Questions and Answers

 1.
What is the normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide (molecular
weight=40) containing 20 grams in 100 mL of solution?

A.

5.0N

B.

1.0N

C.

0.5N

D.

0.4N

Correct Answer
A. 5.0N
Explanation
The normality (N) of a solution is defined as the number of equivalents of
 solute per liter of solution. To calculate the normality, we need to
determine the number of equivalents of sodium hydroxide in the given
solution. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base that dissociates
completely in water to form one hydroxide ion (OH-) per molecule.
Therefore, the number of equivalents is equal to the number of moles of
sodium hydroxide.

First, we need to calculate the number of moles of sodium hydroxide in 20

grams. The molecular weight of sodium hydroxide is 40 g/mol, so the
number of moles is 20 g / 40 g/mol = 0.5 mol.

Next, we need to determine the volume of the solution in liters. The given
solution has a volume of 100 mL, which is equal to 0.1 L.

Finally, we can calculate the normality by dividing the number of

equivalents (moles) by the volume in liters: 0.5 mol / 0.1 L = 5.0N.

Therefore, the normality of the sodium hydroxide solution is 5.0N.

Rate this question:
36
2

 2.
Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33.
oxygen

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only
 o

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1,2, and 3

Correct Answer
D. 1,2, and 3
Explanation
Carbohydrates are organic compounds that consist of carbon, hydrogen,
and oxygen atoms. These atoms are bonded together in specific ratios,
with the general formula for carbohydrates being (CH2O)n. Therefore, the
correct answer is 1, 2, and 3, as all three elements are present in
carbohydrates.
Rate this question:
12
1

 3.
If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test
results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of

A.

3
 o

B.

C.

20

D.

300

Correct Answer
C. 20
Explanation
If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, it means that they fall
within a range of two standard deviations on either side of the mean.
Since the normal distribution curve is symmetrical, the area outside this
range on both sides is equal. The ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD
limit will be 1 out of 20 because the total area outside this range is 5%
(2.5% on each side), and the total area under the curve is 100%.
Therefore, the ratio is 5%/100% = 1/20.
Rate this question:
8
1

 4.
To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute
 o

A.

1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent

B.

1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent

C.

1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent

D.

5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent

Correct Answer
B. 1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent
Explanation
To make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample, you need to mix 1.0 mL of
serum with 4.0 mL of diluent. This means that the total volume of the
diluted solution will be 5.0 mL, with 1.0 mL being the serum and 4.0 mL
being the diluent. This dilution ratio indicates that for every 1 part of
serum, you need to add 4 parts of diluent, resulting in a total of 5 parts.
 This dilution is commonly used in laboratory settings to reduce the
concentration of a sample for various analyses or experiments.
Rate this question:
21
2

 5.
WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?

A.

Transports glucose

B.

Regulates body temperature

C.

Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation

D.

Provides humoral immunity

 Correct Answer
D. Provides humoral immunity
Explanation
Gamma globulin is a type of protein found in the blood that plays a crucial
role in providing humoral immunity. It is a component of the immune
system and contains antibodies that help in fighting off infections and
diseases. These antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible
for recognizing and neutralizing foreign substances such as bacteria and
viruses. Therefore, gamma globulin is essential for the body's immune
response and helps protect against various pathogens.
Rate this question:
21
0

 6.
Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular
molecule but of the total ions and molecules in general (number of
moles per kilogram of water)?

A.

Osmometers

B.

Spectrophotometers

C.
 Blood gas analyzers

D.

Immunochemical analyzers

Correct Answer
A. Osmometers
Explanation
Osmometers are instruments that measure the total ions and molecules in
a solution, rather than specifically measuring the concentration of a
particular molecule. They do this by determining the osmotic pressure of
the solution, which is a measure of the number of moles of solute per
kilogram of water. Osmometers are commonly used in medical and
research laboratories to measure the osmolality of bodily fluids and other
solutions. This information is useful in diagnosing and monitoring certain
medical conditions, as well as in various scientific and industrial
applications.
Rate this question:
13
1

 7.
Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring

A.

Freezing point depression

o
 B.

Refractive index

C.

Specific gravity

D.

Ionic strength

Correct Answer
A. Freezing point depression
Explanation
Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring freezing point
depression. This is because the freezing point of a solution is lower than
that of the pure solvent, and the extent of this depression is directly
related to the number of solute particles present in the solution.
Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a
solution, and by measuring the freezing point depression, one can
determine the osmolality accurately. Refractive index, specific gravity, and
ionic strength are not directly related to osmolality measurement.
Rate this question:
15
1

 8.
Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on
the reaction of creatinine and
 o

A.

Sulfuric acid

B.

Alkaline picrate

C.

Acetic anhydride

D.

Ammonium hydroxide

Correct Answer
B. Alkaline picrate
Explanation
The correct answer is alkaline picrate. Most methods for the determination
of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine with alkaline
picrate. This reaction forms a colored complex, which can be measured
spectrophotometrically. By measuring the absorbance of the complex, the
concentration of creatinine in the blood sample can be determined.
Rate this question:
 16
0

 9.
All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT

A.

Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure

B.

Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi

C.

Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow

D.

Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction

Correct Answer
D. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction
Explanation
The correct answer is hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction.
 Glomerular filtration is primarily influenced by factors such as renal blood
flow and cardiac function, as well as the presence of renal or urinary
calculi. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction, on the other hand,
are not directly related to glomerular filtration.
Rate this question:
23
0

 10.
Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as

A.

Conjugated bilirubin

B.

Prehepatic bilirubin

C.

Total bilirubin

D.

Biliverdin
 Correct Answer
B. Prehepatic bilirubin
Explanation
Unconjugated bilirubin refers to bilirubin that has not yet been processed
by the liver. It is produced when red blood cells break down and is
transported to the liver for further processing. Prehepatic bilirubin is
another term for unconjugated bilirubin, as it indicates that the bilirubin
has not yet reached the liver. Conjugated bilirubin, on the other hand,
refers to bilirubin that has been processed by the liver and is ready to be
excreted. Total bilirubin is the sum of both unconjugated and conjugated
bilirubin. Biliverdin, on the other hand, is a green pigment that is
converted to bilirubin in the body.
Rate this question:
2
0

 11.
Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in

A.

Kidney disease

B.

Liver disease

C.
 Myocardial infarction

D.

Obstructive jaundice

Correct Answer
D. Obstructive jaundice
Explanation
Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the blockage of bile
ducts, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Alkaline
phosphatase is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver
and bile ducts. When there is a blockage in the bile ducts, such as in
obstructive jaundice, the enzyme is released into the bloodstream,
resulting in greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Therefore,
obstructive jaundice is the most likely cause for the greatly elevated levels
of alkaline phosphatase mentioned in the question.
Rate this question:
7
4

 12.
The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and

A.

Lactic acid

B.
 3-hydroxy butyric acid

C.

Oxaloacetic acid

D.

Acetic acid

Correct Answer
B. 3-hydroxy butyric acid
Explanation
The ketone bodies are acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 3-hydroxy butyric
acid. Lactic acid, oxaloacetic acid, and acetic acid are not considered
ketone bodies.
Rate this question:
14
0

 13.
Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone

A.

ACTH
 o

B.

Insulin

C.

Thyroxin

D.

Hydrocortisone

Correct Answer
B. Insulin
Explanation
Insulin is the correct answer because it is the hormone responsible for
regulating blood glucose levels. Insulin is produced by the pancreas and
helps to lower blood glucose levels by allowing cells to take in glucose
from the bloodstream. It also promotes the storage of glucose as
glycogen in the liver and muscles. Without sufficient insulin, blood glucose
levels can become too high, leading to conditions like diabetes. ACTH,
thyroxin, and hydrocortisone are not directly involved in the regulation of
blood glucose levels.
Rate this question:
24
0

 14.
 Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic
fractions of

A.

Hemoglobin

B.

Amino acid

C.

Serum protein

D.

Serum lipoprotein

Correct Answer
C. Serum protein
Explanation
Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic
fractions of serum protein. Electrophoretic fractionation is a technique
used to separate different proteins based on their charge and size. In this
 case, the given fractions are all components of serum protein, which is a
mixture of proteins found in blood plasma. Therefore, the correct answer
is serum protein.
Rate this question:
1
0

 15.
Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein
abnormality?

A.

Isoenzyme electrophoresis

B.

Immunoelectrophoresis

C.

Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum

D.

Blood viscosity studies

 Correct Answer
B. Immunoelectrophoresis
Explanation
Immunoelectrophoresis is a method that combines electrophoresis and
immunodiffusion techniques to study protein abnormalities. It involves
separating proteins based on their charge using electrophoresis and then
detecting specific proteins using antibodies. This technique is particularly
useful for identifying and quantifying abnormal proteins, such as those
associated with autoimmune diseases or cancer. By comparing the
protein profiles of healthy individuals with those of patients, researchers
can gain insights into the presence and nature of protein abnormalities,
aiding in diagnosis and treatment.
Rate this question:
14
0

 16.
Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is

A.

Bound to globulin

B.

Bound to albumin

C.
 Free

D.

Bound to cholesterol

Correct Answer
A. Bound to globulin
Explanation
Plasma thyroxine (T4) is mostly bound to globulin because globulin is a
type of protein that acts as a carrier for T4 in the bloodstream. This
binding helps to protect T4 from being rapidly metabolized or excreted by
the body. By being bound to globulin, T4 can be transported to target
tissues where it can be released and exert its hormonal effects.
Rate this question:
12
0

 17.
Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of

A.

Blood coagulation

B.

Osmotic pressure of body fluids

 o

C.

Cardiac muscle contractions

D.

Salt intake

Correct Answer
B. Osmotic pressure of body fluids
Explanation
Sodium plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of body
fluids. Osmotic pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the solutes in a
solution, which helps regulate the movement of water across cell
membranes. Sodium ions are one of the main solutes in extracellular
fluids, and their concentration affects the osmotic pressure. By controlling
the osmotic pressure, sodium helps maintain the balance of water inside
and outside cells, ensuring proper hydration and functioning of cells and
tissues throughout the body.
Rate this question:
1
0

 18.
When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an
electrical field migrates toward

A.
 The positive pole

B.

The negative pole

C.

Either pole

D.

Both poles

Correct Answer
A. The positive pole
Explanation
When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, the serum proteins have a net
negative charge. In an electrical field, negatively charged particles migrate
towards the positive pole. Therefore, the serum proteins will migrate
towards the positive pole in this scenario.
Rate this question:
1
1

 19.
The end-product of purine metabolism is
 o

A.

Urea

B.

Creatine

C.

Creatinine

D.

Uric acid

Correct Answer
D. Uric acid
Explanation
Uric acid is the correct answer because it is the end-product of purine
metabolism. Purine metabolism involves the breakdown of purine
nucleotides, which are components of DNA and RNA. The breakdown of
these nucleotides leads to the production of uric acid. Uric acid is then
excreted from the body through urine. Urea, creatine, and creatinine are
not the end-products of purine metabolism, making them incorrect
 choices. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism, creatine is
involved in energy metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of
muscle metabolism.
Rate this question:
9
0

 20.
The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a
calculated mean value is known as

A.

Coefficient variation

B.

Quality control

C.

Stardard deviation

D.

Percent deviation
 Correct Answer
C. Stardard deviation
Explanation
The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a
calculated mean value is known as the standard deviation. The standard
deviation measures the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of
values. It is calculated by taking the square root of the variance, which is
the average of the squared differences between each value and the
mean. A higher standard deviation indicates greater variability, while a
lower standard deviation indicates less variability.
Rate this question:
15
0

 21.
Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is
recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory
Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory
Standards?

A.

Oxyhemoglobin

B.

Sulfhemoglobin

C.
 Methemoglobin

D.

Cyanmethemoglobin

Correct Answer
D. Cyanmethemoglobin
Explanation
Cyanmethemoglobin is the recommended method for hemoglobin
determination by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory
Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards.
This method involves the conversion of hemoglobin to
cyanmethemoglobin, which is stable and can be measured accurately.
This method is widely used in clinical laboratories for accurate and
reliable measurement of hemoglobin levels in blood samples.
Rate this question:
24
0

 22.
When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count,
blood is diluted

A.

1:200

B.
 1:50

C.

1:20

D.

1:10

Correct Answer
C. 1:20
Explanation
In order to perform a white cell count using white blood cell pipets, blood
needs to be diluted. The dilution ratio determines the amount of blood that
is mixed with a diluent solution. A dilution ratio of 1:20 means that for
every 1 part of blood, 20 parts of diluent solution are added. This dilution
allows for an accurate and manageable count of white blood cells, as it
helps to reduce the concentration of cells in the sample and makes it
easier to count them under a microscope.
Rate this question:
4
0

 23.
An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

A.
 Variable in shape

B.

Packed with hemoglobin

C.

Markedly bluish in color

D.

Markedly pale in central color

Correct Answer
D. Markedly pale in central color
Explanation
An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as markedly pale in
central color. Hypochromia refers to a condition where the red blood cells
have a decreased amount of hemoglobin, resulting in a paler appearance.
This paleness is particularly noticeable in the central area of the cell. It is
not related to the shape, hemoglobin content, or bluish color of the RBC.
Rate this question:
15
0

 24.
 When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted
instruments

A.

Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes

B.

Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets

C.

Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes

D.

Do not count nucleated red blood cells

Correct Answer
C. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes
Explanation
Most automated cell counting instruments count nucleated red blood cells
with leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are
responsible for the body's immune response and are found in the
 bloodstream. Nucleated red blood cells are abnormal cells that may be
present in certain medical conditions. Since leukocytes are also present in
the bloodstream and are involved in the immune response, automated cell
counting instruments include them when counting nucleated red blood
cells.
Rate this question:
15
0

 25.
Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will
demonstrate the presence of

A.

Howell-Jolly bodies

B.

Rubriblasts

C.

Heniz bodies

D.
 Plasmodium species

Correct Answer
C. Heniz bodies
Explanation
Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will
demonstrate the presence of Heinz bodies. Heinz bodies are abnormal
aggregates of denatured hemoglobin that form within red blood cells. In
individuals with G-6-PD deficiency, the red blood cells are more
susceptible to oxidative damage, leading to the formation of Heinz bodies.
These bodies can be visualized using supravital staining techniques,
which stain the bodies and make them visible under a microscope.
Therefore, the presence of Heinz bodies indicates a deficiency of G-6-PD.
Rate this question:
1
0

 26.
During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern
becomes

A.

Finer

B.

More dense

o
 C.

Less dense

D.

More acidic

Correct Answer
B. More dense
Explanation
As a blood cell matures, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes more
dense. This means that the DNA and associated proteins in the nucleus
become more tightly packed. This denser chromatin pattern allows for
more efficient regulation of gene expression and helps to maintain the
stability and integrity of the genetic material within the cell.
Rate this question:
14
0

 27.
As a general rule, when a blood cell matures

A.

The cell increases in size

B.
 The cell decreases in size

C.

There is no change in the cell's size

D.

The nucleus increases in size

Correct Answer
B. The cell decreases in size
Explanation
When a blood cell matures, it undergoes a process called enucleation,
where the nucleus is expelled from the cell. This results in a decrease in
the cell's size. The mature blood cell, also known as a red blood cell or
erythrocyte, needs to lose its nucleus to make more space for
hemoglobin, the molecule responsible for carrying oxygen. This allows the
cell to become more efficient in its oxygen-carrying capacity. Therefore,
the correct answer is that the cell decreases in size.
Rate this question:
3
0

 28.
An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic
granulocytes USUALLY indicates

A.
 Bacterial infection

B.

Viral infection

C.

Infectious mononucleosis

D.

Allergic reaction

Correct Answer
A. Bacterial infection
Explanation
An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic
granulocytes usually indicates a bacterial infection. Neutrophilic
granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the
immune response to bacterial infections. When there is an infection, the
body releases more neutrophils to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore,
an elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic
granulocytes is often seen in bacterial infections.
Rate this question:
12
0
 29.
On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using

A.

Distilled water

B.

Highly-diluted blood

C.

Diluting fluid

D.

Lysing reagent only

Correct Answer
C. Diluting fluid
Explanation
The correct answer is diluting fluid because it is commonly used in
automated cell counters to create a dilution of the blood sample. This
dilution helps in obtaining accurate and reliable cell counts by ensuring
 that the cells are evenly distributed and not clumped together. The diluting
fluid also helps in maintaining the integrity of the cells and preventing any
interference or contamination from other substances present in the
sample.
Rate this question:
9
0

 30.
Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears

A.

Clear (colorless)

B.

Bright red

C.

Light yellow or straw colored

D.

Greeen
 Correct Answer
C. Light yellow or straw colored
Explanation
The correct answer is light yellow or straw colored. Cerebral spinal fluid in
patients with post-cerebral hemorrhage may appear this way due to the
presence of red blood cells and breakdown products of blood. The yellow
color is caused by the bilirubin pigment, which is a product of the
breakdown of red blood cells. This color indicates that there is a small
amount of blood present in the fluid, but not enough to cause it to be
bright red or green.
Rate this question:
14
0

 31.
On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a
high background count would be

A.

WBC and Hgb

B.

RBC and Hgb

C.

RBC and WBC

 o

D.

Hct and WBC

Correct Answer
C. RBC and WBC
Explanation
A high background count on an automated blood cell counter indicates an
increased number of non-cellular particles in the sample, which can
interfere with the accurate counting of red blood cells (RBC) and white
blood cells (WBC). These non-cellular particles can be debris, platelets, or
other substances that may be mistaken as cells by the counter. Therefore,
a high background count would affect the accurate measurement of both
RBC and WBC parameters.
Rate this question:
23
1

 32.
Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination
reveals

A.

Hemolysis

B.

Icteric plasma
 o

C.

A high hematocrit

D.

A heavy buffy coat

Correct Answer
D. A heavy buffy coat
Explanation
A heavy buffy coat may suggest the presence of leukemia. The buffy coat
is the layer of white blood cells and platelets that separates from the red
blood cells after centrifugation. In a healthy individual, the buffy coat is
usually thin. However, in leukemia, there is an abnormal increase in the
number of white blood cells, leading to a heavier buffy coat. This can be
an indication of leukemia and further diagnostic tests may be required to
confirm the diagnosis.
Rate this question:
11
1

 33.
Hansel's stain is appropriate for

A.

Circulating eosinophiles
 o

B.

Phagocytic neutrophils

C.

Nasal secrection for eosinophiles

D.

Leukocytes in spinal fluid

Correct Answer
C. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles
Explanation
Hansel's stain is appropriate for nasal secretion for eosinophils. This
staining technique is used to identify and count eosinophils, which are a
type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic
infections. By staining the nasal secretion with Hansel's stain, eosinophils
can be easily visualized under a microscope, allowing for the assessment
of eosinophil levels in the sample. This can be useful in diagnosing and
monitoring conditions such as allergic rhinitis or eosinophilic rhinosinusitis.
Rate this question:
16
2

 34.
Reticulocytes contain
 o

A.

DNA remnants

B.

RNA remnants

C.

Basophilic granules

D.

Howell-Jolly bodies

Correct Answer
B. RNA remnants
Explanation
Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain some RNA
remnants. These remnants are leftover from the process of synthesizing
hemoglobin, which occurs in the reticulocytes. As the reticulocytes mature
into erythrocytes (mature red blood cells), the RNA remnants are
removed, resulting in cells that do not contain any DNA remnants.
Therefore, the correct answer is RNA remnants.
 Rate this question:
14
0

 35.
A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given
orally is

A.

Heparin

B.

Protamine sulfate

C.

Saliclate

D.

Coumadin

Correct Answer
D. Coumadin
 Explanation
Coumadin is the correct answer because it is an anticoagulant medication
that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver,
including prothrombin. When Coumadin is given orally, it prolongs the
prothrombin time, which is a measure of how long it takes for blood to
clot. This effect is desired in certain medical conditions where there is a
risk of excessive blood clotting. Heparin, protamine sulfate, and saliclate
do not produce a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally.
Rate this question:
20
0

 36.
Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of

A.

Factor VII deficiency

B.

Factor X deficiency

C.

Hemophilia

o
 D.

Platelet function

Correct Answer
D. Platelet function
Explanation
Clot retraction refers to the process by which a blood clot becomes more
compact and retracts, leading to the formation of a stable clot. This
process is primarily dependent on the function of platelets, which play a
crucial role in clot formation and stabilization. Therefore, clot retraction
can be used as an indicator of platelet function. Factor VII deficiency and
Factor X deficiency are related to the coagulation cascade, while
hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot.
None of these conditions directly impact clot retraction, making platelet
function the correct answer.
Rate this question:
11
0

 37.
Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a
deficiency of Factor VIII?

A.

First

B.

Second
 o

C.

Third

D.

Fourth

Correct Answer
A. First
Explanation
A deficiency of Factor VIII would affect the first stage of the coagulation
process. Factor VIII is a crucial protein that plays a role in the formation of
a complex called the tenase complex. This complex is responsible for
activating Factor X, which is necessary for the subsequent stages of
coagulation to occur. Without sufficient Factor VIII, the formation of the
tenase complex would be impaired, leading to a delay or inhibition of the
coagulation process.
Rate this question:
22
2

 38.
Fibrinogen determinations are performed on

A.

Serum only
 o

B.

Plasma only

C.

Either serum or plasma

D.

Any body fluid

Correct Answer
B. Plasma only
Explanation
Fibrinogen determinations are performed on plasma only because
fibrinogen is a protein that is present in the liquid portion of blood, which is
plasma. Serum is obtained by removing the clotting factors from plasma,
including fibrinogen. Therefore, fibrinogen cannot be accurately measured
in serum. Additionally, fibrinogen is not present in other body fluids, so it
cannot be determined in any body fluid other than plasma.
Rate this question:
18
0

 39.
In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an
acute or chronic infection such as
 o

A.

Pneumonia

B.

Infectious hepatitis

C.

Lupus erythematosus

D.

Helicobacter pylori

Correct Answer
C. Lupus erythematosus
Explanation
Reagin reactivity in serologic tests for syphilis can be caused by both
acute and chronic infections. Lupus erythematosus is a chronic
autoimmune disease that can lead to the production of reagin antibodies,
which may result in a positive serologic test for syphilis. Pneumonia,
infectious hepatitis, and Helicobacter pylori are not typically associated
with reagin reactivity in syphilis tests.
 Rate this question:
1
1

 40.
The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is

A.

0.02 mL

B.

0.05 mL

C.

0.10 mL

D.

0.15 mL

Correct Answer
B. 0.05 mL
 Explanation
The correct answer is 0.05 mL. In the qualitative VDRL test, a small
amount of inactivated serum is used to detect the presence of antibodies
to syphilis. This test is used to determine if a person has been exposed to
the syphilis bacteria. The quantity of 0.05 mL is sufficient to ensure
accurate results without using an excessive amount of serum.
Rate this question:
18
1

 41.
Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?

A.

High molecular weight

B.

High order of specificity

C.

Foreign to animal

D.
 Produced by action of antibody

Correct Answer
B. High order of specificity
Explanation
An antigen is characterized by its high order of specificity, meaning that it
can specifically bind to a particular antibody or immune receptor. This
specificity allows the immune system to recognize and target specific
antigens for immune responses. High molecular weight is not a
characteristic of all antigens, as some antigens can be small molecules.
While many antigens may be foreign to the animal, not all antigens are.
Additionally, antigens are not produced by the action of antibodies, but
rather they stimulate the production of antibodies.
Rate this question:
18
2

 42.
The RA latex test is used as a screening test for

A.

Rheumatoid arthritis

B.

Thyroiditis

C.
 Vulvovaginitis

D.

Infectious mononucleosis

Correct Answer
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation
The RA latex test is used as a screening test for rheumatoid arthritis.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes chronic
inflammation in the joints, resulting in pain, stiffness, and swelling. The RA
latex test detects the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF), an antibody that
is often found in the blood of individuals with rheumatoid arthritis.
Therefore, a positive RA latex test indicates a higher likelihood of
rheumatoid arthritis. The test helps healthcare professionals in diagnosing
and monitoring the disease.
Rate this question:
18
0

 43.
The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation
of serum is

A.

25 C for 1 hour

o
 B.

37 C for 30 min

C.

56 C for 30 min

D.

56 C for 10 min

Correct Answer
C. 56 C for 30 min
Explanation
The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of
serum is 56°C for 30 minutes. This temperature and time combination is
effective in deactivating any potential pathogens or contaminants in the
serum while still maintaining the integrity and functionality of the serum. It
strikes a balance between ensuring safety and preserving the desired
properties of the serum for its intended use.
Rate this question:
16
1

 44.
Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)

A.
 Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus

B.

Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband

C.

Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus

D.

Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus

Correct Answer
C. Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus
Explanation
Rh immune globulin is given to a negative mother who has delivered an
Rh(D) positive fetus. This is because Rh immune globulin helps prevent
the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the
Rh(D) antigen, which can occur when the mother is Rh(D) negative and
the fetus is Rh(D) positive. If the mother develops these antibodies, it can
lead to complications in future pregnancies with Rh(D) positive fetuses.
Therefore, giving Rh immune globulin to the negative mother after
delivery of an Rh(D) positive fetus helps prevent the development of these
antibodies.
Rate this question:
1
 0

 45.
Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion
reaction?

A.

Urine porphyrins

B.

Serum haptoglobin

C.

Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin

D.

Pre-transfusion bilirubin

Correct Answer
B. Serum haptoglobin
 Explanation
Serum haptoglobin may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Haptoglobin is a protein that binds to free hemoglobin released from red
blood cells during hemolysis. In a hemolytic transfusion reaction, there is
destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into
the bloodstream. The binding of haptoglobin to free hemoglobin forms a
complex that is then cleared from the bloodstream. Therefore, a decrease
in serum haptoglobin levels may indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Urine porphyrins, post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin, and
pre-transfusion bilirubin are not specifically related to detecting hemolytic
transfusion reactions.
Rate this question:
21
0

 46.
To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with

A.

Anti-A serum

B.

Anti-AB serum

C.

Anti-A2 serum
 o

D.

Dolichos biflorus serum

Correct Answer
D. Dolichos biflorus serum
Explanation
Dolichos biflorus serum is used to determine if a patient is A1 or A2. This
serum is specifically used to detect the presence of A2 antigen on red
blood cells. If the serum reacts with the blood sample, it indicates that the
patient is A2. If there is no reaction, it means the patient is A1. The other
serums listed (anti-A serum, anti-AB serum) are used for different blood
typing purposes and do not specifically differentiate between A1 and A2.
Rate this question:
2
1

 47.
Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of
ABO inheritance?

A.

Weiner

B.

Landsteiner
 o

C.

Levine

D.

Bernstein

Correct Answer
B. Landsteiner
Explanation
Landsteiner is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory
of ABO inheritance. This is because Landsteiner discovered the ABO
blood groups and proposed the theory of inheritance based on his
experiments. His work laid the foundation for our understanding of blood
types and their inheritance patterns, which has been widely accepted in
the field of genetics and immunology.
Rate this question:
10
0

 48.
During the crossmatch procedure, a negative rsult on the addition of
Coombs control cells indicated that the

A.

Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused

 o

B.

Crossmatch is incompatible

C.

Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test.

D.

Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate

washing during the crossmatch procedures.

Correct Answer
C. Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test.

 49.
The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is

A.

Chloride

o
 B.

Potassium

C.

Sodium

D.

Bicarbonate

Correct Answer
C. Sodium
Explanation
Sodium is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid. Cations are
positively charged ions, and sodium is the most abundant positively
charged ion in the extracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining
fluid balance, regulating blood pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and
supporting muscle function. Chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are
also important ions in the body, but sodium is the primary cation in the
extracellular fluid.
Rate this question:
18
0

 50.
Antihuman serum globulin reagent

o
 A.

Is produced in humans

B.

Occurs naturally in most humans

C.

Is produced in laboratory animals

D.

Never detects complement-dependent antibodies

Correct Answer
C. Is produced in laboratory animals
Explanation
The correct answer is "is produced in laboratory animals." This is because
antihuman serum globulin reagent is a reagent that is used in laboratory
tests to detect antibodies in human serum. It is produced by injecting
laboratory animals with human serum globulin, which stimulates the
animals to produce antibodies against the human serum globulin. These
antibodies are then collected and used as the antihuman serum globulin
reagent in laboratory tests.