B9-Clj-Bet (500 Items) With Answer

BATCH 9
BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON

CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE
Prepared by: Atty. Jay M. Ferraro
9. It means the law will have application even outside the

PART 1
territorial jurisdiction of the State.
a. Intraterritoriality
1. The basis of criminal liability is human free will and the
b. Extraterritoriality
purpose of the penalty is retribution.
c. Exterritoriality
a. Classical Theory
d. Territoriality
b. Positivist Theory
c. Eclectic Theory
10. Pingris went to NAIA and boarded an airship of the PAL
d. Utilitarian Theory
destined for USA. As the airship passes the Pacific Ocean, Pingris
killed Rendon, a fellow passenger. Which Court can try the case
2. What is the legal basis for inflicting punishment?
of murder committed by Pingris?
a. Power of Expropriation
a. U.S. Courts
b. Power of Taxation
b. Philippine Courts
c. Police Power
c. Either a or b
d. Power of Eminent Domain
d. Both a and b
3. Which among the following is/are limitation/s on the

11. Which among the following does not belong to the
power of Congress to enact penal laws?
group?
a. Ex post facto law
a. Deficiency in action
b. Bill of attainder
b. Lack of skill
c. Equal protection clause
c. Failure to take necessary precaution to avoid injury to
d. All of the above
another
d. Failure to pay proper attention and to use due
4. This limitation requires that criminal laws must be of
diligence in foreseeing injury or damage to be caused.
general application and must clearly define the acts and omissions
punished as crimes.
12. Which of the following crimes cannot be committed
a. Ex post facto law
through culpa?
b. Bill of attainder
a. Treason
c. Equal protection clause
b. Robbery
d. Due Process clause
c. Malicious mischief
d. None of the above
5. Whenever a person is under a compulsion of irresistible
force or uncontrollable fear to do an act against his will, in which
13. In an act to discipline his child, the father claims that
that act produces a crime or offense, such person is exempted in
the death of his child was not intended by him. Is his contention
any criminal liability arising from said act.
correct?
a. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
a. Yes
b. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
b. No
c. Doctrine of Pro Reo
c. True
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
d. False
6. It is an act committed or omitted in violation of a public

14. In this situation, the intended victim was not at the
law forbidding or commanding it.
scene of the crime.
a. Felony
a. Error in personae
b. Offense
b. Aberratio ictus
c. Infraction
c. Praeter Intentionem
d. Crime
d. Mistake of fact
7. Which among the following is a formal felony?

15. In this situation, the resulting felony cannot be foreseen
a. Physical Injuries
from the acts of the offender.
b. Rape
c. Theft
b. Aberratio ictus
d. Arson
d. Mistake of fact
8. Which among the following violations under special
penal laws is considered malum prohibitum?
16. It is known as the crime of last resort.
a. Graft and Corrupt Practices Acts (R.A. 3019)
b. Piracy in Philippine Waters (P.D. No. 532)
b. Aberratio ictus
c. Brigandage in the highways (P.D. No. 532)
d. Plunder (R.A. 7080)
d. Impossible crime
Amici Review Center Page 1

27. Is there self-defense even if the aggressor used a toy
17. The offender has performed until the last act and is no gun?
longer in control of its natural course. a. None
a. Objective phase b. Yes
b. Subjective phase c. Maybe
c. Frustrated felony d. False
d. Consummated felony
18. Enrico went to a nearby videoke bar to buy cigarettes. 28. Kokey claims that the death of Harold was an accident
Once inside the bar, he was stabbed by Simon on his body. When and his act was just for self-defense when his revolver accidentally
Enrico was rushed to the hospital, he was treated and the doctor hit the victim while he was struggling the same with his real
testified that the injury suffered by Enrico was fatal and would enemy, Jade. Is his contention correct?
cause his death were it not for the timely medical attention given a. Yes, Kokey can invoke self-defense
to him. Is Simon liable? b. No, this is aberratio ictus
a. No c. No, this is error in personae
b. Yes for frustrated murder d. No, this is praeter intentionem
c. Yes for frustrated homicide
d. Yes for serious physical injuries
29. What does the law require on the weapons used by the
one defending himself?
19. Jade, a doctor, conceived the idea of killing his wife, a. Perfect equality
Betty. To carry out his plan, he mixed arsenic with the soup of b. Rational Equivalence
Betty. Soon after taking the poisonous food, Jade suddenly had a c. Almost the same
change of heart and washed out the stomach of Betty. Jade also d. It depends on the situation
gave Betty an antidote. Is Jade liable?
a. No 30. It is a rule which does not require a person, who is
b. Yes, for frustrated parricide where he has a right to be, to retreat in the face of a rapidly
c. Yes, for frustrated murder advancing attacker threatening him with a deadly weapon, but
d. Yes, for physical injuries entitles him to do whatever he believes is necessary to protect
himself from great bodily harm.
20. The essence of the crime is sexual congress. a. Stand ground when in the right doctrine
a. Rape b. Retreat to the wall doctrine
b. Corruption of public officers c. Self-defense
c. Physical injury d. Right of self-preservation
d. Adultery
31. To be classified as a battered woman, the couple must
21. It is also known as a moving crime. go through the battering cycle at least
a. Complex crime a. Once
b. Compound Crime b. Twice
c. Continuous Crime c. Thrice
d. Transitory Crime d. Multiple Times
32. In Battered Woman Syndrome (BWS), the defense

22. It is one in which the substance is made up of more should prove how many phases of cycle of violence characterizing
than one crime, but which, in the eyes of the law, is only a single the relationship of the parties.
indivisible offense. a. 1
a. Complex crime b. 2
b. Compound Crime c. 3
c. Continuous Crime d. 4
d. Composite Crime
33. Who can prove the existence of a Battered Woman
23. Which of the following is not a special complex crime? Syndrome?
a. Rape with homicide a. Battered Woman
b. Rape through Forcible Abduction b. Psychiatrist/Psychologist
c. Robbery with serious physical injuries c. Prosecution
d. Robbery with Rape d. Defense
24. It has the effect of an exempting circumstance as it is 34. What is the basis for exemption from criminal liability in
predicated on lack of voluntariness. insanity/imbecility?
a. Absolutory cause a. Lack of intelligence
b. Extenuating circumstance b. Lack of criminal intent
c. Justifying circumstance c. Lack of freedom
d. Alternative circumstance d. All of the above
25. Who has the burden of evidence of proving the 35. What is the basis for exemption from criminal liability
existence of justifying circumstances? of the accused when he was prevented by some lawful or
a. Prosecution insuperable cause?
b. Accused a. Lack of intelligence
c. Witness b. Lack of criminal intent
d. Court c. Lack of freedom
d. All of the above
26. When pleading self-defense, the burden to prove guilt
beyond reasonable doubt is on the shoulders of: 36. In compulsion of irresistible force, compulsion is by
a. Accused means of:
b. State a. Physical fear
c. Witness b. Physical force
d. Court c. Intimidation
d. Threats

b. Qualifying
37. Clarkson, who was not a member of the band which c. Inherent
murdered some American school teachers, was in a plantation d. Generic
gathering bananas. Upon hearing the shooting, he ran. However,
Clarkson was seen by the leaders of the band who called him, and 48. Quasi-recidivism is an example of what aggravating
striking him with the butts of their guns. They compelled him to circumstance?
bury the bodies. Here: a. Specific
a. Clarkson is liable as an accessory b. Qualifying
b. Clarkson is not liable c. Special
c. Clarkson is liable as principal d. Generic
d. Clark is liable as an accomplice
49. One who, at the time of his trial for one crime, shall
38. Mitigating circumstances must be present prior to or have been previously convicted by final judgment of another
simultaneously with the commission of the offense except in: crime embraced in the same title of the RPC.
a. Physical defect a. Recidivist
b. Sufficient threat or provocation b. Quasi-Recidivist
c. Praeter intentionem c. Reiteracion
d. Voluntary surrender d. Habitual Delinquent
39. In case of concealing dishonor by a pregnant woman in 50. The first crime in 1975 was serious physical injuries, the
abortion, the imposable penalty is lowered by: second crime in 2004 was murder. This is:
a. 1 degree lower a. Recidivism
b. 2 degrees lower b. Quasi-Recidivism
c. 3 degrees lower c. Reiteracion
d. By period only d. Habitual Delinquency
40. If the offender is over 70 years of age, the effect on 51. Enrico followed the unsuspecting victim, Simon when
criminal liability is: he was going home and thereafter, deliberately stabbed him in
a. Exempting Circumstance the back which resulted in Simon falling to the ground wand was
b. Full Criminal Responsibility thereby further attacked by Enrico. In this case, there is?
c. Alternative Circumstance a. Aid of armed men
d. Mitigating Circumstance b. Nighttime
c. Means to weaken the defense
41. What is the effect of senility? d. Treachery
a. Exempting Circumstance
b. Full Criminal Responsibility 52. In which of the following crimes, ignominy is
c. Alternative Circumstance applicable?
d. Mitigating Circumstance a. Crimes against chastity
b. Less serious physical injuries
42. What is the effect of Senile Dementia? c. Light or Grave Coercion
a. Exempting Circumstance d. All of the above
b. Full Criminal Responsibility
c. Alternative Circumstance 53. A positive finding for the use of dangerous drugs shall
d. Mitigating Circumstance be a:
a. Qualifying aggravating circumstance
43. The accused escapes from the scene of the crime in b. Special aggravating circumstance
order to seek advice from a lawyer, and the latter ordered him to c. Specific aggravating circumstance
surrender voluntarily to the authorities, which the accused d. Inherent aggravating circumstance
followed by surrendering himself to the municipal mayor. Here:
a. The surrender is no longer mitigating 54. A first time minor offender under RA 9165, in lieu of
b. The surrender is mitigating imprisonment, may be granted:
c. It depends on the appreciation of the Court a. probation even if the sentence provided under the said
d. Any of the above law is higher than that provided under existing law on probation
b. community service
44. Plea of guilty to a lesser offense is also known as: c. probation provided only if the penalty does not exceed
a. Conditional plea 6 years;
b. Absolute plea d. both a and b
c. Qualified plea
d. Disqualified plea 55. The passive subject in the commission of a crime.
a. Criminal
45. Suppose Kokey is deaf and dumb and he has been b. Injured party
slandered, he cannot talk so what he did was he got a piece of c. Witness
wood and struck the fellow on the head. Kokey was charged with d. Fiscal
physical injuries. Here:
a. Kokey is not entitled to a mitigating circumstance 56. Where there is conspiracy, the act of one is the act of
b. Kokey is entitled to a mitigating circumstance all. This refers to:
c. A maximum penalty will be imposed upon Kokey a. Individual criminal responsibility
d. Kokey will be entitled to alternative circumstances b. Quasi-collective criminal responsibility
c. Collective criminal responsibility
46. Those that generally apply to almost all crimes. d. Conspiracy
a. Specific
b. Qualifying 57. An accomplice is known as:
c. Special a. Accessory before the fact
d. Generic b. Accessory after the fact
c. Accessory during the fact
47. Those that must of necessity accompany the d. Accessory before and simultaneous the fact
commission of the crime.
a. Specific

58. Jeremiah wanting to kidnap Charles while playing at a d. 2/5
parfk, forced Charles to come with him at a nearby wharf. There,
he saw Kokey and Jade ready to leave, with their boats. Kokey, 68. It is the imposable penalty after taking into
without putting any resistance and fully acquiescing to the acts of consideration certain graduating factors.
Jeremiah allowed him, to transport the kidnapped victim, thereby a. Prescribed penalty
facilitating the commission of the crime. Is Kokey liable? b. Graduated penalty
a. Yes as an accessory c. Indivisible penalty
b. Yes as an accomplice d. Divisible penalty
c. Yes as principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Yes as principal by direct participation 69. Fines shall be increased or reduced for each degree by
Answer: B ___ of the maximum amount.
a. ¼
59. The accessory comes into the picture: b. ½
a. when the crime is already consummated c. 1/3
b. during the commission of the crime d. ¾
c. before and after the crime has been consummated
d. before, during and after the commission of the crime 70. The prosecution was able to prove that the man is 75
years old. Would you consider the aggravating circumstance of
60. Kokey took the cellphone which was snatched by disrespect of age?
Simon. Here, Kokey is: a. Yes
a. Fence b. No
b. Principal in the crime of theft c. It depends
c. Accessory d. Maybe
d. Accomplice
71. Which of the following best describes the three-fold
61. Which of the following are generic aggravating rule?
circumstances? a. Material accumulation system
a. Recidivism and Reiteracion b. Juridical accumulation system
b. Recidivism and Quasi-Recidivism c. Absorption system
c. Reiteracion and Habitual Delinquency d. None of the above
d. Quasi-Recidivism and Habitual Delinquency
72. The three-fold rule applies if a convict has to serve at
62. Habitual delinquency is used as extraordianry least _____ sentences continuously
aggravating circumstance on the: a. 3
a. 1st conviction b. 4
b. 2nd conviction c. 5
c. 3rd conviction d. 3 or more
d. 4th conviction
63. Under Art. 9 (3), if the fine by the law for a felony is 73. Costs in case of conviction are chargeable against:
exactly PhP40,000, it is a: a. Accused
a. Light felony b. Private complainant
b. Light penalty c. Both parties
c. Less grave felony d. Court
d. Less grave penalty
74. Costs in case of acquittal are chargeable against:
64. Destierro can be imposed in the following cases except: a. Accused
a. As a penalty for the concubine in concubinage b. Private complainant
b. In cases where after reducing the penalty by 1 or more c. Both parties
degrees, destierro is the proper penalty d. Court
c. In the crime of grave threat or light threat, when the
offender is required to put up a bond for good behavior but failed 75. Probation is a mere privilege and its grant rest solely
or refused to do so. upon the discretion of the ______.
d. In less serious physical injuries under a. Court
exceptional circumstances b. Prosecution
c. Supreme Court
d. Parole and Probation Administration
65. Credit for preventive imprisonment for the penalty of
reclusion perpetua shall be deducted from: 76. When a judgment of conviction imposing a non-
a. 20 years probationable penalty is appealed or reviewed in the Court
b. 30 years Appeals and such judgment is modified through the imposition of
c. 40 years a probationable penalty, the defendant shall be allowed to apply
d. Upon conviction for probation based on the modified decision before such decision
becomes final. The application for probation based on the
66. In case the maximum penalty to which the accused may modified decision shall be filed in the:
be sentenced is destierro, he shall be release after ___ days of a. CA
preventive imprisonment. b. SC
a. 20 c. RTC
b. 30 d. MTC
c. 60
d. 181 77. The period of probation of a defendant sentenced to a
term of imprisonment of not more than one year shall not exceed:
67. A child in conflict with the law shall be credited in the a. 1 year
services of his/her sentence with the _______ spent in the actual b. 2 years
commitment and detention. c. 3 years
a. 4/5 d. 6 years
b. Full time
c. 1/5

78. The period of probation of a defendant sentenced to a d. Sec. 5, Art. 3, Constitution
term of imprisonment of more than one year shall not exceed:
a. 1 year 89. Can a barangay Chairman be guilty of arbitrary
b. 2 years detention?
c. 12 years a. No, he has no authority to arrest and detain
d. 6 years b. Yes, he is a public officer
c. Yes, he has authority to arrest and detain
79. Arresto Mayor prescribes in ____ years. d. No, especially when he acts in a private capacity
a. 1 year
b. 2 years 90. What is the length of waiver under Art. 125, RPC in case
c. 5 years of light offense?
d. 10 years a. 5 days
b. 10 days
80. Grave slander prescribes in ____ months. c. 15 days
a. 2 months d. 30 days
b. 6 months
c. 1 month 91. What is the length of waiver under Art. 125, RPC in
d. 1 year cases of serious and less serious offenses?
a. 7-10 days
81. Destierro shall prescribe in _____: b. 10-15 days
a. 1 year c. 16-30 days
b. 6 months d. 1-5 days
c. 5 years
d. 10 years 92. If a public officer, not armed with a search warrant or
a warrant of arrest, searches a person outside his dwelling, if
82. Kokey killed his wife and buried her in the backyard. He violence and intimidation are used, the crime committed is:
immediately went into hiding in the mountains. Three years later, a. Searching domicile without witnesses
the bones of Kokey’s wife were discovered by Jade, the gardener. b. Unjust Vexation
Since Jade had a standing warrant of arrest, he hid the bones in c. Grave Coercion
an old clay jar and kept quiet about it. After 2 years, Betty, the d. Unlawful Arrest
caretaker found the bones and reported matter to the police. After
15 years of hiding, Kokeyt left the country but returned 3 years 93. If a public officer, not armed with a search warrant or
later to take care of his ailing sibling. Six years thereafter, he was a warrant of arrest, searches a person outside his dwelling, if
charged but raised the defense of prescription. What crime did there is no violence and intimidation, the crime committed is:
Kokey commit? a. Searching domicile without witnesses
a. Homicide b. Unjust Vexation
b. Murder c. Grave Coercion
c. Parricide d. Unlawful Arrest
d. None of the above
94. Suppose Kokey, a suspected pusher lives in a
83. This crime prescribes in how many years? condominium unit. Agents of the PDEA obtained a search warrant
a. 20 years but the name of the person in the search warrant did not tally
b. 15 years with the address indicated therein.
c. 10 years Eventually, Kokey was found but in a different address. Kokey
d. 5 years resisted but the agents insisted on the search. Drugs were found
and seized and Kokey was prosecuted. Is the search valid?
84. Is Kokey’s defense tenable? a. Yes
a. Yes b. No
b. No c. It depends
c. Maybe d. Maybe
d. It depends
95. The essence of rebellion is public uprising and taking of
85. Loss or forfeiture of the State to prosecute. arms for the purpose of overthrowing the Government by force
a. Prescription of crimes although it is not necessary that the rebels succeed in
b. Prescription of Penalties overthrowing the Government. If there is no public uprising, the
c. Pardon by the President crime is:
d. Pardon by the Offended party a. Coup d’ etat
b. Direct Assault
86. It is the offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing c. Sedition
information respecting the national defense with intent or reason d. Inciting to rebellion
to believe that the information is to be used to the injury of the
Republic of the Philippines or to the advantage of a foreign nation. 96. The ultimate object of this crime is a violation of the
a. Treason public peace or at least such a course of measures as evidently
b. Misprision of treason engenders it.
c. Espionage a. Coup d’ etat
d. Correspondence with hostile country b. Direct Assault
c. Sedition
87. Attack from the inside. d. Inciting to sedition
a. Piracy
b. Mutiny 97. It is a violation by a subject of his allegiance to his
c. Treason sovereign or the supreme authority of the State.
d. Espionage a. Rebellion
b. Sedition
88. A person who commits arbitrary detention likewise c. Treason
violates: d. Coup d’ etat
a. Sec. 1, Art. 3, Constitution
b. Sec. 2, Art. 3, Constitution 98. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a police officer
c. Sec. 4, Art. 3, Constitution who, while Congress was in session, arrested a member thereof

for committing a crime punishable by a penalty higher than prison 7. Only private individuals may commit usurpation of
mayor? authority or official functions.
a. Violation of parliamentary immunity a. Yes
b. Violation of the doctrine of diplomatic immunity from b. No
suit c. True
c. Unlawful arrest d. False
d. No crime
8. Does the term prostitution apply to a man?
99. Lydia and Gemma are public school teachers. Lydia’s a. Yes
son was a student of Gemma. Lydia confronted Gemma after b. No
learning from her son that Gemma called him a “sissy” while in c. It depends
class. Lydia slapped Gemma in the cheek and pushed her, thereby d. False
causing her to fall and hit a wall divider.
As a result of Lydia’s violent assault, Gemma suffered a contusion
in her ‘maxillary area”, as shown by a medical certificate issued 9. Persons below 18 years of age shall be exempt from
by a doctor and continued to experience abdominal pains. To prosecution for the crime of prostitution under Art. 2, RPC, such
what crime, if any, is Lydia available? prosecution being inconsistent with the:
a. Slander by deed a. UNCLOS
b. Physical injury b. UNCRC
c. Direct assault c. UNICEF
d. Indirect Assault d. UN
100. What crime is committed by creating noise and 10. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the
annoyance that is directed to a particular person or a family? Child was adopted in the year:
a. Alarms and scandal a. 1989
b. Unjust vexation b. 1990
c. Charivari c. 1991
d. Disturbance d. 1992
11. This is a global framework for children’s rights that has

PART 2 been signed by how many countries?
1. An employee of the penal establishment who does not a. 196
have the custody of the prisoner is liable for: b. 197
a. Delivering prisoner form jail c. 198
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner d. 199
c. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
d. Evasion thru negligence 12. Which of the following is a crime of malfeasance?
a. Indirect Bribery
2. If the detention prisoner knows of the plot to remove b. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
him from jail and cooperates therein by escaping, he himself c. Dereliction od duty in the prosecution of offenses
becomes liable for: d. Rendering judgment through negligence
a. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
b. Evasion of service of sentence 13. Which among the following is a source of an unjust
c. Delivering prisoner from jail judgment?
d. No crime a. Error
b. Ill-will or revenge
3. Manny killed his wife under exceptional circumstances c. Bribery
and was sentenced by the RTC of Quezon City to suffer the d. All of the above
penalty of destierro during which he was not to enter the city.
While serving sentence, Manny went to Quezon City to visit his 14. Which of the following may commit an unjust
mother. Later, he was arrested in Baguio City. Did Manny commit judgment?
a crime? a. RTC Judges
A. Yes, parricide under exceptional circumstance b. CA Justices
B. Yes, evasion of service of sentence c. MeTC Judges
C. Yes, indirect contempt d. Both a and c only
D. No crime
15. The crime involved in qualified bribery is a:
4. Where should Manny be prosecuted? a. Capital offense
a. Quezon City b. Heinous crime
b. Baguio City c. Both a and B
c. Quezon City or Baguio City d. Those with a penalty of Reclusion perpetua
d. Any city in the Philippines
16. In abuses against chastity, a public officer solicits or
5. In quasi-recidivism, the second crime must be: makes any indecent or immoral advances to a woman who is a
a. Offense relative of the person under the custody and charge of the
b. Felony offender except:
c. Offense or felony a. Wife
d. Infraction b. Sister
c. Sister-in-law
6. This crime is committed if the solemnity of the oath is d. Mother
violated.
a. Forgery 17. In parricide, the relationship except the spouse must be
b. Falsification in the:
c. Perjury a. Direct line
d. False testimony b. Collateral line
c. Zigzag line
d. Curve Line

18. Elias killed Susana. He was charged with parricide. got his gun and killed both. Can the accused claim that he killed
During the trial, no marriage contract was presented. Is the non- the 2 under exceptional circumstances?
presentation of the marriage contract fatal to the prosecution of a. Yes
the accused for parricide? b. No
a. Yes c. It depends
b. No d. Maybe
c. True
d. It depends 29. Death under exceptional circumstance is not applicable
when the daughter is:
19. If a person killed another who is under 12 years of age a. Married
not knowing that the latter was his son is guilty of? b. Under 18 years of age
a. Murder c. Still under parental authority
b. Homicide d. Single
c. Parricide
d. Infanticide 30. When a third person is injured in the course of the firing
at the paramour, what crime, if any, is committed?
20. If a person wanted to kill another but by mistake killed a. Serious physical injuries through simple
his own father is liable for? imprudence or negligence
a. Murder b. Serious physical injuries under exceptional
b. Homicide circumstance
c. Parricide c. Frustrated murder
d. No crime d. Frustrated homicide
21. What is the proper penalty to be imposed? 31. Number of circumstance/s necessary to qualify
a. Penalty for the actual crime committed homicide to murder:
b. Penalty for the intended crime a. 1
c. Penalty for the lesser offense in its maximum b. 2
period c. 3
d. Penalty for the actual crime committed in its maximum d. 4
period
32. A killed by B by stabbing B in the heart which resulted
22. Suppose Kokey killed his brother who is 3 days old, to B’s death. The witness is the wife of the victim, who said that
what crime is committed? a day prior to the killing, A threatened B. What crime is
a. Parricide committed?
b. Murder a. Murder
c. Homicide b. Homicide
d. Infanticide c. Parricide
d. No crime
23. Suppose a husband, who wanted to kill his sick wife,
hired a killer. The hired killer shot the wife. What crime is 33. If A would shoot B at one of his feet, at a distance of
committed by the husband? one meter, there is no intent to kill. If B is hit, the crime is:
a. Murder a. Physical Injuries
b. Homicide b. Discharge of firearms
c. Parricide c. Attempted Homicide
d. No Crime d. Attempted Murder
24. What is the liability of the husband? 34. Suppose B was not hit, the crime is:
a. Principal by direct participation a. Physical Injuries
b. Principal by Inducement b. Discharge of firearms
c. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation c. Attempted Homicide
d. Accomplice d. Attempted Murder
25. What is the crime committed by the hired killer? 35. X, a pharmacist, compounded and prepared the
a. Murder medicine on prescription by a doctor. X erroneously used a highly
b. Homicide poisonous substance. When taken by the patient, the latter nearly
c. Parricide died. What crime, if any, is committed?
d. No Crime a. Frustrated homicide through reckless imprudence
b. Homicide through reckless imprudence
26. What is the liability of the hired killer? c. Physical injuries through reckless imprudence
a. Principal by direct participation d. Any of the above depending on the circumstance
b. Principal by Inducement
c. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation 36. Use of unlicensed firearms in committing murder or
d. Accomplice homicide is:
a. Qualifies the killing to murder
26. The child killed by his parent must be at least? b. Separate crime
a. Less than 3 days c. An aggravating circumstance
b. 3 days d. Any of the above
c. Less than 12 days
d. 5 days old 37. Corpus delicti in crimes against persons may be proven
by:
27. In this crime, the basis is the age of the child-victim. a. Credible testimony of a sole witness
a. Parricide b. Physical evidence
b. murder c. Physical body of the deceased
c. Homicide d. The ashes of a burned building
d. Infanticide
38. It is the practice of painlessly putting to death a person
28. The accused was shocked to discover his wife and their suffering from some incurable disease.
driver sleeping in the master’s bedroom. Outraged, the accused a. Giving assistance to suicide

b. Euthanasia d. murder and abortion
c. Murder
d. Disturbance of a public order 50. Suppose the mother as a consequence of abortion suffers
physical injuries, what crime is committed?
39. If the gun was not pointed at the offended party when a. physical injuries
it was fired but was initially aimed by the accused at or against b. abortion
the victim. In this case, this is: c. physical injuries with abortion
a. Alarms and Scandal d. physical injuries and abortion
b. Discharge of Firearm
c. Attempted homicide 51. If despite the employment of sufficient and adequate means
d. No crime to effect abortion, the fetus that is expelled from the maternal
womb is viable but unable to sustain life outside the maternal
40. Discharge towards the house of the victim is: womb, what crime is committed?
a. Alarms and scandal a. Frustrated abortion
b. Discharge of Firearm b. Consummated abortion
c. Attempted homicide c. infanticide
d. No crime d. murder
41. In discharge of firearm, there is a complex crime if: 52. Suppose the pregnant woman employed violence to herself
a. The injuries sustained by the offended party is serious specifically calculated to bring about abortion, what crime is
b. The injuries sustained by the offended party is less committed?
serious a. intentional abortion
c. The injuries sustained by the offended party is slight b. unintentional abortion
d. Both a and b c. abortion
d. suicide
42. Killing of a child less than 3 days old by a legitimate 53. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a pregnant woman who
grandparent is: tried to commit suicide by poison, but she did not die and the
a. Murder fetus in her womb was expelled instead?
b. Parricide a. no crime
c. Infanticide b. intentional abortion
d. Homicide c. unintentional abortion
d. suicide
43. In relation to the preceding question, what is the proper
penalty? 54. It is an abortion caused by a physician to save the life of a
a. penalty for infanticide mother.
b. penalty for murder a. Abortion practiced by a physician
c. penalty for parricide b. Abortion practiced by a midwife
d. penalty for homicide c. Therapeutic abortion
d. Dispensing of abortives
44. Killing of a child less than 72 hours by a neighbor is:
a. Murder
b. Parricide 55. If the pharmacist knew that the abortive would be used to
c. Infanticide cause an abortion and abortion resulted from the use thereof, the
d. Homicide pharmacist is a/an _______ in the crime of abortion.
a. accomplice
45. In relation to the preceding question, what is the proper b. accessory
penalty? c. principal by indispensable cooperation
a. penalty for infanticide d. principal by inducement
b. penalty for murder
c. penalty for parricide 56. Once physical injuries resulted to deformity, it is classified as:
d. penalty for homicide a. slight physical injuries
b. less serious physical injuries
46. When infanticide is committed? c. serious physical injuries
a. If the child is born dead d. mutilation
b. If the child is already dead
c. If the child is born alive, it could not sustain an 57. It refers to rape committed by an ascendant of the offended
independent life when it was killed woman.
d. none of the above a. Statutory rape
b. marital rape
47. Suppose the child less than 3 days old is abandoned without c. Incestous rape
any intent to kill and death results, what crime is committed? d. Sexual assault
a. Infanticide
b. Abandoning a minor 58. If a woman is carried away just to break her will to compel
c. parricide her to agree to demand or request by the offender.
d. murder a. Grave coercion
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention
48. Abortion is a crime against the: c. Forcible abduction
a. woman d. Rape through forcible abduction
b. fetus
c. woman and fetus 59. If a woman is transported just to restrain her liberty.
d. family a. Grave coercion
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention
49. Suppose the mother as a consequence of abortion suffers c. Forcible abduction
death, what crime is committed? d. Rape through forcible abduction
a. murder
b. homicide
c. murder with abortion

60. If a woman is transported from one place to another by virtue d. Crime involving destruction
of restraining her of her liberty and the act is coupled with lewd
designs. 69. In bigamy, the second husband or wife who knew of the first
a. Grave coercion marriage is:
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention a. an accessory
c. Forcible abduction b. an accomplice
d. Rape through forcible abduction c. principal by direct participation
d. principal by indispensable cooperation
61. The accused detained the victim for 39 days and raped her 4
times, what crime is committed? 70. In bigamy, the witness, who falsely vouched for the capacity
a. Kidnapping with rape? of either of the contracting parties is:
b. Kidnapping with rape and four counts of rape a. an accessory
c. Kidnapping with rape, four counts of rape and rape through b. an accomplice
sexual assault c. principal by direct participation
d. any of the above d. principal by indispensable cooperation
62. Isagani lost his gold necklace bearing his initials. He saw Roy 71. Bigamy is an offense against civil status which may be
wearing the said necklace. Isagani asked Roy to return to him the prosecuted only at the instance of:
necklace as it belongs to him, but Roy refused. Isagani then drew a. the State
his gun and told Roy, “If you will not give back the necklace to b. the offended party
me, I will kill you!” Out of fear for his life and against his will, Roy c. grandparents
gave the necklace to Isagani. What crime did Isagani commit? d. parents
A. Grave threats
B. Grave coercion 72. Concubinage is an offense against chastity which may be
c. Impossible crime prosecuted only at the instance of:
d. Robbery a. the State
b. the offended party
63. If by means of violence, the property is applied to the debt. c. grandparents
a. Grave coercion d. parents
b. Light coercion
c. Robbery 73. Premature marriages was decriminalized by:
d. estafa a. R.A. 10655
b. R.A. 10566
64. If there is no obligation on the part of the offended party but c. R.A. 10656
was only feigned. d. R.A. 10556
a. Grave coercion
b. Light coercion 74. This states that the contributory negligence of the party
c. Robbery injured will not defeat the action if it be shown that the accused
d. estafa might, by the exercise of reasonable care and prudence, have
avoided the consequences of the negligence of the injured party.
65. If the value of the property seized is greater than that of the a. Doctrine of last clear chance
debt and violence and intimidation are employed. b. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
. Grave coercion c. Emergency Rule
b. Light coercion d. any of the above
c. Robbery
d. estafa 75. There is no direct filing in which of the following courts?
a. MeTC
66. Suppose a gang robbed a mansion in Forbes Park. On the b. MCTC
occasion of the robbery, physical injuries were inflicted on the c. MTCC
household members. The robbers also detained the children to d. RTC
compel their parents to come out with the money. What crime/s
was/were committed? 76. As a general rule, a complaint or information must charge only
A. robbery with serious physical injuries one offense except:
B. serious illegal detention a. complex crimes
C. Robbery and serious physical injuries b. special complex crimes
D. Robbery with serious physical injuries and serious c. continuous crime
illegal detention d. all of the above
67. Suppose in relation to the preceding number, the victims were

detained because of the timely arrival of the police, such that the 77. Should there be duplicity of offense in the information, the
offenders had no choice but to detain the victims as hostages in accused must move for the quashal of the same:
exchange for their safe passage. a. before trial
A. robbery with serious physical injuries b. after arraignment
B. serious illegal detention c. before arraignment
C. Robbery and serious physical injuries d. before and after arraignment
D. Robbery with serious physical injuries and serious illegal
detention 78. The reservation of the right to institute separately the civil
action shall be made:
68. There was collision between the side view mirrors of 2 a. before the prosecution starts presenting the evidence
vehicles. Immediately thereafter, the wife and the daughter of A b. after the prosecution starts presenting the evidence
alighted from the CRV and confronted B. A in view of the hostile c. after the prosecution had rested its case
attitude of B, summoned his wife and daughter to enter the CRV d. after the presentation of defense’ evidence
and while they were in the process of doing so, B moved and
accelerated his Vitara backward as if to hit them. What crime was 79. A petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon
committed? the pendency of a prejudicial question may be raised during the
A. Malicious mischief preliminary investigation. When the criminal action has been filed
B. reckless imprudence resulting to damage to property in court for trial, the petition to suspend shall be filed in the same
c. arson criminal action at any time:

A. before the prosecution starts presenting the evidence 90. In the determination of probable cause, within ____ days from
b. after the prosecution starts presenting the evidence the filing of the complaint or information, the judge shall
c. after the prosecution had rested its case personally evaluate the resolution of the prosecutor.
d. before the prosecution rests a. 5
b. 10
80. Probable cause for the filing of an information is a: c. 15
a. legislative function d. 30
b. executive function
c. judicial function 91. Once a person has been duly charged in court, he may
d. all of the above question his detention by:
a. petition for habeas corpus
81. Probable cause for the issuance of warrant is a: b. motion to quash the information
a. legislative function c. motion to quash the warrant of arrest
b. executive function d. only b and c
c. judicial function
d. all of the above 92. As a general rule, bail may not be filed once there is already
a final judgment except:
82. From the filing of the complaint, the investigating officer has a. after conviction by the MTC
_______ days within which to decide on whether to dismiss or b. after conviction by the RTC
issue a subpoena. c. after conviction by the appellate court
a. 5 days d. all of the above
b. 10 days
c. 15 days 93. Remedy of the accused when bail is discretionary.
d. 30 days a. file a petition for bail
b. file a petition for habeas corpus
83. Clarificatory hearing during preliminary investigation is: c. file a petition for certiorari
a. mandatory d. file a petition for mandamus
b. not mandatory
c. not necessary 94. The Universal Declaration of Human rights applies to
d. necessary deportation cases; hence,
a. there is no reason why it cannot be invoked in
84. Within ___ days from the issuance of his resolution, the extradition cases
investigating prosecutor shall forward the record of the case to b. there is a reason for the denial of bail of extradite
the provincial or city prosecutor or chief state prosecutor, or to c. there is no reason to grant the same to an extradite
the Ombudsman or his deputy. d. all of the above
a. 5 days
b. 10 days 95. Under the principle of pacta sunt servanda, the Philippines
c. 15 days must honor the Extradition Treaty it entered into with other
d. 30 days countries. Pacta sunt servanda means:
a. The States are not bound to respect the agreements entered
85. A petition for Review to the DOJ may be filed by an aggrieved into by them
party within ____ days from the resolution of the Investigating b. The agreements entered into by the States will be
Prosecutor. respected and followed by them in good faith
a . 5 days c. The States are under no obligation to follow the agreements in
b. 10 days good faith
c. 15 days d. Though the States are bound to recognize an agreement
d. 30 days entered into by them but cannot be compelled to follow it.
86. The party aggrieved by a resolution of the Secretary of Justice 96. In granting bail in extradition cases, the required proof of
may file a Motion for Reconsideration within a non-extendible evidence is:
period of ____ form receipt of the resolution on appeal. a. clear and convincing evidence
a . 5 days b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. 10 days c. preponderance of evidence
c. 15 days d. substantial evidence
d. 30 days
97. Bail in deportation proceedings is wholly:
87. The decision of the DOJ Secretary is appealable to the: a. mandatory
a. Court of Appeals b. necessary
b. Supreme Court c. discretionary
c. RTC d. not mandatory
d. Office of the President
98. Remedy of the accused when bail is denied by the trial court.
88. The decision of the Office of the President is appealable to a. motion for reconsideration
the: b. appeal
a. Court of Appeals c. petition for certiorari
b. Supreme Court d. petition for habeas corpus
c. RTC
d. MeTC 99. An order denying a petition for bail is:
a. a final order
89. Should the information be already filed in court but the b. an interlocutory order
accused filed a petition for review of the findings of the c. a mittimus
prosecutors with the DOJ, the Court is bound to suspend the d. a commitment order
arraignment of the accused for a period not exceeding _______:
a. 30 days 100. It is a writ issued directly by a judge to a law enforcer, for
b. 60 days the arrest of a person who has been held in contempt, has
c. 6 months disobeyed a subpoena, or has to appear at a hearing or trial.
d. 12 months a. bench warrant
b. warrant of arrest

c. alias warrant b. 10 days from date of issue
d. search warrant c. 10 days from application
d. Any time of the day or night
PART 3
1. An application for bail is not a bar to objections in illegal 12. It is the physical taking of a thing in custody.
arrest or irregularity or lack of preliminary investigation provided a. Search
that he raises them: b. Confiscation
a. Before trial c. Seize
b. Before entering his plea d. Warrant
c. Before the prosecution rests
d. Before the judgment of conviction becomes final 13. Carroll Doctrine is known as:
a. Search of moving vehicle
2. Which among the following may issue Hold Departure b. Plain View Doctrine
Orders? c. Stop and Frisk Operations
a. MTC d. Enforcement of Custom Laws
b. RTC
c. CA 14. Terry Doctrine means:
d. DOJ a. Search of moving vehicle
b. Plain View Doctrine
3. Hold Departure Orders shall be issued in: c. Stop and Frisk Operations
A. Civil cases d. Enforcement of Custom Laws
B. Administrative cases
C. Criminal cases 15. Evidence must have such a relation to the fact in issue
D. All of the above as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
a. Relevancy of evidence
4. As a general rule, arraignment shall be made within b. Competency of evidence
____ days from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the c. Admissibility of evidence
person of the accused. d. Both A and B
a. 15
b. 30 16. It exists when the witness affirms in the stand that a
c. 90 certain state of facts does exist or that a certain event happened.
d. 180 a. Positive evidence
b. Negative evidence
5. Which among the following is an option of the accused c. Corroborative evidence
before arraignment? d. Cumulative evidence
a. Bill of particulars
b. Suspension of arraignment 17. Refers to evidence of the same kind and character as
c. Motion to quash that already given and that tends to prove the same proposition.
d. All of the above a. Positive evidence
b. Negative evidence
6. When should you file a demurrer to evidence? c. Corroborative evidence
a. After the prosecution rests d. Cumulative evidence
b. Before the prosecution rests
c. After the defense rests 18. If a tape-recording is played to show that particular
d. Before finality of the judgment appealed from words were uttered, it will constitute:
a. A documentary evidence
7. What is the ground you should use in a demurrer to b. An object evidence
evidence? c. Both A and B
a. Insufficiency of evidence of the defense d. None of the above
b. Insufficiency of evidence of the prosecution
c. Lack of material witness 19. If a tape-recording is played to simply show that words
d. Violation of Speedy Trial Act were uttered in a particular accent, then it is:
a. A documentary evidence
8. Which among the following is not a post judgment b. An object evidence
remedy? c. Both A and B
a. Appeal d. None of the above
b. Certiorari
c. Motion for New Trial 20. Original Document Rule was formerly known as:
d. Motion for Reconsideration a. Documentary Evidence Rule
b. Parol Evidence Rule
9. A search warrant which vaguely describes and does not c. Original Document Rule
particularize the personal properties to be seized without definite d. Both a and c
guidelines to the searching team as to what items might be
lawfully seized, thus giving the officers of the law discretion 21. It is any evidence aliunde (extrinsic evidence) which is
regarding what articles they should seize. intended or tends to vary or contradict a complete and
A. General warrant enforceable agreement embodied in a document.
B. Scatter-shot warrant a. Testimonial evidence
C. Search warrant b. Real evidence
D. Warrant of arrest c. Documentary evidence
d. Parol evidence
10. It is a warrant issued for more than 1 offense.
A. General warrant 22. Parol evidence may refer to:
B. Scatter-shot warrant a. Testimonial evidence
C. Search warrant b. Real evidence
D. Warrant of arrest c. Documentary evidence
d. All of the above
11. A search warrant is valid within:
a. 10 days from date of receipt 23. Ancient document rule is also known as:

a. Authentic document rule c. Witness to a crime
b. Genuine document rule d. All of the above
c. Legitimate document rule
d. Any of the above 34. Propensity Rule refers to:
a. Admission by silence
24. Among the categories of object for purposes of b. Doctrine of Interlocking Confessions
authentication, the proponent of the evidence must establish a c. Similar Acts as evidence
chain of custody in the case of: d. Both a and b
a. Unique objects
b. Objects made unique 35. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital and
c. Non-unique objects other expenses occasioned by an injury is not admissible in
d. Real evidence evidence as proof of civil and criminal liability for the injury. This
is known as:
25. A prospective witness must show that he has the ability a. Good Samaritan Rule
to recognize a duty to tell the truth. This refers to: b. Propensity Rule
a. The testimonial quality of perception c. English Rule
b. The testimonial quality of memory d. Generosity Rule
c. The testimonial quality of narration
d. The testimonial quality of sincerity 36. Ante mortem statements refer to:
a. Part of res gestae
26. A person licensed to practice medicine engaged in the b. Dying Declaration
diagnosis or treatment of a mental or emotional condition; or a c. Declaration against interest
person licensed as a psychologist by the government while d. Both a and b
similarly engaged.
a. Psychiatrist 37. Res gestae is a latin phrase which means:
b. Psychotherapist a. Thing speaks for itself
c. Physician b. Things done
d. Expert witness c. Declarant’s statement
d. Both B and C
27. A child may not be compelled to testify against his
parents, or other directs descendants. 38. Which among the following is governed by the Rules on
a. Filial privilege rule Summary procedure?
b. Parental privilege rule a. Violations of traffic laws, rules and regulations
c. Parental and filial privilege rule b. Criminal negligence involving damage to property
d. Either of the above where the imposable fine does not exceed PhP10,000
c. Violations of BP 22 cases
28. A was convicted of raping his own daughter. His son, d. All of the above
an 8-year old boy, testified against him. Can he object to the
testimony? 39. Under the Rules on Summary Procedure, the period to
a. Yes file an answer is:
b. No a. 10 days
c. It depends b. 15 days
d. Maybe c. 5 days
d. 30 days
29. A, married to B, killed the latter. One of the witnesses
was C, the mother of B, who was being compelled to testify 40. It is an extraordinary remedy which may be issued
against A. Can A object on the ground of parental privilege? depending on the magnitude of environmental damage.
a. Yes a. Writ of Kalikasan
b. No b. Writ of Amparo
c. It depends c. Writ of Habeas Data
d. Maybe d. Writ of Habeas Corpus
30. Its purpose is to elicit facts about the client’s cause of 41. A verified petition for a Writ of Kalikasan may be filed
action or defense. with the:
a. Direct examination a. SC
b. Cross examination b. CA
c. Re-direct examination c. RTC
d. Re-cross examination d. Only SC and CA
31. It is known as the examination-in-chief of a witness. 42. It can be invoked when the right to life, liberty or
a. Direct examination security of a person is violated or threatened with violation by an
b. Cross examination unlawful act of a public official or employee or of a private
c. Re-direct examination individual or entity.
d. Re-cross examination a. Writ of Kalikasan
b. Writ of Amparo
32. It restricts cross-examination to facts and c. Writ of Habeas Data
circumstances which are connected with the matters that have d. Writ of Habeas Corpus
been stated in the direct examination.
a. English Rule 43. Its principal purpose is to set the individual at liberty.
b. French rule a. Writ of Kalikasan
c. American rule b. Writ of Amparo
d. Japanese rule c. Writ of Habeas Data
d. Writ of Habeas Corpus
33. The Rule on Examination of Child Witness shall govern
the examination of a child witness in all criminal and non-criminal 44. It is a remedy available to any person whose right to
proceedings of a child who is: privacy in life, liberty or security is violated or threatened by an
a. Victim unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee, or of a
b. Accused private individual or entity engaged in the gathering, collecting or

storing of data or information regarding the person, family, home 55. Who is the current President of the UN Human rights
and correspondence of the aggrieved party. Council?
a. Writ of Kalikasan a. Federico Villegas
b. Writ of Amparo b. Ban Ki-moon
c. Writ of Habeas Data c. Kofi Annan
d. Writ of Habeas Corpus d. Boutros Boutros-Ghali
45. According to the Universal Declaration of Human 56. How many members are there in the UN Human Rights
Rights, there are ___ basic human rights. Council?
a. 10 a. 43
b. 30 b. 44
c. 50 c. 46
d. 100 d. 47
46. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed 57. How many States comprise the United Nations?
by the: a. 191
a. UN Security Council b. 192
b. UN General Assembly c. 193
c. UNICEF d. 194
d. UNCRC
58. How many countries are non-member observer States?
47. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed a. 2
on: b. 3
a. December 10, 1938 c. 4
b. December 10, 1948 d. 5
c. December 10, 1958
d. December 10, 1968 59. Which country has been supended from the UN Human
Rights Council?
48. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed a. Ukraine
in: b. Russia
a. New York, USA c. Israel
b. London, UK d. Palestine
c. Paris, France
d. Berlin, Germany 60. UNHRC’s headquarters is located in:
a. New York, USA
49. The Commission on Human Rights was formed on b. Geneva, Switzerland
____. c. Paris, France
a. May 5, 1987 d. Berlin, Germany
b. May 5, 1986
c. May 5, 1988 61. It is the body of knowledge regarding crime as a social
d. May 5, 1989 phenomenon.
a. Criminology
50. The Commission on Human Rights was first founded b. Sociology
and led by Chairman: c. Law Enforcement
a. Luis B. Reyes d. Criminalistics
b. Manuel Roxas
c. Jose W. Diokno 62. Simply means giving everyone his due.
d. Jose Abad Santos a. Justice
b. Moral
51. The Commission on Human Rights was formed by virtue c. Legal
of d. Law
a. Executive Order No. 163
b. Executive Order No. 164 63. Who promulgates procedural laws?
c. Executive Order No. 165 a. CA
d. Executive Order No. 166 b. Congress
c. DOJ
52. The Commission on Human Rights shall be composed d. SC
of a:
a. Chairman and 4 Members 64. It is known as prime mover in CJS.
b. Chairman and 6 members a. Prosecution
c. Chairman and 2 members b. Court
d. Chairman and 14 Members c. Community
d. Law enforcement
53. As to age requirement, members of the Commission on
Human Rights must be at least ______ years of age. 65. The PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998.
a. 30 a. RA 6975
b. 35 b. RA 8551
c. 40 c. RA 9708
d. 45 d. RA 9262
54. Who is the current Secretary-General of the United 66. The legal term for criminal apprehension is:
Nations? a. Voluntary surrender
a. Antonio Guterres b. Arrest
b. Ban Ki-moon c. Arraignment
c. Kofi Annan d. Search
d. Boutros Boutros-Ghali
67. The law which created NBI.
a. CA No. 180

b. CA No. 181 b. PD 1605
c. CA No. 182 c. PD 1606
d. CA No. 183 d. PD 1607
68. Who is the head of the NPS? 80. Shari’a Courts were created pursuant to:
a. Chief State Prosecutor a. PD 1080
b. Regional State Prosecutor b. PD 1081
c. DOJ Secretary c. PD 1082
d. Prosecutor General d. PD 1083
69. The Prosecution Service Act of 2010. 81. A criminal proceeding consists of how many stages or
a. RA 10070 parts?
b. RA 10071 a. 4
c. RA 10072 b. 5
d. RA 10073 c. 6
d. 7
70. Preliminary Investigation is required for cases with a
penalty of: 82. It is the process whereby the accused, the offended
a. 4 years 2 months and 1 days party and the prosecution work out a mutually satisfactory
b. At least 4 years 2 months and 1 day disposition of the case subject to court approval.
c. 4 years and 2 months a. Plea bargaining
d. Below 4 years, 2 months and 1 day b. Arraignment
c. Mediation
71. It is the power of the court to hear and decide cases. d. Trial
a. Venue
b. Judicial review 83. It is a written order of a court consigning a person to
c. Jurisdiction jail or prison for detention.
d. Appeal a. Mittimus
b. Interlocutory Order
72. When the court can try a case already heard and c. Commitment Order
decided by a lower court. d. Judgment
a. General jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction 84. There are how many prisons and penal farms in the
c. Appellate jurisdiction Philippines?
d. Concurrent jurisdiction a. 5
b. 6
73. When the court is empowered to decide all disputes c. 7
which may come before it except those assigned in other courts. d. 8
a. General jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction 85. Those sentenced to 3 years and 1 day to Reclusion
c. Appellate jurisdiction Perpetua or Life Imprisonment.
d. Concurrent jurisdiction a. Municipal jail prisoners
b. City jail prisoners
74. The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980. c. Provincial jail prisoners
a. BP Blg. 129 d. National or Insular Prisoners
b. BP Blg. 22
c. BP. Blg 229 86. Probation Administration was renamed Parole and
d. B.P. Blg. 130 Probation Administration by:
a. EO No. 292
75. The Court of Appeals is composed of the Presiding b. EO No. 293
Justice and ____ Associate Justices. c. EO No. 294
a. 68 d. EO No. 295
b. 69
c. 70 87. It is the temporary stay of the execution of a sentence,
d. 71 usually a death sentence.
a. Commutation
76. Which court has exclusive jurisdiction over libel cases? b. Reprieve
a. MTCC c. Pardon
b. RTC d. Amnesty
c. MTC
d. CA 88. It is understood to mean as elements that are mobilized
and energized to help authorities in effectively addressing the law
77. In money laundering cases, which court has authority and order concern of the citizenry.
to freeze bank accounts? a. Prosecution
a. MTC b. Court
b. RTC c. Community
c. CA d. Law enforcement
d. SC
89. The original Katarungang Pambarangay Law.
78. The Sandiganbayan is composed of a presiding Justice a. PD 1508
and ___ Associate Justices. b. RA 7160
a. 12 c. PD 1608
b. 14 d. RA 7161
c. 16
d. 18 90. The present Katarungang Pambarangay Law has been
incorporated in
79. A law which created Sandiganbayan. a. PD 1508
a. PD 1604 b. RA 7160

c. PD 1608 2. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there
d. RA 7161 is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that
a crime has been committed and the respondent is
91. It is known as the basic political unit. probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
a. Family A. Preliminary investigation
b. Community B. Prejudicial question
c. Barangay C. Inquest proceeding
d. Municipality
D. Custodial investigation
92. Barangays have jurisdiction if the penalty does not
3. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
exceed ____ imprisonment.
punishable by:
a. 1 year
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
(1) day.
d. 4 years b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
93. Barangays have jurisdiction if fine does not exceed d. six years, one day and above
________.
A. PhP2,000 4. It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the
B. PhP3,000 law in order for him to answer for the commission of an
C. PhP4,000 offense.
D. PhP5,000 a. Arrest
b. Investigation
94. Lupong Tagapamayapa is composed of the Chairman c. Invitation
and d. Seizure
a. 3 members
b. 20 members 5. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and
c. 10 members capturing the law breakers in the execution of their
d. 10-20 members criminal plan.
a. Instigation
95. Pangkat ng tagapagkasundo is composed of: b. Entrapment
a. 3 members c. Investigation
b. 5 members
d. Raid
c. 10 members
d. 10-20 members
6. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or interdependent
from any branch of government.
96. Those rights, which are inherent in our nature, and
without which, we cannot live as human beings.
a. prosecution
a. Constitutional rights b. correction
b. Statutory Rights c. court
c. Human Rights d. community
d. Right to Live
7. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who
97. Human rights are due to all human beings regardless of directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on
their origin, status, race, condition or place of living. This means: the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the
a. Human rights are universal higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the
b. Human rights are interdependent State in the prosecution of the offense?
c. Human rights are imprescriptible a. Chief State Prosecutor
d. Human rights are general in application b. Solicitor General
c. National or provincial prosecutor
98. Pro hac vice means: d. Judge
a. A class of its own
b. For this occasion only 8. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement
c. Ambulance chasing officer after a person has been taken into custody.
d. Amicus curiae a. custodial investigation
b. interview
99. The dispositive portion of the decision is known as:
c. inquest
a. Sin perjuicio judgment
d. interrogation
b. Fallo
c. Meritt Test
9. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade
d. Franking privilege
27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art.
100. Former name of PAO.
210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should
a. CLAO first be filed to the office of _______ for the conduct of the
b. BPAO required preliminary investigation.
c. PAOD A. Ombudsman
d. DPAO B. Solicitor general
C. Judge of MTC
PART 4 D. The president
1. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
10. In flagrante delicto means ______?
peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
a. caught in the act of committing a crime
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
b. caught after commission
the prosecutor.
c. instigation
A. Complaint
d. entrapment
B. Information
C. Pleadings
11. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or
D. Affidavit
try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use

in referring to the authority or power to hear and decided 21. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide
cases. free legal assistance to poor members of society:
a. Jurisdiction a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Venue b. National Prosecution Service
c. Jurisprudence c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Territory d. Public Attorney’s Office
12. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the 22. This is the power to apply the law to contests or
first time. disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties
a. original jurisdiction between the state and private persons, or between
b. exclusive jurisdiction individual litigants in cases properly brought before the
c. appellate jurisdiction judicial tribunal.
d. concurrent jurisdiction a. Judicial Power
b. Judicial Review
13. It is the formal reading of the charges against a person c. Court
accused of a crime and latter asking him whether he d. Court of Justice
pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
a. arraignment 23. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name
b. preliminary investigation of the government?
c. plea a. Public Prosecutor
d. promulgation of judgment b. Private Prosecutor
c. Prosecution
14. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within d. Ombudsman
Barangay level.
a. barangay tanod 24. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo a. RTC
c. barangay council b. Sandiganbayan
d. lupon tagapamayapa c. Supreme Court
d. MTC
15. It is the most common way by which the police
discovers or it informed that a crime has been committed: 25. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended,
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime. which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on
b. When the police discovers the crime appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal
c. When the victim reports the crime Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of
d. When the suspect surrenders the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
A. Court of Justice
16. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the B. Court of Appeals
Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy. C. Sandiganbayan
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other D. Court of Tax Appeals
members who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20 26. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20 high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27
c. more than 10 above), which can only be committed because of their
d. less than 10 position.
a. Court of Justice
17. When arrest may be made? b. Court of Appeals
a. At any time of the day and night c. Sandiganbayan
b. At day time d. Court of Tax Appeals
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn 27. Is a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison
18. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of
without a warrant? sentence.
a. All of the choices A. Commitment Order
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the B. Mittimus
arresting officer. C. Warrant of Arrest
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there D. Habeas Corpus
is personal knowledge based on probable cause that the
person to be arrest has committed it. 28. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee. with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
19. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to a. Penology
attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or b. Probation
documents under his control at the trial of an action. c. Correction
a. subpoena d. Criminology
b. subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum 29. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by the
d. warrant of arrest president. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Pardon
20. The “Anti-Plunder Act”. b. Amnesty
a. R.A. 7080 c. Commutation of Sentence
b. R.A 3019 d. Parole
c. R.A. 1379
d. R.A. 6713 30. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to

serve a prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose b. Reincarnation
fine is less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both? c. Realization
a. National prisoner d. Rehabilitation
b. City prisoner
c. Provincial prisoner 39. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person,
d. Municipal prisoner house, papers or effects, or other buildings and premises
to discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be
31. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted used in the prosecution of a criminal action:
offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of A. Search
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word B. Seizure
_____? C. Raid
a. Presinto D. Entrapment
b. Precindio
c. Presidio 40. This court was established by virtue of PD1083,
d. precinto otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the
Philippines”.
32. There are how many members the composed the
Lupon? a. Court of Tax Appeals
a. 3 members b. Shari’a Court
b. 5 to 10 members c. Sandiganbayan
c. 10 to 20 members d. Family Court
d. 5 members
41. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the
33. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served society to prevent and repressed them?
a portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons a. Penology
and Parole. b. Victimology
a. Pardon c. Criminology
b. Probation d. Sociology of law
c. Amnesty
d. Parole 42. It is such a fact and circumstances which would lead a
reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that the
34. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police person has committed an offense, sought to be arrested.
stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for A. Information
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before B. Probable cause
the prosecutor. C. Testimony
a. Lock-up jail D. Prima facie
b. Ordinary jail
c. Workhouses 43. During the Pre-Spanish period in the history of the
d. Prison Philippines, there are codes that already implemented by
the Datus in their respective territory. One of the great
35. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of examples of it, is the Code of Kalantiao. When was the
Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted from the year Revised Penal Code took effect?
length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to A. 1433
serve for his good conduct. B. 1930
a. Commutation of sentence C. 1932
b. Parole D. 1927
c. GCTA
d. Reprieve 44. They are referred to as the forgotten subject in the
criminal justice system.
36. Correctional institutions in the country is divided into A. Accused
National and Local institution. What Department of the B. Criminals
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National C. Victims
Penitentiary? D. Witnesses
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice 45. Pedro killed Maria, his common-law wife and their
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government daughter. What is/are the crime/s committed by Pedro?
d. Bureau of Correction A. Multiple Parricide
B. Mass Murder
37. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional C. Homicide/murder and Parricide
institution which primarily in charge of those detention D. Multiple Homicide
prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and
serving short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail 46. Of the following, which is not among the primary goals
Management and Penology. While it is true that even the of the Criminal Justice System?
Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are under A. Ensure that no innocent person shall be convicted of a
the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the crime.
__________? B. Protect human and legal rights of both suspect and
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology victim.
b. Department of Justice C. Enforce laws and maintain peace and order.
c. Bureau of Correction D. Develop capacity of local government units to
d. Provincial government strengthen their crime prevention efforts.
38. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving 47. The Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR) examiners,
his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the Commission on Audit (COA) auditors and Commission on
community. Human Rights (CHR) investigators have one thing in
a. Reintegration

common. They all belong to which pillar of the Criminal B. National Bureau of Investigation
Justice System? C. Philippine Judges Association
A. Prosecution D. National Prosecution Service
B. Courts
C. Law Enforcement 57. A Pillar of the Philippine criminal justice system that
D. Community controls arraignment, trial, sentencing, probation,
suspended sentence appeal.
48. This was established under Batas Pambansa Bilang A. Corrections
129 known as The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980 . B. Courts
It is composed of one presiding justice and sixty-eight C. Prosecution
associate justices. D. Law Enforcement
A. Court of Appeals
B. Sandiganbayan 58. A Pillar of the Philippine criminal justice system that
C. Ombudsman controls preliminary investigation and filing of information.
D. Supreme Court A. Corrections
B. Courts
49. It is considered as the weakest link of the Philippine C. Prosecution
criminal justice system because of its failure to rehabilitate D. Law Enforcement
the inmates after serving their services.
A. Sandiganbayan 59. It is the stage at which the prosecutor evaluates the
B. Court of Appeals findings of the police to determine if prosecution of the
C. Correction suspect in court is warranted.
D. Supreme Court A. Preliminary Evaluation
B. Pre-Trial
50. Which of the following statements is NOT true with C. Preliminary Investigation
regard to the National Prosecution Service? D. Plea Bargaining
A. It collates and evaluates evidence in the preliminary
investigation and dismisses or files the case in court. 60. Nolle Prosequi, in criminal justice system means
B. It is an organic unit of the Department of Justice. A. Decide to prosecute
C. Its head is called the Chief State Prosecutor B. Decide not to prosecute
D. It is directly under the Judiciary. C. File the case
D. Plea Bargain for a Reduced Charged
51. A Pillar of the Philippine criminal justice system that
controls incarceration in jail, parole, pardon and the 61. It is the forum where the prosecution is given the
serving of sentence. opportunity to prove that there is a strong evidence of guilt
A. Corrections against the accused.
B. Courts A. Courts
C. Prosecution B. Police
D. Law Enforcement C. Bar
D. Prosecution
52. A Pillar of the Philippine criminal justice system
represented by the non-government organizations and 62. Provincial Jails are under the
peoples organizations that contribute to the prevention of A. DOJ
crime and delinquency. B. DILG
A. Prosecution C. DPWH
B. court D. DOE
C. Corrections
D. Community 63. The BJMP is under the
A. DOJ
53. A Pillar of the Philippine criminal justice system that B. DILG
controls arrest and booking. C. DPWH
A. Corrections D. DOE
B. Courts
C. Prosecution 64. It is known as the Witness Protection Security and
D. Law Enforcement Benefit Act.
A. R.A. 6981
54. An agency of the Department of Justice whose function B. R.A. 6975
involves scientific criminal investigation, arrest of C. R.A. 8551
offenders and files complaint with the prosecutor’s office. D. R.A 9775
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. National Bureau of Investigation 65. A Branch of the Philippine Government responsible for
C. Philippine National Police -under DILG passing laws that define illegal behavior, setting sentences
D. Bureau of Correction for violation of the laws and appropriating the money for
correctional operations.
55. The Territorial Jurisdiction of the NBI is A. Legislative Branch
__________________ in scope. B. Executive Branch
A. Regional C. Judicial Branch
B. National D. Administrative Branch
C. Local
D. International 66. A Branch of Government that approves or vetoes the
law passed by the legislators and is responsible for
56. Its mission is to maintain peace and order in the enforcing the laws.
community through the delivery of prompt investigation of A. Legislative Branch
crimes and the prosecution of criminals. B. Executive Branch
A. Philippine National Police C. Judicial Branch

D. Administrative Branch b. judge
c. prosecutor
67. A Branch of the Philippine Government that is d. solicitor general
responsible for interpreting the laws.
A. Legislative Branch 77. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense
B. Executive Branch and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of
C. Judicial Branch introducing evidences.
D. Administrative Branch a. Clerk of court
b. judge
68. There are three pillars of the American criminal justice c. sheriff
system. They are the following: d. jury
A. Police, Prosecution, Courts
B. Police, Courts, Community 78. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether
C. Police, Courts, Corrections as an individual or as a member of some court,
D. Police, Prosecution, Correction Government Corporation, board or commission.
a. Agent of person in authority
69. The First police department in the United States. b. Government employee
A. New York Police Department c. Government officer
B. Philadelphia Police Department d. Person in authority
C. Boston Police Department
D. Chicago Police Department 79. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the
Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer of
70. Defendant makes a deal and plead guilty to a lesser the State or government in criminal cases.
crime in return for lesser penalty. a. law enforcement
A. Preliminary Evaluation b. court
B. Pre-Trial c. prosecution
C. Preliminary Investigation d. correction
D. Plea Bargaining
80. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office
71. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by
the most important function of the CJS is the protection of the Barangay Court
the public and the repression of criminal conduct. a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
A. Crime prevention b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
B. Crime control c. Certificate to file action
C. Law and order d. Complaint affidavit
D. Due process
81. It refers to the study of the various agency of our
72. According to this criminal justice model, the rights of government in charge of processing law violators to ensure
an individual must be co-equal with the concern for public the protection of the society and maintenance of peace
safety. and order.
A. Crime prevention a. Criminology
B. Crime control b. Criminal Justice
C. Law and order c. Victimology
D. Due process d. Sociology
73. This concerns to the obligations of the community to 82. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the
individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common commission of a crime and subject of an investigation.
advantages and sharing of common burden. a. Convict
a. Prosecution b. Respondent
b. Justice c. Accused
c. Equality d. Suspect
d. Trial
83. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules
74. This function of the law enforcement is being done of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to
through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence maintain peace and order?
of crimes, good community relations, educating the a. Criminal Justice System
citizens about their role, introduction of delinquency b. Criminology
prevention programs, good parenting and others. c. Criminal law
A. Maintenance of law and order d. Criminal jurisprudence
B. Reduction of crime
C. Crime prevention -- prevent the occurrence of a 84. It is that degree of proof required in criminal case
future criminal act which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral
D. Crime control - crime has already happened certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the
possibility of error.
75. This principal character of the criminal justice process a. Preponderance of evidence
links all components of the CJS. b. Clear and convincing evidence
a. Offender c. Substantive evidence
b. Victim d. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. witness
d. Crime 85. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the
prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the
76. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the police prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a
have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient to lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering
warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged violator. a guilty plea.
a. Investigator a. Arraignment

b. Preliminary investigation 95. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the
c. Pre-trial existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen
d. Plea bargaining the police work as suppressing the spread of criminality.
A. Crime prevention
86. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country B. Crime control
which is under the ________? C. Criminal apprehension
a. DOJ D. Law enforcement
b. DILG
c. NAPOLCOM 96. Directly under the supervision of the Department of
d. DSWD Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice
System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law
87. A person who is under custodial investigation is through the speedy delivery of services particularly in the
basically protected by a number of rights mandated under prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
the constitution and this was even expounded in the a. National Prosecution Service
legislative act known as _______? b. PNP
a. Miranda Doctrine c. Ombudsman
b. R.A. 7438 d. Solicitor GeneraL
c. Bill of Rights
d. R.A. 6975 97. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more
municipalities?
88. A body officially assembled under authority of law in a. MTC
which judicial power is vested or the administration of b. MeTC
justice is delegated. c. MCTC
a. Court d. MTCC
b. Corrections
c. Prosecution 98. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s
d. Law enforcement own judgment in a given situation without referring to your
superior due to the eminence of the situation?
89. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and A. Police resourcefulness
order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property B. Police discretion
and ensure public safety. C. Police integrity
a. Police D. Police prudence
b. Prosecution
c. Court 99. It refers to the art or science of identifying law
d. Corrections violators, locating and tracing them in order to affect their
arrest and gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
90. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and a. Crime prevention
treatment of persons convicted of committing crime. b. Criminal investigation
a. Police c. Crime control
b. Prosecution d. Intelligence work
c. Court
d. Corrections 100. An attached agency of the Office of the President
tasked to implement and undertake drug law enforcement.
91. The “Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”. a. Narcotics Command
a. R.A. 9262 b. AID-SOTF
b. R.A. 7080 c. PDEA
c. R.A. 6713 d. NBI
d. R.A. 3019
PART 5
92. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses
punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years. 1. If the purpose of the uprising and taking up arms
a. Supreme Court is to deprive the Supreme Court of any of its powers or
b. RTC prerogatives, the crime is:
c. Court of Appeals a. Insurrection
d. MTC b. Rebellion
c. Sedition
93. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior d. Direct Assault
and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on December
13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC. 2. A Motion for Leave to file demurrer to evidence
A. R.A. 6975 should be filed within ___ days after the prosecution had
B. P.D. 603 rested its case.
C. R.A. 8551 A. 5
D. R.A. 9165 B. 10
C. 15
94. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s, D.30
cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote
the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and 3. Who is the present Secretary of the DILG?
exploitation. a. Jejomar Binay
a. crime control b. Benhur Abalos
b. political parties c. Alexander Gesmundo
c. civil society d. Vic Rodriguez
d. volunteer
4. Who is the present Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court?
a. Marvic Leonen

b. Menardo Guevarra 15. Pedro is married to Tessie. Juan is the first cousin
c. Alexander Gesmundo of Tessie, while in the market, Pedro saw a man stabbing
d. Vic Rodriguez Juan. Seeing the attack on Juan, Pedro picked up a spade
nearby and hit the attacker on his head which caused the
5. In a chartered city, if the penalty is 4 years, 2 latter’s death. This best describes:
months and below, the complaint shall be filed in the: a. Self-defense
a. MTCC b. Defense of a relative
b. RTC c. Defense of a stranger
c. OCP d. All of the above
d. OCP or MTCC
16. A person who buys and sells any item he knows
6. In a province (not a chartered city), if the penalty or should have known to have been derived from the
is 4 years and 2 months and below, the complaint shall be proceeds of robbery or theft.
filed in the: a. Thief
a. MTCC b. Robber
b. RTC c. Fence
c. OCP d. Culprit
d. OPP or MTCC
17. Governor Kokey was given the amount of 10M by
7. In Manila, if the penalty is 4 years and 2 months the DA for the purpose of buying seedlings to be
and below, the complaint shall be filed in the: distributed to the farmers. Supposedly intending to
a. MTCC modernize the farming industry in his province, Governor
b. RTC Kokey bought farm equipment through direct purchase
c. OCP from Amici Enterprise, owned by his kumpare Jade, the
d. OCP or MTCC alleged exclusive distributor of the said equipment. Upon
inquiry, the Ombudsman discovered that Jade has a
8. In Manila, if the penalty is at least 4 years, 2 pending patent application for the said farm equipment.
months and 1 day, the complaint shall be filed in the: Moreover, the equipment purchased turned out to be
a. MTCC overpriced. What crime/s, if any, was/were committed?
b. RTC a. Malversation
c. OCP b. Technical Malversation
d. OCP or MTCC c. Technical Malversation and Violation of RA
3019
9. In a province (not a chartered city), if the penalty d. Malversation and Violation of RA 3019
is at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day, the complaint
shall be filed in the: 18. The Royal SS Maru, a vessel registered in
a. MTCC Panama, was 300 nautical miles from Aparri, Cagayan
b. RTC when its engines malfunctioned. The Captain ordered his
c. OCP men to drop anchor and repair the ship. While the officers
d. OPP or MTCC and crew were asleep, armed men boarded the vessel and
took away several crates containing valuable items and
10. In a chartered city, if the penalty is at least 4 loaded them in their own motorboat. Before the band left,
years, 2 months and 1 day, the complaint shall be filed in they planted an explosive which they detonated from a
the: safe distance. The explosion damaged the hull of the ship,
a. MTCC killed 10 crewmen, and injured 15 others. What
b. RTC crime/crimes was/were committed?
c. OCP a. Piracy
d. OCP or MTCC b. Piracy, Murder and Serious Physical Injuries
c. Qualified Piracy
11. Pre-Trial in criminal cases is: d. Qualified Mutiny
a. Discretionary
b. Optional 19. Pedro, Pablito, Juan and Julio, all armed with
c. Mandatory bolos, robbed the house where Antonio, his wife, and 3
d. Any of the above daughters were residing. While the 4 were ransacking
Antonio’s house, Julio noticed that one of Antonio’s
12. The Revised Rules on Evidence took effect on: daughters was trying to escape. He chased and caught up
a. May 1, 2020 with her at a thicket somewhat distant from the house, but
b. May 1, 2021 before bringing her back raped her. What crim did Julio
c. May 1, 2022 commit?
d. May 1, 2019 a. Robbery by band
b. Theft and Rape
13. Under the three-fold-rule, what is the maximum c. Robbery and Rape
sentence imposed upon the accused? d. Robbery with rape
a. 120 years
b. 40 years 20. How about Pedro, Pablito and Juan?
c. 30 years a. Robbery by band
d. 60 years b. Theft and Rape
c. Robbery and Rape
14. Which among the following does not totally d. Robbery with rape
extinguish criminal liability?
a. Absolute Pardon
b. Amnesty 21. Ricky was driving his car when he was flagged
c. Death down by a traffic enforcer for over-speeding. Realizing his
d. Conditional Pardon undoing, but in a hurry for a meeting, Ricky shoved a
PhP500 bill in the traffic enforcer’s pocket and whispered

to the latter to refrain from issuing him a traffic violation a. Letter of Credit
receipt. The traffic enforcers still issued him a ticket and b. Territoriality
returned his money. What crime,if any, was committed by c. Generality
Ricky? d. Totality
a. Direct Bribery
b. Indirect Bribery 31. The condition sine-quanon or indispensable element
c. Prevaricacion
in self defense
d. Corruption of public official
a. Provocation
22. What crime, if any, was committed by Ricky? b. unlawful aggression
a. Direct Bribery c. reasonable necessity
b. Indirect Bribery d. irresistible force
c. Corruption of public official e.
d. No crime 32. Felonies punishable only when they are
consummated.
23. Orphaned when still an infant, Rocky lived under a. consumable felonies
the care of his grandmother Rosario. Now 18, Rocky b. less grave felonies
entered Rosario’s bedroom who was then outside doing c. grave felonies
her daily marketing. He ransacked the bedroom and took d. light felonies
Rosario’s money and valuables to PhP100,OOO.
33. If the offense is committed on board a Philippine
When Rosario came home, she found her room in disarray,
ship traveling at the China Sea, what law will apply?
and her money and valuables gone. She confronted Rocky,
a. China Law
who confessed to taking the money and valuables in order
to pay his debts. What crime, if any, did Rocky commit? b. Maritime Law
a. Estafa c. International Law
b. Robbery d. Philippine Law
c. Theft e.
d. Malversation 34. A and B are husband and wife. C is their only
daughter. C was raped by A while B was abroad. C
24. Which among the following may be committed confided to B that she was raped by A. Can B testify
only in times of peace? against her own husband for the rape of her daughter?
a. Treason a. no, because of the disqualification by reason
b. Inciting to war or giving motives for of marriage
reprisal b. no, because only C, the victim may testify
c. Espionage against A
d. Correspondence with hostile country c. yes, because the disqualification by
reason of marriage does not apply in a
25. What type of war is being renounced by the criminal case for a crime committed by one
Philippines? against the other or the latter’s
a. Defensive war descendants or ascendants
b. Offensive war d. yes, if the judge permits B to testify without
c. All types of war objection from the defense.
d. War crimes
35. W is totally blind since birth. One night while walking
26. The principle that sovereign and head of states are on his way home, he heard the following utterances,
exempted from criminal liability is covered by. “Pedro patay ka na hayop ka!” Then another one uttered
a. Law of Foreign Affairs “Juan huwag, anung kasalanan ko sa iyo?” A few seconds
b. Law of Preferential Applications thereafter gunshots were heard and somebody died. Can
c. Law of Preferred Head of States W be presented as a witness?
d. Law of Preferential Treatment a. no because he is blind and he did not see who
the killer was
b. no because he can never be considered as an
27. Philippine Penal Law is applicable within
eyewitness
Philippine Territory to include
c. yes because of what he heard and he can
a. its atmosphere
perceive and make this perception to
b. its interior waters others
c. its maritime d. yes because aside from the fact that he is not
d. all of the above disqualified W is also not a co conspirator to the
killing
28. Members of the Royal Family in England are called.
a. Reverend 36. All of these may be established by common reputation
b. Royalties EXCEPT:
c. Head of States a. verbal acts
d. Diplomatic Corps b. facts of public or general interest
c. marriage
d. moral
29. Obligation and securities of the Philippine
character
government refers to
a. Letter of Credit 37. W witnessed a crime yesterday. Because of the
b. Foreign Investment trauma caused by the accidental witnessing of the crime,
c. Government Bond he lost his sanity today. Is W qualified to testify as a
d. Foreign Currencies witness tomorrow?
a. yes because at the time of the witnessing of
30. Characteristics of criminal law wherein undertakes to the crime he was sane and his insanity thereafter
punish all offenses committed within Philippine territory is immaterial

b. no because he became insane a. it means he has the power to call his friends
c. yes as long as he was sane at the time of the for the purpose of traveling abroad
commission of the crime and at the time of trial b. it means he has the power to summon the PNP
a medical doctor would also testify that W to disperse unlawful assemblies and rallies
became insane because of what he saw. c. it means he has the power to call out the
d. yes provided that at the time that W armed forces to prevent or suppress
would testify, he must have regained his lawless violence, invasion or rebellion
normal sanity d. I do not know because this is not supposed to
be asked in evidence, it should have been asked
38. May a ten (10) year old boy be allowed to testify in Philippine Government and Constitution
regarding a rape case he had witness? subject.
a. no, because a ten year old boy does not know
everything about sex just yet 43. The rule is before a witness can be impeached by
b. no, because, his mother will not allow him to evidence that he has made at other times statements
testify because he’s to young inconsistent with his present testimony, the statement
c. yes, if he already has discernment must be related to him, with the circumstances of the
d. yes, as long as he can perceive and can times and places and the persons present, and he must be
make known his perception to others asked whether he made them and if so allowed to explain
them. This is known as:
39. Pedro and Petra are husband and wife. During their a. direct examination
marriage Pedro confided to Petra that he raped Lola b. cross examination
Basyang a few months back. A year later, Pedro and c. laying the predicate
Petra’s marriage was annulled. Assume that Lola Basyang d. none of the above
files a case of rape against Pedro, may Petra testify in court
regarding the confession made by Pedro to her? 44. As a general rule, evidence of good character of a
a. no, because no one could stomach to rape an witness is not admissible until such character has been
old, smelly, teeth less and senile septuagenarian __________.
like Lola Basyang. (It’s disgusting!!!) a. impeached c. put into doubt
b. no, because it is obvious that Petra is only b. destroyed d. all of them
jealous and insecure to Lola Basyang’s charm,
because as they say it in the vernacular, Lola 45. Any public record, must not be removed from the
Basyang is “may asim pa.” office in which it is kept except upon order of the court
c. yes, because the crime is not committed where the inspection of the same is essential to a just
against her or her ascendants or descendants determination of a case. This is the doctrine of:
d. yes, if Pedro consents to the testimony a. irremovability of public record c. sanctity of
of Petra public records
b. removability of public records d. archived public
40. Elias, a catholic went to Padre Salvi and confessed that records
he together with Crisostomo, Basilio and Quiroga were
planning to stage a rebellion. The execution of the plan 46. X admitted before the police station that he killed Y.
was prevented by alert military intelligence. May the court He even signed a document attesting to this fact with all
where the rebellion case is filed, compel Padre Salvi to the procedural and constitutional requirements being
testify against Elias by divulging the specifics of Elias’ followed to the letter. At the trial of the case the only
confession? evidence presented by the prosecution was the
a. yes, otherwise Padre Salve could be held liable extrajudicial confession of X written in a piece of official
for rebellion also document. X would be most likely acquitted because there
b. no, because according to my teacher in junior is absence of proof of:
high school this is not how the plot of Rizal’s a. corpus delicti c. intent
novel took place b. motive d. lawyer for X.
c. no, because Elias never confessed anything to
that dirty slime Padre Salvi, if this is the case, 47. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient to produce
then the question would be amending the conviction if all the following requisites are present
storyline of Rizal’s novel which could raise EXCEPT:
national protest among historians, academicians a. there is more than one circumstance
and the intellectuals. b. the circumstance can be proven by direct
d. as a general rule no, because of the rule testimonial evidence
on priest/minister-penitent privilege c. the facts from which the inferences are derived
communication are proven; and
d. the combination of all the circumstances is such
41. Crispin was arrested by the police upon complaint of as to produce conviction beyond reasonable doubt]
the Kura Paroko for allegedly stealing ten pesetas. Upon
custodial investigation, Crispin waived his right to counsel 48. Leading questions are not allowed except on the
and voluntarily confessed his participation in the stealing following cases. Which of the following is NOT an
of the ten pesetas. What is the status of the confession? exception?
a. the confession is inadmissible because we all a. direct examination
know that Crispin is innocent of the crime b. on crosss examination
b. the confession is admissible if the waiver to c. on preliminary matters
counsel was put into writing d. when there is difficulty to get direct answers
c. the confession is inadmissible because it should ignorant/child witness.
be in writing and made in the presence of counsel
d. the confession in not admissible because 49. Which of the following is NOT an exception to the
it was not notarized hearsay evidence rule?
a. entries in the course of business
42. What is the “calling out power” of the President of
the Philippines? b. entries in official records

c. commercial lists and the like 58. Fine is a correctional penalty if the amount thereof is:
d. learned treatises a. more than P6,000
e. none of them b. more than 12,000
c. P200 to P6,000
50. X was driving his car when suddenly a girl crossed the d. P200 to 12,000
street and thus hitting the latter. X immediately brought
the girl to the hospital. Upon meting the parents of the
59. The following are instances when death penalty
victim X immediately offered to pay the entire medical,
cannot be imposed, except
hospital or other expenses related thereto. What is the
implication of this offer?
a. it is an admission of liability a. accused is 71 years old
b. a bribe to prevent the parents from suing X b. accused is 70 years old
c. admission of criminal liability c. accused is a minor
d. not an admission of any criminal or civil d. accused is pregnant
liability
60. Which of the following is a compound crime?
51. X a minor committed a crime. Trial ensued and X was
convicted. However under the present law existing, the A. A man fired his revolver twice in
imposition of the penalty shall be suspended. X’s case succession directed against two
records were committed to the DSWD for study and different persons, killing one person and
monitoring. Y, a member of civil society group inquired the other.
from the DSWD if X had a pending criminal case or records B. NONE of these
with that department. May the DSWD disclose the prior C. Placing a time bomb in a plane,
conviction of X? which caused it to explode in mid-
a. yes, because it is a public record
air killing 13 persons therein
b. no because it is supposed to be
D. The accused fired his Thompson sub-
confidential and the records could partake
the nature of privilege communication machine gun at several persons. The
c. yes so long as the inquiry is done in good faith first burst of shots hit three persons.
d. it depends if Y had the money to bribe the The accused let loose a second burst of
DSWD officials shots wounding 2 others.
52. Which of the following is not place of worship? 61. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. chapel
b. mosque A. In justifying circumstance, there
c. mortuary is no civil liability except in
d. church causing damage to another in
state of security.
53. Medical term for homicidal tendency. B. A person who acts by virtue of a
a. somnabulism justifying circumstance does not
b. dementia praecox transgress the law because there is
c. epilepsy nothing unlawful in the act as well, as
d. kleptomania in the intention of the actor.
C. NONE of these
54. These are acts or omissions not expressly punished D. In exempting circumstances there is a
by a penal law but are nevertheless considered and crime but there is no criminal
punished as crimes.
a. Common crimes 62. Which of the following is an exempting circumstance?
b. Common crimes law A. An act done under the impulse of
c. Common law crimes an uncontrollable fear of an equal
d. Commonly crimes or greater injury
B. An act done in obedience to an order
55. It is a law that partially or totally modifies or changes by a superior for none lawful purpose
an existing law. C. Having acted upon an impulse so
a. Repealed law powerful as to have naturally produced
b. Repealing law passion and obfuscation
c. Repelled law D. An act done in fulfillment of a duty or
d. Repelling law in the lawful exercise of a right or
office
56. The following relatives of an offender are exempt
from criminal liability as accessories, EXCEPT: 63. Which is NOT a common requisite in justifying
a. spouse circumstances of self-defense, defense of a relative and
b. mother defense of a stranger?
c. son
A. NONE of these
d. brother
B. Unlawful aggression
e. none of the above
C. Reasonable necessity of the means
employed to prevent or repel it
57. Fine is an afflictive penalty if the amount thereof is:
D. The person defending be not
a. more than P6,000
induced by revenge, resentment
b. more than 12,000
or other evil motive
c. P200 to P6,000
d. P200 to 12,000

64. Which of these is not a requisite of avoidance of C. That an order has been issued by a superior
great evil or injury?
D. That an order has been issued for some lawful
A. That the injury feared be greater than purpose
the injury done to avoid it
B. That the means used to avoid the
injury is lawful 69. In filing a complaint or information, how is the
C. That the evil sought to be avoided ________ crime charged determined?
actually exists
D. That there be no practical or less A. law specifically violated
harmful means of preventing it B. facts recited in the complaint or
information
C. title at the charge sheet
65. Which of the following statement is NOT true? D. evidences to be presented
A. In vindication, the grave offense
must be made directly only to the 70. The legal duty of a prosecuting officer to file charges
person committing the felony. against whomsoever the evidence may show to be
B. In vindication, the vindication of the responsible for the offense means that _________.
grave offense must be proximate which
admits of an interval of time between A. None of these
the grave offense done by the offender
and the commission of the crime by B. Prosecutor has no discretion at all
the accused
C. Prosecutor has all the discretion
C. In provocation, it is necessary that the
provocation on threat immediately D. Discretion in determining evidence
preceded the act, or there must be no submitted, justified a reasonable belief
interval of time between the that a person committed an offense
provocation and the commission of
crime 71. When charge for offenses are founded on the same
D. In provocation, the cause that brought facts of that which form part of a series of offenses of
about the provocation need not be a the same characters the court may decide to?
grave offense
A. decide to obviate delay by continuing
66. Which among the following is NOT a requisite for
proceedings
evident premeditation and therefore should NOT be
B. set the cases for consolidated case raffle
appreciated?
C. pursue separate trials
A. One day meditation/reflection and offered D. consolidate trials
reward killer
B. Sudden outburst of anger 72. What is NOT an element of knowingly rendering
C. Sufficient interval of time between time crime unjust judgment?
was conceived and actual perpetuation
A. That the judgment is valid
D. Time when offender planned to commit the
B. Offender is a judge
offense
C. That he renders a judgment in a case submitted
67. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
to him for decision
A. In vindication, the grave offense must be D. NONE of these
made directly only to the person the 73. Under the Local Government Code of 1991, what is
felony the condition precedent that must be satisfied before the
institution of a criminal action in Court?
B. In vindication, the vindication of the grave
offense must be proximate which admits of an A. Settlement has been repudiated
interval of time between the grave offense done B. Certification of no conciliation
by the offender and the commission of he crime C. Confrontation between parties at the
by the accused Lupon level
D. All of these
C. In provocation, it is necessary that the 74. What shall a peace officer do if he is refused
provocation on threat immediately preceded the admittance into building where the person be arrested is
act, or there must be no interval of time believed to be in?
between the provocation and the commission
crime A. Wait outside until the person to be arrested
decides to leave the building
D. In provocation, the cause that brought about B. After announcing his authority and
the provocation need not be a grave offense purpose the peace officer may break into
any building or enclosure where the
68. Which is NOT a requisite in “obedience to an order
person to be arrested is or is reasonably
issued for some lawful purpose”?
believed to be
A. That the means used by the subordinates to C. NONE of these
carry out said order is lawful D. Leave the building and secure a court order to
break into the building
B. NONE of these
75. What is the rule in criminal law about doubts?

A. proven doubts should be resolved in favor of the 82. Who among the following is NOT an agent of a
accused person in authority?
a. Policemen
B. all doubts should be resolved in favor of b. Municipal treasurer
the accused c. Postmaster
d. Sheriff
C. verified doubts shall be resolved in favor of the e. all of them are agents of person in
accused authority
D. doubts duly annotated is resolved in favor of the 83. Who among the following is a person in authority?
accused a. Policeman d. Barangay Captain
b. Chief of police e. Baranggay Tanod
76. One of the two requisites of admissibility of evidence c. Teacher f. Letters b, c and d
is when it is relevant to the issue and what is the other
requisite? 84. Which among the following is a qualifying
circumstance of murder?
A. It observes continuity of rules
a. treachery c. relationship
B. It is not excluded by law or rules b. habitual delinquency d. intoxication
C. It multiples admissibility chances
D. It has a heavy weight of evidence
77. How can evidence of survivorship be proven? 85. X was able to pocket one pack of detergent soap
while inside SM Supermarket. He was about to leave the
A. All of these premises of SM when he was accosted by an undercover
B. By direct evidence SM agent and was immediately brought to the police
C. By indirect evidence precinct. What crime was committed by X?
D. By circumstantial evidence a. consummated theft
c. attempted theft
b. frustrated theft
78. It is defined as any human conduct which, although d. qualified theft
not productive of some material or physical harm would
however, unjustly annoy or vex an innocent person. 86. X uttered the following remarks to a certain family of
a. unjust vexation c. provocation lawyers, “Kayong mga Atty. Merrera mga magnanakaw,
b. light coercion d. unlawful aggression mga walanhiya mga bastos.” What crime was committed
by X?
79. A, B, C and D is a group of male teenager (but not a. one count of libel
below fifteen) who are trying hard to attract attention b. as many counts of libel as there are Merrera
(KSP). Every night they always engaged themselves in lawyers
unruly beer sessions together with all the unpleasant c. one count of grave oral defamation
sounds that it creates with the use of improvised, cheap (slander)
and dilapidated musical instruments such as cauldrons, tin d. as many counts of grave oral defamation (slander)
cans etc.. Let us assume that aside from making as there are Merrera lawyers.
“papansin” they are also doing it to annoy their sleeping
neighbors. The crime of alarms and scandals may be 87. X is a teller of Banco Filipino Español. He received a
charged against them because they involved themselves deposit of P5000 from a depositor, which he pocketed
in charivari punishable under paragraph 2 of article 155. instead of crediting it to the account of the depositor. The
What is charivari? transaction was evidenced by an official receipt. What
a. it is a medley of discordant voices, a mock crime was committed by X?
serenade of discordant voices made on kettles, tin a. theft
horns etc. designed to insult or annoy c. qualified theft
b. it sounds like a gay word or lingo so I will ask its b. estafa
meaning to my gay friend d. malversation of public property
c. it is simply the act of any person who although
not productive of material harm would annoy another 88. X a jail guard while escorting a prisoner en route to
person the Regional Trial Court allowed the latter to answer the
d. it is the act of people who are in need of attention call of nature without taking precaution to prevent his
from others especially from the girls. escape as indeed the prisoner escaped through the
windows of the comfort room. What is the liability of the
80. According to RA 4136 the Land Transportation jail guard?
and Traffic Code, when two (2) motor vehicles approach a. no liability as it is not required that X would even
an intersection at approximately the same time, the motor go to the extent of escorting the prisoner inside the
vehicle on the left should yield to the motor vehicle on the comfort room, otherwise the job of a jail guard
right because the latter motor vehicle has: would be very unbearable
a. right of way c. more speed b. no liability because he was not in conspiracy with
b. more money d. emergency rule the prisoner
c. evasion of service of sentence
81. Crimes Against Religious Worship is a section to be d. evasion through negligence.
found in Title Two of the Revised Penal Code which is
Crimes against the Fundamental Laws of the State. Which 89. X (a man) forcibly grabbed Y (a woman) by the waist
of the following crimes fall under crimes against religious and dragged her to a place hidden from the public view
worship? about 20 meters from the place where the latter was
a. interruption of religious worship c. standing. Due to Y’s constant screaming X became afraid
prohibition of peaceful meetings and immediately run away leaving Y alone. What crime
b. offending the religious feelings d. illegal was committed by X?
associations a. illegal detention c. attempted rape
b. acts of lasciviousness d. grave coercion

90. What crime is committed by a man who would forcibly 98. A is the son of B. B incurred debt to Don Pedro.
enter another person’s house without the knowledge of Since B did not have the money to pay Don Pedro, Don
the owner but once inside, immediately and peacefully left Pedro required A to work for him for the purpose of
the house the moment he was discovered by the owner of paying off the indebtedness of B. This scheme is against
the house? the will of A but he cannot do anything as he is being
a. attempted robbery c. trespass to dwelling forced by Don Pedro. What crime was committed by Don
b. frustrated robbery d. qualified trespass to dwelling Pedro?
a. inducing a minor to abandon home
91. X became enraged with Y. X was so mad he wanted b. child abuse
to get even with Y. At the spur of the moment Y took the c. exploitation of child labor
clothes of Y from the drawer and burned them to ashes. d. exploitation of minor
What crime was committed by X? 99. What crime is committed by a notary public who
a. theft c. malicious mischief would issue a copy of a deed of sale purporting that A sold
b. robbery d. arson his house and lot to B where in fact no such transaction
ever existed?
92. X threatened Y that he would kill the latter if Y would a. estafa c. forgery
not give Five hundred pesos (P500). What crime was b. falsification d. falsification by a private individual
committed by X?
a. grave coercion c. attempted murder 100. X wanted to become a writer of “graphic and explicit
b. grave threats d. attempted homicide sex related stories” in a local newspaper. Let us assume
that his sex stories do not have any artistic, cultural,
93. Which among the following is considered as slight educational or scientific values whatsoever. One night he
physical injuries only? went to bed, and placed his “articles/writings” inside his
a. maltreatment c. loss of one’s drawer. These unpublished articles were stolen by his
reproductive organ roommate and was sent to “Bombahan”, a cheap daily
b. loss of one’s tooth/eye d. burning the tabloid known for its depiction of sexually explicit
skin of another materials. When he woke up one morning he was
surprised that the NBI is looking for him as he is being
94. Vegeta slapped the face of Sangoku in front of a charged for violation of article 201 of the RPC that is
lot of people. What crime did Vegeta commit? “Immoral doctrines, obscene publications and exhibitions
a. unjust vexation c. libel and indecent shows.” X would be:
b. slander by deed d. rape a. convicted for violating artcle 201
e. slight physical injury b. convicted for violating article 200 of the RPC
instead which is Grave Scandal
95. While walking along Capsule Corporation, Inc., c. not liable because the articles were not
Vegeta saw a beautiful lady by the name of published with his consent
Bulma. Vegeta suddenly kissed Bulma and gently d. liable as mere creation of obscene material is
touched Bulma’s breasts. Nobody saw the incident as punishable but his liability is mitigated because
Vegeta and Bulma are the only people around. Without the articles were stolen.
a word, Vegeta left leaving Bulma stultified and shocked.
What crime was committed by Vegeta?
a. unjust vexation
c. acts of lasciviousness
b. slander by deed
d. attempted rape
96. X was driving his car when he bumped run over a

pedestrian crossing the street. The pedestrian died. What
crime was committed by X?
a. reckless imprudence
b.homicide
c. reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
d. homicide thru reckless imprudence
97. Insp. Mills arrested X on suspicion of a crime. He

interrogated X in the police precinct and when he failed to
illicit any information from X, he caused the torture of the
hapless X. What crime was committed by Insp. Mills?
a. physical injuries
c. grave coercion
b. illegal detention
d arbitrary detention

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BATCH 9

BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON

9. It means the law will have application even outside the

3. Which among the following is/are limitation/s on the

6. It is an act committed or omitted in violation of a public

7. Which among the following is a formal felony?

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32. In Battered Woman Syndrome (BWS), the defense

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11. This is a global framework for children’s rights that has

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67. Suppose in relation to the preceding number, the victims were

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96. X was driving his car when he bumped run over a

97. Insp. Mills arrested X on suspicion of a crime. He

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