Class 12 NEET - 2023-24 CT-24 - 15.11.2023

11/15/23, 2:39 PM Class 12 NEET - 2023-24 CompleteTests https://davchennai.learnyst.
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Class 12 NEET - 2023-24:

Physics
A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each, if the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the
Q.1)
power of the lens is
[A] +20D
[B] +5D
[C] infinity
[D] +2D
Q.2) Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 x
108 m/s and 2.0 x 108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is:
[A] sin-1(0.750)
[B] tan-1(0.500)
[C] tan-1(0.750)
[D] sin-1(0.500)
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is √3
[A] 90o
[B] 60o
[C] 30o
[D] 45o
Q.4)A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with
a distance ‘d’ between them. A parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in
cm will be
[A] 30
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11/15/23, 2:39 PM Class 12 NEET - 2023-24 CompleteTests https://davchennai.learnyst.com
[B] 35
[C] 15
[D] 50
Q.5)A double convex lens is made of glass which has its refractive index 1.45 for violet rays and 1.50 for red rays. If the
focal length for violet ray is 20 cm, the focal length for red ray will be
[A] 9 cm
[B] 18 cm
[C] 20 cm
[D] 22 cm
Q.6)If two + 5 diopter lenses are mounted at some distance apart, the equivalent power will always be negative if the
distance is
[A] greater than 40 cm
[B] equal to 40 cm
[C] equal to 10 cm
[D] less than 10 cm
Refraction of light from air to glass and from air to water are shown in figure (i) and figure (ii) below. The value of the
angle θ in the case of refraction as shown in figure (iii) will be
[A] 30o
[B] 35o
[C] 60o
[D] 41o
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A fish looking through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of
Q.8)
water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface, the radius of this circle in cm is
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its
Q.9)
end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is:
[A] 10 cm
[B] 15 cm
[C] 2.5 cm
[D] 5 cm
A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal lengths, 0.3 m and 3 cm respectively. It is focused on moon which
subtends an angle of 0.5o at the objective. Then the angle subtended at the eye by the final image will be
[A] 5o
[B] 0.25 o
[C] 0.5 o
[D] 0.35 o
The layered lens as shown is made of two types of transparent materials one indicated by horizontal lines and the
Q.11)
other by vertical lines. The number of images formed of an object will be
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 8
A ray of light falls on a transparent glass slab of refractive index 1.62. If the reflected ray and the refracted ray are
mutually perpendicular, the angle of incidence is
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[A] tan-1(1.62)
[C] tan-1(1.33)
A telescope has an objective of focal length 100 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. What is the magnifying
Q.13)
power of the telescope when the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision?
[A] 20
[B] 24
[C] 28
[D] 32
Q.14) Match the Column-I with Column-II
[A] (A) à 3; (B) à 1; (C) à 2; (D) à 4

[B] (A) à 2; (B) à 3; (C) à 4; (D) à 1
[C] (A) à 2; (B) à 4; (C) à 3; (D) à 1
[D] (A) à 3; (B) à 2; (C) à 1; (D) à 4
Q.15)A parallel beam of light is incident on the surface of a transparent hemisphere of radius R and refractive index 2.0
as shown in figure. The position of the image formed by refraction at the first surface is:
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[A] R/2
[B] R
[C] 2R
[D] 3R
A lens made of glass whose index of refraction is 1.60 has a focal length of +20 cm in air. Its focal length in water,
Q.16)
whose refractive index is 1.33, will be
[A] three times longer than in air
[B] two times longer than in air
[C] same as in air
[D] None of these
Q.17)A compound microscope has an eye piece of focal length 10 cm and an objective of focal length 4 cm. Calculate
the magnification, if an object is kept at a distance of 5 cm from the objective so that final image is formed at the least
distance vision (20 cm):
[A] 12
[B] 11
[C] 10
[D] 13
Q.18) For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 60o, the angle of Prism A, angle of deviation δ
and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is
1.73
1.15
1.5
1.33
Q.19) An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image produced
is
[A] real, inverted and smaller in size
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[B] real, inverted and of same size

[C] real and erect
[D] virtual and inverted
A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of refractive index μ1 and the other half is filled with water of refractive index
μ2. The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from above is
Q.21) A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence and the latter is equal to 3/4th of angle of prism. The angle of deviation is
[A] 25o
[B] 30o
[C] 45o
[D] 35o
Q.22)The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre and the radius of curvature of each surface is 10 cm. Then the
refractive index of the material of the lens is
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Q.23)A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction between
the block and the cart is μ.
The acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies:
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[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Q.24)A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at
the edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction
between the block and the table is μk. When the block A is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
The minimum force required to start pushing a body up rough (frictional coefficient μ) inclined plane is F1 while the
minimum force needed to prevent it from sliding down is F2. If the inclined plane makes an angle θ from the horizontal
such that tan θ = 2μ,
Q.25)
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the same stone is dropped
Q.26)
from a height 100% more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by:
[A] 68%
[B] 41%
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[C] 200%
[D] 100%
A block of mass 10 kg starts sliding on a surface with an initial velocity of 9.8 ms-1. The coefficient of friction between
the surface and block is 0.5. The distance covered by the block before coming to rest is: (use g = 9.8 ms-2)
4.9 m
9.8 m
12.5 m
19.6 m
Q.28) An object of mass 10 kg moves at a constant speed of 10ms – 1. A constant force, that acts for 4 sec on the
object, gives it a speed of 2 ms – 1 in opposite direction. The force acting on the object is
–3N
– 30 N
3N
30 N
Q.29)If n bullets each of mass m are fired with a velocity v per second from a machine gun, the force required to hold
the gun in position is
[A] (n+1)mv
[B]
[C]
[D] mnv
A ball of mass 10 g moving perpendicular to the plane of the wall strikes it and rebounds in the same line with the
same velocity. If the impulse experienced by the wall is 0.54 Ns, the velocity of the ball is
[A] 27 ms – 1
[B] 3.7 ms – 1
[C] 54 ms – 1
[D] 37 ms – 1
Q.31)Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg moving with same velocities are stopped by the same force. Then the ratio of
their stopping distances is
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[A] 1:2
[B] 2:1
[C]
[D]
A hammer weighing 3 kg strikes the head of a nail with a speed of 2 ms – 1 drives it by 1 cm into the wall. The
Q.32)
impulse imparted to the wall is
[A] 6Ns
[B] 3Ns
[C] 2Ns
[D] 12Ns
Q.33) The force required to stop a car of mass 800kg, moving at a speed of 20 ms – 1 over a distance of 25m in 2.5sec is
1200 N
6400 N
1600 N
1800 N
Q.34)Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force (in N) necessary to keep the belt moving
with a constant velocity of v m/s will be:
[A] Mv
[B] 2Mv
[C]
[D]
If a cricketer catches a ball of mass 150gm moving with velocity of 20 m/s, then he experiences a force of (Time
Q.35)
taken to complete the catch is 0.1sec)
[A] 300 N
[B] 30 N
[C] 3N
[D] 0.3 N
Q.36) A ship of mass 3 x 107 kg initially at rest is pulled by a force of 5 x 104 N through a distance of 3m. Assuming that
the resistance due to water is negligible, the speed of the ship is
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1.5 m/s
60 m/s
0.1 m/s
5 m/s
Two blocks of masses 0.25 kg and 0.80 kg are connected by means of a light inextensible string that goes over a
smooth and massless pulley. What is the work done (in joules) by string on the 0.25 kg block during the first second of
its motion after being released from rest?
(Take g = 10 ms – 2)
09.95
09.96
09.94
09.98
Q.38) Contact force between blocks is: -
[A] 50 N
[B] 38 N
[C] 32 N
[D] 18 N
Q.39) A block of mass 30 kg is suspended by three strings as shown in figure. Find the tension in string A.
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[A] 175 N
[B] 185 N
[C] 200 N
[D] 400 N
Q.40) A string can withstand a tension of 25 N. What is the greatest speed at which a body of mass 1 kg can be
whirled in a horizontal circle using a 1m length of a string?
2.5 ms – 1
5.0 ms – 1
7.5 ms – 1
10 ms – 1
Q.41) A player stops a football weighing 0.5 kg which comes flying towards him with a velocity of 10 m/s. If the impact
lasts for 1/50th sec, and the ball bounces back with a velocity of 15 m/s, then the average force involved is
250 N
1250 N
500 N
625 N
A body of mass 5 kg under the action of constant force
The force F is:
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Q.43)The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to remain in
equilibrium, the angle 𝜃 (in degree) should be
[A] 44
[B] 45
[C] 46
[D] 47
Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as
Q.44)
shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block then the contact force between A and B is
[A] 6N
[B] 8N
[C] 18 N
[D] 2N
A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be
Q.45)
removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’?
[A]
[B]
[C]
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[D]
Chemistry
Q.1) Which of the following reagents/reaction will convert ‘A’ to ‘B’?
[A] PCC oxidation
[B] Ozonolysis
[C] BH3, H2O2/ -OH followed by PCC oxidation
[D] HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K2Cr2O7
Q.2) Match the Column-I with Column-II
[A] A –(q), B-(s), C-(p), D-(r)
[B] A –(r), B-(p), C-(s), D-(q)
[C] A –(r), B-(s), C-(p), D-(q)
[D] A –(s), B-(r), C-(q), D-(p)
Q.3)
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In the above sequence X can be:
[A] H2/Ni
[B] NaBH4
[C] K2Cr2O7/H+
[D] Both H2/Ni & NaBH4
Q.4) Arrange the following in correct order of rate of N, A.R (nucleophilic addition reaction)
[A] 1>2>3>4
[B] 1>3>2>4
[C] 4>3>2>1
[D] 3>1>2>4
Q.5)Statement I: The melting point of monocarboxylic acid with even number of carbon atoms is higher than that of
with odd number of carbon atoms acid immediately below and above it in the series
Statement II: The solubility of monocarboxylic acids in water decreases with increase in molar mass
Choose the most appropriate option
[A] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[B] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[C] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[D] Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect
Q.6) The compound that neither forms semicarbazone nor oxime is

[A] HCHO
[B] CH3COCH2Cl
[C] CH3CHO
[D] CH3CONHCH3
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Q.7)
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Q.8) The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is
[A]
[B]
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[C]
[D]
Q.9) Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen?

[A] hexane-2,4-dione
[B] hexane-2,3-dione
[C] hexane-2,5-dione
[D] hexane-3-one
Q.10) What is the major product of the following reaction?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Q.11)
Consider the above reaction sequence, the Product of ‘C’ is
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[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Q.12) The end product B in the sequence of reactions
[A] an alkane
[B] a carboxylic acid
[C] sodium salt of carboxylic acid
[D] a ketone
Q.13) Phenylmethyl ketone can be converted into ethylbenzene in one step by which of the following reagents?
[A] LiAlH4
[B] Zn-Hg/HCl
[C] NaBH4
[D] CH3MgI
Statement I: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular
Q.14)
masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole-dipole interactions
Statement II: The boiling points aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to
the absence of H-bonding
[A] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[B] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
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[C] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

[D] Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect
Q.15) Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(A) Etard reaction (p) Alcoholic KOH
(B) Hydroxylation (q) Anhydrous AlCl3
(C) Dehydrohalogenation (r) Chromyl chloride
(D) Friedel-Crafts reaction (s) Dilute alkaline KMnO4
[A] A-(p), B-(q), C-(r), D-(s)
[B] A-(s), B-(r), C-(p), D-(q)
[C] A-(r), B-(s), C-(p), D-(q)
[D] A-(q), B-(p), C-(s), D-(r)
Q.16) Which one of the following can be oxidised to the corresponding carbonyl compound?
[A] 2-hydroxypropane
[B] Ortho-nitrophenol
[C] Phenol
[D] 2-methyl-2 hydroxypropane
Q.17) The reagent which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is
[A] 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
[B] aqueous solution of NaHSO3
[C] benedict reagent
[D] I2 and Na2CO3
Q.18) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Product formed) (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
(A) Cyanohydrin (p) NH2OH
(B) Acetal (q) RNH2
(C) Schiff’s base (r) alcohol
(D) Oxime (s) HCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
[A] A-(q), B-(r), C-(s), D-(p)
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[B] A-(p), B-(r), C-(q), D-(s)

[C] A-(s), B-(r), C-(q), D-(p)
[D] A-(r), B-(s), C-(q), D-(p)
Q.19) Assertion: Protonation of a carbonyl group increases its electrophilic character

Reason: Protonation of a carbonyl group involves addition of an electrophile on nucleophilic oxygen
[A] If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
[B] If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
[C] If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
[D] If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct
Q.20) m-Chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction with conc. KOH at room temperature gives

[A] potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-hydroxybenzaldehyde
[B] m-hydroxybenzaldehyde and m-chlorobenzyl alcohol
[C] m-chlorobenzyl alcohol and m-hydroxybenzyl alcohol
[D] potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-chlorobenzyl alcohol
Q.21) The correct order of the increasing acid strength of the compounds is
(A) CH3CO2H (B) MeOCH2CO2H
(C) CF3CO2H (D)

[A] D<A<B<C
[B] A<D<B<C
[C] B<D<A<C
[D] D<A<C<B
Q.22) Assertion: The pKa of acetic acid is lower than that of phenol
Reason: Phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilised
[A] If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
[B] If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
[C] If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
[D] If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct
Q.23) Which of the following hydrocarbons does not have isomers?

[A] C7H16
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[B] C6H14
[C] C5H10
[D] C4H8
[E] C3H8
Q.24) Which one of the following is reduced with zinc and hydrochloric acid to give corresponding hydrocarbon?
[A] Acetamide
[B] Acetic acid
[C] Ethyl acetate
[D] Butan-2-one
Q.25) The correct sequence of reagents for the following conversion will be:
[A] [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-, H+/CH3OH, CH3MgBr
[B] CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-
[C] CH3MgBr, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-, H+/CH3OH
[D] [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-, CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH
Q.26) Which of the following compounds can undergo aldol condensation.

[A] Me3C–CHO
[B] PhCHO
[C] MeCHO
[D] HCHO
Q.27) Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methylhexanal upon ozonolysis.
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[A] (A)
[B] (B)
[C] (C)
[D] (D)
Q.28) How many primary amines are possible with the molecular formula C4H11N (structural isomers only): -
[A] 6
[B] 7
[C] 4
[D] 9
Q.29) The structure below are:
[A] Not isomers

[B] Conformational isomers
[C] Cis-trans isomers
[D] Structural isomers
Q.30) How many alkenes (only structural isomers) are possible with the molecular formula C4H8
[A] 4
[B] 3
[C] 5
[D] 6
Q.31) Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism
[A] (1)
[B] (2)
[C] (3)
[D] (4)
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Q.32) Identify structure of trans-2-hexenal.
[A] (1)
[B] (2)
[C] (3)
[D] (4)
Q.33) Optically active isomers are also called

[A] Epimers
[B] Anomers
[C] Conformers
[D] Enantiomers
Q.34) Which of the following is a chiral?
[A] 1,1-dibromo-1-chloropropane
[B] 1, 1 - dibromo -3-chloropropane
[C] 1, 3-dibromo-1-chloropropane
[D] 1, 3-dibromo-2-chloropropane
Q.35) Which of the following is optically active?

[A] n-Propanol
[B] 2-Chlorobutane
[C] n-Butanol
[D] 3-Hydroxypentane
Q.36) Amines exhibit

[A] Position isomerism
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[B] Functional isomerism

[C] Metamerism
[D] All are correct
Q.37) How many chiral isomers can be drawn from 2-bromo-3-chorobutane?

[A] 5
[B] 4
[C] 3
[D] 2
Q.38) Two isomeric forms of a saturated hydrocarbon

[A] have the same structure.
[B] have different compositions of elements.
[C] have the same molecular formula.
[D] have a different content of the isotopes of hydrogen.
[E] react vigorously with one another.
Q.39) An isomer of ethanol is

[A] Methanol
[B] Diethyl ether
[C] Acetone
[D] Dimethyl ether
Compounds whose molecules are super imposable on their mirror images even though they contain asymmetric
Q.40)
carbon atoms or chiral centres are known as
[A] Enantiomers
[B] Racemers
[C] Homomer
[D] Conformers
Q.41) How many planes of symmetry does a meso compound have?

[A] 2
[B] 1
[C] 3
[D] 4
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Q.42) isomers are pairs of molecules having the same chemical formula but distinct arrangements of atoms.
[A] Stereo
[B] Functional
[C] Structural
[D] None of these
Q.43) The isomers which can be inter converted through rotation around a single bond are:
[A] conformers
[B] diastereomers
[C] enantiomers
[D] positional isomers
Q.44) Which of the following statements concerning conformations is (are) TRUE?

(1) Ethane has an infinite number of conformations.
(2) The eclipsed conformation of a molecule is slightly more stable and energetically favored than the staggered
conformation.
(3) A conformation is one specific geometry of a molecule.
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 2 and 3
[E] 1 and 3
Q.45) What is the relationship between the structures shown?
[A] structural isomers

[B] geometric isomers
[C] conformational structures
[D] optical isomers
Biology
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Q.1) Floridean starch is found in

[A] Chlorophyceae
[B] Rhodophyceae
[C] Phaeophyceae
[D] Cyanophyceae
Q.2) Peat moss is another name of

[A] Sphagnum
[B] Marchantia
[C] Riccia
[D] Dryopteris
Q.3) Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in possessing

[A] independent gametophyte
[B] well developed vascular system
[C] archegonia structure
[D] flagellate spermatozoids
Q.4) Most plants are green in colour because

[A] The atmosphere filters out all the colours of the visible light spectrum except green
[B] green light is the most effective wavelength region of the visible spectrum in sunlight for photosynthesis
[C] chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing green light
[D] green light allows maximum absorption by most plants.
Q.5) In Chlorophyceae sexual reproduction occurs by

[A] isogamy and anisogamy
[B] isogamy,anisogamy and oogamy
[C] oogamy only
[D] anisogamy and oogamy
Q.6) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct options from the codes given below
Column-I Column-II
A. Non-vascular cryptogams (i) Gymnosperms, angiosperms
B. Vascular cryptogams (ii) Pteridophytes
C. Phanerogams (iii) Algae, bryophytes
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[A] A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)

[B] A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
[C] A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
[D] A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
Q.7) Statement-I: The leaves in pteriodophytes are small as in Selaginella or large as in ferns
Statement-II: The sporangia produce spores by meiosis in spore mother cells
[A] Both the Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[B] Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
[C] Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
[D] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Q.8) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct options from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Spirogyra (i) Unicellular
B. Chlamydomonas (ii) Filamentous
C. Volvox (iii) Colonial form
D. Some giant marine forms (iv) Kelps
[A] A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
[B] A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
[C] A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
[D] A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
Q.9) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column-I Column-II
A. Food (i) Brown algae
B. Agar (ii) Porphyra, Laminaria
C. Algin (iii) Gelidium, Gracilaria
D. Carrageen (iv) Red algae
[A] A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
[B] A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
[C] A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
[D] A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
Q.10) People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Spirulina in their diet because it
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[A] makes the food easy to digest

[B] is rich in proteins
[C] has antibiotic properties
[D] restores the intestinal microflora
Q.11) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct options from the codes give below
Column-I Column-II
A. Psilopsida (i) Psilotum
B. Lycopsida (ii) Equisetum
C. Sphenopsida (iii) Selaginella
D. Pteropsida (iv) Dryopteris
[A] A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
[B] A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
[C] A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
[D] A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments of algae and choose the correct option
(i) In Chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and d
(ii) In Phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b
(iii) In Rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorphyll-a, d and phycoerythrin
(iv) Rhodophyceae occur in both well lighted regions and at great depth in oceans
[A] (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are wrong
[B] (i) and (ii) correct, but (iii) is wrong
[C] (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is wrong
[D] (iii) and (iv) are correct, but (i) and (ii) are wrong
Q.13) Algae have cell wall made up of

[A] cellulose, galactans and mannans
[B] hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
[C] pectins, cellulose and proteins
[D] cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
Q.14) Statement I: The pollen grain is released from the megasporangium

Statement II: The development of pollen grains takes place within the microsporangia
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Q.15) Read the following five statements (i-v) and answer the question
(i) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.
(ii) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent
(iii) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum
(iv) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous
(v) The spores of slime moulds lack cell walls
How many of the above statements are correct?
[A] (i) and (ii)
[B] (iii) and (iv)
[C] (i) and (iii)
[D] (ii) and (v)
Q.16) Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?
[A] Diplontic life cycle
[B] Members of kingdom plantae
[C] Mode of Nutrition
[D] Multiplication by fragmentation
Q.17) Which one of the following is / are correct statements?

(i) Pteridophyte gametophyte has protonemal and leafy stage
(ii) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living
(iii) Antheridiophores of the female gametophyte are free-living
(iv) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
Choose the correct options
[A] (i) and (iv)
[B] only (ii)
[C] (ii) and (iii)
[D] only (iv)
Q.18) What is the similarity between gymnosperms and angiosperms?

[A] Phloem of both have companion cells
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[B] Endosperm is formed before fertilization in both

[C] Origin of ovule and seed is similar in both
[D] Both have leaves, stem and roots
Q.19) Assertion (A): Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment.
Reason (R): The half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae
[A] Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
[B] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
[C] (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
[D] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q.20) In gymnosperms, the ovule is naked because

[A] ovary wall is absent
[B] integuments are absent
[C] perianth is absent
[D] nucellus is absent
Q.21) Choose the correct option given below regarding pteridophytes

[A] The main plant body is a gametophyte
[B] The sporophytes bear sporangia that are subtended by leaf like appendages called sporophylls
[C] The sporangia produce spores by mitosis in spore mother cells
[D] The development of the zygotes into young embryos takes place within the male gametophytes
Q.22) Which one of the following is the major difference between mosses and ferns?
[A] Ferns lack alternation of generation while mosses show the same
[B] Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns are obligate aerobes
[C] Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem vessels while those of mosses lack it
[D] Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as compared to the sporophytes of mosses
Q.23) Assertion (A): Numerical Taxonomy is based on the chemical constituents of the plant to resolve confusions
Reason (R): Cytotaxonomy that is based on cytological information
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Q.24) Alginates (alginin), used as highly efficient gauze in internal operations are obtained from cell walls of
[A] Cyanophceae
[B] Phaeophyceae
[C] Rhodophyceae
[D] All of these
Q.25) Bryophytes resemble algae in the following aspects

[A] Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
[B] Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
[C] Thallus like plant body, presence of root and autotrophic nutrition
[D] Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q.26) Read the following features properly:

(i) Free living (ii) Mostly photosynthetic
(iii) Mostly parasitic (iv) Inconspicuous (v) Unicellular
How many of the given features are correct for prothallus of pteridophytes?
[A] (i), (ii) & (iv)
[B] (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
[C] (ii) and (iii)
[D] (i) and (ii)
Q.27) Statement I: The gymnosperms are homosporous

Statement II: The microspores develop into a female gametophytic generation
Q.28) Which out of the following are included under Trachaeophyta i.e., vascular plants?
[A] Pteridophytes
[B] Gymnosperms
[C] Angiosperms
[D] All of these
Q.29) At least a half of the total CO2 fixation on earth is carried out through photosynthesis by
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[A] angiosperms
[B] gymnosperms
[C] algae
[D] bryophytes
Q.30) The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and is restricted to narrow geographical region because of
[A] gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and shady places
[B] requirement of water for fertilization
[C] absence of stomata in leaf and absence of vascular tissue
[D] gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and shady places & requirement of water for fertilization
Q.31) The sporophyte is the dominant phase in

[A] pteridophytes
[B] gymnopsperms
[C] angiosperms
[D] all of these
Q.32) Which kind of life cycle pattern is exhibited by seed bearing plants?
[A] Haplonic
[B] Diplontic
[C] Haplo-diplontic
[D] All of these
Q.33) Assertion (A): Rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae

Reason (R): Red algae contain predominance of the red pigment, r-phycoerythrin in its body
Q.34) Select the correct statement

[A] Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
[B] Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
[C] Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
[D] The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
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Q.35) The pyrenoids are made up of

[A] proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
[B] core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
[C] core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein
[D] core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
Q.36) Blue green algae have

[A] chlorphyll
[B] xanthyophyll
[C] phycocyanin
[D] fucoxanthin
Q.37) Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
[A] Funaria and Pinus
[B] Fern and Funaria
[C] Funaria and Ficus
[D] Ficus and Chlamydomnas
Q.38) Statement I: Roots of gymnosperms in some genera have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza
Statement II: The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(i) The development of pollen grains takes place within the microsporangia
(ii) In cycas male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees
(iii) In gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes have an independent free-living existence
(iv) Zygote develops into seeds and the ovules into embryo.
Choose the correct options
(i) and (iii)
(iii) and (iv)
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only (iii)
all of these
Q.40) Statement I: The monocotyledons are characterised by single cotyledonous seeds

Statement II: The male sex organ in a flower is the carpel
Assertion (A): Mosses show great ecological importance
Reason (R): Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonise rocks
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q.42) Assertion (A): The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs called antheridia and archegonia
Reason (R): Zygote produces a unicellular gametophyte which is the dominant phase of the pteridophytes
Q.43) Choose the correct statements from the following:

(i) Lysosomes are double membranous vesicles budded off from Golgi apparatus and contain digestive enzymes
(ii) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubule and helps in transport, synthesis and secretion
(iii) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes, lack pigment but contain their own DNA and protein synthesising
machinery
(iv) Contractile vacuole is important for osmoregulation and excretion
(v) Each mitochondria is a single-membrane bound structure
[A] (i) only
[B] (i) and (ii)
[C] (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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[D] All of these
Q.44) Match the following

Column I Column II
A. protein (i) SER
B. Lipid (ii) Golgi body
C. Glycoprotein (iii) Lysosome
D. Hydrolytic enzyme (iv) RER
[A] A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
[B] A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
[C] A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
[D] A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
Q.45) Which pair of structures are usually found in both plant and animal cells?
[A] Cell membrane and nucleolus
[B] Cell membrane and cell wall
[C] Nucleolus and chloroplast
[D] Nucleus and cell wall
Q.46) Statement I: Nucleolus is a site for active transfer RNA synthesis

Statement II: Lesser numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis
Q.47) Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of ____.

[A] protein molecules alone
[B] lipids alone
[C] both lipids and proteins
[D] glycolipids and glycoproteins
Q.48) Which one of the following organelles given below is correctly matched with its function?
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[A] Golgi apparatus-Protein synthesis

[B] Golgi apparatus-Formation of Phospholipids
[C] Rough endoplasmic reticulum-Protein synthesis
[D] Rough endoplasmic reticulum-Formation of glycoproteins
Q.49) The molecules in the membrane that limits its permeability are the
[A] carbohydrates
[B] phospholipids
[C] proteins
[D] water
Q.50) Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?
[A] The enzymes for the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
[B] The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
[C] The outer membrane resembles a sieve
[D] The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
Q.51) Select incorrect matching
[A] Elaioplasts - Oils
[B] Chromoplasts - water soluble carotenoid pigments
[C] Mitochondria - Fission in G2 phase
[D] Contractile vacuole - Excretion
Q.52) Statements I: The chloroplasts are responsible for trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis
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Statements II: Amyloplasts store carbohydrates

Q.53) Which of the following features is not associated with centrosome?

[A] Pericentriolar material
[B] Two cylindrical structures
[C] Two centriole
[D] Lipid bilayer covering
Q.54) What is the site of DNA and centriole duplication respectively?

[A] Nucleus, nucleus
[B] Nucleus, cytoplasm
[C] Cytoplasm, nucleus
[D] Nucleus, nucleolous
Q.55) Choose the correct option with respect to cell wall:

[A] Helps in cell to cell interaction
[B] Protects the cell from infection
[C] Contains minerals like calcium carbonate in certain algae
[D] All are correct
Golgi bodies are involved in
Packaging materials
Synthesis of glycolipids
Modification of proteins
All of these
Q.57) Select the correct matching in the following pairs

[A] Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
[B] Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
[C] Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
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[D] Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
Assertion (A): The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic
Q.58)
enzymes
Reason (R): Enzymes present in lysosome are capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids
Q.59) Integral Proteins of cell membrane

[A] are partially embedded in lipids layers
[B] are completely embedded in lipid layers
[C] show lateral but not vertical movements within bilayer of lipid
[D] All of these
Q.60) Which group of organelles is involved in synthesis of substances needed by cell?

[A] Lysosome, vacuole, ribosome
[B] Vacuole, RER, SER
[C] Ribosome, RER, SER
[D] RER, Lysosome, vacuole
Q.61) Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane:
[A] Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
[B] Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane
[C] Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part
[D] Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
Q.62) Microtubules, motor proteins and actin filaments are all part of the
[A] mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs in chloroplasts
[B] rough ER in prokaryotic cells
[C] cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells
[D] process that moves small molecules across cell membranes
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option
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Column-I Column-II
A. Tonoplast (i) Contain digestive enzyme
B. Contractile vacuole. (ii) Store metabolic gases
C. Food vacuole (iii) Excretion
D. Air vacuole (iv) Transport of ions in plants
A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
Q.64) Assertion (A): Centrosomes and centrioles are related to each other
Reason (R): Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical structures called centrioles
In Column-I, Organelle is given and in Column-II its function is given, select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
P. Mitochondria 1 Suicide bag
Q. Chloroplast 2 Synthesis of steroids
R. Lysosome 3 Photosynthesis
S. SER 4 ATP- formation and storage
(P – 4) (Q – 3) (R – 1) (S – 2)
(P – 2) (Q – 1) (R – 4) (S – 3)
(P – 4) (Q – 3) (R – 2) (S – 1)
(P – 1) (Q – 2) (R – 3) (S – 4)
Q.66) Select the correct option from Column-I and Column-II

Column-I Column-II
P Robert Hooke 1 Cell theory
Q Robert Brown 2 Golgi apparatus
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R Schleiden 3 Cell
S Camillo Golgi 4 Nucleus
[A] (P – 3) (Q – 4) (R – 1) (S – 2)
[B] (P – 1) (Q – 2) (R – 4) (S – 3)
[C] (P – 2) (Q – 1) (R – 3) (S – 4)
[D] (P – 4) (Q – 2) (R – 1) (S – 3)
Q.67) Select mismatch option

[A] Centriole - 9+0
[B] Cilia - 9+2
[C] Fimbriae - Conjugation
[D] middle lamella - Lignin
Q.68) Which of the following statements is not true for plasma membrane?
[A] It is present in both plant and animal cell.
[B] Lipid is present as bilayer in it. .
[C] Proteins are present integrated as well as loosely associated with the lipid bilayer.
[D] Carbohydrates are never found in it.
Q.69) Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following features? Mark the right answer.
[A] Presence of two layers of membrane
[B] Presence of ribosome
[C] Presence of thylakoids
[D] Presence of DNA
Q.70) Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell?

[A] Intracellular transport
[B] Maintenance of cell shape and structure
[C] Support of the organelle
[D] Cell motility
Q.71) Cytoskeletal filaments are polymers of ________________

[A] proteins
[B] ribonucleic acids
[C] deoxyribonucleic acids
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[D] carbohydrates
Assertion: A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour.
Reason: A membrane is a mosaic of lipids and proteins.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.73) Assertion: The number of cells in a multicellular organism is inversely proportional to size of body.
Reason: All cells of biological world are alive.
[A] Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
[B] Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
[C] Assertion is true but Reason is false.
[D] Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.74) Assertion: Cell is an open system.

Reason: Cell receives a number of materials including energy containing nutrients from outside.
[C] If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
[D] If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.75) Assertion: Smaller cells are usually metabolically active cells.

Reason: Smaller cell nucleocytoplasmic ratio and surface volume ratio is higher.
Q.76) Assertion: Schleiden and Schwann were the first to observe the cells and to put forward cell theory.
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Reason: The cells are always living unit.

Q.77) Assertion: Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles.

Reason: Prokaryotic cells lack membrane bound organelles.
Q.78) What is the percentage of protein & lipids respectively in the cell membrane of human erythrocytes?
[A] 52% & 40
[B] 40% & 52
[C] 37% & 33
[D] 33% & 37
Q.79) Fluidity of the cell membrane is a measure of the _____

[A] ability of water to pass through the membrane
[B] ability of potassium ions to pass through the membrane
[C] ability of sodium ions to pass through the membrane
[D] ability to move within the membrane
Q.80) Which of these structures is non-living?

[A] Nucleus
[B] Cell membrane
[C] Lysosome
[D] Cell wall
Q.81) Which of these is a common component of both algal and plant cell wall?
[A] Cellulose
[B] Pectin
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[C] Galactan
[D] Mannan
Q.82) Which of these organelles do not have coordinated functions with the others?
[A] Peroxisomes
[B] Lysosomes
[C] Golgi bodies
[D] Vacuoles
Q.83) What is the space inside the endoplasmic reticulum called?

[A] Tubular compartment
[B] Extra – tubular compartment
[C] Luminal compartment
[D] Extra – luminal compartment
Q.84) What is the diameter of cisternae of Golgi bodies?

[A] 5μm to 10μm
[B] 0.05μm to 0.1μm
[C] 0.5μm to 1.0μm
[D] 50μm to 100μm
Q.85) Which of these is a function of the contractile vacuole in Amoeba?

[A] Lipoprotein synthesis
[B] Osmoregulation of the cell
[C] Glycoprotein synthesis
[D] Degradation of nucleic acids
Q.86) Cell sap is a
[A] living content of cytoplasm.
[B] non-living content of cytoplasm.
[C] non-living content of vacuole.
[D] living content of vacuole.
Q.87) Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes?
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[A] DNA
[B] RNA
[C] Plasma membrane
[D] Mitochondria
Which of the following pair lacks the unit membrane?
Nucleus and E.R.
Mitochondria and chloroplast
Ribosome and nucleolus
Golgi body and lysosome
Q.89) The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteinsto their destinations is
[A] chloroplast
[B] mitochondria
[C] lysosome
[D] endoplasmic reticulum
Q.90) You are asked to examine a cell using a powerful light microscope. The image you see has a clearly defined
nucleus and mitochondria. It also has a large centralvacuole and chloroplasts. From what group of organisms did this
cell most likely come?
[A] Bacteria
[B] Protists
[C] Fungi
[D] Plants
Class 12 NEET - 2023-24:

Answers:
Physics
Q.1)B Q.2)A Q.3)B Q.4)C Q.5)B Q.6)A Q.7)B Q.8)D Q.9)D Q.10)A Q.11)B Q.12)A Q.13)B Q.14)B Q.15)C
Q.16)A Q.17)A Q.18)A Q.19)B Q.20)A Q.21)B Q.22)A Q.23)C Q.24)B Q.25)C Q.26)B Q.27)B Q.28)B Q.29)D
Q.30)A Q.31)A Q.32)A Q.33)B Q.34)A Q.35)B Q.36)C Q.37)D Q.38)B Q.39)D Q.40)B Q.41)D Q.42)A Q.43)B
Q.44)A Q.45)A
Chemistry
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Q.1)C Q.2)B Q.3)A Q.4)A Q.5)A Q.6)D Q.7)A Q.8)D Q.9)A Q.10)B Q.11)D Q.12)C Q.13)B Q.14)A Q.15)C
Q.16)A Q.17)D Q.18)C Q.19)B Q.20)D Q.21)A Q.22)C Q.23)E Q.24)D Q.25)A Q.26)C Q.27)B Q.28)C Q.29)D
Q.30)A Q.31)C Q.32)B Q.33)D Q.34)C Q.35)B Q.36)D Q.37)B Q.38)C Q.39)D Q.40)C Q.41)B Q.42)C Q.43)A
Q.44)E Q.45)C
Biology
Q.1)B Q.2)A Q.3)B Q.4)C Q.5)B Q.6)A Q.7)D Q.8)A Q.9)A Q.10)B Q.11)C Q.12)D Q.13)A Q.14)C Q.15)A
Q.16)D Q.17)D Q.18)D Q.19)D Q.20)A Q.21)B Q.22)D Q.23)C Q.24)B Q.25)D Q.26)A Q.27)A Q.28)D Q.29)C
Q.30)D Q.31)D Q.32)B Q.33)D Q.34)C Q.35)A Q.36)C Q.37)B Q.38)D Q.39)B Q.40)B Q.41)D Q.42)B Q.43)C
Q.44)C Q.45)A Q.46)A Q.47)D Q.48)C Q.49)B Q.50)A Q.51)B Q.52)D Q.53)D Q.54)B Q.55)D Q.56)D Q.57)A
Q.58)A Q.59)D Q.60)C Q.61)D Q.62)C Q.63)A Q.64)D Q.65)A Q.66)A Q.67)D Q.68)D Q.69)C Q.70)A Q.71)A
Q.72)A Q.73)D Q.74)A Q.75)A Q.76)D Q.77)B Q.78)A Q.79)D Q.80)D Q.81)A Q.82)A Q.83)C Q.84)C Q.85)B
Q.86)C Q.87)D Q.88)C Q.89)D Q.90)D
Class 12 NEET - 2023-24:

Explanations:
Physics
Q.1) Explanation:
+5D
Q.2) Explanation:
sin-1(0.750)
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Q.3) Explanation:
60o
Q.4) Explanation:
15
Q.5) Explanation:
18 cm
Q.6) Explanation:
greater than 40 cm
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Q.7) Explanation:
35o
Q.8) Explanation:
36/
Q.9) Explanation:
5 cm
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Q.10) Explanation:
5o
Q.11) Explanation:
2
Due to difference in refractive indices images obtained will be two. Two media will form images at two different points
due to difference in focal lengths
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Q.12) Explanation:
tan-1(1.62)
Clearly
i + r + 90o = 180o
=> i + r = 90o
Q.13) Explanation:
24
Q.14) Explanation:
(A) à 2; (B) à 3; (C) à 4; (D) à 1
Q.15) Explanation:
2R
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Q.16) Explanation:
three times longer than in air
Q.17) Explanation:
12
Q.18) Explanation:
1.73
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Q.19) Explanation:
real, inverted and of same size
Q.20) Explanation:
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Q.21) Explanation:
30o
So δ = 60o/2 = 30o
Q.22) Explanation:
Power of lens, P (in dioptre)
f= = 10 cm
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Q.23) Explanation:
α≥
Forces acting on the block are as shown in the fig. Normal reaction N is provided by the force mα due to acceleration α
Q.24) Explanation:
Q.25) Explanation:
3
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Q.26) Explanation:
41%
Q.27) Explanation:
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9.8 m
a= = = μg
The distance covered by the block, S = (∵ v = 0)
S= = = 9.8 m
Q.28) Explanation:
– 30 N
Q.29) Explanation:
mnv
By Newton’s second law of motion

F = n(mv) = nmv
Q.30) Explanation:
27 ms – 1
Q.31) Explanation:
1:2
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Q.32) Explanation:
6Ns
Q.33) Explanation:
6400 N
Q.34) Explanation:
Mv
Q.35) Explanation:
30 N
Q.36) Explanation:
0.1 m/s
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Q.37) Explanation:
09.98
Q.38) Explanation:
38 N
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Q.39) Explanation:
400 N
Q.40) Explanation:
5.0 ms – 1
Q.41) Explanation:
625 N
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Q.42) Explanation:
Q.43) Explanation:
45
Q.44) Explanation:
6N
Q.45) Explanation:
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Chemistry
Q.1) Explanation:
BH3, H2O2/ -OH followed by PCC oxidation
Q.2) Explanation:
A –(r), B-(p), C-(s), D-(q)
Q.3) Explanation:
H2/Ni
Q.4) Explanation:
1>2>3>4
Aromatic aldehydes have less rate of N.A.R than aliphatic aldehydes and out of (3) and (4) former has more rate of
N.A.R because –R effect of NO2 increases electrophilicity of CHO group
Q.5) Explanation:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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Statement I: Better packing efficiency of monocarboxylic acids with even number of carbon atoms results in higher
M.P
Statement II: As molar mass increases, size of hydrophobic part increases, hence solubility decreases.
Q.6) Explanation:
CH3CONHCH3
Semicarbazone and oximes are formed by the aldehyde and ketones, not by amines
Q.7) Explanation:
Recall that esters react with excess of Grignard reagents to form 3o alcohols having at least two identical alkyl groups
corresponding to Grigard reagent.
Since here Grignard reagent is CH3MgBr, the 3o alcohol should have at least two methyl groups. Thus, the choice with
at least two methyl groups at the carbon linked with –OH group will be the correct choice. Hence (1) is the correct
choice.
Q.8) Explanation:
PCC is a mild oxidizing agent which oxidises primary alcohol to aldehyde
Q.9) Explanation:
hexane-2,4-dione
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Q.10) Explanation:
It does not contain α-hydrogen so no dehydration takes place.
Q.11) Explanation:
Q.12) Explanation:
sodium salt of carboxylic acid
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The conversion of an alkyl halide into nitrite followed by hydrolysis (alkaline or acidic), provides a method for
preparing carboxylic acid containing one carbon atom more than the starting alkyl halide
Q.13) Explanation:
Zn-Hg/HCl
The reaction is known as Clemmensen’s reduction
Q.14) Explanation:

Due to hydrogen bonding in alcohol and non-polar nature of alkane, the boiling point of aldehydes and ketones are in
between of these two.
B.P order:
Alcohol > Aldehyde/Ketone > Alkane
Q.15) Explanation:
A-(r), B-(s), C-(p), D-(q)
Q.16) Explanation:
2-hydroxypropane
Carbonyl compounds (aldehydes and ketones) are obtained by the oxidation of 1th and 2nd alcohols respectively.
Among the given options, only (1) is 2o alcohol, hence it can be oxidized to ketone
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Q.17) Explanation:
I2 and Na2CO3
I2 and Na2CO3 react with acetophenone (C6H5COCH3) to give yellow ppt of CHI3 but benzophenone (C6H5COC6H5) does
not and hence can be used to distinguish between them
Q.18) Explanation:
A-(s), B-(r), C-(q), D-(p)
Q.19) Explanation:
If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
Both assertion and Reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
Q.20) Explanation:
potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-chlorobenzyl alcohol

m-Chlorobenzaldehyde does not contains α-H atom. It is an example of Cannizzaro reaction
Q.21) Explanation:
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D<A<B<C
The correct order of increasing acid strength
CF3COOH > MeOCH2COOH > CH3COOH > (Me)2CHCOOH. Electron withdrawing groups increase the acid strength and
electron donating groups decrease the acid strength
Q.22) Explanation:
If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect

Low pKa value corresponds to more acidic compound Acetic acid (pKa = 4.0) is more acidic than Phenol (pKa = 9.0). It is
due to the fact that carboxylate ion is more stabilized due to resonance because its resonating structures are
equivalent
Q.23) Explanation:
C3H8
Q.24) Explanation:
Butan-2-one
It is Clemmensen’s reduction
Q.25) Explanation:
[Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-, H+/CH3OH, CH3MgBr
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Q.26) Explanation:
MeCHO
Q.27) Explanation:
The ozonolysis of 1,3-dimethylcyclopent-1-ene will give 5-keto-2-methyl hexanal.
Q.28) Explanation:
Q.29) Explanation:
Structural isomers
Q.30) Explanation:
Q.31) Explanation:
(3)
Q.32) Explanation:
(2)
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Q.33) Explanation:
Enantiomers
Q.34) Explanation:
1, 3-dibromo-1-chloropropane
Q.35) Explanation:
2-Chlorobutane
Q.36) Explanation:
All are correct
Q.37) Explanation:
Q.38) Explanation:
have the same molecular formula
Q.39) Explanation:
Dimethyl ether
Q.40) Explanation:
Homomer
Q.41) Explanation:
1
The compound whose half part of a molecule is a mirror image of the other half, is called meso form. Generally, a
meso compound has two or more chiral centers and one plane of symmetry. the compound in meso form is optically
inactive due to internal compensation.
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Q.42) Explanation:
Structural
Q.43) Explanation:
Conformers.
Q.44) Explanation:
1 and 3
Q.45) Explanation:
conformational structures
Biology
Q.1) Explanation:
Rhodophyceae
Reserve food in red algae (Rhodophyceae) is floridean starch. In green algae (Chlorophyceae), reserve fod is starch. In
brown algae Phaecophceae, reserve food in laminarin and mannitol. In Cyanophyceae, reserve food is cyanophycean
starch
Q.2) Explanation:
Sphagnum
Peat moss is another name for Sphagnum. It is also known as famine food in China
Q.3) Explanation:
well developed vascular system

Well-developed vascular system is present in the members of pteridophytes but absent in mosses as the plant body is
sporophyte which is distinguished into true root, stem and leaves
Q.4) Explanation:
chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing green light
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The leaves appear green because of the pigment chlorophyll which does not absorb green light rather reflect it back
Q.5) Explanation:
isogamy,anisogamy and oogamy

In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction takes place by all the three processes:
Isogamy – fusion of morphologically and physiologically similar gametes, Anisogamy – morphologically similar but
physiologically dissimilar gametes, Oogamy – fusing gametes are dissimilar in all respect
Q.6) Explanation:
A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)

Cryptogamae refers to plants without seeds and Phanerogamae refers to plants with seeds, Algae and bryophytes are
non-vascular cryptogams, Pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams, Gymnosperms and angiosperms are phanerogams
Q.7) Explanation:
Q.8) Explanation:
A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
Q.9) Explanation:
A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
Q.10) Explanation:
is rich in proteins
Algae Spirulina is one of the richest sources of protein, containing 40-50 percent crude protein on dry weight basis
which under favourable condition may reach upto 70 percent. So, the people recovering from long illness are advised
to take it in the diet
Q.11) Explanation:
A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
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Q.12) Explanation:
(iii) and (iv) are correct, but (i) and (ii) are wrong
Q.13) Explanation:
cellulose, galactans and mannans
Q.14) Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

The pollen grain is released from the microsporangium
Q.15) Explanation:
(i) and (ii)

Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
Q.16) Explanation:
Multiplication by fragmentation
Q.17) Explanation:
only (iv)
(i) Gametophyte of bryophytes bears protonemal & leafy stage
(ii) In gymnosperm female gametophyte is not free living
(iii) Thy are present in Marchantia or which is a bryophyte
Q.18) Explanation:
Both have leaves, stem and roots
Q.19) Explanation:
Q.20) Explanation:
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ovary wall is absent
Q.21) Explanation:
The sporophytes bear sporangia that are subtended by leaf like appendages called sporophylls
The main plant body is a sporophyte. The sporangia produce spores by meiosis in spore mother cells. The
development of the zygotes into young embryos takes place within the male gametophytes
Q.22) Explanation:
Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as compared to the sporophytes of mosses
Q.23) Explanation:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Numerical Taxonomy which is now easily carried out using computers us based on all observable characteristics.
Number and codes are assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed
Q.24) Explanation:
Phaeophyceae
Q.25) Explanation:
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q.26) Explanation:
(i), (ii) & (iv)

Prothallus of pteridophytes is free-living, mostly photosynthetic small but multicellular and inconspicuous
Q.27) Explanation:
Both the Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

The gymnosperms are heterosporous, they produce haploid microspores and meagaspores. The microspores develop
into a male gametophytic generation which is highly reduced and is confined to only a limited number of cells.
Q.28) Explanation:
All of these
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Tracheophyta (Pteriophytes, gymnosperm and angiosperms) are those plants which possess conducting or vascular
tissue, xylem and phloem
Q.29) Explanation:
algae
Nearly 50% of total carbon dioxide fixation of photosynthesis of world is carried out by algae
Q.30) Explanation:
gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and shady places & requirement of water for fertilization
Q.31) Explanation:
all of these
In gymnosperms, pteridophytes and angiosperms, the sporophytic phase is dominant and the gametophytic phase is
dependent on sporophyte
Q.32) Explanation:
Diplontic
In Diplontic life cycle, the dominant free-living phase is the diploid (2n). Sporophyte is photosynthetic. The
gametophytic phase is represented by single to few-celled haploid gametophyte e.g., all seed-bearing plants i.e.,
gymnosperms and angiosperms
Q.33) Explanation:
Q.34) Explanation:
Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

Sequoia is one of the tallest trees. It is also known as the reduced tree. Leaves of gymnosperm are well adapted to the
extremes of climate. Gymnosperm are heterosporous. They have both pollen and tubules Salvinia is a pteridophyte
whereas Ginkgo and pinus are gymnosperms
Q.35) Explanation:
proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath

The pyrenoids are small spherical protein bodies surrounded by starch deposition. They are found singly or in numbers
embedded in the chloroplast of many algae and bryphytes
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Q.36) Explanation:
phycocyanin
Phycocuanin pigment is found in blue-green algae (myxophycean algae). The reserve food material is in the form of
cyanophycean starch
Q.37) Explanation:
Fern and Funaria
Q.38) Explanation:
Q.39) Explanation:
(iii) and (iv)
In gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence. Following
fertilisation, zygote develops into an embryo and the ovules into seeds. These seeds are not covered
Q.40) Explanation:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

The male sex organ in flower is the stamen
Q.41) Explanation:
Q.42) Explanation:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Fusion of the male gamete with the egg present in the archegonium results in the formation of a zygote. Zygote there
after produces a multicellular well-differentiated sporophyte which is the dominant phase of the pteridophytes
Q.43) Explanation:
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(ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q.44) Explanation:
A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
Q.45) Explanation:
Cell membrane and nucleolus
Q.46) Explanation:
Both the Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis. Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively
carrying out protein synthesis
Q.47) Explanation:
glycolipids and glycoproteins
Q.48) Explanation:
Rough endoplasmic reticulum-Protein synthesis
Q.49) Explanation:
phospholipids
Phospholipids in the lipid bilayer limit the permeability of the membrane
Q.50) Explanation:
The enzyme of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
The enzymes of electron transport system are present in inner mitochondrial membrane
Q.51) Explanation:
Chromoplasts - Water soluble carotenoid pigments
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Q.52) Explanation:
Q.53) Explanation:
Lipid bilayer covering

Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles. They are surrounded by
amorphous pericentriolar materials, Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other in which each
has an organisation like the cartwheel
Q.54) Explanation:
Nucleus, cytoplasm
Q.55) Explanation:
All are correct
Q.56) Explanation:
All of these
Q.57) Explanation:
Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids

Lipid synthesis takes place in smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q.58) Explanation:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Q.59) Explanation:
All of these
Q.60) Explanation:
Ribosome, RER, SER
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Q.61) Explanation:
Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
Fluid mosaic membrane model was prodposed by Singer and Nicholson in 1972. It is most accepted model of structure
of biomembrane
Q.62) Explanation:
cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells

The cytoskeleton supports the cell and allows for movement of the entire cell and listed are part of the cytoskeleton
Q.63) Explanation:
A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Q.64) Explanation:
The centrosome is the main place where cell microtubules get organised. Centrosome usually contain two cylindrical
structure called centrioles. Centrioles are composed of grouping of microtubules arranged in 9 + 3 pattern. The pattern
is so named because a ring of 9 microtubules “triplets” are arranged at right angles to one another. Centrioles found in
animal cells, help to organise the assembly of microtubules during cell division. Centrioles replicate during the
interphase stage of mitosis and meiosis
Q.65) Explanation:
(P – 4) (Q – 3) (R – 1) (S – 2)
Q.66) Explanation:
(P – 3) (Q – 4) (R – 1) (S – 2)
Q.67) Explanation:
middle lamella - Lignin
Q.68) Explanation:
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Carbohydrates are never found in it.

Chemical studies showed that the cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in a bilayer. Later,
biochemical investigation clearly revealed that the cell membranes also possess protein and carbohydrate.
Q.69) Explanation:
Presence of thylakoids
Thylakoids are present in plastids but not in mitochondria. Both plastids and mitochondria are similar in presence of
two layers of membrane, presence of ribosome and presence of DNA.
Q.70) Explanation:
Intracellular transport
The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in many functions such as mechanical support, motility, maintenance of the
shape of the cell.
Q.71) Explanation:
proteins
The three cytoskeletal elements are polymers of proteins subunits held together by weak, non-covalent bonds. This
characteristic construction leads to rapid assembly and disassembly.
Q.72) Explanation:
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour. It was proved by fluid- mosaic model of a biomembrane by Singer and
Nicolson in 1972. According to this model, the membrane does not have a uniform disposition of lipids and proteins
but is a mosaic of the two. Further, the membrane is not solid but is quasi fluid.
Q.73) Explanation:

The size and shape of the cell in multicellular organism depends upon the location and function performed by them.
Q.74) Explanation:
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Cell is an isothermal open system as all the parts of the cell at any given time maintains the same temperature and
pressure. Cell is an open system in which materials and energy are transferred between organisms and the exterior
environment.
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Q.75) Explanation:
both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Metabolically active cells are usually smaller due to higher nucleocytoplasmic ratio and higher surface volume ratio.
The former will allow the nucleus to have better control of metabolic activities, while the latter will allow quicker
exchange of materials between the cells and its outside environment.
Q.76) Explanation:

They are credited with cell theory but the cells are not always the living unit. Cells die and still remain functional such
as horny cells in animal and xylem vessels in plants.
Q.77) Explanation:
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Eukaryotic cells which have membrane bound distinct structures called organelles like nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
(ER), Golgi complex, lysosomes, mitochondria, microbodies and vacuoles. These are found in all protists, plants,
animals and fungi. Prokaryotic cells lack such membrane bound organelles. Prokaryotic cells occur in bacteria, archaea,
blue-green algae, mycoplasma and PPLO. Genetic material in these cells lies naked in the cytoplasm
Q.78) Explanation:
52% & 40
The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer. It also contains various proteins. The protein and lipid percentages vary in
different cells. Human erythrocyte membranes are 52% protein.
Human erythrocyte membranes are made of 40% lipids.
Q.79) Explanation:
ability to move within the membrane

Fluidity of the cell membrane is the measure of the ability to move within the membrane. This movement is allowed
due to the quasi-fluid nature of lipid present in the cell membrane
Q.80) Explanation:
Cell wall
The cell wall covering the cell of fungi and plants is a non-living structure. The cell membrane covering the cell and the
various organelles of the cell such as the nucleus and the lysosomes are living.
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Q.81) Explanation:
Cellulose
The algal cell wall contains cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate. The plant cell wall
contains cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins. Hence, cellulose is the common component.
Q.82) Explanation:
Peroxisomes
The functions of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), Golgi bodies, vacuoles and lysosomes are coordinated. Hence, they
form an endomembrane system. Peroxisomes are not a part of the endomembrane system
Q.83) Explanation:
Luminal compartment
The endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle whose membrane is continuous with the membrane of the nucleus. It
divides the intracellular space into two compartments – luminal and extra – luminal.
Q.84) Explanation:
0.5μm to 1.0μm
Golgi bodies were named after the scientist who discovered them, Camillo Golgi. Golgi bodies contain flat, disc –
shaped sacs called cisternae. The diameter of the cisternae is 0.5μm to 1.0μm.
Q.85) Explanation:
Osmoregulation of the cell

Explanation: Vacuoles contain substances for storage such as water, or excretory products such as sap and other
materials not useful for the cell. the contractile vacuole in Amoeba is responsible for osmoregulation and excretion.
Q.86) Explanation:
non-living content of vacuole.
Cell sap is a non-living fluid manufactured by thecytoplasm of the living plant cell. It consists of water and various
substances that are often inthe form of a colloidal suspension. The cell sap adds osmotic properties and turgor of the
cell, according to the elasticity of plant tissues and organs. It also serves as a receptacle for the water and
varioussubstances that participate in cell metabolism and as a place for the deposit of the end productsof metabolism.
Q.87) Explanation:
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Mitochondria
Mitochondria are present in the living eukaryotic cells and absent in prokaryotic cells like bacteria and blue-green
algae. This organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell as they are the site of chemicalreactions that transfer
energy from organic compoundsin the form of ATP.
Q.88) Explanation:
Ribosome and nucleolus
Cell organelles like ribosomes and nucleolus lack the unit membrane. Ribosomes are found individually in the
cytoplasm and also line the membranes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is composed of RNA and ribosomal
protein. Nucleolus is a part of nucleus and characterized by the absenceof limiting membrane, presence of chromatin
and granules and fibrilsof RNA and proteins.
Q.89) Explanation:
endoplasmic reticulum
Endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on their surfaceis called rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). RER is
involvedin protein synthesisand are responsible for the assembly of many proteins(in a process called translation).
Q.90) Explanation:
Plants
We can eliminate bacteriabecause they lack organelles completely. Of the organelles listed the only unique one is the
chloroplast, which is found exclusively in plants.
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11/15/23, 2:39 PM Class 12 NEET - 2023-24 CompleteTests https://davchennai.learnyst.

Class 12 NEET - 2023-24:

Q.14) Match the Column-I with Column-II

[A] (A) à 3; (B) à 1; (C) à 2; (D) à 4

[B] real, inverted and of same size

Q.38) Contact force between blocks is: -

A body of mass 5 kg under the action of constant force

The force F is:

Q.1) Which of the following reagents/reaction will convert ‘A’ to ‘B’?

[A] PCC oxidation

[C] BH3, H2O2/ -OH followed by PCC oxidation

[D] HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K2Cr2O7

Q.2) Match the Column-I with Column-II

[A] A –(q), B-(s), C-(p), D-(r)

[B] A –(r), B-(p), C-(s), D-(q)

[C] A –(r), B-(s), C-(p), D-(q)

[D] A –(s), B-(r), C-(q), D-(p)

In the above sequence X can be:

[D] Both H2/Ni & NaBH4

Q.6) The compound that neither forms semicarbazone nor oxime is

Q.9) Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen?

Q.10) What is the major product of the following reaction?

Consider the above reaction sequence, the Product of ‘C’ is

Q.12) The end product B in the sequence of reactions

[C] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Q.15) Match the following

Q.18) Match List-I with List-II

[B] A-(p), B-(r), C-(q), D-(s)

Q.19) Assertion: Protonation of a carbonyl group increases its electrophilic character

Q.20) m-Chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction with conc. KOH at room temperature gives

(C) CF3CO2H (D)

Q.23) Which of the following hydrocarbons does not have isomers?

[A] [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-, H+/CH3OH, CH3MgBr

[B] CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-

[C] CH3MgBr, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-, H+/CH3OH

[D] [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH-, CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH

Q.26) Which of the following compounds can undergo aldol condensation.

Q.27) Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methylhexanal upon ozonolysis.

Q.29) The structure below are:

[A] Not isomers

Q.31) Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism

Q.32) Identify structure of trans-2-hexenal.

Q.33) Optically active isomers are also called

Q.34) Which of the following is a chiral?

[B] 1, 1 - dibromo -3-chloropropane

Q.35) Which of the following is optically active?

Q.36) Amines exhibit

[B] Functional isomerism

Q.37) How many chiral isomers can be drawn from 2-bromo-3-chorobutane?

Q.38) Two isomeric forms of a saturated hydrocarbon

Q.39) An isomer of ethanol is

Q.41) How many planes of symmetry does a meso compound have?

[D] None of these

Q.44) Which of the following statements concerning conformations is (are) TRUE?

Q.45) What is the relationship between the structures shown?

[A] structural isomers

Q.1) Floridean starch is found in

Q.2) Peat moss is another name of

Q.3) Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in possessing

Q.4) Most plants are green in colour because

Q.5) In Chlorophyceae sexual reproduction occurs by

[A] A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)