Physics Revision Sheet

TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2022
REVISION SHEET
JEE - (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2022
REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 1 CALORIMETRY AND CONDUCTION OF HEAT PHYSICS
1. Figure shows three temperature scales with the freezing and boiling point of water indicated. A change of
25 R°, 25 S° and 25 U° is denoted by x1 , x2 , x3 respectively. Which of the following is correct :
(A) x1 > x2 > x3 20°R 120°S 300°U Boiling
point
(B) x2 < x1 < x3
(C) x 3 < x2 < x1
– 80°R 50°S 225°U Freezing
(D) x2 > x3 > x1 point
2. 1gm water at 1000C is given heat to convert it into steam at 1000C at 1 atmospheric pressure. The change in
internal energy of water is :– [Latent heat of vaporisation of water is = 540 cal/gm, Density of water vapour
at 1000C = (1/1681) gm/cm3, Density of water at 1000C = 1 gm/cm3, 1 atmospheric pressure=1.0 × 105 Nm-2,
Mechanical equivalent of heat = 4.2 J/cal]
(A) 540 cal (B) 500 cal (C) 40 cal (D) 0
3. Two solid bodies of equal mass m initially at T = 0°C are heated at a uniform and same rate under
identical conditions.The temperature of the first object with latent heat L 1 and specific heat capacity in
solid state C 1 changes according to graph 1 on the diagram. The temperature of the second object with
latent heat L2 and specific heat capacity in solid state C 2 changes according to graph 2 on the diagram.
Based on what is shown on the graph, the latent heats L 1 and L2 , and the specific heat capacities C 1 and
C2 in solid state obey which of the following relationships
(A) L1 > L2 ; C1 < C2 (B) L1 < L2 ; C1 < C2 (C) L 1 > L2 ; C1 > C2 (D) L1 < L2 ; C1 > C2
4. All the rods have same conductance ‘K’ and same area of cross section ‘A’. If ends A and C are
maintained at temperature 2T 0 and T 0 respectively then which of the following is/are correct:
(A) Rate of heat flow through ABC, AOC and ADC is same
(B) Rate of heat flow through BO and OD is not same
3 K A T0
(C) Total Rate of heat flow from A to C is
2a
(D) Temperature at junctions B, O and D are same

5. A wall is made of two layers A and B of the same thickness but different materials as shown. The thermal
conductivity of A is thrice that of B. In steady state, the temperature difference across the wall is 36 0 C.
The temperature difference across the layer A is :
(A) 60 C (B) 90 C (C) 180 C (D) 27 0 C

PHYSICS 1
6. A rod of length l and cross section area A has a variable thermal conductivity given by k = a T, where a is a
positive constant and T is temperature in kelvin. Two ends of the rod are maintained at temperatures T 1 and T2
(T1 > T2). Heat current flowing through the rod will be
A a (T12 - T22 ) A a (T12 + T22 ) A a (T12 + T22 ) A a (T12 - T22 )

(A) (B) (C) (D)
l l 3l 2l
COMPREHENSION (7-9)
Figure shows three containers. The leftmost container contains water ( heat capacity = 5 cal /ºC), initially
at temperature 100º C. The middle container contains water maintained at 80ºC with the help of a heater.
The container at the right handside contains ice at 0ºC. There are two heat conducting rods A and B both
having thermal resistance equal to 10 ºC sec/cal. Disregard any heat loss in the surrounding.
Heater
A B
water at 1000C
ice at 0 C
0
water at 80 C
7. Initially what is the power of heater required to maintain the temperature of middle container at 80 ºC.
(A) 12 cal/sec (B) 6 cal/sec (C) 18 cal/sec (D) 20 cal/sec.
8. Find the rate with which ice melts in the rightmost container.
(A) 0.1 g/sec (B)1 g/sec (C) 10 g/sec (D) 8 g/sec
9. The temperature of water in the leftmost container decreases with time. The rate with which the ice
melts in the rightmost container
(A) will decrease with time. (B) will increase with time.
(C) will remain steady. (D) will increase and then decrease.
10. An ice block at 0°C is dropped from height ‘h’ above the ground. What should be the value of ‘h’ so that
it melts completely by the time it reaches the bottom assuming the loss of whole gravitational potential
energy is used as heat by the ice ? [Given : Lf = 80 cal/gm]
(A) 33.6 m (B) 33.6 km (C) 8 m (D) 8 km
11. In the experiment of finding specific heat capacity of a liquid using calorimeter, the mass, specific heat
capacity and initial temperature of the sphere was 1000.0 gm, 0.50 cal/gm °C and 80.0 °C respectively.
The mass of liquid and the calorimeter are 900.0 gm and 200.0 gm respectively and initially both were at
room temperature 20.0°C. Both calorimeter and sphere are made of same material. If steady state
temperature after mixing is found to be 40.0°C then the specific heat capacity of unknown liquid in
correct significant figures is -
cal cal cal cal

(A) 2 gm°C (B) 1.0 gm°C (C) 3.00 gm°C (D) 1.50 gm°C
PHYSICS 2
12. 1gm water at 1000C is given heat to convert it into steam at 1000C at 1 atmospheric pressure. The change in
internal energy of water is :– [Latent heat of vaporisation of water is = 540 cal/gm, Density of water vapour
at 1000C = (1/1681) gm/cm3, Density of water at 1000C = 1 gm/cm3, 1
atmospheric pressure=1.0 × 105 Nm-2, Mechanical equivalent of heat = 4.2 J/cal]
(A) 540 cal (B) 500 cal (C) 40 cal (D) 0
13. Four cubes of ice at – 10°C each one gm is taken out from the refrigerator and are put in 150 gm of water at
20°C. The temperature of water when thermal equilibrium is attained. Assume that no heat is lost to the outside
and water equivalent of container is 46 gm. (Specific heat capacity of water = 1 cal/gm-°C, Specific heat
capacity of ice = 0.5 cal/gm-°C, Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm-°C)
(A) 0°C (B) – 10°C (C) 17.9°C (D) None
14. Equal volumes of water and alcohol when put in similar calorimeters take 100 sec and 74 sec. respectively to
cool from 50ºC to 40ºC. The thermal capacity (in cal/gm) of each calorimeter is numerically equal to the volume
(in cm3) of either liquid. The specific gravity of alcohol is 0.8. If the specific heat capacity of water is 1 cal/g, the
specific heat capacity of alcohol will be : (Assume Newton’s law of cooling to be valid).
(A) 0.6 cal/gºC (B) 0.8 cal/gºC (C) 1.6 cal/gºC (D) 1.8 cal/gºC
15. A gaseous mixture consists of equal number of moles of two ideal gases having adiabatic exponents g1
and g2 and molar specific heats at constant volume C v and C v 2 respectively. Which of the following
1
statements is/are correct ?

g1 + g 2
(A) Adiabatic exponent for gaseous mixture is equal to
2
Cv1 + Cv 2
(B) Molar specific heat at constant volume for gaseous mixture is equal to
2
C v1 + C v 2 + R
(C) Molar specific heat at constant pressure for gaseous mixture is equal to
2
2R
(D) Adiabatic exponent for gaseous mixture is 1 +
C v1 + C v 2
PHYSICS 3
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 2 ELECTROSTATICS AND GRAVITATION PHYSICS
Note : ‘*’ indicate multiple correct questions.

1. An isolated triple star system consists of two identical stars, each of mass m and a
m
fixed star of mass M. They revolve around the central star in the same circular orbit of
radius r. The two orbiting stars are always at opposite ends of a diameter of the orbit. r
The time period of revolution of each star around the fixed star is equal to : m M
4pr 3 / 2 2p r 3 / 2 2p r 3 / 2 4p r 3 / 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
G( 4M + m) GM G(M + m ) G(M + m )
2. Assuming the earth to be a homogeneous sphere of radius R, its density in terms of G (constant of gravitation)
and g (acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth) is
(A) 3g/(4pRG) (B) 4pg/(3RG) (C) 4pRg/(3G) (D) 4pRG/(3g)
3. A particle of mass M is at a distance 'a' from surface of a thin spherical shell of uniform equal mass and having
radius a.
(A) Gravitational field & potential both are zero at centre of the shell
(B) Gravitational field is zero not only inside the shell but at a point
outside the shell also
(C) Inside the shell, gravitational field alone is zero
(D) Neither gravitational field nor gravitational potential is zero inside the shell.
4. A cavity of radius R/2 is made inside a solid sphere of radius R. The centre of the cavity is located at a
distance R/2 from the centre of the sphere. The gravitational force on a particle of mass ' m ' at a distance
R/2 from the centre of the sphere on the line joining both the centres of sphere and cavity is (opposite to
the centre of cavity).
[Here g = GM/R 2, where M is the mass of the solid sphere ]
mg 3 mg mg
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 8 16
5. A uniform rod of density r, and length ‘l’ is having square cross-section of side ‘a’. It is placed in a liquid
of equal density r vertically along length in a tank having sufficient height of liquid. The surface tension of
liquid is ‘T’ and angle of contact is zero. Then :
(A) rod will float completely immersed inside the liquid
(B) rod will sink to bottom of tank
4T
(C) rod will float partially submerged with height a rg above liquid
2T
(D) rod will float partially submerged with height above liquid.
a rg
6. A small area is removed from a uniform spherical shell of mass M and radius R. Then the gravitational
field intensity near the hollow portion is
GM GM 3GM
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) (D) Zero
R 2R 2R 2
PHYSICS 1
7. Energy needed for moving a mass of 2kg from the centre of the earth to its surface will be (in joule) (R is
radius of earth in m, g is in m/sec2 )
3 gR
(A) gR (B) gR (C) (D) 2gR
2 2
8. A tunnel is dug along the diameter of the earth (Radius R & mass M). There is a particle of mass ' m
' at the centre of the tunnel. Find the minimum velocity given to the particle so that it just reaches to
the surface of the earth :
GM GM
(A) (B) 2R
R
2GM
(C) (D) it will reach with the help of negligible velocity.
R
9*. For a satellite to appear stationary to an observer on earth

(A) It must be rotating about the earth’s axis.
(B) It must be rotating in the equatorial plane.
(C) Its angular velocity must be from west to east.
(D) Its time period must be 24 hours.
10. A satellite is launched in the equatorial plane in such a way that it can transmit signals upto 60 0 latitude on
the earth. Then the angular velocity of the satellite is :
GM GM GM 3 3GM
(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D)
8R 2R 4R 8R 3
11. A straight smooth tunnel is dug through a spherical planet whose mass density r is constant. The tunnel passes
through the centre of the planet and is perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the planet, which is fixed in space.
The planet rotates with an angular velocity w so that objects in the tunnel have no acceleration relative to the
tunnel. The w is :
4 2
(A) pGr (B) pGr
3 3
(C) pGr (D) not possible to find as situation is not feasible
12. A satellite is in a circular orbit very close to the surface of a planet with speed v0. At some point it is given an
impulse along its direction of motion, causing its velocity to increase h times (that is, its speed becomes hv0)
It now goes into an elliptical orbit. The maximum possible value of h for satellite to move in the elliptical orbit is
1
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 +1 (D)
2 -1
13*. Suppose the earth suddenly shrinks in size, still remaining spherical and mass unchanged (All gravitational
forces pass through the centre of the earth).
(A) The days will become shorter.
(B) The kinetic energy of rotation about its own axis will increase
(C) The duration of the year will increase.
(D) The magnitude of angular momentum about its axis will increase.
PHYSICS 2
14. A satellite revolves in elliptical orbit around a planet of mass M. Its time period is T and M is at the
centre of the path. The length of the major axis of the path is: (neglect the gravitational effect of
other objects in space)
1/ 3 1/ 3 1/ 3
é G M T2 ù é G M T2 ù 1 éGMT ù
2
(A) 2 ê 2
ú (B) ê 2
ú (C) ê ú (D) none of these
êë 4 p úû êë 4 p úû 2 êë 4 p 2 úû
15. A planet revolves about the sun in elliptical orbit of semimajor axis 2 × 1012 m. The areal velocity of the
planet when it is nearest to the sun is 4.4 × 10 16 m2 /s. The least distance between planet and the sun is 1.8
× 1012 m. Then the minimum speed of the planet in km/s is.
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
16. A particle is projected from point A, that is at a distance 4R from the centre of the earth, with speed V 1 in
a direction making 30° with the line joining the centre of the earth and point A, as shown. Find the speed
V1 if particle passes grazing the surface of the earth. Consider gravitational interaction only between
GM X
these two. (use = 6.4 × 107 m2/s2) Express you answer in the form m/s and fill value of X.
R 2
V1
30°
4R
R
V2
8000 4000
(A) 8000 (B) 4000 (C) (D)
2 2
17. Three identical stars, each of mass M, form an equilateral triangle (stars are positioned at the corners)
that rotates around the centre of the triangle. The system is isolated and edge length of the triangle is L.
The amount of work done, that is required to dismantle the system, is :
3GM2 3 GM2 3 GM2 GM2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
L 2 L 4 L 2L
COMPREHENSION (18-20)
An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the magnitude of
escape velocity from the surface of earth. R is the radius of earth and g is acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of earth. (R = 6400 km)
18. Then the distance of satellite from the surface of earth is
(A) 3200 km (B) 6400 km (C) 12800 km (D) 4800 km
19. The time period of revolution of satellite in the given orbit is
2R 4R 8R 6R
(A) 2p g (B) 2p g (C) 2p g (D) 2p g
PHYSICS 3
20. If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit and allowed to fall freely onto the earth, the speed with which it hits
the surface of the earth.
gR gR
(A) gR (B) 1. 5 g R (C) (D)
2 2
21. STATEMENT-1 : In free space a uniform spherical planet of mass M has a smooth narrow tunnel along the
its diameter. This planet and another superdense small particle of mass M start approaching towards each
other from rest under action of their gravitational forces . When the particle passes through the centre of the
planet, sum of kinetic energies of both the bodies is maximum.
STATEMENT-2 : When the resultant of all forces acting on a particle or a particle like object (initially at rest)
is constant in direction, the kinetic energy of the particle keeps on increasing.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
22. A uniform thin rod of mass m and length R is placed normally on surface of earth as shown. The mass
of earth is M and its radius is R. Then the magnitude of gravitational force exerted by earth on the rod
is
GMm GMm 4GMm GMm

(A) 2 R 2 (B) 4 R 2 (C) 9R 2 (D) 8 R 2
23*. Suppose an earth satellite, revolving in a circular orbit experiences a resistance due to cosmic dust. Then
(A) its kinetic energy will increase
(B) its potential energy will decrease
(C) it will spiral towards the earth and in the process its angular momentum will remain conserved
(D) it will burn off ultimately.
24*. Two artificial satellites of the same mass are moving around the earth in circular orbits of different radii.
In comparison to the satellite with lesser orbital radius, the other satellite with higher orbital radius will
have :
(A) greater kinetic energy.
(B) greater potential energy.
(C) greater total energy
(D) greater magnitude of angular momentum, about the centre of the circular orbit.
PHYSICS 4
25. A satellite is seen after each 8 hours over equator at a place on the earth when its sense of rotation is
opposite to the earth. The time interval after which it can be seen at the same place when the sense of
rotation of earth & satellite is same will be :
(A) 8 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 24 hours (D) 6 hours
26. Which of the following graph represents the time period of the planet moving around the sun.
[ R = semi major axis of the path ]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27. Two planets A and B travel counter clockwise in circular orbits around a fixed star. The radii of their
orbits are in the ratio 1 : 4. At some time, they are aligned as shown in the figure, making a straight line
with the star. After a certain time, planet A comes back to its initial position, completing one full circle
about the star. In the same time, angular displacement of the planet B is :
A B
(A) 22.5° (B) 45° (C) 180° (D) 360°

28. Consider a spherical planet rotating about its axis. The velocity of a point on its equator is V. The angular
velocity of this planet is such that it makes apparent value of ‘g’ at the equator half of value of ‘g’ at the pole.
The escape velocity for a polar particle on the planet expressed as a multiple of V is :
(A) V (B) 2V (C) 3V (D) Data insufficient
A pair of stars rotates about a common center of mass. One of the stars has a mass M and the other has
mass m such that M = 2m. The distance between the centres of the stars is d (d being large compared to
the size of either star).
29. The period of rotation of the stars about their common centre of mass (in terms of d, m, G.) is
4p 2 3 8p 2 3 2p 2 3 4p 2 3
(A) d (B) d (C) d (D) d
Gm Gm 3Gm 3Gm
30. The ratio of the angular momentum of the two stars about their common centre of mass ( L m/ LM) is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 9
31. The ratio of kinetic energies of the two stars ( K m/KM.) is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 9
PHYSICS 5
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 3 THERMAL EXPANSION, HEAT CONDUCTION AND RADIATION PHYSICS

1. Two rods are joined between fixed supports as shown in the figure. Condition for no change in the lengths
of individual rods with the increase of temperature will be
a1,A 1,Y 1 a2,A2,Y 2
( a1 , a2 = linear expansion co-efficient
A1 , A2 = Area of rods
Y1 , Y2 = Young modulus )
L1 L2
A1 a1 Y1 A1 L1a1 Y1 A1 L 2 a 2 Y2 A1 a 2 Y2
(A) =a Y (B) =L a Y (C) = La Y (D) = a Y
A2 2 2 A2 2 2 2 A2 1 1 1 A2 1 1
2. Thermal coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure for an ideal gas sample of n moles having
pressure P 0 , volume V0 and temperature T 0 is
R P0 V0 1 1
(A) P V (B) (C) T (D) n T
0 0 R 0 0
3. A pendulum clock (fitted with a small heavy bob that is connected with a metal rod) is 5 seconds fast each
day at a temperature of 15°C and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30°C. The temperature at which
it is designed to give correct time, is
(A) 18°C (B) 20°C (C) 24°C (D) 25°C
4. In the shown planar frame made of thin uniform rods, the length of section AB and EF is l1 and its thermal
linear coefficient of expansion is a1 . The length of section CD is l2 and its thermal linear coefficient of
expansion is a2 . CB and DE are of same length having thermal linear coefficient of expansion a2 . Points
l1
A, B, E and F reside on same line, that is, sections AB and EF overlap. Then the ratio of l , for which the
2
distance between end A and end F remains the same at all temperatures, is :
a2 2a 2 2a1 a1
(A) 2a (B) a (C) a (D) 2a
1 1 2 2
5*. A black body emits radiation at the rate P when its temperature is T. At this temperature the wavelength
at which the radiation has maximum intensity is l0 . If at another temperature T ¢ the power radiated is
l0
P ¢ and wavelength at maximum intensity is then
2
T P
(A) T ¢ = 2T (B) T ¢ = (C) P ¢ = 16 P (D) P ¢ =
2 16
6. A solid spherical black body of radius r and uniform mass distribution is in free space. It emits power ‘P’
and its rate of colling is R then
1
(A) R P a r 2 (B) R P a r (C) R P a 1/r 2 (D) R P a
r
PHYSICS 1
7. A cube, a pyramid (with all four faces identical) and a sphere (all of them hollow) are made from the same
material and have equal mass and bound equal volume. They are heated to the same temperature and
then left to cool. After some time,
1. sphere will have the highest temperature. 2. pyramid will have the highest temperature.
3. cube will have the lowest temperature. 4. sphere will have the lowest temperature.
5. pyramid will have the lowest temperature.
Correct option will be :
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 1 (C) 1 and 5 (D) 2 and 4
8. Two identical solid spheres have the same temperature. One of the sphere is cut into two identical pieces. The
intact sphere radiates an energy Q during a given small time interval. During the same interval, the two hemispheres
radiate a total energy Q'. The ratio Q'/Q is equal to :
2
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0 (C) (D) 1.5
3
9. Two identical solid spheres have the same constant temperature. One of the spheres is cut into two
identical pieces. These two hemispheres are then separated. The intact sphere radiates an energy Q
during a given time interval at temperature T 0 . During the same interval, the two hemispheres radiate a
total energy Q' at temnperature T 0 . Emissivity of all the surfaces is same. The ratio Q'/Q has value :
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.75 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
A body cools in a surrounding of constant temperature 30 ºC. Its heat capacity is 2J/ºC. Initial temperature
of the body is 40ºC . Assume Newton’s law of cooling is valid. The body cools to 38ºC in 10 minutes.
10. In further 10 minutes it will cool from 38ºC to _____ :
(A) 36ºC (B) 36.4ºC (C) 37ºC (D) 37.5ºC
11. The temperature of the body in ºC denoted by q the variation of q versus time t is best denoted as
0 0
0
0
40 C 40 C 40 C
40 C
q q 0
q 0 q
0
30 C 30 C 30 C
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t t (0,0) t
12. When the body temperature has reached 38 ºC, it is heated again so that it reaches to 40ºC in 10 minutes
.The total heat required from a heater by the body is:
(A) 3.6J (B) 0.364J (C) 8 J (D) 4 J
PHYSICS 2
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 4 FLUID MECHAN ICS PHYSICS
1. A cubical block of copper of side 10 cm is floating in a vessel containing mercury. Water is poured into the
vessel so that the copper block just gets submerged. The height of water column is
(rHg = 13.6 g/cc , rCu= 7.3 g/cc, rwater =1 gm/cc)
(A) 1.25 cm (B) 2.5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 7.5 cm
2. A cylinder of length 4a and radius R, is in equilibrium inside a water tank. The cylinder consists of three
materials, each with a different density. Between x = 0 and x = a, the density is r1, between x = a and x = 2a,
the density is r2 and from x = 2a to x = 4a the density is r3. Take the density of water as rW. [Fluid, Apex]
(i) Find the value of r1 and r3 in terms of rW if r2 = 2rW

(ii) Hence or otherwise find the torque about the centre of mass of the cylinder. A cylindrical container of radius
' R ' and height ' h ' is completely filled with a liquid. Two horizontal L shaped pipes of small cross-section area
' a ' are connected to the cylinder as shown in the figure. Now the two pipes are opened and fluid starts coming
out of the pipes horizontally in opposite directions. Then the torque due to ejected liquid on the system is:
(A) 4 a g h r R (B) 8 a g h r R (C) 2 a g h r R (D) none of these

3. A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 gm/cm3)
over mercury (density = 13.6 gm/cm3). A uniform sphere floats
with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of sphere in gm/
cm3 is:
(A) 3.3 (B) 6.4 (C) 7.2 (D) 12.8
4. A light cylindrical tube ‘T’ of length l and radius ‘r’ containing air is inverted in water (density d). One end of
the tube is open and the other is closed. A block ‘B’ of density 2d is kept on the tube as shown in the figure. The
tube stays in equilibrium in the position shown. (Assume the atmospheric pressure is to be P 0.). Pick up the
correct statement(s).
pr 2 l
(A) the volume of block B is
3
2pr 2 l
(B) the volume of block B is
3
æ lö
(C) the pressure of air trapped in the tube is P0 + d g ç h + 3 ÷
è ø
æ 2l ö
(D) the pressure of air trapped in the tube is P0 + d g ç h + 3 ÷
è ø
PHYSICS 1
5. A block of iron is kept at the bottom of a bucket full of water at 2°C. The water exerts bouyant force on the
block. If the temperature of water is increased by 1°C the temperature of iron block also increases by 1°C. The
bouyant force on the block by water
(A) will increase (B) will decrease (C) will not change
(D) may decrease or increase depending on the values of their coefficient of expansion
6. The velocity of the liquid coming out of a small hole of a large vessel containing two different liquids of densities
2r and r as shown in figure is
(A) 6gh (B) 2 gh (C) 2 2gh (D) gh
7. A non uniform cylinder of mass m, length l and radius r is having its centre of mass at a distance l/4 from the
centre C and lying on the axis of the cylinder. The cylinder is kept in a liquid of uniform density r. The moment
of inertia of the rod about the centre of mass is I. The angular acceleration of point A relative to point B just
after the rod is released from the horizontal position shown in figure is
prgl 2r 2 prg l2r 2 prg l2r 2 3prg l2r 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
I 4I 2I 4I
8. A uniform rod of density r, and length ‘l’ is having square cross-section of side ‘a’. It is placed in a liquid of
equal density r vertically along length in a tank having sufficient height of liquid. The surface tension of liquid
is ‘T’ and angle of contact is 120º. Then :
(A) rod will float completely immersed inside the liquid
(B) rod will sink to bottom of tank
4T
(C) rod will float partially submerged with height a rg above liquid
2T
(D) rod will float partially submerged with height above liquid.
a rg
9. A narrow tube completely filled with a liquid is lying on a series of cylinders as shown in figure. Assuming no
sliding between any surfaces, the value of acceleration of the cylinders for which liquid will not come out of the
tube from anywhere is given by
gH gH
(A) (B)
2L L
2gH gH
(C) (D)
L 2L
PHYSICS 2
10. An open tank 10m long and 2m deep is filled up to 1.5 m height of oil of specific gravity 0.82. The tank is
uniformly accelerated along its length from rest to a speed of 20 m/sec horizontally. The shortest time in which
the speed may be attained without spilling any oil is : [g = 10 m/sec2]
(A) 20 sec. (B) 18 sec. (C) 10 sec. (D) 5 sec.
11. A small solid ball is dropped from a height above the free surface of a liquid. It strikes the surface of the liquid
at t = 0. The density of the material of the ball is 500 kg/m3 and that of liquid is 1000 kg/m3. If the ball comes
momentarily at rest at t = 2 sec then initial height of the ball from surface of liquid was (neglect viscosity) :
(A) 20 m (B) 10 m (C) 15 m (D) 25 m
12. Figure shows a metal ball suspended by thread of negligible mass from an upright cylinder that floats partially
submerged in water. The cylinder has height 6 cm, face area 11 cm2 on the top and bottom and density 0.5 g/
cm3. 4 cm of cylinder’s height is inside the water surface. If density of the metal ball is 8gm/cm3 then its radius
is equal to (rw = 1gm/cm3)
A=11cm2
6 cm
1/ 3 1/ 3 4 cm
æ3ö æ3ö
(A) ç ÷ cm (B) ç ÷ cm
è8ø è4ø
1/ 3 1/ 3
æ 6ö æ5ö
(C) ç ÷ cm (D) ç ÷ cm r
è8ø è 11 ø
13. In the figure shown, a light container is kept on a horizontal rough surface of coefficient of friction
Sh
m= . A very small hole of area S is made at depth 'h'. Water of volume 'V' is filled in the container. The
V
friction is not sufficient to keep the container at rest. The acceleration of the container initially is
V
(A) g (B) g
Sh
Sh
(C) zero (D) g
V
14. When a hole is made in the side of a container holding water, water flows out and follows a parabolic
trajectory. If a hole is made in the side of the container and the container is dropped in free fall ( just
hefore the water starts coming out), the water flow (Neglect effect of surface tension)
If a hole is made in the side of the container and the container is dropped in free fall ( just hefore the
water starts coming out), the water flow (Neglect effect of surface tension)
(A) diminishes. (B) stops altogether.
(C) goes out in a straight line. (D) curves upward.
PHYSICS 3
A tank of base area 4 m2 is initially filled with water up to height 2m. An object of uniform cross-section 2m2
and height 1m is now suspended by wire into the tank, keeping distance between base of tank and that of object
1m. Density of the object is 2000kg/m3. Take atmospheric pressure 1 × 105N/m2 ; g = 10m/s2.
A=2m2 1m
1m
4m2
15. The downwards force exerted by the water on the top surface of the object is :
(A) 2.0 × 105 N (B) 2.1 × 105 N (C) 2.2 × 105 N (D) 2.3 × 105 N
16. The tension in the wire is :
(A) 0.1 × 105 N (B) 0.2 × 105 N (C) 0.3 × 105 N (D) 0.4 × 105 N
17. The buoyant force on the object is :
(A) 0.1 × 105 N (B) 0.2 × 105 N (C) 0.3 × 105 N (D) 0.4 × 105 N
PHYSICS 4
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET #5 CAPACITOR S PHYSICS

1 The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have charges Q and -2Q. It’s capacitance is C. The potential difference
between it’s plates will be
(A) 3Q/2C (B) Q/C (C) 2Q/3C (D) none of these
2 A capacitor of capacitance 1 mF has initial charge 10 mC. Now it is connected to a source of voltage 20 volt.
The charge in steady state on the capacitor is :
(A) 10 mC (B) 20 mC (C) 30 mC (D) none of these
3* The diagram shows part of an evacuated tube in which a stream of electrons from an electron gun passes
between a pair of parallel large deflecting plates. The vertical displacement of the electron beam as it leaves
the parallel plates is x. (Do not consider gravity and the electron enters the deflecting region parallel to the
plates)
+
Deflecting voltage
Electron path x
Accelerating
voltage _
_ (V)
+
Which one of A to D below will change the displacemet x of the beam as it leaves the parallel plates ?
(A) increasing the accelerating voltage
(B) increasing the deflecting voltage
(C) increasing the distance between the electron gun and the deflecting plates
(D) increasing the distance between the two deflecting plates
4 Two metallic bodies separated by a distance 20 cm, are given equal and opposite charges of magnitude 0.88 mC
. The component of electric field along the line AB, between the plates, varies as E x= 3 x2 + 0.4 N/C, where x
(in meters) is the distance from one body towards the other body as shown.
C
(A) The capacitance of the system is 10mF x
A B
(B) The capacitance of the system is 20mF
20 cm
(C) The potential difference between A and C is 0.088 Volt.
(D) The potential difference between A and C cannot be determined from the given data.
5 An electron passes between two parallel plate of a capacitor as shown in the diagram.The electron enters the
plate at t=0 and it comes out of the plates at time t=T .The electron hits the screen at A,as shown.Now a time
varying potential difference V is applied between the plates,as shown in the graph. (Neglect the gravity) .The
point where the electron now will strike the screen (as compared to point A) will be
V
V
Voltage
Screen
0 electron
T t
(A) Deflected up (B) Deflected down

(C) Deflected up then down (D) Deflected down then up
PHYSICS 1
6 In the circuit diagram shown all the capacitors are in m F . The equivalent capacitance between points A & B
is (in m F)
(A) 14/5 (B) 7/5 (C) 3/7 (D) none of these

7 Capacitance of a system of capacitors between points A and B shown in the given figure.
3C
B
A 2C 5C 6C
4C
10 C
(A) C (B) C (C) 2C (D)
3 2
8 In the figure initial status of capacitor and their connection is shown. Which of the following
is incorrect about this circuit :
(A) Final charge on each capacitor will be zero

(B) Final total electrical energy of the capacitors will be zero
(C) Total charge flown from A to D is 30µC
(D) Total charge flown from A to D is – 30µC
9 The circuit was in the shown state for a long time. Now if the switch S is closed then the net charge that flows
through the switch S, will be
50V
4mF 2mF
S
2mF 4mF
400 100
(A) mC (B) 100 mC (C) mC (D) 50 mC
3 3
10* Two capacitor of 2 mF and 3 mF are charged to 150 volt and 120 volt respectively. The plates of a capacitor are
connected as shown in the figure. A discharged capacitor of capacity 1.5 mF falls to the free ends of the wire.
Then after the system comes in steady state :
(A) Charge on the 1.5 mF capacitor will become 180 mC.

(B) Charge on the 2 mF capacitor will become 120 mC.
(C) +ve charge flows through A from left to right.
(D) +ve charge flows through A from right to left.
PHYSICS 2
11 In the given circuit, all the capacitors are initially uncharged. After closing the switch S 1 for a long time
suddenly S2 is also closed and kept closed for a long time. Total heat produced after closing S2 will be :
(A) 4 Ce2 (B) ½ Ce2 (C) 2 Ce2 (D) 0

12* Two capacitors of equal capacitance (C1 = C2) are as shown in figure. Initially, while the switch is open (as
shown) one of the capacitors is uncharged and the other carries charge Q0. The energy stored in the charged
capacitor is U0. Sometime after the switch is closed, the capacitors C 1 and C2 carry charges Q1 and Q2
respectively; the energies stored in the capacitors are U1 and U2 respectively. Which of the following expression
is correct ?
1
(A) Q0 = (Q + Q2 ) (B) U0 = U1 + U2
2 1
1 æ U1 U2 ö
(C) Q0 = 2 çç Q + Q ÷÷ (D) Q1 = Q2
è 1 2 ø
13 An uncharged parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The electric field between the plates is 10V/m.
Now a dielectric of dielectric constant 2 is inserted between the plates filling the entire space. The electric field
between the plates now is
(A) 5 V/m (B) 20 V/m (C) 10 V/m (D) none of these
14 In the arrangement shown in figure, dielectric constant K1 = 2 and K2 = 3. If the capacitance are C1 and C2
C1
respectively, then C will be: (The gaps shown are negligible)
2
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 9 : 5 (D) 25 : 24

15 A parallel plate capacitor of area A and separation d is charged to potential difference V and removed from the
A
charging source. A dielectric slab of constant K = 2, thickness d and area is inserted, as shown in the figure.
2
Let s1 be free charge density at the conductor-dielectric surface and s2 be the charge density at the conductor-
vacuum surface.
(A) The electric field have the same value inside the dielectric as in the free space between the plates.
s1 2
(B) The ratio s is equal to . A
2 1
s1 s2
3Î0 A
(C) The new capacitance is d K
2d – s1 – s2
2
(D) The new potential difference is V
3
PHYSICS 3
16 Two identical capacitor C1 and C2 are connected in series with a battery. They are fully charged. Now a
dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of C 2. The potential difference across C1 will :
(A) increase (B) decrease

(C) remain same (D) depend on internal resistance of the cell
17 A 1 µF capacitor is connected in the circuit shown below. The e.m.f. of the cell is 3 volts and internal resistance
is 0.5 ohms. The resistors R1 and R2 have values 4 ohms and 1 ohm respectively. The charge on the capacitor
in steady state must be :
(A) 2 m C (B) 1 m C (C) 1.33 m C (D) zero 'kwU;

18 A capacitor (without dielectric) is discharging through a resistor. At some instant a dielectric is inserted between
the plates, then
(A) Just after the insertion of the dielectric, current will increase.
(B) Just after the insertion of the dielectric, charge on capacitor will increase.
(C) Just after the insertion of the dielectric, energy stored in the capacitor will increase.
(D) after the insertion of the dielectric, time constant will increase
19 In the circuit shown, switch S2 is closed first and is kept closed for a long time. Now S 1 is closed. Just after that
instant the current through S1 is:
e e 2e
(A) towards right (B) towards left (C) zero (D)
R1 R1 R1
20 The key K (figure) is connected in turn to each of the contacts over short identical time intervals so that the
change in the charge on the capacitor over each connection is small. The final charge qr on the capacitor is :
(E1R 2 + E 2R1 ) C (E1 E 2 ) C (E1R1 + E2R 2 ) C

(A) R1 + R 2
(B) E + E (C) R1 + R 2
(D) none of these
1 2
PHYSICS 4
21 A graph between current & time during charging of a capacitor by a battery in series with a resistor is shown.
The graphs are drawn for two circuits. R1, R2, C1, C2 and V1V2 are the values of resistance, capacitance and
EMF of the cell in the two circuits. If only two parameters (out of resistance, capacitance, EMF) are different
in the two circuits. What is /are the correct option(s)
(A) V1 = V2; R1 > R2, C1> C2 (B) V1 > V2, R1 > R2 ; C1 = C2

(C) V1 < V2, R1< R2, C1 = C2 (D) V1 < V2, C1< C2, R1 = R2
22 A capacitor of capacitance 0.1 m F is connected to a battery of emf 8V as shown in the fig. Under steady state
condition.
(A) Charge on the capacitor is 0.4 m C.

(B) Charge on the capacitor is 0.2 m C.
(C) Current in the resistor(R) between points A & B is 0.1 A.
(D) Current in the resistor(R) between point A & B is 0.4 A.
23 The charge on the capacitor in steady state will be:
(A) 1 mc (B) 2 mc (C) 0 (D) 0.5 mc

24 In the shown circuit, all three capacitor are identical and have capacitance C mF each. Each resistor has
resistance of R W. An ideal cell of emf V volts is connected as shown. Then the magnitude of potential
difference across capacitor C3 in steady state is :
V V 2 3
(A) (B) (C) V (D) V
3 2 9 4
PHYSICS 5
25* In the arrangement shown, a potential difference is applied between points A and B. No capacitor can withstand
a potential difference of more than 100 V.
C1 C2 C3
A B
20m F 40m F 50m F
(A) The magnitude of the maximum potential difference that can exist between points A and B is 300 V.
(B) The maximum potential difference that can exist across C2 is 50 V.
(C) The maximum charge that can be stored by C3 is 2 mC.
(D) The maximum energy that can be stored in the three capacitor arrangement is 190 mJ.
26* 'Identical dielectric slabs are inserted into two identical capacitors A and B. These capacitors and a battery are
connected as shown in figure and steady state is achieved. Now the slab of capacitor B is pulled out with
battery remaining connected :
A B
+ –
a b
(A) During the process of removal positive charge flows from point a to point b.
(B) Finally charge on capacitor B will be less than that on capacitor A.
(C) During the process of removal, a positive work is done by the external force F, which appears completely
as heat in the circuit.
(D) During the process removal, internal energy of the battery increases.
27* A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 'C' has charges on its plates initially as shown in the figure. Now at t
= 0, the switch 'S' is closed. Select the correct alternative(s) for this circuit diagram.
A B
S
t=0 -2ec ec
e
(A) In steady state the charges on the outer surfaces of plates 'A' and 'B' will be same in magnitude and sign.
(B) In steady state the charges on the outer surfaces of plates 'A' and 'B' will be same in magnitude and
opposite in sign.
(C) In steady state the charges on the inner surfaces of the plates 'A' and 'B' will be same in magnitude and
opposite in sign.
5 e 2C
(D) The work done by the cell by the time steady state is reached is .
2
28* A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 10 mF is connected to a cell of emf 10 Volt and fully charged.Now a
dielectric slab (k = 3) of thickness equal to the gap between the plates, is very slowly inserted to completely
filled in the gap, keeping the cell connected.During the filling process:
(A)the increase in charge on the capacitor is 200 mC.
(B)the heat produced is zero.
(C)energy supplied by the cell = increase in stored potential energy + work done on the person who is filling the
dielectric slab.
(D)energy supplied by the cell = increase in stored potential energy + work done on the person who is filling the
dielectric slab + heat produced.
PHYSICS 6
COMPREHENSION (Q. 29 TO 32)

The circuit contains ideal battery E and other elements arranged as shown. The capacitor is initially uncharged
and switch S is closed at t = 0. (use e2 = 7.4)
29. Time constant of the circuit is

(A) 48 ms (B) 28.8 ms (C) 72 ms (D) 120 ms
30 The potential difference across the capacitor in volts, after two time constants, is approximately :
(A) 2 (B) 7.6 (C) 10.4 (D) 12
31. The potential difference across resistor R1 after two time constants, is approximately :
(A) 1.6 V (B) 7.6 V (C) 10 V (D) 12 V
32. The potential difference across resistor R 2 after two time constants, is :
(A) 2V (B) 7.6V (C) 10V (D) 12 V

The switch s has been closed for long time and the electric circuit shown carries a steady current. Let C 1 = 3.0
mF, C2 = 6.0 mF, R1 = 4.0 kW, and R1 = 7.0 kW. The power dissipated in R 2 is 2.8 W.
4kW
C1
s R1
E R2
C2
7kW
33. The power dissipated to the resistor R1 is

(A) 2.8 W (B) 1.6 W (C) 4.9 W (D) 0
34. The charge on capacitors C1 and C2 are respectively.
(A) 940 mC, 940 mC (B) 440 mC, 440 mC (C) 240 mC, 840 mC (D) 840 mC, 240 mC
35. Long time after switch is opened, the charge on C 1 is :
(A) Zero (B) 420 mC (C) 240 mC (D) 660 mC
36 Capacitor C1 of the capacitance 1 microfarad and capacitor C2 of capacitance 2 microfarad are separately
charged fully by a common battery. The two capacitors are then separately allowed to discharge through equal
resistors at time t = 0. (A) the current in each of the two discharging circuits is zero at t = 0.
(B) the current in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are equal but zero.
(C) the current in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are unequal
(D) capacitor C1 loses 50% of its initial charge sooner than C2 loses 50% of its initial charge
PHYSICS 7
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET #6 KTG AND THER MODYNAMICS PHYSICS

1 N(< 100) molecules of a gas have velocities 1, 2, 3........ N km/s respectively. Then
(A) rms speed and average speed of molecules is same.
(B) ratio of rms speed to average speed is Ö(2N + 1)(N + 1)/6N
(C) ratio of rms speed to average speed is Ö(2N + 1)(N + 1)/6
(D) ratio of rms speed to average speed of molecules is 2 (2N + 1)

6(N + 1)
2*. Hydrogen gas and oxygen gas have volume 1cm 3 each at N.T.P.
(A) Number of molecules is same in both the gases.
(B) The rms velocity of molecules of both the gases is the same.
(C) The internal energy of each gas is the same.
(D) The average velocity of molecules of each gas is the same.
3. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:
(A) 4 R T (B) 5 R T (C) 15 R T (D) 11 R T
4. A ring shaped tube contains two ideal gases with equal masses and atomic mass numbers M 1 = 32 and M2
= 28. The gases are separated by one fixed partition P and another movable conducting partition S which
can move freely without friction inside the ring. The angle a as shown in the figure in equilibrium is:
P
7p 8p
(A) (B) M1 M2
8 7
a
15p 16p
(C) (D)
16 15 S
5. In a process the density of a gas remains constant. If the temperature is doubled, then the change in the
pressure will be:
(A) 100 % (B) 200 % (C) 50 % (D) 25 %
6. Which of the following will have maximum total kinetic energy at temperature 300 K.
(A) 1 kg, H2
(B) 1 kg , He
1 1
(C) kg H2 + kg He
2 2
1 3
(D) kg H2 + kg He
4 4
7*. Number of collisions of molecules of a gas on the wall of a container per m2 will :
(A) Increase if temperature and volume both are doubled.
(B) Increase if temperature and volume both are halved.
(C) Increase if pressure and temperature both are doubled.
(D) Increase if pressure and temperature both are halved.
PHYSICS 1
8. One mole of an ideal gas is kept enclosed under a light piston (area=10 –2 m2 ) connected by a compressed
spring (spring constant 100 N/m). The volume of gas is 0.83 m3 and its temperature is 100K. The gas is
heated so that it compresses the spring further by 0.1 m. The work done by the gas in the process is:
(Take R = 8.3 J/K-mole and suppose there is no atmosphere).
(A) 3 J (B) 6J (C) 9J (D) 1.5 J

9. Some of the thermodynamic parameters are state variables while some are process variables. Some
grouping of the parameters are given. Choose the correct one.
(A) State variables : Temperature, No. of moles
Process variables : Internal energy, work done by the gas.
(B) State variables : Volume, Temperature
Process variables : Internal energy, work done by the gas.
(C) State variables : work done by the gas, heat rejected by the gas
Process variables : Temperature, volume.
(D) State variables : Internal energy, volume
Process variables : Work done by the gas, heat absorbed by the gas.
10. Curve in the figure shows an adiabatic compression of an ideal gas from 15 m3 to 12 m3, followed by an
isothermal compression to a final volume of 3.0 m3. There are 2.0 moles of the gas. Total heat supplied to the
gas is equal to : (ln2 = 0.693) p(Pa)
400
(A) 4521 J (B) –4521 J
3
(C) –6653 J (D) –8476 J V(m )
3 12 15
11. One mole of an ideal gas at pressure P0 and temperature T0 is expanded isothermally to twice its volume V0 and
then compressed at constant pressure to (V0/2) and the gas is brought back to original state by a process in
which P a V (Pressure is directly proportional to volume). The correct representation of process is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9
12. The ratio of specific heats of a gas is , then the number of degrees of freedom of the gas molecules
7
for translational motion is:
(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) none
PHYSICS 2
13. 5 moles of Nitrogen gas are enclosed in an adiabatic cylindrical vessel. The piston itself is a rigid light
cylindrical container containing 3 moles of Helium gas. There is a heater which gives out a power 100 cal/
sec to the nitrogen gas . A power of 30 cal /sec is transferred to Helium through the bottom surface of the
piston. The rate of increment of temperature of the nitrogen gas is assuming that the piston moves slowly
He
N2
(A) 2 K/sec (B) 4 K/sec (C) 6 K/sec (D) 8 K/sec

14. A weightless piston divides a thermally insulated cylinder into two parts of volumes V and 3V. 2 moles of
an ideal gas at pressure P = 2 atmosphere are confined to the part with volume V = 1 litre. The remainder
of the cylinder is evacuated. Initially the gas is at room temperature. The piston is now released and the
gas expands to fill the entire space of the cylinder. The piston is then pressed back to the initial position.
The increase of internal energy in the process and final temperature of the gas is [The ratio of the
specific heats of the gas, g = 1.5]
(A) 300 J, 36 K (B) 300 J, 24 K (C) 300 J, 12 K (D) 400 J, 24 K
15*. A monatomic & a diatomic gas both at the N.T.P. having same no. of moles are compressed adiabatically
to half of initial volume :
(A) Increase in temp. will be more for the diatomic gas
(B) Increase in temp. will be more for the monatomic gas
(C) Increase in temp. will be same for both the gases.
(D) Increase in pressure will be more for the monatomic gas.
16. The work of 146 kJ is performed on the gas in order to compress one kilo mole of gas adiabatically and in
this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
(A) monoatomic (B) diatomic
(C) triatomic (D) a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
dN æç 3 N0 ö 2
÷ V for 0
17. For a gas sample with N0 number of molecules, function N(V) is given by : N(V) = =
dV çè V03 ÷
ø
£ V £ V0 and N(V) = 0 for V > V0. Where dN is number of molecules in speed range V to V+ dV. The
rms speed of the molecules is :
2 3
(A) V0 (B) V0 (C) 2 V0 (D) 3 V0
5 5
18. In the P-V diagram shown. The gas does 5 J of work in isothermal process a b and 4 J in adiabatic
process b c. What will be the change in internal energy of the gas in straight path c to a?
(A) 9 J (B) 1 J (C) 4 J (D) 5 J

19. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from state A to state B by three different processes, (a) ACB (b) ADB
(c) AEB as shown in the P - V diagram. The heat absorbed by the gas is:
(A) greater in process (b) then in (a)
(B) the least in process (b)
(C) the same in (a) and (c)
(D) less in (c) then in (b)
PHYSICS 3
20. In a cyclic process ABCA for an ideal gas. In AB, BC and CA process 50 J, 20 J and 5 J heat is supplied to an
ideal gas. In process AB internal energy of gas increases by 60 J and in process BC work done by gas is 30 J.
The increase in internal energy of gas in process CA is :
(A) 50 J (B) – 50 J (C) 75 J (D) 55 J
21. A thermodynamic pr ocess of one mole idea l monoatomic gas is shown in figur e. T he
efficiency of cyclic process ABCA will be :
100
(A) 25% (B) 12.5% (C) 50% (D) %
13
22. A gas undergoes an adiabatic process and an isothermal process. The two processes are plotted on a P-
V diagram. The resulting curves intersect at a point P. Tangents are drawn to the two curves at P. These
make angles of 135º & 121º with the positive V-axis. If tan 59º = 5/3, the gas is likely to be:
(A) monoatomic (B) diatomic

(C) triatomic (D) a mixture of monoatomic & diatomic gases
23. Two conducting movable smooth pistons are kept inside a non conducting, adiabatic container with initial
positions as shown. Gas is present in the three parts A, B & C having initial pressures as shown. Now the
pistons are released. Then the final equilibrium position length of part A will be
L L L L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 4 6 5
COMPREHENSION
Pragraph for Q. no. (24-26)
A monoatomic ideal gas is filled in a nonconducting container. The gas can be compressed by a movable
nonconducting piston. The gas is compressed slowly to 12.5% of its initial volume.
24. The percentage increase in the temperature of the gas is
(A) 400% (B) 300% (C) – 87.5% (D) 0%
PHYSICS 4
25. The ratio of the initial adiabatic bulk modulus of the gas to the final value of adiabatic bulk modulus of the gas is
(A) 32 (B) 1 (C) 1/32 (D) 1/4
26. The ratio of work done by the gas to the change in internal energy of the gas is
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) ¥ (D) 0
MULTIPLE CORRECT QUESTION
27. A partition divides a container having insulated walls into two compartments I and II. The same gas fills
the two compartments whose initial parameters are given. The partition is a conducting wall which can
move freely without friction. Which of the following statements is/are correct, with reference to the final
equilibrium position?
(A) The Pressure in the two compartments are equal.

3V
(B) Volume of compartment I is
5
12 V
(C) Volume of compartment II is
5
5P
(D) Final pressure in compartment I is
3
dN dN
28. Graph shows a hypothetical speed distribution for a sample of N gas particle (for V > V0; = 0, is
dV dV
rate of change of number of particles with change veloicty)
a
(A) The value of aV0 is 2N. dN

dV
(B) The ratio Vavg/V0 is equal to 2/3.
V0
(C) The ratio Vrms/V0 is equal to 1/ 2 . speed V
(D) Three fourth of the total particle has a speed between 0.5 V0 and V0.
29. An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic cycle as shown in figure.:
Which of the following graphs represents the same cycle ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30. Number of collisions per unit time of molecules of a gas on the wall of a container per m2 will :
(A) Increase if temperature and volume both are doubled.
(B) Increase if temperature and volume both are halved.
(C) Increase if pressure and temperature both are doubled.
(D) Increase if pressure and temperature both are halved.
PHYSICS 5
31. When a sample of a gas is taken from state i to state f along path ' iaf ', heat supplied to the gas is 50 cal
and work done by the gas is 20 cal. If it is taken by path ' ibf ', then heat supplied is 36 cal.
a f
Pressure
i b
volume
(A) Work done by the gas along path ibf is 6 cal

(B) If work done upon the gas is 13 cal for the return path ' fi ', then heat rejected by the gas along path
' fi ' is 43 cal.
(C) If internal energy of the gas at state i is 10 cal, then internal energy at state 'f' is 40 cal.
(D) If internal energy at state 'b' is 22 cal and at 'i' is 10 cal then heat supplied to the gas along path ' ib'
is 18 cal.
P2
32. During an experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey a condition = constant [r = density of the gas]. The gas
r
r
is initially at temperature T, pressure P and density r. The gas expands such that density changes to
2
(A) The pressure of the gas changes to 2 P..
(B) The temperature of the gas changes to 2 T..

(C) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is parabola.
(D) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is hyperbola.
33. Pick the correct statements(s) :
(A) The rms translational speed for all ideal-gases molecules at the same temperature is not the same but
it depends on the molecular weight.
1 2 3
(B) Each particle in a gas has average translational kinetic energy and the equation mv rms = kT
2 2
establishes the relationship between the average translational kinetic energy per particle and temperature
of an ideal gas. It can be concluded that single particle has a temperature.
(C) Temperature of an ideal gas is doubled from 100°C to 200°C. The average kinetic energy of each
particle is also doubled.
(D) It is possible for both the pressure and volume of a monoatomic ideal gas to change simultaneously
without causing the internal energy of the gas to change.
PHYSICS 6
34. Graphs give the temperature along an x axis that extends directly through a wall consisting of three layers with
different, nonzero and finite coefficient of thermal conductivities. The air temperature on both sides of the wall
are different and uniform. Out of the situations as shown by the graphs, which is/are impossible ?
T T
(A) (B)
x x
A B C A B C
T T
(C) (D)
x x
A B C A B C
35. A sample of gas goes from state A to state B in four different manners, as shown by the graphs. Let W be
the work done by the gas and DU be change in internal energy along the path AB. Correctly match the
graphs with the statements provided.
V
(A) A B (p) Both W and DU are positive
P
P B
(B) A (q) Both W and DU are negative

T
T A
(C) B (r) W is positive whereas DU is negative

V
V
A
(D) B (s) W is negative whereas DU is positive

P
PHYSICS 7
36. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas are contained in a vertical cylinder of cross sectional area A as shown
in the figure. The piston is frictionless and has a mass m. At a certain instant a heater starts supplying heat to the
gas at a constant rate q J/s. Find the steady velocity of the piston under isobaric condition. All the boundaries are
thermally insulated. (P is atmospheric pressure)
0
37. Three moles of an ideal gas being initially at a temperature T 0 = 273K were isothermally expanded n = 5.0
times its initial volume and then isochorically heated so that the pressure in the final state becomes equal to that
in the initial state. The total amount of heat transferred to the gas during the process equals Q = 80kJ. Find the
ratio g = Cp/Cv for this gas.
38. 20gm of He enclosed in a cylinder under a piston is transferred quasistatically (i.e. slowly) from state A at
pressure 18 atm and volume 4 lit. to state B 15.8 atm and volume 8.4 lit. as shown in the fig. (a) Draw the
process on the T-V diagram. (b) Find the maximum temperature of the gas during the process.
39. The volume of one mole of an ideal gas with the adiabatic exponent g is varied according to the law V =
a/T, where a is a constant. Find the amount of heat obtained by the gas in this process if the gas temperature
increased by DT.
PHYSICS 8
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET #7 CURRE NT ELECTRICITY PHYSICS

1 Two wires each of radius of cross section r but of different materials are connected together end to end (i.e. in
series). If the densities of charge carriers in the two wires are in the ratio 1: 4, the drift velocity of electrons in
the two wires will be in the ratio:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
2* In the figure a conductor of non-uniform cross-section is shown. A steady current I flows in it.
(A) The electric field at A is more than at B.

(B) The electric field at B is more than at A.
(C) The thermal power generated at A is more than at B in an element of small same width.
(D) The thermal power generated at B is more than at A in an element of small same width.
3 A 150 m long metal wire connects points A and B. The electric potential at point B is 50 V less than that at point
A. If the conductivity of the metal is 60 × 106 mho/m, then magnitude of the current density in the wire is equal
to :
(A) 11 × 10–4 A/m2 (B) 5.5 × 10–3 A/m2 (C) 4 × 107 A/m2 (D) 20 × 106 A/m2
4 Current flowing through a conducting wire is given by I = (1 + 2t). Where t is in seconds and current I is in
amperes. The charge (in coulombs) flown through the resistor in the interval from t = 0 to t = 1 second is -
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
5 A metal wire of uniform cross sectional area 1 mm2 has a free electron density of 6 x 1028 m–3. If the wire is
carrying 0.96 A of current, what is the drift velocity of the free electrons along the wire. (charge on electron
= 1.6x10-19 C.)
(A) 1 m/s. (B) 1 cm/s. (C) 1 mm/s. (D) 0.1 mm/s.
6 Two cylindrical rods of uniform cross-section area A and 2A, having free electrons per unit volume 2n and n
respectively are joined in series. A current I flows through them in steady state. Then the ratio of drift velocity
æv ö
of free electron in left rod to drift velocity of electron in the right rod is çç v ÷÷ is :
L
è Rø I
2n n
1
(A) (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
2
7 A uniform wire of resistance R is stretched uniformly n times & then cut to form five identical wires. These
wires are arranged as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between A & B will be:
nR R
(A) (B) 5 n 2
5
n2 R n2 R
(C) (D)
5 2
8 In the given network of four resistances, the equivalent resistance is
(A) 20 W (B) 5.4 W

(C) 12 W (D) 4.5 W
PHYSICS 1
9 The equivalent resistance between the points A and B is :
36 85
(A) W (B) 10 W (C) W (D) none of these
7 7
10 A wire has a resistance per unit length and is arranged as shown. If side of the bigger square is l then
equivalent resistance between points A and B will be
/2
A B
al
(A) (B) 2 al (C) 2 al (D) al
2
11 Two circular rings of identical radii and resistance of 36W each are placed in such a way that they cross each
others centre C1 and C2 as shown in figure. Conducting joints are made at intersection points A and B of the
rings. An ideal cell of emf 20 volts is connected across AB. The power delivered by cell is
(A) 80 watt (B) 100 watt (C) 120 watt (D) 200 watt
12 In the previous question, you are given two resistors x and y, whose resistances are to be determined, using an
ammeter of resistance RA = 0.5 W and a voltmeter of resistance RV = 20 kW. It is known that x is in range of
a few ohms and y is in range of several kilo-ohms. Which of the circuit is preferable to measure x and y ?
(A) x ® (a), y ® (b) (B) x ® (b), y ® (a) (C) x ® (a), y ® (a) (D) x ® (b), y ® (b)
13 Consider the circuit containing resistors and an ideal battery. Potential difference Va – Vb is equal to (where
points 'a' and 'b' are as shown)
11W 32V
a 10W b
20W
5W 15W
(A) – 5V (B) – 10 V (C) – 12.5 V (D) 5 V
PHYSICS 2
14 Figure shows a uniform ring of radius 1 m having resistance 1W /m. All connecting wires are resistanceless.
Find the reading of the ideal ammeter.
A 3W
3W
40
0
80
0 3V
80
0
(A) 3A (B) 1A (C) 0 (D) 1.5A

15 battery of internal resistor ' r ' and e.m.f. e is connected to a variable external resistance AB. If the sliding
contact is moved from A to B, then terminal potential difference of battery will :
(A) remain constant & is independent of value of external resistance

(B) increase continuously
(C) decrease continuously
(D) first increase and then will decrease.
16 In the given post office box, the selected resistances P and Q are 1000W and 10W respectively
when the value of R is selected as 311W then 315W then galvanometer deflects in same direction. If now
318W is selected it deflects in the opposite direction to the previous deflection.Then:
(A) the unknown resistance may lie between 3.11W and 3.15W.
(B) the unknown resistance may lie between 3.15W and 3.18W.
(C) unknown resistance is greater than 3.18W.
(D) if the deflection with 318W is also in the same direction to that of 315 W then it is sure that the unknown
resistance lies between 3.15W and 3.18W.
PHYSICS 3
17 Current in a conductor of uniform material is along +X axis. If cross sectional area of the conductor parallel to
dv
YZ plane is denoted by A (variable), the magnitude of the potential gradient versus cross sectional area A
dx
is given by
dv dv dv dv
dx dx dx dx
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A A A A
18 In the fig. the potentiometer wire AB of length L & resistance 9 r is joined to the cell D of e.m.f. e & internal
resistance r. The cell C's e.m.f. is e/2 and its internal resistance is 2 r. The galvanometer G will show no
deflection when the length AJ is:
(A) 4L/9 (B) 5L/9

(C) 7L/18 (D) 11L/18
19. The equivalent resistance of the circuit across points A and B is equal to :
A B 15 10
10 15
30 20
20 30
(A) 22.5 W (B) 25 W (C) 37.5 W (D) 75 W
Consider a battery with a large internal resistance (r ® ¥) » 10 kW. If we connect a light resistance R
E E
(R << r) across it, current will be » = constant (Independent from external resistance R)
r +R r
E
So if we put any light resistance across it, current in it would not change, and will be constant (» )
r
So a battery with a large internal resistance is equivalent to a constant current source (A source providing a
constant current)
J
A B
This concept is used in potentiometer circuit for comparing two resistances R and X, as shown in figure.
Here a battery with large internal resistance supply a cosntant current (i) to either R or X. If it is connected to
R = 10 W potential drop across it will be iR, and the balance length is found to be 58.3 cm. If it is connected to
X (unknown), Potential drop across it will be iX and the balance length is coming = 68.5 cm.
20. Estimate the unknown resistance X
(A) 11.25 (B) 11.75 (C) 12.25 (D) 12.50
PHYSICS 4
21*. If you fail to find any balanced point, as we slide the jocky along A B. What may be the reason.
(A) Resistance of potentiometer wire may be large. (B) Emf of the primary cell (V) may be very high
(C) potential drop across R or X may exceed V (D) Emf of the source (E), may be very large.
22*. In the previous question, what can we do to get the balance point
(A) Increase V
(B) Reduce E
(C) Increase the internal resistance (r) connected with E
(D) Use a longer potentiometer wire
In the circuit shown below, the internal resistance of the cell is negligible. The distance of the slider from the
left-hand end of the slide wire is l. The graph shows the variation with l of the current I in the cell.
+50
– + I
(mA) +25
6.00 V d.c. 0
0 20 40 60 80 100
100 cm l(cm)
–50
l Slider
100 cm
slider wire
R –100
I
Cell Centre zero
milliammeter –150
Graph
23. The balance point is at length l that is equal to
(A) 0 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm
24. E.M.F. of the cell is :
(A) 0.98 V (B) 1.20 V (C) 1.86 V (D) 2.00 V
25. Value of the resistance R is :
(A) 30 W (B) 35 W (C) 40 W (D) 45 W
26 The maximum current in a galvanometer can be 10 mA. It’s resistance is 10W. To convert it into an ammeter
of 1 Amp. a resistor should be connected in
(A) series, 0.1W (B) parallel, 0.1W (C) series, 100W (D) parallel, 100W.
27 In the circuit shown, cells are of equal emf E but of different internal resistances r1 = 6W and r2 = 4W .
Reading of the ideal voltmeter connected across cell 1 is zero. Value of the external resistance R in ohm is
equal to-
V
E r1
E
r2
Cell1 Cell2
(A) 2 (B) 2.4 (C) 10 (D) 24
28 In the, Ohm's law experiment to find resistance of unknown resistor R, the arrangement is as shown. The
V
resistance measured is given by R measured = , V = voltage reading of voltmeter, i = current reading of ammeter..
i
The ammeters and the voltmeter used are not ideal, and have resistances R A and RV respectively. For arrangement
shown , the measured resistance is
(A) R + RV (B) R + RA
RR V RR V
(C) R + R (D) R + R + RA
V V
PHYSICS 5
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 8 ELASTICITY, SURFACE TENSION & VISCOSITY PHYSICS
1. Four uniform wires of the same material are stretched by the same force. The dimensions of wire are as given
below. The one which has the minimum elongation has :
(A) radius 3mm, length 3m (B) radius 0.5 mm, length 0.5 m
(C) radius 2mm, length 2m (D) radius 3mm, length 2m
2. A sample of a liquid has an initial volume of 1.5 L. The volume is reduced by 0.2 mL, when the pressure
increases by 140 kPa. What is the bulk modulus of the liquid.
(A) 1.05 × 109 Pa (B) 1.1 × 109 Pa (C) 1.2 × 109 Pa (D) 1.4 × 109 Pa
3. A uniform elastic rod of cross-section area A, natural length L and Young's modulus Y is placed on a smooth
horizontal surface. Now two horizontal forces (of magnitude F and 3F) directed along the length of rod and in
opposite direction act at two of its ends as shown. After the rod has acquired steady state, the extension of the
rod will be
2F 4F F 3F
(A) L (B) L (C) L (D) L
YA YA YA 2YA
4. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA and YB are
the Young's modulii of the materials, then
(A) YB = 2YA (B) YA = YB

(C) YB = 3YA (D) YA = 3YB
5. The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when
the same tension is applied
(A) length 50 cm and diameter 0.5 mm (B) length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm
(C) length 200 cm and diameter 2 mm (D) length 300 cm and diameter 3 mm
6. A cubical block of side ' a ' and density ' r ' slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant velocity ' v ' . There
is a thin film of viscous fluid of thickness ' t ' between the plane and the block . Then the coefficient of viscosity
of the thin film will be : (Acceleration due to gravity is g)
r a g t sin q r a g t 2 sin q v
(A) h = (B) (C) r a g t sin q (D) none of these
v v
7. The elongation in a metallic rod hinged at one end and rotating in a horizontal plane becomes four times of the
initial value. The angular velocity of rotation becomes :
(A) two times the initial value (B) half of initial value
(C) one third of initial value (D) four times the initial value.
PHYSICS 1
8. A sphere of mass m and radius r is projected in a gravity free space with speed v. If coefficient of viscosity of
1
the medium in which it moves is , the distance travelled by the body before it stops is :
6p
mv 2 mv mv mv
(A) 2 r (B) (C) (D) 4 r
r r
9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards at time t = 0. Air resistance is not negligible and the acceleration of free fall
is g. The ball reaches a maximum height at time t = T and the descends, reaching terminal speed. Which graph
best shows the variation with time t of the acceleration a of the ball
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10. Two uniform solid balls of same density and of radii r and 2r are dropped in air and fall vertically downwards.
The terminal velocity of the ball with radius r is 1 cm s–1, then the terminal velocity of the ball of radius 2r will
be (neglect bouyant force on the balls.)
(A) 0.5 cm s–1 (B) 4 cm s–1 (C) 1 cm s–1 (D) 2 cm s–1
11. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm falling vertically downwards in air has a terminal velocity of 1m/s. The viscosity
of air is 18 × 10–5 poise. The viscous force on the drop is -
(A) 101.73 × 10–4 dyne (B) 101.73 × 10–5 dyne (C) 16.95 × 10–5 dyne (D) 16.95 × 10–4 dyne
12. The figure shows a soap film in which a closed elastic thread is lying. The film inside the thread is pricked. Now
the sliding wire is moved out so that the surface area increases. The radius circle of the circle formed by elastic
thread will
(A) increase (B) decrease
(C) remains same (D) data insufficient

13. An isolated and charged spherical soap bubble has a radius ‘ r ‘ and the pressure inside is atmospheric. If ‘ T ‘
is the surface tension of soap solution, then charge on drop is:
2rT 2rT
(A) 2 (B) 8 p r 2rT e0 (C) 8 p r rT e0 (D) 8 p r
e0 e0
14. Water is filled upto height H units in a tank placed on the ground and whose side walls are vertical. A hole is
made in one of the vertical wall such that the emerging stream of water strikes the ground at the maximum
range. If the level in the tank is changing at the rate of R units per second at that instant the rate at which range
will be changing will be:
R
(A) units per second (B) R units per second (C) 2R units per second (D) Zero
2
15. An empty container has a circular hole of radius r at its bottom. The container is pushed into
water very slowly as shown. To what depth the lower surface of container (from surface of
water) can be pushed into water such that water does not flow into the container ?
(Surface tension of water = T, density of water = r)

2T 4T T T
(A) r g r (B) r g r (C) r gr (D) 2r g r
Water
PHYSICS 2
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 9 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM PHYSICS
1. A charge particle A of charge q = 2 C has velocity v = 100 m/s . When it passes through point A & has velocity
in the direction shown . The strength of magnetic field at point B due to this moving charge is (r = 2 m)
:
(A) 2.5 m T (B) 5.0 m T (C) 2.0 m T (D) none of these

2. Two observers moving with different velocities see that a point charge produces same magnetic field at the
same point
r r
A . Their relative velocity must be parallel to r , where r is the position vector of point A with respect to point
charge. This statement is :
(A) true (B) false
(C) nothing can be said (D) true only if the charge is moving perpendicular to the r
3.* An electron makes a transition from n = 2 to n = 1 state in a hydrogen like atom.
(A) magnetic field at the site of nucleus is decreased by 16 times.
(B) magnetic field at the site of nucleus is increased by 32 times
(C) angular momentum of electron is changed
(D) none of these
4. A uniformly charged ring of radius R is rotated about its axis with constant linear speed v of each of its
particles. The ratio of electric field to magnetic field at a point P on the axis of the ring distant x = R from centre
of ring is (c is speed of light)
c2 v2 c v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
v c v c
5. In the figure shown A B C D E F A is a square loop of side l , but is folded in two equal parts so that half of it
lies in x z plane and the other half lies in the y z plane. The origin ' O ' is centre of the frame also. The loop
carries current ' i '. The magnetic field at the centre is:
(A)
m0 i
2 2 pl
(î - ĵ) (B)
m0 i
4pl
(
- î + ˆj )
(C)
2 m0 i
pl
( )
î + ĵ (D)
m0 i
2 pl
(î + ĵ)
PHYSICS 1
6.* A small current element of length ‘ d l ’ and carrying current is placed at (1, 1, 0) and is carrying current in ‘ +
r r
z ’ direction. If magnetic field at origin be B1 and at point (2, 2, 0) be B 2 then:
r r r r r r r r
(A) | B1 | =|B 2 | (B) B1 = - B2 (C) | B1 | = | 2B2 | (D) B1 = - 2 B2
7. A long straight wire, carrying current I, is bent at its midpoint to form an angle of 45º. Magnetic field at point P,
distance R from point of bending is equal to :
( 2 - 1) µ0 I ( 2 + 1) µ0 I ( 2 + 1) µ0I ( 2 - 1) µ0 I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4pR 4 pR 4 2pR 2 2pR
8. The magnetic lines of force due to a straight current carrying wire will be:
(A) circular for finite length of wire (B) circular for semi-infinite wire
(C) circular for infinite wire (D) all of the above
9. A current carrying wire is placed in the grooves of an insulating semi circular disc of radius 'R', as shown. The
current enters at point A and leaves from point B. Determine the magnetic field at point D.
A
i
i
30°
30°
C D
R
m0 I m0 I 3 m0 I
8p R 3 4p R 3 4p R
10. Consider a non conducting ring of radius ' r ' and mass ' m ', which has a total charge ' q ' distributed uniformly
on it. The ring is rotated about an axis passing through its centre and parallel to the plane of ring with an angular
speed w. Then the magnetic moment of the ring is given by:
qwr 2
(A) (B) q w r2 (C) 2 q w r2 (D) none of these
4
11. A non-planar circular loop consists of two semi-circles one of which lies in yz-plane & the other is in xz-plane
as shown. The magnetic force experienced by positive charge of value Q moving with velocity v along x
direction when it is at the origin is:
Qvm 0 I Qvm 0 I Qvm 0 I

(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
4R 2R 2 2R
PHYSICS 2
12. The radius of a coil of wire with N turns is 0.22 m, and 3.5 A current flows clockwise in the coil as shown. A
long straight wire carrying a current 54A toward the left is located 0.05 m from the edge of the coil. The
magnetic field at the centre of the coil is zero tesla. The number of turns N in the coil are :
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

13. A current carrying wire AB of the length L is turned along a circle, as shown in figure. The magnetic field at the
centre O.
2
m0 pi æ 2p - q ö m 0 p i æ 2p - q ö m0pi m0pi
(A) ç ÷ (B) ç ÷ (C) (2p – q) (D) (2p + q)2
L è 2p ø L è 2p ø L L
14. A coaxial cable is made up of two conductors. The inner conductor is solid and is of radius R 1 & the outer
conductor is hollow of inner radius R2 and outer radius R3. The space between the conductors is filled with air.
The inner and outer conductors are carrying currents of equal magnitudes and in opposite directions. Then the
variation of magnetic field with distance from the axis is best plotted as:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PHYSICS 3
15* From a cylinder of radius R, a cylinder of radius R/2 is removed, as shown. Current flowing in the remaining
cylinder is I. Magnetic field strength is :
(A) zero at point A (B) zero at point B

m0I m0I
(C) at point A (D) at point B
3 pR 3pR
16 Axis of a solid cylinder of infinite length and radius R lies along y-axis it carries a uniformly
æR Rö
distributed current ‘ i ’ along +y direction. Magnetic field at a point ç , y, ÷ is :
è2 2ø
m0I m 0i m 0i m0I
(A) ( î - k̂ ) (B) ( ĵ - k̂ ) (C) ĵ (D) ( î + k̂ )
4pR 2pR 4pR 4pR
17* Two coaxial long solenoids of equal lengths have current, i1, i2, number of turns per unit length n1, n2 and radius
r1, r2 respectively. If n1i1 = n2i2 and the two solenoids carry current in opposite sense, the magnetic energy
stored per until length is [r 2 > r1]
m0 2 2 m0 2 2 2 m0 2 2 2
(A) n1 i1 p(r22 – r12) (B) m 0 n12 i12 p (r22 - r12 ) (C) n1 i1 p r1 (D) n 2 i 2 p r2
2 2 2
18 Two large conducting planes carrying current perpendicular to x-axis are placed at (d, 0) and (2d, 0) as shown
in figure. Current per unit width in both the planes is same and current is flowing in the outward direction. The
variation of magnetic induction (taken as positive if it is in positive y-direction) as function of ‘x’ (0 < x < 3d) is
best represented by :
y
x
d d d
z
B B B B
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d 2d 3d d 2d 3d 2d 2d 3d d 2d 3d
x x x x
19 A uniform circular loop of radius a and resistance R is pulled at a constant velocity v out of a region of uniform
r
magnetic field whose magnitude is B. The plane of loop and the velocity are both perpendicular to B . Then the
electrical power in the circular loop at the instant when the arc (of circular loop) outside the region of magnetic
p
field subtends an angle at centre of the loop is :
3
B2a2 v 2 2B 2a 2 v 2
(A) (B)
R R
B2a2 v 2
(C) (D) None of these
2R
PHYSICS 4
20* A charge of magnitude 1µC and mass 1mg is attached to one end of a light string of length
2 m whose other end is fixed. The charge is given a velocity 1m/s. There is a magnetic field of 1T perpendicular
to the plane of revolution of charge. The tension in string at that moment will be : (Neglect gravity)
(A) 5 × 10–7 N (B) 15 × 10–7 N (C) 10–6 N (D) zero
21 A particle of positive charge q and mass m enters with velocity V ĵ at the origin in a magnetic field B ( - k̂ )
which is present in the whole space. The charge makes a perfectly inelastic collision with identical particle at
rest but free to move at its maximum y-coordinate. After collision the combined charge will move on trajectory
mV
: (where r = )
qB
mv
(A) y = ( - î ) (B) (x + r)2 + (y – r/2)2 = r2/4
qB
(C) (x – r)2 + (y – r)2 = r2 (D) (x – r)2 + (y + r/2)2 = r2/4
22 A uniform magnetic field of magnitude 1 T exists in region y ³ 0 is along k̂ direction as shown. A particle of
charge 1 C is projected from point (- 3 , - 1) towards origin with speed 1 m/sec. If mass of particle is 1 kg,
then co-ordinates of centre of circle in which particle moves are:
æ1 3ö æ 3 1 ö
(A) (1 , 3 ) (B) (1 , - 3 ) (C) çç 2 , - 2 ÷÷ (D) çç 2 , - 2 ÷÷
è ø è ø
23 A uniform magnetic field exists in region which forms an equilateral triangle of side a. The magnetic field is
perpendicular to the plane of the triangle. A charge q enters into this magnetic field perpendicularly with speed
v along perpendicular bisector of one side and comes out along perpendicular bisector of other side. The
magnetic induction in the triangle is
mv 2mv mv mv
(A) (B) (C) (D)
qa qa 2qa 4qa
24 A spring of spring constant ‘K’ is fixed at one end has a small block of mass m and charge q is attached at the
other end. The block rests over a smooth horizontal surface. A uniform and constant magnetic field B exists
r
normal to the plane of paper as shown in figure. An electric field E = E0 î (E0 is a positive constant) is switched
on at t = 0 sec. The block moves on horizontal surface without ever lifting off the surface. Then the normal
reaction acting on the block is :
(A) Maximum at extreme position and minimum at mean position.

(B) Maximum at mean position and minimum at extreme position.
(C) Is uniform throughout the motion.
(D) Is both maximum and minimum at mean position.
25 A charged particle is released from rest in a region where there is a uniform and constant electric field; and a
uniform and constant magnetic field. If the two fields are parallel to each other, the path of the particle is
(A) circle (B) helix (C) cycloid (D) straight line
PHYSICS 5
26 A ring of mass m, radius r having charge q uniformly distributed over it and free to rotate about its own axis is
placed in a region having a magnetic field B parallel to its axis. If the magnetic field is suddenly switched off,
the angular velocity acquired by the ring is
qB 2qB qB
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
m m 2m
27 There exists a uniform magnetic and electric field of magnitude 1 T and 1 V/m respectively along positive y-
axis. A charged particle of mass 1 kg and of charge 1 C is having velocity 1 m/sec along x-axis and is at origin
at t = 0. Then the co-ordinates of particle at time p seconds will be:
(A) (0, 1, 2) (B) (0, - p2/2, - 2) (C) (2, p2/2, 2) (D) (0, p2/2, 2)
28 A uniform magnetic field of 1.5 T exists in a cylindrical region of radius 10.0 cm, it’s direction being parallel to
the axis along east to west. A current carrying wire in north south direction passes through this region. The wire
intersects the axis and experience a force of 1.2 N downward. If the wire is turned from North South to north
east–south west direction, then magnitude and direction of the magnetic force is :
1.2
(A) 1.2 N, upward (B) 1.2 2 downward (C) 1.2 N, downward (D) N, downward
2
r r r
29 A magnetic dipole M = ( A î + B ĵ) J/Wb is placed in magnetic field. B = (Cx 2 î + Dy 2 ĵ) Wb in XY plane at r =
(E î + F ĵ ) m. Then force experienced by the bar magnet is :
(A) 2 A CE î + 2BDF ĵ (N) (B) 2ACE î (N)

(C) 0 (D) ACE î + BDF ĵ (N)
30 A circular coil of radius R and a current I, which can rotate about a fixed axis passing through its diameter is
initially placed such that its plane lies along magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of loop when it rotates through an
angle 90° is : (Assume that I remains constant)
pR 2BI 3
(A) pR2 BI (B) (C) 2pR2BI (D) pR 2 I
2 2
Curves in the graph shown give, as functions of radial distance r (from the axis), the magnitude B of the
magnetic field (due to individual wire) inside and outside four long wires a, b, c and d, carrying currents that are
uniformly distributed across the cross sections of the wires. Overlapping portions of the plots are indicated by
double labels. All curves start from the origin.
B
a
b
a,b c a,c
b,d
c,d
r
31. Which wire has the greatest radius ?

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
32. Which wire has the greatest magnitude of the magnetic field on the surface ?
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
33. The current density in wire a is
(A) greater than in wire c.
(B) less than in wire c.
(C) equl to that in wire c.
(D) not comparable to that of in wire c due to lack of information.
PHYSICS 6
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 10 RATATIONAL MOTION PHYSICS
1. A uniform thin rod is bent in the form of closed loop ABCDEFA as shown in the figure. The ratio of moment of
inertia of the loop about x-axis to that about y-axis is.
(A) > 1 (B) < 1 (C) = 1 (D) = 1/2

2. A disc is hinged in a vertical plane about a point on its radius. What will be the distance of the hinge from the
disc centre so that the period of its small oscillations under gravity is minimum?
R R R
(A) R (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4
3. Moment of inertia of a uniform quarter disc of radius R and mass M about an axis through its centre of mass
and perpendicular to its plane is :
2 2 2 2
M R2 æ 4R ö M R2 æ 4R ö M R2 æ 4R ö M R2 æ 4R ö
(A) -M çç ÷÷ (B) -M çç 2 ÷÷ (C) + M çç ÷÷ (D) +M çç 2 ÷
2 è 3p ø 2 è 3p ø 2 è 3p ø 2 è 3 p ÷ø
4. A uniform rod hinged at its one end is allowed to rotate in vertical plane. Rod is given an angular velocity w in
its vertical position as shown in figure. The value of w for which the force exerted by the hinge on rod is zero
in this position is :
g 2g g 3g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L 2L L
5. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is released from the shown position. PQ is a string, OP is a horizontal
line, O is the centre of the disc and distance OP is R/2. Then tension in the string just after the disc is released
will be :
Mg Mg 2Mg
2 3 3
PHYSICS 1
6. A disc of radius R has a light pole fixed perpendicular to the disc at the circumference which in turn has a
pendulum of length R attached to its other end as shown in figure. The disc is rotated with a constant angular
velocity w. The string is making an angle 300 with the rod. The angular velocity w of the disc is:
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
æ 3gö æ 3gö æ g ö æ 2g ö
(A) çç ÷
÷ (B) çç ÷
÷ (C) çç ÷
÷ (D) çç ÷
÷
è R ø è 2 R ø è 3 R ø è 3 3 R ø
7. A disc of mass ‘m’ and radius R is free to rotate in horizontal plane about a vertical smooth fixed axis
passing through its centre. There is a smooth groove along the diameter of the disc and two small balls
m
of mass each are placed in it on either side of the centre of the disc as shown in fig. The disc is given
2
initial angular velocity w0 and released. The angular speed of the disc when the balls reach the end of
disc is :
w0 w0 2w0 w0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 4
8. Mass m is connected with an ideal spring of natural length l whose other end is fixed on a smooth horizontal
table. Initially spring is in its natural length l. Mass m is given a velocity ‘v’ perpendicular to the spring and
released. The velocity perpendicular to the spring when its length is l + x, will be
2 vl 2v 2 l
(A) (B)
l+x l+x
vl
(C) (D) zero
l+x
r
9. At time t = 0 , a 2 kg particle has position vector r = (4i – 2j) m relative to the origin. Its velocity is given by
r )
v = 2t 2 i (m / s) for t ³ 0 . The torque acting on the particle about the origin at t = 2s , is
(A) 32 N-m ( K̂ ) (B) 16 N-m ( K̂ ) (C) 16 N-m ( K̂ ) (D) 12 N-m ( K̂ )

10*. A particle falls freely near the surface of the earth. Consider a fixed point O (not vertically below the particle)
on the ground. Then pickup the correct alternative or alternatives.
(A) Angular momentum of the particle about O is increasing.
(B) Torque of the gravitational force on the particle about O is decreasing.
(C) The moment of inertia of the particle about O is decreasing.
(D) The angular velocity of the particle about O is increasing.
PHYSICS 2
11. A smooth tube of certain mass is rotated in gravity free space and released. The two balls shown in the figure
move towards ends of the tube. For the whole system which of the following quantity is not conserved.
(A) Angular momentum (B) Linear momentum (C) Kinetic energy (D) Angular speed
12. A uniform rod of mass m and length L lies radially on a disc rotating with angular speed w in a horizontal plane
about its axis. The rod does not slip on the disc and the centre of the rod is at a distance R from the centre of
the disc. Then the kinetic energy of the rod is :
1 æ 2 L2 ö 1 1
çR + ÷
(A) mw2 ç 12 ÷ (B) mw2 R2 (C) mw2 L2 (D) None of these
2 è ø 2 24
13. A uniform smooth rod is placed on a smooth horizontal floor is hit by a particle moving on the floor, at a distance
l
4
from one end. Then the distance travelled by the centre of the rod after the collision when it has completed
three revolution will be:
[ e ¹ 0 & ' l ' is the length of the rod ]
(A) 2pl (B) can't be determined (C) pl (D) none of these
14. A thin uniform rod of mass M and length L is hinged vertically above frictionless pivot point O, as shown in
figure and then allowed to fall to the ground. With what speed does the free end of the rod strike the ground ?
1
(A) gL (B) gL
3
(C) 3gL (D) 2gL
15*. A rod AC of length l and mass m is kept on a horizontal smooth plane. It is free to rotate and move. A particle
of same mass m moving on the plane with velocity v strikes rod at point B making angle 370 with the rod. The
collision is elastic. After collision :
72 v
(A) The angular velocity of the rod will be B l/4
55 l
A 37° C
pl V
(B) The centre of the rod will travel a distance
3
in the time in which it makes half rotation
24 mV
(C) Impulse of the impact force is
55
(D) None of these
PHYSICS 3
16. When a person throws a meter stick it is found that the centre of the stick is moving with speed 10 m/s and left
end of stick with speed 20 m/s. Both points move vertically upwards at that moment. Then angular speed of the
stick is:
(A) 20 rad/ sec (B) 10 rad/sec (C) 30 rad/sec (D) none of these
17. A uniform triangular plate ABC of moment of inertia I (about an axis passing through A and perpendicular to
plane of the plate) can rotate freely in the vertical plane about point 'A' as shown in figure. The plate is released
from the position shown in the figure. Line AB is horizontal. The acceleration of centre of mass just after the
release of plate is
mg a 2 mg a 2
(A) (B)
3I 4I
mg a 2 mg a 2
(C) (D) 3 I
2 3I
18. Thread is tightly wound over a cylinder of mass M which lies on smooth horizontal surface as shown. Free end
of thread is pulled by horizontal force F as shown. Then acceleration of centre of cylinder at the shown instant
is
F F
(A) 2 M (B)
M
3F 2F
(C) 2 M (D)
M
19. A small solid sphere of mass m is released from a point A at a height h above the bottom of a rough track as
shown in the figure. If the sphere rolls down the track without slipping, its rotational kinetic energy when it
comes to the bottom of track is
10
(A) mgh (B) mgh
7
5 2
(C) mgh (D) mgh
7 7
20. The string of a step rolling wheel is pulled by applying force F with different lines of action in two
situations as shown. The wheel starts rolling without slipping due to application of the force.
(A) The wheel rolls to the right in situation I and to the left in situation II.
(B) The wheel rolls to the left in situation I and to the right in situation II
(C) The wheel rolls to the right in both situations.
(D) The wheel rolls to the left in both situations.
21. A man pulls a solid cylinder (initially at rest) horizontally by a massless string as shown. The string is wrapped
on the cylinder and the cylinder performs pure rolling( that is, rolling without slipping) . Mass of the cylinder is
100 kg, radius is p metre & tension in string is 100 N. Then the angular speed of the cylinder after one
revolution will be :
4 4
(A) 4 rad /sec (B) rad/ sec (C) rad/ sec (D) none of these
3 3
PHYSICS 4
22. A uniform ball of mass ‘m’ rolls without sliding on a fixed horizontal surface. The velocity of the lowest point of
the ball with respect to the centre of the ball is V. The total kinetic energy of the ball is :
7 1 4
(A) mv2 (B) mv2 (C) mv2 (D) mv2
10 5 3
23. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a disc, all having same mass and radius, are placed at the top of an incline
and released. The friction coefficients between the objects and the incline are same and not sufficient to allow
pure rolling. Least time will be taken in reaching the bottom by
(A) the solid sphere (B) the hollow sphere (C) the disc (D) all will take same time.
24. A uniform ring of mass m and radius a rolls down an inclined plane of inclination q starting from rest without
slipping. When the centre of the ring as travelled a distance l along the inclined plane, its angular momentum
about its centre of mass is
1
(A) mgl cosq (B) ma gl sin q (C) ma gl sin q (D) ma 2gl sin q
2
25. A ball is rolling without slipping in a spiral path down the inner surface of a hollow fixed cone whose axis is
vertical. The work done by the inner surface of the cone on the ball is
(A) positive (B) zero

(C) negative (D) Impossible to determine
26. A solid homogeneous cylinder of height h and base radius r is kept vertically on a conveyer belt moving
horizontally with an increasing velocity v = a + bt2. If the cylinder is not allowed to slip then the time when the
cylinder is about to topple, will be equal to
rg 2 rg 2 bg rg
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2 bh
bh bh rh
27. An equilateral prism of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction m. A horizontal
force F is applied on the prism as shown in the figure. If the coefficient of friction is sufficiently high so that the
prism does not slide before toppling, then the minimum force required to topple the prism is :
mg mg
(A) (B)
3 4
mmg mmg
(C) (D)
3 4
28. A ring of mass m and radius R rolls on a horizontal rough surface without slipping due to an applied force ‘F’.
The friction force acting on ring is : –
F 2F F
(A) (B) (C) (D) Zero
3 3 4
PHYSICS 5
29. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is rotating about its centre of mass (the centre of mass is at rest) with
an angular speed w. The angular momentum of disc about a point A (as shown) will be
1 1
(A) MR2w + MhR w (B) MR2w (C) MR2w + MhR w (D) None of these
2 2
30. A massless rod of length 2R can rotate about a vertical axis through its center as shown in the diagram. The
system rotates at an angular velocity w when the two masses m are a distance R from the axis (The masses
can move only along the rod). The masses are simultaneously pulled to a distance of R/2 from the axis by a
force directed along the rod. What is the new angular velocity of the system ?
(A) w/4 (B) w/2 (C) 2w (D) 4w
PHYSICS 6
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 11 MODERN PHYSICS PHYSICS

1 The angular momentum of an electron in first orbit of Li++ ion is :
3h 9h h h
(A) 2 p (B) 2 p (C) 2 p (D) 6 p
2 Two hydrogen atoms are in excited state with electrons residing in n = 2. First one is moving towards left and
emits a photon of energy E1 towards right. Second one is moving towards left with same speed and emits a
photon of energy E2 towards left. Taking recoil of nucleus into account during emission process
(A) E1 > E2 (B) E1 < E2 (C) E1 = E2 (D) None
3 A hydrogen atom is initially at rest and free to move is in the second excited state. It comes to ground
state by emitting a photon, then the momentum of hydrogen atom will be approximately : (in kg–m/s)
(A) 12.1 × 0 –27 (B) 6.45 × 10–27 (C) 3 × 10–27 (D) 1.5 × 0–27
4 If the short wavelength limit of the continuous spectrum coming out of a coolidge tube is 10 Å, then the
debroglie wavelength of the electrons reaching the target metal in the coolidge tube is approximately :
(A) 0.3 Å (B) 3 Å (C) 30 Å (D) 10 Å
5 A monochromatic radiation of wavelength l is incident on a sample containing He+. As a result the
Helium sample starts radiating. A part of this radiation is allowed to pass through a sample of atomic
hydrogen gas in ground state. It is noticed that the hydrogen sample has started emitting electrons whose
maximum Kinetic Energy is 37.4 eV. (hc = 12400 eV Å) Then l is -
(A) 275 Å (B) 243 Å (C) 656 Å (D) 386 Å
6 Consider atoms H, He+, Li++ in their ground states. If L1, L2 and L3 are magnitude of angular momentum
of their electrons about the nucleus respectively then :
(A) L1= L2 = L3 (B) L1 > L2 > L3 (C) L 1< L2 < L3 (D) L1 = L2 = L3
7 Electrons in a sample of gas containing hydrogen like atom (Z=3) are in fourth excited state. When
photons emitted only due to transition from third excited state to second excited state are incident on a
metal plate photoelectrons are ejected. The stopping potential for these photoelectrons is 3.95 eV. Now, if
only photons emitted due to transition from fourth excited state to third excited state are incident on the
same metal plate, the stopping potential for the emitted photoelectrons will be approximately equal to
(A) 0.85 eV (B) 0.75 eV (C) 0.65 eV (D) None of these
8 In an x - ray tube, if the accelerating potential difference is changed, then:
(A) the frequency of characteristic x - rays of a material will get changed
(B) number of electrons emitted will change
(C) the difference between l0 (minimum wavelength) and lka (wavelength of ka x - ray) will get changed
(D) difference between lka and lkb will get changed.
9 The voltage applied to an X-ray tube is 18 kV. The maximum mass of photon emitted by the X-ray tube will be:
(A) 2 × 10–13 kg (B) 3.2 × 10–36 kg (C) 3.2 × 10–32 kg (D) 9.1 × 10–31 kg
PHYSICS 1
10 The element which has a ka x-rays line of wavelength 1.8 Å is
(R = 1.1 × 10 7 m–1, b = 1 and 5 / 33 = 0.39)
(A) Co, Z = 27 (B) Iron, Z = 26 (C) Mn, z = 25 (D) Ni, z = 28

11 A beam of electrons striking a copper target produces X-rays.Its spectrum is as shown. Keeping the voltage
same if the copper target is replaced with a different metal, the cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines of
the new spectrum will change in comparision with old as :
(A) Cut-off wavelength will remain unchanged while characteristic lines will be different.
(B) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines will remain unchanged.
(C) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines will be different.
(D) Cut-off wavelength will be different while characteristic lines will remain unchanged.
12 When a metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength l, the stopping potential is
5 V0 . When the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 3l, the stopping potential is V0 . Then
the work function of the metallic surface is :
hc hc hc 2 hc
(A) 6 l (B) 5 l (C) 4 l (D) 4 l
13 In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength l, the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
3l
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will become
4
3 4
(A) v (B) v
4 3
3 4
(C) less than v (D) greater than v
4 3
14 In the photoelectric experiment, if we use a monochromatic light, the I - V curve is as shown. If work
function of the metal is 2eV, estimate the power of light used. (Assume efficiency of photo emission = 10 –
3
%, i.e. number of photoelectrons emitted are 10 –3 % of number of photons incident on metal.)
10µA
V
–5Volt
(A) 2 W (B) 5 W (C) 7 W (D) 10 W
PHYSICS 2
15 A parallel beam of light of intensity I and cross section area S is incident on a plate at normal incidence. The
photoelectric emission efficiency is 100%, the frequency of beam is n and the work function of the plate is j (hn
> j). Assuming all the electrons are ejected normal to the plane and with same maximum possible speed. The
net force exerted on the plate only due to striking of photons and subsequent emission of electrons is
IS æ 2h ö 2IS æ h ö
(A) hn ç l + 2m(hn - f ) ÷ (B) hn ç l + 2m(hn - f) ÷
è ø è ø
IS æ h ö 2IS æ h ö
(C) hn ç l + 2m(hn - f) ÷ (D) hn ç l + m(hn - f) ÷
è ø è ø
16 In an a-decay the Kinetic energy of a particle is 48 MeV and Q-value of the reaction is 50 MeV. The mass
number of the mother nucleus is:- (Assume that daughter nucleus is in ground state)
(A) 96 (B) 100 (C) 104 (D) none of these
17 A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments of mass number 80 and
120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 M eV and for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV
respectively, then the energy released in the decay will be:
(A) 200 MeV (B) - 220 MeV (C) 220 MeV (D) 180 MeV
18 The binding energies of the atom of elements A & B are Ea & Eb respectively. Three atoms of the element B
fuse to give one atom of element A. This fusion process is accompained by release of energy e. Then Ea, Eb are
related to each other as
(A) Ea+ e = 3Eb (B) Ea = 3Eb (C) Ea - e = 3Eb (D) Ea + 3Eb + e = 0
3
19. The radii of nuclei of two atoms are in ratio . Assuming them to be Hydrogen like atom, the ratio of
2
their orbital radius for K shell will be (assume no. of proton = No. of neutron for each atom)
27 8 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
8 27 9
20 The radionuclide 238U decays by emitting an alpha particle.

238 U ® 234 Th + 4He
The atomic masses of the three isotopes are.
238 U 238.05079 amu
234 U 234.04363 amu
4 He 4.00260 amu
What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted alpha particle. Express your answer in Joule.
(1 amu = 1.67 × 10–27 kg)
(A) 6.8 × 10–14 J (B) 6.8 × 10–13 J (C) 4.3 × 10–14 J (D) 4.3 × 10–13 J
21 The rate of disintegration of a radioactive substance falls from 800 decay/min to 100 decay/min in 6
hours. The half-life of the radioactive substance is :
(A) 6/7 hour (B) 2 hrs. (C) 3 hrs (D) 1 hr.
22 An unknown stable nuclide after absorbing a neutron emits an electron, and the new nuclide splits
spontaneously into two alpha particles. The unknown nuclide is :
(A) 4Be9 (B) 3Li7 (C) 2He4 (D) 5B10
PHYSICS 3
23 In which of the following process the number of protons in the nucleus increases .
(A) a - decay (B) b - - decay (C) b + - decay (D) k - capture
24 In which of the following case the total number of decays will be maximum in a time interval of t = 0 to t
= 4 hr. The first term represents the number of nuclei at time t = 0 and the second represents the half life
of the radionuclide.
(A) N0 , 4 hr (B) 2 N0 , 3 hr (C) 3 N0 , 2hr (D) 4 N0 , 1 hr
COMPREHENSION (Q.25 TO Q. 27)
Gold Nucleus (79 Au198 ) can decay into mercury nucleus (80 Hg198 ) by two decay schemes shown in figure.
(i) It can emit a b particle (b 1 ) and come to ground state by either emitting one g ray(g1 ) or emitting two g
rays (g3 & g2 )
(ii) It can emit one b particle (b 2 ) and come to ground state by emitting g 2 ray. Atomic masses :
198
Au = 197.9682 amu, 198 Hg = 197.9662 amu, 1 amu = 930 MeV/c2 . The energy levels of the nucleus are
shown in figure.
198
79 Au
b1-
E3= –1 MeV Second excited state
b -2
g1 g3
E2= –1.6 MeV Frist excited state
g2
E1= –2 MeV
Ground state
198
80 Hg
25. What is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted b 2 particles

(A) 1.44 MeV (B) 0.59 MeV (C) 1.86 MeV (D) 1.46 MeV
26. What is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted b 1 particle is -
(A) 1.28 MeV (B) 0.77 MeV (C) 1.86 MeV (D) 0.86 MeV
27. The wave length of emitted g rays are in the order -
(A) l g 2 > l g 3 > l g1 (B) l g 3 > l g 2 > l g1 (C) l g1 > l g 2 > l g 3 (D) l g 3 = l g 2 = l g1
PHYSICS 4

An experimental setup of verification of photoelectric effect is shown in the diagram. The voltage across
the electrodes is measured with the help of an ideal voltmeter, and which can be varied by moving jockey
‘J’ on the potentiometer wire. The battery used in potentiometer circuit is of 20 V and its internal resistance
is 2W. The resistance of 100 cm long potentiometer wire is 8W.
The photocurrent is measured with the help of an ideal ammeter. Two plates of potassium oxide of area
50 cm2 at separation 0.5 mm are used in the vacuum tube. Photo current in the circuit is very small so we
can treat potentiometer circuit an independent circuit.
The wavelengths of various colours is as follows :
28. The number of electrons appeared on the surface of the cathode plate, when the jockey is connected at
the end ‘P’ of the potentiometer wire. Assume that no radiation is falling on the plates.
(A) 8.85 × 106 (B) 11.0625 × 10 9 (C) 8.85 × 10 9 (D) 0
29. When radiation falls on the cathode plate a current of 2mA is recorded in the ammeter. Assuming that the
vacuum tube setup follows ohm’s law, the equivalent resistance of vacuum tube operating in this case
when jockey is at end P.
(A) 8 × 108 W (B) 16 × 106 W (C) 8 × 106 W (D) 10 × 106 W
30. It is found that ammeter current remains unchanged (2mA) even when the jockey is moved from the end
‘P’ to the middle point of the potentiometer wire. Assuming all the incident photons eject electron and the
power of the light incident is 4 × 10 –6 W. Then the colour of the incident light is
(A) Green (B) Violet (C) Red (D) Orange
31. Which of the following colour may not give photoelectric effect from this cathode :
(A) Green (B) Violet (C) Red (D) Orange
32. When other light falls on the anode plate the ammeter reading remains zero till, jockey is moved from the
end P to the middle point of the wire PQ. Thereafter the deflection is recorded in the ammeter. The
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is
(A) 16 eV (B) 8 eV (C) 4 eV (D) 10 eV
PHYSICS 5
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 12 ELECTRO MAGNETIC INDUCTION & AC PHYSICS
1 In the figure shown section CDEF is fixed in the vertical plane. CD & EF are smooth and resistanceless. A rod
GH of mass ' m ' can move vertically up with initial velocity 'u' without losing contact with the fixed arrangement.
There is a uniform magnetic field B in the horizontal direction. The total heat produced by the time it goes to
highest point in the circuit will be :
1 1
(A) m u2 (B) greater than m u2
2 2
1
(C) less than m u2 (D) zero
2
2 The frequency of oscillation of current in the inductor is :
1 1
(A) (B)
3 LC 6p LC
1 1
(C) (D)
LC 2p LC
3 In series L C R circuit voltage drop across resistance is 8 volt, across inductor is 6 volt and across capacitor
is 12 volt. Then:
(A) voltage of the source will be leading current in the circuit
(B) voltage drop across each element will be less than the applied voltage
(C) power factor of circuit will be 4/3
(D) none of these
4 In the given LC circuit if initially capacitor C has charge Q on it and 2C has charge 2Q. Then after closing switch
S at t = 0
(A) energy will get equally distributed in both the capacitor

(B) initial rate of growth of current in inductor will be 2Q/3CL
(C) maximum energy in the inductor will be 3 Q2/2 C
(D) none of these
5 In the circuit shown switch S is connected to position 2 for a long time and then joined to position 1. The
total heat produced in resistance R 1 is :
LE2 L E2
(A) 2 (B) 2
2R 2 2R1
L E2 L E 2 (R1 + R2 )2
(C) (D) 2 2
2R1R 2 2R1 R2
6 In a series L–R growth circuit, if maximum current and maximum induced emf in an inductor of inductance
3mH are 2A and 6V respectively, then the time constant of the circuit is :
(A) 1m sec. (B) 1/3 m/sec. (C) 1/6 m/sec (D) 1/2 m/sec
PHYSICS 1
7 In the figure shown the battery is ideal. The values are e = 10 V, R = 5W , L = 2H .

The current through the battery at t = 2s is
(A) 12 A (B) 7 A
(C) 3 A (D) none of these
8 A superconducting loop of radius R has self inductance L. A uniform & constant magnetic field B is applied
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Initially current in this loop is zero. The loop is rotated by 180º. The
current in the loop after rotation is equal to
BpR 2 2B pR 2 BpR 2
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
L L 2L
9 When magnetic flux through a coil is changed, the variation of induced current in the coil with time is as shown
in graph. If resistance of coil is 10 W, then the total change in flux of coil will be :
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 6

10 A triangle shaped loop is moved in a uniform magnetic field B = 2 T every where. The resistance of the loop is
2 W & PR = 1 m, then the induced current in the loop is:
(A) 0 (B) 5 A (C) 10 A (D) 2 A
11 A plane loop of wire is placed in a region where the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop
and has the same magnitude and direction at all points within the area of the loop at any time. The
magnitude of the magnetic field B varies with time according to the expression
B = B0 e–at
where B0 is maximum value of magnetic field and a is a positive constant. The time at which induced emf
in the loop is maximum when
1 2 1
(A) t = 0 (B) t = (C) t = (D) t = ln 2
a a a
12 A vertical conducting ring of radius R falls vertically with a speed V in a horizontal uniform magnetic field
B which is perpendicular to the plane of the ring :
(A) A and B are at same potential

(B) C and D are at same potential
(C) current flows in clockwise direction
(D) current flows in anticlockwise direction
13 A circular conducting loop is placed in a region of uniform magnetic field such that the field is in direction normal to
plane of the loop.The radius of the loop is R and the resistance per unit length of the loop is l. A straight wire AB of
resistance per unit length l is connected along one diameter of the loop. The uniform magnetic field is decreasing with
time at a constant rate a ( tesla/sec) . Then current in the straight wire AB is -
Ra Ra
(A) from A to B (B) from B to A
2l 2l
2Ra
(C) from A to B (D) zero
l
PHYSICS 2
14 A uniform magnetic field B increasing with time exists in a cylindrical region of centre O and radius R. The
direction of magnetic field is inwards the paper as shown. The work done by external agent in taking a unit
positive charge slowly from A to C via paths APC, AOC and AQC be WAPC, WAOC and WAQC respectively.
Then-
(A) WAPC = WAOC = WAQC (B) WAPC > WAOC > WAQC
(C) WAPC < WAOC < WAQC (D) WAPC = WAQC< WAOC
15. Two identical conducting rings A & B of radius R are in pure rolling over a horizontal conducting plane
with same speed (of center of mass)u but in opposite direction. A constant magnetic field B is present
pointing inside the plane of paper. Then the potential difference between the highest points of the two
rings, is :
(A) zero (B) 2 Bvr (C) 4Bvr (D) none of these
16. r.m.s. value of current i = 3 + 4 sin (w t + p/3) is:
5 7
(A) 5 A (B) 17 A (C) A (D) A
2 2
17. Current in an A.C. circuit is given by i = 2 2 sin (pt + p/4), then the average value of current during time
t = 0 to t = 1 sec is:
4 4 2
(A) 0 (B) A (C) A (D) 2 2 A
p p
18. The voltage time (V - t) graph for triangular wave having peak value. V 0 is as shown in figure. The
average value of voltage V in time interval from t = 0 toT is :
V0 V0
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 2
PHYSICS 3
19. An ac voltage source V = V0 sin wt is connected across resistance R and capacitance C as shown in figure. It
1 w
is given that R = . The peak current is I0 . If the angular frequency of the voltage source is changed to
wC 3
then the new peak current in the circuit is :
I0 I0 I0 I0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3 3
20. In a series LR circuit, the voltage drop across inductor is 8 volt and across resistor is 6 volt. Then voltage applied
and power factor of circuit respectively are:
(A) 14 V, 0.8 (B) 10 V, 0.8 (C) 10 V, 0.6 (D) 14 V, 0.6
21. A 2mF capacitor is initially charged to 20 Volts and then shorted across a 8 mH inductor. The maximum
value of the current in the circuit is :
(A) 10.0 A (B) 7.5 A (C) 12.0 A (D) 8.2 A
22. Two identical bulbs are connected to an ac source by using an inductor and a capacitor in series, with the bulbs
as shown then the brightness of B1 and B2 will be -
(A) Same for both cases.

(B) More for B1 than B2
(C) Depends on the frequency of source
(D) More for B2 than B1
23. In a series L, C circuit , which of the following represents variation of magnitude of reactance (X) with frequency
(f)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24. In the ideal oscillating circuit, the capacitance of the capacitor is 25 mF and has initial charge of 30 mC.
The inductance of coil is 0.04 H. The maximum magnitude of current in the circuit, after closing the
switch K is
(A) 10 mA (B) 30 mA (C) 60 mA (D) 3 mA

25. The series RLC circuit in resonance is called:
(A) selector circuit (B) rejector circuit (C) amplifier circuit (D) oscillator circuit.
26. In a series R - L - C circuit, the frequency of the source is half of the resonance frequency. The nature of
the circuit will be:
(A) capacitive (B) inductive (C) purely resistive (D) selective
PHYSICS 4
27. If the readings of v1 and v3 are 100 volt each then reading of v2 is :
(A) 0 volt (B) 100 volt

(C) 200 volt (D) cannot be determined by given information.
28. In an LRC series circuit at resonance current in the circuit is 10 2 A. If now frequency of the source is
changed such that now current lags by 45° than applied voltage in the circuit. Which of the following is correct
:
(A) Frequency must be increased and current after the change is 10 A
(B) Frequency must be decreased and current after the change is 10 A
(C) Frequency must be decreased and current is same as that of initial value
(D) The given information is insufficient to conclude anything
2 8
29* In the circuit shown, ressitance R = 100 W , inductance L = H and capacitance C = mF are connected
p p
in series with an ac source of 200 volt and frequency ‘f’. If the readings of the hot wire voltmeters V 1 and
V2 are same then
(A) f = 125 Hz (B) f = 250 p Hz

(C) current through R is 2A (D) V1 = V2 = 1000 volt
30. In the series circuit shown in the figure the voltmeter reading will be(all the meters are ideal):
(A) 300 V (B) 200 V (C) 100 V (D) 600 V
PHYSICS 5
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 13 SHM AND WAVES PHYSICS
d2 x
1 The equation of motion of a particle of mass 1 gm is + p2x = 0 where x is displacement (in m) from mean
dt 2
position. The frequency of oscillation is (in Hz):
1
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 5 10 (D) 5 10
2
2 Two particles undergo S.H.M. along parallel lines with the same time period (T) and equal amplitudes. At a
particular instant one particle is at its extreme position while the other is at its mean position. They move in the
same direction. They will cross each other after a further time :
(A) T/8 (B) 3T/8 (C) T/6 (D) 4T/3

3 Two particles P and Q describe S.H.M. of same amplitude a, same frequency f along the same straight line.
The maximum distance between the two particles is a 2 . The phase difference between the particle is:
(A) zero (B) p/2 (C) p/6 (D) p/3
4 A particle undergoes SHM with a time period of 2 seconds. In how much time will it travel from its mean
position to a displacement equal to half of its amplitude
(A) 1/2 sec (B) 1/3 sec (C) 1/4 sec (D) 1/6 sec.
5 For a particle in S.H.M., if the amplitude of displacement is ‘a’ and the amplitude of velocity is ‘v’ the amplitude
of acceleration is
v2 v2 v
(A) va (B) (C) (D)
a 2a a
6 The velocity v of a particle of mass m moving along a straight line changes with time ‘t’ as
d2 v
= – Kv where ‘K’ is a positive constant. Which of the following statements is correct :
dt 2
(A) The particle does not perform SHM
m
(B) The particle performs SHM with time period 2p
K
K
(C) The particle performs SHM with frequency
2p
2p
(D) The particle performs SHM with time period
K
æ p2 ö
7 A 4 kg particle is moving along the x-axis under the action of the force F = – çç ÷÷ x N. At
è 16 ø
t = 2 sec, the particle passes through the origin and at t = 10 sec its speed is 4 2 m/s. The amplitude of the
motion is :
32 2 16 4 16 2
(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) m
p p p p
PHYSICS 1
8* A particle is executing SHM between points -Xm and Xm, as shown in figure-I. The velocity V(t) of the particle
is partially graphed and shown in figure-II. Two points A and B corresponding to time t 1 and time t2 respectively
are marked on the V(t) curve.
B
t1
+x
-Xm O Xm t2 t
A
Figure-II
Figure-I
(A) At time t1 , it is going towards Xm.

(B) At time t1, its speed is decreasing.
(C) At time t2, its position lies in between –Xm and O.
(D) The phase difference Df between points A and B must be expressed as 90° < Df < 180°.
9 A body performs SHM along the straight line segment ABCDE with C as the mid point of segment AE (A and
E are the extreme position for the SHM). Its kinetic energies at B and D are each one fourth of its maximum
value. If length of segment AE is 2R, then the distance between B and D is
3 R
(A) R (B) (C) 3R (D) 2R
2 2
10 The potential energy of a particle executing SHM changes from maximum to minimum in 5 s. Then the time
period of SHM is :
(A) 5 s (B) 10 s (C) 15 s (D) 20 s
3
11 A particle performs S.H.M. of amplitude A along a straight line. When it is at a distance A from mean
2
1
position, its kinetic energy gets increased by an amount m w2 A2 due to an impulsive force. Then its new
2
amplitude becomes:
5 3
(A) A (B) A (C) 2 A (D) 5 A
2 2
12 In the figure all springs are identical having spring constant k and mass m each. The block also has mass m.
The frequency of oscillation of the block is:
1 3k 1 3k
(A) (B)
2p m 2p 2m
3m
(C) 2 p (D) none of these
3k
13 A horizontal spring–block system of mass 2kg executes S.H.M. When the block is passing through its equilibrium
PHYSICS 2
position, an object of mass 1kg is put on it and the two move together. The new amplitude of vibration is (A
being its initial amplitude):
2 3 A
(A) A (B) A (C) 2A (D)
3 2 2
14 m1 & m2 are connected with a light inextensible string with m1 lying on smooth table and m2 hanging as shown
in figure. m1 is also connected to a light spring which is initially unstretched and the system is released from
rest.
k(m 1 +m 2 )
(A) system performs SHM with angular frequency given by
m 1m 2
k
(B) system performs SHM with angular frequency given by m1 + m 2
.
(C) tension in string will be zero when the system is released.
m2 g
(D) maximum displacement of m1 will be .
k
15 A force of 6.4N stretches a vertical spring by 0.1m. The mass that must be suspended from the spring so that
it oscillates with a time period of p/4 second.
p 4
(A) kg (B) kg (C) 1 kg (D) 10 kg
4 p
16. A sound wave of frequency 440 Hz is passing through air. An O 2 molecule (mass = 5.3 ´ 10-26 kg) is set in
oscillation with an amplitude of 10-6 m. Its speed at the centre of its oscillation is:
(A) 1.70 ´ 10-5 m/s (B) 17.0 ´ 10-5 m/s (C) 2.76 ´ 10-3 m/s (D) 2.77 ´ 10-5 m/s
17. Figure shown is a graph, at a certain time t, of the displacement function S(x,t) of three sound waves 1,2 and 3
as marked on the curves that travel along x–axis through air. If P 1,P2 and P3 represent their pressure amplitudes
respectively, then correct relation between them is :
(A) P1 > P2 > P3 (B) P3 > P2 > P1 (C) P1 = P2 = P3 (D) P2 > P3 > P1
18. Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, In which of the following gases the velocity of sound will
be largest.
(A) H2 (B) N2 (C) He (D) CO2
19. Which of the following is/ are correct.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
PHYSICS 3
20. Sound waves are emitted uniformly in all directions from a point source. The dependence of sound level b in
decibels on the distance r can be expressed as (a and b are positive constants)
b
(A) b = – b log ra (B) b = a – b (log r)2 (C) b = a – b log r (D) b = a –
r2
21. A point source is emitting sound in all directions. The ratio of distance of two points from the point source
where the difference in loudness levels is 3 dB is: (log10 2 = 0.3)
1 1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4 3
22. A person is standing at a distance D from an isotropic point source of sound. He walks 50.0 m towards the
source and observes that the intensity of the sound has doubled. His initial distance D from the source is :
50 2 50
(A) 50 2 m (B) m (C) m (D) 100 2 m
2 -1 2 -1
23. A person is talking in a small room and the sound intensity level is 60 dB everywhere within the room. If there
are eight people talking simultaneously in the room, what is the sound intensity level ?
(A) 60 dB (B) 69 dB (C) 74 dB (D) 81 dB
24. A point source of power 50p watts is producing sound waves of frequency 1875Hz. The velocity of sound is
400
330m/s, atmospheric pressure is 1.0 x 105 Nm-2, density of air is kgm-3. Then the displacement amplitude
99 p
at r = 330 m from the point source is :
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 0.2 mm (C) 1 mm (D) 2 mm

25. Two sound waves move in the same direction in the same medium. The pressure amplitude of the waves are
equal but the wavelength of the first wave is double that of the second. Let the average power transmitted
across a cross section by the two wave be P1 and P2 and their displacement amplitudes are s1 and s2 then
(A) P1/P2 = 1 (B) P1/P2 = 2 (C) s1/s2 = 1/2 (D) s1/s2 = 2/1
26. When a sound wave is reflected from a wall, the phase difference between the reflected and incident pressure
wave is:
(A) 0 (B) p (C) p/2 (D) p/4
27. A sound source emits two sinusoidal sound waves, both of wavelength l, along paths A and B as shown in
figure. The sound travelling along path B is reflected from five surfaces as shown and then merges at point Q,
producing minimum intensity at that point. The minimum value of d in terms of l is :
l l
(A) (B)
8 4
3l l
(C) (D)
8 2
28. Two coherent sources of different intensities send waves which interfere. The ratio of the maximum intensity
to the minimum intensity is 25. The intensities are in the ratio:
(A) 25: 1 (B) 5: 1 (C) 9: 4 (D) 625: 1
PHYSICS 4
29. Two loudspeakers 1.0 m apart are coherent sources which emit sound waves of wavelength 1.0 m. A microphone
moving along OP records the first minimum at P. If L2P is 4 m, L1P is equal to :
L1
(A) 2.5 m
P
First Minima
(B) 3 m
1m O
4m
(C) 3.5 m
(D) 4 m L2
30. A source of sound of frequency 165 Hz generates sound waves which get fully reflected from a wall. A person
standing at the wall starts moving away from the wall. The minimum distance of the point from the wall at
which the person hears maximum sound is: (velocity of sound = 330 ms-1)
(A) 1 m (B) 2 m (C) 1/2 m (D) 1/4 m
PHYSICS 5
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 14 KINEMATICS AND WAVES PHYSICS
1. A particle moves along a path ABCD as shown in the figure. Then the magnitude of net displacement of the
particle from position A to D is :
(A) 10 m (B) 5 2 m
(C) 9 m (D) 7 2 m
2 A particle is moving in a straight line. Its displacement at time t is given by s = - 4t2 + 2t, then its velocity and
acceleration at time t = 12 second are
(A) - 2, - 8 (B) 2, 6 (C) - 2, 8 (D) 2, 8

3. A crow is sitting on a branch of a tree and on ground surface wheat grains are spread. The crow flies towards
the ground and picks up a grain and sit on the front wall. The possible path are shown in diagram. Choose the
correct path so that path length becomes minimum. Given that BD = DE, ÐAFB = ÐEFC.
B D F E
(A) ABC (B) ADC (C) AFC (D) AEC

4. The instantaneous velocity of a particle is equal to time derivative of its position vector and the instantaneous
acceleration is equal to time derivative of its velocity vector. Therefore:
(A) the instantaneous velocity depends on the instantaneous position vector
(B) instantaneous acceleration is independent of instantaneous position vector and instantaneous velocity
(C) instantaneous acceleration is independent of instantaneous position vector but depends on the
instantaneous velocity
(D) instantaneous acceleration depends both on the instantaneous position vector and the
instantaneous velocity.
5. A truck travelling due north at 50 km/hr turns west and travels at the same speed. What is the change in
velocity:
(A) 50 km/hr north-west (B) 50 2 km/hr north-west
(C) 50 km/hr south-west (D) 50 2 km/hr south-west

6*. A particle of mass m moves along a curve y = x2. When particle has x – co-ordinate as 1/2m and x-component
of velocity as 4m/s then.
(A) the position coordinate of particle are (1/2, 1/4)m
(B) the velocity of particle will be along the line 4x – 4y – 1 = 0.
(C) the magnitude of velocity at that instant is 4 2 m/s
(D) the magnitude of angular momentum of particle about origin at that position is 0.
PHYSICS 1
r r
7*. A particle has initial velocity, v = 3 î + 4 ĵ and a constant force F = 4î -3 ĵ acts on the particle. The path of
the particle is
(A) straight line (B) parabolic (C) circular (D) elliptical
8. The displacement of a body from a reference point is given by, x = 2 t - 3, where ' x ' is in metres and t in
seconds. This shows that the body:
(A) rest at t = 3/2 (B) is accelerated (C) is decelerated (D) is in uniform motion
9. A particle is thrown upwards from ground. It experiences a constant air resistance force which can
produce a retardation of 2 m/s2 . The ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent is : [ g = 10 m/s 2 ]
2 2 3
(A) 1 : 1 (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2
10 A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m twice at an interval
of 4 secs. The ball was thrown with the velocity of
(A) 20 m/sec. (B) 25 m/sec. (C) 30 m/sec. (D) 35 m/sec.
11. A particle can travel from point A to B from two different paths 1 and 2, as shown, in same interval of time.
Then which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Average velocity along the two paths must be equal

(B) The particle may travel along both the paths unaccelerated
(C) The direction of instantaneous velocity along the path 1 & 2 can be same for a maximum of two
point on the paths.
(D) The average and instantaneous velocity along path 1 can have same direction.
12. Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t = 0 in the same direction along a straight line.
The velocity time graph of two cars is shown in figure. The time when the car B will catch the car A, will be
(A) t = 21 sec (B) t = 2 5 sec

(C) 20 sec. (D) None of these
13. The engine of a futuristic nuclear powered car for which power and speed can have fantastic values (say 600
kph) can produce a maximum acceleration of 5 m/s2 and its brakes can produce a maximum retardation of 10
m/s2. The minimum time in which a person can reach his workplace, located 1.5 km away from his home using
this car is
(A) 5 sec. (B) 10 sec. (C) 15 sec. (D) 30 sec.
14. Acceleration–time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. If velocity of particle at t
= 0 is 1 m/sec, then its velocity at the end of 10 sec will be :
(A) 18 m/sec opposite to the initial direction. (B) 23 m/sec along the initial direction.
(C) 18 m/sec along the initial direction .(D) 23 m/sec in the opposite direction.
PHYSICS 2
15. Starting from rest at t = 0, a car moves in a straight line with an acceleration given by the accompanying graph.
The speed of the car at t = 3 s is :
(A) 1 m s-1 (B) 2 m s-1
(C) 6.0 m s-1 (D) 10.5 m s-1
16. Two blocks A and B of masses m & 2m respectively are held at rest such that the spring is in natural length.
Find out the accelerations of blocks A and B respectively just after release (pulley, string and spring are
massless).
(A) g ¯, g ¯
g g
(B) ¯,
3 3
(C) 0, 0
(D) g ¯, 0
17*. Two springs are in a series combination and are attached to a block of mass ‘m’ which is in equilibrium. The
spring constants and the extensions in the springs are as shown in the figure. Then the force exerted by the
spring on the block is :
k1 k 2
(A) k + k (x1 + x2)
1 2
(B) k1x1 + k2x2

(C) k1x1
(D) None of these
18. Figure shows a 5 kg ladder hanging from a string that is connected with a ceiling and is having a spring balance
connected in between. A boy of mass 25 kg is climbing up the ladder at acceleration 1 m/s 2. Assuming the
spring balance and the string to be massless and the spring to show a constant reading, the reading of the spring
balance is : (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 30 kg
(B) 32.5 kg
(C) 35 kg
(D) 37.5 kg
19. Two masses m1 and m2 which are connected with a light string, are placed over a
frictionless pulley. This set up is placed over a weighing machine, as shown. Three
combination of masses m1 and m2 are used, in first case m1 = 6 kg and m2 = 2 kg, in
second case m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 3kg and in third case m1 = 4 kg and m2 = 4 kg.
Masses are held stationary initially and then released. If the readings of the weighing
m1 m2
machine after the release in three cases are W1, W2 and W3 respectively then :
(A) W1 > W2 > W3 (B) W1 < W2 < W3

Weighing Machine
(C) W1 = W2 = W3 (D) W1 = W2 < W3
PHYSICS 3
20. Figure shows a man of mass 50 kg standing on a light weighing machine kept in a box of
mass 30 kg. The box is hanging from a pulley fixed to the ceiling through a light rope, the
other end of which is held by the man himself. If the man manages to keep the box at rest,
the weight shown by the machine is _______ N.
(A) 100 N (B) 50 N (C) 75 N (D) 60 N
21. An ideal spring, with a pointer attached to its end, hangs next to a scale. With a 100 N weight attached and in
equilibrium, the pointer indicates ‘40’ on the scale as shown. Using a 200 N weight instead results in ‘60 on the
scale. Using an unknown weight ‘X’ instead results in ‘30’ on the scale. The value of ‘X’ is :
(A) 80 N
(B) 60 N
(C) 50 N
(D) 40 N
22. A 50kg person stands on a 25 kg platform. He pulls on the rope which is attached to the platform via the
frictionless pulleys as shown in the fig. The platform moves upward at a steady rate if the force with which the
person pulls the rope is :
(A) 500 N (B) 250 N

(C) 25 N (D) 50 N
23. A man of mass m stands on a platform of equal mass m and pulls himself by two ropes passing over pulleys as
shown. If he pulls each rope with a force equal to half his weight, his upward acceleration would be :
(A) g/2
(B) g/4
(C) g
(D) zero
24. In the figure shown neglecting friction and mass of pulleys, what is the acceleration of mass B?
g 5g
(A) (B)
3 2
2g 2g
(C) (D)
2 5
25. A uniform sphere of weight w and radius 3 m is being held by a string of length 2 m. attached to a frictionless
wall as shown in the figure. The tension in the string will be:
(A) 5 w/4 (B) 15 w/4

(C) 15 w/16 (D) none of these
PHYSICS 4
26*. A cart of mass 0.5 kg is placed on a smooth surface and is connected by a string to a block of mass 0.2 kg. At
the initial moment the cart moves to the left along a horizontal plane at a speed of 7 m/s. Then: (Use g = 9.8 m/
s2 )
2g 0.5 kg
(A) The acceleration of the cart is towards right.
7
(B) The cart comes to momentary rest after 2.5 s.

0.2 kg
(C) The distance travelled by the cart in the first 5s is 17.5 m.
(D) The velocity of the cart after 5s will be same as initial velocity.
27. A man slides down a light rope whose breaking strength in 1/5 times his weight. Then the maximum acceleration
of man with which he can climb up so that the rope does not break is (g = acceleration due to gravity) :
(A) 0.9 g (B) – 0 .8 g (C) 0.8 g (D) g
28. Two smooth spheres each of radius 5 cm and weight W rest one on the other inside a fixed smooth cylinder of
radius 8 cm. The reactions between the spheres and the vertical side of the cylinder are:
(A) W/4 & 3W/4 (B) W/4 & W/4

(C) 3W/4 & 3W/4 (D) W & W
29. A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane. The block of mass m is given force F = 10 N horizontally as
shown. The magnitude of net normal reaction on the block is:
10
(A) 10 2 N (B) N
2
(C) 10 N (D) none of these

30*. A cylinder of mass M and radius R is resting on two corner edges A and B as shown in figure. The normal
reaction at the edges A and B are : (Neglect friction)
(A) NA = 2NB (B) NB = 3 N A
Mg 2 3Mg
(C) NA = (D) NB =
2 5
PHYSICS 5
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 15 RAY OPTICS AND EM WAVES PHYSICS
1. An object moves in front of a fixed plane mirror. The velocity of the image of the object is
(A) Equal in the magnitude and in the direction to that of the object.
(B) Equal in the magnitude and opposite in direction to that of the object.
(C) Equal in the magnitude and the direction will be either same or opposite to that of the object.
(D) Equal in magnitude and makes any angle with that of the object depending on direction of motion of the
object.
2. Two blocks each of mass m lie on a smooth table. They are attached to two other masses as shown in the
figure. The pulleys and strings are light. An object O is kept at rest on the table. The sides AB & CD of the two
blocks are made reflecting. The acceleration of two images formed in those two reflecting surfaces w.r.t. each
other is:
(A) 5g/6 (B) 5g/3 (C) g/3 (D) 17 g/6

3. A person AB of height 170 cm is standing infront of a plane mirror. His eyes are at height 164 cm. At what
distance from P should a hole be made in the mirror so that he cannot see the top of his head.
(A) 167 cm (B) 161 cm (C) 163 cm (D) none of these

4. The mirror of length L moves horizontally as shown in the figure with a velocity v. The mirror is illuminated by
a point source of light ‘P’ placed on the ground. The rate at which the length of the light spot on the ground
increases is :
(A) v (B) zero (C) 2v (D) 3v
PHYSICS 1
5. A linear object AB is placed along the axis of a concave mirror. The object is moving towards the mirror with
speed V. The speed of the image of the point A is 4 V and the speed of the image of B is also 4V. If centre of
the line AB is at a distance L from the mirror then length of the object AB will be
A B
3L 5L 4L
(A) (B) (C) L (D)
2 3 3
6. A point object ' O ' is at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The mirror starts to move at a speed
u, in a direction perpendicular to the principal axis. Then the initial velocity of the image is:
(A) 2 u, in the direction opposite to that of mirror's velocity
(B) 2 u, in the direction same as that of mirror's velocity
(C) zero
(D) u, in the direction same as that of mirror's velocity.
7. The circular boundary of the concave mirror subtends a cone of half angle q at its centre of curvature. The
minimum value of q for which any ray incident on this mirror parallel to the principal axis suffers reflection
more than once is
(A) 30º (B) 45º (C) 60º (D) 75º

8*. An object AB is placed parallel and close to the optical axis between focus F and centre of curvature C of a
converging mirror of focal length f as shown in figure.
(A) Image of A will be closer than that of B from the mirror. A B

(B) Image of AB will be parallel to the optical axis.
C F
(C) Image of AB will be straight line inclined to the optical axis.
(D) Image of AB will not be straight line.
9. A point object is moving along principal axis of a concave mirror with uniform velocity towards pole. Initially the
object is at infinite distance from pole on right side of the mirror as shown. Before the object collides with
mirror, the number of times at which the distance between object and its image is 40 cm are.
(A) one time (B) two times (C) three times (D) Data insufficient
PHYSICS 2
10. A bird is flying up at angle sin-1 (3/5) with the horizontal. A fish in a pond looks at that bird. When it is vertically
above the fish. The angle at which the bird appears to fly (to the fish) is: [ nwater = 4/3 ]
(A) sin-1 (3/5) (B) sin-1 (4/5) (C) 45º (D) sin-1 (9/16)
11. A ray of light travelling in air is incident at grazing angle on a slab with variable refractive index, n (y) =
[k y3/2 + 1]1/2 where k = 1 m -3/2 and follows path as shown. What is the total deviation produced by slab
when the ray comes out.
(A) 60º (B) 53º (C) sin -1 (4/9) (D) no deviation at all
12. The shown figure represents a wave front AB which passes from air to another transparent medium and
produces a new wave front CD after refraction. The refractive index of the medium is (PQ is the boundary
between air and the medium).
cos q1 cos q 4
(A) cos q (B) cos q
4 1
sin q1 sin q 2
(C) sin q (D) sin q
4 3
13. An observer at O (looking vertically downwards) views two closely spaced parallel lines on the horizontal
bottom sheet through an inclined slab of glass (with parallel faces), exactly as shown in the figure below.
Compared to when there is no glass slab, the lines appear to the observer.
(A) with the same horizontal gap but shifted to the right.
(B) with the same horizontal gap but shifted to the left.
(C) with lesser horizontal gap but shifted to the right.
(D) with the larger horizontal gap but shifted to the left.
14. The observer 'O' sees the distance AB as infinitely large. If refractive index of liquid is m1 and that of glass is
m1
m2, then m is :
2
(A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) 4 (D) None of these

PHYSICS 3
15. Inside a solid glass sphere of radius R , a point source of light lies at a distance x ( x < R) from centre of the
sphere. The solid sphere is surrounded by air of refractive index 1. The maximum angle of incidence for rays
incident on the spherical glass- air interface directly from the point source is:
x x x x
(A) cos–1 (B) sin–1 (C) cos–1 (D) sin–1
R R R R
16. If a prism having refractive index 2 , has angle of minimum deviation equal to the angle of refraction of the
prism, then the angle of refraction of the prism is:
(A) 30º (B) 45º (C) 60º (D) 90º
17. A ray is incident on the first prism at an angle of incidence 53º as shown in the figure. The angle between side
CA and B¢A¢ for the net deviation by both the prisms to be double of the deviation produced by the first prism,
will be
2 2 2 1
(A) 2 sin–1 (B) sin–1 (C) cos–1 (D) sin–1
3 3 3 3
18. A horizontal light ray passes through a prism (µ = 1.5) of angle 4°. Further, it is incident on a plane mirror M, that
has been placed vertically. By what angle the mirror is rotated so that the ray after reflection becomes horizontal?
4°
(A) 1° (B) 2° (C) 4° (D) 8°
19. A parallel glass slab of refractive index 3 is placed in contact with an equilateral prism of refractive index
2 . A ray is incident on left surface of slab as shown. The slab and prism combination is surrounded by air..
The magnitude of minimum possible deviation of this ray by slab-prism combination is
(A) 30° (B) 45°
2
(C) 60° (D) 60° – sin–1
3
PHYSICS 4
20. An object approaches a fixed diverging lens with a constant velocity from infinity along the principal axis. The
relative velocity between object and its image will be :
(A) increasing (B) decreasing
(C) first increases then decreases (D) first decreases and then increases.
21. From the figure shown establish a relation between, m1, m2, m3.
(A) m3 > m2 > m1 (B) m3 < m2 < m1 (C) m2 > m3 ; m3 = m1 (D) m2 > m1 ; m3 = m2
22. The distance between an object and the screen is 100 cm. A lens produces an image on the screen when
the lens is placed at either of the positions 40 cm apart. The power of the lens is nearly:
(A) 3 diopters (B) 5 diopters (C) 2 diopters (D) 9 diopters
23*. A point object 'O' is placed at focus of a diverging lens of focal length ' f '. When a converging lens of focal
length (f/2) is placed in between object and lens at distance f/2 from diverging lens then:
(A) The final image will be found at second focus of the converging lens
(B) Final image will be formal on the object itself.
(C) Final image is real.
(D) Final image is virtual.
24. A convex lens of focal length f and a plane mirror are y distance apart. An object O is kept on the principal axis
of the lens at a distance x from the lens. The values of x and y for the final image of O to fall exactly (position
& size) on the object ‘O’ :
O
(A) x = f, y = f (B) x = f, y = 2f
y x
(C) x = 2f, y = f (D) x = 2f, y = 2f
25. Monochromatic light rays parallel to x-axis strike a convex lens AB. If the lens oscillates such that AB tilts upto
a small angle q (in radian) on either side of y-axis, then find the distance between extreme positions of oscillating
image (f = focal length of the lens) :
(A) ¦ secq (B) f sec2q (C) ¦(secq – 1) (D) the image will not move
26*. The speed of light in the material of a plano convex lens is 2 × 10 m/s and its greatest thickness is 3 mm.
8
If the aperature diameter of the lens in 6.0 cm then :

(A) focal length of the lens is 6.0 cm
(B) focal length of the lens is 30.3 cm.
(C) radius of curvature of the lens is 15.15 cm.
(D) parallel rays after falling on the lens converge at a distance of 6.0 cm on the other side of the lens.
PHYSICS 5
27. A slab of high quality flat glass, with parallel faces, is placed in the path of a parallel light beam before it is
focussed to a spot by a lens. The glass is rotated slightly back and forth from the dotted centre about an axis
coming out of the page, as shown in the diagram. According to ray optics the effect on the focussed spot is :
(A) There is no movement of the spot Spot
(B) The spot moves towards then away from the lens.
(C) The spot moves up and down parallel to the lens. Lens Rotating glass
(D) The spot moves along a line making an angle a (neither zero nor 90º) with axis of lens.
28. A convex lens is cut into two parts in different ways that are arranged in four manners, as shown. Which
arrangement will give maximum optical power ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A point object is placed on principal axis of a concave mirror ( of focal length 15 cm) at a distance u = 61 cm
from pole. A slab of thickness t = 3 cm and refractive index m = 1.5 is placed with two sides perpendicular to
principal axis, such that its nearest face is x0 cm from pole. The final image of object is to be considered after
refraction by slab, reflection by mirror and final refraction by slab.
f =15cm
object
x0
t=3cm m=1.5
29. If x0 = 30 cm, then the distance of final image from pole is

(A) 19 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 24
30. If the slab is shifted parallel to itself by 3 cm then the final image
(A) shifts towards left (B) shifts towards right
(C) may shifts towards left or right (D) does not shift
31. If x0 = 30 cm and the object is given velocity 18 m/s towards left then the speed of image at that instant is
(A) 2 m/s (B) 6 m/s (C) 9 m/s (D) 162 m/s
32. Which of the following statement is wrong
(A) Infrared photon has more energy than the photon of visible light
(B) Photographic plates are sensitive to ultraviolet rays
(C) Photographic plates can be made sensitive to infrared rays
(D) Infrared rays are invisible but can cast shadows like visible light rays
PHYSICS 6
33. Pick out the longest wavelength from the following types of radiations
(A) Blue light (B) g -rays (C) X-rays (D) Red light
34. Wave which cannot travel in vacuum is
(A) X-rays (B) Infrasonic (C) Ultraviolet (D) Radiowaves
35. Light is an electromagnetic wave. Its speed in vacuum is given by the expression
mo eo 1
(A) m oe o (B) (C) (D) mo e o
eo mo
36. The range of wavelength of the visible light is

(A) 10 Å to 100 Å (B) 4,000 Å to 8,000 Å (C) 8,000 Å to 10,000 Å (D) 10,000 Å to 15,000 Å
37. Which radiation in sunlight, causes heating effect
(A) Ultraviolet (B) Infrared (C) Visible light (D) All of these
38. Which of the following represents an infrared wavelength
(A) 10 -4 cm (B) 10 -5 cm (C) 10 -6 cm (D) 10 -7 cm
39. The wavelength of light visible to eye is of the order of
(A) 10-2 m (B) 10 -10 m (C) 1 m (D) 6 ´ 10 -7 m
40. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends upon the source of radiation
(A) Increases as we move from g-rays to radio waves
(B) Decreases as we move from g-rays to radio waves
(C) Is same for all of them
(D) None of these
41. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength
(A) g-rays (B) b-rays (C) a-rays (D) X-rays
42. The maximum distance upto which TV transmission from a TV tower of height h can be received is proportional
to
(A) h1/2 (B) h (C) h (D) h2
43. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves

(A) Cosmic rays (B) Gamma rays (C) b -rays (D) X-rays
44. Ozone is found in
(A) Stratosphere (B) Ionosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Troposphere
45. The electromagnetic waves travel with a velocity
(A) Equal to velocity of sound (B) Equal to velocity of light
(C) Less than velocity of light (D) None of these
46. The ozone layer absorbs
(A) Infrared radiations (B) Ultraviolet radiations
(C) X-rays (D) g-rays
PHYSICS 7
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 16 CIRCULAR MOTION & FRICTION PHYSICS
1. A block of mass 4 kg is kept on ground. The co-efficient of friction between the block and the ground is 0.80.
An external force of magnitude 30 N is applied parallel to the ground. The resultant force exerted by the ground
on the block is:
(A) 40 N (B) 30 N (C) 0 N (D) 50 N
2. Figure shows a block kept on a rough inclined plane. The maximum external force down the incline for which
the block remains at rest is 1N while the maximum external force up the incline for which the block is at rest is
7 N. The coefficient of static friction m is :
3 1 4
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D)
2 6 3 3
3. A block of mass m is at rest relative to the stationary wedge of mass M. The coefficient of friction between
block and wedge is µ. The wedge is now pulled horizontally with acceleration ‘a’ as shown in figure. Then the
minimum magnitude of ‘a’ for the friction between block and wedge to be zero is :
(A) g tan q (B) µ g tan q (C) g cot q (D) µ g cot q

4. A bead of mass m is located on a parabolic wire with its axis vertical and vertex directed towards downward
as in figure and whose equation is x2 = ay. If the coefficient of friction is µ, the highest distance above the x-axis
at which the particle will be in equilibrium is
1 2 1
(A) µa (B) µ2a (C) µa (D) µa
4 2
5*. A car is accelerating on a horizontal road with acceleration = 20 m/s 2. A box that is placed inside the car, of
mass m = 10 kg is put in contact with the vertical wall as shown. The friction coefficient between the box and
the wall is m = 0.6.
(A) The acceleration (with respect to ground) of the box will be 20 m/sec2
(B) The friction force acting on the box will be 100 N
(C) The contact force between the vertical wall and the box will be 100 5 N
(D) The net contact force between the vertical wall and the box is only of electromagnetic in nature.
PHYSICS 1
6. All the blocks shown in the figure are at rest. The pulley is smooth and the strings are light. Coefficient of
friction at all the contacts is 0.2. A frictional force of 10 N acts between A and B.The block A is about to slide
on block B.The normal reaction and frictional force exerted by the ground on the block B is.
A
(A)The normal reaction exerted by the ground on the block B is 110N
(B)The normal reaction exerted by the ground on the block B is 50 N C 5 kg
(C)the frictional force exerted by the ground on the block B is 20N B
(D)the frictional force exerted by the ground on the block B is zero
7. A small mass slides down an inclined plane of inclination q with the horizontal. The co-efficient of friction is
m = m0 x where x is the distance through which the mass slides down and m0, a constant. Then the speed is
maximum after the mass covers a distance of
cos q sin q tan q 2 tan q

(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) m0
0 0 0
8. A force F = t is applied to a block A as shown in figure, where t is time in seconds. The force is applied at t =
0 seconds when the system was at rest. Which of the following graph correctly gives the frictional force
between A and horizontal surface as a function of time t.[Assume that at t = 0, tension in the string connecting
the two blocks is zero].
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9*. A particle initially at rest is subject to two forces one is constant, the other is retarding force proportional to the
particle velocity. In the subsequent motion of the particle.
(A) the magnitude of acceleration will increase from zero to a constant value
(B) the magnitude of acceleration will decrease from its initial value to zero
(C) the magnitude of velocity will increase from zero to a maximum & then decrease
(D) the magnitude of velocity will increase from zero to a constant value.
10. In the shown arrangement if f1, f2 and T be the frictional forces on 2 kg block, 3kg block & tension in the string
respectively, then their values are:
(A) 2 N, 6 N, 3.2 N (B) 2 N, 6 N, 0 N

(C) 1 N, 6 N, 2 N (D) data insufficient to calculate the required values.
11. A chain of length L is placed on a horizontal surface as shown in figure. At any instant x is the length of chain
on rough surface and the remaining portion lies on smooth surface. Initially x = 0. A horizontal force P is applied
to the chain (as shown in figure ). In the duration x changes from x = 0 to x = L, for chain to move with constant
speed.
(A) the magnitude of P should increase with time
(B) the magnitude of P should decrease with time
(C) the magnitude of P should increase first and then decrease with time
(D) the magnitude of P should decrease first and then increase with time
PHYSICS 2
12*. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 3kg are placed in contact over an inclined surface of angle 37°, as shown. µ 1
is friction coefficient between 5kg block and the surface of the incline and similarly, µ 2 is friction coefficient
between the 3kg block and the surface of the incline. After the release of the blocks from the inclined surface,
(A) if µ1 = 0.5 and µ2 = 0.3 then 5 kg block exerts 3N force on the 3 kg block 3kg
5kg µ2
(B) if µ1 = 0.5 and µ2 = 0.3 then 5 kg block exters 8 N force on the 3 kg block
µ1
(C) if µ1 = 0.3 and µ2 = 0.5 then 5 kg block exerts 1 N force on the 3kg block. 37°
(D) if µ1 = 0.3 and µ2 = 0.5 then 5 kg block exerts no force on the 3kg block.
13. As shown in the figure, M is a man of mass 60 kg standing on a block of mass 40 kg kept on ground. The co-
efficient of friction between the feet of the man and the block is 0.3 and that between B and the ground is 0.1.
If the man accelerates with an acceleration 2 m/s2 in the forward direction, then:
(A) it is not possible
(B) B will move backwards with an acceleration 0.5 m/s2
(C) B will not move
(D) B will move forward with an acceleration 0.5 m/s2.
14. With reference to the figure shown, if the coefficient of friction at the surfaces is 0.42, then the force required
to pull out the 6.0 kg block with an acceleration of 1.50 m/s2 will be:
(A) 36 N (B) 24 N (C) 84 N (D) 51 N

15. Two blocks A and B are as shown in figure. The minimum horizontal force F applied on block ‘B’ for which
slipping begins at ‘B’ and ground is :
(A) 100 N
(B) 120 N
(C) 50 N
(D) 140 N
r
16. A particle is moving in a circular path. The acceleration and momentum vectors at an instant of time are a =
r
2 î + 3 ĵ m/s2 and P = 6 î – 4 ĵ kgm/s. Then the motion of the particle is
(A) uniform circular motion (B) circular motion with tan-
gential acceleration
r r
(C) circular motion with tangential retardation (D) we cannot say anything from a and P given here.
17. Two bodies having masses 10 kg and 5 kg are moving in concentric orbits of radii 4 and 8 such that their time
periods are the same. Then the ratio of their centripetal accelerations is
1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 8 (D)
2 8
18. A particle is revolving in a circle increasing its speed uniformly. Which of the following is constant?
(A) centripetal acceleration (B) tangential acceleration
(C) angular acceleration (D) none of these
PHYSICS 3
19*. A heavy particle is tied to the end A of a string of length 1.6 m. Its other end O is fixed. It revolves as a conical
pendulum with the string making 60o with the vertical. Then
4p
(A) its period of revolution is sec.
7
(B) the tension in the string is doubled the weight of the particle
(C) the velocity of the particle = 2.8 3 m/s
(D) the centripetal acceleration of the particle is 9.8Ö3 m/s2.

20. A stone is projected from level ground at t = 0 sec such that its horizontal and vertical components of initial
velocity are 10 m/s and 20 m/s respectively. Then the instant of time at which tangential and normal components
of acceleration of stone are same is : (neglect air resistance) g = 10 m/s2.
1 3
(A) sec (B) sec (C) 3 sec (D) 4 sec.
2 2
21. A small coin of mass 40 g is placed on the horizontal surface of a rotating disc. The
disc starts from rest and is given a constant angular acceleration a = 2 rad/s2. The
coefficient of static friction between the coin and the disc is µ s = 3/4 and coefficient
of kinetic friction is µk = 0.5. The coin is placed at a distance r = 1 m from the centre
of the disc. The magnitude of the resultant force on the coin exerted by the disc just
before it starts slipping on the disc is :
(A) 0.2 N (B) 0.3 N (C) 0.4 N (D) 0.5 N

22. A smooth and vertical cone-shaped funnel is rotated with an angular velocity w in such a way that an object on
the inner wall of the funnel is at rest w.r.t. the funnel. If the object is slightly displaced along the slope from this
position and released :
(A) it will be in equilibrium at its new position.

(B) it will execute SHM
(C) it will oscillate but the motion is not SHM
(D) none of these
23. A 10kg ball attached at the end of a rigid rod of length 1m rotates at constant speed in a horizontal circle of
radius 0.5m and period 1.57 s as shown in the figure. The force exerted by the rod on the ball is
(A) 158 N (B) 128 N (C) 110 N (D) 98 N (g = 10 ms-2)

24. An aeroplane flying at constant speed 115 m/s towards east, makes a gradual turn following a circular path to
fly south. The turn takes 15 seconds to complete. The magnitude of the centripetal acceleration during the turn,
is
23p 46p 23p

(A) m/s2 (B) m/s2 (C) m/s2 (D) none of these
8 3 6
PHYSICS 4
25*. A double conical pendulum consists of two masses, m and M, connected by a massless string passing over a
frictionless, massless pulley. The entire apparatus rotates freely at constant angular speed w (rad/s) about the
vertical axis (dashed line) passing through centre of pulley as shown. After the system comes in steady state,
the length of string on either sides of pulley are small l and L. Pick up the correct option(s).
cos f m g
(A) = (B) cosq =
cos q M w2L
g
(C) ml = ML (D) cosf =
w2 l
26. A ball of mass M is moving in a circle at uniform speed on a horizontal frictionless table as shown in figure. It
is held by a string which holds a suspended bob, also of mass M, at rest below the table. Half of the length of
the string is above the tabletop and half below. Now, the hanging bob is pulled down such that the hanging
portion of the string is longer than the portion above the tabletop (without changing the total length of the string),
but the hanging bob is still at rest. What is the centripetal acceleration of the moving ball now?
(A) less than g (B) g

(C) greater than g (D) zero
27. A body moves along an uneven surface with constant speed at all points. The normal reaction of the road on the
body is:
(A) maximum at A (B) maximum at B

(C) minimum at C (D) the same at A, B & C
28. Two same masses are tied with equal lengths of strings and are suspended at the same fixed point. One
mass is suspended freely whereas another is kept in a way that string is horizontal as shown. This mass
is given initial velocity u in vertical downward direction. It strikes the freely suspended mass elastically
that is just able to complete the CM after the collision about point of suspension O. Magnitude of velocity
u is : O L m
u
(A) gL (B) 2.5gL L
(C) 2gL (D) 3gL

m
29. The member OA rotates about a horizontal axis through O with a constant counter clockwise velocity w = 3
rad/sec. As it passes the position q = 0, a small mass m is placed upon it at a radial distance r = 0.5 m. If the
mass is observed to slip at q = 37º, the coefficient of friction between the mass & the member is ______.
3 9
(A) (B)
16 16
4 5
(C) (D)
9 9
30. A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration in the extreme position and
lowest position are equal in magnitude. Angle q of thread deflection in the extreme position will be:
1 1
(A) 2 tan-1 (B) tan-1 (C) tan-1 2 (D) tan-1 2
2 2
PHYSICS 5
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 17 WAVE OPTICS & SEMICONDUCTOR PHYSICS
1. Two light waves are given by, E1 = 2 sin (100 p t - k x + 30º) and E2 = 3 cos (200 p t - k¢ x + 60º)
The ratio of intensity of first wave to that of second wave is :
2 4 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 9 9 3
2. In a Young's double slit experiment, d = 1 mm, l = 6000 Å and D = 1 m (where d, l and D have usual meaning).
Each of slit individually produces same intensity on the screen. The minimum distance between two points on
the screen having 75 % intensity of the maximum intensity is :
(A) 0.45 mm (B) 0.40 mm (C) 0.30 mm (D) 0.20mm
3. Figure shows two coherent sources S1–S2 vibrating in same phase. AB is an irregular wire lying at a far
l
distance from the sources S1 and S2. Let = 10–3. Ð BOA = 0.12°. How many bright spots will be seen on the
d
wire, including points A and B.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) more than 4
4. If the distance between the first maxima and fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7mm and the slits are
separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 cm from the slits, then wavelength of the light used is
(A) 600 nm (B) 525 nm (C) 467 nm (D) 420 nm
5. In Young’s double slit interference experiment if the slit separation is made 3 folds, the fringe width becomes :
(A) 6 fold (B) 3 fold (C) 3/6 fold (D) 1/3 fold
6. The path difference between two interfering waves at a point on the screen is l/6. The ratio of intensity at this
point and that at the central bright fringe will be : (Assume that intensity due to each slit in same)
(A) 0.853 (B) 8.53 (C) 0.75 (D) 7.5
7*. If one of the slits of a standard Young's double slit experiment is covered by a thin parallel sided glass slab so
that it transmits only one half the light intensity of the other, then:
(A) The fringe pattern will get shifted towards the covered slit
(B) The fringe pattern will get shifted away from the covered slit
(C) The bright fringes will become less bright and the dark ones will become more bright
(D) The fringe width will remain unchanged
8. In the figure shown in a YDSE, a parallel beam of light is incident on the slits from a medium of refractive index
n1. The wavelength of light in this medium is l1. A transparent slab of thickness ' t' and refractive index is put
infront of one slit. The medium between the screen and the plane of the slits is n2. The phase difference
between the light waves reaching point ' O ' (symmetrical, relative to the slits) is:
2p 2p
(A) (n3 - n2)t (B) (n3 - n2)t
n1l 1 l1
2 pn 1 æ n3 ö 2 pn1
(C) çç -1÷÷ t (D) (n3 - n2) t
n2 l1 è n2 ø l1
PHYSICS 1
9. In a YDSE experiment if a slab whose refractive index can be varied is placed in front of one of the slits then
the variation of resultant intensity at mid-point of screen with 'µ' will be best represented by (µ ³ 1).[ Assume
slits of equal width and there is no absorption by slab; mid point of screen is the point where waves interfere
with zero phase difference in absence of slab]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10*. A Young's double slit experiment is performed with white light:

(A) The maxima next to the central will be red. (B) The central maxima will be white
(C) The maxima next to the central will be violet (D) There will not be a completely dark fringe.
11. In a Young’s double slit experiment the slit is illuminated by a source having two wavelengths of 400 nm and 600
nm. If distance between slits, d = 1mm, and distance between the plane of the slit and screen, D = 10 m then
the smallest distance from the central maximum where there is complete darkness is :
(A) 2mm (B) 3mm (C) 12 mm (D) there is no such point
12*. A parallel beam of light (l =5000 Å) is incident at an angle a = 30° with the normal to the slit planein a young’s
double slit experiment. Assume that the intensity due to each slit at any point on the screen is I0. Point O is
equidistant from S1 & S2.The distance between slits is 1mm.
(A) the intensity at O is 4I0
(B) the intensity at O is zero
(C) the intensity at a point on the screen 4m from O is 4I0
(D) the intensity at a point on the screen 4m from O is zero
13. In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white light is incident on the plane of the slits then the distance of the
nearest white spot on the screen from O is: [ assume d << D, l << d ]
(A) 0 (B) d/2 (C) d/3 (D) d/6

14. In the above question if the light incident is monochromatic and point O is a maxima, then the wavelength of the
light incident cannot be:
(A) d2/3D (B) d2/6D (C) d2/12D (D) d2/18D
15. M1 and M2 are plane mirrors and kept parallel to each other. At point O there will be a maxima for wavelength.
Light from monochromatic source S of wavelength l is not reaching directly on the screen. Then l is : [ D >
> d, d > > l ]
3 d2 3d2
(A) (B)
D 2D
d2 2 d2
(C) (D)
D D
PHYSICS 2
16*. Figure shows two thin slabs of glass, one is rectangular and the other is triangular wedge shaped. A monochro-
matic light incident nearly normally on the slabs as shown in figure.
(A) In situation (X) fringes are thinner as compared to fringes obtained in situation (Y)
(B) In case (X) no fringes are obtained and in case (Y) fringes are obtained
(C) The shape of the fringe obtained is circular.
(D) The shape of the fringe obtained is straightline.
17. In a single - slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made half the original width:
(A) the width of the central maxima becomes double
(B) the width of the central maxima becomes half
(C) the width of the central maxima becomes one fourth
(D) the width of the central maxima becomes four times.
Huygen was the first scientist who proposed the idea of wave theory of light. He said that the light propagates
in form of wavefronts. A wavefront is an imaginary surface at every point of which waves are in the same
phase. For example the wavefronts for a point source of light is collection of concentric spheres which have
centre at the origin. w1 is a wavefront. w2 is another wavefront.
The radius of the wavefront at time ‘t’ is ‘ct’ in this case where ‘c’ is the speed of light. The direction of
propagation of light is perpendicular to the surface of the wavefront. The wavefronts are plane wavefronts in
case of a parallel beam of light.
Huygen also said that every point of the wavefront acts as the source of secondary wavelets. The tangent
drawn to all secondary wavelets at a time is the new wavefront at that time. The wavelets are to be considered
only in the forward direction (i.e. the direction of propagation of light) and not in the reverse direction. If a
wavefront w1 at time t is given, then to draw the wavefront at time t + Dt take some points on the wavefront w1
and draw spheres of radius ‘cDt’. They are called secondary wavelets.
Draw a surface w2 which is tangential to all these secondary wavelets. w2 is the wavefront at time
‘t + Dt’. Huygen proved the laws of reflection and laws of refraction using concept of wavefronts.
PHYSICS 3
18. A point source of light is placed at origin, in air. The equation of wave front of the wave at time t, emitted by
source at t = 0, is (take refractive index of air as 1)
(A) x + y + z = ct (B) x2 + y2 + z2 = t2 (C) xy + yz + zx = c2 t2 (D) x2+ y2 + z2 = c2 t2
19. Spherical wave fronts shown in figure, strike a plane mirror. Reflected wave fronts will be as shown in
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. Wavefronts incident on an interface between the media are shown in the figure. The refracted wavefronts will
be as shown in
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21. Plane wavefronts are incident on a spherical mirror as shown. The reflected wavefronts will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
22. Certain plane wavefronts are shown in figure. The refractive index of medium is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1.5 (D) Cannot be determined
PHYSICS 4
23 STATEMENT-1 : Two coherent point sources of light having nonzero phase difference are seperated by
small distance. Then on the perpendicular bisector of line segment joining both the point sources, constructive
interference cannot be obtained.
STATEMENT-2 : For two waves from coherent point sources to interfere constructively at a point, the
magnitude of their phase difference at that point must be 2mp ( where m is a nonnegative integer) .
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
24. Radiowaves of wavelength 3 m are incident on a rectangular hole of width 5 m. A screen is placed at a distance
200 m from the hole. The width of the central maxima is:
(A) 240 m (B) 200 m (C) 300 m (D) 120 m
25. In the fraunhaufer differaction from a single slit illuminated by polychromatic light, the first minimum with
wavelength l1 is found to be coincident with the third minimum at l2. Then the relationship between these two
wavelengths is
(A) 3l1 = 0.3l2 (B) 3l1 = l2 (C) l1 = 3l2 (D) 0.3l1 = 3l2
26. An electromagnetic wave tr avelling through a transparent medium is given by
é y ù
E x ( y, t )= E ox sin 2p ê -7
- 3 ´ 1014 t ú in SI unit then the refractive index of medium is :
ë 5 ´ 10 û
(A) 1.2 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.33 (D) 2

27. If the relative permittivity and relative permeability of a medium are 2 & 1.28 respectively, then refractive index
of that material is :
(A) 1.25 (B) 25/16 (C) 5/8 (D) 1.6
28. In young’s double slit experiment, slits are arranged in such a way that besides central bright fringe, there is
only one bright fringe on either side of it. Slit separation d for the given condition cannot be (if l is wavelength
of the light used) :
(A) l (B) l/2 (C) 2l (D) 3l/2
29. A double-slit arrangement produces interference fringes that are 0.25º apart using wavelength 600 nm. If
angular separation is increased to 0.3º by changing wavelength of the light used, then the new wavelength must
be :
(A) 480 nm (B) 540 nm (C) 720 nm (D) 840 nm.
30*. If one of the slits of a standard Young's double slit experiment is covered by a thin parallel sided glass slab so
that it transmits only one half the light intensity of the other, then:
(A) The fringe pattern will get shifted towards the covered slit
(B) The fringe pattern will get shifted away from the covered slit
(C) The bright fringes will become less bright and the dark ones will become more bright
(D) The fringe width will remain unchanged
31. In semiconductor the valence band at 0 K is
(A) completely filled (B) completely empty (C) partially filled (D) nothing can be said
PHYSICS 5
32. Cu and Ge are cooled to 70 K then :–

(A) the resistance of Cu will decrease and that of Ge will decrease
(B) the resistance of Cu will decrease and that of Ge will increase
(C) the resistance of both Cu and Ge decrease
(D) the resistance of both Cu and Ge increase
33. If number of holes and free electrons in semiconductor are ne and ne respectively then :–
(A) nP > ne in intrinsic semiconductor (B) nP = ne in extrinsic semiconductor
(C) nP = ne in intrinsic semiconductor (D) ne > np in intrinsic semiconductor
34. The resistivity of a semiconductor depends upon its
(A) size (B) type of atoms
(C) length (D) size and type of atom
35. The forbidden energy gap in Ge is :–
(A) 0.72 eV (B) 0.072 eV (C) 7.2 eV (D) 0.0072 eV
36. The energy gap in a semiconductor is of the order of :–
(A) 1 eV (B) 5 eV (C) 10 eV (D) 15 eV
37. P type semi conductor is :–
(A) positively charged
(B) made by mixing of impurity of boron in germanium
(C) made by mixing of impurity of phosphorus in silicon.
(D) made by mixing of impurity of carbon in silicon
38. The depletion region of a p-n junction contains :–
(A) electrons only (B) electrons and holes both
(C) holes only (D) neither electrons nor holes
39. The p-n junction is a :–
(A) ohmic resistance (B) non ohmic resistance
(C) positive resistance (D) nagative resistance
40. When the value of current increases in p-n junction, then contact potential
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains unchanged (D) depends on temperature
41. p-n junction is called as forward biased when
(A) positive terminal of the battery is connected to the p-type semiconductor and negative terminal is connected
to the n-type semiconductor
(B) positive terminal of battery is connected to the n-type semiconductor and negative terminal is connected to
the p-type semiconductor
(C) positive terminal of battery is connected to either p or n-type of semiconductor
(D) a mechanical force is applied in forward direction
PHYSICS 6
42. When a p-n junction is reversed biased, then the current through the junction is mainly due to :–
(A) diffusion of charge (B) nature of the material
(C) drift of the charges (D) both drift and diffusion of the charges
43. The thinnest part of a transistor is :–
(A) emitter (B) base
(C) collector (D) according to transistor parameters none of these
44. In transistor symbols, the arrows shows the direction of :–
(A) current in the emitter (B) electron current in the emitter
(C) holes current in the emitter (D) electron current in the emitter
45. Transistor can be used as :–
(A) amplifier (B) modulator (C) oscillator (D) all of the above
PHYSICS 7
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 18 WPE & COM-MOMENTUM PHYSICS
1. Work done by static friction on an object:
(A) may be positive (B) must be negative (C) must be zero (D) none of these
2*. A block of mass 2 kg is hanging over a smooth and light pulley through a light string. The other end of the string
is pulled by a constant force F = 40 N. The kinetic energy of the particle increase 40 J in a given interval of
time. Then : (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) tension in the string is 40 N

(B) displacement of the block in the given interval of time is 2 m
(C) work done by gravity is – 20 J
(D) work done by tension is 80 J
3. A particle of mass m is moving with speed u. It is stopped by a force F in distance x . If the stopping force is
4F then :
(A)work done by stopping force in second case will be same as that in first case.
(B) work done by stopping force in second case will be 2 times of that in first case.
(C) work done by stopping force in second case will be 1/2 of that in first case.
(D) work done by stopping force in second case will be 1/4 of that in first case.
r r
4. ( ) ( )
A force F = 3 t î + 5 ĵ N acts on a body due to which its position varies as s = 2 t 2 î - 5 ĵ . Work done by this
force in initial 2s is:
(A) 23 J (B) 32 J (C) zero (D) can't be obtained
5. Graph shows the acceleration of a 3 kg particle as an applied force moves it from rest along x axis. The total
work done by the force on the particle by the time the particle reaches x = 6 m, is equal to
(A) 20 J (B) 30 J (C) 40 J (D) 60 J

6. In the figure the variation of components of acceleration of a particle of mass 1 kg is shown w.r.t. time. The
r
initial velocity of the particle is u = (-3 î + 4 ĵ ) m/s. The total work done by the resultant force on the particle in
time interval from t = 0 to t = 4 seconds is :
(A) 22.5 J (B) 10 J (C) 0 (D) None of these
PHYSICS 1
r
7. The work done by the force F = A ( y 2 î + 2 x 2 ĵ ) , where A is a constant and x & y are in meters around the path
shown is:
(A) zero
(B) A d
(C) A d2
(D) A d3
8*. One of the forces acting on a particle is conservative then which of the following statement(s) are true about
this conservative force
(A) Its work is zero when the particle moves exactly once around any closed path.
(B) Its work equals the change in the kinetic energy of the particle
(C) Then that particular force must be constant.
(D) Its work depends on the end points of the motion, not on the path between.
9. Which of the following statement is not true?
(A) Work done by conservative force on an object depends only on the initial and final states and not on
the path taken.
(B) The change in the potential energy of a system corresponding to conservative internal forces is equal
to negative of the work done by these forces.
(C) If some of the internal forces within a system are non-conservative, then the mechanical energy of
the system is not constant.
(D) If the internal forces are conservative, the work done by the internal forces is equal to the change in
mechanical energy.
10. In the track shown in figure section AB is a quadrant of a circle of 1 metre radius. A block is released at A and
slides without friction until it reaches B. After B it moves on a rough horizontal floor and comes to rest at
distance 3 metres from B. What is the coefficient of friction between floor and body ?
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 3/8
11. In the Figure, the ball A is released from rest when the spring is at its natural length. For the block B, of mass
M to leave contact with the ground at some stage, the minimum mass of A must be:
(A) 2 M
(B) M
(C) M/2
(D) A function of M and the force constant of the spring.
12. Select the correct alternative.
(A) Work done by kinetic friction on a body always results in a loss of its kinetic energy.
(B) Work done on a body, in the motion of that body over a close loop is zero for every force in nature.
(C) Total mechanical energy of a system is always conserved no matter what type of internal and external
forces on the body are present.
(D) When total work done by a conservative force on the system is positive then the potential energy associated
with this force decreases.
PHYSICS 2
13. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a speed of 16 m/s, after some time, when it again passes through
the point of projection, its speed is found to be 8 m/s. It is known that the work done by air resistance is same
during upward and downward motion. Then the maximum height attained by the particle is (Take g = 10 m/s 2
):
(A) 8 m (B) 4.8 m (C) 17.6 m (D) 12.8 m
14. A block attached with a spring is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. Now the free end of the spring is pulled
with a constant velocity u horizontally. Then the maximum energy stored in the spring and block system during
subsequent motion is :
1
(A) mu2 (B) mu2 (C) 2mu2 (D) 4 mu2
2
15. A ball is suspended from the top of a cart by a string of length 1.0 m. The cart and the ball are initially moving
to the right at constant speed V, as shown in figure I. The cart comes to rest after colliding and sticking to a
fixed bumper, as in figure II. The suspended ball swings through a maximum angle 60°. The initial speed V is
(take g = 10 m/s2)
60°
L
Bumper Figure (2) Bumper

Figure (1)
(A) 10 m/s (B) 2 5 m/s (C) 5 2 m/s (D) 4 m/s
16. The centre of mass of a system of particles is at (x0, y0, z0) where x0 £ 0, y0 £ 0. It is known that no particle lies
in the region y < 0 and x < 0 then the position of centre of mass can be
(A) (0, 0, 4) (B) (0, – 4, 0) (C) (– 4, 0, 0) (D) ( – 4, – 4, 4,)
17. A can of height h is filled with liquid of uniform density r. If the liquid is coming out from the bottom then centre
of mass of the
(A) first ascends and then descends (B) first descends and then ascends
(C) always decreases (D) none of these
18. In the figure shown find out the distance of centre of mass of a system of a uniform circular plate of radius 3
R from O in which a hole of radius R is cut whose centre is at 2R distance from centre of large circular plate.
(A) R/4 (B) R/5
(C) R/2 (D) none of these
PHYSICS 3
19. A homogeneous plate PQRST is as shown in figure. The centre of mass of plate lies at midpoint A of segment
b
QT. Then the ratio of is (PQ = PT = b; QR = RS = ST = a)
a
13 13
(A) (B)
4 2
13 13
(C) (D)
2 4
20. A disc (of radius r cm) of uniform thickness and uniform density r has a square hole with sides of length l =
r
cm. One corner of the hole is located at the center of the disc and centre of the hole lies on y-axis as
2
shown. Then the y-coordinate of position of center of mass of disc with hole (in cm) is
r r
(A) - 2 (p - ¼) (B) - 4 (p - ¼)
r 3r
(C) - 4 (p - ½) (D) - 4 (p - ¼)
21. A train of mass M is moving on a circular track of radius ' R ' with constant speed V. The length of the train is
half of the perimeter of the track. The linear momentum of the train will be
2M V
(A) zero (B) (C) MVR (D) MV
p
22. An object A is dropped from rest from the top of a 30 m high building and at the same moment another object
B is projected vertically upwards with an initial speed of 15 m/s from the base of the building. Mass of the
object A is 2 kg while mass of the object B is 4 kg. The maximum height above the ground level attained by the
centre of mass of the A and B system is (take g = 10 m/s2) :
(A) 15 m (B) 25 m (C) 30 m (D) 35 m
23. With respect to the centre of mass of a two body system.
(A) the two bodies may move in same direction
(B) the heavier body may move faster than the lighter body
(C) one body may be at rest while the second body is moving
(D) none of these
24. A rigid system consists of two point masses, A and B of masses 1 kg and 2 kg respectively. At an instant the
kinetic energy of A with respect to the centre of mass is 2 Joules and the velocity of centre of mass is 2 m/s.
The kinetic energy of the system at this instant is :
(A) 9 J (B) 11 J (C) 13 J (D) none of these
25. When a block is placed on a wedge as shown in figure, the block starts sliding down and the wedge also
start sliding on ground. All surfaces are rough. The centre of mass of (wedge + block) system will move
rough
(A) leftward and downward.
Block
(B) right ward and downward.
Wedge
(C) leftward and upwards.
rough
(D) only downward.
PHYSICS 4
26. A person P of mass 50 kg stands at the middle of a boat of mass 100 kg moving at a constant velocity 10 m/s
with no friction between water and boat and also the engine of the boat is shut off. With what velocity (relative
to the boat surface) should the person move so that the boat comes to rest. Neglect friction between water and
boat.
(A) 30 m/s towards right (B) 20 m/s towards right (C) 30 m/s towards left (D) 20 m/s towards left
27. Block ‘ A ‘ is hanging from a vertical spring and is at rest. Block ‘ B ‘ strikes the block ‘A’ with velocity ‘ v ‘ and
sticks to it. Then the value of ‘ v ‘ for which the spring just attains natural length is:
60 m g2 6 m g2 10 m g2
k k k
28. Two skaters A and B, both of mass 70 kg, are approaching one another over a frictionless fixed surface, each
with a speed of 1 m/s with respect to the surface. A carries a bowling ball of mass of 10 kg. Both skaters can
throw the ball at 5 m/s relative to themselves. To avoid collision they start throwing the ball back and forth when
they are 10 m apart. How many minimum number of throws are required ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
29. Of the sentences
1
(i) Internal forces acting on the system cannot change mvcm2 , where m is the total mass of the system.
2
(ii) Internal forces acting on a system cannot change kinetic energy of system with respect to centre of mass
(A) both (i) and (ii) are correct (B) only (i) is correct
(C) only (ii) is correct (D) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong.
30*. When two blocks connected by a stretched spring (as shown) start moving from rest towards each other under
mutual interaction. Then (pickup the correct alternative or alternatives)
(A) their velocities are equal and opposite. (B) their accelerations are equal and opposite.
(C) the force acting on them are equal and opposite. (D) their momentum are equal and opposite
PHYSICS 5

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TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2022

(D) Temperature at junctions B, O and D are same

(A) 60 C (B) 90 C (C) 180 C (D) 27 0 C

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

A a (T12 - T22 ) A a (T12 + T22 ) A a (T12 + T22 ) A a (T12 - T22 )

cal cal cal cal

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

statements is/are correct ?

Note : ‘*’ indicate multiple correct questions.

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

9*. For a satellite to appear stationary to an observer on earth

(C) pGr (D) not possible to find as situation is not feasible

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

3GM2 3 GM2 3 GM2 GM2

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

GMm GMm 4GMm GMm

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 22.5° (B) 45° (C) 180° (D) 360°

Note : ‘*’ indicate multiple correct questions.

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(i) Find the value of r1 and r3 in terms of rW if r2 = 2rW

(A) 4 a g h r R (B) 8 a g h r R (C) 2 a g h r R (D) none of these

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) 6gh (B) 2 gh (C) 2 2gh (D) gh

prgl 2r 2 prg l2r 2 prg l2r 2 3prg l2r 2

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) 20 sec. (B) 18 sec. (C) 10 sec. (D) 5 sec.

(A) 20 m (B) 10 m (C) 15 m (D) 25 m

(A) diminishes. (B) stops altogether.

(C) goes out in a straight line. (D) curves upward.

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Note : ‘*’ indicate multiple correct questions.

(A) Deflected up (B) Deflected down

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) 14/5 (B) 7/5 (C) 3/7 (D) none of these

(A) Final charge on each capacitor will be zero

(A) Charge on the 1.5 mF capacitor will become 180 mC.

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) 4 Ce2 (B) ½ Ce2 (C) 2 Ce2 (D) 0

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 9 : 5 (D) 25 : 24

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) increase (B) decrease

(A) 2 m C (B) 1 m C (C) 1.33 m C (D) zero 'kwU;

(E1R 2 + E 2R1 ) C (E1 E 2 ) C (E1R1 + E2R 2 ) C

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) V1 = V2; R1 > R2, C1> C2 (B) V1 > V2, R1 > R2 ; C1 = C2

(A) Charge on the capacitor is 0.4 m C.

(A) 1 mc (B) 2 mc (C) 0 (D) 0.5 mc

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

COMPREHENSION (Q. 29 TO 32)

29. Time constant of the circuit is

(A) 2V (B) 7.6V (C) 10V (D) 12 V

COMPREHENSION (Q. 33 TO 35)

33. The power dissipated to the resistor R1 is

Note : ‘*’ indicate multiple correct questions.

(D) ratio of rms speed to average speed of molecules is 2 (2N + 1)

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) 3 J (B) 6J (C) 9J (D) 1.5 J

(A) (B) (C) (D)

REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) 2 K/sec (B) 4 K/sec (C) 6 K/sec (D) 8 K/sec