Republic of the Philippines

PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Manila

BOARD OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY

Medical Technology Licensure Examination

Serology-Immunology and Blood Banking

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

1. He was said to have been given the world's first blood

transfusion by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San Genesio,
who had him drink the blood of three 10-year-old boys.
a. Pope Innocent VII c. Pope Gregory III
b. Pope Pius I d. Pope Boniface IV

2. The number of H antigen structures currently identified are:

a. Two c. Six
b. Four d. Eight

3. Greatest amount of H antigen:

a. A1 c. AB
b. O d. B

4. Identify the blood type based on the following reactions:

FORWARD GROUPING REVERSE GROUPING
Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
 0 4+ 3+ 0

a. Type O c. Type B
b. Type A d. Type AB

5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include:

a. Anti-A c. Anti-H
b. Anti-B d. All of the choices

6. What type of blood should be given in an emergency

transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s
sample?
a. O Rh-negative, whole blood c. O Rh-positive, whole blood
b. O Rh-negative, pRBCs d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs

7. This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian

ancestry:
a. Diego c. Colton
b. Cartwright d. Gerbich

8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic

environment.
a. Anti-S c. Anti-N
b. Anti-U d. Anti-M

9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open

system with ACD anticoagulant:
a. 21 days c. 42 days
b. 35 days d. None of the choices

10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:

a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Thalassemia
c. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
d. Hydrops fetalis

11. Citrate in ACD functions as:

a. Anticoagulant c. RBC membrane stabilizer
b. ATP source d. Caramelization inhibitor

12. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:

a. Whole blood c. Leukocyte concentrates
b. Packed red blood cells d. Platelet concentrates

13. Major advantage of gel technology:

a. Decreased sample volume c. Enhanced sensitivity
b. Improved productivity d. Standardization

14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear

background”
a. 4+ c. 2+
b. 3+ d. 1+

15. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is

collected from the patient before the start of surgery. The
patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and
autologous blood may be returned to the patient after the
surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative c. Intraoperative salvage
b. Normovolemic hemodilution d. Postoperative salvage

16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing

is:
a. EDTA b. Heparin
c. Citrate d. Oxalate

17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of

bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor. This is
typical of:
a. Syphilis c. Candidiasis
b. Herpes simplex d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

18. A resident of Palawan for 10 years is deferred from donating

blood for:
a. 3 years c. 2 weeks
b. 1 year d. Permanent deferral

19. Size of pore in leukoreduction filter

a. 10um c. 2 um
b. 5um d. 4um

20. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body

temperature of _____ occurring in association with the
transfusion of blood or components and without any other
explanation.
a. 1°C or more c. 3°C or more
b. 1°F or more d. 3°F or more

21. Rise in hematocrit after transfusion of fresh whole blood

a. 1-3% c. 5-10%
b. 3-5% d. >10%

22. The most severe form of HDN is associated with:

a. Anti-A c. Anti-K
b. Anti-B d. Anti-D
23. A diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of the baby's
blood is removed from the umbilical cord:
a. Cordocentesis
b. PUBS
c. Both
d. None of the above

24. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation

a. 2 – 5 % c. 10 – 15 %
b. 5 – 10 % d. 75 – 85 %

25. C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin c. Chemotaxin
b. Opsonin d. Cytokine

26. What is the most common complement component deficiency?

a. C1 c. C3
b. C2 d. C4

27. Which of the following is the most common congenital

immunodeficiency?
a. Severe combined immunodeficiency
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. Selective IgA deficiency
d. Common variable immunodeficiency

28. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth

muscle?
a. Chronic active hepatitis c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis d. Myasthenia gravis
29. The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused
by:
a. Candida albicans c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Cryptosporidium parvum

30. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue
virus infected patients as early as 1 day post onset of
symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1 c. E
b. C d. prM

31. These are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly

dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but
that are absent in normal adult tissue:
a. Oncogenes c. Sarcoma
b. Oncofetal antigens d. Tumor specific antigen

32. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an _________ assay.

a. Chemical c. Enzymatic
b. Molecular d. Biologic

33. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an

_________ assay.
a. Chemical c. Enzymatic
b. Molecular d. Biologic

34. Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. Type IV

35. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:

a. Isotopes b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes d. Immune complexes

36. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes

are immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Positive c. Doubtful
b. Negative d. Indeterminate

37. When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella,

macroscopic agglutination is graded as 25%.
a. Non-reactive c. Positive
b. Negative d. 1+

38. Other name for “HCV RNA”:

a. Viral clade c. Viral load
b. Surface antigen d. Core antigen

39. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:

a. HBcAg c. Anti-HBeAg
b. HBeAg d. Anti-HBcAg

40. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which class of

HLA?
a. Class I c. Class III
b. Class II d. Class IV

41. Which of the following activates both T and B cells?

a. Pokeweed mitogen
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Concanavalin A
d. Phytohemagglutinin
42. Immunoglobulin found in secretions (tears):
a. IgG c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgA

43. Pentameric immunoglobulin:

a. IgG c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgD

44. Population of NK cells:

a. 5-10% c. 15-20%
b. <10 % d. 70-80%

45. Chemokines are produced from:

a. many types of cells c. T cells
b. B cells d. None of the above

46. Cytokines are released by:

a. T & B cells
b. T cells & macrophages
c. macrophages, T cells, B cells
d. NK cells

47. Large granular lymphocytes

a. NK cells c. T cells
b. B cells d. All of the above

48. CD 34:
a. HSC c. B cells
b. T cells d. Megakaryocyte
49. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells
(sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2 c. CD4
b. CD8 d. CD21

50. C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Opsonin
c. Chemotaxin
d. Cytokine
 KEY TO CORRECTION
1. A 11. A 21. B 31. B 41. A
2. B 12. D 22. D 32. B 42. D
3. B 13. D 23. C 33. B 43. B
4. C 14. B 24. C 34. A 44. A
5. D 15. B 25. B 35. A 45. A
6. B 16. A 26. B 36. B 46. C
7. A 17. D 27. C 37. D 47. A
8. D 18. A 28. A 38. C 48. A
9. D 19. A 29. B 38. A 49. A
10. B 20. A 30. A 40. B 50. B