
(2) 1, 3-Butadiene and Acrylonitirile 15. The correct repeating unit of polystyrene
(3) Chloroprene + Vinyl chloride
(1) – CH2 – CH –
(4) Chloroprene and Acrylonitrile |
8. PHBV is a polymer of C6H5
(1) 3-Hydroxy butanoic acid and 3-Hydroxy

(2) – CH2 – CH —— CH – CH2 –
pentanoic acid | |
C6H5 C6H5
pentanoic acid
(3) – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH2 –
(3) 4-Hydroxy butanoic acid and 4-Hydroxy |
pentanoic acid C6H5
(4) – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH –
pentanoic acid | |
C6H5 C6H5
AN SWER KEY
Q ue . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
BIOMOLECULES
1. Calorific value is in the order 10. Which element is not found in nitrogenous base –
(1) Fats > Proteins > Carbohydrates (1) Nitrogen (2) Hydrogen
(2) Carbohydrates > Fats > Proteins (3) Carbon (4) Phosphorous
(3) Fats > Carbohydrates > Proteins 11. Which of the following is a vitamin
(4) Proteins > Fats > Carbohydrates
(1) Riboflavin (2) Adrenaline
2. The end product of protein digestion is –
(3) Thyroxine (4) Guanine
(1) Peptides (2) Peptones
12. The specific rotation of equillibrium mixture of
(3) Protones (4) a–Amino acids
a-D-glucose and b-D-glucose
3. "Kwashior Kor" is a disease caused by the deficiency of
(1) +19° (2) +112°
(1) Vitamins (2) Hormones
(3) +52° (4) +100°
(3) Blood (4) Essential amino acids
4. The main structural feature of Proteins is – 13. Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets
(1) Ester linkage (2) Ether linkage (1) vit-A (2) vit-B (3) vit-C (4) vit-D
(3) Peptide linkage (4) All 14. Number of chiral carbons in b-D glucose
5. Starch is change into disaccharide in presence of – (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Diastase (2) Maltase 15. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar –
(3) Lactase (4) Zymase (1) Sucrose (2) Glucose
6. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called – (3) Fructose (4) Maltose
(1) Esterification (2) Saponification
16. Vitamin-A is called –
(3) Inversion (4) Hydration
(1) Ascorbic acid (2) Retinol
7. Which carbohydrates is used in silvering of mirrors
(3) Calciferol (4) Tocopherol
(1) Sucrose (2) Cellulose
17. The functional group which is found in Amino acid is –
(3) Starch (4) Glucose
(1) –COOH (2) –NH2
8. Which of the following monosaccharides is a pentose
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) –CH3 (4) 1 & 2 Both
(3) Arabinose (4) Galactose 18. Deficiency of which vitamin causes pernicious anaemia
9. How many carbon atoms can be found in a (1) B1 (2) B2
monosaccharide – (3) B6 (4) B12
(1) 5 – 6 (2) 3 – 5 (3) 3 – 7 (4) 1 – 5
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 3
Que. 16 17 18
Ans. 2 4 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CHEMISTRY IN ACTION
OCOCH3
9. Quaternary ammonium salt of amines with chlorides
1. The compound COOH is used as – or bromides as anions are called –
(1) Antiseptic (2) Antibiotic (1) Cationic detergents
(3) Analgesic (4) Pesticide (2) Anionic detergents
2. The correct structure of drug paracetamol is – (3) Non-ionic detergent
(4) All of these
OH OH 10. Correct formula of sodium stearate is –
(1) C17H33COONa
(1) (2)
(2) C13H27COONa
CONH2 NHCOCH3 (3) C17H35COONa
(4) C15H31COONa
11. Glyceride of stearic acid is called –
Cl Cl
(1) oil (2) Fat
(3) (4) (3) soap (4) Detergent
NHCOCH3 CONH2 12. Which of the following detergent is cationic

(1) Sodium Lauryl sulphate
3. Which of the following is Antipyretic (2) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
(1) Penicilline (2) Paracetamol (3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(4) Pentaerythrityl stearate
(3) Renitidine (4) Chloroform
13. Which of the following statement is not true –
4. Fats are the ester of –
(1) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic at
(1) Ethylene glycol (2) Glycerol
low concentration
(2) Polypeptides (4) Sugar
(2) sulphapyridine is a synthetic antibacterial
5. Hydrolysis of oil by caustic alkali is called – (3) Ampicillin and Amoxycillin are natural antibiotic
(1) Esterification (4) Aspirin is analgesic and antipyretic both.
(2) Saponification 14. Which of the following medicines are the derivatives
(3) Acetylation of malonyl urea. (Barbituric acid)
(4) Carboxylation (1) Antibiotics (2) Antiseptics
(3) Analgesics (4) Tranquillisers
6. Palmitic acid, stearic acid and Oleic acid belong to
15. Which of the following is not an example of an
the family of
analgesic medicine –
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Amino acid
(1) Codein (2) Morphine
(3) Fatty acid (4) Alkanoic acid
(3) Veronal (4) Aspirin
7. Which of the following is not glyceride –
16. Which medicine was discovered by Alexander
(1) Fat (2) oil Fleming –
(3) soap (4) 1 & 2 Both (1) Penicillin (2) Streptomycin
8. Hydrolysis of fats and oils yields – (3) Chloramphenicol (4) Chlordiazepoxide
(1) Dihydric alcohol 17. Which of the following medicines is used in the
(2) Trihydric alcohol treatment of Typhoid –
(1) Penicillin (2) Bithional
(3) Esters
(3) Northin drone (4) Chloramphenicol
(4) Monohydric alcohol
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
18. In the manufacture of soap the important byproduct 21. Which chemical is resposible for stimulate
obtained is – inflammation in the tissue and cause pain.
(1) Glycerol (2) soap (1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Histamine
(3) Sodium carbonate (4) Glycol (3) Prostaglandine (4) All of these
19. Dettol consists of – 22. Which is used as antacid
(1) Cresol + ethanol (1) Sodium benzoate
(2) Xylenol + terpineol (2) Saccharine
(3) Chloroxylenol + Terpineol (3) Sodiumbicarbonate
(4) None of these (4) Hydrochloric acid
20. Which is incorrect statement – 23. Which is incorrect statement
(1) Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution is weak (1) Bithional is added to soap to impart antiseptic
antiseptic for eye. properties
(2) Chloramphenicol used in the treatment of (2) Sulphanilamide used in the formation of sulpha
typhoid, eye infection and pneumonia. drugs.
(3) Broad spectrum antibiotics effective against both (3) Aspartame is the most successful and widely used
gram positive and gram negative bacterias. artificial sweetener
(4) Bithional is used as antifertility drug. (4) Soframycin used as an disinfectant.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 3 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Ans. 1 4 1 3 4 3 3 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
1. Select the incorrect statement:– 9. Which of the following is not formed in photo
(1) Human being along with other organism live in chemical smog.
troposphere (1) Formaldehyde
(2) Troposphere and ionosphere are studied as
(2) Acrolein
atmospheric pollution
(3) Peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN)
(3) Stratosphere prevents about 99.5 % U.V.
(4) Poly acrylo nitrile
radiation
10. Which of the following plant can not metabolise the
(4) NO 2 is responsible for brown haze in photo
nitrogen oxide
chemical smog.
(1) Pinus (2) Vititis
2. Which of the following promote the conversion of
(3) Pyrus (4) Neem
SO2 to SO3
11. Ozone depletion is pollution of
(1) O3 (2) H2O2
(3) NO2 (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Stratosphere (2) Ionosphere
3. Which of the following is carcinogenic– (3) Mesosphere (4) Troposphere
(1) O3 (2) NO2 12. Ozone layer protect human being from which rays–
(3) Hydrocarbon (4) PAN (1) I R (2) U.V
4. Which of the following block the delivery of oxygen (3) X-Ray (4) Microwave
to the organs and tissue 13. Which radical is released by CFC when it reaches
(1) CO (2) CO 2 (3) SO 2 (4) O 3 to stratosphere–
5. Which of the following is mainly responsible for (1) F° (2) Cl° (3) C° (4) Br°
global warming– 14. In winter season which acid is formed over polar
(1) O3 (2) CO2 stratospheric cloud.
(3) Water vapour (4) NO2 (1) HOCl (2) HClO2
6. Which is responsible for the pH of normal rain water (3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
5.6 :– 15. Select the incorrect statement–
(1) SO2 (2) NO2 (3) CO2 (4) All (1) If the concentration of DO is below 6 PPM then
7. In India Taj Mahal is affected by acid rain due to– growth of fish gets inhibited
(1) H2SO4 reacted with CaCO3 to form pits on their (2) In cold water DO is maximum 30 PPM
surface. (3) BOD is amount of oxygen required by bacteria
(2) HNO3 makes yellow coating to break down the organic matter present in
(3) Both water.
(4) None (4) Clean water would have BOD value is less than
8. Select the incorrect statement 5 PPM
(1) Classical Smog occurs in cool humid area 16. PCB's stand for–
(2) Photo chemical somg occurs in hot dry area (1) Poly chloro biphenyls
(3) Photo chemical smog is also known as oxidising (2) Poly chlorinated biphenyls
smog (3) Primary chloro bisulphite
(4) CFCs are non reactive and highly inflammable (4) Poly cables
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
17. Excessive growth of algae in water is called– 20. "Blue baby syndrome" is caused by Excess of–
(1) Eutrophication (2) algation
(1) F– (2) NO3-
(3) Fungation (4) Implantation
18. F– ion makes the enamel on teeth much harder by– (3) Pb (4) SO4-2
(1) By making a layer
21. Which of the following concentration of metals in
(2) By converting hydroxy apatite in to fluoro
drinking water is not prescribed–
apatite
(1) Fe 0.2 ppm (2) Cu 3.0 ppm
(3) By converting fluoro apatite in to hydroxy apatite
(3) Cd 2.0 ppm (4) Zn 5.0 ppm
(4) By converting fluoro apatite in to calcium fluoride
22. Which of the following were used as pest controlling
19. What concentration of fluoride causes Teeth decay–
agent prior to world war-II–
(1) 2 ppm (2) 5 ppm
(1) DDT (2) Morphine
(3) 7 ppm (4) 12 ppm
(3) Nicotine (4) Equanil
ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 3 1 2 3 3 4 4 4 1 2 2 1 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
Ans. 2 1 2 4 2 3 3

Allen NECRT Based Objective Chemistry (XI, XII)

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Allen NECRT Based Objective Chemistry (XI, XII)

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TG: @Chalnaayaaar

(1) Celsius (2) Fahrenheit (3) Law of conservation of mass

Avogadro number chemical reaction

the number of electrons that must be added is

(4) All the above (2) ­¯ ­¯ ­¯ ­¯ ­

2. Angular momentum of electrons in fourth orbit is– 1s 2s 2p

14. The energy corresponding to second line of Balmer

STATES OF MATTER (BEHAVIOUR OF GASES)

1. According to Charle's law– 7. If 500 ml of a gas is compressed at constant

(2) –318.4 J K–1 mol–1

(3) Internal energy decreases DrH0 = – 243 KJ

(4) 5.36 × 10–6 atm, 1.32 × 10–4 atm

(CH 3) 2CHOH(g)    (CH 3) 2CO(g) + H 2(g),

III : NH2CO2NH4(s)    2NH3(g) + CO2(g), K3

33. The equilibrium constant for the hydrolysis of sugar

IONIC EQUILIBRIUM, ACID & BASE, pH, BUFFER & INDICATOR

(3) I, III, IV (4) I, II, III

(3) 2 × 10–14 M (4) 1.41 × 10– 6 M

5. H3BO3 is an example of which crystal system?

8. The two dimensional Co-ordination number of a

(2) Absorbed (2) Group 5 – 9 elements

(3) 10–10 to 10–7 mol/lit. (1) 0.1 N Zn(NO3)2

(4) 10–12 to 10–5 mol/lit. (2) 0.1 N Na3PO4

(3) Isotopes (4) Atomic volume

14 Which lewis dot structure for O2– ion is correct ?

(4) bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO •• ••

7. The maximum No. of 90° angles between bp-bp of 2–

(1) Same bond energy

C (3) same charge on molecules

(M = Alkali metal) (3) Lower conductivity

(3) K2SO4 (4) Rb2SO4 (3) Dehydration

(3) neutral solution (4) None (4) None of these

to formation of– (1) HNO3 (2) H2SO4 (3) HF (4) HCl

(1) Planar (2) Tetrahedral

HYDROGEN & ITS COMPOUNDS

form (1) Pale Blue liquid

d & f-BLOCK ELEMENTS

(1) Zn exist in molecular state

absorbed lies in visible region? (3) poor shielding of 4f electrons

(1) Cis-platin K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2] ?

(4) It is low spin complex

(2) Iron pyrites 10. Vapour phase refining method is applicable on

4. Iron pyrites S Carbonate ore (3) Constant Boiling

15. Malleable iron is 18. Which reaction is involved in extraction of Ag by

(2) 2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾¾® 2Cu2O + 2SO2­ (4) None

(4) Cu2O + C ¾¾® 2Cu + CO­ (3) gangue (4) All

(1) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexane (1) Propylene oxide (2) 1,2-Oxopropane

(1) 3-Bromo prop-1-ene (2) 1-Bromo prop-2-ene CH3–C–OCOCH3 is

(4) 2-Methylcyclobut-3-en-1-ol (3) 5 (4) 8

(1) Butane-2, 4-dione Cl Br

(4) Ethanoicmethanoic anhydride Cl C2H5

(2) 2,3-Dioxopropanoic acid

CH2=CH CH2Cl (1) 4 (2) 3

(2) Tertiary butyl alcohol

(c) H3C – OH, H3C – SH two N – O bond lengths are:

(4) CH3 – S – CH3, NO2, I structure is

HYDRO CARBON (ALKANE + ALKENE + ALKYNE)

(3) Cyclisation (4) All CH3 Br

(4) All the above (2) ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯

(CH 3) 2CHOH(g) (CH 3) 2CO(g) + H 2(g),

III : NH2CO2NH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), K3

(2) 2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾¾® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 (4) None

(4) Cu2O + C ¾¾® 2Cu + CO (3) gangue (4) All