Prac CAT19

Prac-CAT # 19
(Part of the 50 All-India Mock Tests provided by PT)
TEST FORM NUMBER TEST BOOKLET SR. NO.
333 Test Code: CT 39
Special for Online Tests

INSTRUCTIONS

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Timings for the Test E
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T How to answer
1 . This test has three sections which examine various abilities. Section # 01 - 25 Questions; Section # 02 - 50 A
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O in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections. L
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answer to each question.
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After the Test G
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SECTION I
Number of Questions = 25
DIRECTIONS: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6.
1. 1. Conventional understanding and perceptions might suggest that working women feel they are second class
citizens compared to their male counterparts.
(A) And increasingly, the ability to do so gives her a chance to realise her own potential, exploit her talents and
exercise her options in terms of how she will live her life.
(B) The year 2004 sees the working woman coming of age in terms of her self-proclaimed identity and, most
importantly, as a woman in control of her life and destiny.
(C) Interestingly, though, a combination of research that is both quantitative and qualitative in nature, suggests
that such feelings are gradually losing relevance.
(D) Women work and want to work to earn and be financially independent.
6. It gives her a way to actualise herself and gain self-esteem and confidence.
(1) CBDA (2) CBAD
(3) CDAB (4) BADC
2. 1. Working women seem to have accepted that their roles and identities need to be defined despite what men may
or may not be doing.
(A) Empowerment and opportunities, education and encouragement by family members, supportive husbands and
in-laws make for a seamless transition to a status where she commands both respect and admiration.
(B) Her contribution to the household expenses only reinforces her newfound status and power.
(C) And if it doesn't matter, it's because she will choose her goals nevertheless.
(D) The working woman seems reconciled to the fact that men may or may not help her at home or to actualise her
aspirations.
6. Most women in SEC A and even SEC B want to stretch themselves to become "superwomen" at home and
outside; complaints tend to be only centred around "a lack of time."
(1) ABDC (2) DCAB
(3) CBDA (4) BDCA
DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in the question, when arranged in the proper sequence, form a coherent paragraph.
Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to
construct a meaningful paragraph.
3. (A) He reacted to his guilt in the same way that many of us do.
(B) Although sidelined by guilt, he didn't let his mistake permanently keep him from the life God had planned for him.
(C) First, he tried to deny his mistake and cover up what he had done.
(D) However, before he was able to begin his comeback, he made two false starts.
(E) We know that Moses eventually made an incredible comeback.
(1) DCABE (2) EBDAC
(3) EDBCA (4) CBDAE
IC : PTpnrpc19 (1) of (20)

4. (A) Bottom line: Bharti's got money coming its way, so what if it's not foreign.
(B) "I expect it to help them generate free cash from FY 06 onwards, and thereafter they will start paying off debt,"
says Ganesh Duvvuri, a telecom analyst with Motilal Oswal securities.
(C) In fact, some analysts expect this model to come handy as Bharti fights the recent price wars in the industry.
(D) No doubt, foreign equity is theoretically cheaper than bank borrowings, but Bharti's outsourced business
model has also made its operation much less of a cash log.
(1) DACB (2) BCDA
(3) BACD (4) DCBA
DIRECTIONS: Identify the correct sentence or sentences.
5. (A) The ship, with its crew, were lost.

(B) After sailing for what seemed an eternity; they spotted land in the far horizon.
(C) The exhausted and hungry sailors rushed to the island.
(D) But, neither food nor water were to be found there.
(1) A and B (2) B, C and D
(3) B and C (4) A and D
6. (A) Where have you been to?

(B) Ten kilometers are a long walk.
(C) Haven't the doctors advised not to indulge in such pursuits?
(D) Do you have no concerns about your condition?
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) C and D (4) A and D
7. (A) The opposition leader had been held captive in the cabin for more than a month.
(B) His diet was abstemious, his prayers long and fervent.
(C) The abductors showed no signs of relenting to the appeals made by the family and media.
(D) They were not ready to discuss about the ransom money or the terms of the release of the country's hero.
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) A and C (4) B and D
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, four options are provided after a paragraph. Select the option that best
represents the theme of the paragraph.
8. Your age should be a distinct asset to any organisation, because of your practice and application through the years
of the principles of the Golden Rule and the law of love and goodwill. Your grey hair, if you have any, should stand
for greater wisdom, skill and understanding. Your emotional and spiritual maturity should be a tremendous blessing
to any organisation. A man should not be asked to resign when he is 65 years of age. That is the time of life when
he could be most useful in handling personnel problems, making plans for the future, making decisions and guiding
others in the light of creative ideas based on his experience and insight into the nature of the business.
(1) Life progressively gets better with age.
(2) Organisations must value older employers.
(3) Age, thanks to the experience gained, is an asset in one’s area of work.
(4) Emotional growth is imperative with age as it is the key to effective guiding others.
(2) of (20) IC : PTpnrpc19

9. The hateful, passive, frustrated, distorted, and twisted personality is out of tune with the Infinite. He resents those
who are peaceful, happy, and joyous. Usually he criticises, condemns, and vilifies those who have been very good
and kind to him. His attitude is this: Why should they be happy when he is so miserable? He wants to drag them
down to his own level.
(1) To be in tune with the Infinite, one should be loving, peaceful and calm.
(2) A frustrated man sees the world the way he is.
(3) Misery loves company.
(4) A man may smile, yet be a villain.
DIRECTIONS: There are two gaps in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given, choose the one
that fills the gaps most appropriately. The first word in the pair should the first gap.
10. The UNDP Human Development Report focuses on a new ..... of development that puts people at the center of
development, regards economic growth as a means and not an end,..... the life opportunities of future generations
as well as the present generations and respects the natural systems on which all life depends.
(1) paradigm, protects (2) proposal, harms
(3) enactment, enhances (4) forum, hinders
11. The congregation became ..... when the priest embarked on a ..... on the moral responsibility of parents to take
charge of their misguided off-springs.
(1) appeased, dialogue (2) agitated, monologue
(3) disoriented, discourse (4) restless, litany
12. The capacity of a metal for hardening depends on the ..... of the surface and the ..... of the microstructure.
(1) lucidity, fortifying (2) receptivity, intensifying
(3) potential, sublimating (4) susceptibility, strengthening
13. Self-confidence does not grow in someone who is just another ..... in the bureaucracy, whose ..... rests on little more
than a title.
(1) appendage, authority (2) appendant, augmentation
(3) apparition, dominance (4) appeal, prestige
DIRECTIONS: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE
Habit alone keeps us all within the bounds of ordinance, and saves the children of fortune from the envious uprisings of
the poor. It alone prevents the hardest and the most repulsive walks of life from being deserted by those brought up to
tread therein. It keeps the fishermen and the dock-hand at sea through the winter; it holds the minor in his darkness, and
nails the countrymen to his log cabin and his lonely farm through all the months of snow; it protect us from invasion by
the natives of the desert and the frozen zones. It dooms us all to fight out the battle of life upon the lines of our nurture
or our early choice, and to make the best of a pursuit that disagrees, because there is no other for which we are pitted,
and it is too late to begin again. It keeps different social strata from mixing.
Already at the age of twenty five you see the professional mannerisms settling down on the young 'salesmen', on the
young doctor, on the young minister, on the young lawyer. You see the little lines of cleavage running through the
character, the tricks of thought, the prejudices, the ways of the "shop", in a word, from which the man can by and by, no
more escape than his coat-sleeve can suddenly fall into a new set of folds. On the whole, it is best he should not escape.
It is well for the world that in most of us, by the age of thirty, the character has set like plaster, and will never soften
again.

14. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the sentence, 'Habit alone keeps us all within the bounds of
ordinance, and saves the children of fortune from the envious uprisings of the poor.’
(1) It is out of habit that people envy others
(2) But for the abiding force of habit the poor would overthrow the rich
(3) Habit binds us and save us from trouble
(4) If we are bound by habit then it is tough to save ourselves.
15. What according to you is the most apt title for the passage
(1) The stultifying effects of habit (2) Why we aren't alike
(3) Habit (4) The vicious grip of habit
16. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true
(1) Habit encourages people to tread away repulsive walks of life.
(2) The choice we make early in life influences our habit formation greatly
(3) Later in life one cannot form habits too readily.
(4) Our upbringing has an important role in forming our habits.
PASSAGE
The cultural perspective is heavily slanted in favour of the whites. In a male dominated society a black woman writer has
to struggle against the twin handicaps of being black as well as a woman. The world of black women constitutes the
darkest side of the other America which has never found expression even in the writings of black male writers like Tom
Blackwell, Ralph Emerson, Chesterfield Hanes and Chandler Damien.
The new female literary culture that has come to stay in America in the wake of the women's liberation movement has
given a new legitimacy to women's writings emboldening black women to explore their private world of feminine experience.
The black man has too often been typecast in Negro writings as a rebel and a man of violence. That no such stereotyped
image of a black woman existed earlier helped black women novelists to define their identity in fresh perspectives. The
absence of an active literary tradition has been, in this sense, an advantage.
The awareness of 'being a pioneer is often evident in the pronouncements of many black women writers. Tom Barrison
says: "I wrote Thula and The Brownest Eye because they were books I had wanted to read. No one had written them yet,
so I wrote them. My audience is always the people in the book I'm writing at the time. I don't think of an external
audience." Claudia Taylor explains: "The writing symbolised me finally taking hold of myself and attempting to take my
destiny, in my own hands. All the other things came." Andrea Borden states with remarkable poignancy: "I write for
those women for whom a voice has not yet existed, or whose voices have been silenced."
Domesticity and sexuality have been the common burdens of feminine writings. Critics like Eliza Warwich maintain that
women cannot write like men because they lack opportunities for wider experiences. However, black women authors
have access to a larger world of social degradation, suffering, poverty and hopelessness. Their private hell, by its very
racial nature, raises larger issues of human rights and social responsibilities. As black women authors document the
persecution of a whole community, their writings partake of a social and cultural context, which partly explains their
wider appeal.
Violence is implicit in the social setting of the American Negro. It is to the credit of black women authors that they do not
celebrate or glorify violence. They are more concerned with the invisible violence of poverty and a subhuman existence.
Their black characters often affirm their dignity and survival in the face of a hostile society. Even when violence erupts
in the form of dramatic episodes in their works, the emphasis is always on the circumstancing of the event.
The black woman writer's anger is built into the mythic structure of the narrative she employs. The physical details of
the Negro situation create a vibrant presence of life. In her review of Brandon Ville, Anna Sanders writes in The New
York Times Book Review: "Nothing supernatural happens in it, yet its vivid earthy characters seem constantly on the
verge of breaking out into magical powers." The oral narrative tradition of Afro-American literature has a strong mythical

base. Black women writers insist that the black female experience in America demands new literary forms and narrative
structures. It is the compelling literary merit of their works that has alerted the American media to the significance of
their contribution.
The emergence of black women writers in the limelight is likely to prove a landmark in the evolution of black writing in
America. They have learnt to articulate the most abject kind of misery in artistic terms without resorting to the white
man's literary concepts or standards. Their ability to transcribe the painful facts of their existence without any trace of
bitterness or anger speaks of their self-assurance born of strong convictions. Instead of being nagged by feelings of
inadequacy and frustration at being black, the new black woman writer attempts to map out her destiny in defiance of the
ruthless social order.
17. According to the author, so far it has been uncommon for women writers to write on
(1) their sexuality (2) women's domesticity
(3) their private world of self (4) the larger social issues
18. According to the author, which of the following statements is correct

(1) The fact that there existed no literary stereotypes of the black women helped them to define their identity in an
original manner.
(2) Since the literary stereotypes did not exist, the black women writers became liberated.
(3) The presence of an active literary tradition is not of advantage in so far as it prevents the writer from looking
into darker side of things.
(4) The main difference between the writings of white and black women is their concern with the sheltered world
of the self.
19. Which of the following statements does NOT represent the views of the author?
(1) Black women writers emphasize on the circumstances causing violence.
(2) The black women writers have learnt to articulate the most abject kind of misery in artistic terms without
resorting to white man's literary concepts.
(3) Instead of being nagged by feelings of inadequacy and frustration at being black, the new black women writers
attempt to map out their destiny.
(4) Their ability to transcribe the painful facts of their existence with bitterness and anger, speaks of their self-
assurance born of strong convictions.
PASSAGE
It is true that in the Third World as a whole, barring China, India does have the widest (even if dilute) base in elementary
scientific education and the largest absolute number of scientists and engineers. But this does not give India the third
rank in the world. Churning out science graduates by the lakh does not amount to putting even a thousand of them into
research, when the standard of education is recognised for what it is.
The qualitative factor becomes even more important, when the output of Indian scientists and technologists is considered.
This relates to the second myth. But even in terms of the sheer volume of output, the average Indian scientist is less
than half as productive as his counterpart in the developed countries. He is probably less productive than the average
scientist in some Third World countries such as Argentina or Brazil. So far as the more important issue of quality of
research work goes, India's record is somewhere between poor and appalling, even in relation to some Third World
countries. This statement may seem harsh. But some valuable evidence that backs this view has just been published in
the form of two articles in Current Contents a standard international journal that each week indexes material published
in some 4,000 scientific periodicals worldwide. The author of the articles, Eugene Garfield, bases himself on an analysis
of the sources and impact of some nine million articles published by 1.5 million scientific authors in the pages of about
3,000 journals. The method used to measure the "impact" is admittedly crude, but probably the only viable one in global
comparisons. It defines impact as the number of times articles are quoted or cited in other articles. The study relates to
the period 1913 to 1978.

The conclusions of the Current Contents analysis are stunning. First, India accounted for a pathetic 2.2 per cent of the
total number of articles published in the journals monitored, which account for the overwhelming majority of the articles
published anywhere. The share of the U.S.-based, authors, is 43 per cent, of the U.K. about 9 per cent, and the rest of
Western Europe 17 per cent. The developed West and Japan together account for 84 per cent.
Finally, and most significantly, India does not even figure in the list of 27 developing countries, which have an impact of
2.5 or higher. In other words, Indian scientists are among the least quoted of Third World scientists. (Argentina, Mexico
and Brazil figure prominently in the list, and even Thailand and tiny Jamaica have a relatively high rating as measured by
the rather limited definition of "impact"). Interestingly, about quarter of all citations received by Indian authors are in
Indian-published scientific journals themselves.
This is not to argue that Indian scientists have a low calibre. They certainly do not; as individuals many do compare well
with their counterparts (and Indian expatriates) elsewhere. But the quality of scientific research involves much more
than individual merit; it has more to do with priorities, clear definition of goals, coordination, critical levels of investment,
and the management of R & D programmes and their leadership. It is here that science in India is weak and of indifferent
quality.
But this is not uniformly true of all fields of scientific activity in the country. India's most cited articles are in four fields:
biochemistry, physics (Mainly theoretical physics), chemistry and organometallic chemistry. This is widely recognized
the world over.
Yet these are fields that account for much less than ten percent of the country's R & D budget. Significantly, the big
money- guzzlers in the budget, such as nuclear power, space, oceanography, electronics, most of "big physics" areas,
etc. are also among the lowest - impact fields. The only significant exception to this are oil exploration and some areas
of agricultural research such as developing new genotypes of seeds, etc. Obviously there is a major mismatch between
what the country is spending on and the quality of the results the investment has produced. Clearly, the priorities of
research are wrong and in all likelihood socially inappropriate.
20. The one field that appears to have produced reasonably good impact considering the amount of funds allocated
to it, is
(1) Theoretical physics (2) Biochemistry
(3) Oil exploration (4) Organometallic chemistry
21. Which of the following country has the least number of articles written by scientists engaged in research?
(1) U. K. (2) USA
(3) Japan (4) Western Europe
22. According to the author which of the following statements is incorrect-

(1) The quality of scientific research does not depend on the calibre of individual scientists.
(2) Indian scientists compare well with their counterparts elsewhere in the matter of calibre.
(3) In sheer output, the Indian scientist is less than half as productive as his counterpart in developed countries.
(4) Indian scientist is less than half as productive as his counterparts in the Third World countries.
PASSAGE
Generally speaking, there are 2 major types of rape. Forcible rape involves unwanted sexual penetration obtained by the
use of force or threat of force. Drug or alcohol-facilitated rape occurs when the victim is passed out or highly intoxicated
because of voluntary or involuntary consumption of alcohol or drugs. Rape is not an experience that only happens to
adult women. Data from carefully conducted epidemiological studies suggest that more than half of women who have
been raped were first raped before age 18. Many women who have been raped have been raped more than once; women
who seek treatment for a recent rape may have been raped in childhood or in adolescence. Although the stereotype is
that most perpetrators are strangers, the data indicate that perpetrators are much more likely to be someone the victim
knows well. Many people expect victims of rape to have sustained serious physical injuries, the reality is that most rape
victims sustain either minor or no physical injuries, perhaps because most of them are fearful that the perpetrator will kill
or seriously injure them if they resist.
There is substantial evidence that rape is a major problem for women in the United States. The best epidemiological
studies indicate that the lifetime prevalence of forcible rape (ie, the proportion of women who have been raped) is
between 12.6% and 16.1%. One recent national survey found that 18% of a national probability sample of women in the
United States had been victims of at least 1 forcible rape (16.1%) or drug- or alcohol-facilitated rape (5.4%). Based on
2005 US Census data, this means that an estimated 20.2 million women have been raped. This same study found that the
past-year prevalence (ie, the proportion of the sample who had been raped within the past year) was 0.94%, or an
estimated 1.1 million women. Recent lifetime prevalence estimates of forcible rape are higher than those obtained in the
early 1990s using similar methodology and suggest that the prevalence of rape in the United States has increased over
the past 2 decades. Furthermore, past-year prevalence estimates for forcible rape are comparable to those reported in the
early 1990s, raising doubts about claims that the annual incidence of rape is decreasing. Data from a large probability
sample of psychiatric patients with serious mental illnesses found that the lifetime prevalence and past-year prevalence
of rape was substantially higher in female patients than the estimates recently reviewed. This suggests that a history of
rape victimisation is not uncommon in patients with psychiatric disorders.
Rape and other forms of sexual assault have broad-reaching effects on many levels, including basic needs, functional
impairment, physical health, and mental health. Although chronic psychopathology does not develop in most rape or
sexual assault victims, these forms of traumatic victimization are associated with a higher prevalence of posttraumatic
stress disorder, PTSD, than are other types of traumatic events. For example, the National Women's Study, an
epidemiological survey of 4008 women, found the lifetime prevalence of PTSD resulting from rape and sexual assault to
be 32% and 30.8%, respectively, compared with a prevalence of 9.4% caused by non- crime-related trauma (eg, motor
vehicle accident). Population-based studies indicate that about 1 in 9 women have met criteria for PTSD at some point
during their lifetime. In real population numbers, these estimates equate to about 11 million women in the United States.
Other common mental health consequences of rape are major depression and alcohol or drug abuse.
23. According to the author, which of the following statement is NOT true
(1) Most women are raped before the age of 18 years.
(2) Most victims have been raped more than once.
(3) Most perpetrators are likely to be known to the victim.
(4) Most of the victims are adult women.
24. As per the surveys, which of the following estimates can be inferred
(1) In the U.S. the prevalence of rape has decreased in the last twenty years.
(2) Rape victimisation is uncommon in patients with psychiatric disorders.
(3) Traumatic stress due to a rape assault is more than that of non-crime related trauma.
(4) Every ninth women in US suffers from PTSD.
25. What is NOT an effect of rape or sexual assault on a woman?

(1) Post traumatic stress disorder (2) Serious physical injuries
(3) Functional impairment (4) Effect on physical and mental health

SECTION II
DIRECTIONS: For the following questions, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
26. If PQ = 10 and P 2 Q + PQ 2 + P + Q = 99, then P2 + Q 2 is equal to

(1) 61 (2) 65
(3) 51 (4) 55
27. A curve follows a cubic equation a 1 x 3 + a 2 x 2 + a 3 x + a 4 = 0 and another curve is to be formed with
a 1 = 1. Also, two roots of both the cubic equations have the same magnitude and sign, while the unequal root of the
second equation is twice the unequal root of the first equation. The percentage change in the constant term is
(1) 200% decrease (2) 200% increase
(3) 100% increase (4) Cannot be determined
28. Ram was presented with a cake and he wants to obtain the maximum number of pieces with a certain number of
straight line slices. If he uses one slice, he will get 2 pieces. Two slices will give him 4 pieces, but if he wants the
maximum number of pieces, the third slice should avoid the intersection of first two slices. If Ram was presented
with a cake of radius 10 cm, and he cuts the maximum number of pieces, using 8 straight line slices, then the number
of pieces will be
(1) 35 (2) 37
(3) 40 (4) None of these
1
29. In a right triangle, the probability of one of the angles to be 60° is . What is the probability of at least one of the
2
angles to be of 30°?
1
(1) (2) 1
4
1
(3) (4) Cannot be determined
2
D
30. All the three quadrilaterals ADEC, ABIH and BCGF are squares and angle
E
ABC = 90 o. If the area of ADEC = x2 and area of AHIB = y2 (x2 > y2), then the A
area of BCGF is H
I C
B
(1) (x + y) (x – y) (2) (x + y) 2
(3) (x – y) 2 (4) None of these
F G

31. For what value of x is the given function defined?
f ( x) = x − 1 + 2 1 − x + x 2 + 1
(1) x≥1 (2) x≤1
(3) –∞<x≤∞ (4) x=1
32. In a group of 100 students, more students learn French than English. If 70 students learn English and 20 learn
neither French nor English, then what is the minimum number of students who learn both French and English?
(1) 10 (2) 60
(3) 61 (4) 71
33. A milk vendor sells 10 litres of milk from a can of 40 litres (of pure milk) to customer 1. He then fills the can with 10
litres of water and again sells 10 litres of mixture to customer 2. He again fills 10 litres of water in the can and again
sells 10 litres of mixture to customer 3 and so on. What is the amount of pure milk that the 5th customer will receive?
510 410
(1) litre (2) litre
128 128
405 505
(3) litre (4) litre
128 128
34. For all x such that 1 ≤ x ≤ 3, the inequality (x – 3a)(x – a – 3) < 0 holds for
2
(1) no value of a (2) all a satisfying < a<1
3
1 1 2
(3) all a satisfying 0 < a < (4) all a satisfying < a<
3 3 3
35. The smallest prime number that is the fifth term of an increasing arithmetic sequence for which all four preceding
terms are also prime, is
(1) 17 (2) 37
(3) 29 (4) 53
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following infomation and answer the questions that follow.
A regular polygon with n sides is such that the angle subtended by its sides at its centre is 12 more than the angle
subtended by an (n + 1)-sided regular polygon. If the area of the circle (circumcircle) which inscribes the n-sided
polygon is 3850 mm 2, then:
22
(Given π = and sin 54 = 0.8 and cos 54 = 0.6)
7
36. The area of the n-sided polygon will be

(1) 2490 mm2 (2) 1470 mm2
(3) 1650 mm2 (4) None of these
37. The area of the polygon with (n + 1) sides (sides being equal to that of the n-sided regular polygon) will be
(1) 3441√3 mm2 (2) 2221√2 mm2
(3) 3434√3 mm2 (4) None of these

38. A, B, C are decimal numbers with MOD (x) = x truncated to the nearest integer less than or equal to x.
If p = MOD (A + B + C) and q = MOD (A) + MOD (B) + MOD (C), then the maximum value that p – q can attain is
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
S
39. In the adjoining figure, the measure of ∠ POQ is equal to 128° and on extension SO
is perpendicular to chord PQ of the circle with centre O. The measure of ∠ TPS is T R
O
(1) 36° (2) 26°
P M Q
(3) 34° (4) 32°
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following information to answer the questions that follow.
Two large planes hijacked almost simultaneously from airports at the Prince town and Queen city. The distance
between the Princetown Airport (PTAP) and Queencity Airport (QCAP) is 800 km. They crashed into the symbol
of establishment and enterprise – the two buildings of Memorial Trade Centre in Queen city.
The country had never faced a terrorist attack on this scale. Nearly 20,000 people had trickled into the office at
9:00 am, when the plane crashed into the first building.
Television cameras were showing smoke billowing from this building. While 23 minutes later, the second plane,
what appeared to be a Boeing-747, flew into the belly of the second building in an unforgettable manner.
When the Jet plane had crashed into the first building, at that time the Boeing-747 was flying 8000 m from QCAP
and was flying away from it towards MTC. The PTAP, QCAP and the MTC (Memorial Trade Centre) are respectively
in a straight line.
The ambulances of Health plus hospital, which is just near the QCAP had reached at MTC at 11 am, which was sent
from the hospital after 20 minutes of the accident of first plane, with an average speed of 60 kmph. It is also known
that the Boeing-747 flew from PTAP.
40. When had the Boeing-747 taken off? (Assume Boeing 747 flew on a constant speed over the entire journey)
(1) 5 : 38 am (2) 5 : 30 am
(3) 6 : 32 am (4) 6 : 02 am
41. The speed of jet plane was

(1) 320 kmph (2) 350 kmph
(3) 340 kmph (4) Cannot be determined
42. The speed of Boeing-747 was

(1) 320 kmph (2) 240 kmph
(3) 250 kmph (4) 300 kmph

43. a and b are digits, both greater than 1, such that a < b and a + b < ab also a + b, (a + b) n , (a + b) n+1 have the same last
digit. ab, (ab) n , (ab) n+1 have the same last digit. The least value of a is
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5
44. The time of oscillation of a pendulum varies as the square root of the length. The times of oscillation of three
pendulums are proportional to a, b and c. If the second is d cm longer than the first, then the difference in the
lengths of the second and the third is
c−b 2 c2 − b2
(1) d (2) d
b−a b 2 + c2
c2 − b2 c2 − b 2
(3) d (4)
b2 − a 2 ( a − b) d
45. The A.M. of a, b, c is greater than the A.M. of b, c, d and the A.M. of b, c, d is less than the A.M. of c, d, e. A five-
digit number abcde is formed using these digits (which are all distinct and non-zero) then the difference between
such a largest and smallest possible number is
(1) 74243 (2) 74144
(3) 74054 (4) None of these
xy
46. If x = 2 + 2r + 2r 2 + .... ∞ , y = 3 – 3r + 3r 2 – 3r 3 .... ∞, and z = 6 + 6r 2 + 6r 4 +..... ∞ , r < 1, then is equal to
z
(1) 2 (2) 1
1 1
(3) (4)
2 4
47. If [x] is greatest integer less than or equal to x, then the numbers of value(s) of x which satisfy the equation |x|[x] + x =
3 is/are
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) More than 2
48. Given graph represents

2
(1) f (x) = 3f (–x) 1

(2) f (x) = f (–x)
(3) f (x) = –f (–x)
–2 –1 1 2
(4) f (x) = 2f (–x)

49. There is a rectangular box 8 × 4 × 18 m 3 . An insect starts from the corner P,
crawls along the outer surfaces (faces only) and reaches the corner T by the S
T
shortest possible route as shown in the figure. If we assume that the insect
continuously keeps on ascending to reach its destination, then the distance 18
travelled by it is
R
(1) 40 m (2) 30 m Q
4
P
(3) 25 m (4) 20 m 8
50. A long strip of paper is wound tightly round a cylinder of 10 cm in diameter and overall diameter of the roll is 30 cm.
What would be the overall diameter if the same strip is wound round a cylinder of diameter 30 cm?
(1) 60 cm (2) 41.23 cm
(3) 45.25 cm (4) 48.78 cm

SECTION III
In order to gain full course credit for her tour of a foreign city, Sue must visit exactly seven famous points of
interest – a factory, a garden, the harbour, a library, a museum, a palace and a theatre. Any tour plan that Sue
devises will allow her to keep to her timetable and is thus acceptable, except that she must plan her tour to conform
to the following conditions.
The factory must be one of the first three points visited.
The harbour must be visited immediately before the garden.
The library can be neither the first nor the last point visited.
The museum must be either the first or the last point visited.
The palace must be one of the last three points visited.
51. Sue begins her tour at the harbour. Which of the following could be the fourth point of interest she would visit on
the tour?
(1) The factory (2) The garden
(3) The library (4) The museum
52. If Sue is to visit the palace sixth, then she could visit the harbour in any of the following positions except
(1) first (2) second
(3) fourth (4) fifth
53. If Sue visits exactly one point of interest between her visits to the factory and the palace, then that point must be either the
(1) garden or the harbour. (2) library or the theatre.
(3) harbour or the museum. (4) library or the museum.
In a telecommunication cable assembly plant, cables are assembled by twisting plastic coated wires together.
There are wires of exactly six different solid colours – red, yellow, violet, green, white and black. Wires must be
assembled into single cables according to the following rules.
1. Each cable must contain at least three wires and wires of at least three different colours.
2. At most two wires in a single cable can be black.
3. At most two wires in a single cable can be white.
4. There can be at most one wire of each of the other colours in a single cable.
5. If one wire is red, then one wire must be yellow.
6. If one wire is violet, then no wire can be green.
54. Which of the following could be the complete set of wires in an acceptable cable assembly?
(1) A green wire, a white wire and a violet wire. (2) A violet wire, a black wire and a white wire.
(3) A red wire, a black wire and a green wire. (4) A yellow wire and exactly two black wires.

55. The maximum number of wires that can be used in an acceptable cable assembly is
(1) 8 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 5
56. If exactly one black wire and exactly one white wire is used in an assembled cable, then which of the following must
be true?
(1) The cable contains not more than five wires. (2) The cable contains exactly six wires.
(3) The cable contains a yellow wire. (4) The cable does not contain a red wire.
DIRECTIONS: Following question is followed by two statements, (I) and (II). Answer each question using the following
instructions. Mark your answer as
(1), if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but cannot be answered by using the other
statement alone.
(2), if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(3), if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but cannot be answered by using either
statement alone.
(4), if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.
57. A feisty cockroach, which is allowed to move only along its paths starts from the point (3, 4), in a two-dimensional
plane. When will the cockroach reach the origin (0, 0) if it starts at 10:00 a.m.?
(A) The speed of the cockroach is 2 m/s.
(B) The path of the cockroach is defined as y = |x + 1|.
58. There are two persons A and B. How many days are required by A and B, working independently to complete the
same job?
(A) Working together, they can complete the given job in 15 days.
(B) When A works at half of his original rate and B works at one-third of his original rate, they (both working
together) can complete the same job in 30 more days than the number of days required to complete the job
when they are working at their original rate.
DIRECTIONS: For the following questions, four options are given. Choose the best option.
59. Ramola Sikand recently got engaged.

Her fiance is either Anup, Bhanu, Kunal or Manoj.
Each of the four men and Ramola Sikand either tells the truth or lie.
Anup says: “Exactly one of the men always tell the truth.”
Bhanu says: “Exactly one of the men always tells lies.”
Kunal says: “Anup or Bhanu is Ramola Sikand’s fiance.”
Ramola Sikand says: “My fiance and I either both always tell the truth or both always lie.”
Who is Ramola Sikand’s fiance?
(1) Kunal (2) Bhanu
(3) Manoj (4) Anup

60. One of the four people Mr. Clinton, his wife Monika, their son Mandy and their daughter Cindy, is a singer and
another is a dancer. Mr. Clinton is older than his wife and Mandy is older than his sister.
If the singer and the dancer are of same sex, then the dancer is older than the singer.
If neither the singer nor the dancer is the parent of the other, then the singer is older than the dancer.
If the singer is a man, then the singer and the dancer are of the same age.
If the singer and the dancer are of opposite sex, then the woman is older than the man.
Which of the following combinations could be correct?
(1) Clinton-dancer (2) Cindy-singer
(3) Clinton-singer (4) Mandy-singer
61. Last Saturday, Rakesh went for the late night show and came in late. In the morning, everyone asked him which
movie he saw. He gave different answers to all of them. He told his father that he had gone to see MONEY.
According to his mom, he saw either JOHNY or BABLU. His elder brother came to know that he saw BHABI. To his
sister, he told ROBOT. And his grandpa heard that he saw BUNNY. Thus, Rakesh gave six movie names, all five letter
words. But he actually saw a completely different movie with a five-letter name. Moreover, each of the six movie
names mentioned above had exactly two letters common with the movie he saw (in the same position). Which movie
did Rakesh see?
(1) BHALU (2) MOHNI
(3) BOBBY (4) BANNU
62. Appa, Chappa and Tappa often dine out.

Each orders either coffee or tea after dinner.
If Appa orders coffee, then Chappa orders the drink that Tappa orders.
If Chappa orders coffee, then Appa orders the drink that Tappa doesn't order.
If Tappa orders tea, then Appa orders the drink that Chappa orders.
Who do you know always orders the same drink after dinner?
(1) Appa (2) Chappa
(3) Tappa (4) None of these
63. Manas departmental store employs five workers – Aditi, Gautam, Sahil, Manish and Prashant – each of whom works
alone on exactly one day, Monday through Friday. They obey the following conditions
(i) Aditi works only on Mondays or on Wednesdays.
(ii) Gautam will not work on Wednesdays or on Fridays.
(iii) Manish works before Sahil and both work on consecutive days.
If Gautam cannot work either immediately before or after Prashant, then which one of the following must be true?
(1) Prashant works on Monday. (2) Prashant works on Tuesday.
(3) Prashant works on Thursday. (4) Prashant works on Friday.

DIRECTIONS: Read the information to answer the questions that follow.
After Indian Institute of Technology Joint Entrance Examination (IIT JEE) 380 students took admission in five
branches of IIT Kanpur namely Computer Science, Electronics, Mechanical, Electrical and Civil. After completion
of one year, students tried to change their branch but only few could do it. Priority for opting a branch is Computer
Science, Electronics, Mechanical, Electrical and Civil respectively, which all students follow.
For example if a student of Mechanical wants to change his/her branch he/she will first opt for Computer Science
and then Electronics. He/she never opts for branches of lower priority than him/her.
Priority of students decided on the basis of their Cummulative grade point accrued (CGPA) scored in the first year
exams. CGPA varies from 1 to 10. The student with higher CGPA will get the higher branch mentioned in the
priority order. For example if there are two students from Mechanical branch with CGPA 10 and 9 respectively,
and there are only one place vacant in each of the branches Computer Science and Electronics then the student
with highter CGPA(10) will get the Computer Science branch and the student with lower CGPA (9) will get the
Electronics branch.
The following Bar Graph shows the number of students in IIT Kanpur in first year and second year in different
branches. Pie chart shows CGPA scored by the students in first year.
No. of Students
First Year Second Year 100 100
Cummulative grade point accrued
100 90 90 (CGPA)
80
80 75
(8-10)
60 60 15%
60 55
50 (6-8)
10%
40
(4-6)
20 75%
0
Computer Electronics Mechanical Electrical Civil
64. Maximum and minimum mechanical students who can opt for electronics when 5 students of civil chooses computer
science is
(1) 50, 0 (2) 55, 25
(3) 40, 30 (4) none of these
65. Maximum students who can change their branch is

(1) 75 (2) 55
(3) 110 (4) 170
66. If 50% of civil students who changed their branch got C.G.P.A. of 10 out of 10, maximum people of electrical
engineering changing their branch is
(1) 60 (2) 25
(3) 55 (4) 40
67. Only those students were allowed to change their branch, who got C.G.P.A. 8. or more than 8 then minimum and
maximum number of students who could change their branch.
(1) 30, 55 (2) 57, 95
(3) 55, 110 (4) 110, 170

DIRECTIONS: The following table shows the exchange rates and interest rates of currency of various countries. Refer
to the table and answer the questions that follow.
Currency Units Short Term

Interest Rates (in
Country Per $ Per £
percentage per
On 2nd March 2004 On 2nd March 2003 On 2nd March 2004 annum)
China 8.28 CNY (Chinese Yuan) 8.28 CNY 15.8 CNY 4.98
Hong Kong 7.8 HKD (Hong Kong Dollar) 7.79 HKD 14.9 HKD 2.1
India 43.6 INR (Indian Rupees) 45.2 INR 83.4 INR 4.82
Indonesia 9284 IDR (Indonesian Rupian) 8563 IDR 17, 733 IDR 7.56
Malaysia 3.8 MYR (Ringgit) 3.8 MYR 7.26 MYR 2.82
Phillipines 54.8 PHP (Phillipines Peso) 56.3 PHP 104.6 PHP 6.25
Singapore 1.63 SGD (Singapore Dollar) 1.7 SGD 3.1 SGD 1.94
South Korea 1008 KRW (South Korean Won) 1167 KRW 1925 KRW 3.55
Taiwan 30.8 TWD (New Taiwan Dolllar) 33.2 TWD 58.7 TWD 1.35
Thailand 38.3 THB (Thailand Baht) 39.5 THB 73.3 THB 2.53
Argentina 2.96 ARS (Argentine Peso) 2.89 ARS 5.65 ARS 4.44
Brazil 2.63 BRL (Brazilian Real) 2.91 BRL 5.02 BRL 18.74
Chile 588 CLP (Chilean Peso) 609 CLP 1123 CLP 2.88
Colombia 2328 COP (Colombian Peso) 2650 COP 4447 COP 7.42
Mexico 11.1 MXN (Mexican Peso) 11 MXN 21.2 MXN 9.33
Peru 3.26 PEN (Nuevo Sol) 3.47 PEN 6.23 PEN 3.04
Venezuela 2667 VEB (Bolivar) 3449 VEB 5095 VEB 12.04
Egypt 5.81 EGP (Egyptian Pound) 6.19 EGP 11.09 EGP 9.9
Israel 4.33 NIS (New Sheqel) 4.49 NIS 8.28 NIS 1
South Africa 5.92 ZAR (Rand) 6.76 ZAR 11.3 ZAR 7.6
Czech Republic 22.6 CZK (Czech Kourna) 27.2 CZK 43.1 CZK 2.18
Hungary 184 HUF (Foring) 210 HUF 352 HUF 7.82
Poland 3 PLN (Zloty) 3.87 PLN 5.74 PLN 6.3
Russia 27.7 RUR (Russian Rouble) 28.5 RUR 53 RUR 13
Turkey 1.35 TRL (Turkish Lira) 1.33 TRL 2.58 TRL 18.7
68. Which of the following conclusion/s is/are not valid with respect to the table given?
I. The value one dollar is equal 1.91 pounds (approximately).
II. Poland has the maximum percentage change in the currency unit per $ from 2 nd March 2003 to 2 nd March 2004.
(1) Only statement I (2) Both I and II
(3) Only statement II (4) None of these
Additional direction for Q.69 and Q.70:

CAFECAFE Ltd., takes a loan of 0.1 million BRL(Brazilian Real) on 2nd March 2003 for one year from Brazil. It
then purchases the coffee seeds from the local market at the rate of 4 BRL per kg of all the borrowed amount,
spends US$ 1000 on transportation and refines the seeds in a plant in United States. It gets 0.8 kg of refined coffee
for each kg of coffee seed. Refining costs US$ 3 per kg. The Company then sells the refined coffee in the market
all over the world.
69. What will be the profit of the company in March 2004, if the company sells all the refined coffee in United States at
the rate of $4 per kg?
(1) US$ 0.004 million (2) US$ 0.075 million
(3) US$ 0.08 million (4) US$ 0.09 million

70. If in India, China, Mexico and Egypt the rate of coffee per kg respectively is Rs.80, CNY(Chinese Yuan) 11, MXN 20
and EGP 15 and the company sells 25% of the refined coffee produced each to India, China, Mexico and Egypt, then
what will be value of the total sales of the company in March 2004?
(1) US$ 41000 (2) US$ 31400
(3) US$ 37700 (4) US$ 29700
71. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g t r a n s a c t i o n s g i v e s t h e m a x i m u m p r o f i t ? ( U s e t h e c u r r e n c y r a t e s a n d i n t e r e s t
r a t e s a s o n 2 nd M a r c h 2 0 0 4 )
I. Take a loan of 0.05 million NIS(New Sheqel) from Israel then change half the amount to MXN(Mexican Peso)
and invest it at the rate of 5% per annum for one year in Mexico and change the rest amount to HUF(Hungarian
Forint) and invest it at the rate of 7% per annum for one year in Hungary.
II. Take a loan of 0.05 million EGP(Egyptian Pound) from Egypt change in INR(Indian Rupees) and invest it at the
rate of 19.9% per annum for one year in India.
III. Take a loan of 0.05 million KRW(South Korean Won) and invest the amount in 5 equal parts in Indonesia,
Taiwan, Venezuela, Russia and Turkey at the rate of 1%, 2%, 3%, 4% and 5% respectively.
(1) Transaction I
(2) Transaction II
(3) Transaction III
(4) All three transactions have the same profit.
72. What will be the combined value of 120 SGD(Singapore Dollar), 60 PLN(Zloty) and 180 ARS(Argentine Peso), in
pound sterling terms on 2nd March 2004?
(1) £ 81 (2) £ 75
(3) £ 92 (4) £ 47

DIRECTIONS: The bar graph given below shows the coverage in number of cities in Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
(MP-CG) states of particular post-paid scheme of top five service providers as on 31 December 2005. The table shows
the number of users per connection, (This is more than number of connection because all these companies provide
group scheme also wherein same SIM can be used by at the maximum 3 users. For example a same SIM can be used by
Husband as well as Wife.), call charges per minute (same service provider/ other service provider) and group-usage
discount slab.
Coverage in number of cities
Smart 65
Service Providers
Tata Indicom 75
Idea 131
RIM 210
Airtel 230
Coverage in No. of cities
Call Charges Rs. Per Call Charges Rs. Per

No. of
Service Minute (STD) Same Minute (LOCAL) Same
users per Group Discount Salb*
Provider Service Provider/Other Service Provider/Other
connection
Service Provider Service Provider
10% upto Rs. 1000:
Airtel 1.12 1.00 / 1.50 0.49 / 0.99 15% from Rs. 1000 to Rs. 1500
25% Rs. 1500 on wards
12% upto Rs. 1000
RIM 1.15 0.75 / 1.25 0.25 / 1.19 15% from 1000 to 2000
24% 2000 on wards
10% upto Rs. 1000
Idea 1.07 1.00 / 1.50 0.49 / 0.99 15% from 1000 to 1500
25% 1500 on wards
20% upto Rs. 1000
TATA 1 0.75 / 1.25 0.25 / 0.75 25% from 1000 to 1500
35% 1500 on wards
10% upto Rs. 1000
Smart 1.02 1.00 / 1.50 0.49 / 0.99 15% from 1000 to 1500
25% 1500 on wards
* Discount scheme is available for only group scheme users only
73. If total cities in MP-CG together is 250 then minimum number of cities in which all the three Idea, RIM, Airtel has its
connections is
(1) 65 (2) 131
(3) 75 (4) 71

74. If in each town there are 4000 connections of Airtel then maximum revenue collection possible is
(1) Rs. 15, 45, 600 per minute (2) Rs. 15, 65, 620 per minute
(3) Rs. 15, 86, 943 per minute (4) Rs. 17, 58, 432 per minute
75. A particular town in MP is an industrial town which in a particular month gave the maximum possible revenue
collection. What could be the break up of Airtel, RIM, IDEA, TATA and Smart in it respectively.
(1) 160 : 143 : 168 : 125 : 153 (2) 168 : 143 : 160 : 125 : 153
(3) 56 : 150 : 160 : 125 : 153 (4) None of these

Prac-CAT # 19
A N A LY S I S
ANALYSIS
Detailed Solutions
1. Ans.(1). 1C and DA are the keys. C is the appropriate link to 1, establishing that research
disproves conventional perception of working women. B follows. Thereafter, D suggests
that modern women want to work and be financially independent. A follows, explaining
why. It links to 6 that furthers the explanation. Option (2): Both A and 6 explain what
working and being financially independent does for a woman. Hence, A should follow D,
not precede it. Option (3): B apparently links well to A and 6, but if one looks carefully,
one realises that “it” in 6 refers to being able to work since it speaks of actualising
herself. It doesn't link to being in control of her destiny – that, instead, is an objective
accomplished through working. Option (4): C, when following D, changes the meaning
of the entire passage, suggesting irrelevance of the desire to work. Thus, the correct
order is CBDA and the answer is (1).
2. Ans.(2). 1DC is the key. “Despite what men may or may not be doing” connects to “…seems
reconciled to the fact …” in D. Thereafter, C says that it doesn't matter to her as she will still
pursue her goals. A, then describes her transition to a place of respect and admiration. B
adds by saying that when she is able to contribute to household expenses, thanks to her
working status, it only supports her decision to pursue her goals through increased status
and power. This finally links to 6. Option (1): It would be a feasible order but 1DC is a
stronger link. Option (3): C with its “… it doesn't matter” lends a contradictory tone to the
important realisation of women regarding the need for well-defined roles and identities,
in 1. Option (4): B is not only an inappropriate link to 1 but also disturbs the 1DC link.
Hence, the correct order is DCAB and the answer is (2).
3. Ans.(2). Statement E clearly introduces the situation of the incredibility of the comeback.
Statement B furthers it by explaining how the comeback was “incredible”. Statement D
PT Education, All rights reserved.
then follows, by establishing an initial mistake. Obviously, statement C should follow.

But, the catch is statement A. Since, denying a mistake is a reaction to guilt which is
wrong and it is also something that most people do, A comes between D and C. Options
(1) and (4): These are clearly ruled out as E cannot be anything but the introductory line
of the passage. Moses reacted to his guilt in a manner in which one shouldn't. So, it
being a mistake, A should follow D instead of preceding it, thus ruling out option (3). So,
the correct order is EBDAC and the answer is (2).
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Our motto “Kar ke dikhayenge” is delivered through our

unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDPro engine).
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IC : PTpnrps19
IC : PTpnrps19 (1) of (14)
4. Ans.(4). DC is the key. This particular paragraph is opened by D. Statement C follows with “In
fact,” trying to explain that the expansion model followed by Bharti will come handy since less
cash consumed will help in fighting the price wars. Statement B is a comment by one of the analysts
mentioned in C. A concludes the paragraph by citing the bottom line – that there is enough money
coming in for expansion which fulfils the purpose. Option (1): B is a quote from one of the analysts
mentioned in C and hence B must follow C instead of preceding it. Option (2): C is an advantage
of the business model followed by Bharti and so should follow D. Option (3): A is a statement
which is conclusive in nature, telling us that it is not a problem if the expansion is funded by bank
borrowings instead of the cheaper foreign equity, since money is anyway coming in. Hence, it
should come after the comparison of borrowings and equity has already been made. Thus, the
correct order is DCBA and the answer is (4).
5. Ans.(3). Statements B and C are correct. Statements A and D are incorrect. In statement A, “was”
should replace “were”. Words joined to a singular subject by “with” are parenthetical. The verb
should, therefore, be put in the singular. In statement D, “was” should replace “were”. Two or
more singular subjects, connected by “nor”, require a singular verb.
6. Ans.(3). Statements C and D are correct. Statements A and B are incorrect. Statement A should be
written as: “Where have you been?” In statement B, “is” should replace “are”. When a plural noun
denotes some specific quantity or amount considered as a whole, the verb is generally singular.
7. Ans.(3). Statements A and C are correct. Statements B and D are incorrect. Statement B should be
written as: “His diet was abstemious; his prayers were long and fervent”. In a compound sentence,
a single verb can be made to do the duty for two subjects only when the form of the verb permits
it. Here, the second part requires “were” to indicate the action performed. In statement D, the
word “about” after “discuss”, is wrong. The verb “discuss” is transitive, and, should not be
followed by a preposition.
8. Ans.(3). Clearly, the passage tries to establish that one gains experience in the work arena with
age and that experience is valuable in various aspects. Thus, option (3) successfully establishes
the theme. Option (2) is incomplete and options (1) and (4) are irrelevant.
9. Ans.(3). The miserable person wants everyone else to be miserable too. Hence, all efforts are
made to make others miserable. Option (3) thus best encapsulates the theme of the passage.
Option (1) talks about what one should do to be in tune with the Infinite, not what a miserable
person does. Option (2) is too generalised and talks about the way a person perceives the world.
Option (4) is irrelevant. Thus, option (3) is the correct answer.
10. Ans.(1). Option 1 is correct. ‘Paradigm’ means a model or approach that is people friendly and
protects the interests of present and future generations needs to be adopted for development.
Option 2 is incorrect as the purpose of a new proposal would not be to harm future generations.
Option 3 is incorrect as enactment means making a law which here is not within the purview of a
UNDP Report. Option 4 is incorrect as a forum is only a place or meeting where a public option
is garnered. This is beyond the context of the sentence.
11. Ans.(4). Option 4 is correct as ‘litany’ means a long monotonous recital or discourse. People are
willing to listen to someone only for sometime but if the speaker goes on seemingly forever everyone
becomes restless. Option 1 is wrong as ‘dialogue’ is used in a conversation or discussion among
a small group. A congregation indicates a larger group. Moreover people would not be appeased
or happy considering the subject of the talk. Options 2 and 3 are incorrect as any talk on the
subject indicated would not lead people to become agitated or disoriented, At most considering
the issue of moral responsibility they may become restless.
12. Ans.(4). “Lucidity” in option (1) is contextually unsuitable for the first blank. “Intensifying” and
“sublimating” are unsuitable for the second blank. Hence, the answer is option (4).
(2) of (14) IC : PTpnrps19

13. Ans.(1). “Apparition” (sudden or dramatic appearance, especially of a ghost or phantom) of
option (3) and “appeal” of option (4) are completely unsuitable for the first blank. “Appendant”
(attached in a subordinate capacity) and “augmentation” (enlargement, growth, increase) of
option (3) pale in comparison to “appendage” (an addition; something attached) and “authority”
of option (1). Hence, option (1) is the answer.
14. Ans.(2). It is out of habit that the poor, who are envious of the rich, remain within the limits of their
status and thus do not revolt to overthrow the rich. The poor, out of habit continue to exist where
they belong. Like the author later states, 'It keeps different social strata from mixing.' Therefore,
option 2 best describes the meaning of the opening sentence.
15. Ans.(3). The options 1 and 4 have a negative connotation but the passage does not demean the
affects of habit. Also the author does not give reasons of why we are alike - so even option 2 is
out. However, option 3 aptly describes the theme of the passage and is thus the most apt one.
16. Ans.(1). Options 2, 3 and 4 represent the authors view and are thus true. However, option 1 is
contrary to the theory put across here as the author feels that it is only habit that prevents people
from giving up even the hardest and treading upon the most repulsive walks of life. It does not
encourage them to do so. Therefore, option 1 is the correct one.
17. Ans.(4). As the second para explains women's liberation has emboldened writers to explore
their sexuality and private world of self, therefore option 1 and 3 are out. Paragraph 4 explains
that domesticity has been taken up by writers so option 2 is also out. Option 4 is the correct one
as the larger social issues have not been commonly written about so far and are now experimented
upon in the writings of black women.
18. Ans.(1). Option 2 is incorrect as this was not the reason for the black women to liberate. Option
3 is out as it they are contradictory to the author's opinion. Option 4 is also out as the main
difference between the writings of black and white women is the social degradation the former
suffers and not their concern with the sheltered world of self. Thus option 1 is the correct answer
as is apparent from the second paragraph.
19. Ans.(4). All options 1, 2 and 3 represent the author's views; however option 4 is contrary to what
the author feels. In the last paragraph, the author commends the ability of the black women
writers to transcribe the painful facts of their existence without a trace of bitterness and anger.
Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.
20. Ans.(3). The second last paragraph of the passage discusses the impact of various fields vis-à-
vis the money spent on it by the government. The author states that biochemistry, organometallic
chemistry, theoretical physics have seen scientific activity in India and a lot of money has been
spent on R & D of nuclear power but the field that has had made reasonably good impact despite
the country's low spendings is oil exploration and some agricultural research. Therefore option
3 is the right answer.
21. Ans.(1). In the third paragraph of the passage the author compares the articles published in the
journals and UK accounts for only 9% share, which is the lowest among all. Therefore option 1
is the correct one.
22. Ans.(4). Option 1 is correct as stated in paragraph 5. In terms of calibre also, Indian scientists
compare well with their counterparts and Indian expatriates, as stated in para 5. In the second
paragraph, the author compares the sheer output of Indian scientists to those of developed
countries and states that they are less than half as productive, therefore option 3 is also out. The
author states that Indian scientists are less productive than average scientists in some third
world countries but he does not quantify this nor says that they are less than half as productive.
Therefore option 4 is incorrect and thus the right answer.
23. Ans.(4). According to the passage, half of women who have been raped were raped before the
age of 18 and most victims have been raped more than once. The data also indicates that most
perpetrators are known to the victim and they do not sustain physical injuries during rape. The
passage clearly indicates that most of the rape victims are not adult women, and hence, Option
4 is the correct answer.
24. Ans.(3). All the options above are the inferences from the data collated in the passage, however
they have been tampered with to make them incorrect except for Option 3, which is correct. The
last paragraph of the passage clearly states that traumatic stress due to a rape assault is more
than that of non-crime related trauma. Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.
25. Ans.(2). All the effects of rape or sexual assault have been discussed in the passage. The passage
also clearly indicates that the reality is that most rape victims sustain either minor or no physical
injuries, perhaps because most of them are fearful that the perpetrator will kill or seriously injure
them if they resist. Therefore, serious physical injury is not an effect of rape and thus Option 2 is
the correct answer.
26. P 2Q + PQ 2 + P + Q = 99 ⇒ PQ(P + Q) + (P + Q) = 99 ⇒ (PQ + 1)(P + Q) = 99.
Since PQ = 10, so 11(P + Q) = 99 or P + Q = 9
⇒ (P + Q) 2 = 9 2 ⇒ P 2 + Q 2 = 81 – 2PQ = 81 – 20 = 61. Ans.(1)
27. Let α, α, β be the roots of the equation.
a4
a 1 x 3 + a 2x 2 + a 3x + a 4 = 0. ∴ −
= α 2β ∴ a 4 = – a 1α 2 β.
a1
Now, roots of the second equation are α, α, 2β.
In the second equation, coefficient of x 3 is 1 and hence constant term = – 2 α 2β.
The change in the constant term = |– a 1 α 2β + 2α 2β| which cannot be found out. Ans.(4)
28. Use formula : number of pieces = 1 + Σn, where n = number of slices/cuts
8×9
= 1 + Σ8 = 1+ = 1 + 36 = 37. Ans.(2)
2
29. If one angle is 60 ° then the other will be 30 ° in the right triangle. Ans.(3)
30. Given ADEC = x 2 ⇒ AC = x and AHIB = y 2 ⇒ AB = y.
Then BC = x 2 − y2 (By Pythagoras theorem in ∆ABC).
The area of square BCGF x 2 – y 2 = (x + y)(x – y). Ans.(1)
31. f( x ) = x − 1 + 2 1− x + x 2 + 1 for x > 1, 1− x is imaginary
for x < 1, x − 1 is imaginary
for x = 1, f(x) = √2. Ans.(4)
“
“ If CAT is tough, be
tougher than the toughest
and make it easy!
– Devashish Chakravarty
100 percentile scorer in CAT 2004 and 2006
MBA (IIM Ahmedabad),
PT Knowledge Advisor

32. Let x be the number of students who learn both the languages. French English
Since more students learn French than English, 10 + x > 70
10 x 70 – x
⇒ x > 60. And x should be less than or equal to 70.
Since x must be an integer, the least it can be is 61. Ans.(3) 20
33. Let a be the amount of milk initially and b be the amount of water
th
Milk left vessel after n operationFG IJ
a−b
n
∴
Initial quantity of milk in vessel H K
=
a
Milk left in vessel after 4 operation F 40 − 10 I FG 3 IJ

th 4 4
=G
H 40 JK
81
Initial quantity of milk in vessel
=
H 4K =
256
.
In a mixture of 256 litres, 81 litres is pure milk. So in a mixture of 10 litre:
10 × 81 810 405
= = is pure milk. Ans.(3)
256 256 128
34. The given inequality is (x – 3a)(x – a – 3) < 0.
For the inequality only two cases exist.
First case: 3a < x < a + 3 or
Second case: a + 3 < x < 3a ...(1)
In both cases, there is no value which satisfies the conditions given above. Ans.(1)
35. The prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29 etc.
The numbers 5, 11, 17, 23, 29 form an increasing sequence for which 29 is the fifth term. Ans.(3)
For Q.36 and Q.37:
360 360
We have, = + 12 , i.e. n 2 + n – 30 = 0 ⇒ n = 5
n n+1
∴ The n-sided polygon is a pentagon.
Let ABCDE be that regular pentagon inscribed in a circle with centre at O and radius r mm.
3850 × 7
Qπr 2 = 3850 ⇒ r 2 = = 1225 ⇒ r = 35 mm .
22
Now, let OM ⊥ AB, then in ∆AMO, AM = cos 54 × 35 = 21.
∴ AB = 2 × AM = 2 × 21 = 42 m.
1 1
∴ Area of regular pentagon ABCDE = 5 × × 42 × 35 × sin 54 = 5 × × 42 × 35 × 0.8 = 2940 mm2 .
2 2
The (n + 1)-sided polygon will be the hexagon of side 42 mm. ∴ Area of (n + 1)-sided polygon.
3 3
∴= × 42 × 42 = 2646 3 mm2 .
2
36. Ans.(4)
37. Ans.(4)

38. The difference p – q is highest when A, B and C are numbers that are just short of whole numbers.
For example A = B = C = 0.9. p = 0.9 + 0.9 + 0.9 = 2.7. ∴ MOD(P) = MOD (2.7) = 2 and;
q = MOD (0.9) + MOD (0.9) + MOD (0.9) = 0 + 0 + 0 = 0. Hence, the maximum value of p – q is 2. Ans.(3)
39. Since OP = OQ = r
S
180 − 128
∴ ∠OPQ = ∠OQP = = 26° .
2
T R
Again SO ⊥ PQ, so ∠OMQ = 90° .
O
⇒ ∠MOQ = 180° – 90° – 26° = 64°.
⇒ ∠QOS = 180° – 64° = 116°.
P M Q
180 − 116
⇒ ∠OQS = ∠OSQ = = 32° . [Since OQ = OS = r]
2
⇒ ∠TPS = ∠OQS = 32°. (Angles by same arc). Ans.(4)
For Q.40 to Q.42:
From the data, we arrive at the following conclusions:
(i) Distance between Prince town airport and Queen city Airport = 800 km.
(ii) A plane (Jet) crashed into the first building at 9:00 am.
(iii) A second plane (appearing to Boeing-747) crashed into the second tower at 9: 23 am.
(iv) When the jet plane crashed into the first building (it was 9'o clock). The Boeing is flying over
8000 m (8 Km) from Queen city air port.
(v) The PTAP, QCAP and MTC are in a straight line respectively.
(vi) Ambulances of Health plus hospital, which is just near the QCAP reaches the MTC ( i.e. accident
place) at 11 am, which is sent out from the hospital after 20 minutes (i.e., at 9:20 am) of the
accident with the average speed of 60 kmph, i.e. the distance between the QCAP;
100
and MTC = 60 × = 100 km
60
(vii) The Boeing-747 is 8 km ahead on 9 : 00 am but it crashed into MTC at 9 : 23 am.
It means, Boeing completes the 92 kms (100 – 8) distance in 23 minutes. Hence, the speed of
92
Boeing-747 = × 60 = 240 kmph.
23
“ Right timing and belief

are imperative for any task in
the world! Believe in yourself,
achieve what you want!
“
– Vineeta Singh

40. (i) Boeing-747 flew from PTAP. (ii) At 9 : 23 am Boeing crashed into second building.
The speed of Boeing = 240 kmph and the distance between PTAP and MTC = 800 + 100 = 900 km.
900 15
Time required to Boeing-747 to complete the distance between PTAP and MTC = = hours
240 4
= 3 hours 45 minutes, i.e., Boeing-747 took off from PTAP 5 : 38 am. Ans.(1)
41. Time is not given, when the Jet plane took off from QCAP. Hence data is inadequate. Ans.(4)
42. 240 kmph. Ans.(2)
43. a < b, a + b < ab.
a + b, (a + b) n , (a + b) n+1 have the same last digit. ab, (ab) n, (ab) n+1 have the same last digit.
For option (2): a = 2, b = 3 gives a + b = 5, ab = 6 and satisfies all the given conditions. Ans.(2)
44. T ∝ L ⇒ T = k L . ∴ T a = ka ⇒ L a = a 2.
Similarly L b= b 2 and L c = c 2 . Now b 2 – a 2 = d (given)
d c2 − b2
Then c 2 – b 2 = (c 2 – b 2) × ⇒ 2 × d . Ans.(3)
d b − a2
a+b+c b+c+d b+c+d c+d+e

45. Given that > ⇒ a > d also < ⇒ b<e .
3 3 3 3
The largest possible number abcde which satisfies the above conditions is 97658 and the smallest
possible number is 23415. So the difference is 74243. Ans.(1)
2 3 6
46. x= ,y = ,z=
1− r 1+ r 1− r 2
6
xy 1 − r2
= = 1 . Ans.(2)
z 6
1− r 2
47. Only one value is possible and that is 1.5. Ans.(2)
48. When the graph of function f(x) is given, then the graph of f(–x) is obtained by reflecting the
graph of f(x) about the axis.
Similarly, –f(x) is the reflection of f(x) about x axis and –f(–x) is the reflection about x axis
followed by reflection about axis.
Reflecting the given graph about y axis keeps it unchanged. Thus f(x) = f(–x). Ans.(2)

49. The box is opened out and developed T
into a rectangle as shown below. S
R 18
Q
The shortest route is the diagonal
PT of the above rectangle.
P 8 4 8 4
Length of route = PT = 24 2 + 18 2 = 900 = 30 m. Ans.(2)
50. The figure will be just like a ring. The areas of the two rings must be equal.
i.e., π [(30/2) 2 – (10/2) 2 ] = π [(d/2) 2 – (30/2) 2].
Where d is the overall diameter ⇒ 200 = d 2/4 – 225
⇒ d 2/4 = 425 ⇒ d 2 = 1700 ⇒ d = 10 √17 = 41.23 cm. Ans.(2)
For Q.51 to Q.53:
From the given conditions:
The factory must be point 1 or 2 or 3.
The harbour must not be point 7 and garden must not be point 1.
The library must be point 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6.
The museum must be point 1 or 7.
The palace must be the point 5 or 6 or 7.
The harbour must be the point visited just before the garden.
51. If Sue begins her tour at the harbour then the garden must be point 2. So, the factory must be point
3 and the museum must be point 7. The palace must be point 5 or 6. Library or theatre could be
the 4th point. Ans.(3)
52. Since the harbour must be visited just before the garden, if Sue is to visit the palace sixth, then
the harbour must not be any of the points 5 or 7. Ans.(4)
53. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
F P
Since the harbour must be immediately followed by the garden, so neither the harbour nor the
garden will be that point between the factory and the palace. So, options (1) and (3) are eliminated.
Since museum must be either point 1 or 7, so option (4) is also eliminated. Ans.(2)
54. Since each cable must contain at least three wires of different colours, option (4) is eliminated.
If one wire is violet, then no wire can be green. So, option (1) is also eliminated. If one wire is red
then one wire must be yellow. So, option (3) also is eliminated. Ans.(2)
55. We can take 2 black, 2 white, 1 red, 1 yellow and either 1 violet or 1 green wire. Thus the maximum
number of wires is seven. Ans.(2)
56. As explained earlier, if we take 1 black, 1 white, then the maximum number of wires is 5. Ans.(1)
57. Although the first statement gives information about the speed of the cockroach, it does not tell
whether the distance in the two-dimensional plane is in metres, centimetres, kilometres or any
other unit of length. But from the second statement, it is obvious that the cockroach never reaches
the origin. Ans.(1)

58. Let the rates of working of A and B be x and y respectively.
1 1 1 1 1 1
From statement (A), + = . From statement (B), + = .
x y 15 2 x 3y 45
So, using both the statements we can calculate the number of days in which they can complete the
work working individually. Ans.(3)
59. If Anup’s statement is true, then only Anup is telling the truth and we can’t find a solution from the
remaining statements. So Anup should be lying. If Bhanu’s statement is true, then Anup’s statement
is false which is in agreement with Bhanu’s statement. So Kunal’s statement is also true. Hence
either Anup or Bhanu is Ramola’s fiance. But the last statement is true. So Anup cannot be Ramola’s
fiance. Hence Bhanu is Ramola’s fiance. Ans.(2)
60. We can list out the following twelve combinations of the singer-dancer pair.
+ → Male and – → Female
Singer Dancer
Monika– Violates rule # 3
Clinton+ Mandy + Violates rules # 1 and 3
Cindy – Violates rule # 3
Clinton+ Violates rule # 2
Monika– Mandy + No Violation
Mandy + Monika– Violates rule # 3
Cindy – Monika– No Violation
Mandy – Violates rule # 2
Thus, we see that the only two possible combinations are
Singer Dancer
Monika Mandy . Ans.(2)
Cindy Monika

61. Considering option (1): BHALU
Compared to MONEY, no letter is common with BHALU, which violates the given condition.
Considering option (2): MOHNI
Compared to JOHNY, three letters O, H, and N are common and in the same position, which
violates the given condition.
Considering option (3): BOBBY
Compared to MONEY, exactly two letters O and Y are in the same position.
Compared to JOHNY, exactly two letters O and Y are in the same position.
Compared to BABLU, exactly two letters B and B are in the same position.
Compared to BHABI, exactly two letters B and B are in the same position.
Compared to ROBOT, exactly two letters O and B are in the same position.
Compared to BUNNY, exactly two letters B and Y are in the same position.
Hence BOBBY satisfies the given condition.
Considering option (4): BANNU
Compared to MONEY, only N is in the same position, which violates the given condition.
Ans.(3)
62. From all the statements, there are six possibilities:
Appa orders Chappa orders Tappa orders
Case I Coffee Coffee Coffee
Case II Coffee Tea Tea
Case III Tea Coffee Coffee
Case IV Tea Tea Tea
Case V Tea Coffee Tea
Case VI Tea Tea Coffee
Then, from (3), Cases I and V are eliminated and, from (4), Cases II and V are eliminated. So, you
know Appa always orders the same drink (tea) after dinner. Ans.(1)
“ Schumacher wins
“
because of speed with
accuracy. Same is the case
with CAT!
– Bhushan Dabir

63. From the information given, the following table can be made. We can see that only case II satisfies
all the conditions.
Days Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Violation

Case I A M S G P Not possible Condition (3)
Case II A G M S P Possible ✔
Case III A P M S G Not possible Condition (2)
Case IV M S A G P Not possible Condition (3)
Case V M S A P G Not possible Condition (2)
Case VI D G A M S Not possible Condition (3)
Ans.(4)
64. Mechanical students can opt either Computer Science or Electronics.
When students of Civil choose Computer Science, others joining Computer Science will be 30 –
5 = 25.
Maximum Mechanical students who can make shift is 30 + 25 = 55.(i.e. if all Civil and Electrical
students who changes their branch opt for Mechanical) now if 25 students of Electronics choose
Computer Science maximum Mechanical people who can choose Electronics is 25 + 25 = 50.
Minimum Mechanical students opting for Electronics is 0. Since Electrical or Civil students can
directly opt for Electronics as they may get more CGPA then Mechanical students. Ans.(1)
65. To maximise the students who can change their branch is only possible when students of a
particular branch changes to the immediate next branch in priority. Maximum civil students
changing = 90 – 60 = 30.
Maximum Electrical students changing (if all 30 students of Civil joins Electrical in second year,
is only possible if total Electrical students shifting from their branch) is 25 + 30 = 55.
Maximum Mechanical students changing their branch is (if all 55 students of Electrical shifts to
Mechanical) = 55.
Maximum Electronics students changing their branch (if 55 students of Mechanical joins Electronics
which is only possible if 75 – 55 = 20, 50 – 20 = 30.
30 students of Electronics shifts to Computer Science then total maximum students changing their
branch = 30 + 55 + 55 + 30 = 170 Computer Science students cannot change their branch.
Ans.(4)
66. 50 × 30/100 = 15. Students of Civil Engineering will move to Computer Science. So only 15 students
of Civil are left who changed to any of the branch. Maximum Electrical Engg.; students changed
their branch in this case would be 25 + 15 = 40 which can happen only if rest 15 students of Civil
joins Electrical. Ans.(4)
67. CGPA No. of Students
8-10 15 × 380/100 = 57
6-8 10 × 380/100 = 38
Maximum students getting CGPA 8 or more = 57 + 38 = 95 (when all 38 students get CGPA - 8).
Minimum = 57. Ans.(2)
68. For all the given countries the value of £ on 2nd March 2004 is 1.91 times of the value of $ on 2nd
March 2004. Hence, conclusion I is valid.
The maximum percentage change is for Venezuela which is –22.6% approximately. Hence,
conclusion II is also not valid. Ans.(1)

For Q.69 and Q.70:
The total cost to the company = Interest on borrowed amount + borrowed amount + transportation
0.1× 18.74 0.1
cost + refining cost = BRL million + BRL 0.1million + US$1000 million + BRL millionkg × US$ 3
100 4
0.1× 18.74 0.1 0.1× 3
= US$ million + US$ million + US$ 1000 million + US$ million
100 × 2.63 2.63 4 × 2.63
= US$ (0.007 + 0.04 + 0.001 + 0.028) million = US$ 0.076 million
0.1
69. Total kgs of refined coffee = × 0.8 million = 0.02 million
4
The company will get 0.02 × 4 = US$ 0.08 million. So profit = 0.080 – 0.076 = US$ 0.004 million.
Ans.(1)
70. By selling 25% coffee each to India, China, Mexico and Egypt, the company will get
FG 0.02 × 80 IJ + FG 0.02 × 11 IJ + FG 0.02 × 20 IJ + FG 0.02 × 15 IJ = 0.02 × 7.55 = US$ 0.0377 million

US$
H 4 43.6 K H 4 8.28 K H 4 111. K H 4 5.81K 4
= US$ 37700. Ans.(3)
71. Transaction I: Loan + Interest given (in NIS) = 0.05 × 1.01
= 0.0505 million NIS = US$ (0.0505/4.33) million.
Now, 0.025 million NIS = US$ (0.025/4.33) million = (0.025 × 11.1)/4.33 million MXN
Output from Mexico = (0.025 × 11.1 × 1.05)/4.33 million MXN = US$ (0.025 × 1.05)/4.33 million
Now, 0.025 million NIS = US$ (0.025/4.33) million = (0.025 × 184)/4.33 million HUF
Output from Hungary = (0.025 × 184 × 1.07)/4.33 million HUF = US$ (0.025 × 1.07)/4.33 million
Total output =
0.025
4.33
c. + 107
105 . h
= US$
0.053
4.33
million.
0.053 0.050 0.003

Profit = – = US$ million = $ 693.
4.33 4.33 4.33
Transaction II: Loan + Interest given (in EGP) = 0.05 × 1.099
= 0.05495 million EGP = US$ (0.05495/5.81) million
0.05 million EGP = US$ (0.05/5.81) million = (0.05 × 43.6)/5.81 million INR
Output from India = (0.05 × 43.6 × 1.199)/5.81 million INR = (0.05 × 1.199)/5.81
= US$ (0.05995/5.81) million
0.05995 0.05495
Profit = − = US$ 860.
5.81 5.81
Transaction III : Loan + Interest given (in KRW) = 0.05 × 1.0355
= 0.051775 million KRW = US$ (0.051775/1008) million
0.01 million KRW = US$ (0.01/1008) million = (0.01 × 9284)/1008 million IDR
Output from Indonesia = (0.01 × 9284 × 1.01)/1008 million INR
= (0.01 × 1.01)/1008 = US$ (0.0101/1008) million
0.01 million KRW = US$ (0.01/1008) million = (0.01 × 30.8)/1008 million TWD
Output from Indonesia = (0.01 × 30.8 × 1.02)/1008 million INR
= (0.01 × 1.02)/1008 = US$ (0.0102/1008) million

Similarly output from Venezuela = US$ (0.0103/1008) million
Output from Russia = US$ (0.0104/1008) million and Turkey = US$ (0.105/1008) million
0.0101+ 0.0102 + 0.0103 + 0.0104 + 0.0105 0.0515

Total output = = .
1008 1008
0.0515 0.0101 0.0414

Profit = − = = US$ 41. So transaction II gives maximum profit. Ans.(2)
1008 1008 1008
120 60 180
72. The required value = + + = 38.71 + 10.45 + 31.86 ≈ £81. Ans.(1)
3.1 5.74 5.65
73. a – x + x + c – x ≤ 131 a
(I) (R)
Idea RIM
a + c – x ≤ 131 ....(i) 131 a–x 210
a + b – x ≤ 210 ....(ii) x
b + c – x ≤ 230 ....(iii) c–x b–x
n(I ∪ R ∪ A) = n(I) + n(R) + n(A) – n(I ∩ R) – n(R ∩ A) c b
– n(I ∩ A) + n(I ∩ R ∩ A).
250 = 131 + 210 + 230 – a – b – c + x
a + b + c – x = 571 – 250 = 321 ....(iv) (A) 230
Airtel
From (i), (ii) and (iii)
2(a + b + c) – 2x – x ≤ 571
Using (iv) : 2(321) – x ≤ 571 ⇒ 642 – 571 ≤ x ⇒ x ≥ 71.
Minimum value of x = 71. Ans.(4)
74. Maximum revenue collection is possible, when all the calls of Airtel are STD and from Airtel to
other connections. 230 × 4000 × 1.12 × 1.5 = Rs. 15, 45, 600 per minute. Ans.(1)
75. 1.12 × 1.5 : 1.15 × 1.25 : 1.07 × 1.5 : 1 × 1.25 : 1.02 × 1.5
3 5 3 5 3
⇒ 112
. × . × : 107
: 115 . × : 1× : 102
. ×
2 4 2 4 2
⇒ 1.68 : 1.43 : 1.6 : 1.25 : 1.53
⇒ 168 : 143 : 160 : 125 : 153. Ans.(2)
“
“ CAT is a game of
basics ... Have it and
crack it!
– Vishal Prabhukhanolkar

Objective key
1.(1) 2.(2) 3.(2) 4.(4) 5.(3)

6.(3) 7.(3) 8.(3) 9.(3) 10.(1)
11.(4) 12.(4) 13.(1) 14.(2) 15.(3)
16.(1) 17.(4) 18.(1) 19.(4) 20.(3)
21.(1) 22.(4) 23.(4) 24.(3) 25.(2)
26.(1) 27.(4) 28.(2) 29.(3) 30.(1)
31.(4) 32.(3) 33.(3) 34.(1) 35.(3)
36.(4) 37.(4) 38.(3) 39.(4) 40.(1)
41.(4) 42.(2) 43.(2) 44.(3) 45.(1)
46.(2) 47.(2) 48.(2) 49.(2) 50.(2)
51.(3) 52.(4) 53.(2) 54.(2) 55.(2)
56.(1) 57.(1) 58.(3) 59.(2) 60.(2)
61.(3) 62.(1) 63.(4) 64.(1) 65.(4)
66.(4) 67.(2) 68.(2) 69.(1) 70.(3)
71.(2) 72.(1) 73.(4) 74.(1) 75.(2)

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Prac-CAT # 19

(Part of the 50 All-India Mock Tests provided by PT)

TEST FORM NUMBER TEST BOOKLET SR. NO.

333 Test Code: CT 39

Special for Online Tests

Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore

Our motto “Kar ke dikhayenge” is delivered through our

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DIRECTIONS: Identify the correct sentence or sentences.

5. (A) The ship, with its crew, were lost.

6. (A) Where have you been to?

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18. According to the author, which of the following statements is correct

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22. According to the author which of the following statements is incorrect-

25. What is NOT an effect of rape or sexual assault on a woman?

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26. If PQ = 10 and P 2 Q + PQ 2 + P + Q = 99, then P2 + Q 2 is equal to

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36. The area of the n-sided polygon will be

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41. The speed of jet plane was

42. The speed of Boeing-747 was

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48. Given graph represents

(1) f (x) = 3f (–x) 1

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59. Ramola Sikand recently got engaged.

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62. Appa, Chappa and Tappa often dine out.

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65. Maximum students who can change their branch is

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Currency Units Short Term

Additional direction for Q.69 and Q.70:

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Coverage in number of cities

Coverage in No. of cities

Call Charges Rs. Per Call Charges Rs. Per

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then follows, by establishing an initial mistake. Obviously, statement C should follow.

Our motto “Kar ke dikhayenge” is delivered through our

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Then BC = x 2 − y2 (By Pythagoras theorem in ∆ABC).

The area of square BCGF x 2 – y 2 = (x + y)(x – y). Ans.(1)

31. f( x ) = x − 1 + 2 1− x + x 2 + 1 for x > 1, 1− x is imaginary

for x < 1, x − 1 is imaginary

for x = 1, f(x) = √2. Ans.(4)

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Milk left in vessel after 4 operation F 40 − 10 I FG 3 IJ

In a mixture of 256 litres, 81 litres is pure milk. So in a mixture of 10 litre: