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Terms in this set (300)

1. Which of the following is(are) true regarding


phase I drug metabolism?
I. Also known as conjugation reaction
II. Includes oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis
III. Generally tends to provide a functional group or
D "handle" to the molecule
a. I, II and III
b. I and II only
c. I only
d. II and III only
e. I and III only

2. Which of the following is(are) true regarding


phase II drug metabolism?
I. Allows the attachment of small, polar, and
ionisable endogenous compounds
II. Allows the termination or attenuation of a
biologic activity
A III. Serves to protect the body against chemically
reactive compounds or metabolites
a. I, II and III
b. I and II only
c. I only
d. II and III only
e. I and III only

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3. Which of the following undergo oxidative


reaction?
I. Olefins
II. Alcohols and Aldehydes
III. Aromatic moieties
A IV. Nitro and Azo compounds
a. I, II and III only
b. II, III and IV only
c. III only
d. I and II only
e. IV only

4. Which of the following is/ are examples of drugs


that are extensively metabolized by the first pass
effect?
I. Lidocaine
II. Nitroglycerin
III. Morphine
D
IV. Meperidine
a. III and IV only
b. II and III only
c. I, II, and III only
d. I, II, III and IV
e. I and II only

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5. Glucuronidation is the most common conjugative


pathway in drug metabolism. Which of the following
is(are)
responsible for this?
I. Readily available supply of D-glucuronic acid
II. Numerous functional groups that can combine
enzymatically with glucuronic acid
A III. Utilization of D-glucuronic acid to conjugate
steroids, heparin, chondroitin, catecholamines and
thyroxine
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. I, II, and III
d. III only
e. I only

6. Which of the following is/ are factors affecting


drug metabolism?
I. Age
II. Economic status
III. Species and strain
D IV. Gender
a. I only
b. I, II, III and IV
c. I and III only
d. I, III and IV only
e. I, II and III only

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7. Which of the following is/ are true regarding


methylation?
I. Generally leads to polar or water soluble
metabolites
II. Important in the biosynthesis of many
endogenous compounds like epinephrine and
melatonin
E
III. Constitutes only a minor pathway for conjugating
drugs or xenobiotics
a. I only
b. I, II, and III
c. I and II only
d. I and III only
e. II and III only

8. Which of the following is/ are considered slow


acetylators?
I. Eskimos
II. Egyptians
III. Filipinos
E IV. Mediterranean Jews
a. III only
b. I and II only
c. III and IV only
d. I and III only
e. II and IV only

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9. Which of the following may induce metabolism of


other drugs?
I. Phenytoin
II. Cimetidine
III. Meprobamate
D IV. Rifampicin
a. I, II and III only
b. I and IV only
c. I, II, III and IV
d. I, III and IV only
e. I only

This term that denotes the selective metabolism of


two or more similar functional groups, or two or
Regioselectivity more similar
atoms that are positioned in different regions of a
molecule

The process involved in the biotransformation of


N-demethylation
amitryptyline to nortriptyline

The biotransformation of chloral hydrate via


Trichloroethanol
aldehyde reduction forms

What process is involved in the biotransformation of


Ketone reduction
prednisone to prednisolone?

What process is involved in the biotransformation of


Aromatic hydroxylation
phenylbutazone to oxybutazone?

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15. Which of the following is(are) metabolite(s)?


I. 6-Mercaptopurine
II. Oxybutazone
III. Prednisolone
IV. Acetaminophen
E
a. I and II only
b. III and IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. II and III only
e. I, II, III and IV

16. Which of the following is(are) parent drug/s?


I. Digitoxin
II. Hydrocortisone
III. Primidone
IV. Propranolol
D
a. I and II only
b. III and IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. I, III and IV only
e. I, II, III and IV

The property of chemicals to destroy one form of


Selective Toxicity
life without harming another

Which of the following may be used to classify


chemotherapeutic agents?
I. Chemical type
II. Biologic properties
III. Therapeutic indications
E
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. III only
e. I, II, and III
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19. Which of the following is(are) characteristics of


an ideal antiseptic?
I. Rapid and sustained lethal action against
microorganisms
II. Retain activity in the presence of body fluids
D III. High surface tension
a. I, II, and III
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I and II only
e. I only

An agent that prevents infection by the destruction


of pathogenic microorganisms when applied to
disinfectant
inanimate
objects

Generally accepted other names of Alcohol, USP


I. Ethanol
II. Wood alcohol
III. Spiritus vini rectificatus
IV. Wine spirit
C
a. I and IV only
b. I, II and III only
c. I, III and IV only
d. I and III only
e. I only

Ethanol that has been rendered unfit for use in


Denaturated alcohol intoxicating beverages by the addition of other
substances

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Phenol coefficient is defined as the ration of a


disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill
Salmonella typhi a given strain
of bacterium. What microorganism is used in
determining the phenol coefficient?

A 2% solution of iodine in 50% alcohol with sodium


Iodine tincture
iodide

A preparation of 5% iodine in water with potassium


Lugol's solution
iodide

A preparation of 2% iodine in water with potassium


Iodine solution
iodide

Which of the following is(are) true regarding


Povidone-Iodine?
I. A water soluble complex that releases iodine
slowly
II. Provide a nontoxic, non-irritating, non-volatile,
and non-staining form of iodine
C III. Used as an antiseptic for skin application before
surgery and injection
a. I and III only
b. I and II only
c. I, II and III
d. III only
e. I only

A dye available as vaginal suppositories for the


gentian violet
treatment of yeast infection

methylene blue A dye used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning

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A potent antifungal substance with a polyene


amphotericin B
structure from Streptomyces nodosus

The aglycone portion of nystatin consisting of a 38-


membered ketone ring with a single tetracene and
diene
Nystatinolide
chromophores isolated from each other by a
methylene group, one carboxyl, one keto, and 8
hydroxyl groups.

A polyene antibiotic first isolated in 1951 from a


Nystatin
strain of Streptomyces noursei by Hazen and Brown

33. Which of the following is(are) true regarding


Griseofulvin?
I. It is recommended for the systemic treatment of
refractory ringworm infections
II. Its bioavailability is notoriously poor
III. It is supplied in "microsize" and "ultramicrosize"
A
forms
a. I, II and III
b. I and II only
c. I and III only
d. II and III only
e. I only

A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned


after nalidixic acid, with an effective antibacterial
quinolones
spectrum
largely confined to gram-negative bacteria

1,4-dihydro-4-oxo-3-pyridine The structure found among the quinolones which is


carboxylic acid essential for their antibacterial activity

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Its congeners represent important alternatives for


the treatment of urinary tract infections caused by
Nalidixic acid
strains of
Proteus resistant to other agents

A substance is classified as an antibiotic if it is a


product of metabolism (although it may be
duplicated or even
have been anticipated by chemical synthesis)
I. It is synthetic product produced as a structural
analogue of a naturally occurring antibiotic
II. It antagonizes the growth or the survival of one
E
or more species of microorganisms
III. It is effective in low concentrations
a. I only
b. IV only
c. II & III
d. I - III
e. I -IV

One who led the isolation of streptomycin from


Waksman
Streptomyces griseus:

Tetracycline The antibiotic that binds with Ribosome 30s subunit

PBP 3 40. Benzylpenicillin binds preferentially to:

2,6-dimethoxylphenylpenicillin 41. Methicillin is chemically named as

D-a-amino-p-hydroxybenzyl Amoxicillin is:


penicillin

Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it to


B-lactam thiazolidine structure
PACOP 2005 - Chemistry contain a fused ring system which is the:

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Members of the 4-isoxazoyl penicillin family require


3-aryl & 5-methyl group these substituents for effectiveness against β-
lactamaseproducing Staphylococcus aureus.

These are the major antigenic determinants that are


formed when penicillins or its rearrangement
Penicilloyl proteins products in
vivo react with lysine-ɛ-amino groups of proteins
resulting to allergic reactions.

This is prepared by the reaction of ampicillin with


hetacillin
acetone

47. Class I β-lactamase inhibitors have hetero atom


leaving at position 1. Which of these is(are) Class II
inhibitors:
I. Carbapenems
II. Sulbactams
A III. Clavulanic Acid
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. II only
e. III only

Augmentin is a combination of:


I. K salts of Clavulanic acid
II. Amoxicillin
III. Ampicillin
IV. Sulbactams
A
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
PACOP 2005 - Chemistry e. III and IV

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Unasyn is a combination of:


I. Amoxicillin
II. Sulbactam Sodium
III. Ampicillin Sodium
IV. Clavulanic acid
C
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. III and IV

Primaxin is a combination of:


I. Tazocillin
II. Imipenem
III. Piperacillin
IV. Cilastatin
D
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. III and IV

Imipenem is the most successful of a series of


chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin in
N-formimidoylthienamycin which the primary
amino group is converted to a non-nucleophilic
basic function. Imipenem is also:

Penicillin N D-(4-amino-carboxybutyl) is:

dihydrothiazine ring Cephaloporin C contains

cefoxitin A parenteral Cephamycin

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Zinacef is the first of a series of α-methoximino-


acyl-substituted cephalosporin that constitute most
cefuroxime sodium, USP
of the third
generation agents. Zinacef is:

The factors that contribute to an extremely long


serum half-life of sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP
I. High fraction of protein binding in the plasma
II. Slow urinary excretion
III. It is not metabolized in vivo
C
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I and III
e. III only

This increases stability to β-lactamases while


increasing activity against G(-) bacteria at the same
4-methyl group
time in
monobactams;

The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in


streptomycin
chemotherapy:

MOA of aminoglycosides:
I. interferes with cell wall synthesis
II. act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit
the initiation of protein synthesis
III. interferes with the fidelity of translation of the
C genetic message
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III only
PACOP 2005 - Chemistry e. I and III

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Extrachromosomals which are self-replicative and


transferable by conjugation that is responsible for
R-factors the
transfer of resistance from one bacterium to
another.

Structure Activity Relationship of Aminoglycosides:


It is important for characteristic broad spectrum
Ring I antibacterial
activity and is the primary target for bacterial
inactivating enzyes.

Mannisidostreptomycin It is known as Streptomycin B

Acid hydrolysis of Streptomycin yields:


I. Streptidine
II. Streptobiosamine
III. Deoxystreptamine
D a. I only
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
e. III only

S. fradiae Neomycin is obtained from:

The synthesis of the semisynthetic aminoglycoside


involves simple acylation of the 1-amino group of
amikacin, USP the
deoxystreptamine ring of Kanamycin A with L-
amino-α-hydroxybutyric acid (L-AHBA)

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A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of an


tetracyclines octahydronaphthacene, a hydrocarbon system that
comprises four annelated six-membered rings.

minocycline HCl 7-chloro-6-demethyltetracycline is:

Macrolide antibiotics have these common


characteristics:
I. large lactone ring
II. ketone group
III. a glycosidically linked amino sugar
C IV. an asymmetric carbon atoms in the
acylamidopropanediol chain
a. I only
b. II only
c. I-III
d. I-IV

Bacillus subtilis strain that was isolated from


debrided tissue of a compound fracture in 7-year
bacitracin, USP
old Margaret
Tracy produced this antibiotic.

The first widely used broad spectrum that was


Chloramphenicol, USP
isolated by Ehrlich in 1974 from S.venezuelae

Erythromycin B differs from Erythromycin A only at


carbon 12, at which hydroxyl group is replaced by
Hydrogen
_____,
which renders it more acid-stable.

These are sulphur containing antibiotics isolated


Lincomycins
from S. lincolnensis

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Cleocin 7-chloro-7-deoxylincomycin

Bacitrain's bactericidal effect through an inhibition


Zn
of mucopeptide cell wall synthesis is enhanced by:

Analogue of podophyllotoxin that is an inhibitor of


Etoposide Topoisomerase II which contains methyl as its R
group:

The complex structures in vinca alkaloids composed


of indole containing moiety and an indole
containing
moiety:
I. Indoline
II. Vindoline
D III. Vindesine
IV. Catharantine
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. III and IV

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Is an antineoplastic agent preparation from


Escherichia coli containing the enzyme L-
asparagine
amidohydrolase
I. Asparaginase
II. Elspar
B III. Pipobroman, USP
IV. Platinol
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. I and IV
e. III and IV

An antineoplastic drug active against rapidly


proliferating cells in the synthesis phase during
Hydroxyurea which it prevents
the formation of deoxyribonucleotides by inhibition
of ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase.

Pipobroman It is used primarily for treating polycythemia vera

D-homo-17α-oxaandrosta-1,4-diene-3, 17-dione
Testolactone, USP prepared by microbial transformation of
progesterone.

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Interferons are secreted by cells in response to viral


infections or other chemical or biologic inducers.
The major
classes of interferons are:
I. Alpha
II. Beta
C III. Lambda
IV. Gamma
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I-III
d. III and IV
e. II and IV

It is highly purified protein containing 165 amino


acids manufactured from a strain of E.coli bearing a
genetically
engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa-2a
gene from human leukocytes.
I. RIFN
II. IFLrA
C
III. Roferon-A
IV. Interon
a. I only
b. III only
c. I-III
d. I-IV
e. II and IV

This is absolutely essential for the in vitro carbonic


Sulfamoyl group anhydrase inhibitory activity and for the production
of diuresis in vivo

Acetazolamide, USP Diamox is:

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Benzothiadiazine-1, 1-dioxide nucleus is contained


Thiazide diuretics
in:

Furosemide 4-chloro-N-furfuryl-5-sulfamoyl anthranilic acid is:

It is the primary compound selected from a host of


pteridine analogues and resembles the structure of
Triamterene
folic acid and certain dihydrofolate reductase
inhibitors.

It is pyrazinoyl guanidine diuretics that inhibit the


Amiloride HCl electrogenetic entry of 2% to 3% of the filtered load
of Na into the tubule cells.

hyperkalemia The major adverse effect of Midamor:

β-imidazolylethylamine, an autacoids, is widespread


in nature being found in ergot and other plants and
in all
organs and tissues of the human body. It's also
known as:
I. 1H-imidazole-4-ethenamine
C II. Histamine
III. Serotonin
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. III only
e. I and III

The major source of histamine in the body results


Histidine
from the decarboxylation of this amino acid:

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Drowsiness is a side effect of antihistamines that is


Tertiary aminoalkyl ethers
most common to the

Brompheniramine A propylamine derivative:

Dymenhydrinate, USP Dramamine is

The piperazine, imidazoline, and phenothiazine-


ethylene diamine
type antihistamines contain the following moiety:

Antihistamines resulting from the chlorination of


pheniramine in the para position of the phenyl ring
Chlorpheniramine
that gives a ten-fold increase in potency with no
appreciable changes in toxicity.

A sulfone derivative investigated initially to be the


most effective drug for the treatment of leprosy and
4,4'-diaminodiphenylsulfone
has useful
antimalarial property but was too toxic.

What antibiotic caused a major advance in the


Rifampicin
treatment of tuberculosis?

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Ethambutol is remarkably stereospecific. Toxicities


of its isomers are about equal but their activity vary
considerably. The factors that have pronounced
effect on the activity are:
I. Length of the alkylene chain
II. Nature of the branching with the alkyl
substituents in the nitrogens
C
III. Extent of N-alkylation
IV. Pyranolone ring at the C4 of the compound
a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I, II and III
d. II, III and IV
e. I, II, III and IV

Ethionamide is a second line treatment drug of


choice for tuberculosis and is used in the treatment
of INHresistant tuberculosis or when patient is
2-substitution
intolerant to INH and other drugs. What is the
structural difference with INH
series?

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