Lakshya NEET 2.

0 (2024)

SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 04

DURATION:: 60
DURATION 90Minutes
Minutes DATE: 10/09/2023 M. MARKS: 192

Topics Covered
Physics: Current Electricity: Electric Current, Electric Current in Conductors, Drift of Electrons and the Origin of
Resistivity, Current Density, Mobility, Temperature Dependence of Resistivity, Calculating Resistance for
Different Shapes, Limitations of Ohm’s Law, Resistor Colour Codes, Equivalent Resistance - Series and
Parallel, Problems on Circuit Solving, Kirchhoff's Rules, Nodal Analysis"
Chemistry: Electro Chemistry (Full Chapter).
Botany: Principle of Inheritance of One Gene.
Zoology: Common Diseases in Human and Innate Immunity.

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 60 minutes duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 48 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. All questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
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5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
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 PHYSICS
1. When electricity is passed through water 7. In the below circuit, find the value of resistance
(1) hydrogen is evolved at anode between A & B.
(2) oxygen gas is evolved at cathode 15 10
A
(3) hydrogen is evolved at cathode B
(4) no change occurs C D
 
2. Drift velocity of electrons is due to (1) 8.4  (2) 48 
(1) motion of conduction electrons due to random (3) 25  (4) 5 
collisions.
(2) motion of conduction electrons due to electric 8. The equivalent resistance of four resistors joined in
field E. parallel is 20 ohms. The current flowing through
(3) repulsion to the conduction electrons due to them are 0.6, 0.3, 0.2 and 0.1 ampere. The value of
inner electrons of ions. each resistor is:
(4) collision of conduction electrons with each (1) ohms, 8 ohms, 12 ohms, 24 ohms
other. (2) 40 ohms, 80 ohms, 120 ohms, 240 ohms
(3) 40 ohms, 40 ohms, 40 ohms, 40 ohms
3. When no current is passed through a conductor, (4) 240 ohms, 240 ohms, 240 ohms, 240 ohms
(1) the free electrons do not move
9. Ohm’s law is applicable for a:
(2) the average speed of a free electron over a
large period of time is not zero (1) non – metal
(2) non – linear component
(3) the average velocity of a free electron over a
large period of time is zero (3) metal conductor
(4) Zener diode
(4) the average of the velocities of all the free
electrons at an instant is non zero
10. What is the value of the current I in the given
circuit?
4. If N, e,  and m are representing electron density,
charge, relaxation time and mass of an electron
respectively, then the resistance of wire of length
and cross–sectional area A is given by
m 2m A
(1) (2)
Ne 2 A Ne 2 (1) 30 A (2) 9 A
Ne 2 A Ne 2 A (3) 3A (4) 10 A
(3) (4)
2m 2m 
11. If negligibly small current is passed through a wire
of length 15 m and resistance 5, having uniform
5. Two wires A and B of the same material, having
cross section of 6 × 10–7 m2, then coefficient of
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the ratio
resistivity of material is
4 : 1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in A and
(1) 1 × 10–7–m
B is
(2) 2 × 10–7–m
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 16
(3) 3 × 10–7–m
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
(4) 4 × 10–7–m

6. A conductor carries a current of 50  A. If the area

12. A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of
of cross–section of the conductor is 50 mm2, then
a wire Y of similar material. The ratio of resistance
value of the current density in Am–2 is
of X of that of Y is
(1) 0.5 (2) 1
–3
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 10 (4) 10–6
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

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 CHEMISTRY
13. G o for the reaction Cu2+ + Fe → Fe2+ + Cu is: 19. Consider the following E° values
 E o 2+ = 0.34V, E o 2+ = 0.44V  E = +0.77V; E = −0.14 V
 Cu /Cu Fe /Fe  Fe3+ /Fe2+ Sn 2+ /Sn

(1) 19.3 kJ (2) 180.8 kJ Under standard conditions the potential for the
(3) 150.5 kJ (4) 28.5 kJ reaction.
Sn (s) + 2Fe3+ (aq) ⎯⎯
→ 2Fe 2+ (aq) + Sn 2+ (aq)
14. The equilibrium constant of the reaction if
Eocell = 0.4 V (1) 1.68 V (2) 1.40 V
(3) 0.91 V (4) 0.63 V
Fe(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Fe2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
at 298 K is
20. Equivalent conductivity of Fe2(SO4)3 is related to
(1) 2.5 × 1012 (2) 3.5 × 1013
molar conductivity by the expression:
(3) 1.5 × 1012 (4) 4.5 × 1015
(1) eq = m (2) eq = m/3
15. Standard electrode potential for (3) eq = 3m (4) eq = m/6
–
Cu 2+
+ e → Cu +

Cu + e– → Cu
+
21. Using the data given, find strongest oxidizing
are 0.15 V and 0.50 V respectively. agent.
The value of Eo will be Eo = 1.36 V Eo = 1.33 V
Cu 2+ /Cu Cl2 /Cl− Cr 6 + /Cr 3+
(1) 0.150 V (2) 0.50 V
Eo = 1.51 V Eo = −0.74 V
(3) 0.325 V (4) 0.650 V MnO−4 /Mn 2 + Cr 3+ /Cr

(1) Cl– (2) Cr

16. The standard reduction potential of A, B and C are (3) Cr 3+
(4) MnO4–
0.34 V, 0.80 V and 0.79 V respectively. The
decreasing order of deposition of metals on
22. The resistance of 0.05 N solution of an electrolyte
electrodes are:
was found to be 420 ohm at 298 K. Its
(1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A
conductance is:
(3) C > B > A (4) A > C > B
(1) 2.4 × 10–3 ohm–1 (2) 8.4 × 10–3 ohm–1
(3) 5.6 × 10–4 ohm–1 (4) 7.2 × 10–3 ohm–1
17. Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH [i.e. °m
(NH4OH)] is equal to
(1) Λm ( NH4OH) + Λm ( NH4Cl ) − Λm ( HCl ) 23. The products formed when an aqueous solution of
NaBr is electrolyzed in a cell having inert
(2) Λm ( NH4Cl ) + Λm ( NaOH) − Λm ( NaCl )
electrodes are:
(3) Λm ( NH4Cl ) + Λm ( NaCl ) − Λm ( NaOH) (1) Na and Br2
(4) Λm ( NaOH) + Λm ( NaCl ) − Λm ( NH4Cl ) (2) Na and O2
(3) H2, Br2 and NaOH
18. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt (4) H2 and O2
bridge’ because
(1) velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3– 24. A current of 9.65 A flowing for 10 minutes
(2) velocity of NO3– is greater than that of K+ deposits 3.0 g of a metal. The equivalent weight of
the metal is
(3) velocities of both K+ and NO3– are nearly the (1) 40 (2) 50
same (3) 55 (4) 45
(4) KNO3 is highly soluble in water

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 BOTANY
25. The proportion of 3:1 at the F2 generation is 31. Which one of the following is not true for the
explained by the experiments of Mendel on pea?
(1) Law of Dominance (1) His observations were based on natural, open
(2) Law of Segregation pollination
(3) Law of Independent assortment (2) He chooses characters of two contrasting states
(4) Test cross (3) He used true-breeding lines
(4) His experiments had small sampling size
26. In Monohybrid test cross of heterozygous, ratio
obtained is ________. 32. Mirabilis plant with pink flower (Rr) is crossed with
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 1 Mirabilis plant with red flower (RR) than
(3) 3 : 1 (4) none of these percentage of pink flower is
(1) 50 percent (2) Zero percent
27. Which is incorrect about Mendelian factors? (3) 25 percent (4) 100 percent
(1) Occur in pair
(2) Unit of inheritance 33. How many different kinds of gametes will be
(3) Segregate during gamete formation produced by a plant having the genotype AaBbCC?
(4) Show blending (1) Three (2) Four
(3) Nine (4) Two
28. Law of dominance and law of segregation was based
on _____ cross. 34. Give the number of homozygous gene loci in
(1) Dihybrid cross (2) Monohybrid cross TtRRYY
(3) Test cross (4) Back cross (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Three (4) Five
29. Among the given traits of Pisum sativum which one
is recessive trait– 35. Heterozygous tall (Tt) is crossed with homozygous
(1) Violet flower colour tall (TT) percentage of heterozygous tall in the
(2) Yellow seed colour progeny would be
(3) Round shape of seed (1) 25% (2) 50%
(4) Wrinkled shape of seed (3) 75% (4) 100%

30. In Snapdragon, a pink flowered plant is test crossed. 36. What is the probability of production of dwarf
What is the phenotypical probability in the progeny? offspring in cross between two heterozygous tall pea
(1) 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White plants?
(2) 1 Red : 2 Pink (1) Zero (2) 50%
(3) 1 Pink : 1 White (3) 25% (4) 100%
(4) 3 Red : 1 Pink

ZOOLOGY
37. Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and 39. Many disease can be diagnosed by observing the
non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms
identify the infectious diseases. are indicative of pneumonia?
I. Cancer II. Pneumonia (1) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough and
III. Allergy IV. Smallpox headache
(1) I and II (2) II and III (2) Stools with excess mucous and blood clots
(3) III and IV (4) II and IV (3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore
throat and headache
38. The sporozoites that cause infection when a (4) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of
female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being appetite and constipation.
are formed in
(1) Liver of human
(2) RBCs of mosquito 40. Widal test is carried out to test
(3) Salivary glands of mosquito (1) Malaria (2) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Intestine of human (3) HIV/AIDS (4) Typhoid fever.
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41. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 46. Read the following statements and choose the correct
correct ans. option.
Column-I Column-II Statement-I: All parasites are pathogens.
A. Malaria I. Salmonella typhi Statement-II: Pathogens could be bacteria, virus,
B. Amoebiasis II. Plasmodium fungi, protozoans.
species (1) Both statements are incorrect
C. Pneumonia III. Haemophilus (2) Both statements are correct
pneumonia (3) Only statement I is correct
D. Typhoid IV. Entamoeba (4) Only statement II is correct
histolytica
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-VI 47. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (1) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I the common cold is a nutritional deficiency
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I disease
(2) Pneumonia can beprevented by a live attenuated
42. The interferons are bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has
(1) Antigen proteins no effective vaccine
(2) Antiviral proteins (3) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the
(3) Antibiotic proteins common cold is caused by the bacterium
(4) All of the these. Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the
43. Which of the following is incorrect match? common cold affects nose and respiratory
(1) Physical barrier - Saliva passage but not the lungs.
(2) Physiological barrier - Tears
(3) Cellular barrier - PMNLs neutrophils 48. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen
(4) Cytokine barrier - Interferons cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
44. Ringworm in humans is caused by (1) Elephantiasis
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (2) Ascariasis
(3) Nematodes (4) Viruses. (3) Ringworm disease
(4) Amoebiasis
45. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by:
(1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork.
(2) Tse - tse fly.
(3) mosquito bite.
(4) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris.

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