O

Created by Komang Jatmaya

A-330-341 AVIONIC AIRFRAME POWERPLANT TEST GUIDE

AIR CONDITIONING ( ATA 21 )

1. Which are the controllers related to the temprature control system ?

a. CPC 1 and CPC 2
b. Zone controller and Pack controller *
c. AEVC controller and VENT controller

2. Which are the controllers related to the pressurization system ?

a. CPC 1 and CPC 2..
b. Zone controller and Pack controller
c. AEVC controller and Vent controller

3. Which is the controller related to the forward cargo heating system ?

a. AEVC controller { Avionic comp ventilation controller }..
b. ZONE controller
c. VENT controller

4. What is the porpose of the pack ?

a. To regulate basic temprature
b. To adjust the temprature in the four zones
c. To regulate basic temprature..

5. What is function of each pack controller ?

a. To control the corresponding pack and flow contol valve..
b. To control the trim air valves
c. To control the Zone controller

6. What is purpose of the Zone controller ?

a. To control zone temprature..
b. To controller the flow control valve
c. To control the pack

7. What is the function of the Trim air pressure regulating valve ?

a. To regulate hot air pressure..
b. To regulate cool air pressure
c. To regulated mixed air pressure

8. What is the function of the recirculation valve ?

a. To cut off mixed air supply to avionics if both packs are off
b. To allow the avionics equipment to be sufficiently ventilated when both packs are
off..
c. To cut off recirculated air supply to avioncs if both packs are off

9. What is function of the Trim air shut off valve ?

a. To maintain trim air supply to all ducts in case of a TAPRV failed closed..
b. To cut off trim air supply in case of duct overheat
c. To cut off trim air supply in case of overpressure

10. What is function of the Trim air valve

a. To optimize zone temprature by adding mixed air to cold air
b. To optimized zone temprature by adding hot air to mixed air..
c. To regulated hot air pressure

11. What is purpose of the temprature control valve ?

a. To reduce the air flow to the compressor stage
b. To modulate the pack discharge temprature..
c. To increase the air flow to the turbine stage

12. What is the main purpose of the anti icing valve ?

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a. Prevens ice formation across the primary heat exchanger
b. Prevent ice formation across the Main heat exchanger
c. Prevents ice formation across the Pack condenser..

13. What purpose of the ram air flap ?

a. To ensure cabin ventilation if both packs fail
b. TO provide air to the pack compressor
c. To modulate the main air flow through the heat exchangers..

14. What is purpose of the by pass valve ?

a. To by pass the ACM when it is faulty..
b. To by pass the ACM when its associated pack controller is faulty
c. To modulate the air flow through the ACM

15. When does the Flow control Valve fully open ?

a. If the APU load valve is open..
b. During T/O and landing phase
c. If one engine is off

16. When does the FCV pneumatically close?

a. CDS overheat detection
b. PDS overheat detection
c. CPNOH overheat detection {comp pneu over heat }..

17. Where does the cockpit air supply come from ?

a. From pack 1..
b. From pack 2
c. From pack 3

18. What is the purpose of the avionics ground cooling ?

a. To supply refrigerated air to avionics..
b. To supply pack 1 fresh air to avionic
c. To supply pack 2 fresh air to avionic

19. What is the purpose of the air conditioning bay ventilation ?

a. To avoid air conditioning bay structural damages..
b. To remove smoke
c. To decrease pack outlet temprature

20. How is bulk cargo comparment heated ?

a. With hot air via trim air valve
b. With cabin air via trim air valve
c. With cabin air heated by a fan heater

21. When does the lavatory and galley extraction fan operate ?
a. On ground when electrical power available and inflight when delta P is lower than
1 psi

22. When do the recirculation valve close ?

a. When both pack are off

23. When are the recirculation valves powered closed ?

a. If both flow control valve are closed and one fan is operating

24. The VC sends a signal to the ZC when :

a. The extraction fan is inoperative

25. What happens in case of main galley and toilet duct clogging ?
a. A message is sent to the CMC

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26. What is the position of the avionics ventilation valves on ground when engine 1 and
engine 2 stopped and in auto mode ?
a. Underfloor valve closed – Overboard valve open

27. What is position of avionics ventilation valves in flight in auto mode ?

a. Underfloor open – Overboard closed

28. On ground what is the correct configuration for the air conditioning bay ventilation
system ?
a. Supply valve open – Turbo fan operating

29. What is a signal to the AEVC the dipperential pressure between the up stream and
down stream air flow of the turbofan { aircond bay ventilation }
a. Pressure switch..
b. Transmitter

30. If there is overheat out let of ACM compressor the Flow control valve ?
a. Pneumatically start to close under action of the pneumatic overheat sensor..
b. Auto closed by energized selenoid valve
c. Auto open by de-energized selenoid valve
d. Closing and Opening by pack push button

31. The on/off selenoid the FCV is energized :

a. To close the vlv incase of engine start , Ditching , Eng fire P/B selected..
b. To close the vlv incase of engine start eng find pack overheat
c. To close the vlv only incase of pack overheat and eng start
d. To permit flow regulation control by means of the tourqe motor

32. Which type of information is generated by CPC 1 MAN back up part

a. Back up information to the SDACs and FWCs..
b. Control signals to the auto motors
c. Control signals to the MAN motor

33. With FMGES data available , which schedule is selected at T/O or at the top of
descent in normal operation ?
a. External schedule..
b. Internal schedule
c. Abort schedule

34. What is number of out flow valves,safety valves and negative pressure relief vlvs ?
a. One outfloe vlv two safety vlv and one negative pressure relief vlv
b. Two outflow vlv,two safety vlvs.and one negatife press relief vlv..
c. Two out flow vlv one safety vlv and one negative press relief vlv

35. What is purpose of the negative press relief vlv ?

a. To avoid over temp
b. To prevent negative differential press..
c. To prevent positive differential press

36. What is purpose of the safety valves ?

a. To avoid negative differential press
b. TO replaced out flow valves
c. To prevent excessive differential press..

37. Which motor is controlled OFV from the cabin press panel { Cockpit }
a. Motor 3 [manual ]..
b. Motor 2 and motor 1
c. Motor 1

38. What is max normal cabin altitude for max cruise level [41000 ft ] ?

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a. A cabin altitude of 8000 ft..
b. A cabin altitude of 9550 ft
c. A cabin altitude of 11300 ft

39. What is the cold air source for cargo cooling ?

a. Pack 1
b. Pack 2..
c. Mixer unit

40. When do the isolation valves close ?

a. In case of fwd cargo smoke warning..
b. In case of extraction fan failed
c. In case of both packs failed

41. Which valve closes in case of duct overheat detection ?

a. Outlet isolation vlv
b. Cold air vlv
c. Cargo trim air valve..

42. When does the EXTRACT FAN operate at high speed ?

a. When both inlet isolation valves are open and norm or max is selected and both
flow control valves are open

43. When do [bulk cargo]the isolation valves close ?

a. If bulk cargo smoke is detected..
b. If the extraction fan fails
c. Incase of both packs off

44. When does the fan heater automatically stop ? [bulk cargo]
a. When the bulk cargo door is open..
b. When the aft outflow vlv is open
c. When passanger door is open

45. What is the position of the OFV in ground mode ?

a. Half open
b. Fully closed
c. Fully open..

46. Where are location of :

a. Pack 1 and 2 controller [computer]
b. Zone Controller
c. Ventilation controller
d. AEVC
e. CPC 1 and 2

47. In normal operation the overboard vlv is open and the underfloor valve is close
a. …on grnd as soon as an engine is running
b. …in flight
c. …on grnd with no engine running…

48. Temp control,cabin ventilation ,cargo ventilation,cooling and heating system

information is shown on the :
a. Bleed page
b. Air Cond page..
c. Press page
d. Cruise page

49. Which controller determines the pack temprature demand ?

a. Pack controller
b. Zone controller..
c. BMCs

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50. Which components are tied to the pack temprature regulation ?

a. TVC,PTS and Ram air doors..
b. FCV,PTS and Ram air doors
c. TVC,TAV and Ram air doors

51. Which valves enable fine temp adjusment in the cockpit and cabin zones ?
a. FCV
b. TCV
c. Temp Air Valve..

52. When does the emergency ram air inlet flap open ?
a. The ram air p/b is selected ON and ditching p/b selected OFF..
b. The ditching p/b select on and delta P < 1 psi
c. Auto opening when loss of both packs

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT ( ATA 49 )

53. What is main function of the APU ?
a. To produce pneumatic and electrical power..
b. To produce pneumatic and hyd pwer
c. To produce electrical and hyd power

54. Which component controls and monitors the APU ?

a. The FCU
b. The ECB..
c. The IGV Control unit

55. The ECB has :

a. Full authority over apu operation
b. Restricted authority over apu operation
c. Only APU monitoring function..

56. What is the APU restart limit ?

a. 12.000 ft
b. 36.000 ft
c. 41.000 ft..

57. Above 23.000 ft the APU can supply :

a. Pneumatic power
b. Elecrical power..
c. Bleed air and electrical power

58. From where can an APU emergency shutdown be performed ?

a. Re/defueling panel,external power control panel and APU fire p/b..
b. Re/defueling panel and blue hyd service panel
c. The APU cannot be shutdown from out side the A/C

59. Normal APU shutdown is performed from :

a. APU control panel..
b. Re/defueling panel
c. External power control panel

60. How many shaft has the APU ?

a. One..
b. Two
c. Three

61. Where are the Inlet Guide vanes mounted ?

a. Infront of the power section compressor
b. In front of the load compressor..

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c. In front of the turbin section

62. What are the three APU moidules ?

a. Compressor,combustion chamber,turbin
b. Power section,load cmpressor,FCU
c. Power section,load compressor,accessory gearbox..

63. What is precaution to take when you open the APU comparment acces doors ?
a. Not operate the air intake flap
b. Not to operate the elevator..
c. No precaution to take

64. When is the air intake flap closed ?

a. On the ground
b. When the apu running in flight
c. When the apu is shutdown..

65. What is the Fuel flow signal used for ?

a. Fuel schedule during starting
b. Fuel schedule during on speed operation..
c. Indication in the cockpit

66. What is the fuel supply sequence ?

a. Primary flow then secondary flow..
b. Secondary flow than primary flow
c. Primary and secondary flow all the time

67. In which case does the ECB shutdown the APU ?

a. Low oil pressure or low oil level
b. High oil temprature
c. High oil temprature or low oil pressure (temp above 147 deg cel and press below
28 psi )..

68. Which component from the oil system is controlled by the ECB ?
a. The air/oil separator
b. The de-oiling valve..
c. Scavenge filter clogging

69. Does the APU shutdown immediately when the Master switch is set to off ?
a. Yes in all case
b. No in all case
c. No after a delay if bleed air was used..

70. What is the APU governed speed ?

a. 99 %
b. 100 %..
c. 101 %

71. To shutdown the APU the ECB :

a. Generates an overspeed signal..
b. Generates an over temp
c. Generates an overload signal

72. Which component can be removed to improve accesto the APU ?

a. The air intake flap
b. The exhaust flap
c. The air intake duct..

73. which component has a manual override ?

a. The air intake flap..
b. The exchaust flap

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c. The IGV

74. The green AVAIL indication is displayed when apu speed is:
a. 95 %
b. >95 %..
c. <95 %

75. De-oiling valve is controlled open during :

a. Apu cold start ( Inflight start ) to reduced load on starter and during shutdown
to keep oil in the gearbox

76. The Surge control valve is :

a. A modelating valve hydraulically operated by fuel and electrically controlled by a
tourqe motor

77. When is the Ignition unit supplied ?

a. During APU starting between 7 % - 50 % and APU speed decreases between 95 %
- 50 %

78. When the supply to starter cuts off :

a. Apu speed is about 50 %

79. Ecology drain valve opens during :

a. Apu shutdown when the APU speed beetwen 95 %-7 % to blow out the fuel
manifolds

80. When will low oil press cause an APU shutdown

a. On ground only..
b. In flight only
c. Both

81. APU bleed valve is :

a. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

82. APU shutdown if detect low oil pressure or hi oil temp at :

a. >95 % rpm..
b. 100 % rpm
c. <95 % rpm

83. APU AVAIL supply bleed and electrical at :

a. 100 % rpm
b. 95 % rpm
c. >95 % rpm..

84. Flow control valves :

a. Energized closed..
b. Energized open
c. De-energize closed
d. De-energize open

85. APU system test avail on MCDU when :

a. Apu running
b. Apu not running

86. OUT FLOW VALVE can be operate :

a. Automatic mode
b. Manual mode
c. Automatic , manual and mixed mode..

87. What is the function of load compressor outlet temprature sensor ?

a. To monitor the efficiency of the load compressor

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88. The power up test is performed by ECB each time ?

a. Battery p/b on
b. APU master switch set to on..

89. APU air intake flap open when ?

a. Master switch set to on..
b. Battery p/b on

90. With APU bleed valve open releasing the master switch off will cause the apu to
shutdown, only if the start p/b release :
a. Immedietly
b. After a time delay 120 second..

91. By selecting cabin temp page on FAP you can :

a. Slightly adjust in each cabin zone the temp selected in the cockpit

92. On the ECAM the pack parameter sinoptics are located

a. Air-con page
b. Bleed page..
c. Lower ECAM

93. The Air condition bay vent system is monitor by :

a. AEVC..
b. PCV
c. ZCV

FUEL SYSTEM ( ATA 28 )

94. Which tanks are the main supply tanks ?

a. Inner tank..
b. Trim and outer tank
c. All wing tank

95. The fuel control and monitoring is performed by…..?

a. Fuel qty computer and c of g computer
b. Two identical FCMC..
c. One FCMC

96. From where does the FCMC receive data to calculate the qty indicating ?
a. Other a/c computer
b. FQI probes and densitometers..
c. Level and temp sensor..

97. Which type of sensor can be found in the collector cell ?

a. Temprature..
b. Low level
c. Low level high level

98. How can the fuel qty be determined on the ground with out electrical power ?
a. With manual magnetic indicators..
b. By compesator probes
c. With dripsticks

99. Do all booster pumps run together when selected on ?

a. Yes
b. No, only the main pumps run..
c. Stand pump runs first the main pump at engine start

100. When does the AFT APU PUMP operate ?

a. On the ground unless trim tank being refueled

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b. During climb descent and landing
c. Above FL 250,trim tank not empty..

101. What is porpuse of the trim trnsfer system ?

a. Control the C of G position..
b. Burn the fuel from the trim tank
c. Control all trenfers for engine feed

102. An aft tranfer is initiated as aircraft passes FL 255 , if ?

a. CG is fwd of target CG-0.5 %..
b. CG > target CG by more than 0.5 %
c. Trim tank is less than 3750 kg

103. As the inner tank fuel is used the aircreft CG moves aft what happens ?
a. Outer to inner transfer starts
b. CG stays close to the aft limit
c. Forward transfers are initiated..

104. How do FCMC 1 and 2 take the control of the system ?

a. Simultaneously all the time
b. Normally FCMC 1 does it , FCMC 2 stand by active..
c. One after the other , at each flight

105. What is the purpose of the FCMS ?

a. The FCMS controls refuel,transfers,CG,FQI and sensing..
b.
c.

106. What is the function of the water scavange system?

a.
b. to keep the water in the suspension
c.

107. How is the water scavange system controlled ?

a.
b. By the fuel control monitoring computer
c.

108. With fuel in the trim tank,can you manually operate the pump on grnd ?
a. No
b. Yes,by selecting the man fwd xfr p/b
c.

109. How do you perform an operational chk of the stand by pump with all pumps alredy
selected ?
a. By switching OFF a Main pump p/b only..
b.
c.

110. During an Emergency electrical condition,which pump supplies the 2 Engine ?

a. None by gravity only
b. All stand by pumps
c. Left main pump two (L2)..

111. On ground the engines are stopped,how do you close the LP valve
a. The valve already close..

112. Which parameter makes the switch over logic between the FWD APU pump and the
AFT APU pump ?
a. trim tank isolated or no

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113. The AFT APU pump and the FWD APU pump could run simultaneously upon
detection of ?
a. An APU inlet fuel low pressure
b. An emergency electrical configuration
c. A trim pipe fuel low pressure..

114. What does the a/c wiring control in case of emergency electrical configuration ?
a. FWD APU pump to run..
b. Isolation valve to open
c. FWD and AFT pump to run

115. How do you see if there is a leak in the APU fuel line ?
a. There is fuel at under pipe low point
b. Drain mast is dripping..
c. Trim pipe is dirty with fuel

116. which pump operates when the fuel vent push button is pressed in ?
a. the two pumps operate simultaneously
b. normaly only the FWD APU pump operates..
c. only the aft pump

117. How does outer tank to inner tank tranfer take place for each wing ?
a. Simultaneously triggered by the lowest inner tank fuel qty..
b. Independently , triggeredby the lowest inner tank fuel qty
c. Independently by crew command

118. When the XFR to INNER p/b is set to MAN what happens ?
a. All automatic commands affecting outer to inner xfr are overridden..
b. All commands affecting outer and trim to inner xfr are overridden
c.

119. How is the CG position maintained ?

a. FCMC calculates the position and compares it with a target value

120. If an AFT transfer is necessary what does the FCMC do ?

a. Open the AFT trf valves,the trim pipe isolation valve and trim tank inlet valve..

121. The trim pipe isolation valve and the trim tank isolation valve are closed when the
L/G is extended and lock down , when is the trim trnsfer line opened again ?
a. L/G retracted
b. L/G and Slats retracted
c. L/G and Slats retracted and altitude > 25.500 ft..

122. How is the trim tank fuel drained when the FWD trf Manual P/B is pressed in ?
a. It cannot be drained manually
b. It drains into the inner tank down to low level..

123. When does the trim tank isol valve remain OPEN even after low level has been
detect ?
a. When the trim tank selector is set to open

124. How is the refuel isol vlv opened ?

a. By energization of a solenoid and application of fuel press..

125. What is purpose of the restrictor valve ?

a. To decrease the flow rate to the trim tank..

126. When performing a manual refuel defuel,defuel or ground transfer , the R/D
electrical circuits are enabled by ?
a. Contact of the panel door position relay

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127. How does each FCMC interface with qty probes ?
a. Each FCMC interface with half of the probes,but receives all probe data

128. How is the Trim Pipe and Refuel gallery gauged ?

a. It is precalculated by the FCMCs and ramped on or off the FOB

129. Should one signal conditioning fail in one FCMC with the associated loss of the
groups of probes,the accuracy is affected so that :
a. Tank display remains fully operative because still in normal mode
130. Where does each sensor of a pair of the same type send its signal ?
a. To a different FCMC

131. In event of a Hi LVL condition,the related tank inlet vlv is closed by :

a. The FCMC level sensing channel out put or/and CPU processed command

132. On ground prior to fueling a HI LVL TEST is performed the outer tanks were already
full What do you see on the refuel control panel ?
a. Outer tank HI LVL lts extinguish,other hi and overflow lts come on and FQI
display 8s
133. Automatic and manual outer to inner transfer takes placed on both wing
a. Simultaneously LH/RH wing for lateral inner tank balancing
b. Simultaneously LH/RH wing for lateral outer tank balancing..

134. Fuel spilled from inner tank or trim tank Thru overboard :
a. Thru surge vent tank

135. Main pump ( booster pump ) location :

a. In collector cell

136. How many surge vent tank are installed ?

a. Two on main tank {outboard outer tank in each wing } , one on trim tank { on the
right }

137. FCMC start for CG controller at :

a. FL >25.500 ft..
b. FL <25.000 ft

138. RH fuel temprature is not shown , why ?

a. It is assumed same as in the LH tank

139. When aft trensper stop ?

a. Trim tank is full , target CG – 0.5 % of MAC , Inner tank below 6250 kg , Flt level
25.500 ft ( normally one aft trf per flt is required

140. Forward transfer for CG control are initiated when :

a. CG > target CG and until CG < target CG-0.5 % of MAC

141. APU FWD and Aft pump Logic :

a. On ground and below FL 250 the FWD APU pump runs , Inflight inside CG
control normally AFT APU pump runs , also during refueling or defueling

142. How to refueling with Ground service bus :

a. Yes ( it can do with Battery and Ground service network )

143. When automatic AFT transfer initiated ?

a. A/C >FL 255 the CG is FWD of target more than 0.5 % and TRIM tank not full.

144. How many Tanks at A-330 –341 installed ?

a. Five tank
b. Tree tank

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145. What is the function of load compressor outlet temp sensor ?
a. Used to monitor the efficiency of the load compressor

146. The power up test is performed by ECB each time :

a. APU Master switch set to on..
b. Batt P/B on

147. When APU AIR intake flap open ?

a. The Master switch set to on

148. With APU Bleed vlv open releasing the master switch to off cause the APU shutdown
only if the start P/B release :
a. Immedietly
b. After a time delay 120 second..

149. How many Fuel Booster pump runs if all P/B switches to ON ?
a. Four..
b. Six pump

LANDING GEAR ( ATA 32 )

150. Up to what speed will be rudder pedal provide a maximum of 6 degrees steering angle
?
a. 10 knots
b. 25 knots
c. 40 knots..

151. What is the function of the by pass valve ?

a. To isolate the steering actuactor service lines from each other

152. Where does the LVDT send the data in the BSCU ?
a. To the monitor channel..
b. To the command channel

153. What is maximum Nose wheel steering angle that can be obtained using the hand
wheel ?
a. 95 deg
b. 78 deg..
c. 75 deg

154. By what is the nose wheel steering powered ?

a. Green system..
b. Green or blue system
c. Yellow system

155. With what is the Nose wheel steering achived ?

a. Rudder pedals – hand wheels –auto pilot (FCPC)

156. Which gear wheels are fitted with carbon disk brakes ?
a. Main gear wheels..
b. Nose and main gear wheels

157. Which hyd system powers the nose wheel steering ?

a. Green syst..
b. Blue syst
c. Yellow syst

158. By what is the normal L/G operating sequence controlled ?

a. Either LGCIU in turn..
b. Both LGCIU simultaneously

159. By what is the L/G syst powered ?

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a. Green syst..
b. Blue syst
c. Yellow syst

160. Whe does the auto change over of the LGCIUs in control occur ?
a. When DOWN is selected
b. When UP is selected..

161. What happens during FREE FALL extension ?

a. Main and nose gear are lowered

162. How is the FREE FALL syst operated ?

a. Electrically
b. Electro mechanically..
c. Mechanically

163. What happens when the free fall extension selectors are set to release ?
a. The CUT OUT and VENT VLVs operate..

164. During free fall extension operation what is the purpose of the CUT OUT valve ?
a. It connects the L/G syst to the green hyd return

165. Which syst powers the normal braking ?

a. Blue syst
b. Green syst..
c. Yellow syst

166. When does the DECEL light in automatic braking come on ?

a. When the auto brake P/B is selected
b. When the deceleration value is correct..

167. By what is manual braking initiated ?

a. Electrical signal..
b. Hyd signal
c. Mechanical signal

168. How many types of braking are provided by the normal braking syst ?
a. One
b. Two (auto and manual)..
c. Three

169. By what is the blue hyd press isolated ?

a. Automatic selector valve

170. Where does the hyd fuse stop the flow ?

a. Down stream of the servovalves

171. By what is alternate braking control achived ?

a. Automatic selector valve

172. By what is the alternate braking initiated ?

a. Hydraulic signals..
b. Electrical signals

173. With the normal system failed how does the BSCU active the alternate system ?
a. By closing the normal selector valve

174. what indications does the triple gauge provide ?

a. blue brake hyd and accumulator pressure

175. Where are can find blue acculator pressure ?

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a. Cockpit (tripple gauge) and blue hyd accumulator servicing.

176. Pitch trimmer operated by ?

a. Green hyd syst..
b. Blue hyd syst
c. Yellow hyd syst

177. By what system is the parking brake powered ?

a. Green syst
b. Yellow syst
c. Blue hyd syst or two accumulator.

178. Which syst is de-activated when the parking brake is selected ?

a. All braking modes

179. Where is the parking brake pressure indicated ?

a. Ecam
b. Tripple indicator..
c. No indication

180. How are the return lines Shuttoff when the parking brake is applied ?
a. By the auto selector valve

181. With the parking brake ON how long is the pressure required to be maintained
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours..
c. 24 hours

182. What is the optimum braking efficiency ?

a. 12 % wheel slip

183. What is the lower limit for anti skid function ?

a. 10 knt (5 m/s)

184. Swivel selector valve function :

a. Valve moves to close the press and isolates the nose wheel steering syst (NLG
retraction) or valve aligns the nose wheel steering to the green hyd syst (NLG
extends)

185. Inflight braking controlled from :

a. BSCU to open normal servo valve auto only for 3 second

186. L/G selector handle Red Arrow Illuminiate ?

a. L/G down and not lock during landing configuration

187. Three indicator LT ON L/G panel is sent by ?

a. LGCIU 1..
b. LGCIU 2

188. Power to operate free fall syst is supply by ?

a. Hot Batt Bus

FIRE PROTECTION ( ATA 26 )

189. Where are the Fire detectors located ?

a. On the accessory gear box,the pylon and the turbin
b. On the accessory gear box and the pylon
c. On the pylon and the core (left and right)..

190. When does the disch light come on ?

a. In case of bottle discharge or during the test

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191. What does the Squib light represent during test ?

a. The continuity of the squib circuit

192. How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished ?

a. From apu panel
b. From external power control panel
c. Automatically..

193. How many fire detectors does the APU fire detection syst comprise ?
a. Two (loop A and B)

194. How can an overpressure discharge of the bottle be detected ?

a. By the red disch indicator

195. In case of APU fire on ground what additional warnings are actived ?
a. APU fire light comes on the external power control panel and external horn is
actived

196. How are the avionics smoke detectors connected to the SDCU ?
a. In parallel
b. In series
c. In a dual loop..

197. How many smoke detectors are installed in all in the FWD,AFT and BULK cargo
compartment
a. Ten..
b. Six
c. Three

198. What is the right statement about the two cargo fire extinguisher bottles ?
a. Bottle one is of the quick discharge type and bottle two is flow metered

199. What does the SDCU continuously monitor on the extinguishing system?
a. The bottle pressure and the squib circuit condition

200. Which warning do we get in case of lavatory smoke ?

a. Lavatory smoke warning in the cockpit and cabin

201. What happens when a fire is detected in a waste bin ?

a. An automatic extinguishing occurs

202. In case of lavatory smoke detection the warning are sent to ?

a. FWC and CIDCS..

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM ( ATA 24 )

203. AC ESSensial Busses are normaly supplied by BUS 1, in abnormal condition which
bus supplies AC essential busses ?
a. AC BUS 2..
b. AC GND/FLT BUS
c. 26V AC BUS

204. In normal configuration which source supplies DC BATT BUS

a. Batteries
b. DC BUS 1..
c. DC BUS 2

205. What is the power of the IDG ?

a. 90 KVA
b. 110 KVA
c. 115 KVA..

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206. What is the power of the APU GEN ?

a. 115 KVA..
b. 90 KVA
c. 110 KVA

207. With engines running what is the power Of the CSM/G ?

a. 6.5 KVA
b. 7 KVA
c. 8 KVA..

208. What is the output Static inverter ?

a. 2.5 KVA..
b. 2 kva

209. How much normal BATT capacity ?

a. 37 AH each..
b. 3.7 AH each

210. Which computer controls the IDG voltage and frequency ?

a. GPCU
b. ECMU
c. GCU..

211. What is the 301PP bus for the GCU ?

a. Normal supply
b. Back-up supply..

212. GLC 2 is controlled by which computers ?

a. GCU2 and ECMU2..
b. GCU1 and ECMU1

213. How does the CSD convert the variable speed input to the out put constant speed ?
a. Via a differential gear and a hydraulic trim unit

214. What short of signal does the ECU use to control the servo valve ?
a. An error signal

215. What are the conditions to reset IDG ?

a. To be on ground with engines stopped..
b. To be in flight

216. When does the oil temp sensor trigger the warning ?
a. If oil outlet temp reaches 185 deg cel

217. The low oil press warnings are inhibited by which parameter ?
a. The low IDG input speed

218. When does the fault legend of the APU GEN p/b come on
a. When the APU GLC is faulty or when wrong parameters are detected

219. What happens in case of detection of high oil temp ?

a. An automatic shutdown is performed by the ECB

220. ON what does the logic control function of the APU GLC depend ?
a. On the status of the AC main contactors and GCUs

221. How is the CSM/G started ?

a. Automatically if AC main busses 1 and 2 are lost or manually by the MAN ON
p/b switch on

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222. Which component connects the CSM/G to the AC ESS busses ?
a. The emergency GLC

223. When does the CSM/G GCU authorize the connection to the network ?
a. When the nominal volt and freq are reached

224. Which busses are shed when the CSM/G is supplied by the RAT ?
a. DC ESS BUS SHED and AC BUS 401XP

225. In case of total loss of AC buses 1 and 2 when is the CSM/G active ?
a. Aircraft in flight , landing gear retracted

226. What are the necessary conditions to extend the RAT ?

a. Engine 1 and 2 below 50 %

227. Which AC bus normally powers the AC ess bus and AC ess shed bus ?
a. AC BUS 1..
b. AC BUS 2

228. Which busbars can be supplied by the static inverter ?

a. The AC ESS BUS only

229. Which contactors does ECMU 1 manage ?

a. Side 1 contactors

230. What is the main function of NBPT ?

a. To perform a supply transfer between two electrical sources without cutoff

231. What happens if one of the necessary conditions to generate the synchronization
window is not met ?
a. A conventional transfer occurs with a break of the supply

232. How many ARINC 429 buses are used for interfaces ?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three..

233. What is the purpose of the selector A ?

a. To allow CBMU memory reprogramming

234. What happens in case of emergency configuration ?

a. The CBMU is longer supplied

235. In with case will the RAT automatically pressurize the green system ?
a. Low level in green and blue reservoir

HYDRAULIC SYSTEM ( ATA 29 )

236. How is the green syst normally pressurized ?

a. By two engine pump and one electrical pump

237. From where are the hyd fire shutoff valve operated ?
a. The fire control panel

238. In the event of low pressure the priority valve cuts-off hyd press to which of the
following ?
a. Large power consumers

239. Which hyd syst supplies the CSM/G ?

a. Blue syst

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b. Yellow syst
c. Green syst..

240. A blue syst pipe lines is identified by ?

a. A blue band and number 2

241. To what value is the reservoir pressurized with air ?

a. 50 psi
b. 60 psi
c. 65 psi..

242. Where are the green syst EDP located ?

a. Eng 1
b. Eng 1 and 2..
c. Eng 2

243. What type of electrical pump is fitted to the green syst ?

a. Two stage booster and twin variable displacement type

244. Which of the following emergency conditions will deploy the RAT ?
a. Low level in green and yellow reservoirs

245. What is the function of the green leak measurement valve ?

a. To shutoff supply to the primary flight control

246. Where is the yellow syst EDP located ?

a. Eng 1
b. Eng 2..
c. Eng 1 and 2

247. When will the yellow electric pump run automatically on the ground ?
a. During cargo doors operation

248. Where is the syst press transducer located ?

a. On the LP manifold
b. On the HP manifold..

249. Where is the blue EDP located ?

a. Eng 1 and 2
b. Eng 1..
c. Eng 2

250. In which mode does the blue electrical pump operate ?

a. Automatically
b. Only manually..

251. What is purpose of the manual selector valves ?

a. To provide independent control of the hyd supply of the components in the LH
wing,RH wing or AFT fuselage

252. Where is the FWD recovery tank located ?

a. In the yellow hyd compartment

253. Where does the slat power control unit drain into ?
a. The FWD recovery tank

254. When does the RAT is automatically extended ?

a. In flight,above 100 knt in case of both Green and yellow RSVR LO LVL

255. Which component lights the Actuator Press lamp ?

a. The manifold press switch..

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b. The actuator prox swt
c. The interlock prox swt

256. What is the purpose of the blade index mechanism ?

a. It locks the leg assy in the up position

257. What is the purpose of the volumetrix fuse in the RAT manifold ?
a. It returns back the flow to off load the turbine

258. Which component lights the ACT PRESS lamp ?

a. The monifold press swt..
b. The act prox swt
c. The interlock prox swt

259. What is the pirpose of the bleed index mechanism ?

a. It locks the leg assy in the up position

260. What is purpose of the volumetrix fuse in the RAT manifold ?

a. It returns back the flow to off load the turbine

261. Must the HYD reservoirs be depress before filling ?

a. Yes
b. No..

262. What is the main function of the restrictor ?

a. To protect the syst against overpress

263. What happens when the filling filter is clogged ?

a. The fluid is stopped ; filling is impossible

264. What are manual depress vlv provided for ?

a. Individual reservoir depress

265. What is purpose of the press reducing vlv ?

a. To reduce press
b. To regulate press
c. A and B ..

266. To what do the two air pressurization units provided press ?

a. One to green reservoir,second to blue and yellow

267. Which hyd supply press is required to carry out to the groung leak test ?
a. EDP
b. Ground service cart..

268. What happens when you release the guarded leak measurement switch to off
a. The leak measurement vlv closes

269. On the ground how do you extend the RAT ?

a. Pushing the RAT MAN ON swt on the OVHD panel

270. When do you install the RAT safety pin ?

a. On the ground for maintenance practices

PNEUMATIC SYSTEM ( ATA 36 )

271. What is purpose of IP / HP transfer ?

a. To keep air bleed with sufficient press at low engine speed

272. What is purpose of the ThS ?

a. To send a pneumatic signal to regulate or shut off the PRV

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273. What is the purpose of the ThC ?

a. To send a pneumatic signal to control the FAV

274. What is the Engine bleed air source when engine is at normal speed (take off
power ) ?
a. HP press stage
b. IP press stage of engine compressor..

275. When is the PRV automatically controlled to close by the BMC ?

a. In case of fault in the system or start of corresponding engine or APU bleed
supply

276. What is the FAN AIR VALVE (FAV) function ?

a. It modulates the cold airflow provided to the precooler for bleed air temprature
regulation

277. What is purpose of the wing leading edge ventilation ?

a. To remove flammable fuel vapor and to cool hot component

278. What is purpose of the wing leading edge,pylon and nacelle protection ?
a. To avoid excessive pressure

279. Where is location of ThC / ThS ?

a. Down stream of the Precooler

280. Where is location of Pr ?

a. Down stream off PRV (up stream OPV)

281. Where is location of Pt ?

a. Up stream of PRV

282. What is the purpose of the PRV associated with the selenoid (ThS)
a. It regulates the press for pneumatic users

283. What is the purpose of the OPV ?

a. It protects the down stream pneumatic system from overpress

284. What pressure is indicated on the pneumatic part of the ECAM BLEED page ?
a. The regulate pressure measured downstream from the PRV

285. What is purpose of the preecooler ?

a. It cools the hot air from the engine compressor

286. When is the 150*C regulation active ?

a. Selenoid energized and Wing anti ice OFF

287. What temprature is indicated on the ECAM ?

a. The temp downstream from the precooler

288. Why does the APU bleed vlv not open when a LH wing or pylon 1 leak occurs ?
a. In order to protect the RH bleed syst

289. Why are there two electrical motors on the crossbleed valve
a. One for manual mode and one for auto mode

290. Which pneumatic ducts are monitored by a double loop detection system?
a. Apu
b. Pylons
c. Wings..

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291. What happens if BMC 1 is lost ?
a. Pylon 1 and APU leak detections are lost

ANTI ICE ( ATA 30 )

292. Which slats are supplied with hot air ?
a. The four outboard slats

293. What happens when the wing ANTI ICE p/b is set to ON on ground ?
a. The WAI vlvs open for 30 seconds

294. What should be done when a field vlv is manually locked ?

a. The equivalent vlv on the other wing must be locked in the same position

295. Which vlv controls the De-icing of slat 4 ?

a. The Inner vlv

296. What happens to the vlv in case of loss of electrical power supply while the engine is
running and the syst is selected off ?
a. The vlv will open..
b. Nothing

297. How are the vlvs controlled ?

a. By the PADEC according to the p/b position

298. What is the heat source for engine air intake anti icing ?
a. 15 th comp stage

299. What is purpose of the hardwired alternate start/ignition discrete signal ?

a. To commabd the PRSOV when the data bus information is not avail

300. When is the TAT probe heated ?

a. In flight ,not on the ground

301. When is the pitot probe heated ?

a. Normal heating in flight,low heating on the ground

302. What happens in case of a WHC failure ?

a. The heating of the related side is lost

303. What happens when the EIVMU or LGCIU power supply CB is pulled (flight mode)?
a. The windshield and windows are heated

304. How are the left (right) window heating elements connected ?
a. In series..
b. Parallel
c. Independently

305. What happens when the temp reaches +60*C

a. The heating is cut off

OXIGEN / WATER AND WASTE ( ATA 35 & 38 )

306. What indicates an overboard discharge (OXY) ?

a. A yellow indicator on the fuselage

307. What does the ECAM HP press indication state when the manual ON/OFF valve is
closed ?
a. The press in the cylinder
b. Zero psi..

308. Can the cylinder press be cheked on unpowered aircraft ?

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a. Yes ,on the direct reading press gauge..
b. No

309. What happens when the 100 % position is selected ?

a. The user breathes pure non-pressurized oxygen

310. What does the OXY ON flag indicate ?

a. The piston vlv has been operated and has to be reset

311. Is the mask regulator supplied by Oxy press when the mask is stowed inside the
box ?
a. No ,because the piston vlv s/o the mask regulator supply when the door is closed

312. What do you test by pressing the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET control button ?
a. Leaks in the regulator

313. What do you test by pressing the harness inflation control lever ?
a. Leaks in the harness

314. What should you chk after the filling procedure ?

a. Pressure on gauge = pressure DOOR/OXY page

315. In which position should the oxy cyl vlv be to perform the test ?
a. Open
b. Close..

316. The oxygen system is tested with :

a. A nitrogen source

317. When does the fault lt on the TIMER RESET p/b come on ?
a. If there is a failure of both switch off relays

318. What happens when you press the MAN ON p/b on panel 211 vu ?
a. SYS ON indicator light come on
TMR RESET swtch FAULT light stays off
Emergency announcement starts
Oxygen box doors open

319. What happens when you push the TMR RESET p/b on panel 285 VU ?
a. TMR RESET switch ON indicator comes on
SYS ON indicator light goes off
Emergency announcement stops

320. What is the hood absortion syst function ?

a. To trap the carbon dioxide contained in the expired gas

321. How are the cabin attendants supplied with oxy ?

a. From the protective breathing equipment and the high pressure oxygen cylinders
fitted with continous flow type masks

322. What has to be disconnected in order to remove the oxy cylinder ?

a. Regulator/tranmitter and HP oxy over press hose

323. Is it necessary to use protective caps after disconnection of the regulator/tranmiter

and the HP oxy overpress hose ?
a. Yes, blanking caps on thr regulator/trans and on the HP oxy over press hose as
well as stowage caps on the cylinder vlv

324. How is it possible to service the potable water system :

a. With electrical power
b. Without electrical power

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c. Both ..

325. How can the toilet service valves be operated ?

a. Only manually..
b. Only electrically

326. Where is the toilet service panel located ?

a. Bottom center line of the aircraft

327. How can a leak in lavatory be stopped ?

a. By setting the water sov of the lavatory to close

328. With electrical power connected,what happen when the water level inside the tank
reaches the preselected qty ?
a. The FWD and aft fill and drain valves close and the filling line drain valve opens

329. How many water service and drain panels are fitted on the A/C ?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three..

330. Where is the main water qty indication located ?

a. On the FWD attendant panel

331. Which service panels are used to drain the water system ?
a. All the three

332. From which source are the water tanks normally pressurized in flight ?
a. Aircraft pneumatic system

333. Which component prevents overpressure in the water tanks ?

a. The pressure reducing and relief valve

334. Which systems prevent a permanent air leakage of the cabin air when the waste
water is drained overboard ?
a. The diaphragm type drain valve

335. When does the vacuum generator run ?

a. On the ground and at low altitude

336. Which divice inhibith vacuum generator operation ?

a. Vacuum system controller

337. How is the waste material transported to the waste holding tank ?
a. By the vacuum created inside the tank

338. What controls the waste level balancing in flight ?

a. A control handle operated by the cabin crew

FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM ( ATA 27 )

339. Which surface ensure the MLA function ?
a. Certain spoilers and ailerons..
b. Spoiler only
c. Aileron only

340. Which are the function ensured by 6 spoilers ?

a. The speed brake and the ground spoiler function

341. What are possible modes of the elevator servo controls ?

a. Active ,damping and centering..

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342. How the THS screw jack powered ?
a. By the two hyd motor..
b. By the three hyd motor

343. What are the command received by the rudder mechanical infut ?
a. Rudder pedal input , rudder trim input and yaw dumper input

344. Which computer control the rudder trim motors ?

a. The FCSCs only..
b. The FCPC only

345. Is the RTLU designed to ?

a. Decrease the rudder travel in high speed configuration

346. In normal operation what are the elevator and the THS controlled by ?
a. The FCPC 1..
b. The FCPC 2

347. What are the elevators driven by ?

a. The green servo controls (left and right)..
b. The blue servo control
c. The yellow servo control

348. In normal operation what are the two hyd motor motors of the THS controlled by ?
a. Electric motor 1 and the other two are in stand by..
b. Electric motor 3

349. How can a jammed control valve be detected ?

a. By a jammed indicator on the THS actuactor

350. What happens if an electric motor fails ?

a. There are two other electric motors available

351. What is the elevator servo control mode after a total electrical failure ?
a. Active
b. Damping
c. Centering..

352. What is the elevator servo control mode after a hydraulic failure ?
a. Active
b. Damping..
c. Centering

353. When is one selenoid valve energized ?

a. In active mode
b. In damping mode..
c. In centering mode

354. What are possible alternate protections ?

a. High angle of attack and high speed only

355. What are protections which can be engaged in flare mode ?

a. Normal and alternate high angle of attack protections only

356. When is the selenoid valve energized ?

a. In active mode

357. What is the aileron servo control mode after hydraulic or electrical failure ?
a. Active
b. Damping..
c. Centering

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358. What happens following a hyd failure in flight ?

a. The spoiler retracts and is locked

359. What happens following an electrical failure ?

a. The spoiler retracts and is locked

360. What happens when S/F configuration is 1+F and the CAS reaches 200 knots
a. Flap retract automatically to 0 and the new S/F configuration is 1

361. Concerning the WTB selenoid valves which of the following statements is true

a. Each selenoid is supplied by one hyd system and controlled by one SFCC

362. What is the WTB proximity switch data used for ?

a. Used on ground only by both SFCCs for the WTB engagement test

LIGHT ( ATA 33 )
363. In electrical emergency configuration which cockpit lights remain on ?
a. F/O dome lt and LH center lightning instrument panel

364. Which lt is automatically dimmed when the cockpit door is opened and the engines
are running ?
a. The LH FWD entry lt

365. What happens in case of data bus failure ?

a. The cabin and entrance ill come on at full intensity level

366. Where are the switches to control avionic comp lightning located ?
a. One in the Avionic comp and one in the cockpit

367. When are the runway turn off lt powered ?

a. When the nose landing gear is down locked

368. What is the navigation tail lt voltage ?

a. 28 vac
b. 12 VAC..

369. Which lt come on when the light Emer p/b is pressed ?

a. Escape path markings , cabin emergency lightning and exit sign

DOOR ( ATA 50 & 52 )

370. Which adjustable fitting ensures contact between door and door frame when the door
is closed ?
a. Door stop fitting

371. When does the damper & emergency cylinder work as a damper ?
a. When the arming lever is in “DISARMED” position

372. How is the inner handle released when the door frame is in contact with the frame ?
a. By the lowering shaft

373. When does the safety pin lock the arming lever ?
a. In DISARMED POSITION

374. What happens when you open the door from outside in ARMED mode ?
a. The system is automatically disarmed

375. Why must the cylinder pin be installed ?

a. To prevent activation of the percussion mechanism

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376. What does the red flag indicator show ?
a. The corresponding hook is not locked

377. What does the green lt fitted near the manual selector valve indicated ?
a. The door is fully opened & locked

378. How is the door seal attached to the door structure ?

a. By a “C” section

379. What is interlock mechanism installed for ?

a. Avoid inadvertent closing when the door is opened and the handles fully opened

380. Why is the actuactor opening camber pressurized when closing the door ?
a. To prevent the door from falling down when the actuctor unlocks

381. When does the cabin pressure red light flash ?

a. When the door is disarmed the engines are not running and the differential
pressure is too high

382. Which proximity sensor is used for escape slide indicating and door indicating ?
a. Locking shaft proximity sensor

383. When does the residual cabin press red light come on ?
a. When engines are not running the slide is disarmed and the cabin residual
pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars

384. What is display on the DOOR ECAM page when the door is fully opened ?
a. Door not closed

385. When the manual selector valve supplied ?

a. When the latching shaft prox.sensor is near and the sill lacthes are up

386. ATA 21. If there is overheat outlet of ACM comp the flow control valve ?
a. Pneumatically start to close under action of pneumatic overheat sensor..
b. Auto open by de-energizes selenoid valve

387. The ON/OFF selenoid the FCV is energized :

a. To closed the vlv incase of the eng start,ditching,engine fire P/B selected..
b. To close the vlv only incase of pack overheat and engine start

388. The supply of the avionic ventilation system is ensured by :

a. The recirculation fan of the cabin ventilation system..
b. A specific flowing fan continuously powered in flight

389. Trim air shut off valve :

a. Open under control of zone controller when there is a failure in trim air valve..
b. Open if there is hot air P/B switch off position

390. Emergency Ram air is :

a. Automatically controlled by the pack controller
b. Manual controlled by execeses of P/B switch..

391. When the emergency Ram Air inlet flap is open ?

a. Pressurization outflow valve go in fully closed pos
b. Pressurization outflow valve half open provided the delta p lower than 1 psi..

392. The function of each pack controller is to ensure ?

a. The airflow regulation air basic temp controls..

393. By selecting the cabin temp page on the FWD attendant panel you can
a. Adjust before flt range of regulated by the panel

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b. Slightly adjust in each cabin zone the temp selected in the cockpit..

394. On ECAM ,the pack parameters sypnoties are located ?

a. On the A/C page
b. On the Bleed page..
c. On the temp pack

395. In case of ACM failure the pack controller open ?

a. The pack by pass vlv to permit operation in the heat exchanger mode..

396. The Trim air valve are controlled by ?

a. The pack controllers
b. Two zone controllers
c. One zone controller for the fine adjustment of temp..

397. The pack outlet air temp control is auto achived by controlling the ambient of :
a. Ram air throught in the heat exch and hot air throught the control valve..

398. The purpose of the Trim air press regulator valve ?

a. To regulate the hot air press above the cabin press..
b. To regulate the mass of air flow at the inlet of pack

399. Monitoring of the supply of the avionic equipment ventilation system obtained by :
a. The cooling effect detector which is a different
b. The cooling effect detector which measures the cooling capacity..

400. The lavatory and galley extraction fan :

a. Operates continuously flt n grnd
b. Operates continuously on ground n flt when delta p lower than 1 psi..

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