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TO THE
POINT
Chapter

1 Pathology

Multiple Choice Questions

RECENT PATTERN QUESTIONS 2021 discrete lymph nodes enlarged. On biopsy showed
effaced architecture, indented nucleus, prominent
nucleolus containing atypical cells. CD10 and BCL2
1. What type of defect is seen in HNPCC? positive? ‘What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Base-excision repair A. Follicular B. Burkitt’s
B. Nucleotide-excision repair C. Non Hodgkins D. Mycoses fungoides
C. Mismatch repair 6. Patient with mediastinal mass was diagnosed with
D. Non-homologues end joining repair red cell aplasia. What is the most probable cause of
aplasia?
2. A 30 year old male presented with fatiguability for
one year. Evaluation showed mild anemia, massive A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
splenomegaly with TLC 1,50,000/microliters, B. Non hodgkins lymphoma
neutrophil 60%, eosinophil 4%, lymphocyte 15%.
C. Thymoma
Also seen myeloblast , myelocytes , metamyelocytes
and bands. M-E ratio is 18:1. What is most sensitive D. Squamous cell CA
investigation?
7. Pap smear with hyperchromatic nuclei and
A. FISH and PCR pleomorphism with low maturation index involving
B. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase complete epithelial lining but not involving the
basement membrane. What is this called?
C. Immunophenotyping
A. Metaplasia B. Dysplasia
D. Whole body PET CT
C. Hyperplasia D. Carcinoma
3. A patient presented with webbed neck, shield chest
and short stature. Identify the diagnosis in this case 8. A 34 year old woman presented with fever, migratory
scenario? arthritis of lower large joints, tachycardia. Murmur
is pansystolic. On echo Mitral regurgitation is
A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome present. The biopsy shows the following?
C. Patau syndrome D. Edward syndrome
4. A research scholar while studying cytoskeleton
from a chronic alcoholic patient with decreased
liver span, came across several strands of fibrous
proteins that are wound together as a stable
structure and distribute tensile forces across cells
in the tissue. The records indicate that his liver
biopsy showed hepatocytes with reddish inclusions.
Which one of the following structure is best suited?
A. Intermediate filaments
B. Microtubules
C. Microfilaments
A. Aschoff body
D. All of the above
B. Granuloma annulare
5. Patient with generalized fatigue, tiredness. Primary
clinical examination is uneventful. Normal TLC C. Granulomatous vasculitis
and DLC. No immature cells seen. Superficial D. Epithelioid granuloma

1
2 To The Point (Question Bank)

9. Poor prognostic marker for multiple myeloma is? C. Immunomodulation

A. S. Creatinine D. HLA alloimmunization
B. B2- microglobulin 5. Arrange the following cellular events of
C. Calcium inflammation in the right sequence?
D. Protein A. Rolling
B. Adhesion
10. A 18 yr old male presented with gum bleeding
and easy bruisability and fever for last 2 months. C. Cytokine mediated integrin activation
General examination finding were not specific
D. Migration
except for significant pallor and petechial rash all
over the body. HB 3 g/dl, TLC 1500/μL, platelet Select the correct answer from the given below code:
1500o/μL. PBS: macrocytes corrected retic 0.5. A. A-C-B-D B. D-C-B-A
Bone marrow exam showed fatty streak, absent
megakaryocyte, no immature cells. What is the C. A-B-C-D D. B-C-A-D
diagnosis? 6. Which of the following is a RNA based sequencing
A. Disseminated TB involving bone marrow technique?
B. Idiopathic acquired Aplastic anemia A. RT-PCR B. Sanger’s method
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Western blot D. G banding
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome 7. Origin of CLL/SLL is:
A. Mature T cells
INI CET – JULY 2021 B. Naive B cells
C. Mature B cells
1. A patient presented with chronic sinusitis, D. Progenitor T cells
ulcerative lesions on nasopharynx, nodular lesions
with cavitation in the lungs and renal failure. What 8. A 20 years old athlete suddenly collapsed while
is the most important investigation? playing football and died. His case was diagnosed
as a Sudden cardiac death. Based on the autopsy
A. ANCA for vasculitis image shown below, what is the possible underlying
B. Culture for fungus cause?
C. Biopsy to show granuloma
D. AFB staining of sputum
2. Not a feature of Paroxysmal Nocturnal
Haemoglobinuria?
A. Leukemia
B. Thrombosis
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Hemolysis
3. Cells/mediators involved in early part of
Hypersensitivity type 1 reaction are?
A. Mast cell B. Histamine
C. Prostaglandins D. Neutrophils
E. Leukotrienes
A. Sudden cardiac death due to Arrythmia
Select the correct answer from the given below code:
B. Valvular heart disease due to RHD
A. a, b B. a, b, c, d
C. Sudden cardiac death due to hypertrophic
C. a, b, c, e D. b, c, e cardiomyopathy
4. Irradiation of RBCs prior to transfusion prevents D. Sudden cardiac death due to Atherosclerosis
which of the following?
9. In the activation of coagulation cascade following
A. Graft versus host disease endothelial injury, identify the ‘A’ which combines
B. Transfusion related lung injury with Tissue Factor(TF) to activate factor IX?
 Pathology 3

A. Neurofibroma B. Rhabdomyoma
A. Factor 7 B. Factor 8
C. Schwannoma D. Leiomyoma
C. VWF D. Factor 12
14. A 60 years old female presented with symptoms
10. Best method to assess Hba 1c levels?
of confusion, thirst and abdominal pain. On
A. Ion chromatography examination, she had pallor and thoracic spine
B. Isoelectric Focusing tenderness. X ray spine showed osteolytic lesions.
Investigations revealed Hb 7gm%, Calcium
C. Electrophoresis 13mg/dl, TLC is 400/mm³ with normal DLC,
D. Affinity chromatography Serum creatinine 2.3mg/dl, Total protein is 9g/
dl and Albumin is 2.4g/dl. What is the underlying
11. Regarding tumor suppressor gene, which one is a diagnosis?
correct statement?
A. Milk alkali syndrome
A. BRCA1 is an oncogene
B. Metastatic breast cancer
B. EGFR positive in seen in non-small cell cancer
C. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C. HER 2 neu amplification seen in fraction of breast
D. Multiple Myeloma
cancer
D. N-myc is a tumor suppressor gene 15. The effect of G6PD deficiency is/are:
A. Decrease in NADPH
Select the correct answer from the given below code:
B. Decrease in reduced glutathione
A. a, b
C. Decrease in lipid peroxidation
B. b, c
D. Decreased RBC membrane damage
C. a, c
Select the correct answer from the given below code:
D. All of the above are true
A. a, b, c are correct B. a, b are correct
12. Electron microscopic picture of an alveolus with
capillary is given below. In a patient with ARDS C. Only a is correct D. b, c are correct
due to SARS – COV2, which of the following layers 16. HPV produces a protein which suppresses RB gene.
will be expanded? Which is it?
A. E6 B. E7
C. L1 D. L2
17. In reference to the histopathology given below,
what is most probable diagnosis?

A. D B. C
C. A D. B
13. A soft tissue mass excised from patient presenting
with SNHL and tinnitus, biopsy taken shows the
following. What is the diagnosis?
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Multiple Choice Questions

C. Lingual nerve
RECENT PATTERN QUESTIONS 2021
D. Nerve to myelehoid
1. A woman presented to ENT OPD with complaints 6. Patient with history of chronic ear discharge now
of nasal obstruction. On Examination , greenish present with ear pain , headache and vomiting . CT
black crust seen in nasal cavity covering turbinate brain is shown . Probable diagnosis is:
and septum . She also had merciful anosmia is also A. Extra Dural abscess
present . What other sign will you find in this case
on examination? B. Cerebral abscess

A. Roomy nose C. Temporal lobe abscess

B. Nasal polyp D. Meningitis

C. Foreign body
D. Inferior turbinate hypertrophy INI CET – JULY 2021
2. A 35 year old male presents with epitaxis.
Conservative management was done to stop the 1. Identify the condition shown in the image:
bleeding but it failed which will be next step of
management?
A. Endoscopic sphenopalatine artery ligation
B. Maxillary artery
C. ICA
D. ECA
3. A patient if thyroidectomy was being extubated .
The anesthesiologist realised that when he removes
the tube the patient beings to have recurrent
cyanotic spells. Which of the following could be the
cause:
A. B/L RLN palsy B. SLN palsy
C. U/L RLN palsy D. hemorrhage
4. A post tonsillectomy child was lying in the ward.
He started bleeding in the ward. Which of the
following should be done: A. Adenoid facies
A. Take to OT, remove the clot and re-ligation B. Goldenhar syndrome
B. Take to OT and pressure packing C. Horse face deformity
C. Cautery D. Frog face deformity
D. Conservative management 2. Which is not a major criteria for the diagnosis of
allergic fungal sinusitis:
5. A patient has undergone submandibular gland
excision and the Whartons duct was ligated in A. Nasal polyposis
their process. Which of the following nerves is most B. Fungal culture positivity
likely to be damaged?
C. Characteristics CT findings without invasion
A. Inferior alveolar nerve
D. Allergic mucin discharge showing fungal hyphae
B. Hypoglossal nerve
143
144 To The Point (Question Bank)

3. A 6 years old child with recurrent attacks of A. Battle sign B. Bryce sign
tonsillitis underwent tonsillectomy, his post C. Water’s sign D. Griesinger sign
operative period was uneventful. On next day there
he has mild bleeding from oral cavity. Which of the 4. Tubercular otitis media is characterized by all
following structure is responsible for it? except:
A. Peri tonsillar vein A. Painful otorrhea
B. External palatine vein B. Multiple perforations

C. Ascending pharyngeal artery C. Pale granulations

D. Facial artery D. Foul smelling ear discharge

5. A child was brought to doctor along with x-ray with
the complain of barking cough, fever, Hoarse voice
NEET - PG – 2020 noisy or labored breathing typically worse at night.
The given X – Ray of the patient shows Steeple sign,
therefore the probable diagnosis is?
1. A patient has underwent the canal wall down
mastoidectomy for the treatment of cholesteatomas,
which leads to the enlarged meatus now tell
the name of Surgical procedure which involves
reconstruction of cartilaginous part of external
auditory canal?
A. Canaloplasty B. Myringoplasty
C. Tympanoplasty D. Meatoplasty
2. A patient of 25yr/M came to the AIIMS OPD
presented with fever and difficulty in swallowing on
oral examination following observations are seen as
in below image Diagnosis?
A. Acute Epiglottitis
B. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
C. Laryngomalacia
D. Laryngeal Web
6. Occipito-mental view with open mouth view to
check for nose and paranasal sinuses?
A. Water’s view B. Caldwell view
C. Towne’s view D. Pierre View
7. A patient came to ENT clinic with the symptoms
A. Peritonsillar abscess of crusting in nasal cavity, nasal obstruction, nose
B. Parapharyngeal abscess bleeds and patient also told the doctor that his
wife sleeps away from him because of strong, fowl,
C. Retropharyngeal abscess smell comes from his breath now doctor advise him
D. Ludwig’s Angina for Partial closure of nasal orifice done in which
condition?
3. A 20 yr/f was moving towards her home by two
wheels suddenly she fell down and had a fracture A. Atrophic rhinitis
in middle cranial fossa. Identify the sign shown in B. Chronic fungal aspergillosis
given image?
C. Vasomotor rhinitis
D. Fungal Mucormycosis
8. Stimulation of external auditory canal leads to
cough due to which nerve?
A. Auricular branch Vagus
B. Greater auricular nerve
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Facial nerve
 ENT 145
9. A 45yr/f has diagnosed with benign neoplasms and
doctor has advise her to remove that mass for which
she underwent a parotid surgery. Not a surgical
landmark for parotid surgery?
A. Inferior belly of omohyoid
B. Tragal pointer
C. Digastric posterior belly
D. Facial nerve dissecting from peripheral branches
10. Inner ear of human consists of three parts cochlea,
vestibule and semicircular canal, Saccule. Which is
the part of vestibule develop from:
A. Saccus Anterior B. Saccus Posterior
C. Pars Superior D. Pars inferior A. Inferior Turbinate B. Middle turbinate
C. Septum D. Uncinated process
INI CET - NOV - 2020 4. Which of the following are the objective tests for
hearing?
1. Which of the following are features of complications 1. BERA 2. OAE
of chronic otitis media: 3. PTA 4. TYMPANOMETRY
1. Delta sign 2. Griesinger’s sign
Select the correct answer from the given below
3. Battle’s sign 4. Bezold abscess code:
Select the correct answer from the given below A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3
code: C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4
5. Identify the correct sequence of the auditory
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4 pathways in an ascending order;
2. The radiograph shown below is done for better a. Superior olivary nucleus
assessment of the frontal sinus. What is the common b. Cochlear Nucleus
name of this view?
c. Inferior Colliculi
d. Lateral lemniscus
e. Medial geniculate ganglion
Select the correct answer from the given below
code:
A. A, B,C, D, E
B. B, A, D, C, E
C. B, A, C, D, E
D. B, A, E, D, C
6. Identify the marked foramen:

A. Water’s view B. Caldwell view

C. Rhese view D. Pierre’s view
3. This is a patient of DNS. Identify the arrow marked
structure:
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Multiple Choice Questions

6. A one month baby comes with watering and
RECENT PATTERN QUESTIONS 2021
megalocornea, diagnosis is:

1. A child came in due to complaints of diminished

vision in dim light along with dry eyes and rough
corneal surface. Which deficiency is associated?
A. Iron
B. Protein
C. Niacin
D. Retinoic acid
2. A boy came with thin built, lens subluxation and A. Buphthalmos B. Cataract
long fingers, shows deficiency of cystathione
C. MPS D. Hurler syndrome
synthase. Which AA should be supplemented?
A. Serine 7. A female comes with history of contact lens use
comes with following. Diagnosis is:
B. Tyrosine
C. Methionine
D. Cysteine
3. A 15 year old girl, who is a case of myopic
astigmatism is non-compliant for myopic glasses,
what can be prescribed?
A. Lasik
B. Femtolasik
C. ICL A. Trachoma

D. Spherical alternative correction B. GPC

C. Spring Cataract
4. A 33 yr. female with complaints of diminishing
vision on right halves of both eyes. Probable D. Acute follicular conjunctivitis
diagnosis?
8. An elderly female with gradual painless DOV
A. Left optic tract fundus image :-
B. Right occipital lobe
C. Optic chiasma
D. Right optic nerve
5. A child with whitish pupillary reflex has undergone
enucleation & shows Flexner winter Steiner rosette.
Diagnosis is?
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Astrocytoma

191
192 To The Point (Question Bank)

A. Hard exudates in DR 3. Identify the site of the lesion:

B. Flame Hemorrhages in HTN
C. Soft exudates in HTN
D. CRVO
9. The given defect is most likely associated with
which complication?

A. Optic chiasma
B. Left occipital lobe
C. Left LGB
A. Cataract
D. Right occipital lobe
B. Exposure keratitis
C. Difficulty in eye movement 4. Most common Lacrimal gland tumor:

D. Glaucoma A. Pleomorphic adenoma

10. There is history of trauma with chisel and hammer B. Mucoepidermoid CA

and patient states that foreign body enters the eye . C. Adeno cystic CA
Which of the investigation will be detrimental?
D. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
A. MRI orbit
B. X ray orbit 5. Identify the condition in the given image:

C. CT scan
D. B scan

INI CET – JULY 2021

1. Retinoblastoma most commonly spread via:

A. Lymphatic spread
B. Hematogenous spread A. Oculomotor nerve palsy
C. Direct spread
B. Trochlear nerve palsy
D. Optic nerve invasion
C. Abducens nerve palsy
2. There is a Proptosis in a child with desmin positive
D. Medial rectum palsy
tumor. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma 6. SAFE strategy for trachoma includes all except:
B. Leukemia A. Surgery for trichiasis

C. Lymphoma B. Antibiotics
D. Ewing’s sarcoma C. Facial cleanliness
D. Evaluation of program

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 Ophthalmology 193
7. Identify the structure located at the level of nucleus 6. Unilateral proptosis with Bilateral Sixth Nerve
supplying the muscle marked in this image. Palsy is seen in:
A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Orbital pseudotumor
7. Shifting fluid sign in:
A. Exudative Retinal Detachment
B. Tractional RD
C. Rhegmatogenous RD
D. Retinal dialysis
8. Esotropia is most commonly associate with:
A. Hyperopia B. Myopia
C. Emmetropic D. Astigmatism
A. Red nucleus B. Pyramid 9. Photostress test is used to differentiate:
C. Olive D. Facial colliculus A. Cataract & Glaucoma
B. Cornea & lens diseases
NEET PG – 2020 C. Macular & optic nerve
D. Vitreous & retina
1. Characteristic finding of fungal ulcer: 10. Lesion producing incongruous homonymous
A. Satellite lesions hemianopia with Wernicke’s hemianopia pupil.
B. Dendritic ulcer Site of lesion is:
A. Optic tract B. Visual cortex
C. Ring abscess
C. Optic radiations D. Optic Nerve
D. White hypopyon
11. A. 65-year old male with history of diabetes and
2. Which vitamin in supra physiologic dose cause
hypertension presents to the OPD with complaints
macular oedema and macular cyst:
of diplopia and squint. On examination secondary
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D deviation is seen to be more than primary deviation.
C. Vitamin E D. NIACIN Which of the following is the most probable
diagnosis?
3. Pre requisite for sympathetic ophthalmitis is due
A. Paralytic squint
to:
A. Penetrating trauma to eye B. Concomitant squint

B. Blunt ocular trauma C. Restrictive squint

C. Uveitis due to sarcoidosis in one eye D. Pseudo squint

D. Urinary tract infection 12. The movement is lost in:

4. Which layer of cornea helps in maintaining

hydration of stroma of cornea:
A. Descemet’s membrane
B. Endothelium
C. Epithelium
D. Stroma
A. Third nerve palsy
5. Presence of extra layer of cilia posterior to grey line
is: B. Trochlear palsy
A. Tylosis B. Madarosis C. Sixth nerve palsy
C. Distichiasis D. Trichiasis D. Facial palsy
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Multiple Choice Questions

RECENT PATTERN QUESTIONS - 2021 3. A patient fell down from bicycle and started having
pain around hip, shortening of limb and attitude
was flexion adduction, IR of HIP, ‘What is the most
1. A 10 years old child presented with limb pain with probable diagnosis?’
normal bone mineralization. Radiograph is shown
A. Ant dislocation
below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
B. Transcervical fracture
C. Post dislocation
D. IT Fracture
4. Following test is performed to assess which nerve?

A. Rickets
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Scurvy
B. Median nerve
C. Metaphyseal dysplasia
C. Posterior interosseus nerve
D. Osteopetrosis
D. AIN
2. A male patient around 30 years complains of
gradual swelling around wrist for 3 months, clinical
photo and x-ray was taken. What is the most likely INI CET – JULY 2021
diagnosis?

1. Which of the following is seen in osteoporosis?

A. Normal calcium and Normal ALP
B. Increased calcium and increased ALP
C. Decreased calcium and normal ALP
D. Normal calcium and Increased ALP
2. Match the following named fractures with their
sites:
a. Boxer 1. 5th metatarsal
b. Jones 2. 1st metacarpal
A. Ewings B. Osteoclastoma c. Bennet’s 3. 5th metacarpal
C. Pycnodysostosis D. Osteosarcoma d. March 4. 2nd metatarsal

253
254 To The Point (Question Bank)

Select the correct answer from the given below 5. An elderly women came to the hospital as she
code: slipped and fell at home and injured her hand.
A. a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4 Colle’s fracture is diagnosed and POP cast is
applied. What is the correct sequence of reduction
B. a – 3, b – 1, c – 2, d – 4 of the fracture?
C. a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1 A. POP, traction, Palmar flexion, ulnar deviation
D. a – 3 , b – 2, c – 4, d – 1 B. Traction, ulnar deviation, POP, Palmar flexion
3. A patient has taken first dose of COVID vaccine C. Traction, Palmar flexion, ulnar deviation, POP
comes for the second dose. The nurse noticed that
D. Traction, ulnar deviation, Palmar flexion, POP
his shoulder was flabby, flat and asymmetrical and
loss of contour of the shoulder. Injury to which of 6. Which of the following are true regarding open
the following structure during first dose of Vaccine fractures?
may be responsible for this condition? a. Compartment syndrome does not occur in open
fractures
b. Usually not associated with any other injuries
c. Tibia and phalanges are more commonly involved
d. Early debridement should be done
Select the correct answer from the given below
code:
A. A and B are true
B. A and C are true
C. C and D are true
D. B and C are true
7. Which of the following appears late in compartment
syndrome?
A. Rotator cuff A. Paralysis
B. Posterior circumflex humeral artery B. Pulse lessness
C. Humeral circumflex nerve C. Pain on passive stretch
D. Deltoid D. Pallor
4. A 15 years old boy is brought to the emergency 8. A male patient present with inability to flex the
department after road traffic accident. He distal interphalangeal joints of 4th and 5th digits.
complained of pain over the hip region. The X ray He was not able to hold a piece of paper between his
image of the patient is given below. What is the next fingers. Identify the site of injury:
step in management?
A

A. Open reduction and reconstruction of posterior

C D
pillar of acetabulum
B. CT pelvis with 3D reconstruction A. A B. C
C. Skeletal traction C. D D. B
D. Closed reduction and assessment of hip stability
 Orthopedics 255
NEET PG - 2020 4. History of arthritis with involvement of PIP and
DIP and Ist MCP and sparing of wrist and ankle
diagnosis asked:
1. A Patient is presenting with pain around base of the
A. Osteoarthritis B. RA
thumb. What are the two marked tendons in the
image: C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Gout

INI CET - 2020

1. Which of the following braces is shown in the given

Image?

A. APB and EPL

B. APL and EPB
C. APB and EPB
D. APL and EPL
2. Patient is presenting with deformity of the finger as
shown. In which of the following condition the PIP
is involved but DIP is spared?
A. Boston brace B. Milwaukee Brace
C. Taylor brace D. ASHE brace
2. In the given spine straightening surgery, the screws
are fixed to which part of the vertebra?

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis A. Spinous process
3. A patient received 12 hours after fracture of tibia, B. Lamina
is having Pao2 as 60% on room air and with
rebreathing unit maintaining a saturation of 100% C. Pedicle
but remains confused. Chest is clear. What is most D. Facet joint
likely diagnosis?
E. Transverse process
A. Pulmonary contusion
3. A 10-year-old male child presents with pain around
B. Fat embolism syndrome the left knee joint. On X-ray, there is a lesion at
C. Pulmonary embolism the distal femur. Following are the clinical Images.
D. Pneumonia What is the most probable diagnosis?
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Multiple Choice Questions

RECENT PATTERN QUESTIONS - 2021 5. Radical Cystoprostatectomy has been done.
Identify the following pathology:

1. A patient underwent cholecystectomy and presents A. Bladder CA B. Prostate CA

to the hospital with bile duct stones within 2 years. C. Malakoplakia D. Schistosomiasis
What are these stones diagnosed as?
A. Primary stone
B. Secondary stone
C. Retained stone
D. Missed stone
2. A patient presented with loss of vision of the lateral
side. MRI image shows an aneurysm compressing
the optic chiasma. What is the most likely vessel of
origin?
A. ACOM B. ACA
C. MCA D. ICA
3. A 40 years old female with no complaint presented
with dilated veins as shown in 6. A 60 year old male who was working in a benzene
the image below. What is the factory for many years. Recently has fatigue,
CEAP staging for the image weight loss, increased infection. He retired 5 years
below: ago. He is most likely to have which cancer?
A. C3a A. Lung B. Bladder
B. C3b C. Blood D. Bowel
C. C2a 7. A male patient admitted in hospital presented with
D. C2b the following finding. Surgery done. Post operative
4. A 55 years old female History of mastectomy clinical picture is shown. What is true about
3 months before. Swelling of I/L limb. No pain and following disease:
nontender. Diagnosis? A. It is mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection
A. Cellulitis B. Orchidectomy done
B. Lymphangiosarcoma C. Anti gas gangrene serum should be used
C. Lymphedema D. Urinary diversion is needed
D. Axillary vein thrombosis

323
324 To The Point (Question Bank)

8. A 40 years old male Presented to the ER with acute C. Hypochloremic Hypokalemic acidosis
abdominal pain and distention. A fluid filled region D. Hypochloremic Hyperkalemic acidosis
seen in the epigastric region, which of the following
investigation will be abnormal in this patient? 12. Elderly female with history of hysterectomy 3 years
back, presents with colicky abdominal pain and
A. Lipase B. GGT bilious vomiting. On Examination Tenderness of
C. Bilirubin D. CEA abdomen and increased peristalsis. Xray Abdomen
revealed air in the biliary tree with multiple air
9. Patient with short distance claudication Angiogram
fluid levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?
done as shown in picture below. What is the
treatment in this patient: A. Adhesive Small bowel obstruction
A. Aortofemoral bypass B. Gallstone ileus
B. Ileofemoral bypass C. Pancreatitis
C. Stent placement D. Ischemic enterocolitis
D. Axillofemoral bypass 13. A 25 years old male patient presents to emergency
with a history of RTA. On Examination, the patient
presents with subcutaneous emphysema and
absence of air entry on right side and hypotension.
Vitals are unstable. Which of the following will be
immediate step of management?
A. Needle decompression at 5th ICS
B. IV fluid with wide bore needle
C. PPV and plan for intubation
D. eFAST
14. A 85 years old with Ca prostate 2*3 cm with Gleason
score of 6 and PSA <8ng/mL. Best Management.
10. Paralysed patient with rectal prolapse. Which of A. Active surveillance
the following procedure shown in Image?
B. EBRT
A. Altemier procedure C. Brachytherapy
B. Thiersch wiring D. Radical Prostatectomy
C. Stapled hemorrhoidopexy 15. A 60 years old male presented with vomiting and
features of Gastric Outlet Obstruction. On further
D. Well’s Procedure history and examination, it was revealed that he had
a history of CA stomach presently with infiltration
from stomach into pancreas into duodenum and
liver metastasis on right side. What is the ideal
treatment for him?
A. Palliative GJ with chemotherapy
B. Whipples operation
C. Radical gastrectomy
D. Radical Gastrectomy with right hepatectomy
16. A surgeon while Operating for lung carcinoma
found that the hilar lymph nodes were stained
black. LN size <1cm. What can be the most probable
cause?
A. Melanin
B. Anthracosis
C. Hemosiderin
D. Foreign body.
17. A 22 year old male fell while riding a bicycle with
11. A 6 year old male child was brought in with presented with blood at meatus. Which of these is
projectile non-bilious vomiting. What type of the most appropriate course of action?
electrolyte imbalance would be seen in this patient? A. Foleys insertion
A. Hypochloremic Hypokalemic alkalosis B. Suprapubic catheterization
C. RGU
B. Hyperchloremic Hypokalemic alkalosis
D. CECT abdomen
 Surgery 325
18. A patient presented with blunt injury due to RTA and USG done shows a collection 5 × 5 cm in right
with flank bruise and injuries in left hypochondrium. sub hepatic space. What is the next step?
Patient is unstable. What is the next best step of
A. Pig tail catheter drainage under USG guidance
management?
A. CECT abdomen B. eFAST B. ERCP with stenting
C. Laparotomy D. DPL C. Re exploration of the abdomen
19. Elderly patient Inguinal hernia medial to IEA. D. Give antibiotics and send the patient home
Diagnosis and m/m of choice? 6. A patient presented with abdominal pain. On USG,
A. Direct Hernia; Lichtenstein repair multiple gall stones were noted and CBD diameter
B. Indirect hernia; Bassini’s repair is 12 mm and no gall bladder wall thickening seen.
C. Hernia; Bassini’s Repair Laboratory investigations showed serum Bilirubin
D. Rectnia; Lichenstein repair of 0.8mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase is 380 IU/L and
GGT is 5 times of normal. What will be next step of
management?
INI CET – JULY 2021 A. ERCP
B. MRCP
1. Size of Green Color Cannula: C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
A. 16 G B. 18 G D. CECT abdomen
C. 14 G D. 12 G 7. A young female patient with history of kidney stones
2. Triage is used: complains of abdominal cramps, bone pain and
A. To prepare for a disease psychosis. Investigations showed the raise in serum
calcium and PTH levels. Which of the following is
B. To classify priority of treatment
the best investigation for this condition?
C. To assess the impact of the disaster
A. Sestamibi scan B. FDG – PET
D. To rehabilitate following disaster
C. USG abdomen D. MRI
3. A 55 years old female patient presented with
4×3 cm lump in the right upper outer quadrant, 8. What is the angle of needle placement in suturing a
with no axillary lymph node involvement. laceration by interrupted suture technique?
Mammography revealed BIRADS 4b staging. She A. 60 degrees B. 90 degrees
underwent breast conservation surgery, and the C. 70 degrees D. 80 degrees
final HPE report showed high nuclear grade DCIS
with necrosis and 10 mm margin clearance. What is 9. A 17 years old male presented to the hospital with
the further management? recurrent attacks of intussusception. Multiple
polyps were found during surgery. One of the
A. Follow up after 6 months and thereafter 2 years polyp was removed and sent for histopathological
B. Adjuvant RT examination. The HPE image is given below.
C. Adjuvant CT Identify the pathology?
D. Trastuzumab
4. Insufflation of the abdomen during laparoscopy is
done with help of following instrument. Name the
instrument?
A. Jacob needle B. Mathew needle
C. Veress needle D. Lind’s needle

A. Tubular polyp
B. Hamartomatous polyp
C. Inflammatory polyp
5. A patient who had undergone cholecystectomy D. Adenomatous polyp
3 days back presented with abdominal pain. Patient
10. A 3 years old child is brought to the hospital by his
have tachycardia. WBC count is 11000 cells/mm3
mother as she noticed a huge abdominal swelling.
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Multiple Choice Questions

5. Uterus didelphys is least common with?
RECENT PATTERN QUESTIONS - 2021
A. Transverse lie B. Breech

1. A 30 years old lady who has been using OCPs since C. Repeated abortion D. Premature labour
5 months presented with amenorrhea since last 6 6. A primigravida with frequent micturition during
weeks. Which is best to calculate gestational age in labour with infraumbilical flattening. FHS heard
this case? on extreme of left lateral position. What is the most
A. 280 days from LMP probable presentation?

B. 256 days from LMP A. Left occipito-posterior B. Face

C. CRL by USG
D. Palpation of fundus
2. A 28 years old patient comes with primary
infertility. HSG shows bilateral tubal block. On
diagnostic hysterolaparoscopy, Both cornua seem
to be obstructed by submucosal fibroids, right 7*5
cm and left 5*4 cm. Her husband’s semen analysis
was found to be normal. The treatment best suited
is:
A. ART
B. GnRH analogues
C. Myomectomy
D. Uterine artery embolization
3. A 25-years woman presents to the antenatal OPD.
This is her 2nd pregnancy, and her 1st pregnancy
was 4 years earlier where she delivered twins at
term. Her parity index is?
A. G2P1 B. G2P2
C. G3P1 D. G3P2
4. A 25-years woman had evacuation of molar
pregnancy done 6 months earlier. She now presents
with general ill-health, breathlessness, cough, and
irregular vaginal bleeding. On chest X-Ray, there
are canon ball metastases. Her beta hCG levels are
persistently high. Which is the BEST management
option?
A. Multi dose Inj. Methotrexate and Inj Folinic acid
B. Hysterectomy
C. Single dose Inj methotrexate
D. Multiple drug regime EMA-CO
C. Brow D. Shoulder
7. A P0A3 presents with a history of 3 abortions.
The first at 8 weeks, the 2nd at 11 weeks, and the
3rd at 24 weeks with a history of early-onset pre-
eclampsia. The fetal heart was present in all three
pregnancies. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of her abortions?
A. Syphilis B. APLA
C. TORCH D. GDM
8. A woman at 36 weeks presents with painful
vesicular lesions suggestive of primary herpes
infection. What will be the management?
A. Acyclovir with elective c sec
B. Acyclovir with induction of labor
C. Acyclovir
D. Analgesics and Ant
9. A primigravida, 6 weeks of amenorrhea, with left
adnexal mass measuring 2x2 cm with no cardiac
activity. On USG Beta hCG 2500. What’s the
management?
A. Expectant management
B. Milking
C. Methotrexate injection
D. Salpingectomy
10. PPH refractory to medical Rx. Step wise
devascularization is planned. what all arteries are
ligated ?
A. Uterine artery, pudendal artery, vaginal artery
B. Uterine artery, internal iliac, obturator artery
C. Uterine artery, ovarian artery, internal iliac artery
D. Uterine artery, ovarian artery, vaginal arte.

461
462 To The Point (Question Bank)

11. A 20 years old female presented with webbed neck 17. A 55-years-old lady with 5 children presents with
and shield chest. Which of the following findings leakage of urine on coughing. On examination,
are most likely to be seen in this patient? there is a 2nd-degree uterine prolapse and cystocele.
A. Risk of mitral valve prolapse What is the most likely urinary abnormality?

B. Streak ovaries on usg A. Overflow incontinence

C. Cardiomegaly on xray B. Urge incontinence

D. Lens subluxation C. Stress incontinence

12. A 28-years primigravida who is a known case of D. Neurogenic bladder

mitral valve replacement presents at 36 weeks to the
antenatal OPD. She is on warfarin 4mg. Her INR
value is 3. Which is correct regarding anticoagulant INI CET – JULY 2021
therapy?
A. Discontinue warfarin and start LMWH 1. What is the fixative used in taking PAP smear?
B. Discontinue warfarin and start heparin and aspirin A. 10% formalin B. 95% ethyl alcohol
C. Discontinue warfarin and start aspirin C. Normal saline D. Air dried
D. Continue warfarin and start heparin 2. According to WHO 2010 lower reference values
normal Semen morphology should at least be:
13. A 25-years woman who is anxious to conceive
comes to the OPD with complaints of profuse white A. 4% B. 6%
vaginal discharge for 2 days. Her LMP is 13 days C. 8% D. 10%
back. There is no itching, clue cells are present and
her menstrual cycles are regular. The most likely 3. The below instruments are used for which of the
diagnosis is: following procedure:
A. Trichomoniasis B. Bacterial Vaginosis
C. Physiological D. Candidiasis
14. A 16 years old girl with a partial transverse vaginal
septum presents with dysmenorrhea and chronic
pelvic pain. Which of the following is she likely to
have?
A. Theca lutein cyst
B. Endometriosis
C. Tubo-ovarian abscess
D. Dermoid cyst
15. A 28 years-old woman is undergoing evaluation
for successive recurrent pregnancy losses. On
A. PAP smear
ultrasound, a Mullerian anomaly is suspected.
What is the BEST way to confirm this? B. Dilatation and curettage
A. Transvaginal ultrasound C. Endometrial biopsy
B. Hysterosalpingography D. Colposcopy
C. CECT 4. Arrange the steps of PAP smear testing in a correct
D. Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy sequence:

16. A 28-years P0A3 with recurrent 2nd trimester 1. Take the sample
abortions was found to have a midline uterine 2. Fix the smear
septum on sono-salpingography. What is the BEST
management option? 3. Make smear on a slide

A. Dilatation and curettage 4. Retract posterior vaginal wall

B. Laparoscopic metroplasty Select the correct answer from the given below code:
C. Hysteroscopic septoplasty A. 1-2-3-4 B. 4-3-2-1
D. Laparotomy and metroplasty C. 4-1-3-2 D. 4-1-2-3
 Obstetrics & Gynecology 463
5. Instruments used in Caesarean section are: 10. A pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation is found
1. Green armytage forceps to have high blood pressure and urine protein of
3+. Concomitant presence of which of the following
2. Allis forceps symptoms would make you suspect imminent
3. Shirodkar’s clamp eclampsia?
4. Doyen’s retractor 1. Epigastric pain

5. Cusco’s speculum 2. Blurred vision

6. Bard parker handle 3. Head ache

Select the correct answer from the given below code: 4. Persistent pedal edema

A. 1, 2 and 6 are correct Select the correct answer from the given below code:
A. 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 5 are correct
C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2,3 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2, 4 and 6 are correct 11. What is the diagnosis of given clinical image?

6. Which of the following is not included in Quadruple

test?
A. Inhibin B B. Unconjugated estriol
C. HCG D. Maternal serum AFP
7. A 18 years old presents with ambiguous genitalia
with 5 alpha reductase deficiency. This condition is:
A. True hermaphroditism
B. Male pseudo hermaphroditism
C. Female pseudo hermaphroditism
D. Concealed sex
8. Unicornuate uterus can be identified by which of
the following investigations:
A. Laparoscopy B. X Ray
C. Falloscopy D. HSG
Select the correct answer from the given below code:
A. A & D are true B. A & C are true A. Uterine inversion B. Uterine prolapse

C. B & D are true D. B & C are true C. Cervical carcinoma D. Fibroid polyp

9. An antennal USG of a 19 week pregnant female 12. A 26 years old female who has 2 kids delivered by
is given below. Identify the likely congenital normal vaginal delivery presents to the hospital
abnormality: with dull aching pain over abdomen with irregular
menses. On P/V examination, a mass is felt in
posterior fornix. USG revealed a clear 5 X 5 cm
ovarian cyst. What is the next step?
A. Follow up after 6 weeks
B. Measure CA 125 levels
C. CT pelvis
D. Laparoscopy
13. Which of the following is not a part of active
management of third stage of labor?
A. Uterine massage
B. Early cord clamping
A. Anencephaly B. Omphalocoele C. Controlled cord traction
C. Encephalocole D. Cystic Hygroma D. Uterotonics after delivery of the placenta
464 To The Point (Question Bank)

14. Which of the following will not cause secondary 19. Match the following:
amenorrhoea?
Condition Lab markers
A. Turner’s syndrome 1. Sheehan’s syndrome A. Normal FSH, Normal LH,
B. Kallman syndrome Normal estradiol
C. Sheehan’s syndrome 2. Asherman’s B. Low FSH, Low LH, Low
syndrome estradiol
D. Asherman’s syndrome
3. PCOS C. High FSH, High LH, Low
15. Which of the following is the best measure of estradiol
ovarian reserve?
4. Premature ovarian D. High LH, Low FSH, Low
A. Luteal phase LH failure estradiol
B. Anti mullerian hormone
Select the correct answer from the given below code:
C. FSH in follicular phase
A. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
D. Post luteal phase LH
B. 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
16. Which of the following symptoms are seen in
endometriosis? C. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – D

1. Dysmenorrhoea D. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C
2. Vaginal discharge 20. Which of the following complication is specific for
3. Vaginal bleeding monochorionic twins?
A. Neural tube defects
4. Infertility
Select the correct answer from the given below B. Selective fetal growth restriction
code: C. Polyhydramnios
A. 1, 3 B. 1, 4 D. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 3 , 4 21. Match the following syndromes with their
17. What is the normal uterocervical length? respective karyotype:
A. 3cm B. 7cm Syndrome Karyotype
C. 10cm D. 5cm 1. Turner’s syndrome A. 46 + XX
18. What is the most likely diagnosis? 2. Sweyer’s syndrome B. 46 + XY
3. Androgen insensitivity syndrome C. 45 + XO
4. MRKH syndrome D. 46 + XY

Select the correct answer from the given below

code:
A. 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B. 1 – C , 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
C. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
D. 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D

NEET PG – 2020

1. Which of the following is not Oestrogen dependent

pubertal change?
A. Vulval hematoma A. Hair growth
B. Vulval carcinoma B. Menstruation
C. Bartholin’s cyst C. Vaginal cornification
D. Condyloma acuminata D. Cervical mucus
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Discount on Advance Pack, qbank Test series ,Dbmci
Live classes packages including TnD ,
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