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Practice Answers PMP Exam Prep.
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Integration Management
1. The correct answer is A.
The number of risks identified (choice B) is dependent on the project, so choice B cannot be the
best. There is a belief that a project management plan should be complete before starting work
(choice C), but there are no standards that say it should be 90 percent complete or any other such
number. That would also depend on the project. Milestones (choice D) might be a helpful control
tool, but they are not used to "help plan the project to the project charter." This statement makes
no sense. Since the project is lower priority, it would be wise to limit control activities to the needs
of the project, making choice A the best choice.
2. The correct answer is C.
Choices A and B are unethical. Choice D is still not necessarily telling the truth. Choice C not only
describes the problem but also provides you with a chance to show your plan of action to resolve
the problem.
Did you notice that the first paragraph is extraneous? The trick here is to determine what the
question is asking and ignore the extraneous data. An "end-of-phase review meeting" is the same as
an administrative closure meeting when a phase of the project is closed out. Cancelling the project
has the most impact on the project team and project direction and therefore, would be the most
difficult.
In this situation the project is doing well. None of the details show major problems. Even the cost
variance of -$500 is small. Which of the following should a project manager do when the project is
going well? Since the second phase of the project could generally not have started without closing
out the first phase, choice A could not be best. There is no reason to believe that fast tracking is
necessary (choice B) as the project is not delayed. Choice D should hae already been done as part of
the planning process group. This is old information that would have been known at that time. With
everything going well on the project, the only choice that makes sense is to review the management
plans for the project.
Operations and maintenance usually occur after the project is completed.
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Practice Answers PMP Exam Prep. Course PM Pro
6. The correct answer is B.
One of the ways to check if a change should be approved is to determine whether the work falls
within the project charter. If not, it should be rejected, assigned to a more appropriate project or
addressed as a project of its own.
This is not a case of doing nothing (choice A). But neither can you jump in and start looking at cost or
determine that the practice is not allowed without first identifying the common practices in that
country.
Only choice B occurs during the executing process group. Choices A, C, and D occur in Monitoring
and Controlling.
Did you see the word EXCEPT in the question? The one thing that you cannot do is to provide the
questions. Therefore, the correct answer to this question is A. All the other choices are things that
you can do, and ethically you should do them
The only choice that addresses gathering, integrating, and disseminating information is choice C.
The communications management plan (choice B) deals with who will be communicated with,
when, and in what format.
11. The correct answer is D.
You want to present options to your boss, therefore D is the best answer. Answer A is a violation of
copyright law and unethical. Answers B and C don't really solve the problem.
Replanning (choice A) is uncalled for by the situation described. A project is complete when all work,
including all project management work, is complete and the product of the project, not just
deliverables, accepted. The lessons learned are project management deliverables, so choice C
cannot be correct. Proper work must be done, not just a date passed, for a project to be complete,
so choice D cannot be best.
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The sooner such discoveries are made known to other project managers, the better you can
improve the capabilities of colleagues in your company. It is part of a project manager's professional
and social responsibility to build such capabilities. The discoveries should also be documented in the
status report (choice B), especially if that report has a wider distribution.
Professional and social responsibility includes looking after the customer's best interests. Therefore,
choice A cannot be best. In this case, the schedule and scope are already approved and all changes
must go through the integrated change control process. Therefore, choices C and D cannot be best.
Look at the wording of the choices and you will see that this question is talking about a procurement
situation. To find the best answer, think about the rules for contract closure. Choice A seems like a
good choice until you remember the importance of getting acceptance in writing (formal
acceptance). Making sure the customer is satisfied is certainly a good thing, but that satisfaction
must turn into formal acceptance in order for a contract to be closed out. Therefore choice C cannot
be best. Choice D cannot be the best choice as it does not include formal acceptance required to
close a contract. Each project is different and may have different requirements for closure. Lien
waivers, export certificates, warranty and guarantee information might need to be received before
the contract can be closed. These unique needs of the project would be included in the contract,
making B the best choice.
Choice B is the first step of integrated change control. A project manager must evaluate the
situation before making a decision. In this case, the project manager would need to know more
about the added functionality before a decision can be made about what to do. Choice A is incorrect
because it is only tracking the change, not analyzing its impacts.
Any document created by someone else should be considered copyrighted information. Asking
permission would be the best choice.
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The project manager is responsible for obtaining upper management buy-in to provide adequate
resources, set realistic schedules and promote team building.
Read the questions carefully. Don't miss the impact of the words NOT and BEST in the question.
Even though it may not directly affect the time or cost to the project, you need to look at all the
impacts of a change on other project constraints. The change may increase risk, reduce quality, etc.
Nothing in this question says the other hotel is cheaper than the company's hotel chain. Did you
read it that way? An employee does not have the option of choosing whether to follow company
policy. Nor, generally, can a manager override company policy (choice A). Only the owner of the
policy can do that. A project manager must follow policy; therefore, it is best to use the company's
hotel (choice C).
Remember that control relates to measurement.
Though there are many criteria for when a phase is completed, only choice B is included on this list.
Work for each phase must be inspected and accepted before the phase can be closed out.
The only allowable or ethical choice is B. You cannot accept the gift, or any gift of the magnitude of a
car.
The higher the benefit cost ratio, the better.
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Before anyone can be notified, the change must be finished. That means looking for time, cost,
quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction impacts. Choice C would occur after other impacts
are identified.
First, you need to understand the scope of the change so you and the team can evaluate the impact.
Next, come up with options, which you present to the change control board. The change control
board then decides whether to include the change and its corresponding impacts on the project.
First, you need to understand what change has taken place and then evaluate the impact and
options. (Note that this is an example of gold plating.)
28. The correct answer is D
This question deals with the proper creation of the project management plan. The final plan
contains more information than what is listed in this question. Therefore, it is the final plan and not
the components that require authorization. Otherwise, there is extra work for everyone. This makes
choice D the correct answer.
A project without a charter is a project without support. The information provided for the other
projects does not justify selecting them. Even the number of resources is not relevant, since the
number of resources for the new project is not supplied.
Project managers should be proactive. The only proactive answer here is preventing unnecessary
changes.
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The project management plan is the only choice that meets the objectives described.
The project manager is neither empowered nor competent to determine the legality of company
procedures. NOTE: There is an important distinction between practices and procedures. All
unethical practices should be reported. For example, a project manager must report an act of fraud.
Fraud is not a company procedure (normally). However, a project manager is not in a position to
determine whether company procedures comply with existing law.
Performance is compared against the project management plan or the project baselines.
As a project manager, it is your responsibility to provide criteria to the contracts department based
on the project needs and to protect your project along the way. Choice B is not practical. Choice C
will increase the chance of incorrect results during the evaluation. Choice D is not correct project
management practice.
Since an extension of time (choice A) would not reduce the cost of the project. It would not be the
best choice. Though choice C might be the end result, it is too early to make such a suggestion,
especially since the work completed on the project would probably be wasted. If you selected
choice D, you might need a lot more project management training, because this is the worst choice.
Cutting 10 percent is arbitrary and leads to increased estimates in the future. It is better to deal with
details of each activity and find real cost savings. You might not have selected choice B as it means
going back to the customer. This should always be the last choice. However, this situation explains
that the project manager already attempted to cut costs in ways that do not affect the customer.

Integration refers to combining activities, not team members (choice D). Could the project manager
smash two team members together and create one big team member? (I just wanted to see if you
are still laughing about this PMP thing!)
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The issue here is the ability to record and keep track of changes, not gathering requirements, so
choice B cannot be best. There is nothing to say that there isn't a change control board in place
(choice C). The problem as described here could still occur even with a change control board. Choice
D contains made up terms and so cannot be best. Only choice A addresses the problem. Recording
and tracking changes is part of change control and may overlap with the scope management plan.
Before you can do anything else, you have to know what YOU are going to do. Developing the
management strategy will provide the framework for all the rest of the choices presented and the
other activities that need to be done.
The Create WBS process consists of subdividing major project deliverables (scope) into smaller,
more manageable work packages. The Define Activities process defines the activities that must take
place to produce those deliverables
The most important part of knowledge management is creating an atmosphere of trust so that
people are motivated to share their knowledge. Even the best knowledge management tools and
techniques will not work if people are not motivated to share what they know or don't pay attention
to what others know. None of the other choices pose a more serious threat than this. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 100]
Facing the problem sooner is better than facing it later. Besides, it may not be that much of a
problem.
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This is a question about problem solving. The project manager needs to analyze the problems and
identify what caused them before making a decision
The project charter is issued by the sponsor. The project manager may have a role in its creation.
You must report the activities
Remember the question asked for methods to control changes, not just deal with them. Choice A is
the most proactive.
The use of the phrase "only impact" here implies integrated change control has already been done,
thus eliminating choices B and C. Did you select choice B because you liked the idea of asking the
team member why? Realize that would have been done before you determined the ONLY impact.
The change control board members are the selected representatives of the stakeholders, so choice
D cannot be the best choice. Once reviewed, the board formally rejects or approves changes.
Though all the choices seem like good ideas, there is only one best. Usually these questions can be
reworded to, "What do you do next?" Integrating (choice B) is a great idea, but not all projects have
another project with which to integrate. The project manager cannot move on (choice C) until the
project is actually completed. That means that the Close Process or Phase process must occur. The
only choice that relates to Close Process or Phase is choice D. Once that process is done, then throw
a party!
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The project manager must manage professional and social responsibility.

Lessons learned help to avoid future pitfalls and use the good ideas of past projects. This leads to
improvements in future projects.
Knowledge is commonly split into explicit (knowledge that can be readily codified using words,
pictures, and numbers) and tacit (knowledge that is personal and difficult to express). Knowledge
management is concerned with managing both tacit and explicit knowledge. [PMBOK 6th edition,
Page 100]
Project should never be prioritized based on their budgets. Selecting the projects that maximize
organizational revenue or selecting the projects that maximize the business value seem good
options. However, adding to business value takes precedence over adding the organizational
revenue, since there can be projects that add more to the revenue but add less to the business
value. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 7]
Scope Management
The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process, which occurs during project
planning.
Did you think that this question had two right answers (choices A and B)? Look again at the wording
of choice A. It is not common that all deliverables will need to be audited. Auditing less frequently
(choice C) or calling the inspection by another name (choice D) do not solve the real problem.
Such a review compares the deliverable to the requirements. The project manager might have
misunderstood and it would be best to check before talking to the team member.
We assume that proper project management was followed and your opinion was considered during
project initiating. Therefore, the best choice would be choice A. You need to provide the work as
approved by management.
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The team is needed because they are the technical experts on the project and know better than the
project manager what needs to be done.
The project scope statement (choice B) is an output of the Define Scope process. The work
breakdown structure (choice C) is an output of the Create WBS process. Change requests (choice D)
are an outputs of the Validate Scope and Control Scope processes.
The WBS is hierarchical; therefore each lower level is made of all the parts of the upper level
segment. The first level should be your project life cycle, not products (choice A). The WBS is not
listed in chronological order (choice C) nor should functional areas (choice D) organize it.
Integrated change control includes looking for impacts to cost (choice A). Submitting the change to
the change control board (choice C) would have been done before the baselines and plans were
adjusted. Adjusting the project management plan implies that the work breakdown structure
(choice D) would have been updated as well. Many people forget to notify stakeholders of changes
and how the changes will affect them. Choice B is important, and the best answer here.
A WBS does not show dates or responsibility assignments (choices B and C). Those are included on
the bar chart and possibly in the communications management plan. The business need (choice D) is
shown in the project charter. Never thought that a WBS could be shown to the customer? Made you
think! Of course it could be used for that purpose.
The output of the Validate Scope process is customer acceptance of project deliverables. The other
choices all happen during project planning, well before the time that the Validate Scope process
takes place.
Choices A, B, and D are processes in the monitoring and controlling process group. This situation
asks how to prevent the problem. This would have been done during the planning processes. The
project deliverables are defined in the Define Scope process (choice C), which is a part of project
planning. Good planning reduces the likelihood of a situation like the one described by including the
right people and spending adequate time in clarifying the project scope.
Choices A, B, and C, are all parts of the scope baseline, which is an input to Validate Scope.
Inspection (choice D) is a tool of that process.
Don't forget that the team needs to help you with the WBS. This helps you obtain team buy-in from
the people who do the work.
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The key aspect of the Validate Scope process is acceptance of the deliverable.
This is a question with more than one right answer. The question is really asking which is MOST
important. The easiest way to deal with these questions is to look for the choice that will have the
biggest impact on the project. Choice A is important, but look again at choice C. It is a method of
recording the change, like choice A, but it is more specific and detailed. Be careful about choices like
D. Changes are not bad and should not generally be prevented.
Scope verification deals with acceptance by the customer. Without this acceptance, you will not be
able to move into the next project phase.
Decomposition is the process of logically subdividing the project into smaller pieces. Therefore, it is
used to develop the WBS.
If the scope change had been properly recorded, the change impact could have been addressed
immediately.
The heuristic (rule of thumb) we use in project decomposition is 80 hours. It doesn't matter how
experienced the team members are. You need this level of reporting to manage the project
effectively.
The scope baseline includes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and the project scope statement. Therefore,
choice A is the only correct choice.
The important words here are "project work packages." This indicates that a WBS has already been
created. If ithe question said "project deliverables," the answer would have been choice A.
The baseline changes only with approved changes.
Though it is a correct statement, choice A cannot be the answer because it does not deal with
control. Since scope planning occurs before the Control Scope process, choice B cannot be the
answer. Since controlling the schedule is not the best way to control scope, choice D is not the best
answer. The control processes do not act in isolation. A change to one will most likely affect the
others. Therefore choice C is the best answer.
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The WBS is an input to all of these choices. However, team buy-in (choice B) is a direct result of the
WBS creation process while the other choices use the WBS to assist in their completion. The best
answer is choice B.
The scope management plan describes how requested scope changes will be managed.
A team member should have flexibility at the work package level to make some changes as long as
they are within the overall scope of the WBS dictionary.
If you picked project charter (choice B) remember that the project charter is a high-level document.
Because the WBS dictionary (choice C) is much more detailed, it would provide more help in
controlling gold plating.
A change in cost may not affect the time a project takes to complete (choice B). There is nothing in
the question to suggest that the methods to find and make changes (choice C) are faulty. Choice D is
a made-up term. When such a problem occurs, it is important to see if anything else has been
forgotten (choice A).
Scope verification focuses on customer acceptance of a deliverable while product verification is
focused on making sure all the work is completed satisfactorily.
This question can be tricky, especially if you have spent so much time studying that you have
forgotten some good project management practices. A quick look at Rita's Process Chart in the
PMP® Exam Prep book might draw you to conclude that the FIRST thing would be to start planning.
Wouldn't it be smart to make sure what you have in the initial project scope statement and project
charter are clear and complete before moving on? This is why choice B is the best choice
The WBS is used in many different processes but is not integral to quality assurance.
The lowest level of the WBS is a work package, which can be performed by more than one person.
Sensitivity analysis has nothing to do with Validate scope.
Perform Quality Control checks for correctness, Validate Scope checks for acceptance.
Quality measurements are not an input to creating the WBS.
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Scope management ensures that the appropriate scope is done.
Do not jump into the problem without thinking. The customer only notified the project manager
that "they want to make a change." They did not describe the change. The project manager would
need to understand the nature of the change and have time to evaluate the impact of the change
before doing anything else. Of these choices, the first thing to do is to determine what is the change
(choice B) and then meet with the team (choice A), but only if their input is required. The project
manager should not just say no (choice C) until he knows more about the possible change. He also
should not go to management (choice D) without more information.
Remember that the project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process. Estimate
Activity Durations (choice A), Plan Resources (choice B) and Estimate Costs (choice C) are all done
after the Define Scope process. Only the Collect Requirements process (choice D) occurs before
scope definition. See Rita's Process Chart in the book PMP® Exam Prep.
The Validate Scope process occurs during the monitoring and controlling process group, so choices
A, B and D cannot be correct. Validate Scope is done at the end of each phase (the end of design,
implementation) making choice C the best answer.
Changes must be formally controlled using the change control system.
The numbering system allows you to quickly identify the level in the work breakdown structure
where the specific element is found. It also helps to locate the element in the WBS directory.
In the Define Scope process, organizational process assets are required before the scope statement
can be completed. These include historical records of previous projects, including their scope
statements, and may also include processes and templates. The project scope statement is an input
to the Create WBS process, making choice A incorrect. The project scope statement is an output of
the process you are in, making choice C incorrect. The high level project objectives are included in
the project charter, making choice D incorrect.
You can expect many questions dealing with changes on the exam. Generally, you look for impacts
to all aspects of the project (choice B), even if the project is ahead of schedule and/or under budget.
You cannot do choices A or C until choice B is done. There is no such thing as a configuration change
board (choice D).
Activity lists (choice B) may list the work package they relate to, but they do not contain detailed
descriptions of the work packages. The project scope statement (choice C) defines the project
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scope, but it does not describe the work a team member is assigned. The scope management plan
(choice D) describes how scope will be planned, managed, and controlled. It does not include a
description of each work package. The WBS dictionary defines each element in the WBS. Therefore,
descriptions of the work packages are in the WBS dictionary.
Much of the work on the project is dictated by the project scope statement. Any imprecision in such
a key document will lead to differing interpretations.
In projects with adaptive life cycles, the overall scope of the project will be decomposed into a set of
requirements and work to be performed, referred to as product backlog. Backlogs include product
requirements and user stories

Validate Scope is the process of Validateing completeness of the work. Therefore, you need
deliverables (choice A) to use in the analysis. Organizational process assets (choice B) are an input to
earlier parts of the scope management process, but not to scope verification. Accepted deliverables
(choice C) and change requests (choice D) are outputs of the Validate Scope process.

The project manager should validate with the customer that the change will add value, and then
follow the change process.

The Validate Scope process requires acceptance by the customer. If they are not happy, you must
find out why and remedy the situation if the project is to meet their needs. It is important to
evaluate why they are unhappy in order to determine a course of action. Only choice B relates to
evaluation. The other choices could happen after choice B.

Choice D treats all team members with respect and preserves an individual's integrity while
identifying gaps in the project scope statement. It also allows the project manager to interpret body
language of those who misunderstood.

SIPOC stands for Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 284]
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Storyboarding is an agile prototyping technique that shows sequence or navigation through a series
of images or illustrations. The rest of the choices are graphical techniques designed to achieve other
objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 147]
Schedule Management
Notice that you need to know what each choice is in order to determine the best answer. With
Monte Carlo analysis, you can perform "what if" drills.
You would want to fast track activities on the critical path in order to save time. Your choices would
be activities D, G, or I.
Concurrent relates to fast tracking. Since activity G is the only one of these two activities on the
critical path, completing the two in parallel will have no effect on the critical path.
Earned value (EV) minus planned value (PV) equals schedule variance (SV). .
Did the use of the word "resources" in the question cause you to select choice A? If so, you were
tricked! The situation described is best thought of as what-if analysis.
You may or may not need your customer's (choice B) or your boss's (choice C) input, but you will
definitely need to include an analysis of risk. Choice A is broader than choice D and therefore is
better.

This question requires you to understand a lot of terms. In order to fast track, one needs to make
two critical path activities parallel, otherwise the project length might not be shortened. Choice C is
the only situation that might not account for why this occurred.
The situation described does not give any indication that there is a problem with documentation,
(choice B), that the work authorization system is faulty (choice C) or that risks are not being properly
managed, (choice D). The best choice is therefore A.
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Because you are no longer within your budgeted time and cost, you must obtain change control
board approval to affect the change.
Choice D is the better choice, as it is not on the critical path.
The estimates received in the project management process before the final schedule are based on
"how much or how long will it take." It is also important to check "when" on a calendar basis the
work can be done.
You don't want to say that you are unable to meet the date (choice D) until after you have evaluated
both crashing and fast tracking the project. Here the answer is to fast track, or do more activities in
parallel (choice B).
Crashing is a cost/schedule trade-off. Since the project manager is not worried about her budget,
but is worried about time, crashing is the most logical solution. Fast tracking (choice B) involves
increased risk and so is not appropriate in this case.
The actions being discussed are part of the schedule management plan.
By definition, free float (or slack) is the time an activity can be delayed without impacting the early
start of its successor.
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The three paths you have in this question are Start 1, 2, 3, End, Start, 1, 2, 5 and Start 1, 4, 5, End.
Start, 1, 2, 3, End would take 4 + 8 + 5 days or 17 days to complete. Start, 1, 2, 5, End would take 4 +
8 + 3 days or 15 days to complete. Start, 1, 4, 5, End would take 4 + 8 +3 days or 15 days to
complete. Carefully draw the network diagram, list all the possible paths and then determine how
much time each path would take.
Choice D is an output of the Develop Schedule process.

There are now two critical paths making the project more risky.
The situation is neither mandatory (choice A), nor driven by an external source (choice C). A rule of
thumb (choice D) is something that can be used consistently. This situation is a unique occurrence.
The situation is a suggestion of a preferred method, so choice B is the best answer.
Three-point estimating takes into account the risk of not meeting your date.
The wider the range between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates in a three-point estimate, the
more uncertainty the estimator has.
Using the early start and finish, the activity would begin at the start of day 3 and end at the end of
day 9. It would take all of days 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9; or seven days duration.
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Planning cannot continue if the team does not know enough about so many work packages, making
choice C impractical and choice D ineffective. Choice B might help, but the detailed project scope
would be included in the project scope statement created during choice A.
Both critical paths have durations of 16 weeks. Since 16 is the longest duration of paths, you have
two critical paths.
25. You are correct!
By definition, the most correct answer here is the project completion date.
Standard deviation is a range that an estimate can vary +/- from the mean. The project needs to be
done in 40 days, and the schedule calls for 38 days, so the project float is 2 days. With a standard
deviation of two days, the project will take 38 +/- 2 days, or 36 to 40 days. Therefore, project float
could be 0 to 4 days.
This question is testing your understanding of why certain project management activities should be
done. Since we are in the planning process group, (Define Activities is done in planning) it is better
to try to meet all objectives, not just cost (choice B) or schedule (choice C). Choice A is not relevant.
Did the distracters in this question trick you? Although another path was created (Start, E, F, End),
with a duration of 45, it is not longer than the existing critical path. There would be no effect on the
critical path with this change, but that is not what the question asked. It asked for the effect on the
PROJECT. More interdependencies on a project increase the need for communication.
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Many people forget to make use of the tools of project management planning while the project
work is ongoing. Do not make that mistake. A network diagram does help you track flow, but it
should be the flow of the work, not information (choice A). The network diagram has nothing to do
with cost (choice C) or reward systems (choice D). The network diagram helps you know when work
on the project should be done and in what order.
Schedule compression means shortening the duration of the project.
The near-critical path is the path closest in length to the critical path; in this case A, B, F, G, H, J, K.
If EV is lower than PV, it indicates less work is occurring than was scheduled, resulting in schedule
slippage.
Since an activity with float will not affect the project duration as long as any delay is not greater
than the float, choice A could not be best. Choice C cannot be best as this situation is not related to
scope, just time. An activity with free float means it has time where it can be delayed without
impacting the next activity. Therefore, choice D cannot be best. Any delay in when an activity is to
be completed will most likely impact resources.
Fast tracking means making more activities happen at the same time. Therefore, the result is a
decrease in project duration.
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Each of these relationships can be represented on an activity-on-node diagram (also called PDM, or
precedence diagramming method).
Develop Schedule includes all work and uses all inputs needed to come up with a finalized, realistic
schedule. One would need time reserves (choice D) in order to complete a schedule. All of the other
items are parts of Control Schedule and occur after Develop Schedule.
"Project management" software is not designed to do a good job of creating a WBS. It cannot create
a complete project management plan, nor can it manage a complete project. It is designed to create
and control schedules.
Baselines are created during project planning and are used to measure project performance.
This question is really saying, "Which of the following do you not need before you develop your final
schedule?" The schedule baseline is an output of the Develop Schedule process.
Earned value questions ask for a calculation or an interpretation of the results. See the tricks under
this topic in the bookPMP® Exam Prep.
This question is asking you about the process of project management. Think about Rita's Process
Game in the book PMP® Exam Prep. Sequence Activities (choice A), has already been done in
creating the network diagram. Validate Scope (choice C), occurs during monitoring and controlling.
Choice D is a made-up term.
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Fast tracking (choice B) would affect time and cost. Monte Carlo and life cycle costs (choices A and
D) do not directly deal with resources. Leveling (choice C) is the only choice that will definitely affect
resources.
This question does not specify what type of float. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be
delayed without impacting the end date of the project. Free float is the amount of time an activity
can be delayed without impacting the early start of the next activity. The only choice matching
either of these definitions is choice D.
The PERT calculation is (P + 4M + O)/6. So, this result would be be [9 + (4 x 8) + 1]/6 = (9 + 32 + 1)/6
= 42/6 = 7. You have to memorize the formula.
Every project must be closed, as closure provides benefit to the performing organization. This makes
stopping work (choice C) not the best choice. Choices A and D do not solve the problem--they just
postpone dealing with it.
Negative float indicates you are behind. Although choice B is technically correct, it is not the best
answer because it essentially means, "Do nothing and ask for more time." Fast tracking an already
risky project (choice D) only puts the project in worse shape.
Without external date constraints, an activity on the critical path has no float.
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This is one of the two-stage questions you will find on the exam. First you need to draw the network
diagram and find the critical path, then make a decision. The diagram has four paths:
Start, A, D, G, End = 14
Start, B, E, H, End = 12
Start, C, E, H, End = 16
Start, C, F, I, End = 9
The critical path is 16 (Start, C, E, H, End). Many people immediately look for the longest duration
activity on the project to cut. Here activity D is the longest, at 10 weeks. However, that activity is not
on the critical path, and cutting it would not shorten the project's duration. You must change the
critical path. In this case, both activity C and activity H are on the critical path. If you have a choice,
all things being equal, choose the earlier option. Therefore, activity C is the best answer.
Did you get lost looking at all the numbers presented in this question? Notice that there are no
calculations required, simply an understanding of what the problem is. This question describes
schedule management, which is a responsibility of the project manager.
You do not necessarily need to change the schedule, unless, of course, the delay is more than the
activity's float.

On-demand scheduling does not rely on a schedule that was developed previously for the
development of the product or product increments, but rather pulls work from a backlog or
intermediate queue of work to be done immediately as resources become available.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177]
Cost Management
A project manager must always evaluate the situation before making a decision.
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CV = EV - AC
This is the definition of what is NOT a bribe.
When you look at earned value, many of the terms have similar definitions. This could get you into
trouble. Since EAC means the estimate at completion, choice C is the best answer. Choice D is the
definition of ETC, estimate to complete.
The overall project budget (choice A) may be included in the project charter but not the detailed
costs. Even small projects (choice C) should have a budget and schedule. It is not impossible to
create a project budget before the project management plan is created (choice D). It is just not wise,
as the budget will not be accurate
Asking percent complete is not a best practice since it is usually a guess. Often the easiest work is
done first on a project, throwing off any percentage calculations of work remaining. It may be a
good thing to use the 50/50 rule, as in choice C. However, the 50/50 rule is not necessarily included
in the progress report, and the second part of the sentence is incorrect. The life cycle cost cannot be
lower than the project cost, as the life cycle cost includes the project cost. Choice D is often done by
inexperienced project managers who know of nothing else. Not only does it provide little
information, but also it cannot be used to predict the future. Choice B is the best answer since it
looks at the past uses this information to estimate future costs.
This is a fee for service paid to a government official and is therefore not a bribe.
The only incorrect choice is choice D, as it is part of the Estimate Costs process.
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Ask yourself which choice helps evaluate cost performance. Notice choice D, the project budget.
This deals with cost, but not performance, as there is nothing to compare against the budget listed
here. There is no comparison to a previous budget or a comparison of actual to budget. Therefore
choice D cannot be best. The only choice that addresses cost and performance is choice A.
You should ask yourself which of the choices would be interepreted to mean that work was not
done. A schedule performance index (SPI) of less than 1 could mean that work was not done, but
there could be other reasons. When you combine cost and schedule you can clearly see that the
reason the project has progressed more slowly than planned is probably due to work not getting
done. This makes choice A the best choice.
The only problem in the data provided is the cost. Therefore choice D is the best choice
The project manager should not just accept management constraints, and estimating smaller
components leads to more accurate estimates, so choice B is incorrect. Eliminating risks, decreasing
costs, and reestimating do not occur until a change is approved, making choice C incorrect. Choice D
also includes misstatements; the estimate to complete should be updated as the project progresses,
and while using historical records is a good practice, it should not be the only source of estimates.
Only government officials can collect routine government fees.

Life cycle costing looks at operations and maintenance costs and balances them with the project
costs to try to reduce the cost across the entire life of the project
A change control system is not required to obtain estimates, but without the other three choices,
you cannot develop the estimates. You need the WBS to define the activities, the network diagram
to see the dependencies, and the risks to determine contingencies. NOTE: These are high-level risks,
not the detailed risks we identify later in the planning process group
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Since a project control system is created during planning, choice B cannot be best. Though choice C
may be a correct statement, there is nothing in the situation described or in standard project
management practice that would say taking a holiday would be a problem with contracts. Team
meetings (choice D) are scheduled as needed by the project and frequency is determined during
project planning. Why is choice A correct? The project manager should understand reasons that a
project can be under budget so he can determine when to take action and what action to take.
Look for the choice which would have the least negative impact in this situation. You would not
need to meet with the sponsor to do choice B. Choices C and D always have negative effects. The
choice with the least negative impact is choice A.
Notice the use of the term "procurement statement of work." This is used to refer to the part of the
project work that will be done by a seller. It is unethical to ignore the Validate Scope process, as
doing so will add risk that the project will not meet the customer's needs. Therefore, choice A is the
best answer. In a real-world situation, one would probably work with the customer to efficiently
handle verification so as to cause as little disruption as possible.
Analogous estimating is used most frequently during the planning processes, not the executing
processes (choice B). You do not need to use historical costs (choice D) for an analogous estimate.
Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
20, The correct answer is D.
Presenting anything besides your original estimate (allocating more to the budget) is inaccurate and
calls into question your competence and integrity as a project manager. The customer should list
potential changes and risks to your estimate. If the costs and risks are justified, you can increase the
budget.
Choices A and C occur during Determine Budget. Choice D occurs as part of Control Costs.
Setup costs do not change as production on the project changes. Therefore, they are fixed costs.
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Procedures for the rental and purchase of supplies and equipment are found in the organizational
policies, part of organizational process assets.
CPI = EV/AC. In this case CPI = 24,000/22,000 or 1.09. A CPI of 1.09 indicates that you are under
budget
To find the answer, look for things that would cause a poor estimate. A project management plan
(choices A and D) comes after the creation of estimates. Risk assessments (choices B and D)
normally occur after estimating.
The problem must be evaluated first. We know the schedule variance, but not the cost variance.
Therefore, choice B is first, possibly followed by choice C.
Every item in choice B accurately describes a part of the cost management plan. Notice how one
word in each of the other options makes the entire choice incorrect. Choice A refers to duration
estimates, which are created during the time management process, choice C includes measuring
team performance, a part of Resource management, and choice D includes risk.
Project managers must deal with potentially unethical situations like the situation described.
Choices B and C hide it. Choice D ignores it. Only choice A deals with it
Ask yourself in what part of the process correction action is generally done. If you have played Rita's
Process Game in the book PMP® Exam Prep, you know it is the monitoring and controlling process
group. Now determine which choice involves control, and you will select choice D
Calculating estimate to complete is done as part of the monitoring and controlling process group.
26 | P a g e
Doing choices A, B, and C could point out root causes of decreased cost. Choice D would not be
done until A, B, and/or C are done
Payments for non-routine government actions are bribes and should not be paid.
The rough order of magnitude estimate has this range and is done during the initiating process
group.
A cost baseline is an output of the Determine Budget process

Choice A is clearly a bribe

Choice A is too general. The estimates are already created in this example, so the answer is not
choice B. The answer is not D, Control Costs, because the baseline has not yet been created. The
correct answer is choice C.
This question is asking, "When you finish estimating costs, what do you have?" Many people who do
not realize that estimates should be in a range pick choice C. Choice B is more correctly part of the
cost management plan and the change control system. Choice D is talking about the basis of
estimates, which are an output of Estimate Costs.
Since team members should create the activity cost estimates whenever possible, choices B and D
cannot be correct. Choice C makes no sense
The exam will ask you what the tools of project management contain in order to test whether you
really understand them. This question would be difficult to simply guess correctly
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A fixed cost is a non-recurring cost that will not change as the project progresses. Note the
additional information unrelated to the question. It was added as a distracter.
EV is determined from a total budget of $10,000 and a five week duration. Each week would be
$2,000. Therefore, for two weeks of completed work, we have an EV of $4,000. CV = EV - AC, CV =
$4000 - $2000 = $2,000. Positive means you are under budget.
A work package is considered 50 percent complete when it begins and gets credit for the last 50
percent only when it is completed. Remember that there is also an 80/20 rule used in quality
A cost baseline must include a contingency reserve for risks. It does not include a management
reserve (choice C). Choices A and D should have been completed earlier.
Because one needs project details to estimate this way, the effort expended will be greater with
bottom-up estimating.
Professional and social responsibility requires the investigation of any instance where the legitimate
interests of the customer may be compromised. If such a compromise is found, action must be
taken.
The only estimate that is usually made in the initiating process group is the rough order of
magnitude estimate. This estimate is accurate to +/- 50 percent
Schedule variance is calculated by EV - PV or $30,000 - $29,000 = $1,000

Value analysis is a way of finding the least expensive way to do the work
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This question does not say if the information is estimated or actual, but it does use the word NEVER.
The cost performance index is determined based on performance. Therefore, it would never be
determined during project planning. The other choices could be determined as estimates.
Quality Mangement
Choices B and C are components of a quality management plan. The quality management plan is
part of the project management plan. The best answer is choice A, the quality management plan.
Can you explain why choices A and B are unethical? Choice C simply withdraws from the problem
and is therefore not the best solution. The only possible choice is D. That choice would involve
quality and other experts to find a resolution.
Perform Quality Assurance involves determining whether standards are being followed. This would
be the least effective, since it does not address the specific problem described in the question.
The team should reevaluate whether the quality standards are valid. This is part of the Perform
Quality Assurance process.
Design of experiments helps determine the combination of variables that most improves quality.
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Look for the proactive approach. When we plan for quality, it improves quality, which is less
expensive over the long run. Note: You may spend more initially for increased quality, but you will
save through reduced rework, etc.
The team is addressing problems that have impacted the quality on the project, so they must be in
Perform Quality Control.
Standard deviation is the measurement of a range around the mean. Therefore, choice B must be
the best answer.
Quality improvements are neither a tool of Perform Quality Assurance nor an output of Validate
Scope, so choice A cannot be best. They are identified through measurement and analysis in
addition to experience (choice C). Quality improvements can come from more than the customer
and the project manager (choice D).
Inconsistency and nonpredictability are indications that the process is out of control.
A scatter diagram is a a tool used in the Perform Quality Assurance and Perform Quality Control
processes.
Only quality training (choice B) is a cost of conformance to quality. All the other choices are costs of
nonconformance to quality.

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The Pareto chart is based on the 80/20 principle. It displays causes of problems and the frequency of
occurrence. If you were to fix 20 percent of the root causes of problems, you would eliminate 80
percent of all the problems encountered.
The situation described would occur as part of Perform Quality Control, not Perform Quality
Assurance (choice B). The question specifically describes control limits, which are only a part of
control charting (choice C). Corrective action (choice D) is needed, but it is not described here.
.
Memorize the numbers for 1-, 2-, 3- and 6- sigma.
The control limits are the dashed lines above and below the mean. Choice C is the only answer to
address this correctly. Since control limits are the measure you use to determine quality, it follows
that your quality should exceed your customer's need. Otherwise you probably would not do the
work.
Quality management should be performed regularly and in parallel with other planning processes
throughout the project.
The team is looking for benchmarks. Benchmarking is done in quality planning.
You need to know what happens in each part of the quality process. This one is easy - Plan Quality.
On the exam, you will also need to know what happens in the Perform Quality Assurance and
Perform Quality Control processes.
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The rule of seven applies here. If you have seven data points in a row on the same side of the mean,
statistically the mean has shifted, calling for action to correct the problem.
Validate Scope occurs during project monitoring and controlling, making choice B incorrect. Choice C
is also an untrue statement. Scope verification is provided to the customer, not the team, making
choice D incorrect.
Trend analysis examines project results over time to evaluate performance.
Even though it is occurring during the execution of the project, determining what standards to use is
part of quality planning. We sometimes need to fall back into planning during other parts of a
project. In planning, we determine what quality standards are applicable to the project and how to
implement and control them.
Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality process. They are an input to the Perform Quality
Assurance process, which is the process in which quality audits take place.
Choice A is also referred to as a Gantt chart, choice C is a cause and effect diagram, choice D is a
GERT diagram.

Only a quality management plan is not an output of Perform Quality Control.
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Discovering non-value activities is part of process analysis: implementing the process improvement
plan. Many people choose to perform a quality audit (choice C). However, performing a quality audit
relates to determining whether you are using the right processes and whether those processes are
effective, rather than improving processes.
Work results (choice D) would be obtained during quality management, not before the Plan Quality
process
Developing specifications should come from a technical expert. The only choice listed that meets
that description is engineering. Not every question on the exam will require that a project manager
do the work.
Statistical sampling is the process of random selection and inspection of a work product.
Benchmarking is the common term for a performance measurement standard. Sampling (choice B)
might be a way to obtain this benchmark.
Validated deliverables are an output of the Perform Quality Control process.
Choices B and C relate to fishbone diagrams. Choice D relates to control charts. Only choice A relates
to Pareto charts.
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Quality audits (choice A) and work performance information (choice B) would lead up to the
performance issues being identified. The performance measurement baseline (choice D) is made up
of the scope, time and cost baselines. Changing that would not address the problem of
unsatisfactory performance. It is likely that recommended corrective actions would be the result.
Choice A is not productive since it does not solve the problem. An analogous estimate (choice B)
looks at past history of other projects. This would not be appropriate to determine how the current
project is going. The quality management plan (choice D) does not provide results. Perform Quality
Assurance (choice C) helps to determine if the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
Benchmarks are the results of past projects of this type. They provide a means to compare your
project to past history.
To answer this question, you must first realize that this is not necessarily a bad situation. Many
projects have repeated work. Therefore, choice A can be eliminated. There could be some benefit to
having the same resource do all the work packages, however, this may not be practical. The
question asks for what MUST the project manager do, and choice B is not mandatory. There is no
benefit to scheduling the work packages close to each other, so D cannot be correct. Choice C uses
the knowledge gained from the earlier work packages in the completion of later work packages,
making the later ones faster and easier. Therefore C is the best answer.
A report of quality management activities will provide confidence that the project will satisfy
relevant quality standards.
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Although quality planning usually occurs during project planning, sometimes we need to go back to
planning from other processes to make a decision.
A data point that requires you to determine the cause of the problem calls for a special cause
(choice A). Gold plating (choice B) is providing the customer more that what they asked for. A rule of
seven (choice C) is not just a single data point and thus not correct, even though it also requires an
assignable (special) cause. A specification limit (choice D) indicates the customer-defined
requirements for quality.
Data points outside the control limits indicate the process is out of control, and production should
be stopped until a solution is found.
A Pareto chart helps you identify the most frequently occurring problems and determine which
problems to focus your attention on. The result is a higher quality project. It can be used to look at
past problems, not to predict future ones (choice C).
This is an example of gold plating. You should provide ONLY what the customer asked for. The team
does not know if their change will provide benefit to the customer. Focus efforts on fulfilling the
requirements.
Choice A is not correct because the events are true events. Choice B is not correct because, by
definition, two events that are mutually exclusive cannot happen on the same trial. Choice D is
incorrect because just-in-time refers to inventory levels. Choice C is correct because statistical
independence refers to two events not being linked.
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The only choice listed that makes sense and is an official input to Perform Quality Assurance is
choice C. This question is similar to others in this program but not exactly the same. You may also
see this occur on your exam. Carefully read the questions!
Notice in this question that there is a lot of data not relevant to answering the question? Expect
these distracters to occur in almost every question on the exam. Quality should produce a decrease
rather than an increase in cost risk as a result of less rework, so choices B and C can be eliminated.
Quality should also provide increased cost effectiveness due to less rework. This eliminates Choice D
leaving the best answer, choice A.
The key words here are "identifying the quality standards," which is done in the Plan Quality
process.
This can be a tricky question, in that most project managers dismiss the need to focus on quality.
Quality, cost, and schedule should be considered of equal importance unless specific project
objectives make any one of them most important. Quality, cost, schedule, scope, risk, and other
factors may be prioritized differently on each project.
Experiments are a method for R&D (choice D), but the most correct answer is choice A. Proper
design allows you to find those factors that have the most impact on quality. It allows the project
manager to focus attention on the factors that are most important.
Choice A relates to Pareto charts. Choices B and C relate to fishbone diagrams. Only choice D relates
to control charts.
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Resource Management
McGregor devised the Theories of X and Y. These are easy questions so you have time for the harder
ones.
Would you select a choice that said "remove the resource," like choice A? Why? There is no need for
the project manager to take such drastic action, because he would have accounted for the team
member's level of experience and productivity in the project management plan. Since training for
project work is the cost of the project, choice B cannot be right. Choice C is not correct, as no impact
to the project is referenced in the question. Mentoring (choice D) is the only logical choice, and
work that a project manager may be frequently called on to perform.
Always look for the choice that deals with and solves the problem. Choice A is withdrawal. Choices B
and C would not be appropriate until you learn the root cause of the problem.
Those having the problem should resolve the problem. Having had to crash the critical path several
times implies that team D has already dealt with these problems. In this case, the two team leaders
need to meet. The extent of this situation requires the project manager's involvement as well.
Notice this question aks for the "main purpose. Ground rules (choice A) are tools of the Develop
Project Team process. Acquiring outside resources (choice C) is a tool of Acquire Project Team. Roles
and responsibiities (choice D) are outputs of Plan Resources.
The most correct answer here is team buy-in. Without buy-in, the team is not motivated to perform.
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Don't be fooled because "personality" is on the list. Schedule conflict is the number one source.
Know the top four: schedules, project priorities, resources, and technical opinions.

Notice that this question talks about what the team member should do? It is important for the
project manager to understand the team member's role and possibly even instruct team members
on how to work on projects and what is expected of them. Choices A, B, and C have one thing in
common. They involve the team member asking the project manager to do something. In reality, it
may very well be the team member who will come up with a solution (such as decreasing the scope
of the activity, fast tracking, or specific suggestions about changes to predecessor activities).
Therefore, choice D is the best choice. But ask yourself how you run your projects. Which is better,
your way or this way? Lastly, please note that recommended corrective or preventive actions can
come from the team or stakeholders in addition to the project manager.
Project managers need to have a broad base of experience and knowledge. Therefore, the best
choice is Candidate D.
This is the essence of McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y.

The first sentence is a distracter to drive you to the wrong answer. You may see this on the actual
exam as well. The real question does not deal with communication, instead it is looking at the tools
and techniques of developing the project team. The choice that exclusively addresses team
development is choice D.
12. The correct answer is B
All project team members share responsibility for enforcing the rules once they are established in
the Team Charter.
Project staff assignments (choice B) and resource availability (choice Dare outputs of Acquire Project
Team, and project management plan updates (choice D) are an output of Manage Project Team,
making each of these choices incorrect.
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If you picked ignoring, you should reread the book PMP® Exam Prep. Ignoring is not a conflict
resolution technique
Whereas a job description (choice C) describes a person's primary job, the responsibility assignment
matrix (choice D) describes the person's responsibilities on the project.
You need to realize that the process described is Plan Resources. Project organizational charts are
an output, not an input to that activity. Choices A and B could be considered inputs to almost every
activity.
This is the essence of McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y
A project decreasing in priority would be a cause for lack of support, but choice A says "increased."
You could argue that the functional manager did not have a good schedule (choice C) but her
excuses do not relate to time or schedule issues. The WBS (choice D) does not include resources.
The project charter officially authorizes the project. If it existed, the project would carry more
weight and have support from senior managers. Functional managers should approve project
management plans involving their staff. For these reasons, choice B is the best answer.
This answer is not wrong, because self-actualization is not listed. Reread the question. It asks "which
of the FOLLOWING" is the highest. Of the choices listed, choice C is the highest.
39 | P a g e
Choice D, the most common incorrect answer, ignores the issue. Here the project manager is not
ignoring. The project manager is saying the issue is valid but he/she does not think it will be a real
problem later.
Reward and expert are the best sources of power. Reward is not listed as a choice.
A risk analysis (choice A) may help, but not as much as a resource-limited schedule (choice D). A
responsibility assignment matrix (choice B) shows who is responsible for what, as does a
responsibility chart (choice C). They will not help you manage the project with limited resources.
Only D will help meet the defined need.
Choices A and D assume the delay and over-expenditure are the faults of the foreman. This may or
may not be the case. The project manager needs to understand the cause without being
judgmental; the objective is to complete the project on time and within budget. The project
manager will need the collaborative help of his foreman and must continue to build trust. Choice C
is the best answer
The best time is when it is needed, and that might happen any time during the project
Improving schedule performance (choice B) relates to getting the project completed sooner. Though
it would seem to always be a good idea to improve schedule performance, this project's
performance is fine. The schedule has been approved as it is. It would be better for the project
manager to spend more time controlling the project to make sure it finishes according to plan than
to improve schedule performance.
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If you chose C, ask yourself why. There is nothing wrong with the schedule performance of the
project that would require an extension. Did you think that the best way to deal with the
complaining stakeholder was to give him more time? How do you know the team member's
activities are on the critical path?
It is always important to gain formal acceptance from the customer, as it provides an opportunity
for the team to check if everything is going well. It is a good idea to get such acceptance in writing.
Choice D could be done, but there is a more important problem that takes precedence here. Read
on.
The only thing glaringly wrong in this situation is that the team member is complaining. If you read
the situation completely, you will notice that the team member was involved and approved the
project management plan, including his own involvement in the project. Since the responsibility
assignment matrix has not changed, the team member has not even been assigned different duties
since the project began. There must be something else causing the team member to complain. The
project manager should investigate and find out what part of the reward system is ineffective.
This is the essence of Herzberg's hygiene factors
Choice A is inappropriate, since it is the functional manager's responsibility. Choice B is not problem
solving, it is more like avoidance or withdrawal, something that is not usually best. Choice C is a
penalty, as it is discussed at a team meeting. By saying that "this person has participated in?", the
question is saying that you as the project manager have done everything in your power already.
There is even a reward system in place. Therefore, it is time to ask for help from management.
Functional management is responsible for addressing individual performance problems.
The key words here are "first two weeks." When you first organize a team, you need to provide the
direction. After they become self-motivated, you could use one of the other leadership styles
Choices A and D would be done before giving rewards. Be careful if you chose team building (choice
C). This situation does not involve the team, and the manager is not encouraging the team member
to work better with the team.
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As project managers spend 90 percent of their time communicating, the correct choice must be A.
Worried about the word "outputs?" Use logic here. What will you have when you are finished with
the Plan Resource management process? Do not confuse Plan Resource management with the
schedule management process of Estimate Activity Resources, which is represented in choice C.
Keep in mind that the staffing management plan is created as part of Plan Resources and updated as
part of Acquire Project Team.

Remember that the WBS is the basis for making estimates and assigning resources. Therefore, the
WBS is the correct answer.
Many people select choice D. Did you? If so, reread this question and try to figure out what you
missed before reading on. Why would you need to talk to each team member's boss (choice B)?
Choice C is not the responsible thing to do, and it does not solve the problem. Although you may
feel like quitting, you must continue. Choice D is not the best, as the project manager should have
gotten the team's buy-in to the project during project planning. It is WAY too late to do this six
months into the project. One of the powers you can use as project manager is reward power.
Rewards, used properly, bring the objectives of the team in line with the project's.
Contacting the employee's manager and arranging a meeting is the best way to handle this
discreetly and effectively. This situation does not involve project-related activities, so resolution of
the issue is not within the jurisdiction of the project manager.
A corner office is a "perk" whereas health benefits are a fringe benefit.
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Both parties are giving up something. This is a compromise.
Did you realize the activities may or may not be on a critical path?
Know your conflict resolution techniques. Here, we are problem solving. Problem solving and
compromising are considered to be the two best techniques, in that order.
The only choice here that does not make sense is choice D. Determining probability would not be
appropriate in the situation described.
Penalty power refers to removing some benefit.
It is important that the new seller understand who is who on the project (choice A). Choices B and C
would be included in the contract. Choice D might occur after choice A, but it is not first.
The project manager must ensure that the necessary skills are developed as part of the project.
The project schedule remains preliminary until resource assignments are confirmed.
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Sometimes complex problems are caused by not doing simple things. The data in the first
paragraph, once you read the choices, is completely extraneous. The troubled activity has float and
so does not need immediate attention. Choice A may not be necessary if the amount of float will not
be exceeded by the delay. None of the choices suggest investigating if the amount of float is enough
to cover any delay caused by the trouble, whatever it is. Rather, the choices take one in different
directions.
Choice B should have already been done before the project began. Choice C cannot be best, as
replacing team members does not solve the root cause of the problem. Could there be something
that the project manager is doing wrong, or could be doing that she is not, that would solve the
problem without losing resources? Wouldn't it be more effective to discover the root cause of those
team members' concerns so that the problem does not surface again later? The creation of an issue
log will let the troubled team members know that their concerns have been heard, are noted, and
will be resolved. This might be enough to stop them from leaving and avoid project delays and
confusion if new team members must be added. This makes choice D the best answer.
A reward needs to be specific to the activities at hand to maximize the effect. Although the existing
company reward system (choice A) may work, one created specifically for the project will address
project-specific objectives and motivators. Choice C is the best answer.
Choice D is an example of compromising.
Remember that confronting means problem solving and problem solving is the best way to resolve
conflict ? but not here. The question asks "what conflict resolution technique would you
IMMEDIATELY use with the team members." Tempers are too hot and you have the sponsor to deal
with. The best immediate choice here is avoidance.

Generally, a contractor can work for whomever they choose, so choice C is not correct. However, it
would not be ethical for them to divulge confidential information about the competitor or your
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company. B is the best choice. Choice A would be the second choice because you would lose the
contractor's skill on the project. Choice D is not practical in most companies.
Time is shown in a schedule or bar chart. The responsibility assignment matrix maps specific
resources against the work packages from the WBS.
In adaptive life cycles, the requirements are documented in user stories that are then prioritized
and refined. The product features are developed using time-boxed periods of work. This approach is
often used to deliver incremental value to the customer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177]
Communication Management
Administrative closure refers to the Close Project or Phase process. Performance reporting during
closure is to show progress made on projects, not activities (choice A). Approval is not needed to
start the lessons learned (choice C). Such reports are used to gain formal acceptance, not to show
that it has been achieved (choice D).
The communications management plan should cover all phases of the project.
Choices A and B are good ideas, but they do not solve the problem presented in the question. The
WBS (choice A) and the project charter (choice B) do not identify stakeholders. Choice C is a
procurement function.
Both choices A and D could have prevented the outcome, but D is the only one that would ensure
you were not sitting in a meeting with a document that had not been reviewed.
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You need to consider the needs of all your stakeholders.
You need to consider the needs of all your stakeholders.
We cannot avoid the stakeholder (choices C and D) because he has a stake in the project. A project
manager can say "No" (choice A), but this does not solve the root cause. There may be some good
ideas within those changes. The only choice that deals with the problem is choice B.
Changes are not bad! Changes normally come from lack of input at the beginning of the project. If
we begin effective communication with this stakeholder early (choice B), we stand a much better
chance of discovering his changes during the planning process, when they will have less of an impact
on the project.
Why would choice D be the action not to take? Isn't it similar to choice A? Yes and no. This issue
should be over, but since there were so many meetings and arguments about the requirements
being removed, it is unlikely that the issue will be dropped by the stakeholders. However, since it
has not come up again, and the project was started six months ago, spending time in a meeting is
excessive. The other choices are easier and have less impact on the project and are therefore things
that could be done.
It seems like all of these are good ideas, but choice A helps discover errors and changes, and could
therefore be considered the best choice.
Information is a key word here to tell you it is communications management (choice C).
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You need to tailor the reports to meet the needs of all of your stakeholders and not just one. Find
out what each needs, and address those needs. This should be outlined in the communications
management plan.
Memorize this number, 90 percent.
When answering a question like this one, look at all the different parts of the situation to determine
which, if any, are problems. In this case, the project charter was agreed to; that is excellent. It looks
like project planning was also done well. You have even checked to make sure stakeholders still
agree to the plan. Ask yourself, what problem could remain? We know personality conflicts are the
least frequent sources of conflict so choice A cannot be the best. Notice the two parts of choice B,
"effective sponsor" and "high priority." These do not necessarily relate to each other, although the
statement indicates that they do. This should be a warning that this choice could not be best. If the
problem described in choice D exists, management plans should have accounted for it and
eliminated or dramatically reduced the problem so this could not be the best choice. Expectations
(choice C) are unspoken requirements and are often more critical to a project's stakeholders than
the stated ones. Unless these expectations are identified and recorded, there is likely to be a high
level of dissatisfaction with the project.
Questions like this can drive one crazy. Although it asks for the most important thing, there are
many choices that are reasonably correct. In questions like this, look for the most immediate need.
In this case, the team member is in a manufacturing environment. That means that communications
will most likely be blocked by noise. In order to have the issue at hand taken care of, the
communication, it is best for the project manager to use choice A.
The best answer is stakeholders because it encompasses choices A and D. Scope (choice C) does not
fit in the context of the question.
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The communications management plan helps people understand what needs to be communicated,
to whom, when, and by what methods of communication.
Although the information is found as a sub-plan to the project management plan (choice A), the
communications management plan (choice D) is the best answer because it directly answers the
question.
Everything that we do is more formal in a procurement environment than in other project activities.
Because choice B deals with contracts, it is the best answer.
The root cause of this problem is an inadequate communications management plan. Though created
by the project manager, it should, like the rest of the plan, be bought into by the team. Choices A
and C are creative ideas, but unfortunately, do not solve the root cause of the problem. Choice D is
penalty power, and not the first choice of what to do.
The project manager must identify the stakeholders, document their needs, wants and
expectations, then manage and influence expectations to ensure project success. (Since the project
is already in the planning process group, this should have already taken place.) Choice A is a control
function related to gaining customer acceptance. Choice B relates to looking for multiple impacts of
changes. Choice C creates a scope management plan.
Working with people from different cultures, with different cultural values and beliefs necessitates
an understanding both basic definitions and the areas of cultural impact. As project managers, we
need to have good communication skills and a willingness to adapt to other cultures.

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A communications management plan includes a determination of what information needs to be

collected and when.
This is a wordy question; expect longer. Trends are found by comparing current to a baseline. A
trend report shows areas needing attention based on the time analysis.
The project status needs to be known by many people. Therefore, it is best to make this type of
communication in writing so that it can be transmitted to many people. It is also formal in that it is
an official report of the project. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.
You need to communicate issues with the stakeholders. This includes all the others answers.
This question has many distracters. Choice D could not be best, because there is no indication that
the agenda was inadequate. The situation does not indicate that the boss was not aware of the
situation (choice B). He could have been aware of the problem of schedule delay and still, based on
the situation, done the same thing. Why? The project manager did not correctly interpret the
magnitude of the customer's anger and did not correctly receive the communication. The problem
was that the customer was angry, and it was a bad communication choice to try to explain why the
schedule was delayed. It might be best to withdraw. The customer was not ready to listen. After
withdrawal, it would be best to review the change control system, because it is obvious something
was missed in communicating changes and their effect on the customer.
To ensure clear, concise communications, the project manager must manage communications by
deciding what form of communication is best.

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Many of these choices could be done, but ask yourself, "What is the most effective thing to do?" The
party may well generate lessons learned, and recording them (choice A) would certainly be a good
idea, but the question asked what to do first. There is a more immediate issue--the manager. Choice
C could also be useful, but it would require taking some of all the stakeholders' time when there is
only one stakeholder, the manager, who definitely has an issue. Besides, a good project manager
would be holding regular meetings with the stakeholders already. Choice D might be a good idea, as
the manager apparently is not communicating with the project manager. However, this would not
absolutely make sure the manager does communicate.
The manager is, in effect, saying that he is not getting the information he needs. His lack of needed
information is causing him to suggest more meetings. Too many meetings are a problem on
projects. The concept of information distribution (choice B) is to determine who needs what
information and plan how to get it to them. A great project manager does not just add meetings,
but solves the real problem in the best way. That might take the form of changing a report or
sending existing reports to different people rather than adding meetings. For these reasons, choice
B is best.
Reports help distribute information, not just report on progress.
The company change process or change control board would control whether or not the sponsor
needed to sign the change in this situation (choice B). Nothing in the question or the field of project
management could lead you to believe that choices C or D are necessary. Only choice A gets to the
root of the problem.
Forecasts are an output of performance reporting.
Meetings by definition are communications tools. There are other ways to determine status and
make and authorize changes. The project manager must use meetings to communicate effectively.
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The Plan Stakeholder Engagement is an iterative process. Stakeholders’ needs, interests or influence
might change during the project lifecycle and whenever a significant change happens, the project
manager must revisit the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process and update the stakeholder
engagement plan accordingly. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 518].
Occasionally you will find an easy question on the exam; at least I hope you found this question
easy. Did it improve your confidence?
Because of the differences in culture and the distance between team members, formal written
communication is needed.
The best choice is D. If informal verbal communication does not solve the problem, choice A is the
next best choice. This does not mean that you do not keep records of the problem, but this question
is asking about communication between two parties.
This situation describes the need to "compare." A trend report (choice A) shows performance over
time. A forecasting report (choice B) looks only to the future. A status report (choice C) is generally
static (relating to a moment in time). The only choice that compares project results is a variance
analysis (choice D).
The major result of communication blockers and miscommunication as a whole is conflict.
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Choice A cannot be correct because the question states that all stakeholders received the
information. Choices B and D do not address the root cause of the problem. The problem presented
here shows that there is something missing in the communications management plan. The best
answer is to review the communications management plan in order to prevent future problems and
find any instances of similar problems.
This question shows how important historical information is for adequately planning projects.
Notice the wording in the question. It is looking for an example. The word "stakeholder" is used in
the question, but this is not an example of stakeholder analysis (choice A), nor is it an example of
scope management (choice B) as the situation described is from past projects. Such information can
lead to risks (choice D), but this is not an example of risk identification.
Such communications must be in writing as they are changes to the contract.
Since there is no information about the sponsor or his needs in this situation and nothing presented
here relates to sponsors, choice A cannot be best. Choice C cannot be best, as it is not a correct
statement. One watches both predecessor and successor activities. Choice D cannot be best, as the
attendance at the party and the issue at hand are not related. Often forgotten in communications
management plans are the bosses of team members (functional management, since of course you
remember that we are assuming a matrix organization). Including the bosses of team members in
communications planning, requirements gathering, risk management, and other areas of project
management helps make the project better. In addition, it helps the boss manage his own resources
effectively. If the functional manager of the team member assigned to the predecessor activity had
been included, he would have known when the team member was needed to do work for the
project and the impact, if any, of delay. The communications management plan might also have
included a method to communicate potential delays. For these reasons, choice B is best.
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The pitch and tone of voice (choice A) is not relevant here, as the project manager could not even
hear what was being said. There were no issues recognized after the conversation, so none could be
added to the issue log (choice B). This issue is not related to communications requirements, so
choice C cannot be best. Saying, "I am not sure I properly heard what you said" during the
conversation or asking for the message to be repeated back to the sender would have prevented
this problem. This makes choice D the best option.
The work breakdown structure allows communication vertically and horizontally within the
organization as well as outside the project.
The project manager must tailor the PMBOK processes to meet the needs of the project. However,
this is a consideration while developing the overall project management plan for the project. The
rest of the choices are more of a concern during the Plan Communications Management process.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 366].
Nonverbal communication carries 55 percent of the message you send. With this much at stake,
nonverbal communication is of major importance.
Understanding the receiver's perspective allows you to direct the communication to meet his needs.
Choice A is not a "rule" for effective meetings. Since there is no indication that the meeting was not
scheduled in advance (choice B) or that there isn't a purpose (choice C), these cannot be the best
answers. "Discussed at random" implies no agenda (choice D). If an agenda is issued beforehand,
people will follow the outline and should not need random discussions.
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Many people select choice B, but the question asks for the purpose of such meetings. Team
members' reporting on what they are doing may best be done outside of meetings. The main
purpose is choice A.
A communications management plan can attempt to control communications, but the project
manager needs to have open communications with everyone. This is the only way to inform the
appropriate people of the project status and to adequately control the project.
Changes are inevitable. Acquiring more than required resources with put a strain on the budget and
hence might compromise the project’s financial goals. Fast-tracking always induces risk to the
project. However, active management of stakeholders almost guarantees a decrease in project risk.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 504-506]
Active listening is a communication technique that requires the listeners to feedback what they hear
to the speaker, by way of re-stating or paraphrasing what they have heard in their own words, to
confirm what they have heard and moreover, to confirm the understanding of both parties. Active
listening is of prime importance during the collection and analysis of stakeholders’ needs and
expectations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 386]
The stakeholder register must be updated since a new project stakeholder has joined the project.
Changes to the stakeholder engagement plan might also be required to ensure that the new key
stakeholder is properly engaged with the project. Addition of a new key stakeholder might bring
some additional uncertainty to the project; this should be recorded in the risk register. The issue log
is least likely to be updated in this case since no new issue has emerged. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page
96]
Risk Management
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A decision tree allows you to make an informed decision today based on probability and impact
analysis. You can decide based on the expected monetary value of each of your options.
All choices are generally correct. Which is best, or, more importantly, which deals with the situation
described here? The only real issue is prototyping being able to fulfill more requirements. The CPI,
benefit cost ratio, and standard deviation change do not represent problems, so choices A, B, and C
are not necessary. When something like this happens, many people neglect to look at risk impacts.
All the choices listed, except choice B, are examples of transference or avoidance.
Stakeholders (choice A) are involved in the Identify Risks process. Workarounds (choice C) are
created later in the risk process. Plan Risk Responses must include the involvement of all risk
response owners and possibly others. This makes choice B the correct answer.
There is no indication that any other areas have a problem. For such a large project, the project
manager should have identified more than six risks.
Team members (choice A) will have knowledge of the project and the product of the project and will
thus have a lot to contribute to risk responses. Those responsible for risk templates (choice C) will
be able to provide the templates from past projects (historical records) and therefore will be very
important. Key stakeholders (choice D) will know more about the technical working of the project to
help plan "What are we going to do about it?" so choice D is not likely to be the least important. The
sponsor (choice B) may have the least knowledge of what will work to solve the problems. Sponsors
need to be involved in the project and help identify risks. They may even approve the response
plans created by others, but they would not generally be major contributors to response plans. This
makes B the best choice
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Notice how many choices are half right? Monte Carlo could help you know that an estimate for an
activity needs to change, but not what the activity estimate should be (choice B). Monte Carlo is a
simulation (choice C) but it simulates time, not order of activities. Monte Carlo can be used to prove
things to management (choice D) but its main focus deals with time, not staff. Risk can be assessed
using Monte Carlo analysis (choice A). By considering the inputs to the PERT estimates and the
network diagram, you can obtain a better overview of the overall project risk.
Choice A is an output of Plan Risk Responses. Choices B and C occur during Monitor and Control
Risks, and choice D has already been done in the Plan Risk Management process.
The Plan Risk Responses process receives input from the risk response owners.
Some risks from Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis will be candidates for further study in Perform
Quantitative Risk Analysis.
This is a decision tree. Know your tools, their uses, advantages, and disadvantages.
To mitigate risk (choice A) we either reduce the probability of the event happening or reduce its
impact. Many people think of using insurance as a way of decreasing impact. However, mitigating
risk is taking action before a risk event occurs. Acceptance of risk (choice C) does not involve such
action as purchasing insurance. Avoidance of risk (choice D) means that we change the way we will
execute the project so the risk is no longer a factor. Transference is passing the risk off to another
party.
The only source of potential conflict listed here is choice B. The other choices are either wrong
(choice C) or are not sources of conflict.
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The project management plan contains more than just the risk response plan. All the other answers
are direct results of risk management.
Expected monetary value is probability times impact. Take into account all risks including positive
ones. The calculation is: (0.2 x $30,000) + (0.1 x $12,000) - (0.25 x $8,000)
Insurance premiums come into play when you determine which risk response strategy you will use.
The activities of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process are probability and impact definition,
assumptions testing (data quality assessment), and probability and impact matrix development.
The project management plan can be changed as a result of the actions needed to manage risks.
Risk mitigation reduces either the probability or the impact of negative risk events (threats).
Did you realize this question describes secondary risks? Identifying secondary risks is good and
expected while completing the Plan Risk Responses process. With that in mind, the best thing to do
is choice A.
It is not possible nor practical to develop a response strategy for all risks.
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Did you realize that this situation is taking place during the initiating process group? Choices B and C
are created in the project planning process and so are not yet available. Therefore, we are left with
deciding if choice A or choice D provides the greater value. Since the information gained in choice D
is more specific to your company, it is the best choice.
Project management plan updates are one of the outputs of Plan Risk Responses.
The expected monetary value of the first risk is 0.3 x $3,000,000 or $900,000. The expected
monetary value of the second event is 0.3 x -$1,600,000 or -$480,000. The expected monetary value
of the third risk is 0.2 x (-$1,800,000 - $500,000) or -$260,000. The total of all three potential risk
events is $900,000 - $480,000 - $260,000 or $160,000.
The question asks for the "appropriate" risk response strategy. The risk described is of such
magnitude that choice A would not have enough of a clear effect on the risk. Choice B might
decrease cost risk but not other types of risks. You might still have deaths. Classroom training,
choice C, might also reduce the probability of the risk occurring, but it is not the "best" or most
"appropriate" choice. Because of the company's safety record and the impact of the risk, choice D is
the only appropriate choice.
EMV = P x I. In this case, expected monetary value is 0.1 x $10,000, or $1,000. Insurance cost plus
the deductible amount are less than the expected monetary value of the risk event.
Frequently, risk management is portrayed as such a complicated area that people don't even know
where to begin. A simple spreadsheet listing risks and who is responsible for addressing them will be
far more beneficial to a project than a complex tool or methodology that no one uses. Choices A and
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B are standard procedures and are expected to be done on all projects. Choice B has been done.
However, the most important is choice D. Note that choice D encompasses choices A and C
Since there is no one individual assigned, the better estimate can be obtained using the input of
multiple experts. The Delphi Technique gains a consensus of expert opinions. In this case it would be
better than using an average (choice B), which is what many people choose.
Though many project managers might try to turn threats into opportunities, only choice A is clearly
an opportunity
The expected monetary value takes into account the probability and the impact. The calculation is:
(0.05 x 21) + (0.5 x 56) - (0.3 x 28) The last part is subtracted because it represents an opportunity
and should be balanced against the threat.
This is an example of what some people consider to be a question with two right answers. Obviously
choice D is not correct. Choices A and B are included in choice C. So choice C is the best answer.
Choice A is wrong. It is certainly true that some form of contracting process (choice B) must be
allowed, but it is not the reason the choice would not be effective and there is no conflict of interest
in this case (choice D). Understand that not all risk is transferred using a contract (choice C).
Remember that the word "avoid" (choice C) does not mean "prevent from happening." Rather, it
means "eliminate the cause." Such risks are normally handled by purchasing insurance. "Deflect" is
another word for "transfer."
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Transference is a risk response strategy.
This question relates real-world situations to risk types. Did you realize that the entire first
paragraph is extraneous? Based on the question, you cannot delete the work to avoid it, nor can you
insure or outsource to transfer the risk. This leaves acceptance as the only correct choice.
The wording of this question can be confusing. Reserve (choice A) is mentioned in the situation, but
the project manager is not dealing with reserves in the actions he is taking. Choice C involves
meeting with the customer to gain formal acceptance, so it cannot be the best choice. Choice D
cannot be the best choice since the project manager is trying to make something good happen, not
dealing with a negative impact, or threat, that may or may not occur. The project manager is
working to make a positive impact on the project more likely to occur, therefore choice B is best.
Project status reports (choice D) can be an input to risk management. However, when completing
risk management for the first time, you would not have project status reports. Therefore, project
status reports are not always an input to risk management.
If you cannot determine an exact cost impact of the event, use qualitative estimates such as Low,
Medium, High, etc.
Overtime (choice D) is never one of the first options in project management because there are many
other ways to handle such problems. A reserve is designed to cover specific risk events previously
identified and measured in the risk management process. Many people select choice B, but reread
the question. You would not look for ways to cut 14 days. The expected monetary value of the new
risk event is only 5.6 days (40 percent x 14 days = 5.6). The only viable choice is C.
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There are many things that the project manager must be doing during this step. However, the risk
response owners are the ones to take action when an identified risk occurs (choice A), workarounds
are not planned (choice C) and risk response owners are not assigned to identify risks (choice D).
Since a project manager should deal with a problem rather than passing it off to someone else,
choice A would not be best. Choice C should not be necessary unless the reserve referenced in
choice B is used up and more will not be authorized by the change control board. Choice D cannot
be best since a lower priority project is not likely to be assigned more resources.
The process they have used so far is fine, except the input of other stakeholders is needed in order
to identify more risks.
Cost increases (choice B) and contract disputes (choice C) will not necessarily interfere with
schedule. Notice the words "post-implementation" in choice D. It will not definitely interfere with
the project schedule. Choice A is the only one that deals with a time delay.
You need to know the risk management process!
Brainstorming, interviewing, and Delphi are techniques that could be used. Due to the global spread
of the project, brainstorming is not feasible.
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This project has deviated so far from the baseline that updated risk identification and analysis
should be performed.
A known unknown is a risk that we can identify as possibly happening. Risk identification for a
business within the flood zone of a river should include the possibility of a flood.
The risk response plan is a living document that will be changed and updated over the life of the
project.
Since a risk response owner does implement contingency plans, choices A and D cannot be best.
Choice B is not practical. What was needed is early warning that the risk might occur. The project
manager might be looking for such a trigger and then make sure everyone's plans are in place. He
should have been watching the weather (choice C). Remember, a risk that you have taken the time
to create a contingency plan for is one that will have a large impact on the project. This is worth the
project manager's oversight.
This question is asking, "What is a secondary risk?" Only choice D provides that answer.
Procurement Management
Party B is only required to deliver what is defined in the contract.
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After 20 days, the lease cost will be $150 x 20 = $3,000. To buy, the cost will be $2,000 + $50 x 20 =
$3,000.
Choice C is the only correct response. Manage Project Team is a Resource Management process.
Tools and techniques of the Plan Procurements process include make-or-buy analysis, expert
judgment, and contract type selection, making choices A,m B and C all things that could be done
first. Terms and conditions of a contract is done during the Conduct Procurements process, after
Plan Procurements, so choice D is not done first.
The item that is not an output of the Plan Procurements process is the procurement contract award
(choice A). The procurement contract award is an output of Conduct Procurements.
In a cost plus percentage of costs contract, the buyer pays all costs, and costs are not limited.
Therefore, of the choices listed here, the correct answer is D. In a fixed price type of contract, choice
A, the buyer has the least cost risk, as any cost overages are borne by the seller. The risk chart in the
Procurement Management chapter of the book PMP® Exam Prep should help you understand the
answer to this question
There are certain basic things that should go into all contracts; an arbitration (or dispute resolution)
clause is one of them. Imagine a situation where you have a dispute, but no plan already agreed to
in the contract!
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Choices C and D are good ideas, but not the key objective. Negotiations should be win/win, so
choice B is not the best choice. A fair and equitable price (choice A) will create a good working
atmosphere. Otherwise, you will pay later, on change orders.
Any time that a seller does not perform according to the contract, the project manager must take
action. The preferred choice might be to contact the seller and ask what is going on, but that choice
is not available here. Therefore, the best choice is to let him know he is in default (choice C).
Putting a time limit on the negotiation is an example of deadline.
The project manager's primary obligation is to the construction firm, and not to the design firm,
while still employed by the construction firm. There is a conflict of interest in this case. The project
manager's failure to fully disclose his new position and continuing to negotiate and approve bids on
behalf of his current employer is not appropriate.
The first thing you should do is refer to the contract to determine what it states about the diameter
of the culvert. Then ask for a change order (choice C) if needed.
It is never appropriate to carry on private discussions regarding the status of any bids with a bidding
party. All communications between the solicitor and the bidders must be formal and open to all
parties.
Look again at the question. Ask yourself "How many computers does the contract say?" Did you
read it as twenty? This is an example of a conflict in the contract. The intent of the contract can be
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determined by remembering that words are more binding than numbers. Therefore, you should
return the five extra computers
Answering sellers' questions (choice B), advertising (choice C), and proposal evaluation (choice D)
occur during the Conduct Procurements process.
Centralized contracting usually means it is more difficult to get access to the procurement manager,
and the procurement manager has less loyalty. Therefore, choices B and D are disadvantages. The
fact that procurement managers have no home when they're not working on a project (choice C) is
also a disadvantage
In a fixed price type of contract, any cost overages are borne by the seller. In other contract types,
some or all of the costs over planned are shared or borne by the buyer. This makes the only correct
answer choice A. The risk chart in the Procurement Management chapter of the book PMP® Exam
Prep should help you understand the answer to this question.
In choice A, the contract could be wrong, or the customer could be wrong, but this would
have/should have been discovered earlier if proper project management was followed. If you picked
choice B, you have forgotten that a seller cannot issue a change order (although he could request
one). Did you select choice D? If so, remember that project management is not about making every
decision with ALL the team members. Choice C involves meeting with the appropriate team
member. If such a problem has arisen, it could mean something was wrong in the WBS dictionary or
in how the team member completed the work
If you had trouble with this one, you need to remember that the questions are asked from the
buyer's perspective unless otherwise noted. In this case the seller has the most cost risk, and the
buyer's risk is lower.
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Such a tour is part of the procurement process called Conduct Procurements. Conduct
Procurements occurs during project executing.
A procurement audit is a structured review that would flush out issues and identify lessons learned.
The procurement statement of work is created during the Plan Procurements process and thus is an
output of that procurement process.
Remember that the procurement process is more formal and thus requires more formal processes.
Ensuring all bidders receive the same information in writing eliminates the problem of bias in
presenting the opportunity.
Many people miss the fact that a contract includes a procurement statement of work (choice A). To
have a contract, you must also have acceptance (choice B). One set of signatures is not enough; you
must have sign-off (i.e., acceptance) from both parties, so choice D is only partially correct. The
address of the seller (choice C) is not required, and therefore is the exception.
The selection criteria are created during the Plan Procurements process.
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Both systems include procedures, so choice A is not correct. A contract change control system
requires more, not less, documentation, so choice D is not correct. A trend analysis (choice B) is not
usually part of either system. This leaves only choice C. Contracts are legal documents and,
therefore, generally require more sign-offs.
Answering questions like this is difficult, as it requires actual real-world experience, but your real-
world experience may be far from "standard." A tip with a question like this is to use the "yes,
maybe, no" trick. For each item, determine whether it is true, in general, for most projects most of
the time. Then assign it a "yes," "no," or "maybe," and pick the answer that you have selected "yes"
or "maybe" for most often. For this question, think of what areas are the project manager's
responsibility and where a project manager would need legal advice. Using this trick, choice A might
be evaluated as "maybe," "yes," "yes." Choice B is all within the control of the project manager, so it
is not the best choice for where you would involve an attorney, so your evaluation should be "no,"
"no," "no." Regarding choice C, your impressions might be "maybe," "no," "maybe." For choice D,
you might list your impressions as "maybe," "no," "no." Based on this trick, the most likely and
correct answer is choice A.
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Practice Answers PMP Exam Prep.

2. The correct answer is C.

5. The correct answer is C.

Operations and maintenance usually occur after the project is completed.

6. The correct answer is B.

11. The correct answer is D.

12. The correct answer is B.

13. The correct answer is D.

15. The correct answer is B.

16. The correct answer is B.

18. The correct answer is C.

Remember that control relates to measurement.

22. The correct answer is B.

23. The correct answer is B.

24. The correct answer is A.

The higher the benefit cost ratio, the better.

25. The correct answer is D.

26. The correct answer is B.

27. The correct answer is C.

28. The correct answer is D

29. The correct answer is D.

30. The correct answer is A.

31. The correct answer is D.

32. The correct answer is B.

33. The correct answer is B.

35. The correct answer is A.

36. The correct answer is B.

37. The correct answer is B.

38. The correct answer is A.

39. The correct answer is C.

40. The correct answer is A.

41. The correct answer is A.

42. The correct answer is D.

43. The correct answer is A.

44. The correct answer is C.

45. The correct answer is C.

You must report the activities

46. The correct answer is A.

47. The correct answer is A.

48. The correct answer is D.

49. The correct answer is B.

The project manager must manage professional and social responsibility.

51. The correct answer is C.

52. The correct answer is D

5. The correct answer is A.

14. The correct answer is C.

24. The correct answer is B.

36. The correct answer is B.

47. The correct answer is A.

48. The correct answer is B.

49. The correct answer is B.

50. The correct answer is D.

51. The correct answer is D.

52. The correct answer is B.

6. The correct answer is A.

7. The correct answer is C.

8. The correct answer is A.

9. The correct answer is A.