Biology Practice Exa1

Biology Practice Exam
Try this free biology practice test to see how prepared you are for a biology exam. Whether you
are in high school or college, you are likely to have a biology requirement. Biology tests cover such
subjects as the chemistry of life, evolution, genetics and ecology.
For a more comprehensive study of biology, try our 400 question Biology Practice Exam.
View Answers as You Go View 1 Question at a Time
1. The net effect of photosynthesis, chemically, is reduction, leading to the formation of which products?
a. Carbon dioxide and carbohydrates
b. Carbon dioxide and protein
c. Oxygen and carbohydrates
d. Oxygen and ATP
2. A cell membrane is ______________?
a. Permeable
b. Semipermeable
c. Nonpermeable
d. None of the above.
3. A cell uses which of the following to accelerate Study Online Instantly
chemical reactions enabling its metabolic
machinery to operate?
a. Centrasome
b. Lysosome
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Enzymes
4. Which of the following is not part of the metabolic
sequence?
a. Photosynthesis
b. Respiration
c. Hydoplasm
d. Digestion
5. Which of the following are NOT organelles found in animal cells?
a. Nucleus and golgi apparatus
b. Cellular membrane and cytoplasm
c. Mitochondria and ribosomes
d. Chloroplast and central vacuole
6. Light initiates different types of cellular reactions. Which of the following responses to light converts
the energy from light into a gain of potential energy?
a. Phototaxis
b. Photoperiodism
c. Photosynthesis
d. All of the above
7. The functional unit of heredity is the _____________.
a. Gene
b. Chromosome
c. Protein
d. Nucleus
8. DNA exists in the form of __________ strands of DNA coiled about each other.
a. Double
b. Triple
c. Quadruple
d. Quintuple
9. Genes are located within the cytoplasm of the cell.
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Endoplasmic reticulum
10. Genetic information is transferred from the nucleus to cytoplasm by way of _______________.
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Dexyribonucleic acid
c. Ribonucleic acid
d. Amino acid
11. When sexual reproduction occurs in multicellular organisms, a process takes place before cells fuse
whereby a cell is left with half of its chromosomes, enabling the creation of a cell with a characteristic
chromosome number. What is this process called?
a. Osmosis
b. Meiosis
c. Anabolism
d. Differentiation
12. Which of the following represents the largest group of biological classification?
a. Kingdom
b. Species
c. Class
d. Genus
13. There are two types of cells, eukaryotic and prokaryotic. Which of the following cellular structures
are found in both types of cell?
DNA
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
14. What it is the name given to specialized structures within cells responsible for carrying out specific
functions such as providing energy and producing hormones?
a. Mitiosis
b. Apoptosis
c. Archaeans
d. Organelles
15. All of the following are similarities between unicellular organisms and multicellular organisms,
except _____________.
a. Internal complexity
b. Division of labor
c. Size
d. Ecological relationships
16. How many chromosomes does an individual human person have?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 64
d. 82
17. A multicellular organism is:
a. A group of differentiated eukaryotic cells that work together to support the function of an organism
b. A colony of single-celled organisms
c. The simplest form of life on Earth
d. Only contains prokaryotic cells
18. The term thallus refers to the plant-like structure of which of the following organisms?
a. Brown algae
b. Lichens
c. Fungus
d. Mold
19. Single-celled protists with animal-like behavior belong to the phylum ______________.
a. Metazoa
b. Porifera
c. Protozoa
d. Mollusca
20. The bodies of all insects have _______ major divisions.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
21. Sterile female honey bees are called _________________.
a. Drones
b. Queen
c. Guards
d. Workers
22. Which of the following organisms is a vertabrate?
Frogs
Insects
Earthworms
Sea stars
23. Many animals protect themselves with an exoskeleton. Which of the following is an example of an
animal with an exoskeleton?
a. Mollusk
b. Bird
c. Turtle
d. Snake
24 Locomotion in Metazoa is usually due to the Study Online Instantly
. contraction of what?
a. Skeleton
b. Muscle
c. Skin
d. Nerves
25 In normal sexual reproduction, two mature

. gametes fuse to form a(n) _____________.
a. Gonad
b. Ovary
c. Embryogeny
d. Zygote
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26. In humans, how do the sex chromosomes differ between males and females?
a. Males have two X chromosomes and females have two Y chromosomes
b. Females have two X chromosomes and males have two Y chromosomes
c. Males have two X chromosomes and females one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
d. Females have two X chromosomes and males one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
27. Changes in the genetic makeup of an organism may be due to which of the following?
a. New combinations of chromosomes
b. Chromosome mutation
c. Gene mututation
d. All of the above
28. The phrase "survival of the fittest" is an alternate phrase expressing which of the following
principles?
a. Natural Selection
b. Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics
c. Mutation
d. Mendelian Inheritance
29. Which of the following directly (as opposed to indirectly) supports Charles Darwin's theory of
evolution?
a. Evidence from Paleontology
b. Evidence from Geographical Distribution
c. Evidence from Physiology
d. Evidence from Genetics
30. ___________ occurs when organisms of different species mate and form offspring.
Hybridization
Interference
Speciation
Polyploidy
Biology, 6/e
Author Dr. George B. Johnson, Washington University

Author Dr. Peter H. Raven, Missouri Botanical Gardens & Washington University
Contributor Dr. Susan Singer, Carleton College
Contributor Dr. Jonathan Losos, Washington University
How We Classify Organisms

Multiple Choice Quiz
Please answer all questions
1 A group of organisms at any particular level in a classification system is called a
A)species
B)genus
C)taxon
D)phylum
2 Scientific names higher than genus are
A)capitalized but not printed distinctively, italicized, or underlined
B)italicized or underlined
C)capitalized and italicized or underlined
D)italicized or underlined with the first word capitalized
3 As a practical definition of species, one can say that they are a group of organisms characterized
by all of the following except they
A)do not normally interbreed with other species in nature
B)can be distinguished from other species
are incapable of hybridization with other species

C)
D)remain relatively constant
4 The institution of the classification level of domain was prompted by
A)the overabundance of kingdoms
B)cladistics
C)great differences among bacteria
D)the taxonomic problem presented by viruses
5 Viruses are denied a kingdom of their own because
A)they are too poorly understood
B)they are too small
C)their genetics cannot be determined
D)they are not organisms
6 Viruses are assigned to the kingdom
A)Archaebacteria
B)Protista
C)Eubacteria
Fungi
D)
E)none of the above
7 A major problem with polynomial names was that they were
A)inaccurate
B)cumbersome
C)not descriptive
D)in Latin
E)in Greek
8 The plant alternation of generations is characterized by _______________ meiosis.
A)zygotic
B)somatic
C)sporic
D)generic
E)gametic
9 When writing species epithets, it is sometimes permissible to abbreviate the _______________

name.
species
A)
B)phylum
C)order
D)family
E)genus
1 True multicellularity occurs only in

0
A)animals
B)eukaryotes
C)plants and animals
D)plants, animals and protists
E)plants, animals and fungi
1 A related group of genera comprise

1
A)an order
B)a family
C)a class
D)a phylum
E)a division
1 Prokaryotic organisms make up the

2
A)Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, and Protists
B)Archaebacteria and Protists
C)Protists and Eubacteria
D)Protists
E)Eubacteria and Archaebacteria
1 In the current taxonomic system, families are grouped into

3
A)classes
B)phyla
C)orders
D)divisions
E)kingdoms
1 Of the six kingdoms now recognized,

4
two are plants and four are animals
A)
B)four are eukaryotes and two are prokaryotes
C)four are macroscopic and two are microscopic
D)two are eukaryotes and four are prokaryotes
E)two are carnivorous and four are herbivorous
1 In plant taxonomy, a division is the equivalent to _______________ .

5
A)family
B)order
C)class
D)phylum
E)kingdom
1 Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped into

6
A)Fungi and protists
B)Fungi and Eubacteria
C)only protists
D)only Fungi
E)Fungi, protists, and Eubacteria
1 In printed scientific names, only the _______________ is capitalized.

7
A)family
B)class
C)species
D)kingdom
E)genus
1 In the early 1700's, the classification system used was

8
A)polynomial
B)pentanomial
C)binomial
D)tetranomial
E)trinomial
1 In printing scientific names, it is conventional for only the _______________ to be underlined or

9 italicized.
binomial
A)
B)genus
C)species
D)division
E)kingdom
2 Characteristics that have arisen as a result of common evolutionary descent are said to be
0
A)analogous
B)homogenous
C)heterogamous
D)homologous
E)contiguous
2 A kingdom that also comprises a domain is

1
A)Eubacteria
B)Protista
C)Fungi
D)Prokaryota
E)none of the above
2 The oldest level of taxonomic classification is

2
A)class
B)family
C)genus
D)phylum
E)species
2 Multicellular organisms and unicellular yeasts are contained in

3
A)Animalia
B)Plantae
C)Protista
D)Fungi
E)Eubacteria
2 Throughout the world, official species names are in

4
Latin
A)
B)Greek
C)English
D)French
E)the native language
2 A taxon consisting of the most closely related species is called a(n) ________________.
5
A)family
B)order
C)genus
D)phylum
2 Modern biologists prefer to perceive the phylogenetic tree of organisms as multibranched, rather
6 than linear, with no particular species being "higher", or superior, to another.
A)True
B)False
2 The binomial system of classification was developed by:

7
A)Darwin
Wallace
B)
C)Linnaeus
D)Malthus
E)none of the above
2 Which one of the following sequences shows the correct hierarchy of classification, going from
8 the most inclusive to the least inclusive?
A)Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
B)Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
C)Genus, Species, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family
D)Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Kingdom
E)Domain, Phylum, Kingdom, Genus, Species, Family, Order, Class
2 At the present time, scientists have named approximately ____ species.

9
A)100,000
B)500,000
C)1,000,000
D)1,500,000
10,000,000
E)
3 Cladistic taxonomy places the birds as Archosaurs, along with the:
0
A)mammals
B)crocodilians
C)turtles
D)snakes
E)none of the above
3 Polynomial classification has recently begun to replace the binomial system.

1
A)True
B)False
3 The scientific name is derived from the genus and species to which an organism belongs.
2
A)True
B)False
3 Biologists currently recognize three kingdoms: Plants, Animals, and Protists.

3
True
A)
B)False
3 A cladogram conveys information about ancestors and descendants of an organism.

4
A)True
B)False
3 The separation of the Archaebacteria into a separate domain indicates

5
A)that these organisms are very different from eubacteria and from eukaryotes
that organisms should never be classified according to how they appear (morphological
B)
characteristics)
C)that early taxonomists rushed to classify them without closely examining them
that optical viewing techniques have greatly improved so that we can better view
D)
these microorganisms
E)none of the above
3 You might find methanogens:

6
A)in swamps
B)in a cow's stomach
C)in marshes
all of the above

D)
E)none of the above
Chapter 32 (p. 664)

1. The polynomial system employed a string of several names to identify single organisms. It
could vary from individual to individual, and so was both a cumbersome and nonsystematic
technique for identification.
2. The current hierarchical taxonomic system names are as follows: species, genus, family,
order, class, phylum, and kingdom. Genus and species are either underlined or italicized, and the
species name is not capitalized.
3. Features reflecting evolutionary relatedness are used in cladistics. The resulting cladogram
shows the historical order in which evolutionary branches arose during the history of the group.
4. Statistically-determined significant characters are given more weight or emphasis in phenetic
analysis.
5. There is a greater fundamental difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes than between
plants and animals. All plants and animals have a true nucleus and several membrane-bound
organelles. Prokaryotes have none of these structures. There are other differences between
prokaryotes and eukaryotes, just as there are differences between plants and animals. However,
the differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes mentioned above are most basic.
6. The Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia have evolved from Protista.
7. Organelles such as chloroplasts and mitochondria and perhaps locomotor mechanisms such as
basal bodies, cilia, and flagella were acquired through endosymbiotic bacteria.
8. Multicellular organisms possess a significant degree of coordination and integration among the
individual cells of the group. Multicellularity arose many times in the evolutionary process. Its
advantages are the ability to carry out activities, including self-protection, movement, and search
for food and mates, with a complexity not possible by unicellular organisms.
9. Stress prompts sexual reproduction in many unicellular protists. The three major life cycles in
eukaryotes are (1) zygotic meiosis, in which the zygote is the only diploid cell; on forming it, the
cell immediately undergoes meiosis; (2) gametic meiosis, in which the gametes are the only
haploid cells, and two fuse and form the diploid zygote that grows to adulthood; and (3) sporic
meiosis, in which there is a regular alternation of generations between a multicellular haploid
phase and a multicellular diploid phase. The diploid phase produces spores that grow into a
haploid phase, which then produces gametes, two of which then fuse to form the diploid zygote,
the first cell of the multicellular diploid phase.
Biology, 6/e
How We Classify Organisms
Answers to Review Questions
Biology, 6/e

The Origin and Early History of Life
The site of life's origin is
A) the ocean's edge
B) unknown
C) under frozen oceans
D) near deep-sea vents
The earliest cellular life forms appear to have been
A) viruses
B) one-celled plants
C) one-celled animals
D) bacteria
3
Life on earth is carbon based. Similar molecules could be formed with
A) potassium
B) aluminum
C) iron
D) silicon
Scientists generally agree that the first molecules formed as life evolved were
A) proteins
B) RNA
C) peptides and nucleic acids
D) none of the above
Of the following, ____ was not contained in the Miller-Urey original mixture.
A) water
B) nitrogen
C) hydrogen
D) phosphorus
6
Which of the following organisms alive today is likely to be most similar to the first life forms that
evolved on the earth?
A) methane-producing bacteria
B) cyanobacteria
C) algae
D) dinosaurs
E) humans
Which of the following gases is least likely to have existed in the early atmosphere of the earth?
A) NH3
B) CO2
C) N2
D) H2O
E) O2
How old is the earth?
A) 4.6 billion years old
B) 3.5 billion years old
C) 2.5 billion years old
D) 1.5 billion years old
E) 0.5 billion years old

9
How long did the earth exist before life appeared on it?
A) 4.5 billion years
B) 2.7 billion years
C) 1 billion years
D) 1 million years
E) 3 thousand years
10
Which of the following was not a source of energy on the early earth?
A) lightning
B) ozone
C) ultraviolet radiation
D) volcanic eruptions
E) all of the above were a source of energy
11
How long have bacteria lived on the earth?
A) 4.5 billion years
B) 3.5 billion years
C) 2.5 billion years
D) 1.5 billion years

12
Within our own solar system, the most likely candidate for having life on it is
A) our moon
B) Jupiter
C) Venus
D) the sun
E) Europa, a moon of Jupiter
13
The oldest fossils found so far date back to the
A) Cambrian Period
B) Archean Era
C) Phanerozoic Era
D) Proterozoic Era
14
Multicellular fossils appear at the beginning of the
A) Proterozoic Era
B) Precambrian Period
C) Archean Era
D) Phanerozoic Era
E) Cambrian Period
15
Which of the following traits evolved last (i.e., most recently)?
A) prokaryotic cells
B) eukaryotic cells
C) multicellularity
D) photosynthesis
E) heredity
16
Approximately what percentage of today's atmosphere is oxygen?
A) 21%
B) 73%
C) 1%
D) 50%
E) 13%
17
What gas in today's atmosphere shields us from ultraviolet radiation?
A) ozone
B) nitrogen
C) oxygen
D) carbon dioxide
E) carbon monoxide
18
Miller and Urey's experiments proved that
A) life evolved on earth from inanimate chemicals
B) coacervates were the first type of protocells
C) complex organic molecules can form spontaneously under conditions that probably
existed on the early earth
D) RNA can act as an enzyme and assemble new RNA molecules from RNA templates
E) bacteria were the first type of living organism to appear on the earth
19
Which of the following is not a characteristic of all living organisms?
A) reproduction
B) heredity
C) metabolism
D) movement from place to place
E) all of the above are characteristics of all living organisms
20
Which of the following is not found in a lipid coacervate droplet or a proteinoid microsphere?
A) the ability to grow
B) a nucleus
C) a two-layer boundary
D) division by pinching in two

E) the ability to carry out chemical reactions
21
The Miller-Urey experiments yielded
A) urea
B) hydrogen cyanide
C) amino acids
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
22
What did Miller and Urey use as a source of energy in their experiments?
A) actual lightning
B) UV light
C) an electrical spark
D) radioactivity
E) volcanoes
23
The oxygen that is present in our atmosphere comes primarily from the
A) eruption of volcanoes
B) breakdown of ozone
C) breathing of animals
D) photosynthesis of plants, algae, and bacteria
24
All of the following have been proposed as a type of protocell except
A) coacervates
B) microspheres
C) endosymbionts
D) micelles
E) protobionts
25
According to the scientific theory of the origin of life on earth, life arose spontaneously from inanimate
chemicals. Do scientists think this process is still going on on our planet today?
A) yes, it probably is
B) no, because conditions on earth have changed and are no longer conducive to
spontaneous evolution of life
26
Which of the following criteria is necessary and sufficient by itself to define life?
A) movement
B) sensitivity
C) complexity
D) all of the above
27
Which of the following possible explanations of the origin of life on earth allows testable hypotheses to
be constructed?
A) evolution
B) spontaneous origin
C) extraterrestrial origin
D) all of the above
28
The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated
A) how RNA could have been the first organic molecule
B) that simple molecules could not have evolved spontaneously
C) the kinds of molecules that could have been produced on the early earth
D) that oxygen was required for the formation of molecules on early earth
E) the formation of the first cells
29
What molecule produced in experiments performed by others (using Miller-Urey's model) is key to
explaining the evolution of the hereditary molecules (DNA and RNA)?
A) hydrogen gas
B) oxygen
C) proline
D) aspartic acid
E) adenine
30
Evidence indicates that microfossils already existed at least:
A) 4.5 billion years ago.
B) 3.5 billion years ago.
C) 1.3 billion years ago.
D) 1 million years ago
E) 6000 years ago
31
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the first cells?
A) heterotroph
B) single-celled
C) genome composed of RNA
D) anaerobic
E) prokaryotic
32
Microfossils of the earliest organisms indicate that they resemble the present day spirochetes.
A) True
B) False
33
The early earth was a harsh environment and present day organisms that could possibly have survived
that type of environment are
A) eukaryotic organisms
B) archeabacteria
C) early plants called blue-green algae
D) protobionts
E) eubacteria
34
Microfossils found in rocks that date to be about 1.5 billion years old
A) are believed to be fossils from Mars meteorites that fell to earth
B) look very similar to present day cyanobacteria
C) are larger organisms compared to earlier microfossils
D) are simple in structure with no internal membranes
E) were originally thought to be the first eukaryotic cells but this has since been disproved
35
The endosymbiotic theory explains

A) the origin of all organelles in eukaryotic cells
B) how bacterial cells can invade eukaryotic cells and cause disease
C) how mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from free-living cells
D) how eukaryotic cells consume food
36
Multicellularity arose only once in earth's history but this line branched out 4 times.
A) True
B) False
37
Living organisms are classified into 6 different kingdoms. However, these kingdoms are not static and
will change in the future.
A) True
B) False
Biology, 6/e
Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis

Germ-line cells
A) produce gametes
B) are haploid
C) usually undergo mitosis
D) are special somatic cells
During synapsis
A) sister chromatids pair all along their length
B) sister chromatids pair at the centromeres
C) homologues repel each other except at the ends
D) homologues pair all along their length
Which of the following is not a unique feature of meiosis?
A) synapsis
B) homologous recombination
C) reduction division
D) diakinesis
Crossing-over can occur between homologues during
A) zygotene
B) pachytene
C) leptotene
D) diplotene
Of the following meiotic phases, ____ is most similar in behavior to the mitotic phase of the same name.
A) Prophase II
B) Anaphase I
C) Metaphase I
D) None of the above
Terminal chiasmata are characteristic of
A) anaphase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase II
D) prophase I
E) metaphase I
In anaphase I
A) sister chromatids move toward opposite poles
B) homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles
C) terminal chiasmata move toward opposite poles
D) homologues move toward the same pole
E) homologous chromosomes move randomly toward either pole
Most multicellular eukaryotes form gametes by
A) parthenogenesis
B) meiosis
C) oncogenesis
D) mitosis
E) binary fission
After fertilization, the resulting zygote begins to divide by
A) syngamy
B) binary fission
C) mitosis
D) synapsis
E) meiosis
10
Sexual reproduction involves the alternation of
A) mitosis and oogamy
B) isogamy and meiosis
C) meiosis and fertilization
D) meiosis and oogamy
E) mitosis and heterogamy
11
The zygote of unicellular organisms
A) always divides by mitosis
B) may immediately engage in syngamy
C) always divides by meiosis
D) may divide by meiosis
E) can only divide by binary fission
12
Organisms subject to a chromosome damaging environment would benefit from
A) parthenogenesis
B) binary fission
C) a haploid adult
D) syngamy
E) a life cycle excluding meiosis
13
__________ distinguishes prophase from mitotic prophase.
A) The number of chromatids per chromosome
B) Synapsis
C) The number of homologues
D) Terminal chiasmata
E) Synergistic complex
14
The crossing over process is believed to have originated from
A) recombinant DNA
B) genetic engineering
C) mutation
D) symbiosis
E) gene repair
15
When crossing over is complete in prophase I, sister chromatids
A) are fused together by the synaptonemal complex

B) are attached by their ends to the nuclear envelope
C) are held together near their common centromeres
D) drift away from each other
E) are pulled toward the poles
16
In plants, haploid cells
A) divide by meiosis
B) must immediately undergo syngamy
C) will cross over
D) differentiate into somatic cells
E) divide by mitosis
17
In telophase I
A) homologous chromosomes cluster at the poles.
B) identical chromatids cluster at the poles
C) non-identical chromatids cluster at the poles
D) separate, but identical chromatids cluster at the poles
E) chiasmata cluster at the poles
18
If a zygote has 4 chromosomes, the somatic cells formed from it have _______________ chromosomes.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 2
D) 1
E) 16
19
Unlike gametes, body cells are called
A) somatic
B) haploid
C) semantic
D) synergic
E) sematic
20
The presence of a chiasma indicates that two chromatids
A) are about to form a synapsis
B) are haploid
C) are identical
D) have exchanged parts
E) are in a synaptonemal complex
21
Sexual reproduction favors
A) genetic stability
B) highly successful species
C) stable populations
D) beneficial recombination
E) genetic diversity
22
In anaphase I, the _____________ are pulled apart.
A) chiasmata
B) centromeres
C) kinetochores
D) sister chromatids
E) centrioles
23
If gametes have 8 chromosomes, the cell resulting from syngamy will have ________ chromosomes.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 2
E) 1
24
Unique to meiosis is the failure of chromosomes to replicate between
A) telophase I and prophase II
B) prophase I and metaphase I
C) prophase II and telophase II
D) telophase II and interphase
E) metaphase I and anaphase I
25
Which of the following is not a form of asexual reproduction?
A) fragmentation
B) budding
C) parthenogenesis
D) syngamy
E) binary fission
26
Which of the following are mismatched
A) haploid-n
B) somatic cells-2n
C) zygote-n
D) sperm cell-n
E) gamete-n
27
Chiasmata formation and crossing over occur during:
A) prophase of mitosis.
B) prophase I of meiosis.
C) prophase II of meiosis.
D) a, b, and c.
E) b and c, but not a.
28
If a cell with 32 chromosomes divides by meiosis, how many chromosomes will each nucleus contain at
telophase I? (Assume cytokinesis has occurred.)
A) 64
B) 48
C) 32
D) 16
E) 8
29
Following the same cell in the previous question, how many chromosomes will each nucleus contain at
telophase II?
A) 64
B) 48
C) 32
D) 16
E) 8
30
Meiotic and mitotic cycles differ in the number of chromatids per chromosome in prophase.
A) True
B) False
31
Asexual growth is synonymous with mitosis.
A) True
B) False
32
Crossing over typically occurs between two chromatids of the same duplex chromosome.
A) True
B) False
33
Which one of the following statements is not true about meiosis?
A) Meiosis occurs in reproductive cells.
B) Meiosis results in four haploid daughter cells.

C) In meiosis, chromosomes do not exchange genetic material.
D) In meiosis, homologous pairs of chromosomes are pulled apart.
E) All of the statements are true.
34
Crossing over occurs during:
A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) interphase I
D) interphase II
E) Both a and b are correct.
35
The evolution of sexual reproduction may have occurred based on all of the following except
A) as a means to keep animals within a population in close proximity
B) as a means to correct damage to the double strands of the DNA
C) through independent assortment, offspring have new combinations of genes that can be
beneficial
D) through crossing over, there is an unlimited amount of genetic variability in the

population
E) all of the above are explanations for the evolution of sexual reproduction
Patterns of Inheritance
Advantages to using the garden pea for Mendel's experiments included all listed below except
A) true-breeding varieties were scarce.
B) he could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offspring.
C) they have relatively short generation time.
D) sex organs of the pea are enclosed within the flower.
Pea plants can
A) self-pollinate, but are not self-compatible
B) self-fertilize
C) only cross-fertilize
D) reproduce without pollination

3
In Mendel's F2 generation, one out of four plants had white flowers because
A) the trait is sex-linked
B) both parents were heterozygous purple
C) one parent was homozygous recessive
D) both parents were heterozygous white
Mendelian inheritance may be difficult to analyze because of all of the following except
A) formation of Barr bodies
B) pleiotropic effects
C) continuous variation
D) epistasis
Klinefelter's syndrome is caused by a nondisjunction resulting in a genotype of
A) YYY
B) XYY
C) XXX
D) XXY
6
In the F2 generation, the 3:1 ratio is really a disguised
A) 1:2:1
B) 2:1:1
C) 1:1:2
D) 4:0
E) 4:1
The ratio often referred to the Mendelian ratio is
A) 1:3:3:1
B) 9:7
C) 1:3:1
D) 1:1
E) 3:1
When Mendel crossed pure-breeding purple and white flowered pea plants, the dominant to recessive
ratio in the F1 generation was
A) 3:1
B) 4:0
C) 4:1
D) 4:0
E) 9:3:3:1
9
On which of the following chromosomes are sex-linked traits carried?
A) 13
B) 18
C) Y
D) 15
E) X
10
The genotype of an individual with Turner syndrome is
A) YO
B) XXY
C) XYY
D) XO
E) XXX
11
In Mendel's F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to recessive ratio was
A) 1:3:1
B) 3:1
C) 1:1
D) 9:7
E) 9:3:3:1
12
The name for a chromosome map unit is
A) centimorgan
B) centistern
C) millimendel
D) decibarr
E) centisutton
13
Which of the following represents a testcross?
A) Ww x WW
B) ww x WW
C) Ww x Ww
D) WW x WW
14
A disease caused by an autosomal primary nondisjunction is
A) Turner syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Klinefelter syndrome
E) PKU
15
A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be
A) homozygous
B) heteromologous
C) homologous
D) heterozygous
E) diplozygous
16
Which of the following represents a dihybrid?
A) WWSs
B) WwSS
C) WwSs
D) WWss
E) wwSs
17
Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the genotype of a
heterozygous individual would be expressed
A) sS
B) ss
C) SS
D) Ss
E) tall
18
Which of the following chromosomes, if trisomic, cause failure of survival of development?
A) X
B) 21
C) 11
D) 18
E) 15
19
The appearance resulting from a given gene combination is referred to as the
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) phototype
D) alleleotype
E) stereotype
20
Compared to previous geneticists, the unique characteristic of Mendel's work was
A) keeping records of numbers of different progeny
B) choosing the garden pea for his experiment

C) producing hybrids
D) studying more than one generation
E) crossing true-breeding plants
21
A modified Mendelian ratio is represented by
A) 9:3:3:1
B) 1:3:1
C) 3:1
D) 9:7
E) 1:1
22
The two alternatives for a trait are red and white and red is dominant. However, white is the most
common trait. What is the genotype of a homozygous dominant individual?
A) RR
B) rr
C) WW
D) ww
E) red
23
Where the two alternatives for a trait are broad and narrow, and broad is dominant, the phenotype of a
homozygous dominant individual would be expressed as
A) BB
B) nn
C) Bn
D) NN
E) broad
24
A genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele is
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) PKU
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) hemophilia (royal)
E) Huntington's disease
25
Early ideas about heredity include
A) traits can be masked in some generations
B) traits were segregated among progeny
C) alleles do not influence each other
D) traits are transmitted directly
E) not all copies of a factor are identical

26
What is the phenotype of a fruit fly whose genotype is g+g+vsvs (where g = gray body and vs = vestigial
wings; wild type = black body and normal wings)?
A) gray body; vestigial wings
B) gray body; normal wings
C) black body; vestigial wings
D) black body; normal wings
27
In garden peas, height is determined by a single gene with tall being dominate to short. If two
heterozygous plants are crossed, what proportion of the tall progeny will be homozygous dominant?
A) 3/4
B) 2/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/3
E) 1/4
28
In the cross MMnn x mmNN, what proportion of the resulting F1 would be homozygous dominant for
both genes?
A) none
B) 1/16
C) 3/16
D) 9/16
E) all
29
In humans pointed eyebrows are dominant to smooth eyebrows and widow's peak (downward pointed
frontal hairline) is dominant to continuous hairline. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the
offspring from a cross between an individual heterozygous for both genes and an individual homozygous
recessive for both genes?
A) 9:3:3:1
B) 9:3:4
C) 1:1:1:1
D) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
E) 9:7
30
Hypertrichosis, hairiness of the pinna of the ear, is inherited as a Y-linked recessive in humans. If a man
with hypertrichosis marries a normal woman, what types of children may they have?
A) All of their children of both sexes have hypertrichosis.
B) All the sons have hypertrichosis, but none of their daughters.
C) Half of their sons, but none of their daughters will have hypertrichosis.
D) All the daughters have hypertrichosis, but none of their sons.
E) None of their children have hypertrichosis.
31
The model for the dihybrid cross of heterozygotes predicts a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.
A) True
B) False
32
Epistasis is a genetic condition in which certain alleles of one locus can alter the expression of alleles of a
different locus.
A) True
B) False
33
One gene can have multiple effects on an organism.
A) True
B) False
34
The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB x IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
A) 2 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
B) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
C) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
D) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
E) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
35
A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree that shows affected individuals
having at least one affected parent.
A) True
B) False
36
Down syndrome results from:
A) the absence of one chromosome in position 21
B) the presence of an extra chromosome in position 21
C) the absence of both chromosomes in position 21
D) crossing over on the chromosomes in position 21
37
Which of the following is not a result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes?
A) Down syndrome
B) Barr body
C) Turner syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
E) both a and b
DNA: The Genetic Material

1According to Chargaff's rule, the following proportion exists in DNA.

C=G
A)
C»T
B)
C»G
C)
C=T
D)
2The actual synthesis of DNA in E. coli is the function of
polymerase I
A)
primase
B)
polymerase III
C)
DNA ligase
D)
3The first nuclear transplant from an animal to an egg that produced a normal adult was
performed on a
frog
A)
sheep
B)
cat
C)
dog
D)
4All of the following were outcomes of Avery's experiment on "the active principle" except
the array of the elements of purified principle agreed closely with DNA and the principle
A)centrifuged to the same level as DNA.
protein digesting enzymes did not affect the sample
B)
the extraction of lipids and proteins from the principle only slightly reduced its activity
C)
DNA-digesting enzyme, DNase, destroyed all transcription activity.
D)
5Polymerase III is actually a complex containing
catalytic subunits
A)
proofreading subunits
B)
"sliding clamp" subunits
C)
All of the above
D)
6By convention, the sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is usually expressed in the _________
direction.
3' to 1'
A)
3' to 5'
B)
1' to 3'
C)
5' to 3'
D)
clockwise
E)
7Since the first nucleotides cannot be linked in a newly synthesized strand in DNA replication,
___________ is required.
a DNA primer
A)
DNA polymerase
B)
ligase
C)
an RNA primer
D)
helicase
E)
8The fact that some viruses use DNA to direct their heredity was demonstrated by
finding radioactive sulfur from a bacteriophage in a bacterium.
A)
finding radioactive phosphorus from a bacterium in a bacteriophage.
B)
finding that radioactive phosphorus from a bacteriophage had mutated in bacterium.
C)
finding radioactive phosphorus from a bacteriophage in a bacterium.
D)
finding radioactive sulfur from a bacterium in a bacteriophage.
E)
9Okazaki fragments are used to elongate
the leading strand toward the replication fork
A)
the lagging strand toward the replication fork
B)
both strands in both directions
C)
the leading strand away from the replication fork
D)
the lagging strand away from the replication fork
E)
1In nucleic acids, the free hydroxyl group is attached to the _______________ carbon of the
0sugar.
5'
A)
4'
B)
3'
C)
2'
D)
1'
E)
1A single enzyme is specified by a single
1
chromosome
A)
gene
B)
nucleotide
C)
nucleosome
D)
histone
E)
1Hammerling chose Acetabularia as his model organism because it was
2
large and differentiated
A)
easier to grow than fruit flies
B)
large and reproduced only asexually
C)
grown abundantly in the Mediterranean area where he lived
D)
large and contained only a few chromosomes
E)
1In DNA guanine always pairs with
3
adenine
A)
cytosine
B)
guanine
C)
thymine
D)
uracil
E)
1With few exceptions, all nuclei of eukaryotes contain
4
genes to specify the portion of the organism in which they are found
A)
all the information needed for growing the whole organism
B)
all of the chromosomes except sex chromosomes which are restricted to sex organs
C)
single stranded DNA
D)
only euchromatin except in the case of the Y-chromosome
E)
1In DNA, thymine always pairs with
5
adenine
A)
cytosine
B)
guanine
C)
thymine
D)
uracil
E)
1Each individual zone of a chromosome replicates as a discrete section called
6
telomere
A)
euchromatin
B)
Okazaki fragment
C)
replication unit
D)
linker DNA
E)
1DNA replication is called semiconservative because _______________ of the original duplex
7appears in the duplex formed in replication.
none
A)
most
B)
half
C)
hardly any
D)
all
E)
1Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a
8
nucleolus
A)
nucleotide
B)
nucleosome
C)
histone
D)
genetisome
E)
1In replication of DNA, the helix is opened and untwisted by
9
ribase
A)
ligase
B)
deoxase
C)
helicase
D)
polymerase
E)
2In a nucleic acid, the bases are always attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.
0
5'
A)
4'
B)
3'
C)
2'
D)
1'
E)
2Although the work produced important results, Franklin's work was hindered by the lack of
1
electricity
A)
strong x-rays
B)
true crystals of DNA
C)
thin layer chromatography
D)
precision instruments
E)
2The identification of the transforming principle proved that
2
dead bacteria are as lethal as live ones
A)
Streptococcus pneumoniae evolved from Pneumococcus
B)
genetic information is contained in DNA
C)
there is no protein in chromosomes
D)
genetic information was transmitted by a polysaccharide
E)
2In nucleic acids, the phosphate group is attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.
3
5'
A)
4'
B)
3'
C)
2'
D)
1'
E)
2_______________ join DNA fragments to the lagging strand.
4
Telomeres
A)
Centromeres
B)
Helicases
C)
Ligases
D)
Antiparallel strands
E)
2DNA polymerase catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5'-->3' direction.
5
True
A)
False
B)
2A DNA molecule has the same amount of adenine and thymine.
6
True
A)
False
B)
2Which statement about the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication is correct?
7
It is synthesized in a 3' --> 5' direction.
A)
It progresses (grows) toward the replication fork.
B)
It requires a short RNA primer to proceed.
C)
It is synthesized by DNA ligase.
D)
It is synthesized continuously.
E)
2An actively dividing bacterial culture is grown in a medium containing radioactive adenine (A*).
8After all the adenine is labeled, the bacteria are transferred to a medium containing
nonradioactive adenine (A). Following one round of DNA replication in the nonradioactive
medium, the DNA is analyzed. Which of the following sequences could represent this DNA?
A* A* T T G A* T C
A)T T A A C T A G
A* A T T G A* T C
B)T T A* A* C T A G
AATTGATC
C)T T A A C T A G
A* A* T T G A* T C
D)T T A* A* C T A* G
2During semiconservative replication, the original double helix remains intact and a new double
9helix forms.
True
A)
False
B)
3DNA polymerase uses a nucleoside triphosphate, bearing phosphates on the 5' carbon to form a
0phosphodiester linkage to the free 3' hydroxyl group on the end of the DNA strand it is
synthesizing.
True
A)
False
B)
3The elongation of Okazaki fragments during DNA synthesis progresses away from the replication
1fork.
True
A)
False
B)
3DNA is made up of a phosphate group, an organic base, and:
2
a protein
A)
a sugar
B)
a molecule of ATP
C)
a fat
D)
none of the above
E)
3In the DNA molecule:
3
adenine pairs with thymine
A)
guanine pairs with thymine
B)
cytosine pairs with thymine
C)
adenine pairs with cytosine
D)
All of the above are possible.
E)
3If one side of a DNA molecule contains the following sequence of nucleotides, AGTCCG, the
4complementary sequence on the other side would be:
GCCTGA
A)
AGTCCG
B)
TCAGGC
C)
CTGAAT
D)
none of the above
E)
3During your summer job at Virotech, you isolate a previously unknown virus. Analysis of its
5genome reveals that it is composed of a double stranded DNA molecule containing 14% T
(thymine). Based on this information, what would you predict the %C (cytosine) to be?
14%
A)
28%
B)
36%
C)
72%
D)
Cannot be determined from the information given.
E)
3The process of acquiring a gene from another organism is called transformation.
6
True
A)
False
B)
3The Hershey-Chase experiment showed that the virus protein is responsible for directing the
7production of new viruses.
True
A)
False
B)
3The two sides of the double helix structure of DNA are held together with hydrogen bonds.
8
True
A)
False
B)
3DNA replication is called semiconservative because half of each of the two new strands of DNA is
9"old" DNA from the original DNA molecule and half is "new" DNA.
True
A)
False
B)
Gene Technology

Clones are identified by hybridizing them with

A) a vector
B) an antibody
C) a virus
D) a probe
The first step in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is

A) denaturation
B) primer extension
C) annealing
D) cooling
3
In genome sequencing, it was found that ____ % of the Drosophila genes matched other species.
A) 45
B) 72
C) 98
D) 83
With the completion of the human genome project, the next frontier is
A) nucleonics
B) proteomics
C) cytomics
D) agrinomics
By using the "reference sequence" developed in the human genome project, individual differences are now being detected using
A) NPs
B) PSNs
C) SNPs
D) "snaps"
In the discovery of introns, a DNA molecule called _______________ was formed that had the same nucleotide sequence as the
gene that produced the mRNA.
A) mDNA
B) rDNA
C) sDNA
D) gDNA
E) cDNA
Viruses containing RNA rather than DNA are called

A) riboviruses
B) immunoviruses
C) bacteriophages
D) rotaviruses
E) retroviruses
In a polymerase chain reaction, a synthetic sequence of nucleotides are involved in

A) denaturing
B) heating
C) priming
D) copying
E) all of the above
Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with
A) ligases
B) endonucleases
C) methylases
D) vectors
E) probes
10
In preliminary screening of clones, it is common to use

A) restriction enzymes
B) dyes
C) antibiotics
D) radiation
E) milipore filters
11
To identify an individual by DNA analysis of their blood, investigators look for

A) primers
B) DNA fingerprints
C) probes
D) nucleosomes
E) transgenic fragments
12
All fragments cut by most restriction endonucleases have

A) complementary double-stranded ends
B) supplementary single-stranded ends
C) double-stranded "sticky" ends
D) complementary single-stranded ends
E) double-stranded supplementary ends
13
In 1980, interferon was produced by splicing a human gene into the genome of
A) bacteria
B) yeast
C) viruses
D) mice
E) rabbits
14
The second step in most genetic engineering experiments is

A) screening
B) production of recombinant DNA
C) cleavage of DNA
D) cloning
E) testing
15
When "sticky ends" are paired, they can be joined by

A) restriction enzymes
B) pSC101
C) methylase
D) X-gal
E) DNA ligase
16
A successful vector in genetic engineering has been the

A) TMV plasmid
B) HLF virus
C) vaccinia virus
D) Ti plasmid
E) retrovirus
17
Humans are not affected by glyphosphate in plant crops because

A) while it is toxic to plants it is a normal metabolite of humans
B) humans do not produce aromatic amino acids
C) it is used only on those crops that convert it to a harmless substance
D) humans lack the enzymes to interact with it
E) humans have EPSP synthetase
18
In the screening process, clones that metabolize X-gal turn

A) yellow
B) orange
C) red
D) blue
E) colorless
19
A powerful way to identify an individual using a particular gene as a marker is the analysis of
A) RFLP's
B) X-gal reaction
C) PCR's
D) EcoRI's
E) BST's
20
In attempts to confer special characteristics upon plants, genetic engineers find Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be an effective vector
for use with
A) corn
B) rice
C) wheat
D) soy beans
E) barley
21
A library of DNA fragments results from the use of

A) restriction endonucleases
B) virus
C) plasmids
D) recombinant DNA
E) DNA ligase
22
One of the most useful methods for identifying a specific gene is

A) thin layer chromatography
B) the Eastern blot
C) the Western blot
D) magnetic resonance imaging
E) the Southern blot
23
Plant cells receiving Ti plasmids with a TMV viral gene encoding the viral coat protein become immune to the TMV virus because
A) the introduction of the viral gene triggered an immune response in the plant's own immune system
B) the gene causes the cell walls to become impermeable to the virus
C) TMV does not infect cells already infected with TMV
D) in plants, the gene encodes an antiviral substance
24
Bacterial DNA is not cleaved by their own restriction enzymes because bacteria add _______________ to their own DNA.
A) nucleotides
B) peptides
C) methyl groups
D) glyphosphate
E) somototropin
25
A procedure called PCR is used to

A) cleave DNA
B) produce recombinant DNA
C) copy gene sequences
D) clone cells
E) screen clones
26
Wilt-proof flowers are being engineered by making them insensitive to

A) methylene
B) propylene
C) butylene
D) acetylene
E) ethylene
27
The ingestion of BST in milk is no threat to humans because

A) it is destroyed in the stomach
B) it cannot be digested and will pass through as waste
C) they do not have the hormones to utilize it
D) it is destroyed in the pasteurization process
E) the FDA has ruled that such milk cannot be sold
28
Genetic engineering has successfully transferred genes from eukaryotic cells into:
A) bacteria
B) plants
C) animals
D) all of the above
29
DNA molecules can be cut into sections by using:

A) ATP
B) gel electrophoresis
C) restriction endonucleases
D) plasmids
E) a probe
30
In genetic engineering, DNA ligase is used as:

A) a probe
B) a sealing enzyme
C) a restriction enzyme
D) a mutagen
31
In Cohen and Boyer's transfer of toad genes to a bacterial cell, restriction endonucleases were used to:
A) isolate sections of cloned bacterial plasmids
B) isolate sections of toad DNA
C) cleave bacterial plasmids
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Both b and c are correct.
32
A probe is used in which stage of the gene transfer process?

A) cleaving DNA
B) recombining DNA
C) cloning
D) screening
E) both a and b
33
The Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to:

A) amplify a small amount of DNA
B) cleave bacterial plasmids
C) seal "sticky ends"
D) identify target plasmids
34
Which of the following statements is true about developing cDNA?

A) mature mRNA directs the formation of the DNA.
B) mature mRNA does not contain introns.
C) DNA taken from the nucleus is used to produce the cDNA.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) none of the above are true.
35
Genetic engineering has been used to do all of the following except:

A) make plants more resistant to frost
B) make plants more resistant to disease
C) make plants more resistant to herbicides
D) improve the nutritional balance of plants
E) all of the above are correct.
36
Engineering plants that are resistant to glyphosate was an important advancement because:
A) glyphosate promotes frost damage
B) glyphosate encourages the production of fruit that is lower in protein
C) glyphosate is the active ingredient in herbicide
D) glyphosate prevents the transfer of genes into the plants
37
The use of bovine growth hormone:

A) has raised controversy with groups opposed to genetic engineering
B) increased milk production in cows
C) is being tested on increasing the weight gain of cows
D) is being tested as a treatment for dwarfism in humans
E) all of the above
38
The Ti plasmid provides a means to transfer genes into cereal plants, such as corn and rice.
A) True
B) False
39
Genetic engineering has provided a method for the production of insulin to fight diabetes, but it remains too expensive to be
practical.
A) True
B) False
40
Piggyback vaccines work by triggering the body's defense system with a harmless virus carrying the surface proteins of a disease
organism.
A) True
B) False
41
The second stage in genetic engineering experiments is cloning the plasmid.

A) True
B) False
42
When using reverse transcriptase, DNA is made from mRNA.

A) True
B) False
43
Genetically identical organisms derived from a single genetic source are called
A) populations
B) varieties
C) sibling species
D) ecotypes
E) clones
Bacteria

1
A gliding motion, the mechanism of which is not understood, is a characteristic of

A) spirilla
B) streptococci
C) filamentous bacteria
D) bacilli
Bacterial flagella
A) undulate
B) are of a 9+2 structure
C) occur mostly on cocci
D) are made of a single protein fiber
Bacterial ribosomes
A) are unable to synthesize proteins in the presence of tetracycline
B) are larger than eukaryotic ribosomes
C) have the same RNA contents as in eukaryotic ribosomes
D) contain the same forms of proteins as in eukaryotic ribosomes
Plasmids are best thought of as

A) escaped fragments of eukaryotic DNA
B) excised portions of bacterial chromosomes
C) self replicating RNA
D) escaped pieces of mitochondrial DNA
Bacterial flagella are powered by

A) the sodium-potassium pump
B) a proton pump
C) degradation of ATP
D) changes in osmotic pressure
The first stage of _______________ is characterized by the appearance of a chancre.

A) gonorrhea
B) genital herpes
C) syphilis
D) chlamydia
E) HIV
Rod shaped bacteria are called

A) bacilli
B) streptococci
C) cocci
D) staphylobacilli
E) spirilla
8
Some bacteria form a thick-walled _______________ in response to poor nutrient conditions.

A) endospore
B) capsule
C) sheath
D) pilus
E) autospore
The disease caused by _______________ is sometimes called the "silent STD."

A) Herpes simplex type 2
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Neisseria gonorrheae
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Streptococcus mutans
10
Bacteria normally contain their genome in

A) a nucleoid region
B) an endospore
C) a plasmid
D) a pilus
E) a heterospore
11
Which of the following is a product for which bacteria are not employed?
A) bread
B) cheese
C) lactic acid
D) antibiotics
E) turpentine
12
Chemoautotrophic bacteria include

A) halophiles
B) myxobacteria
C) spirochetes
D) sulfur bacteria
E) cyanobacteria
13
Nitrifying bacteria are an example of

A) photoautotrophs
B) photoheterotrophs
C) chemoheterotrophs
D) chemoautotrophs
14
Plant diseases such as citrus canker are caused by

A) Enterobacteria
B) Actinomyces
C) Rickettsia
D) Spirochaetes
E) Pseudomonads
15
A major portion of the world's natural gas reserves were produced by

A) primitive protists
B) anaerobic fungi
C) Actinomyces
D) ancient viruses
E) Archaebacteria
16
We can expect that one out of every _______________ bacteria have a mutant characteristic.
A) 100
B) 200
C) 500
D) 1000
E) 5000
17
Which of the following belong to the Eubacteria?

A) methanogens
B) halophiles
C) thermophiles
D) cyanobacteria
E) sulfur reducing bacteria
18
All bacteria listed below are heterotrophic bacteria except

A) Actinomyces
B) Enterobacteria
C) Cyanobacteria
D) Pseudomonads
E) Spirochaetes
19
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women is caused by

A) Leptotrichia buccalis
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Chlalmydia trachomatis
D) Bacillus anthracis
E) Borelia bergdorferi
20
The _______________ form a colony that approaches but does not reach true multicellularity.
A) Enterobacteria
B) Rickettsia
C) Pseudomonads
D) gliding bacteria
E) Spirochaetes
21
In 1997 _______________ was the leading cause of death by a single infectious agent world-wide.
A) TB
B) smallpox
C) cholera
D) diphtheria
E) plague
22
Genetic recombination occurs in bacteria through the transfer of

A) pili
B) plasmids
C) endospores
D) autospores
E) gametes
23
Gram-negative bacteria are resistant to the gram stain because of the presence of a large _______________ in an outer membrane
layer.
A) glycoprotein
B) polymer
C) lipopolysaccharide
D) polysaccharide
E) lipoprotein
24
Cell division in bacteria takes place mainly by

A) conjugation
B) binary fission
C) sporulation
D) fragmentation
E) mitosis
25
Organisms that obtain their energy by oxidizing inorganic chemical sources are called __________________.
A) photoautotrophs
B) chemoautotrophs
C) detritivores
D) heterotrophs
26
Which of the following statements is(are) true about the cyanobacteria?

A) Cyanobacteria appeared about 3 billion years ago.
B) Cyanobacteria produce methane.
C) The presence of cyanobacteria increased the concentration of free oxygen.
D) Both a and c are correct.
E) Both a and b are correct.
27
Bacteria are responsible for:

A) cycling minerals within the ecosystem
B) introducing oxygen into the atmosphere
C) deadly diseases
D) all of the above
28
Which of the following are characteristics of bacterial cells?

A) Bacterial cells are prokaryotes.
B) Bacterial cells do not have an organized nucleus.
C) Bacterial cells have a cell wall.
D) Bacterial cells have a ring of double-stranded of DNA.
E) All of the above are true.
29
When exposed to harsh conditions, some bacteria form:

A) capsules
B) endospores
C) pili
D) flagella
E) a cell wall
30
Which one of the following statements is not true about bacteria and eukaryotes?
A) Eukaryotes generally are larger than bacteria.
B) Bacteria lack internal compartmentalization.
C) Both types of organisms reproduce by mitosis.
D) Bacteria are fundamentally single-celled.
E) The flagella of bacteria are less complex than those of eukaryotes.
31
All of the following diseases are caused by bacteria except:

A) plague
B) yellow fever
C) typhus
D) cholera
E) tuberculosis
32
Gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane that stains purple.

A) True
B) False
33
Because the peptidoglycans wall of gram-positive bacteria is covered by an outer (lipopolysaccharide) membrane, they are more
resistant to the action of most antibiotics than gram-negative bacteria.
A) True
B) False
34
Actinomycetes are flexible, helical bacteria which use axial filaments to move.
A) True
B) False
Bacteria

Chapter 34 (p. 692)
1. Most species of bacteria are identified by their metabolic actions, which are determined by how they respond when grown on
different growth media.
2. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes by (1) multicellularity - bacteria are not multicellular; (2) cell size - bacteria are very small; (3)
chromosomes - bacteria lack a nucleus and DNA is not complexed with proteins; (4) cell division and genetic recombination -
bacteria do not have true sexual reproduction, but do have means to transfer genetic material; (5) internal compartmentalization –
bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles; (6) flagella - bacterial flagella are composed of single fibers of flagellin; (7) autotrophic
diversity - bacteria have several different kinds of aerobic and anaerobic photosynthesis with a variety of end products including
sulfur, sulfates, and oxygen; other bacteria are chemo-synthesizers, metabolizing various inorganic and organic compounds.
3. The bacterial cell wall is a network of polysaccharide molecules cross-linked by polypeptides. Gram-positive bacteria have a plain
polypeptide-linked polysaccharide wall, whereas gram-negative bacteria have an additional layer of large lipopolysaccharide
molecules deposited over a plain layer. Gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to most antibiotics because of the
nature of the cell wall.
4. Archaebacteria differ from the Eubacteria in a number of ways, most notably in the rRNA base sequences, the absence of
muramic acid in their cell walls, and their often-extreme habitats (anaerobic, very salty, very hot, etc.). Their unique metabolism
allows them to synthesize methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen, generating energy along the way.
5. Mutation is important because with rapid generation time, populations can double within several minutes, allowing a favorable
mutation to be represented in large numbers quickly.
6. Genes coding for the type III system are similar to the genes that code for bacteria flagella; their proteins may be involved in
getting virulence proteins into a host cell. Once inside, the type III proteins of Yersinia are injected into macrophages where they
disrupt the signals that instruct the macrophage to engulf bacteria. Salmonella and Shigella type III proteins enter the cytoplasm of
the eukaryote’s cells and are protected from its immune system.
7. STDs are sexually transmitted diseases. Viral STDs include: AIDS, herpes simplex, and genital warts (HPV); bacterial STDs
include gonorrhea, syphilis, and chlamydia. Chlamydia is an unusual bacterium because although it is susceptible to antibiotics, it
requires host genetic machinery to replicate its DNA.
The Immune System

1 Which of the following actually kills invading microbes?
A)lysozymes
B)stomach acid
C)intestinal enzymes
D)all of the above
2 The inflammatory response includes all of the following except

vessel constriction
A)
B)temperature increase
C)increased blood flow
D)phagocyte attack
3 The secretion of antibodies by lymphocyte B cells provides
A)cell-mediated immunity
B)passive immunity
C)humoral immunity
D)permanent immunity
4 The immunoglobulin found in a mother's milk is
A)IgM
B)IgA
C)IgE
D)IgG
5 Erythroblastosis fetalis can result if
A)the Rh+ mother is sensitized to the Rh- antigen and the baby is Rh-
the Rh- mother is sensitized to the Rh+ antigen and the baby is Rh-
B)
C)the Rh- mother is sensitized to the Rh+ antigen and the baby is Rh+
D)the Rh+ mother is sensitized to the Rh- antigen and the baby is Rh+
6 AIDS is such a deadly disease because the AIDS virus attacks and destroys
A)CD4+ T cells
B)B cells
C)CD8+ T cells
D)macrophages
E)memory cells
7 Which of the following statements about AIDS is true?
A)The disease is highly infectious.
B)The fatality rate is low if the disease is detected in its early stages.
C)Most people who get AIDS die of pneumonia.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
8 Which of the following are autoimmune diseases

A)heart disease
B)Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C)erythroblastosis fetalis
D)systemic lupus erythematosus
E)both b and d
9 The proteins secreted by plasma cells are called
A)MHC
B)complement
C)antigens
D)cytokines
E)antibodies
1 A person with anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood has what blood type?
0
A)type A
B)type B
C)type AB
type O
D)
1 Precursors of macrophages are called
1
A)T cells
B)killer cells
C)B cells
D)plasma cells
E)monocytes
1 The immune response is terminated or decreased by

2
A)suppressor B cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)both of the above
D)none of the above; the immune response can only be stimulated, not terminated
1 Which type of T cell lyses cells that have been infected with viruses?
3
A)inducer T cells
B)helper T cells
cytotoxic T cells
C)
D)suppressor T cells
E)none of the above
1 When a B cell encounters antigen to which it is targeted, it divides rapidly and produces
4
A)more antigen
B)plasma cells
C)T cells
D)killer cells
E)interferons
1 All of the following cells are phagocytic except for

5
A)basophils
B)neutrophils
C)lymphocytes
D)eosinophils
E)all of the above are phagocytic

1 Your body has millions of different antibodies for detecting millions of different antigens because
6
A)you have millions of different antibody genes
B)antibody genes undergo somatic rearrangement and somatic mutation
C)antibody genes undergo antigen shifting
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
1 Helper T cells and inducer T cells are also called _______________ cells because of the
7 coreceptor they both have.
A)CD4+ T
B)CD8+ T
C)CD16+ T
D)CD12+ T
1 Which type of surface marker is present on every nucleated cell in your body?
8
A)B receptor
B)T receptor
C)MHC-I
MHC-II
D)
E)all of the above
1 MHC proteins are also called

9
A)ABC
B)HIV
C)Ig
D)HLA
E)hybridomas
2 Activated helper T cells release regulatory molecules called

0
A)histamines
B)antibodies
C)pus
D)lymphokines
E)complement
2 Memory cells
1
A)produce cyclosporine
B)are responsible for passive immunity
C)prevent an animal from encountering certain antigens
D)provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen
E)all of the above
2 What holds together the four polypeptide chains of an antibody?

2
A)disulfide bonds
B)light chains
C)heavy chains
D)complement proteins
E)MHC proteins
2 Of the five classes of antibody heavy chains, which one's function is still partially unclear?
3
A)IgE
B)IgM
C)IgG
IgA
D)
E)IgD
2 Diseases in which a person's immune system attacks the person's own normal tissue are called
4
A)secondary immune diseases
B)autoimmune diseases
C)antigen shifting diseases
D)primary immune diseases
E)clonal selection diseases
2 The cells that you see when you look at your skin were produced in the
5
A)dermis
B)psoriasis layer
C)subcutaneous tissue
D)stratum basale
E)stratum corneum
2 Which of the following cells participate in nonspecific defense responses when your body is
6 invaded by microbes?
A)natural killer cells
B)macrophages
C)neutrophils
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
2 Cytotoxic T cells are called into action by the:

7
A)presence of interleukin-1
B)presence of interleukin-2
C)presence of neutrophils
D)decrease in the number of B cells
E)decrease in the number of antibodies
2 Complement and antibody are similar in that both:

8
A)are produced by mast cells.
B)may make bacteria more attractive to phagocytes.
C)have two identical antigen-binding sites.
are activated in an inflammatory cascade.

D)
2 The AIDS virus:

9
A)is also know as HTLV.
B)has a high affinity for CD8 bearing T cells.
C)may become dormant in cells.
D)is a DNA virus.
3 Hypersensitivity reactions:
0
A)are sometimes mediated by IgE.
B)may involve immune complexes.
C)may involve complement, histamine, neutrophils or IgG.
D)all of the above.
3 Which cell is correctly matched with its secretion or function?

1
A)T-lymphocyte -- IL-1
B)mast cells -- histamine
C)macrophage -- IgA
D)eosinophil -- clotting
3 All of the following are part of our antigen specific defense mechanisms except:
2
A)acute inflammation.
B)lymphocytes.
C)antibody production.
D)macrophages.
3 Echinoderms have immune systems similar to bony fish in that they possess T and B
3 lymphocytes
A)True
B)False
3 Immunoglobulins have two light chains and two heavy chains.

4
A)True
B)False
3 IgE is an interleukin involved in allergies.

5
A)True
B)False
3 T cytotoxic cells produce cytokinins which cause the lysis of other target cells.
6
A)True
B)False
3 Hemolytic disease of the newborn typically results from immunization of an RH- mother with Rh+
7 blood from her first pregnancy, the antibodies reacting against the fetus in a later pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
The Nervous System
Which of the following is a part of the peripheral nervous system?
A) sensory pathway
B) autonomic nervous system
C) voluntary nervous system
D) all of the above
2
In sensory neurons, stimuli are received by the
A) axons
B) dendrites
C) cell body
D) myelin
Graded potentials may become action potential by
A) summation
B) multiplication
C) hypopolarization
D) decreasing frequency
Action potentials
A) are summable
B) are amplifiable
C) result from facilitated diffusion
D) are all-or-nothing events
All of the following neurotransmitters are biogenic amines except
A) serotonin
B) dopamine
C) neuropeptides
D) norepinephrine
6
Postsynaptic membranes are most likely to be found on
A) axons
B) dendrites
C) neuron cell bodies
D) myelin sheaths
E) hormones
What is primarily responsible for establishing the uneven Na+ ion concentrations inside and outside a neuron during its resting
potential?
A) active transport
B) simple diffusion
C) facilitated diffusion
D) all of the above
During the resting potential of a neuron, which of the following is least likely to be found in large quantities inside the neuron?
A) Na+
B) K+
C) negatively charged anions
D) none of the above would be found in large quantities inside the neuron
During saltatory conduction, a nerve impulse jumps from one _______________ to another.
A) myelin sheath
B) synapse
C) node of Ranvier
D) dendrite
E) axon
10
GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is normally found at
A) neuromuscular junctions
B) nodes of Ranvier
C) sensory receptors
D) excitatory synapses
E) inhibitory synapses
11
The firing of a neuron is also called
A) depolarization
B) an action potential
C) both of the above
12
Nerve impulses are normally carried toward a neuron cell body by the neuron's
A) synaptic cleft
B) axon
C) myelin sheaths
D) hormones
E) dendrites
13
The junction between a neuron and its target cell is called a
A) neurotransmitter
B) synapse
C) node of Ranvier
D) threshold
E) voltage-gated channel
14
Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles at the
A) cell body
B) dendrite
C) cell nucleus
D) postsynaptic membrane
E) presynaptic membrane
15
Acetylcholinesterase is
A) a neurotransmitter
B) an enzyme that breaks down a neurotransmitter
C) a stimulant that triggers an action potential
D) a hormone
16
During depolarization
A) Na+ moves out of the neuron
B) K+ moves into the neuron
C) organic ions move out of the neuron
D) all of the above

17
The myelin sheath is formed by _______________, which wrap around the axons of some neurons.
A) nodes of Ranvier
B) dendrites
C) synapses
D) Schwann cells
E) cell bodies
18
In a polarized neuron at rest
A) the inside of the neuron is more negatively charged than the outside
B) outside of the neuron is more negatively charged than the inside
C) either of the above can be true
D) the inside and the outside of the neuron have the same electrical charge
19
The role of the Na+/K+ pump in the nervous system is to
A) maintain proper ionic concentration gradients across the neuron membrane
B) generate the nerve impulse when the neuron is stimulated
C) transmit the nerve impulse across the synaptic cleft between neurons
D) provide a source of Na+ and K+ by splitting NaCl and other appropriate molecules
E) none of the above - it plays no role
20
The neurotransmitter at neuromuscular junctions is

A) GABA
B) serotonin
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) acetylcholine
21
Which of the following should have the slowest conduction velocity?
A) an unmyelinated, small-diameter nerve
B) an unmyelinated, large-diameter nerve
C) a myelinated, small-diameter nerve
D) a myelinated, large-diameter nerve
E) they would all have the same conduction velocity
22
The midbrain of vertebrates is also called the
A) medulla
B) mesencephalon
C) diencephalon
D) hypothalamus
E) cerebrum
23
In fish and early vertebrates, the dominant part of the brain was the
A) cerebrum
B) forebrain
C) midbrain
D) hindbrain
E) optic lobes
24
In humans and other primates, the hemispheres of the cerebrum are connected by a nerve tract called the
A) pons
B) nerve net
C) thalamus
D) cerebral cortex
E) corpus callosum
25
Emotions of vertebrates are controlled by the
A) pyramidal tracts
B) reticular system
C) cerebellum
D) corpus striatum
E) limbic system
26
Which of the following is not part of the hindbrain?
A) pons
B) medulla oblongata
C) cerebrum
D) cerebellum
E) all of the above are part of the hindbrain
27
Which of the following is not one of the four lobes of a primate's cerebral hemisphere?
A) optic
B) parietal
C) frontal
D) temporal
E) occipital
28
The thalamus is a primary site of
A) motor reflex coordination
B) visceral integration
C) sensory integration
D) hormone production
29
Neurons that carry impulses away from the central nervous system are called
A) sensory nerves
B) afferent nerves
C) efferent nerves
D) interneurons
E) extensors
30
When you look at an intact human brain, what you see the most is a large, highly convoluted outer surface. This is the
A) cerebral cortex
B) medulla
C) cerebellum
D) reticular system
E) viscera
31
Which of the following is an example of an antagonistic control system?
A) flexors and extensors
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
C) both of the above
32
What neurotransmitter is released in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) serotonin
B) acetylcholine
C) adrenaline or noradrenaline
D) all of the above
33
The parasympathetic nervous system has what effect on the heart's pacemaker?
A) excites it
B) inhibits it
C) kills it
D) has no effect at all
E) has a variable effect; sometimes excites it, sometimes inhibits it
34
Which of the following statements about nervous systems is true?
A) As nervous systems evolved, there was a trend toward a decreasing number of interneurons.
B) As nervous systems evolved, the hindbrain and especially the cerebellum played an increasingly more
dominant role.
C) The autonomic nervous system stimulates normal internal body functions and inhibits alarm responses, while
the somatic nervous system does the opposite.
D) Memories appear to be stored in more than one part of the brain.
E) The two hemispheres of the brain carry out identical functions.
35
A nerve impulse is received first by what part of the neuron?
A) Axon
B) Synapse
C) Dendrite
D) Soma
36
What occurs sequentially when the nerve impulse is transmitted from the synapse of one neuron to the postsynaptic neuron?
A) The nerve impulse is transmitted next to the axon of the presynaptic neuron.
B) The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.
C) The nerve impulse is transmitted to the postsynaptic neuron by a direct connection between the two.
D) The nerve impulse is transmitted to the axon of the postsynaptic neuron.
37
A deer is frightened by a predator and runs away. Which of the following would not occur due to the action of epinephrine and
norepinephrine?
A) There would be increased blood flow to the skeletal muscles.
B) There would be increased activity of the digestive system.
C) There would be increased blood flow to the lungs and heart.
D) Blood pressure would increase.
38
Which is true for the autonomic nervous system?
A) The sympathetic nervous system always stimulates the organ system.
B) The sympathetic nervous system always inhibits the organ system.
C) The parasympathetic nervous system always stimulates the organ system.
D) It depends on the organ system whether the division stimulates or inhibits it.
39
Which statement best defines saltatory conduction?
A) Saltatory conduction is a mechanism of endocrine system regulation.
B) Saltatory conduction is signal transduction of incoming messages through the membrane.
C) Saltatory conduction is the influx of sodium ions during neuron impulse conduction.
D) Saltatory conduction is transmission of nerve impulses along myelinated fibers.
E) Saltatory conduction is the transmission of nerve impulses to the endocrine glands.
40
Which of the following is true for nerve impulses?
A) They are electrochemical in nature.
B) They are self-propagating.
C) They are incremental.
D) They are transmitted rapidly.
E) All of these are true.
41
Afferent neurons are sensory neurons.
A) True
B) False
42
Efferent neurons carry nerve impulses to the CNS.
A) True
B) False
43
Ganglia are clusters of neuron cell bodies which are located outside the CNS.
A) True
B) False
44
Neuroglia cells are important for nerve impulse conduction.
A) True
B) False
45
The myelin sheaths surrounding myelinated neurons are manufactured by Schwann cells.
A) True
B) False
46
As long as ATP is available, the sodium/potassium pump of neurons will operate whether the neuron is resting, transmitting a nerve
impulse, or returning to the resting state.
A) True
B) False
47
The centers of vision are located in the _______________ lobe of the cerebral cortex.
A) temporal
B) parietal
C) occipital
D) motor
E) frontal
48
The cerebellum refines and coordinates muscular movements.
A) True
B) False
49
A sulcus is a furrow or groove associated with the cerebellum.
A) True
B) False
50
Dopamine is a nonpeptide neurotransmitter known to have an inhibitory effect on certain somatic motor pathways.
A) True
B) False
51
The chemical released by the motor neuron at the neuromuscular synapse that initiates a muscle contraction is:
A) acetylcholine.
B) adrenalin
C) dopamine
D) noradrenalin
E) either a or d.
Respiration

All gases exchanged between air and blood in mammals occurs across the walls of the
A) trachea
B) bronchi
C) alveoli
D) bronchioles
The unique feature of birds that allows them to always breathe fresh air is the
A) bronchi
B) bronchioles
C) spiracles
D) parabronchi
The visceral pleural membrane of mammals is linked to the parietal pleural membrane by
A) myosin fibers
B) fluid-filled space
C) smooth muscles
D) loose connective tissue
In thoracic breathing, inhalation is the result of

A) contracting internal intercostal muscles
B) contracting external intercostal muscles
C) contracting muscles attached to the sternum
D) relaxation
The urge to inhale results from

A) rising PCO2
B) falling PCO2
C) rising PO2
D) falling PO2
The most common gas found in air is

A) oxygen
B) argon
C) nitrogen
D) carbon dioxide
E) carbon monoxide
Which of the following animals have air sacs attached to their lungs?
A) birds
B) amphibians
C) reptiles
D) mammals
E) all of the above
A countercurrent flow system between substance A and substance B

A) maximizes the exchange by having A and B flow in the same direction
B) minimizes the exchange by having A and B flow in the same direction
C) maximizes the exchange by having A and B flow in opposite directions
D) minimizes the exchange by having A and B flow in opposite directions
Carbon dioxide is converted into carbonic acid in the cytoplasm of red blood cells by the enzyme
A) hemoglobin
B) carbonic anhydrase
C) oxyhemoglobin
D) carbon monoxide
E) hemocyanin
10
Which of the following is not a way to increase the efficiency of a respiratory system?
A) increase the surface area available for diffusion of gases
B) decrease the distance over which the gases must diffuse
C) increase the concentration differences of gases inside and outside the system
D) dry the system out so the gases do not have to diffuse through water
E) all of the above will increase efficiency
11
Which of the following respiratory systems is most efficient at obtaining oxygen from the surrounding environment?
A) mammal lungs
B) reptile lungs
C) amphibian lungs
D) bird lungs
E) fish gills
12
During exhalation in humans, air moves from the bronchus into the
A) bronchioles
B) alveoli
C) nostrils
D) pharynx
E) trachea
13
The majority of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood
A) attached to hemoglobin
B) bound to oxygen
C) dissolved in the plasma
D) as carbon monoxide in the red blood cells
E) as bicarbonate ions in the red blood cells
14
The Bohr effect explains why

A) hemoglobin binds carbon monoxide more readily than oxygen
B) hemoglobin unloads its oxygen when it encounters low pH
C) diffusion occurs so slowly over long distances
D) oxygen is present in the atmosphere in relatively low concentrations
E) some introductory biology students do not like their instructor
15
One atmosphere of pressure equals

A) 1 mm Hg
B) 380 mm Hg
C) 600 mm Hg
D) 760 mm Hg
E) 1,000 mm Hg
16
In the formula for Fick's law of diffusion, the distance a molecule must travel is symbolized as
A) D
B) A
C) d
D) R
17
Diffusion alone is effective only over distances less than approximately

A) 0.5 mm
B) 5.0 mm
C) 0.5 cm
D) 5.0 cm
E) 0.5 m
18
Which of the following animals have tracheae?

A) earthworms
B) grasshoppers
C) cnidarians
D) all of the above
19
Mollusks have
A) no specialized respiratory organ
B) lungs
C) racheae
D) gills
20
When a bird breathes, air moves from the lung into the
A) posterior air sacs
B) anterior air sacs
C) trachea
D) pharynx
E) it depends if the bird is inhaling or exhaling
21
The respiratory control center of humans is located in the

A) blood-brain barrier
B) alveoli
C) erythrocytes
D) brainstem (medulla oblongata)
E) trachea
22
The exchange of gases between interstitial fluid and the blood occurs in the:
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) veins
E) venules
23
The location in the lung where the exchange of gases takes place is the:
A) bronchus
B) alveolus
C) bronchiole
D) pleural membrane
E) interpleural fluid
24
The expansion of the lung and inhalation of air are in part the result of:
A) the muscles of the lungs relaxing, allowing the lungs to get larger
B) decreased pressure of the interpleural fluid
C) the contraction of the muscles of the diaphragm
D) a and b are correct.
E) All of the above are correct.
25
The lungs of birds exhibit maximum respiratory efficiency due to

A) cross-current flow of blood and air through the lung
B) one way flow without significant water loss
C) the fact that all birds have very small lungs
D) a and b
E) all of the above
26
The efficiency of gills in fish is derived from

A) the countercurrent flow of water over the gills
B) the increasing temperature of blood within the gills
C) continuous diffusion of oxygen into the blood
D) a and b
E) a and c
27
In amphibians, air is forced into the lungs, not drawn into the lungs; this is called:
A) negative pressure breathing
B) forced air breathing
C) positive pressure breathing
D) terrestrial breathing
28
Gas exchange through the skin supplements the gas exchange occurring in the lungs of
A) birds
B) amphibians
C) reptiles
D) insects
E) fish
29
The brain regulates the rate at which you breathe by monitoring the amount of oxygen in the blood.
A) True
B) False
30
Respiratory gases are exchanged by diffusion only.

A) True
B) False
31
Birds have evolved active transport mechanisms to augment their respiratory gas exchange.
A) True
B) False
32
In a countercurrent exchange system, the fluids in two tubes flow in opposite directions.
A) True
B) False
Circulation

The liquid part of blood after the fibrinogen is removed is

A) plasma
B) lymph
C) serum
D) puss
2
Unlike any other vertebrates, the erythrocytes of mammals

A) undergo erythropoiesis
B) are capable of phagocytosis
C) secrete antibodies
D) are multinucleate
The tissue layer common to all blood vessels is the

A) circular smooth muscle
B) endothelium
C) longitudinal striated muscle
D) connective tissue
Atria contract
A) just before diastole
B) during diastole
C) right after the systole
D) during the systole
The heartbeat begins with the depolarization of the

A) atrioventricular node
B) bundle of His
C) sinoatrial node
D) Purkinje fibers
Which of the following contains oxygenated blood in an adult human?

A) right atrium
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary vein
D) all of the above
The sinoatrial node is derived from the more primitive

A) ventricle
B) bundle of His
C) conus arteriosus
D) tricuspid valve
E) sinus venosus
Water that diffuses out of the blood plasma is returned to the cardiovascular system by the
A) hepatic vein
B) aorta
C) lymphatic system
D) megakaryocytes
E) septum
9
Which of the following is the most muscular chamber in a bird's heart or a mammal's heart?
A) the right atrium
B) the left atrium
C) the left ventricle
D) the right ventricle
E) all are equally muscular
10
In which type of heart is there mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?

A) fish
B) frog
C) crocodile
D) all of the above
11
Which of the following statements about circulatory systems is true?

A) Hormones are transported in the blood.
B) All invertebrates have an open circulatory system.
C) Capillaries have thicker walls than veins do.
D) The systemic circulation carries blood to and from the lungs.
E) All of the above are true.
12
Materials are exchanged between the blood and the surrounding tissues in the
A) arteries
B) veins
C) capillaries
D) all of the above
13
Oxygenated blood leaves the human heart via the

A) pulmonary vein
B) pulmonary artery
C) vena cava
D) aorta
E) respiratory circuit
14
The innermost tissue layer of arteries is composed of

A) smooth muscle
B) Purkinje fibers
C) connective tissue
D) elastic fibers
E) endothelium
15
The lymphatic system

A) is an open circulatory system
B) contains one-way valves
C) returns fluids to the bloodstream
D) all of the above
16
Which of the following is a type of leukocyte?

A) macrophage
B) eosinophil
C) monocyte
D) all of the above
17
Which is the most common type of blood cell in a healthy human?

A) erythrocytes
B) monocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) eosinophils
E) basophils
18
Which of the following is a function of the vertebrate circulatory system?

A) temperature regulation
B) transport metabolic wastes
C) provide immune defense
D) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
E) all of the above
19
During heavy exercise, which of the following should happen?

A) decreased stroke volume
B) decreased heart rate
C) vasodilation of blood vessels in skin
D) all of the above
20
Interstitial fluid is derived from fluid that is forced out of the

A) venule end of capillaries
B) arteriole end of capillaries
C) lymph vessels
D) arteries
E) veins
21
Which one of the following is not part of the cardiovascular system?

A) arteries
B) heart
C) blood
D) veins
E) All of the above are part of the cardiovascular system.
22
Compared to arteries, arterioles:

A) are smaller in diameter
B) can be relaxed by hormones
C) collapse when empty
D) a and b are correct.
E) All of the above statements are correct.
23
The transfer of oxygen to the body's cells takes place in the:

A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) venules
E) a, b, and c are correct.
24
Unidirectional valves that prevent the blood from flowing backward are found in the:
A) arteries
B) veins
C) capillaries
D) all of the above
25
Fluid is driven through the lymphatic system by:

A) contraction of the walls of the lymphatic vessels
B) pressure created by the pumping of the heart
C) contractions of the lymph nodes
D) squeezing of the lymphatic vessels by the body's muscles
E) a combination of all of the above
26
The lymphatic system is important because it:

A) collects liquid lost from the circulatory system
B) returns proteins to circulation
C) transports fats
D) carries bacteria to the lymph nodes for destruction
E) does all of the above
27
Plasma is made up of water and _______________.

A) metabolites and wastes
B) salts and ions
C) proteins
D) all of the above
28
The component of blood that is responsible for clotting is:

A) platelets
B) erythrocytes
C) neutrophils
D) basophils
29
Which one of the following series represents the correct path of blood circulation?
A) left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body
B) right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
C) left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, body
D) right atrium, lungs, right ventricle, left atrium, body, left ventricle
E) left atrium, lungs, left ventricle, body, right atrium, right ventricle
30
The rhythmic beating of the heart is initiated by the:

A) Purkinje fibers
B) bundle of His
C) atrioventricular node
D) sinoatrial node
E) right ventricle
31
The "lub" of the "lub-dub" sound the heart makes is caused by the:
A) closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves
B) closing of the pulmonary and aortic valves
C) sound of blood rushing into the atria
D) sound of blood rushing into the ventricles
32
Hemoglobin, contained in leukocytes, transports oxygen throughout the body.

A) True
B) False
33
Pulmonary veins carry blood that is rich in oxygen.

A) True
B) False
34
The brain regulates the rate at which you breathe by monitoring the amount of oxygen in the blood.
A) True
B) False
35
Blood serum contains red but not white blood cells.

A) True
B) False
Organization of the Animal Body

1
In mammals, the diaphragm separates the
A) thoracic cavity from the pericardial cavity
B) peritoneal cavity from the thoracic cavity
C) the pleural cavity from the pericardial cavity
D) the thoracic cavity from the pleural cavity
Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic/immune system?

A) pancreas
B) spleen
C) thymus
D) tonsil
Goblet cells are specialized cells of the

A) stratified squamous epithelium
B) cuboidal epithelium
C) columnar epithelium
D) simple squamous epithelium
All of the connective tissue types listed below are in the category of special connective tissue except
A) blood
B) bone
C) dense connective tissue
D) cartilage
In bone formation, chondrocytes die because of

A) regression of capillaries
B) impregnation of the matrix by a fatty substance
C) shrinkage of the lacunae
D) calcification
Which is the most abundant type of blood cell in your body?

A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes
E) erythrocytes
Which of the following is not a type of epithelial cell?

A) cuboidal cells
B) squamous cells
C) mast cells
D) columnar cells
E) all of the above are epithelial cells
8
Supporting cells are associated with
A) bone
B) smooth muscle
C) loose connective tissue
D) striated muscle
E) neurons
The basic vertebrate body plan has been described as a tube suspended within a tube. The second tube mentioned is the
A) coelom
B) digestive tract
C) spinal cord
D) thoracic cavity
E) abdominal cavity
10
The water-resistant protein found in skin is called

A) keratin
B) cartilage
C) reticulin
D) collagen
E) hemoglobin
11
Fibroblasts are a type of _______________ connective tissue.

A) special
B) loose
C) dense
D) simple
E) stratified
12
Endocrine and exocrine glands are formed from what type of tissue?
A) connective
B) blood
C) muscle
D) nerve
E) epithelial
13
Nodes of Ranvier are found in

A) epithelium
B) connective tissue
C) muscle tissue
D) nerve tissue
14
Which of the following is mismatched?

A) matrix - extracellular material in connective tissue
B) cardiac muscle cells - have multiple nuclei
C) chondrocytes - cartilage cells
D) adipose cells - found in loose connective tissue
E) ligaments - bind muscles to bone
15
Your skeletal muscles are also called

A) smooth muscle
B) striated muscle
C) better teeth
D) all of the above
16
The epithelium lining the inner surface of the digestive tract is formed from
A) ectoderm
B) mesoderm
C) endoderm
D) all of the above
17
In all vertebrates, the dorsal nerve cord is surrounded by the

A) abdominal cavity
B) spinal cord
C) skull
D) thoracic cavity
E) vertebrae
18
Which of the following is a function of epithelium?

A) protection
B) secretion
C) sensory surface
D) all of the above
19
Calluses are composed of

A) keratin
B) elastin
C) hemoglobin
D) collagen
E) heparin
20
The liver is formed from

A) nerve tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) connective tissue
D) muscle tissue
21
Connective tissue is derived from

A) endoderm
B) ectoderm
C) mesoderm
D) all of the above
22
Intercalated discs are associated with what type of cells?

A) neurons
B) dense regular connective tissue
C) dense irregular connective tissue
D) cardiac muscle
E) skeletal muscle
23
How many principal organ systems does the human body contain?
A) 11
B) 4
C) 27
D) 62
E) it varies from individual to individual
24
The fluid matrix of blood is called

A) hemoglobin
B) adipose
C) canaliculi
D) histamine
E) plasma
25
The earliest type of muscle to evolve was

A) cardiac muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) stratified muscle
26
Which one of the following is not a type of tissue?

A) epithelial
B) nervous
C) connective
D) muscle
E) endocrine
27
The cells that act to guard and protect the body are:
A) connective cells
B) nervous cells
C) endocrine cells
D) epithelial cells
E) muscle cells
28
Which of the following statements is (are) true about epithelial cells?

A) Epithelial cells develop from three different embryonic tissue layers.
B) Epithelial cells are classified into three types by shape.
C) Epithelial cells function in three ways.
D) Epithelial cells form three general kinds of epithelial tissue.
E) All of the above statements are true.
29
Cells of connective tissue are derived from the:

A) ectoderm
B) mesoderm
C) endoderm
D) all of the above
30
Which one of the following is not a type of storage or transport connective tissue?
A) lymphocytes
B) adipose tissue
C) erythrocytes
D) All of the above are types of storage or transport connective tissue.
E) None of the above are types of storage or transport connective tissue.
31
The type of muscle that makes up the walls of blood vessels is:
A) cardiac muscle
B) skeletal muscle
C) smooth muscle
D) a and b
E) a and c
32
Microfilaments bunch together to form myofibrils in:

A) cardiac muscle
B) skeletal muscle
C) smooth muscle
D) a and b
E) a and c
33
The human body has a coelom divided into two parts, the abdominal cavity and the thoracic cavity.
A) True
B) False
34
Red blood cells are a type of connective tissue.

A) True
B) False
35
Only muscle cells contain microfilaments.

A) True
B) False
36
Axons carry nerve impulses to the cell body.
A) True
B) False
37
Tendons connect muscle to bone.

A) True
B) False
38
Skeletal muscles are branched and interconnected, forming a latticework.

A) True
B) False
Vertebrates

Unlike vertebrates that have gills, terrestrial vertebrates have

A) pharyngeal slits
B) pharyngeal bursa
C) pharyngeal pouches
D) pharyngeal pores
As clearly illustrated by the lancelets, a chordate's muscles are

A) striated
B) smooth
C) unsegmented
D) arranged in segmented blocks
The most primitive combination of features of any chordate is found in the

A) lancelet larva
B) amphibian tadpole
C) tunicate larva
D) newly hatched sharks
To maximize efficiency of oxygen absorption, the blood in fish flows

A) from the gills to the heart
B) from the body directly to the gills
C) in the same direction as the flow of water
D) in the opposite direction to that of the water
The problem of waste disposal caused by the watertight egg is solved by storing the waste in the
A) amnion
B) allantois
C) chorion
D) yolk sac
The major factor responsible for sharks and bony fishes replacing pioneer vertebrates was
A) better jaws
B) better respiration
C) stronger bones
D) better swimming
E) better teeth
Mammals arose from the

A) pelycosaurs
B) therapsids
C) thecodonts
D) dinosaurs
E) birds
Most paleontologists consider amphibians to have evolved from

A) coelocanths
B) teleosts
C) rhipidistians
D) ray-finned fishes
E) lung fish
Next to rodents, the largest order of mammals is made up of

A) carnivores
B) insectivores
C) bats
D) primates
E) cetaceans
10
In the _______________ , the notochord persists in the adult.

A) lancets
B) rays
C) skates
D) shark
E) tunicates
11
Unique among reptiles, the _______________ have a parietal eye.

A) lizards
B) crocodiles
C) snakes
D) turtles
E) tuatara
12
The story of vertebrate evolution started in the ancient seas of the _______________ period.
A) cambrian
B) ordovician
C) devonian
D) silurian
E) carboniferous
13
Among living animals, crocodiles most nearly resemble

A) snakes
B) turtles
C) lizards
D) birds
E) amphibians
14
Not all amphibians have

A) cutaneous respiration
B) pulmonary veins
C) lungs
D) partially divided heart
E) legs
15
Which of the following is not a unique feature of birds?

A) four chambered heart
B) hollow bones
C) keeled breast bone
D) constant direction of air flow through the lungs
E) feathers
16
The earliest warm blooded land animals were the

A) pelycosaurs
B) therapsids
C) thecodonts
D) dinosaurs
E) microsaurs
17
The fetal placenta and umbilical cord are formed from the
A) chorion and amnion
B) chorion
C) chorion and uterus
D) amnion
E) chorion and allantois
18
Amphibians bearing live young are among the

A) caecilians
B) frogs
C) toads
D) salamanders
E) newts
19
Adult urochordates secrete a sack composed mainly of

A) protein
B) cellulose
C) phospholipid
D) gelatin
E) pectin
20
In sharks and bony fishes, the propulsion fin is the _______________ fin.
A) pectoral
B) dorsal
C) pelvic
D) ventral
E) caudal
21
The earliest bipedal land animals were the

A) pelycosaurs
B) therapsids
C) thecodonts
D) dinosaurs
E) microsaurs
22
The most ancient of living birds is the

A) woodpecker
B) parrot
C) owl
D) ostrich
E) penguin
23
More than half of all vertebrates are

A) mammals
B) fishes
C) amphibians
D) birds
E) reptiles
24
The early amphibian, Ichthyostega, breathed by

A) forward movement
B) muscular contraction around the swim bladder
C) rib cage movement
D) mouth alterations
25
Sharks must constantly swim because they lack

A) pectoral fins
B) a swim bladder
C) gills
D) lungs
E) a lateral line system
26
A characteristic that distinguishes chordates from other animals is:

A) a notochord
B) a nerve cord
C) pharyngeal slits
D) all of the above
27
Which of the following features of birds in not an adaptation for flight?

A) Heavy teeth replaced with a light bill.
B) Endothermy and a high metabolic rate.
C) Feathers
D) Nearly hollow bones.
E) Modified hind limbs.
28
Flat, chisel-shaped teeth are called:

A) molars
B) premolars
C) canines
D) incisors
29
Before amphibians could be successful on land, they had to:

A) develop a more efficient heart
B) develop a way to prevent drying out
C) develop lungs
D) b and c
E) all of the above
30
Archaeopteryx had which key birdlike features?

A) hollow bones
B) featherswell
C) well-developed collarbone
D) b and c
E) all of the above
31
The group of early reptiles that may have been warm-blooded was the:
A) pelycosaurs
B) the rapsids
C) the codonts
D) all of the above
32
Which of the following do not have skin that is impermeable to water?
A) mammals
B) birds
C) amphibians
D) reptiles
E) All of the above have skin impermeable to water.
33
Since extant agnathans and chondrichthians lack true bones, zoologists believe that their ancestors had cartilaginous skeletons
rather than bony skeletons.
A) True
B) False
34
The most prominent diapsids were dinosaurs.

A) True
B) False
35
The first vertebrates were bony, jawless fishes.

A) True
B) False
36
Reptiles of the anapsid lineage gave rise to mammals.

A) True
B) False
Vertebrates
Chapter 48 (p. 980)

1. The four primary characteristics are a single, hollow dorsal nerve cord, a dorsal notochord, pharyngeal gill slits, and a postanal
tail.
2. The three subphyla are Urochordata (tunicates), Cephalochordata (lancelets), and Vertebrata (vertebrates).
3. In the vertebrates, bony vertebrae replace the notochord.
4. An advantage to possessing jaws is that it encourages active predation; it also improves the ability to collect food compared to
sucking or filtering it. Jaws are a modification of one or more gill arches.
5. The bony skeleton weighs more so that fish tend to sink with it.
6. The lateral line system is the ability to detect changes in the pressure of water and sense movements of objects. Pressure waves
created by objects moving in the surrounding water deflect cilia on hair cells that send positional information to the brain.
7. The five major innovations were as follows: (1) Legs were necessary to support the body’s weight. (2) Lungs were necessary
because the delicate structure of fish gills requires the buoyancy of water to support it. (3) The heart had to deliver greater amounts
of oxygen required by walking muscles. (4) Reproduction had to be carried out in water, until ways could be found to prevent the
eggs from drying out. (5) Techniques had to be developed to prevent the body from desiccation.
8. Nutrients are in the yolk and wastes are excreted into the allantois and stored until hatching.
9. Feathers are derived from scales.
10. Amphibian legs jut out from the sides of the body, reptilian legs are straightened and tent-like, and mammalian legs are located
directly beneath the body.
11. There are a number of characteristics that distinguish dogs and cats. Some are behavioral. Others are variable and exceptions
easily come to mind. A definitive difference that can be determined, even if the animal is dead, is the number of teeth. Dogs have 42
teeth, including 4 canine teeth. Cats have only 30 teeth, including 4 canine teeth.

Biology Practice Exa1

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Biology Practice Exam

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25 In normal sexual reproduction, two mature

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Author Dr. George B. Johnson, Washington University

How We Classify Organisms

1 A group of organisms at any particular level in a classification system is called a

2 Scientific names higher than genus are

A)capitalized but not printed distinctively, italicized, or underlined

C)capitalized and italicized or underlined

D)italicized or underlined with the first word capitalized

A)do not normally interbreed with other species in nature

B)can be distinguished from other species

are incapable of hybridization with other species

4 The institution of the classification level of domain was prompted by

A)the overabundance of kingdoms

C)great differences among bacteria

D)the taxonomic problem presented by viruses

5 Viruses are denied a kingdom of their own because

A)they are too poorly understood

B)they are too small

C)their genetics cannot be determined

D)they are not organisms

6 Viruses are assigned to the kingdom

E)none of the above

7 A major problem with polynomial names was that they were

8 The plant alternation of generations is characterized by _______________ meiosis.

9 When writing species epithets, it is sometimes permissible to abbreviate the _______________

1 True multicellularity occurs only in

C)plants and animals

D)plants, animals and protists

E)plants, animals and fungi

1 A related group of genera comprise

1 Prokaryotic organisms make up the

B)Archaebacteria and Protists

C)Protists and Eubacteria

E)Eubacteria and Archaebacteria

1 In the current taxonomic system, families are grouped into

1 Of the six kingdoms now recognized,

C)four are macroscopic and two are microscopic

D)two are eukaryotes and four are prokaryotes

E)two are carnivorous and four are herbivorous

1 In plant taxonomy, a division is the equivalent to _______________ .

1 Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped into

B)Fungi and Eubacteria

1 In printed scientific names, only the _______________ is capitalized.

1 In the early 1700's, the classification system used was

1 In printing scientific names, it is conventional for only the _______________ to be underlined or

2 A kingdom that also comprises a domain is

2 The oldest level of taxonomic classification is

2 Multicellular organisms and unicellular yeasts are contained in

2 Throughout the world, official species names are in

E)the native language

2 The binomial system of classification was developed by:

E)none of the above

B)Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

C)Genus, Species, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family

D)Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Kingdom

E)Domain, Phylum, Kingdom, Genus, Species, Family, Order, Class

2 At the present time, scientists have named approximately ____ species.

E)none of the above

3 Polynomial classification has recently begun to replace the binomial system.

3 Biologists currently recognize three kingdoms: Plants, Animals, and Protists.