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ĐỀ THI THỬ HSG 12 7/11/2023

Số báo danh: Mã đề 801


Họ và tên: ............................................................................
............

You will hear a lecture about study. Circle ONE letter that represents the correct answer to each
question below.
Question 1. What does the lecturer provide for those who are interested in doing extra reading?
A. Personal consultation sessions B. Extra materials, such as a booklist
C. Mid-term examination D. Free glasses
Question 2. In the past, time management meant you needed to______.
A. reduce your stress B. plan for every hour of the week
C. own a good watch D. set goals and try to achieve these goals
Question 3. Today, wise time management means you need to______.
A. set goals and work in a systematic way
B. work faster and effectively
C. set an overview of your assignment
D. make a list, plan for everything, and try to stick to this plan
Question 4. In this college, students are assigned ______ at the end of each semester.
A. team projects B. final term examinations
C. essays D. time management courses
Question 5. One sign the lecturer mentions that students feel under pressure is______.
A. library books go missing B. students get angry for no reason
C. lower class attendance rates D. trouble at the library
Question 6. What kind of suggestion does the lecturer give to the students?
A. Making a very detailed plan of their daily activities
B. Not being so stressed just because there is an assignment
C. A regular one-hour session in their personal timetables
D. Wearing comfortable shoes
Question 7. If you want to set an overview of your time, you should need at least______.
A. one week B. half a week C. one month D. one term
Question 8. The daily planner of time is mainly concerned with______.
A. the detailed planning B. how to plan all the available time
C. TV schedules D. an overview of everything you need to do for several days
Question 9. According to the lecturer, wise time management may have the following benefit
______.
A. having more time to spend on relaxation and other activities
B. improving your academic performance in the final term assignment
C. helping you write better essays
D. improving your memory

You will hear part of an interview in which a career coach called Charles Norris is discussing job-
hunting. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Question 10. What is NOT included in the role of a career coach?
A. recognizing a client’s job-hunting weakness
B. advising clients how to update their CVs
C. locating and securing employment for clients
D. assisting clients in improving their interview techniques
Question 11. According to Charles, the covering letter is important because______.
A. it is an integral part of the CV
B. it contains all the details of the applicant
C. it is the same for every position
D. it is the only part of the CV employers read
Question 12. Charles thinks that the CV is there to______.
A. to apply for a different CV containing relevant information

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B. include a footnote as a main selling point
C. go through the job description
D. provide more background information and details
Question 13. Charles uses the example of a computer programmer to______.
A. highlight the need for relevant experience
B. illustrate the need for customising your CV
C. clarify the importance of having a wide skills base
D. demonstrate the need for extensive details in CVs
Question 14. When discussing the Internet, Charles suggests that job seekers should______.
A. socialize on the Internet to meet employers
B. clean up data that exists about them on the Internet
C. search for other job-seekers online
D. apply to employers that use networking sites
Question 15. Charles believes one of his clients succeeded in his job search because he______.
A. uploaded his CV to his profile
B. had a detailed profile
C. included keywords in his profile
D. had a catchy headline on his profile
Question 16. In the matter of asking questions at an interview, Charles says that you should______.
A. only do it if you have done your research
B. never ask about a company’s competitor.
C. have a list prepared before you go
D. search for questions online

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the questions.
Question 17. Julia finally made a clean breast of it and admitted that she had stolen the money.
A. confessed without reserve B. denied consistently
C. praised oneself D. gained prominence
Question 18. From his act of hunting, it can be inferred that he is a wicked man.
A. peaceful B. decent C. pious D. innocent

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Our knowledge and understanding of scientific matters is constantly evolving and perhaps
nowhere more so than in the field of nanoscience. Nanoscience focuses on the study of tiny molecules-
only one billionth of a metre in size. It can be difficult to imagine something so small but as an example, a
strand of human hair is somewhere between 50,000 and 100,000 nanometres thick! For years,
nanoscience has explored ways of applying this research to different types of technology, and recently it
has begun to yield more and more diverse and fascinating developments.
Imagine a substance with the ability to heal any wound almost instantaneously. This is a common
feature in video games, when characters suffer injuries, a gel is applied which heals them and prolongs
their lives. Not long ago, it seemed impossible to recreate this in real life. But now, by extracting
polysaccharide polymers from the cell walls of plants, veterinary scientists have synthesized a gel which
will hold a wound together and rapidly stop any bleeding without the need for pressure to be applied.
Although not yet available in hospitals, this gel is likely to help medical professionals treat patients with
serious injuries more effectively, and could save many lives.
And it is not just living tissue that nanotechnology can heal. In addition to research into health
care innovations, other nanotechnology researchers are looking into developing self-repairing materials.
One example is self-healing carbon fibre polymers. They break under stress and release a special resin
and a catalyst, which combine to produce a strong plastic material. This technology could be used in
aircraft, to seal tiny cracks that form while they are in flight. Anf for anyone who drops their smartphone
on a regular basis, it will be a revelation!
While some advances in nanotechnology might improve our health and safety, others could have
the opposite effect. In theory, some nanoparticles are designed to make us healthier. As Australian bakery

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has recently developed a way of adding omega-3 oil to bread, without an unusual taste, as nanocapsules
inside the bread store the oil and only release it in the correct environment, in this case, the stomach. The
bread is popular, but critics argue that not enough research into the long-term effects has been carried out.
In the food industry, nanoparticles are already in use to improve the appearance and texture of products,
for example in glazing agents, and donut frosting. The problem is, nanoparticles are more reactive in the
body, and no tests have been done to check their safety. In effect, we are all part of a real-life experiment.
Will they help or hurt? Nobody knows.
Indeed, nanotechnology can be applied to all aspects of life, some less serious or helpful than
others. A number of research groups are working to build what could be described as the smallest cars
ever, constructed out of a single molecule. Except, of course, they are not really cars, although they do
have four structures that can rotate like wheels when they are zapped with electrons and exposed to
exactly the right temperature. They are not fast either; it takes 10 pulses of electrons to move the vehicle
6 nanometre, and the head of a pin is about a million nanometres wide. Nevertheless, the researchers are
planning to hold a nano race, where teams will compete on a track made of gold, while judges observe
using a special microscope. Other than that, what they hope to achieve with their molecular cars is not
entirely clear.
What is clear is that nanotechnology has huge potential for shaping our lives in the coming
decades. Even if we can’t see it with the naked eye, we will surely see the impact on our surroundings,
and perhaps our bodies. In the future, the lines between reality and science fiction are likely to become
even more blurred.
Question 19. As used in the second paragraph, the word ‘surroundings’ is closest in meaning to______.
A. benefit B. environment C. infrastructure D. technology
Question 20. Which of the following phrases in paragraph 3 is used to suggest a repeated action?
A. combine to produce B. under stress
C. looking into D. on a regular basis
Question 21. What does the writer imply about nanoscience in the first paragraph?
A. It is based on imaginary molecules. B. It is a brand new area of scientific research.
C. It is beginning to make advancements. D. It is a theoretical rather than an applied science.
Question 22. In the fourth paragraph the writer suggests that the effects of nanotechnology in
food______.
A. are most likely dangerous B. are surprisingly beneficial
C. are currently unclear D. are frightening for consumers
Question 23. The healing gel in the second paragraph was designed______.
A. by a video game developer B. to be used in emergency departments
C. to be used on animals D. for high-pressure situations
Question 24. What point is made about nanotechnology research in the fifth paragraph?
A. It has the potential to entertain the public. B. It is sometimes highly technical.
C. It is not always addressing a need. D. It is often extremely competitive.
Question 25. As used in the second paragraph, the word ‘instantaneously’ can be replaced by______.
A. simultaneously B. respectively C. anonymously D. immediately
Question 26. Overall, the writer’s opinion about nanotechnology is______.
A. negative because of potential complications.
B. overwhelmingly positive.
C. dependent on how the technology is applied.
D. that it is generally a waste of time and resources.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Peter and Mike are in the middle of their conversation.
Peter: “If only I hadn’t said that to her.”
Mike: “_______”
A. No, you’ve done a good job! B. Yes, you mustn’t have done that.
C. No worry, that’s nothing. D. Ah, well, that’s life.
Question 28. - Nick: “I’m really tired. I’m taking next week off.”
- Michael: “_______”

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A. Well, you must be telling a lie!
B. Take care, my love. Have a nice weekend!
C. That sounds like a good idea. The break will do you good.
D. Really? I don’t know what you are going to do.
Question 29. Thang was asking Huong, his classmate, for her opinion about the novel he had lent her.
Select the most suitable response to fill the blank.
Thang: “What do you think about the novel?”
Huong: “______ ”
A. The best I’ve ever read! B. I can’t agree with you more.
C. I wish I could. D. Yes, let’s.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following sentences.
Question 30. John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
B. Although John was ill yesterday, he need be here.
C. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here yesterday.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 31. The young girl has great experience of nursing. She has worked as a hospital volunteer for
years.
A. Having worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of nursing.
B. Before she worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of nursing.
C. Much as she has worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of
nursing.
D. With great experience of nursing, the young girl has worked as a hospital volunteer for years.
Question 32. Since 1970, the United Nations has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day. It
attracts millions of people worldwide to join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection.
A. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day because it attracts millions of
people worldwide to join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection.
B. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day, which attracts millions of
people worldwide to join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection.
C. The UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day, which millions of people worldwide are
attracted to join in it to promote public awareness of environmental protection.
D. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day so that more people join in to
promote public awareness of environmental protection.
Question 33. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain. Captain Lewis more or less ignored
this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
A. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, thus Captain Lewis more or less ignored this
and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
B. Although William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored
this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
C. As William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this
and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
D. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain because Captain Lewis more or less ignored this
and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 34. After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion of
the issues which were risen in the talk.
A. in B. science C. issues D. risen
Question 35. Vietnamese pieces created by renowned local painters Le Pho, Vu Cao Dam, and Nguyen
Tuong Lan will feature in the auction titled “Magnificence and Regality” which will be held by Sotheby’s
Paris auction house on November 7.
A. and B. renowned C. in D. by

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Question 36. Vietnamese Ambassador to Israel Ly Duc Trung on October 12 is calling for the
establishment of working groups among the Vietnamese community in Israel to support each other
amidst the current conflict.
A. is calling B. to support C. to D. working group
Question 37. The units joining the hi-tech agricultural production chain will enjoy preferred policies,
get support in infrastructure, modern equipment and receive advice in project building.
A. support B. preferred C. receive D. joining

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Auctions are public sales of goods, conducted by an officially approved auctioneer. He encourages
buyers to bid higher figures, and finally names the highest bidder as the buyer of the goods. In England in
the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries goods were often sold' by the candle': a short candle was lit by the
auctioneer, and bids could be made while it stayed alight.
Practically all goods whose qualities vary are sold by auction. Among these are coffee, hides,
skins, wool, tea, cocoa, furs, spices, fruit and vegetables and wines. Auction sales are also usual for land
and property, antique furniture, pictures, rare books, old china and similar works of art. The auction-
rooms at Christie's and Sotheby's in London and New York are world-famous.
An auction is usually advertised beforehand with full particulars of the articles to be sold and
where and when they can be viewed by prospective buyers. If the advertisement cannot give full details,
catalogues are printed, and each group of goods to be sold together, called a 'lot', is usually given a
number. The auctioneer need not begin with Lot 1 and continue in numerical order; he may wait until
he registers the fact that certain dealers are in the room and then produce the lots they are likely to be
interested in. The auctioneer's services are paid for in the form of a percentage of the price the goods are
sold for. The auctioneer therefore has a direct interest in pushing up the bidding as high as possible.
The auctioneer must know fairly accurately the current market values of the goods he is selling,
and he should be acquainted with regular buyers of such goods. He will not waste time by starting the
bidding too low. He will also play on the rivalries among his buyers and succeed in getting a high price
by encouraging two business competitors to bid against each other. It is largely on his advice that a seller
will fix a 'reserve' price, that is, a price below which the goods cannot be sold. Even the best auctioneers,
however, find it difficult to stop a 'knock-out', whereby dealers illegally arrange beforehand not to bid
against each other, but nominate one of themselves as the only bidder, in the hope of buying goods at
extremely low prices. If such a 'knock-out' comes off, the real auction sale takes place privately
afterwards among the dealers.
Question 38. An auctioneer likes to get high prices for the goods he sells because______.
A. then he earns more himself B. it keeps the customers interested
C. the auction-rooms become world-famous D. the dealers are pleased
Question 39. A candle used to burn at auction sales______.
A. because they took place at night B. to limit the time when offers could be made
C. as a signal for the crowd to gather D. to keep the auctioneer warm
Question 40. The word ‘particulars’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. prices B. parts C. special D. details
Question 41. A clever auctioneer encourages______.
A. rivals to compete in high bidding B. the seller to accept the lowest price offered
C. dealers to buy from each other D. knock-out deals
Question 42. Auctioned goods are sold______.
A. for the highest price offered B. at a price less than their true value
C. very cheaply D. only at fixed prices
Question 43. An auction catalogue gives prospective buyers______.
A. the current market value of the goods B. the order in which goods must be sold
C. details of the goods to be sold D. free admission to the auction sale
Question 44. ‘Knock-outs’ are illegal agreements______.
A. among the sellers only B. among the dealers only
C. between auctioneers and dealers D. between the seller and the auctioneer

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 45. The staff couldn’t have worked any harder, but they could not even finish half of the order
all week.
A. In the end, he didn’t have to give his speech anyway, so he needn’t have read so much about the
topic.
B. He had to read a lot about the topic before speaking because he knew nothing at all about it.
C. Not having read much about the subject before his speech, he wasn’t surprised at being considered
uninformed.
D. Since he knew nothing about the subject, he clearly hadn’t researched it well before speaking.
Question 46. He can’t have read much about the subject before giving his speech because he was
completely uninformed
A. In the end, he didn’t have to give his speech anyway, so he needn’t have read so much about the
topic.
B. Since he knew nothing about the subject, he clearly hadn’t researched it well before speaking.
C. Not having read much about the subject before his speech, he wasn’t surprised at being considered
uninformed.
D. He had to read a lot about the topic before speaking because he knew nothing at all about it.
Question 47. Eric is going to be very lonely living by himself in that remote area.
A. That area is very far from the city, so Eric will be alone most of the time.
B. Remote areas are often lonely to live in, but Eric enjoys the solitude.
C. Eric will live by himself in that distant place and he will feel very lonely.
D. Eric enjoys being on his own, so living in that remote place won’t bother him much.
Question 48. I’d never seen anybody so shocked as Claire was when she heard Ben propose marriage to
her.
A. When Claire heard Ben asking her to marry him, she was more shocked than I’ve ever seen anyone
be.
B. I’d thought Claire would’ve been more shocked when Ben asked if she would marry him.
C. Should Ben have asked Claire to marry him, I guess she would’ve been extremely shocked.
D. I’d never imagined I could see anybody so shocked as Claire was when Ben asked her to marry him.
Question 49. Scarcely had we opened the door than we realized we shouldn’t have left the dog home
alone.
A. We knew leaving the dog at the house by herself had been a bad idea as soon as we opened the
door.
B. Every time we have to go out, we wonder whether leaving the dog in the house by herself would be
a good idea.
C. The moment we opened the door, it became obvious that the dog had not really been alone in the
house.
D. We used to leave the dog by herself in the house only rarely, and even then, would regret it upon
our return home.
Question 50. The deciding match of the series will take place tomorrow afternoon, weather
permitting.
A. It would be unfortunate if the weather did not permit tomorrow’s match to be played, as it will
determine the winter.
B. The weather will probably not permit the match to be played tomorrow afternoon.
C. Even if the weather is bad, tomorrow’s match, which will decide the winner of the series, will be
played.
D. The match that will determine the series’ winner will be played tomorrow afternoon if the weather
is not too bad.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 51. Mr. Nguyen Thanh Son informed that the two ministries have finished compiling rules on
punishing celebrities that break the laws and gathering feedback from the Ministry of Public Security, the
Ministry of Justice, and relevant authorities.

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A. draw B. set C. record D. violate
Question 52. Such ownership alone would be enough to increase its market value significantly without
adaptations, improvements or bells and whistles.
A. cheerful and joyful B. whistles for signaling
C. unnecessary extras D. bells for alarming

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 53. A. interrupt B. multilane C. quinquina D. magazine
Question 54. A. allergic B. cathedral C. gorilla D. forester
Question 55. A. painstakingly B. acupuncture C. necessary D. enthronement

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences.
Question 56. A. panicked B. wretched C. rugged D. sacred
Question 57. A. because B. promise C. increase D. loose
Question 58. A. theoretical B. athlete C. asthma D. asthenia

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 59. I can accept criticism in general, but George really ______ it too far, so I had no other
option but slow my disapproval.
A. put B. made C. carried D. pushed
Question 60. Whenever he had an important decision to make, he_____a cigar, supposedly to calm his
nerves.
A. would be lighting up B. would have lit up
C. had lit up D. would light up
Question 61. Cars have been banned from the city center, which makes the area much safer for______.
A. pedestrians B. onlookers C. footmen D. passer-by
Question 62. Tom______ to the show tonight; he doesn’t even like musicians!
A. needn’t go B. shouldn’t have gone
C. can’t be going D. mustn’t go
Question 63. Jen hopes______the script for her new film by the end of the month.
A. to complete B. to be completing
C. to have completed D. to have been completing
Question 64. The fans proposed that they______there when G-Dragon gets off the plane.
A. should have stood B. stood C. were standing D. be standing
Question 65. I ______remember telling you to email me the report.
A. markedly B. noticeably C. remarkably D. distinctly
Question 66. Experts say that Vietnam, with advantages in geopolitical position, economy’s openness
and the workforce, and initial foundation of the electronic semiconductor which have been built in the last
20 years, ______ to be a potential destination and compete with rivals to join the global supply chain.
A. is believed B. to believe C. believes D. is believing
Question 67. “When’s Paul coming back from the town hall?”
“ It depends on when______.”
A. the community meeting finishes B. is the community meeting finished
C. the community meeting finish D. finishes the community meeting
Question 68. Micheal is a competent worker but he has a very short attention_____.
A. limit B. duration C. time D. span
Question 69. The film we watched last night was an______of a Stephen King novel.
A. adoption B. alteration C. altercation D. adaptation
Question 70. Not until the forest fire was extinguished______the extent of the destruction.
A. we see B. didn’t we see C. did we see D. we didn’t see
Question 71. Let me help you organize the party,______?
A. shall I B. won’t you C. may I D. will you

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Question 72. Patrick is too ______ a gambler to resist placing a bet on the final game.
A. spontaneous B. compulsive C. instant D. continuous
Question 73. Martha enrolled in a drama course, as she wanted to______ her interest in acting.
A. pursue B. persevere C. push D. persist
Question 74. If she wins the prize again this year, it’ll be a real_____in her cap.
A. landmark B. gemstone C. feather D. nutshell
Question 75. The inn owner was so generous. What we consumed was______ the house.
A. off B. of C. in D. on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The northern province of Bac Ninh opened Kinh Duong Vuong Bridge, which has the highest
steel arch in Vietnam at present, on October 11. The opening ceremony was held in Canh Hung commune
of Tien Du district in the presence of Deputy Prime Minister Tran Luu Quang.
The tied-arch bridge, connecting Thuan Thanh town and Tien Du district, is 1,232 metres long and
has total investment of 1.926 trillion VND (over 78.8 million USD). It is (76) ______ of 25 spans, with
the main body featuring five steel arches, the highest of which rises 67 metres above the Duong River – a
distributary of the Red River. The arches (77) ______ the straps of “quai thao”, a type of flat palm hats
traditionally used by singers of “quan ho” – a folk singing genre in Bac Ninh. Many difficulties arose
during the over five years of construction due to the bridge’s complex structure, but with the strong
efforts by the province and support from the Government, ministries, and sectors, the bridge has been
completed and met safety, quality, and aesthetic requirements.
Kinh Duong Vuong Bridge is expected to (78) ______ congestion on nearby Ho Bridge and
connect National Highway 1, National Highway 17, Provincial Road 287, National Highway 38 and
National Highway 18, (79) ______helping complete the transport network in the northern key economic
region and boost socio-economic development in Bac Ninh and (80) ______ in the Red River Delta. It
also links many relic sites in the province such as the Kinh Duong Vuong Temple, But Thap Pagoda and
Dau Pagoda in Thuan Thanh town, Phat Tich Pagoda in Tien Du district, and Do Temple in Tu Son city
to contribute to local tourism development.
Question 76. A. concluded B. consisted C. combined D. comprised
Question 77. A. resemble B. relocate C. resonate D. redirect
Question 78. A. ease B. heat C. weave D. melt
Question 79. A. hereafter B. thereafter C. thenceforth D. thereby
Question 80. A. other B. others C. one another D. another

------ THE END ------

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