FT-1 Practice Paper

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[ code-BJ

28/06/2023
@
Aakash
1
+••M1i%
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8 , Pusa Road, New Delhi-11000 5 ,
Ph.011-476 23456
Time : 200 Min,
MM : 720 Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_ RM(P2)-Test-01B

Topics Covered:
Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion In a Straight Line
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany: Cell : The Unit of Life
Zoology: Structural Organisation In Animals-An imal Tissues

General Instructions :
35 questions from
1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B . You have to attempt all
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
from the total score.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -1 mark shall be deducted
Unanswere d/unattempt ed questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle .
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle .
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
rubbing material on the
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other
Answer sheet

j PHvsics f

SECTION-A

3. The number of insignifican t zeros in


1. Gravitationa l force is
0.006500 are
(1) Conservative, weakest and long range
(2) Conservativ e, weakest and short range
(1) Five

(3) Conservativ e, strongest and long range


(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Non-conser vative, weakest and long
range (4) Four

2. Sir C.V. Raman got Nobel prize In physics 4. Which of the following quantity is
for dimensionl ess?
(1) Scattering of light (1) Optical power of lens
(2) Dispersion of light (2) Focal length of concave lens
(3) Reflection of light (3) Refractive index of glass slab
(4) Refraction of light (4) Radius of curvature of concave mirro r
Fortnlghtly lest Serles 2023-24_RM(P2)-Tost•01B

5. A3 B 2 9. A physical quantity is measured anct its


If X = Cv15 and percentage errors in A, B, C value is found to be nu, where n = numerical
and D are1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively, value and u = unit. Then which of the
the maximum percentage error in X is following graph is correct?
(1) 10% (1) n
(2) 11%
(3) 12%
(4) 2%

6. Which among the following is not a


lJ
fundamental quantity?
(2) n
(1) Time
(2) Mass
(3) Velocity
(4) Length

7. u
The dimensional formula (ML 2 , 2 ] is of
(1) Torque (3) n
(2) Momentum
(3) Power
(4) Pressure

8. Zero error in an instrument introduces


LI
(1) Systematic error
(2) Random error
(4) n
(3) Personal error
(4) Least count error

LJ

10. Which of the following instrument is most


precise?
(1) A meter scale with smallest division
equal to 0.1 cm
(2) Screw gauge with pitch = 0.1 mm and
100 divisions on circular scale
(3) Vernier calliper with a least count 0.01
mm
(4) All instruments have same precision

11. In a new system of units, mass is measured


in multiple of 10 kg, length is measu red in
multiple of 1 km and time in multiple of 100
s. The numerical value of 1 joule in the new
system of units is
(1) 10-l
(2) 10-2
(3) 10- 3
(4) 10
Fortnlghtly lest Serles 2023 2
• 4_RM(P2)-~st-0 1B

12.
Column I consist f
column II co
ns 1sts the ·
°
some distan ces and 17 . Correct relation between pi tch and least
column I With column II ir va 1ues. Match coun t (LC) of a screw gauge is
Columnt (l) Pitch = LC
Column II
(A) Fermi 100
P. 3.08 x 10 16 m (2) Pitch = 100
(B) Parsec x LC
Q. 9 .46 x 10 15 m (J) Pitch = _..!:_
(C) Light Yea r R. 10-13 cm LC

(D ) Astron o mi cal Un it s. 1, 496 x 10 11 m


(4) L.C = _ _ _ _Pl_tch_ _ __
Ntrnbef of ctv!slon, !Y1 clrcu ar scal e

(1) A-P, B-R , C-S, D-Q


(2) A-S , B-R, C-P, D-Q 18 . Two physical quantitie s are having same
di mensions. Then th eir magnitude
(3) A-R , B-P, C-Q, D-S
(1 ) Cannot be multi plied
(4) A-P, B- Q, C-R , D-S
(2) Cannot be added
(3) Can be added
13. Solve w ith due regards to significant figures (4) Cannot be added or subtracted

6 ,0 X 10-2 + 2.0 X 10-4


19. Three physical quantities A , B and C are
(1) 8 X 10-2 related as A = B + C , then
(2) 8 X 10-4 (1) Dimensions of A , Band Care same
(3) 6.020 X 10-2 (2) Dimensions of A , Band C are different

(4) 6.0 X 10-2 (3) Dimensions of A and B are same but


dimensions of A and Care different
(4) Dimensions of B and C are same but
14. If the error in the measurement of radius of a dimensions of A and Care differen t
sphere is 3% then the error in the ai \
~=termination of volume of the sphere ,will Y::r:~~ . 20 _ Thel ~~ ~-r._of sign ificant figures in 0.07Z00

(1) 6%
c2) a%
,t·',fi_.\
l(J
·,, IS{l)l, 5,, . ._

::>'
<. · ., .
(3) 9% "(2) 4
(4) 3% ' (3) ·2 ...\~~
· (4) 3 '); ,
~ """".t ,,

15. If two physical quantities X and Y are such \. ~- .. ~~ ~


Q2 F '1,-,, 21. Which graph represents uniform moti on?
that X = -and Y = -Then / the "-? ... ~~
E Qv · t t \ (1)r S
~hi,• ~
'¾'r"''

/
dimensional formula of a physical quantity Z, A
where Z = [XY] is [Given Q : Charge , F :i 1...1. ¥ 1,,4..
Forc_e , E: Energy, v : velocity] ,,,/.....
(1) [Mo LOT° Ao]
(2) [Ml L2 1 2 A-1]
(3) [MO L-2 T2 Al] (2) S
(4) [Ml LO T2 Al]

16. Total number of supplementary fundamental


units in SI system is
(1) 1 (3) S
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 8

t
(4) S
Fortnightly Thst Serles 2023-24_RM(P2)•nt5t •OlB

A particle moves in a str_ aight li~e . The


27. . ent x of the particle varies with
22. A car starts from rest and moves 0~ a d1sp 1acem . .
straight line according to given accelerat10.n· . + t2 x is in meter and t 1s in
time graph. The maximum value of its time x = 3 - 51 2 ' . · I ·
second . Then initial velocity of part1c e is
velocity will be
2 (1) 2 ms- 1
a(m/s )
(2) 3 ms- 1
s (3) -5 ms- 1
(4) 4 ms- 1

28. A body falls freely from rest for 4s. The


....,,....__ __,__ ___.,._~ t( s) average speed will be (g = 10 m/s
2
)
0 2 4 (1) 20 m/s
(1) 5 mis (2) 10 mis
(2) 6 mis (3) 40 m/s
(3) 8 mis (4) 80 m/s
(4) 10 mis

29. The position (x) of a particle moving along x-


23. A small stone is dropped from top of a long axis varies with time (Q as shown in the
tower. The ratio of distance travelled by the figure. The average acceleration of particle
particle between t =5 s to t =10 s and t =15 in time interval t = 0 to t = 6 sis
s tot= 20 sis
(1) 1: 4 x(m)
(2) 3 : 7
(3) 1: 3
(4) 5 : 7
ti" o'
ti '
24. Two trains, each of length 10 m, travell in ,,,,,.c."''"°·''·'•'
opposite direction with speed 20 m/s. f.)i,~
time taken by the trains to cross each othe~:,
~ •~M
2 4 6 t(s)
(1) 1 s
(2) 0.1 s
(3) 2.1 s - ,.;'·t2) -4•tn1s2
(4) 0.5 s (3)' ; ~;5' ~ts 2
,.; '-'~'
AJ b; '
1
t,\f\'tfi~,y;,~
.;<->}l)il"_5 m/s2
25. A : A negative acceleration of a body · <i;)\}
increase the speed of body.
30. The position-time graph for a particle moving
;'..:~
R : Speed will increase if velocity an'{",.;,~it~
in straight line is shown below. At which
acceleration have same sign. 't~'l
point the value of instantaneous velocity is
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and maximum?
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion E D
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but C
.Q
the reason is not the correct :!=
(I)
explanation of the assertion 0
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason 0..
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
hme (s)
26. A car is moving with speed 100 km h-1 . The (1) D
speed (in ms-1) is equal to (2) A
(1) 100 (3) B
(2) 27.78 (4) C
(3) 25.4
(4) 50.78
Fortnightly lest S
erles 2023-24
_RM(P 2 1-1est-01a
31.
Two trains A and 8
~oving on parallel' t~!ct of length 250 m are 34. A person moves for 1 0 s with velocity 3 mis
~(h respective! i c s at 90 km/h and 72 then velocity 4 m/s for another 5 sand finally
ln1t1ally train A 1/
1 n the same direction . moves with velocity 5 m/s for 6 s. The
The time after w . km behind the train B . average speed of the person will be
overtakes train 8 Is h1ch train A completely (1) 60 m/ s
21
(l) 2 40 minutes
( 2 ) 30 minutes (2 ) ~~ m/ s
(3) 5 minutes (3) so m/ s
21
(4 ) 5 seconds (4) 10 m/s
21

32.
:he position of a particle moving In a straight 35. 100 J of energy is equivalent to K ergs (in
line is given by S = t2 + 3t + 2, find the CGS system) . The value of K is
average velocity of the particle in first 2 (1) 10 7
second.
(1) 10 m/s (2) 108
(2) 5 m/s (3) 109
(3) 20 mis (4) 105
(4) 15 m/s

33. The relative velocity of a particle moving with


velocity v w.r.t. itself is
(1) V
(2) 2v
(3) -v
(4) Zero

µ..;,,"'
~ ~~·~;.~
. ,. . ., -. ~{ "It
36. Friction is derived from :; '.'39.
..
''The Je"fiJttrof two rods, /1 and 12 , are (3.0 ±
··. 'h .... &
(1) Gravitational force 0.2)cm··and (2.0 ± 0.l)cm respectively. The
5 , diff~'tence in their length is reported as
(2) Electromagnetic force ~i<.•&\\r, '0'
, . ,;.~, <\t,:-y~l) (1.0 ± 0 .3) cm
(3) Strong nuclear force
v~"';frl lt'~:tl(2) (1.0 ± 0.1) cm
(4) Weak nuclear force
r;;, 'Ill/I' (3) (1.0 ± 0.2) cm
\;:; ~ (4) (1.0 ± 0.0) cm
2
37. Pressure P is given P =AT+ BT .
(Where Tis time). Dimensional formulae of
40. The period of oscillation of a simple
constants A and B are
(1) ML -1 T-3 & ML -1 T-4 pendulum is T = 27!' /f- If measured

& ML -1 T4
(2) ML -1 T3 value of L is 10.0 cm known to 1 mm
accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the
(3) MLT- 3 & MLT- 4 pendulum is found to be 80 s using a clock
(4) MLT 3 & MLT 4 of ls resolution , then accuracy in the
determination of g is
(1) 2.7%
38. If linear momentum (p), acceleration (a) and
(2) 3.5%
time (7) are taken to be fundamental
quantities, then dimensional formula for (3) 4.2%
mass is (4) 2.3%
(1) fp-1a-1r-1J
(2) fp1a-1r-1J
(3) fp-lalrlJ
(4) fp-2a1r2J
Fortnig htly Test Serles 2023-24 _RM(P2 )-Test-0 1B

46. A particle travel one-third of the total


41. Which of the following statement about distance of the journey with speed 10 m/s,
significant figures Is Incorrect? the next one third of the total distance with
(1) All non-zero digits are significant speed 20 m/s and the remaining distance
(2) The trailing zeroes In a number having with speed 40 mis. The average speed of
a decimal point are not significant the particle for the journey is
(3) All zeroes between two non-zero digits (1) 35 mis
are significant (2) 23 .4 m/s
(4) For a number less than one, zeroes on (3) 17 .14 m/s
the left of the first non-zero digits are (4) 14.6 m/s
not significant

47. A particle has a rectilinear motion and the


42. Column- I consists of some quantities to be
figure gives its displace ment as a function of
measure d and column-II consists some
time. Which of the following statements are
measure ment methods. Match column-I with
column-II true with respect to the motion?
s
Column- I Column-II
A
A Large distance s P Atomic clock
B Very small distance s Q Mass
spectrograph
C Mass of atomic R Volumetric
particles method
D Time S Parallax
method (1) In motion between O to A , the velocity
is positive and accelera tion is negative
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) Between A and B, the velocity and
(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
acceleration are positive
(3) A-S,B-Q ,C-R,D- P
(3) Between B and c, the velocity is
(4) A- P, B-R, C-Q, D-S , ne gative and,accelera tion is negative
(4)'.f.B~tWeen D and E , the velocity is
1
43. If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, ~· . "negative and accelera tion is positive
t. ,'

which of the following vernier scales give~


vernier constan t (least count) equal to 0.05
mm?
(1) 9 mm divided into 10 divisions
(2) 19 mm divided into 20 divisions
(3) 90 mm divided into 100 divisions ,,

(4) 99 mm divided into 100 divisions~~.,:.\ .


,,·J>- \»t
44. In a unit system , unit of mass is 10 kg, ur1 it of
length is 10 m and of time is 10 second.
Then unit of force will be
(1) 10 newton
(2) 100 newton
(3) 1 newton
(4) 104 newton

45. An object starts from rest, accelera ted


2
uniforml y with 2 m/s on straight road for 10
second, then moves with uniform speed for
next 5 second and finally retard uniforml y
2
with 4 m/s . What is the distance covered
during whole journey?
(1) 150 m
(2) 225 m
(3) 250 m
(4) 300 m
RM( P2)- lut-0 1B
Fort nlgh tly 'n!st Serle s 2023 -24_

time
48. upwa rd 50. The position (x) of a particle varies with
~o ~alls a~e projected in vertically xis in m and r_is
d1rect1on with veloc ity a mis and 12 m/s (t) as x = (2- - 2t + 1. (whe re
in s). The acceleration of particle when
its
same posit ion at the
resp ectiv ely from the
(s) is zero is
same insta nt of lime. Then the separation velocity
t till one of
betw een the balls varie s with time (1) 1 mts 2
be best
the balls hits the grou nd can (2) 2 m/s 2
repre sente d by
(1) S (3) 4 mts2
(4) Zero

t
(2) S

t
(3) S

t
(4) S

t
49. Consider the following statements
be
(A) Average velocity of a particle may
if average speed is non-zero .
zero even
m~y
(B) Instantaneous velocity of a particle
ntan eous spee d IS
be non-zero even if Insta
zero.
above
The correct statement(s) among the
statements is/are
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)
Fortnightly Test Serles 2023-24_RM(P2)-Test-01B

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

56. Total number of significant figures in 50


51. Mass percentage of hydrogen In natur?I
sample of water and synthetic sample Is books are
11.11 % each . This supports (1) 0
(1) Law of conservation of mass (2) 2
(2) Law of definite proportion (3) 1
(3) Law of multiple proportion (4) Infinite
(4) Avogadro's law
57. Phosphorous forms two chlorides PCl 3 and
52. If percentage of Zn (atomic mass = 65 .38) in PCl 5 . Which law can be proved by the
a biomolecule is 0.75% by weight, then the weights of P and Cl?
minimum molar mass (in g mol- 1 ) of (1) Law of conservation of mass
biomolecule will be
(2) Law of constant composition
(1) 10243.45
(3) Avogadro 's law
(2) 9483.29
(4) Law of multiple proportions
(3) 8012.12
(4) 8717.33
58. Find out.false Statement.
(1) MolecGlar' volume is the volume
53. 0.25 gram atom of an element weighs 25(,Q•,, ~- occqpied'by lmole of a gas
The atomic mass of the elements is ~- - ;) t'. "'c'j ;'<-',,> •t.,vi • -~-' . ,
(2) ,., $I luhit,of the·rmodynamic temperature
(1) 50 r,; QllKelvit,~1 '✓
.....,.
(2) 100 ,, , _\' ,,f,,, iJ:'Y~?aritSensity is unit1ess
(3) 200 "'~ ·,,•·;;, .-;,r;•s•;,,,
··"'-" .., i-·,{1},. '<'-;)j-•;,,'
1·s q.mit of pressure is Pascal
(4) 25
-\ .-:;:\~";;,
,ve befb:.V '~ re two statements, one is
54. Give below are two statements, one is abell et:C"'~s Assertion (A) and other is
labelled as Assertion (A) and other is ,._.,,, l~beli~di'as Reason (R).
labelled as Reason (R). . ,.'b ((J.'" As'sertion (A) : Equivalent mass of a base
0

Assertion (A}: Boiling point ofwater ~-.~'. 2},;?,~ "~.'-·· ( ~ MdecLlar mass
·1 I :l\f½',;'.st._•.f,,; .. , ,. ·,,,
on Fa hren he, sea e. wr,'it, '•z.,;,:,;\ .>,
Reason (R) : Freezing point of water is O~,S:l~tr\·,:,·~;;,, Basicity is the number of
In light of the above statements, choose fq~f
1;t/·~· replaceable OH- ions in one molecule of the
correct answer from the options given below~~¥ base.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and In light of the above statements, choose the
the reason is the correct explanation of correct answer from the options given below.
the assertion (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is the correct explanation of
the reason is not the correct the assertion
explanation of the assertion (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason the reason is not the correct
is false explanation of the assertion
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) Assertion is true statement but Re ason
statements is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
55. The term 'formula mass' is used for statements
(1) C5H12Os
(2) Na2SO4
(3) H2 0
(4) C6 H5
Fortnlgh tly Test Serles 2023 24
" _RM(P2) -Test-01B

60. Give below ar tw O statements one is


e 65. Number of Fe atoms in 22.4 g Haemoglobin
1 b I if it contains 0.25% Fe by mass (Atomic
tbe led as Assertion (A) and 'other Is
a elle~ as Reason (R) , mass of Fe = 56 u) is
Assertio n , (A) : , Molecular weight of a (1) 6 ,Q2 X 10 21
compou nd is 60 If it's vapour density is 30.
(2) 6,Q2 10 20
Reason (R) : Vapour density = Mclee,,,. we1111
X

(3) 3 ,Ql X 10 20
In light of the above statements, choise the
correct answer from the options given below. (4) 3,Ql X 10 21
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of 66. The empirical formula of a compound is
the assertion CH 2 CI then its molecular mass cannot be
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) 49 .5 u
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (2) 99 u
(3) 54 u
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false (4) 148.5 u
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements 67. The number of atoms in 22 g of CO2 is
(1) 2.5 NA
61. The molarity of glucose solution whose (2) NA
concentration is approximately 180 mg/100
mlis (3) 1.5 NA
(1) 1 x 10-3 M (4) NA
2
(2) 5 M
(3) 1 x 10-2 M
68. A compou nd on ' analysis gave the following
(4) 5 x 10-2 M results 'c .= 40% H =--6.7% and O = 53 .3%.
,,, is:,
t, 'i,: . The empi rical to'rmuta' ofthe compoun d is
'/ <{:!~'',~•-;;-.t;ff'1 .·:: ¾ , ~ !,) f .\)

Weight of lime (CaO) that can be prepared ~~f' ., , .


~ ~ (l)[ Czl;l4O ,.
62.
by heating 100 ~g of 90% (w/w) pu ~e }l! l ,,; (2)tc~ ~to·:\
.2 , 6 . ,.
limeston e (CaCO3) 1s ·<'I.. '-ii'j ,.,./i l:\J!t-};J:l, .r:.:_•.- r,-•
'<ii,.,. :-,f0:
~ .. t·-~
(3) •, CH2ff
:.,ti,...
'~"·•· .~ ~/l.-?J ,,~;., ;·;;~
'i . -,

(1) 50.4 kg
",!' ~i,(4),, .G3H50 •
(2) 25.2 kg 1,'ly_!<i;-f/
(3) 56 kg
. .
't.~;,r/i~
' ~-
. An element X has the following isotopic
I~ ;,__
(4) 28 kg composi tion:
/:.~·-,
a~·xt
"'i>v
]'.%,
41x : 4%, 4ox : 95% .
63. Assertion : Empirica l formula of benzene'. i~\,
•x,, ·•\J .'t
~e
average atomic weight of the naturally
CH . . ,.p't curring element X is closest to
Reason : Mass ratio of carbon and hydro~~ n' f' (1) 42 u
in benzene is 12 : 1. (2) 40 u
(1) Both Assertio n & Reason are true and
(3) 39 u
the reason is the correct explanat ion of
the assertion . (4) 43 u
(2) Both Assertio n & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 70. A solution containin g 63% nitric acid by
explanat ion of the assertion . mass has its molarity equal to (density of the
1
(3) Assertio n is true statemen t but Reason solution is 1.5 g ml- )
is false. (1) 8 M
(4) Both Assertio n and Reason are false (2) 15 M
statemen ts.
(3) 10.25 M
(4) 32.5 M
64. Mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution of
30% NaOH by mass is
(1) 0.16 71. If 10 g of H 2 reacts with 42 g of N 2, then
Identify the correct statemen t.
(2) 0.05
(1) 1 mol of H 2 is left in excess
(3) 0.25
(2) N 2 Is the limiting reagent
(4) 0.95
(3) 2.5 mol of NH 3 is fo rmed
(4) 0.5 mol of N 2 is left in excess
Fortnlghtly Te
st Serles 2023-24_RM(P2)-Test-01B

72. Gram mole cular mass of CH4 Is The mass of one mole cul e of compound
79.
(1) 16 g C 50H 120 is
(2) 16 u (1) 1.4 >< 10- 21 g
(3 ) 3 2 g (2) 1.4 >< 10- 20 g
(4 ) 32 u
(3 ) 5 >< 10- 21 g

73. (4) 1 .75 >< 10- 21 g


Find mole s of ele ctro ns present in 64 g of
CH 4
(1) 64 80 . The percentage of carbon by mass in urea
(2 ) 40 (NH zCONH z) is

(3) 24 (1) 20%


(4) 16 (2) 40%
(3) 46 .6%
(4) 59 .1%
74. Number of atoms in 8 g of o 3 molecule is
(NA represents Avogadro 's number)
(1) N A 81. The mass of an atom of calcium is
2 (1) 40 g
(2) N A
3
(2) 4~ g

(3) N A (3) NA>< 40 g


5
(4) ..1Q. g
(4) NA
NA
20

75. One AVOGRAM is numerically equal to 82. The incorre ct statement regarding Dalton 's
(Given, NA = Avogadro 's number) atomic theory is
(1) Matter consi sts of indivisible atoms
(1) NA
(2) Atoms can neither be created nor
(2) 1
•. destroyed in a chemical reaction
v%.
(3) Compounds are formed when atoms of
(3) 1
NA · different elements combine in variab le
. ratio.
(4) ,jJifi (4) All the atoms of a given element have
identical properties
76. The equivalent weight of NaH 2 P0 4 in the
reaction 83. Which among the following species will
NaH2P0 4 +KOH---+ NaKHP0 4 +H2 0 ' ~'
contain same number of atoms as in 20 g of
is (Given Atomic masses: Na= 23, K = 39, P calcium?
= 31) (1) 23 gram of sodium
(1) 158 (2) 24 gram of magnesium
(2) 60 (3) 12 g carbon
(3) 97 (4) 8 g oxygen atom
(4) 120
84. The weight of BaCl 2 that wou ld react with
77. If mole fraction of glucose in its aqueous 24.4 g of sodium sulphate to produce 46.6 g
solution is 0.02 then molality of this solution of barium sulphate and 23.4 g of sodium
is chloride is
(1) 1.1 m (1) 22.8 g
(2) 0.02 m (2) 45 .6 g
(3) 4.5 m (3) 50 .0 g
(4) 2 .7 m (4) 54 .2 g

85 . A water bath has temµeratu re 65 °C . Its value


78. 1 amu is equal to
in °F scale will be
(1) 1.57 x 10- 24 kg
(1) 142°F
(2) 1.66 x 10-24 kg (2) 165"F
(3) 1.66 x 10-27 kg (3) 149 "F
(4) 9.1 x 10- 31 kg (4) 155 °F
Fortnightly Test S
- -------.::e~rl~e=s~ 2023.24
- -_RM(P2)-Test-01e
-- -=-:.. ::.:: __ _ _ _ _ __ _ _ _ __
-
SECTION-B
86. All of given options
formula except have same empirical 92. How many atoms of oxygen are present in
(l) CH3COOH 10.6 g of Na 2CO3?
(2) CH3COCH (1) NA
3
(3) HCHO (2) 0.2 NA
(4) HCOOCH (3) 0 .3 NA
3
(4) 1.5 NA
87
· If th e mass ratio of helium and methane is 1 :
8 then the molar ratio of two gases will be 93. If the percentage of water of crystallization in
(1) 1 :8 MgSO4 ,xH 2 O is 13%, then the value of xis

(2) 1: 4 (1) 1
(3) 1: 1 (2) 4
(4) 1 :2 (3) 5
(4) 7

88. If equivalent mass of a metal 'M' is 12, molar


mass (in g) of its sulphate MSO4 would be 94. Which of the following set represents most
precise measurements of a physical
(1) 60
quantity?
(2) 120 (1) 8.0, 8.5 , 8.6
(3) 72 (2) 8.23 , 8.6~ 8.86
(4) 96 (3) 0.1'- 8.13, 8'.i5
(4) 8.0, 9.0 , 7.q
, •.,.,,, '>
89. Suppose the elements X and Y combine, to /,. l ., .~
form two compounds XY 2 and X3Y2 • When : "/""~---... ..,
,1 95. 4 moles of A reacted with 6 moles of B as
0.1 mole of XY 2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mol_e / per , th;,e• · r~ action 3A + 28----} C. The
of X3 Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X · ,· .r. maximum moles of C formed is
) ' '
and Y are •·, ,. , ", '(1) 3. ·nfol
-:-. '( r
(1) 40 , 30 :., ' •• ✓-, • \ (Z) i 4 mol · ·· ._,

• ,·;" • ~ , ')~ ";r,1 ·r::••••:h. , ~(. 17}
(2) 60, 40 · ', '. · '•. -~ (3) 10/3 1)101
• •, ~ 'ft
(3) 20 , 30
_., V ',.' , ~~ ..~!.~mol
(4) 30, 20
/; ,l!
i ...J"' ' \
.to..,.
.,_ .....,/
i \
L ~
' •'
.•
-·. ,,,
.: /
'~i

\ ,•\ ·/>·,,,_ 1; ·" · / 9~:.. :. Mi ss of oxygen required to completely burn


90. 10 L o2 reacts with 30 L co at STP. Fin~ o.~r ,,.{. ~:·., "j ·-: / 32 g of methane gas is
the gaseous composition at the end ; of,~~.t\"''"1.,./ ' • (1) 64 9
reaction \·. .fa/ (2) 128 g
(1) CO= 10 L, CO2 = 20 L (3) 256 g
(2) 02 = 10 L, CO= 30 L (4) 32 g
(3) 02 = 10 L, CO2 = 20 L
(4) CO= 20 L, CO2= 10 L 97 • 6.022 x 10 23 molecules of urea are present
in 1000 g water. The molality of urea solution
is
91. A gaseous mixture contains equal mass of
CH 4 and o2. The mole fraction of CH 4 in the (1) 0.1 m
mixture is (2) 0.01 m
(1) ¾ (3) 10 m
(4) 1 m
(2) ¼
(3) ½ 98. 60 ml , 0.4 M NaOH is mixed w ith 40 ml, 0 .8
M NaOH solution . The molarity of resultant
(4) ½ mixture is
(1) 0 .2 M
(2) 0.4 M
(3) 0 .56 M
(4) 0.64 M
Fort nigh tly Test Serle s 2023
-24_ RM(P 2)-Te st-01 B

99. Which of the following concentration


terms is
independent of temperature?
(1) Molarity
(2) Mole fraction
(3) Normality
(4) (wN) %

lOO. From 440 mg of CO , 10 20


2 mol ecules of
CO2 are removed . The total numb
er of
remaining atoms will be
(l) 1.51 >< 10 20
(2) 2.89 >< 10 21
(3) 1.77 )( 1022
(4 ) 1.46 >< 10 23

SECT ION-A

101. The _ face of golgi complex gives rise to


104. The concept of Omnis cellula-e
the secretory vesicles. cel/ula given
by Rudolf Virchow suggests that
(1) Convex
(1) All living organisms are composed
(2) Cis of
cells.
(3) Maturing (2) All llving organisms are composed
of
(4) Forming products of cells.
(3) All cells arise from pre-existing cell.
102. The functions of cell orga (4) 1 Activities of an organism are the
nelles that are not
included in endomembrane system outcome of sum total of activities and
are interactions of its constituent cells.
a. Detoxification of drugs
b. Carbon dioxide fixation.
c. Splitting of water molecule. 105. Which of the following statements
is wrong
d. Glycolipid formation °'about the component of cell that is the
main
(1) All a, b, c and d arena of cellular activities?
(2) Only a and b (1) It is surrounded by nuclear membrane
(3) Only b, c and d (2) It contains many cell organelles
(4) Only band c (3) It is semi-fluid matrix
(4) Various chemical reactions occur
in it
103. Match the following and selec
t the correct
answer. 106. Choose the incorrect w.r.t. nucleolus.
(l) Spherical in
Olcolumn I )O lcolu mn II
7 nucleoplasm
structure found
~icentriole )[{[J IPresent in thyla
koids I (2) Separated from rest of the nucleoplas
m
[Jlchlorophyll ]@D IF~ rm spindle fibres by membrane
J

[Z\ Primary !(iii)\Increases the surface


]
(3) May be larger and more numerou
s in
LJ cell wall LJsa~re;;a~== ==:= :==- ;1 cells actively involved tn protein
i l E J [(iv)1 Thin, el~stic capable
! <ristae synthe~s .
of
LJ LJ expansion
(4) It is site for ribosomal RNA synthesis

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)


(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(iv) , b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

12
fortnightly Test Serles 2023·24_RM(P2)-Test-OlB

107 • Which one of the following holds true


114. Sometimes few chromosomes have non-
regarding ribosomes?
staining secondary constriction at a constant
(1) These are single membrane bound cell location . Thi s gives the appearance of a
organelles present In all cells small fragment called
(2) They were first observed by Camillo (1) Short arm
Golgi (2) Satellite
(3) Each ribosome has two subunits which (3) Kinetochore
remain united with each other due to a (4) Telomere
specific concentration of Mg++ ions
(4) GOS subunit of ribosomes are usually 115. Endomembrane system includes all, except
associated with cisternae of ER in most
of the bacteria (1) ER
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Lysosome
108, The contractile vacuole in Amoeba ls
important for (4) Gas vacuole
(1) Osmoregulation and excretion
(2) Storage of food and circulation 116. Cell wall of algae is mainly composed of
(3) Thermoregulation and locomotion (1) Cellulose and pectin
(4) Formation of food vacuole and (2) Chitin
digestion (3) Hemicellulose and mannans
(4) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
109. Space in chloroplast bounded by thylakoid
membrane is known as 117. Which of the following is continuous with
(1) Lumen outer nuclear membrane and provide
(2) Strama attachment sites-. for ribosomes for protein
(3) Grana ,,,,<· synthesis? /.
,.l~
~i ,:,; (1) Ly;io} ;ome
(4) Matrix ,,,,1.,..1,,i' '
\~ (2)t ~~~~l',~9I:"Plex
110. Which of the following is a semi autonom~\? )'
(~Y\~,!])9,?tl:l
tif, ·~;h_.
~ndoplasmic reticulum
• f,"•4,;::)>''
cell organelle? '<ti;,,__ .... .,,,.-,1r · ·,, 4 ~8,,?l!Jlh endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
·•.,JJ-~'t~·,:•--''
"p
(2) Golgi complex . . special1 type.of plastid which store starch is
1,0 'J..~''1 l,>';<M ~.~\""' :;h "W ·

(3) Mitochondrion ·<.' \O''i'.,.,i(l) C.hr,omoplast


::.:::; ~ ·0/ wt,. "'F\J?
(4) Lysosome i.\'f;:;- (2),-.,%~\,,,.
~~
, ~laloplasts
, ,J3)tiAleuroplast
1t+f~½'l?:-r~, 1;':,;_t'!, "it;,~

111. Which of the following organelles is fou ., . rt"'''~Jff) Amyloplast


both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? ·· ~J~ 1it~}-!p~
(1) Lysosome The centromere is present very close to one
(2) ER end of the chromosome in
(3) Ribosome (1) Telocentric chromosome
(4) Food vacuoles (2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
112. Mesosomes in a bacterial cell (4) Metacentric chromosome
(1) Are actually infoldings of plasma
membrane.
120. Select the wrong statement w.r.t. eukaryoti c
(2) Help in DNA replication only. cilia and flagella.
(3) Do not contribute in cell wall formation. (1) These are membrane-bound
~) Ha~itsownDNAandRNA extensions
(2) They arise from basal bodies
113. The middle lamella present between (3) Their core is called axoneme
neighbouring cells of plants is mainly made (4) There are total eleven radial spokes in
up of each cilium and flagellum
(1) Calcium pectate
(2) Calcium carbonate
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Proteins
Fortnightly lest Serles 2023-24_RM(P2)-Test-01B

121. Space between the two membranes of 129. Loose and indistinct network of
nuclear envelope is called nucleoprotein fibres present in interphase
(1) Pericentriolar space nucleus is called
(2) Lumlnal space (1) Chromosome

(3) Perinuclear space (2) Chromatin

(4) lntranuclear space (3) Chromonemata


(4) Chromatid
122. Arrangement of microtubules in cilia or
flagella is 130. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. 'fluid
(1) 9 + 3 mosaic model' of plasma membrane .
(2) 9 + 2 (1) Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables
lateral movement of proteins within the
(3) 9 + 0
overall bilayer
(4) 9 + 9
(2) Ability of movement of proteins within
membrane is measured as its fluidity
123. Select the odd one w.r.t shapes of bacteria (3) Fluid nature of membrane is
(1) Bacillus - Rod like insignificant w.r.t function like cell
(2) Coccus - Spherical growth and formation of intercellular
junction
(3) Vibrio - Spherical
(4) Fluid nature of membrane is important
(4) Spirillum - Spiral
for secretion and endocytosis.

124. The shape of nerve cells is


131. Major site of formation of glycoproteins and
(1) Round and biconcave glycolipids is
(2) Branched and long (1) Vacuole .._
(3) Amoeboid (2) Gotgi,,apparatus
;:t:P
(4) Cuboidal f f' (3) Plastids . ,
f·, ; \ ,;/iJ
<\

n (4) Ly5osomes ./
.,-,· ').,_ '•; ;

125. ~1e cell was first observed and descri ~ ,d · 1


./' 132;;~.,,,:,~~j
~~~.,
/2>:: ✓ P.~tcentage of proteins and lipids
(1) Robert Hooke '"'>-t· ,:, , . ).,respectively are present in the membrane of
(2) A.V. Leeuwenhoek ,, , ,• ,.,, 'hom'an' erythrocyte cell?
•. '· ~ ,•;. \ \;, .,+-i,:;"'"1 •"'""""''•
(3) Rudolf Virchow . ·· . ,, , ' ···: .J l )" 40% and 52%
", "·' ::•
,Y{2) 52% and 40%
') """
(4) Camillo Golgi
\- '

(3) •,is% and 52%


\ , _ ~:o "
'i1o,.,,
part, of .the· . ,Je;, (4) : 50% and 42%
126. Chloroplast is not considered as
endomembrane system because
~-_,.;,_;.;_? .• ,: .• ,1'·•,
\ , ,.~ ;, .. : _., %:,\::»,
(1) It is double membrane bound structur~'<>; 13·3? Nucleus as a cell organelle was first
1(!' ' ' ~
(2) It is not involved in oxidation of fats \ ,',, , >
'
! • t, described by
(3) Its functions are not co-ordinated witt/ 7 (1) Fleming
the functions of cell organelles of (2) Robert Brown
endornernbrane system (3) George Palade
(4) It stores starch (4) Carnillo Golgi

127. Matrix of mitochondria does not contain 134. In all organisms, basic unit of life is
(1) Enzymes for TCA cycle (1) DNA
(2) Few RNA molecules (2) Cell
(3) 80S ribosomes (3) Protoplasm
(4) DNA molecule (4) Cytoplasm

128. An animal cell differs from a higher plant cell 135. Plant cell wall lack
in possessing
(1) Cellulose
(1) Vacuoles
(2) Hemicellulose
(2) Plastids
(3) Chitin
(3) Centrosomes
(4) Pectin
(4) Nucleus
fortnlg htly Test Serles 2023-2 4 RM(P2 )-lest-O
lB

SECTIO N-B

136 · ~ Is the extrachromosomal DNA 142. A polysome contains


pre sent
(1) Many ribosomes and a single mRNA
in ~ of many bacteria.
(2) Single ribosom e and many mRNAs
Select the correct option for (a) and (b) .
(3) Single ribosome and single mRNA
(1) (a) Mesosome; (b) Plasma membrane
(4) Many ribosomes and many mRNAs
(2) (a) Mesosome; (b) Cell wall
(3) (a) Plasmid; (b) Nucleus
143. Which of the following statements is not true
(4) (a) Plasmid; (b) Cytoplasm
for cell membrane?
(1) Present in both prokaryoti c and
137. Membranous extensions which are eukaryotic cells
pigments containing structures found In (2) Cell membranes possess proteins but
cyanobacteria are they do not have carbohydrates
(1) Chromatophores (3) Composed of lipids that are arranged
(2) Stroma lamellae in a bilayer
(3) Grana (4) Integral proteins are partially or totally
buried in the membrane
(4) Inclusion Bodies

144. The structures which work like oars causing


138. Lysosomes are the organelles formed by the
movem ent of either cell or surroun ding fluid
process of
(1) Packaging in the food vacuole are
(1) Flagell a
(2) Packaging in the Golgi apparatus 1 ·"
(2) Cilia )
(3) Autodigestion (;..
,r•, (3) Centr.al hub ,
(4) Glycosidation in the SER
-~ (4i Mas~ule: , ./
139. The enzymes of lysosomes are able to , [jj
digest ,,,>:r.,,.,, 11f/:~\::::: ;;;:;(;. ➔
; 9ar~t~ r,foids containing colored p\astid s are
(1) Proteins and carbohydrates only
_l~ . '~J N" 'I (·•~i·,
1
1
(2) Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and · ·:.. :~-;:;,,...::(\ )J Chlol ~Pl,~sts
nucleic acids ,'. :_:-·,:j(2) Ct)JO_l:!}op\asts
(3) Proteins and lipids only
. ,) (3)
:• ''A
'-\It\europl asts
(4) Carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic a,cid
(4,.J ,,,,Amylo plasts
Only J/" · '':- ·?- ,, r~:.:1c. '·"'
\/ \ ·. ,,,.. •' ~ - ~-"'~~~. ~"' ''f . . . ., ;'!/r..,J
\.· 1/ (,. \l:" 146~: How many centrio les are presen t in a
140. How many of the following features '~re ;-:"~
(i·,:, centros ome?
commo n in both mitoch ondria an~,L/ (1) one
chlorop lasts? ,,.
a. ds circular DNA
(2) Two
b. SOS ribosom es
(3) Three
c. Double -memb rane bound organe lle
(4) Four
d. Storage of starch
e. Self duplica tion
147. Primar y cell wall is
(1) 3
(1) Thick layered
(2) 4 (2) Capab le of expans ion in growin g cell
(3) 5 (3) Lignifie d and suberis ed usually
(4) 2 (4) Noticed in parenc hymato us cell only

141. Kinetoc hores are


148. Almost 90 percen t of the volume of a matu re
(1) Terminal ends of the chromo somes
plant cell can be occupi ed by
(2) The structures that hold two chroma tids
(1) Plastid s
of a chromo some
(2) Vacuol es
(3) The parts of chromo somes beyond the
second ary constriction (3) Mitoch ondria
(4) The disc shaped structures on the side (4) Endop l asmi c reti culum
of centrom ere
2 )-1 Mt -O lB
rle s 20 23 ·24-RM (P
Fo rtn igh tly Te st Se

the
bacteria is due to
149 . The motility of
presence of
(1) Fimbriae
(2) Pili
(3) Flagella
(4) Trichome

briae in bacteria is
150 . The function of fim
to host tissue or to
(1) To help in attaching
rocks
(2) Motility
(3) DNA replication
(4) Secretion proces
s

I ZO OL OG Y I

SECTION-A
of
d one w.r.t. secretion
15 5. Choose the od
gla nd
tissue in which the ma
trix is multicellular exocrine
15 1. The connective t sec reted by its
d no (1) Milk_
without fibres an
component cells is ,, liva
(2) Sa ~

(1) Skeletal (3) 1. Ea nyc1x., ", ·,/


(2) Blood
;• ,r- ✓

_('!l~-I,~ YJ;PXine
(3) Dense irregular
(4) Adipose tissue
. .<~ ;,~t; "';~:;;,}"
inc orr ec t statemen
t w.r.t
_1.56/ S~!~~V th~
- fn,e~! oglla f ell~, ume
cell junctions found in
the more than ha lt the vol
15 2. Mark the types of ls to ,, , 'i':'(1) They~mak e
ilitate the cel of'neu¥al tiss ue
epithelium which fac ne cting '_ -~··
communicate with eac
h oth er by con
joining cells, tor rap
id .;..- .. ·t,.i ;: .,( ,..,,
2
) ~ hs-f
1 t t th
ey pro ec e neurons
the cytoplasm of adsmall molecules and ,,, , ,\: c,/Y non-excitable cells
transfer of ion s,
ules /<~,,, ·,:,, : _· )I' _1J:_ .(3)i They are ss dendrites and axon
sometimes big molec : "'(4) They posse
: ' ., {j~
{~ tr.~;'.; ..-· ~;,:}'
(1) Tight jun ctio n \ , ·; '(' .:., ,7 '-<'• .
"' ,~l'

15 7. Exocrine glands
'~"' '" ,>

(2) Adhering junction


ous cells
(3) Gap jun ctio n (1) Consist of squam
und epithelium
(4) lnterdigitation (2) Co nsi st of compo
(3) Secrete hormones
oidal or columna r
organisation, the (4) Co nsi st of cub
15 3. In tissue level of l
ged as loose cel epithelia l cel ls
(1) Cells are arran
aggregates
ed to form organs choose
(2) Tissues are group ing statements and
15 8. Re ad the follow
same function are the correct option .
(3) Cells performing ple ep ith eliu m is
arranged into groups Statement A: Sim of cel ls an d
gle lay er
ed to form systems com po sed of a sin
(4) Tissues are group for bo dy cavities , du
cts
functions as a lining
an d tubes . ep ith el ium
h Statement B: Co mp ou nd
154. Select the mismatc re cel l lay ers and ha s
s bone to muscle consists of two or mo
(1) Tendon - Connect it do es in the skin of
d cells - Striate
d protective function as
(2) Fusiform shape
e hu ma ns .
involuntary muscle fibr are inc orr ect
iated epithelium (1) Both statements
(3) Bronchioles - Cil are cor rec t
ithelium - PCT an d (2) Both statements
(4) Brush bordered ep is cor rec t
small intestin e (3) Only sta tem en t A
correct
(4) Only sta tem en t Bis

Fortnightly Test Serles 2023-24 RM
- (P2)-Test-o 18

159. Match the column I ·1·h


h w1 column II d
c oose the correct option . an 165 · Cuboidal epithelium is not present in

D~;i•~:,~~ □!~::~~:" (1) Fallopian tubes


(2) PCT of nephron
a./l;~~P_lde )l (i) I/Wall of blood (3) Ducts of glands
l- ~ 01 a1 vessels (4) DCT of nephron
[bl Simple - [0i)lfstomach - ]
LJ columnar LJ 166. Select the correct statement w.r.t. cartilage .
lc-J/Cil_iate~
L ep1thel1um
/l(iii) /jFallopian tube
LJL -I (1) It has hard and non-pliable ground
substance , rich in calcium salts and
collagen fibres
ld7 Sim~;-- - M Tubular part of - -1
LJ squamous LJ nephron (2) Most of this tissue in vertebrate
embryos are replaced by dense
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) connective tissue in adults
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii) , d(i) (3) Chondrocytes are present in the
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) spaces called canaliculi
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) Present in outer ear joints, between
adjacent bones of the vertebral column
and limbs in adults
160. Connective tissue connects another tissues
such as
167. Cardiac muscles are
(1) Tendon connects different muscles
(1) Voluntary in their activity
(2) Ligaments connects bone to muscle
(2) Unbranched
(3) Areolar tissue connects skin to muscle (3) Nonstriated
(4) Adipose tissue connects skin to bones
(4) Uninucleated
l,~f,·".,,
.,£~:;~L,. -.-,(' , ~ >
161. Nissl's granules are present in 168. Which of{ the ._ following characteristic is
(1) Nucleic acid shared- ·by ' both'; cartilage and bone in
(2) Nervous tissue hurr'lans'?0 '~ ,/ ~

(3) Epithelial tissue pliable matrix


. -fi (1)~S~li {(a~ d
0

(4) Connective tissue , (2) .


• Present
, in limbs and hands
1
' , " (~/ :P,re~el')i;e of calcium salts
' t:. . . .
' 1 i:.:'>

162. Choose the odd one out w.r.t specialized ,.,,J4)· Site of production of blood cells
connective tissue ,.,er,--., ,. . : •• ( r~: ~, ):
(1) Bone t · '"•t~'\ \!',\69.
'.': At , ':\-...;.J
Adipb$e1°tissue is a type of
t-,',i'· ,; _• -,,
(2) Tendon ~)f/'' ,1:\. (1)'.jiDense irregular tissue
(3) Blood " (;'f;.' -tf,.:.:,~ (~) Dense regular tissue
>. t ... i.iP1~ y(f.'1 'L}~~) f'" 1

(4) Cartilage .'") •f,cf'


f;:'/"'.i;',;b
· ,,// (3) Loose connective tissue
' (4) Specialised connective tissue .
163. Complete the analogy
Bone : Osteocytes :: Cartilage : _ __ 170. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) Adipocytes w.r.t. muscle tissue?
(2) Chondrocytes (1) Biceps muscle fibers are cylindrical
(3) Chondrin and unbranched
(4) Ossein (2) Wall of stomach and intestine contains
striped involuntary muscles
(3) Cell junctions are present in cardiac
164. All of the following statements are correct muscle tissue
about loose connective tissue except
(4) Skeletal muscles are voluntary in
(1) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly
nature
packed
(2) Present beneath the skin
171. An example of dense regular connective
(3) Serves as support frame work for
tissue is
epithelium
(1) Skin
(4) Help in storage of fat
(2) Cartilage
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Tendons
Fortnlghtly Test Serles 2023-24_RM( P2)-Test-01B

177. Select the incorrect,. I ~tatement w.r.t.


172. Identify the cell junction which performs characteristics of epithe ia tissue.
cementing to keep neighbouring cells (l) It has a tree surface .
together
(2) Its free surface faces either a body fluid
(1) Tight junction
or the outside environment
(2) Adhering junction
(3) The cells are distantly arrange? with
(3) Gap junction large amount of intercellular matrix
(4) Zonula occluden s (4) It provides a covering or a lining for
some part of the body
173. Which of the following tissue covers the dry
surtace of the skin , the moist surface of
178. A tissue which shows structural syncytium is
buccal cavity and pharynx?
(1) Compound epithelium (1) Skeletal muscles

(2) Squamous epithelium (2) Smooth muscles

(3) Ciliated epithelium (3) Cardiac muscles


(4) Columnar epithelium (4) Neural tissue

174. The function of ciliated epithelium is 179. How many cells from given below in box are
· ithelial tissue?
(1) Secretion and absorption
(2) To move particles/mucus in specific
direction
(1) One
(3) To facilitate diffusion
(2) Zero
(4) To provide protection against chemical
(3) Two
stresses
(4) Three

175. _ _ is composed of a single layer of cube-


/.
like cells. 1, <.,\ 180. Generally the matrix of the connective tissue
Fill the blank with a suitable option. i is secreted by , ,'.
;1,l~v,r ,
(1) Squamous epithelium ·~ (1) . Macrophages
(2) Cuboidal epithelium (2) ·Mast cells
''1 ·.,,r· ~ )'
(3) Columnar epithelium , . (3) ;:Plasma cells
(4) Compound epithelium ,,;:,., ,.:. -,.''Y {(4). Fibroblasts
~;z_2'.1:',i:~:; - ''.;~:~-✓-' ~~
-~ - •

176. The mucus secreting goblet cells of the , .. 1,,,,_\\: ·)81 ... ln whic~ , of the following parts , Nissl 's
alimentary canal are represented by .:t'/ :j;; · \; . /' granules are present?
ltJl.',,t~ l\"> 1 ' , '..:J,;; ~ '·'· . •
•~\Sr ~;/if· ,;'J' . ·'(1) ·:Axon only
,, .. ·'' I , . ,
,,
<.,'.::.:f
'<>;,..
•. ·"~}(?) Cyton and axon ; axon terminals
(3) Cyton and dendrites
(4) Cyton only

182. The cells formed inside bone marrow, are


{A) (B) (1) Chondroblasts
(1) A : Multicellular consisting of cluster of (2) Neuroglia
cells (3) White blood cells
(2) B : Unicellular consisting of isolated (4) Osteocytes
glandular cells
(3) A : Columnar cells producing exocrine
secretions
183. Blood is a connective tissue an d is in direct
contact with which type of epithelial tissue
(4) B : Cuboidal cells also known as during circulation?
glandular epithelium
(1) Columnar epithelium
(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified squ amous epithelium
fortn ightly "n!st Serles 2023 -24_R M(P2
)-Tes t-01B

---1 84, All of the following are component


areolar tissue except
s of

(1) Fibroblast
(2) Macrophages
(3) Mast cell
(4) Osteoblast

185. The part of neuron which carries impul


ses
towards its cell body is
(1) Dendrite
(2) Axon
(3) Node of Ranvier
(4) Schwann cell

SECTION•B

186. Ligaments are formed of 190. Haversian canal ~i~ its . su~ro
un~ing
lamel\ae is characteristic of which tissue .
(1) Collagen fibres only
(1) Bone
(2) Elastic fibres only
(2) cartilage
(3) Elastic fibres and collagen fibres
(4) Reticular fibres only (3) Tenggn "'·~
. (4) u~rrfent"~- : · '·"'-
''i
,;_"
, ~;-it'<l)~.._, , , ,'/{I...,
~- ,.
187. Which of the following is responsible for
Epi1ti~&-- :~~~;.►
.

h1i,gh ' 191. ~f a single thin ~ay~r of


absorptive capacity in intestine? ~ 1\atte rfe'd':ce\\; with irregular boundaries IS
(a) Cilia \
;!i}}\:-:~~ t~~'us e~ith~\ium
(b) Flagella _
(c) Pinocytic vesicle s\";.,.,, ,.
v_-,.,..,,,..
/J 2),.,Cuboidal ep1thehum
(d) Brush border epithelium , { 1i~-4 . .
j 3)/ Columnacepithel1um
(1) (a), (c) , (d) ,, '' --"(i{ Cornpouiid epithelium
(2) (b) & (d) ' "'·"-...,.J
i.~,l :;
(3) (d) only
·1'.92. The function of tight junctions .IS to
(4) (a), (b) , (c), (d) ~;;/1 -~~~(1/ stop substances from leaking acros
t.: .... ;•:J i~''\..~ s a
.~,u~.~.. 1 "~•;._.,.J-,,·'. tissue .
188. The supportive skeletal structure · , ~\'$: ~v (2) Facilitate the cells to communica _ _
te with
pinna and tip of nose is made up of · •q ~~,.,. each other
(1) Cartilage (3) Cement neighbouring cells together
(2) Bone (4) Protect and nourish epithelial cells
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Areolar tissue 193. How many of the following are exoc
rine
secretions?
189. Consider the following statements. Mucus, Saliva, Earwax, Oil , Milk, Digestive
A. In cardiac muscles, communication enzymes
junctions allow the cells to contract as a unit.
B. In cardiac muscles, when one cell (1) Three
receives a signal to contract, (2) Four
its
neighbouring cells are also stimulated (3) Five
to
contract.
(4) Six
Select the correct option .
(1) Both A and Bare correct
(2) A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are Incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but Bis correct
For tnig htly Tos t Ser les
202 3-2 4_R M(P 2)-T ost
-01 B

s in the give n box are


-.
197 . How man y of the cell
in the transport of fluid -fille d cavities with in the
194 . The muscles invo lved enc lose d in
gametes through the genital tract are matrix?
' mus cles . This nam e is based on eocytes ,
'sm ooth Ost eob last , Cho ndro cyte s , Ost
their Erythro cyte s
(1) Location
(1) 3
(2) App eara nce
(2) 2
(3) Function
(4) Nature of regulation (3) 1
(4) 0
ements and cho ose
195 , Rea d the follo win g stat
betw een mus cles
the cor rec t option.
ron is suit ably 198 . The com mon feature
Sta tem ent A: When a neu ach and bice ps are
pre sen t in stom
l dist urba nce is
stim ulat ed, an electrica (1) Striatio ns
gen era ted .
dist urba nce at (2) Sha pe
Sta tem ent B: Arrival of the
neu ron end ings alw ays stimulate (3) Mul tinu clea ted
the
adja cen t neu ron s. (4) Unb ran che d
ect
(1) Onl y stat eme nt A is corr
nt 8 is corr ect
(2) Onl y stat eme mus cle fibre s in
are corr ect 199 . Ner ve fibre s diffe r from
(3) Both A and B stat eme nts hav ing
are inco rrec t
(4) Both A and B stat eme nts (1) Myo fibri ls
(2) Stri atio ns
ely dist ribu ted tiss ue
196 . Mos t abu nda nt and wid (3) Sar cole mm a
bod y of com plex anim als is
in the (4) Den drit es
(1) Epi the lial tiss ue
(2) Con nec tive tiss ue ue pr~ sen t in hea rt
200 . Con tra~ til~ tis~ -.7
(3) Mus cula r tiss ue ,('1\, -
s
(1)/$,P,f'q,~;A ~.t .s how stria tion
(4) Neu ral tiss ue e of bra nch ing
§:~_hPJb!~
(2),;;:,p·<>'1 ~,... ·<>•:/
~bs enc
.,.~,,.,.
s.,..pr ese nce of inte rcal ated disc s
· )~.SfJ9w •:t,;.j.c;,,
)i-~i•

. •;p ~es not sho w exc itab ility


41'
,,t·~:,
'"'
28/06 /2023
® \ code-B \

akWas
A+••M h
ii 1
New Delhl- 11000 5 ,
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road,
Ph.01 1-476 23456
Time : 200 Min.
MM: 720 Fortnightly Test Series 2023- 24_ RM(P2)-Test-01B

I PHYSICS I
SECTION-A

1. (1)
19. (1)
20. (2)
2. (1)

3. (3)
21. (1)
22. (4)
4. (3)
23. (2)
5. (3)
24. (4)
6. (3)

7. (1)
25. (1)
26. . ,(2) ',' "· '
8. (1) ~- {

, ,. ' ,,,, - } '


9. (4) , 21:•,, (3) , J'

10. (2) ,28. ' (1)


,,,
11. (3) ~9; (4)

12. (3) 30. (~)


;,

13. (4) 31: ' (3)


,, "
14. (3) 32. (2)

15. (3) 33. (4)

16. (3) 34. (3)

17. (4) 35. (3)

18. (3)

SECT ION-8

36. (2) 44. (3)


37. (1) 45. (3)
38. (2) 46. (3)
39. (1) 47. (1)
40. (2) 48. (1)
41. (2) 49. (1)
42. (2) 50. (2)

43. (2)
_R M( P 2 )•'TI!IS t •O lB
Se rle s 20 23 ·2 4
Fo rtn ig ht ly "R!st

I CHEMISTRY I
SECTION-A
69. (2)
51. (2)
70. (2)
52. (4)
71. (2)
53. (2)
72. (1)
54. (2)
73. (2)
55. (2)
74. (1)
56. (4)
75. (3)
57. (4)
76. (4)
58. (1)
77. (1)
59. (4)
78. (3)
60. (1)
79. (1)
61. (3)

62. (1) 80. (1)

63. (1) 81 . (4)

64. (1) 82 . (3)

65. (2) 83 . (4) .

66. (3) 84 ., (2)

67. (3) 85 . (3)_

68. (3)
. t¼ :,' ,✓ -.

/; ,,.., . . ,-\';, -.; •'

': · ·
V '·.SE~.TIONI~!3• \", ,._
86. (2) 94 .\ _(3 )'

87. (4) 95 , (4)

88. (2) 96 . (2)

89 . (1) 97 . (4)

90 . (1) 98. (3)

91. (1) 99 . (2)

92. (3) 10 0, (3)

93. (1)

I BOTANY I
SECTION-A
10 1. (3) 119. (3)
10 2. (4) 12 0. (4)

10 3. (1) 12 1. (3)
/
Fortnlghtly Test Serles 2023•24_RM(P 2 )·1est-OlB

104. (3)
122. (2)
,
105. (1)
123. (3)
106. (2)
124. (2)
107. (3)
125. (2)
108. (1)
126. (3)
109. (1) 127. (3)
uo. (3) 128. (3)
111. (3) 129. (2)
U2. (1) 130. (3)
ll3. (1) 131. (2)

ll4. (2) 132. (2)

us. (4) 133. (2)

U6. (4) 134. (2)

U7. (4) 135. (3)

U8. (4)

~ SECTION-B
136. (4) f' © ...,~ · 144. (2)
137. (1) ~ ' :1145. (2

138. (2) 14~ -


.,.. . {

139. (2)
~e.,
~
140. (1)

141. (4) ,.;((

142. (1)

143. (2)

I ZOOLOGY
I
SECTION-A
151. (2) 169. (3)
152. (3) 170. (2)
153. (3) 171. (4)
154. (2) 172. (2)
155. (4) 173. (1)
156. (4) 174. (2)
157. (4) 175, (2)
158. (2)
176. (3)
159. (2)
177. (3)
160. (3)
178. (1)
·24_ RM( P2)• Tl!ts t-01B
Fort nigh tly ntst Serl es 2023

179. (2 )
161. (2)
180. (4)
162. (2)
181. (3)
163. (2)
182. (3)
164. (1)
183. (3)
165. (1)
184. (4)
166. (4 )
185. (1)
167. (4)

168. (2)

SEC TION -B

194. (2)
186. (3)
195. (1)
187. (3)
196. (2)
188. (1)
197. (2)
189. (1)

190. (1) 198. (4)

191. (1) 199. (4)

192. (1) 200. (3)

193. (4)

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