Chemistry Revision Sheet

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REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2022
JEE - (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2022
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
(Atomic Structure) ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 1 (TIME : 70 min.) M. Marks : 120 PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
Single Option Correct (+4, – 1)

1. What kind of transition in the H Balmer series of H– atom would have shortest l ?
(A) n1 = 2, n 2 = 3 (B) n1 = 2, n 2 = 4 (C) n1 = 2,n 2 = ¥ (D) n1 = 2, n 2 = 0
2. Which of the following is incorrect set of quantum no. ?
(A) n = 1 l = 0 m = 0 s = + 1 2 (B) n = 4 l = 2 m = -1 s = - 1 2
(C) n = 100 l = 3 m = -2 s = + 1 2 (D) n = 100 l = 1 m = 0 s = 0
3. Velocity of an electron in nth state is given by :

(Vn th )
Z
(A) v n = 2.165 ´10
6
m / sec. (B) v n = 2.165 ´106 Z m / sec.
n
(C) v n = 2.165 ´10 -6 Z.n m / sec. (D) none of these.

4. A 3p orbital has
(A) two spherical nodes (B) two nonspherical nodes
(C) one spherical and one non sperical nodes (D) one spherical and two non spherical nodes.
5. The kinetic energy of an electron in an orbit of radius r of Li 2+ ion is(e = electronic charge)
e2 e2 3e 2 3e 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r 3r r 2r
6. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr’s orbit of H-atom is -13.6e.v. Then the potential energy and kinetic
energy of e- in the 1st orbit of He+ are
(A) 54.4 e.v. and 27.2 e.v. respectively (B) –54.4 e.v. and 27.2 e.v. respectively
(C) –108.8 e.v. and 54.4 e.v. respectively (D) –108.8 e.v. and -54.4 e.v. respectively
7. The frequency of electron revolving in the nth orbit of the H-atom is proportional to
(A) n2 (B) n (C) n3 (D) n–3
8. The uncertainty in measurement of position and momentum are equal, the uncertainty in the measurement of
velocity of an electron is
(A) 3 × 1015 m/sec (B) 6 × 1015 m/sec (C) 8 × 1012 m/sec (D) 9 × 1015 m/sec
9. Calculate the total number of electron of same spin for having following set of quantum numbers,
1
n = 4, l = 2, s= +
2
(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 5 (D) 10
10. Total number of radial nodes present in 5f orbitals will be
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
CHEMISTRY 1
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Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE
11. According to Bohr’s model, if the kinetic energy of an electron in 2nd orbit of He+ is x, then what should be the
ionisation energy of the electron revolving in 3rd orbit of M5+ ion
x
(A) x (B) 4x (C) (D) 2x
4
12. What is the ratio of length of 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th orbit of Be3+, Li2+, He+ and H-atom respectively?
(A) 4 : 12 : 21 : 64 (B) 3 : 16 : 54 : 192 (C) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 (D) 16 : 9 : 4 : 1
13. The ionization energy of He is 19.6 × 10
+ –18
J atom . The energy of the first stationary state of Li+2 will be:
–1
(A) 84.2 × 10–18 J/atom (B) 44.10 × 10–18 J/atom (C) 63.2 × 10–18 J/atom (D) 21.2 × 10–18 J/atom
14. Which of the following set of quantum numbers are not permitted ?
(A) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = +1/2 (B) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 1, s = 0
(C) n = 2, l = 2, m = +1, s = – 1/2 (D) all of these
15. The shortest wave length in H spectrum of Lymen series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is –
(A) 1002.7 Å (B) 1215.67 Å (C) 1127.30 Å (D) 911.7 Å
16. How many electrons in a given atom can have the following quantum numbers ?
(A) n = 4, l = 2, m = 0 (B) n = 3
(C) n = 2, l = 1, m = – 1, s = + 1/2 (D) n = 4, l = 1
17. The ionization energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. The ionization energy of Li+2 ion will be ?
(A) 54.4 eV (B) 122.4 eV (C) 13.6 eV (D) 27.2 eV
18. In an X-ray experiment, different metals are used as the target. In each case, the frequency n of the radiation
produced is measured. If Z = atomic number which of the following plots will be a straight line?
(A) n against Z (B) n against Z (C) n against Z (D) None of these
19. For an electron in a hydrogen atom, the wave function y is proportional to exp- t / a 0 , where a0 is the Bohr’s ’s
radius. What is the ratio of the probability of finding the electron at the nucleus to the probability of finding it at
a0 ?
1
(A) e (B) e 2 (C) (D) zero
e2
20. Four different sets of quantum numbers for 4 electrons are given below :
1 1 1 1
e1 = 4, 0, 0, - ; e2 = 3, 1, 1, - e3 = 3, 2, 2, + ; e4 = 3, 0, 0, +
2 2 2 2
The order of energy of e1, e2, e3 and e4 is :
(A) e1> e2 > e3 > e4 (B) e4> e3 > e2 > e1 (C) e3 > e1 > e2 > e4 (D) e2> e3 > e4 > e1
21. A particle A moving with a certain velocity has the de-Broglie wavelength of 1 Å. For particle B with mass 25%
of A and velocity 75% of A. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength.
(A) 3 Å (B) 5.33 Å (C) 6.88 Å (D) 0.48 Å
22. The velocity of an electron placed in 3rd orbit of H atom, will be :
(A) 2.79 × 107 cm/s (B) 9.27 × 1027 cm/s (C) 7.29 × 107 cm/s (D) 92.7 × 107 cm/s
CHEMISTRY 2
e
23. The increasing order (lowest first) of the values of for electron (e) proton (p), neutron (n) and alpha particle
m
(A) will be:
(A) n, a, p, e (B) e, p, n, a (C) n, p, e, a (D) n, p, a, e
24. The increasing order (lowest first) from the values of e/m (charge/mass) for electron (e),proton (p), neutron (n)
and alpha particle (A) is :
(A) e, p, n, a (B) n, p, e, a (C) n, p, a, e (D) n, a, p, e
25. The ratio of radius of 3rd and 4th Bohr’s orbits in hydrogen atom is :
(A) 3 : 4 (B) 3 : 8 (C) 9 : 16 (D) 8 : 9
26. If the shortest wavelength of hydrogen atom in Lyman series is x, then longest wavelength in Paschen series of
He+ is :
9x 36x 36x 5x
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 7 9
27. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ion have 3d2 electronic configuration
is :
(A) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+ (B) Ti+, V4+, Cr6+, Mn7+
(C) Ti4+, V3+, Cr2+, Mn3+ (D)Ti3+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+
(At. wt. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
28. An electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs. 1.50 times as much energy as the minium required
for it to escape from the atom. What is the wavelength of the emitted electron?
(A) 4.7 Å (B) 4.70 pm (C) 6.3 Å (D) 8.4 Å
29. If the shortest wavelength of H atom in Lyman series is ‘a’, then longest wavelength in Balmer series of He+
is :
(A) a/4 (B) 5a/9 (C) 4a/9 (D) 9a/5
30. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4f obital ?
(A) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +1/2 (B) n = 4, l = 4, m = –4, s = –1/2
(C) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +1/2 (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1/2
CHEMISTRY 3
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REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Periodic Properties) ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 02 (TIME : 70 min.) M. Marks : 120 INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1 Which of the following is correct increasing order of their ionic mobilities in aqueous medium?
(A) Li+<K+<Na+ (B) Na+<Mg2+<Al3+ (C) K+<Na+<Li+ (D) Al3+<Mg2+<Na +
2. Formula of stable halide which may formed by element of atomic no. 114 will be
(A) MX (B) MX2 (C) MX3 (D) MX4
3. The first four I.E. of an element (A) are 300 KJ, 500 KJ, 8000 KJ and 10000 KJ respectively. Similarly the first
three electron affinity values of an element (B) are –1000 KJ, +100 KJ, +500 KJ respectively. What will be the
formula of compound formed by A and B?
(A) AB (B) A 2 B (C) AB2 (D) AB3
4. Which of the following sets does not represent the correct order of the property indicated along with?
1. Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH) 2 < Ca(OH) 2 < Ba(OH) 2 - Basic character
2. Al 2 O3 < MgO < Na 2O < K 2 O - Basic character
3. Be < B < N < O - First Ionisation energy
4. NH 3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH 3 - Acidic character
5. The boiling point of Kr and Rn are –152°C and –62°C respectively. The approximate boiling point of Xe is
(A) 107°C (B) –107°C (C) 50°C (D) 70°C
6. Which of the following atoms and ions are isoelectronic
(A) Al3+ (B) F (C) Cl– (D) O2– (e) Na
(f) Mg 2+
The correct answer is

(A) Al+3 , O–2 , Mg+2 (B) F, Cl–, Na (C) Al+3, F, Cl– (D) None of these
7. The bond distance between C–Cl in CCl4 is 1.76 Å. If atomic radius of C is 0.77 Å, The atomic radius of Cl is
(A) 0.95 Å (B) 0.55Å (C) 0.99Å (D) 1.05 Å
8. Ionization potential of Na would be numerically the same as
(A) Electron affinity of Na+ (B) Electronegativity of Na+
(B) Electron affinity of He (D) Ionization potential of Mg
9. How much energy in joules must be needed to convert all the atoms of sodium to sodium ions present in 2.3 mg
of sodium vapours ? Ionisation energy of sodium is 495 kJ mole–1
(A) 495 × 10–4 kJ/mol. (B) 395 × 10–4 kJ/mol. (C) 495 kJ/mol. (D) 300kJ/mol.
10. Solutions of equal strength of XOH and QOH are prepared. The Ionisation Potential of X and Q are 5.1 and
13.0eV respectively, whereas their Electronegativity are 0.9 and 3.2 respectively. Using the information, spot
the incorrect conclusion
(A) Reaction of XOH and NH4Cl will produce NH3
(B) Solution of QOH will give effervescence with NaHCO3
(C) Phenolphthalein will give pink colour with XOH solutions
(D) The pH of QOH solution will be more than 7
11. The IP1 , IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1 , 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The elements is
likely to be
(A) Na (B) Si (C) F (D) Ca
12. Calculate the effective nuclear charge (Z) for valence shell electrons of bromine atom
(A) 7.6 (B) 13.85 (C) 27.40 (D) 23.75
CHEMISTRY 1
13. The atomic number of three elements A,B and C are x , x + 1 and x + 2 , C is an alkali metal. In a compound of
A and C, the nature of bonding is
(A) Co-ordinate (B) Covalent (C) Ionic (D) Metallic
14. Which of the following relation is correct
(A) 2 I.P. – E.A. – E.N. = 0 (B) 2 I.P.– E.N + E.A. = 0
(C) 2 E.N. – I.P. – E.A. = 0 (D) E.N. – I.P. – E.A = 0
Where E.N. stands for electronegativity. E.A. stands for electron affinity and I.P. stands for lionization potential
15. Find out the value of Zeff for nitrogen
(A) 7 (B) 3.1 (C) 3.90 (D) None
16. The ionization potential of X– ion is numerically equal to :
(A) The electron affinity of X atom (B) The electronegativity of X atom
(C) The ionization potential of X (D) None of these
17. The electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl are
(A) O » Cl < N » S (B) O < S < Cl < N (C) N < O < S < Cl (D) O < N < Cl < S
18. The correct order of first ionizaiton potential is
(A) F < He > Mg > N > O (B) He > F > N > O > Mg
(C) He > O > F > N > Mg (D) N > F > He > O > Mg
19. The correct sequence of the ionic radii of the following is
(A) I– > S2– > Cl– > O2– > F– (B) S2– > I– > O2– > F–
(C) I– > S2– > Cl– > O2– > F– (D) I > S2 > Cl > F– > O2–
20. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it ?
(A) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2; electronegativity (B) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2; bond dissociation energy
(C) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2; oxidizing pwer (D) HI > HBr > HCl > HF; acidic property in water
21. Match the following
List I List II
1. Li < Na < K < Rb (i) Increasing order energy
2. Li < Be > B < C (ii) Decreasing order of metallic nature
3. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (iii) Increasing order of size
4. F2 > O2 > Cl2 > s (iv) increasing order of electron affinity
The correct matching is
1 2 3 4
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
CHEMISTRY 2
22. Match the following

List I List II
1. element with highest electronegativity (i) I2
2. element with highest electron affinity (ii) Br2
3. liquid non metal (iii) Cl2
4. metallic solid (iv) F2
The correct matching is
1 2 3 4
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
23. Calculate the electronegativity of fluorine from the following data.
EH–H = 104.2 Kcal mol–1
EF – F = 36.6 Kcal mol–1
EH – F = 134.6 Kcal mol–1
XH = 2.1
(A) 2.86 (B) 3.76 (C) 1.86 (D) 3.26
24. The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) require first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below
O(g) + e– ® O–(g); DH0 = –142 kJ mol–1
O–(g) + e– ® O2–(g); DH0 = 844 kJ mol–1
This is because
(A) oxygen is more electronegative
(B) oxygen has high electron affinity
(C) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
(D) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron
25. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
(A) Zr, Hf have about the same radius (B) Zr, Y have about the same radius
(C) Zn, Nb have same oxidation state (D) Zr, Zn have same oxidation state
26. In which of the following arrangements, the order is not according to the property indicated against it?
(A) I < Br < F < Cl
Increasing electron gain ethalpy
(B) Li < Na < K < Rb
increasing metallic radius
(C) B < C < N < O
Increasing first ionization energy
(D) I+ < I < I–
Increasing ionic size
27. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the element B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(A) F < S < P < B (B) P < S < B < F (C) B < P < S < F (D) B < S < P < F
28. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 106 J mol–1. The energy required to excite the electron in the
atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(A) 8.51 × 105 J mol–1 (B) 6.56 × 105 J mol–1 (C) 7.56 × 105 J mol–1 (D) 9.84 × 105J mol–1
CHEMISTRY 3
29. Which is not the correct order for the stated property :
(A) Ba > Sr > Mg; atomic radius (B) F > O > N ; first ionization enthalpy
(C) Cl > F > I; electron affinity (D) O > Se > Te; electronegativity
30. Which one of the following order is correct for the first ionisation energies of the element
(A) B < Be < N < O (B) Be < B < N < O
(C) B < Be < O < N (D) B < O < Be < N
CHEMISTRY 4
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REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Gaseous State) ENTHUSE COURSE

1. Which is the correct order of value of ‘a’ the Vander Waal’s constant
(A) H2< He < Ar < N2 (B) He < H2< N2< Ar (C) H2< He < N2<Ar (D) He < H2< Ar < N2
2. 1 mole of Ne and 1 mol of N2 are placed in a container. Indicate the incorrect statement about the system.
(A) Molecules of the two gases strike the wall of the container with same frequency
(B) Molecules of Ne strike the wall more frequently
(C) Both gases exert same pressure
(D) N2 has user average molecular speed.
3. Two container of same volume containing one mole of O2 & H2 , having Vrms of H2 is 2 times that of O2. If the
two container connected then what will be the ratio of rate of diffusion of O 2 & H2.
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 :1 (C) 16 :1 (D) 1 :1
4. Which of the following R value is incorrect ?
(A) 2 cal K–1 mol–1 (B) 7.189 × 1019 eV K–1mol–1
(C) 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 (D) 0.0821 litre atm mol–1 K–1
5. In a vessel, CO2 is present at a total pressure of 0.5 atm., some graphite is added to the vessel and it is found that
the equilibrium pressure is 0.8 atm, the Kp value will be :
6.4
(A) 8/5 atm (B) atm (C) 1.8 atm (D) 1.2 atm
5
6. A 2 lit flask containing NH3 at 2 atm is connected to a 3 lit flask containing HCl at 3 atm through a narrow tube.
What is the final total pressure if T is const.?
5
(A) 1 atm (B) 2.5 atm (C) atm (D) 0
3
7. Four gases A, B, C, D had r.m.s. velocity (C) in the order CA > CB > CC > CD at certain constant temperature.
1
If K.E. = MC2 , then the order of their K.E. at the same T is
2
(A) K.EA > K.EB > K.EC > K.ED (B) K.ED > K.EC > K.EB > K.EA
(C) K.ED = K.EC = K.EB = K.EA (D) Order of mass of A,B,C,D are required
8. LiNO3 decomposes on heating producing gases and a solid residue. If 4 moles of LiNO3 are decomposed then
volume of gas evolved at STP is
(A) 56 lit (B) 112 lit (C) 44.8 lit (D) 22.4 lit
9. The compressibility factor of Helium as a real gas is
a Pb RTV
(A) unity (B) 1 - (C) 1 + (D)
RTV RT 1- a
10. In the given figure, the valves A and B are opened simultaneously. The white fumes of NH4Cl will first form at
(A) X (B) Y
(C) Z (D) Simultaneously at X, Y and Z
CHEMISTRY 1
11. 0.553 g of a Boron-Hydrogen compound created a pressure of 0.658 atm in a bulb of 407 ml at 373 K. If the
compound has 85.7% boron, what will be the molecular formula of the compound ?
(Given atomic mass of B = 10.8)
(A) B2 H6 (B) B3 H8 (C) B5 H9 (D) B6 H14
12. 4.0 of argon (at.mass = 40) in a bulb at a temperature of T K had a pressure P atm. When the bulb was placed
in hotter bath at a temperature 50° more than the first one, 0.8 g of gas had to be removed to get the original
pressure. T is equal to
(A) 510 K (B) 200 K (C) 100 K (D) 73 K
13. The vapour pressure of wate at 20°C is 17.5 torr. What will be the no. of moles of water present in one litre of
air at 20°C and 40% relative humidity ?
(A) 4.2 × 10–4 mole (B) 4.2 × 10–6 mole (C) 3.82 × 10–4 mole (D) 3.82 × 10–6 mole
14. One mole each of a monoatomic, diatomic and triatomic gases are mixed. C p/Cv for the mixture is :
(A) 1.40 (B) 1.428 (C) 1.67 (D) None of these
15. An L.P.G. cylinder contains 15 kg of butane gas at 27°C and 10 atmospheric pressure. It was leaking and its
pressure fell down to 8 atmospheric pressure after one day. The gas leaked in 5 days is :
(A) 10 kg (B) 3 kg (C) 15 kg (D) 12 kg
16. Oxygen gas is collected by downward displacement of water in a jar. The level of water inside the jar is adjusted
to the height of water outside the jar. When the adjustment is made, the pressure exerted by the oxygen is :
(A) equal to the atmospheric pressure

(B) equal to the vapour pressure of oxygen at that temperature
(C) equal to atmospheric pressure plus aqueous tension at that temperature
(D) equal to atmospheric pressure minus aqueous tension at that temeprature
17. The temperature at which the second virial coefficient of a real gas is zero is called :
(A) critical temperature (B) eutectic point
(C) boiling point (D) Boyle’s temperature
18. The inversion temperature (T i) for a gas is given by :
a 2a Rb 2Rb
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Rb Rb a a
19. If for two gases of molecular weights MA and MB at temperature TA and TB, TAMB = TBMA, then which
property has the same magnitude for both the gases ?
(A) Density (B) Pressure (C) KE per mol (D) RMS speed
20. Certain volume of a gas exerts on its walls some pressure at a particular temperature. It has been foundthat by
reducing the volume of the gas to half of its original value the pressure becomes twice that of the initial value at
constant temperature. This happens because :
(A) weight of the gas increases with pressure
(B) speed of the gas molecules decreases
(C) more number of gas molecules strike the surface per second
(D) gas molecules attract each other
21. If a vessel containing hydrogen chloride at a pressure P is connected with another vessel of the same volume
containing ammonia at a pressure P and the connecting tube opened so that they can mix and form a white solid
then the gas pressure:
(A) is equal to the pressure P (B) will be P/P = 1
(C) will be doubled, i.e. 2P (D) drops to zero
CHEMISTRY 2
22. A balloon filled with methane (CH4) is pricked with a sharp point and quickly plunged into a tank of hydrogen at
the same pressure. After sometime, the balloon will have :
(A) enlarged (B) collapsed
(C) remained unchanged in size (D) ethylene (C2H4) inside it
23. The average kinetic energy of one molecule of an ideal gas at 27ºC and 1 atm pressure is:
(A) 900 cal K–1 molecule–1 (B) 6.21 × 10–21 JK–1 molecule–1
(C) 336.7 JK–1 molecule–1 (D) 3741.3 JK–1 molecule–1
24. The pressure p of a gas is plotted against its absolute temperature T for two different constant volumes, V1
and V2 . When V1 > V2 , the
(A) Curves have the same slope and do not intersect
(B) Curves must intersect at some point other than T = 0
(C) Curve for V2 has a greater slope than that for V1
(D) Curve for V1 has a greater slope than that for V2

25. Which one of the following statements is false
(A) Avogadro number = 6.02 ´ 10

21
(B) The relationship between average velocity (v) and root mean square velocity (u) is v = 0.9213u
(C) The mean kinetic energy of an ideal gas is independent of the pressure of the gas
(D) The root mean square velocity of the gas can be calculated by the formula (3RT / M)1/ 2
26. A wheather balloon filled with hydrogen at 1 atm and 27o C has volume equal to 12000 litres. On ascending it
reaches a place where the temperature is -23o C and pressure is 0.5 atm. The volume of the balloon is
(A) 24000 litres (B) 20000 litres (C) 10000 litres (D) 12000 litres
27. A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which CO 2 is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO 2 behaves like an ideal
gas, the volume of the dissolved CO 2 at STP is
(A) 0.224 litre (B) 0.448 litre (C) 22.4 litre (D) 2.24 litre
28. Equation of Boyle’s law is
dP dV dP dV d 2P dV d 2P d2V
(A) =- (B) =+ (C) =- (D) =+
p V P V P dT P dT
29. The temperature of the gas is raised from 27o C to 927 o C , the root mean square velocity is
(A) 927 / 27 times the earlier value (B) Same as before
(C) Halved (D) Doubled
30. If some moles of O 2 diffuse in 18 sec and same moles of other gas diffuse in 45 sec then what is the molecular
weight of the unknown gas ?
452 182 182 452

(A) ´ 32 (B) ´ 32 (C) (D)
18 2 452 452 ´ 32 182 ´ 32
CHEMISTRY 3
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REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Chemical Bonding) ENTHUSE COURSE

1. Which of the following combination leads to the formation of antibonding molecular orbital.
(A) + & + (B) & (C) & (D) &
2. Which of the molecule is not 5p2 hybridized ?

(A) BF 3 (B) CO 3 2– (C) N - atom in C5H5N (D) H3 o+
3. Among the following spectes
CO2, CH3COO–, Co, CO3–2, HCHO which has the weakest C ––––––––– O bond ?
(A) CO (B) CO 2 (C) CO 3 2– (D) CH3 COO –
(e) HCHO
4. The ÐHSH bond angle in H2S is 920. It infers to
(A) S is sp3 hybridised
(B) Lonepair- lonepair repulsion is greater than bond +pair- bond pair repulsion.
(C) The bonds are more or less purely p-type
(D) The bondpair - bondpair repulsion is high enough due to larger size of sulphur.
5. Which of the following is incorrect for C2 molecule?
(A) Its bond order is 2 (B) Both bonds are p bonds.
(C) one bond is s and other bond is p (D) It is diamagnetic
6. N-N bond is absent in
(A) N 2 O (B) N 2 O 3 (C) N 2 O 4 (D) N 2 O 5
7. According to VSEPR theory, “as the electronegativity of peripheral atom increases bond angle decreases”.
Hence the correct order of bond angle is observed in
(A) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 (B) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
(C) BF3 = BCl3 = BBr3 = BI3 (D) BI3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3
8. How the hybridisation, bond angle, bond length and dipole moment changes when BF3 is converted to BF4- ?
Hybridisation Bond angle Bond Dipole
length mom.
(A) sp2 ¾¾
® sp3 increases decreases increases
(B) sp3 ¾¾
® sp3 unchanged increases decreases
(C) sp2 ¾¾
® sp3 decreases unchanged increases
(D) sp2 ¾¾ ® sp3 decreases increases unchanged
9. The decreasing order of Bond length of the following species
(A) O-22 > O2 > O 2- > O+2 > O +22 (B) O-22 > O2- > O2 > O 2+ > O 2+2
(C) O+22 > O2+ > O2 > O 2- > O 2-2 (D) O-22 > O+22 > O 2 > O+2 > O 2-
10. Bond length of HCl is 1.275 Å (Charge = 4.8 × 10 –10 e.s.u.) if m = 1.02 D, then HCl is:
(A) 100% ionic (B) 83% covalent (C) 50% covalent (D) 40% ionic
CHEMISTRY 1
11. In which of the following compounds carbon atom undergoes hybridization of more than one type
(i) CH3CH2 CH2CH3 (ii) CH3 —CH=CH–CH3 (iii) CH 2 =CH–CH2 –CH3 (iv) H–C ºC–H
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (ii)
12. The type of hybridization of Xe in XeF 6 will be the same as that of the central atom in the following
molecule:
(A) PCl5 (B) SF6 (C) IF7 (D) CCl4
13. The order of increasing polarity in HCl, CO 2 , H2O and HF molecules is :

(A) CO2 , HCl, H2O, HF (B) HF, H2 O, HCl, CO2
(C) CO 2, HCl, HF, H2 O (D) CO 2 , HF, H2O, HCl
14. The correct order in which the O – O bond length increases in the following is :
(A) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (B) H2O2 < O3 < O2 (C) O3 < O2 < H2O2 (D) O2 < H2O2 < O3
15. In which of the following there exists a pp -dp bonding ?
(A) Graphite (B) Diamond (C) Dimethyl amine (D) Trisilylamine
16. Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is :
(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 16 (D) 20
17. The value of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic
character of A – B bond is :
(A) 43% (B) 50% (C) 55.3% (D) 72.24%
18. –
CH3 is an isostere of
(A) CH4 (B) NH 3 (C) BH3 (D) CH3 +
19. The nature of p-bond in perchlorate ion is
(A) O (dp) – Cl (pp) (B) O (pp) – Cl (dp) (C) O (dp) – Cl (dp) (D) O (dp) – Cl (dp)
20. In which of the following molecules/ions all the bonds are not equal ?
(A) SF4 (B) SiF4 (C) XeF4 (D) BF4
21. The charge/ size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following sequences represents
the increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species : K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+?
(A) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ (B) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+
(C) Ca2+ < Mg+ < Be2+ < K+ (D) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+
22. Which of the following are possible resonating structures of N2O ?
+ +
+
N N O N N O N N O and N N O
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1, 2 (B) 1, 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All of these

23. The hybridization of P in PO43– is same as in :
(A) I in ICl -4 (B) S in SO3 (C) N in NO3- (D) S in SO 24-
24. Which one is planar molecule :

(A) XeO4 (B) XeO3 F (C) XeO2F 2 (D) XeF4
CHEMISTRY 2
25. The correct order of dipole moment is :

(A) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (B) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(C) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (D) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
26. In which of the process, the bond order increases and magnetic behaviour changes ?
(A) N 2 ¾¾
® N +2 (B) C 2 ¾¾
® C +2 (C) NO ¾¾
® NO+ (D) O 2 ¾¾
® O +2
27. In which of the following pp-dp bonding is observed :
(A) NO3- (B) SO32- (C) BO33- (D) CO32-

28. Which species has the maximum number of lone pair of electrons on the central atom ?
(A) ClO3– (B) XeF4 (C) SF4 (D) I3–
29. Which of the following species have undistorted octahedral sturctures
(I) SF6 (II) PF6- (III) SiF62- (IV) XeF6
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A) I, II and IV (B) I, II and III (C) I, II and IV (D) II, III and IV
30. Which one of the follwing compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule ?
(A) SO2 (B) OH 2 (C)SH2 (D) NH 3
CHEMISTRY 3
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Ionic Equilibrium) ENTHUSE COURSE


1. Calculate the molarity of each ion in the solution after 2.0 L of 3 M AgNO3 is mixed with 3 L of 1.0 M BaCl2
(A) [Ba 2 + ] = 1.6M;[NO3- ] = 1.2M (B) [Ag+] 1.2M ; [Cl–] = 1.2M
(C) [Ba 2+ ] = 1.0M;[NO3- ] = 3.0M (D) None of these

2. 100 ml HCN of 0.1M is titrated with 100 ml 0.1M NaOH solution. At the neutral point pH of this solution will
be (given pka of HCN=4.74)
(A) 7 (B) 8.72 (C) 6.5 (D). 5.74
3. The pH of blood is 7.4. If the buffer in blood is CO2 and HCO3- then the ratio of conjugate base to acid (H2CO3)
to maintain the pH of the blood will be (given K1 of H2CO3=4.5 x 10-7)
(A). 8.5 (B). 10.0 (C). 11.25 (D). 1
4. Match the following for solubitity product of compound in aquous solution.
compound K sp
A) Mg ( MnO4)2 i) 2 ´10-14
B) Ca ( MnO4)2 ii) 1.5 ´10-16
C) Sr (MnO4)2 iii) 3.5 ´10-10
D) Ba (MnO4)2 iv) 2.15 ´ 10-12
(A) A ® i B ® iii C ® iv D ® ii (B) A ® iv B ® iii C ® ii D ® i
(C) A ® iii B ® iv C ® i D ® ii (D) A ® iv B ® iii C ® i D ® ii
5. If Ka & Kb of NH 2 - CH - COOH are 10–3 and 10–4 respectively then pH at isoelectric point is
|
CH 3
(A) 3.5 (B) 7.5 (C) 4.5 (D) 6.5
6. One littre of saturated solution of MgCl2 is evaporated to dryness, due to which 20 mg of residue is left. What
is the solubility product of MgCl2 of that solution.
(A) 2 ´ 10-10 (B) 4.7 ´ 10-9 (C) 3.39 ´ 10-11 (D) 5.32 ´ 10-12
7. 10 ml of 0.2 M acid is added to 250 ml of a buffer solution with pH = 6.34 . The pH of the solution becomes 6.32. The
buffer capacity of the solution is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4
8. Heat of neutralisation when 200 ml of 0.1 M HCl is mixed with 300 ml of 0.2 M NaOH will be
(A) –57.1 kJ (B) –11.42 kJ (C) –1.142 kJ (D) –114.2 kJ
9. To 100 ml of 2 M aniline, 100 ml of 2 M HCl solution is added. P of the final solution at 25°C is
H
(Ka of anilinium ion is 10–9)

(A) 2.5 (B) 7 (C) > 7 (D) 4.5
10. If 50 mL of 0.2 M NaCN is mixed with 50 mL of 0.2 M HCl then ( K b for CN - = 2 ´ 10-5 )
(A). [CN - ] = 0.1 M (B). [H3 O+ ] = 0.1M (C). HCN = 0.1 M (D). [H3O + ] = [CN - ] = 7 ´ 10-6
11. +
Equilibrium constant for the reaction NH 4 OH (aq ) + H (aq ) NH +4(aq) + H 2 O(I) is 1.80 ´ 109 . Hence equilib-
3 + 3H+
rium constant for the ionization NHNH H 2 O(I)
2 O(I) NHNH +
+ OH
4(aq )4(aq) + OH -
(aq) (aq ) is
(A) 5.55 ´ 10-10 (B) 1.80 ´ 10-9 (C) 1.80 ´ 105 (D) 1.80 ´ 10-5
CHEMISTRY 1
12. What will be the value of Kw at 90ºC, if [H+] in pure water is 10–6 gram ion/litre?
(A) 10–10 (B) 10–16 (C) 1 x 10–12 (D) 2 x 10–6
13. Concentration of [H+] will decrease on mixing which of the following salts with the solution of acetic acid
(A) KCN (B) NaCl (C) NH4Cl (D) Al2(SO4)3
14. Which of the following is true for aqueous solution of CH3NH2 of 0.1 M concentration
(A) [OH–] = 0.1M (B) pH = 0 (C) pH < 7 (D) pH > 7
15. If pH of 0.1M acetic acid is 3.0, then dissociation constant of this acid will be
(A) 1 × 10–4 (B) 1 × 10–5 (C) 1 × 10–3 (D) 1 × 10–8
16. Solution of which of the following will have maximum pH value?
(A) NaCl (B) Na2CO3 (C) NH4Cl (D) NaHCO3
17. A precipitate will be obtained on mixing equal volume of which of the following solutions, if Ksp = 1.8 x 10–10
?
(A) 10–4 M [Ag+] and 10–4M [Cl–] (B) 10–5 M [Ag+] and 10–5M [Cl–]
(C) 10–6 M [Ag+] and 10–6M [Cl–] (D) 10–10 M [Ag+] and 10–4M [Cl–]
18. Which of the following are present in an aqueous solution of Na 2CO3?
(A) H2CO3, Na+, OH– (B) H2CO3, OH– (C) CO3–2 ion (D) Na+ and OH– ion
19. Why is NH4Cl added before NH4OH in qualitative analysis of third group ions?
(A) To increase concentration of OH– (B) To decrease concentration of OH–
(C) To make solution dilute (D) For pure precipitation
20. What is the volume needed to make normality of the solution 3N, prepared by mixing 250 ml 6 M HCl and 350
ml 8M HNO3?
(A) 833.3 ml (B) 933.3 ml (C) 1000 ml (D) 500ml
21. On dilution of a solution formed from CH3COONH4 and CH3COOH,
(A) pH decreases (B) pH increases (C) pH remains unchanged (D) None of the above
22. Which of the following indicators is appropriate in the titration of NH4OH and strong acid?
(A) Phenolphthalein (B) Methyl orange (C) Phenol red (D) Litmus
23. What will be the mole fraction of acetone in the solution formed by 1.8 gram of water and 2.9 gram of acetone?
2 1 2.9
(A) (B) 2.9 (C) (D)
3 3 4.7
24. Value of pKa for acetic acid at 25ºC is 4.75, then what will be the pH value of the solution in which ratio of
concentration of sodium acetate and acetic acid is 10?
(A) 3.75 (B) 4.75 (C) 5.75 (D) 10.0
25. Phenolphthalein gives which of the following colours in acidic medium.
(A) Pink (B) Red (C) No colour (D) Violet
26. If pKa of acctic acid at 25ºC is 4.75, then determine the pH of that solution in which 0.02M sodium acetate and
acetic acid are present?
(A) 4.75 (B) 3.75 (C) 5.75 (D) 2.75
27. Which of the following ions are present in the solution of the monosodium salt of orthophosphoric acid?
(A) Na+, PO4–3, H2PO4–2, HPO4–1 (B) Na+, HPO4–2
(C) Na+, H2PO4–, HPO4–2, PO4–3 (D) Na+, HPO4–2, PO4–3
CHEMISTRY 2
28. When equal volumes of the solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–11) will occur with:
(A) 10–4 M Ag+ + 10–4 M Cl– (B) 10–5 M Ag+ + 10–5 M Cl–
(C) 10–6 M Ag+ + 10–6 M Cl– (D) 10–10 M Ag+ + 10–10 M Cl–
29. pKa values of two acids A and B are 4 and 5. The strengths of these two acids are related as :
(A) Strength of acid A : strength acid B = 4:5 (B) acid A is about 3 times stronger than acid B
(C) acid B is 10 times stronger than acid A (D) the strengths of the two acids cannot be compared
30. A buffer solution has equal volumes of 0.2 M NH4OH and 0.02 M NH4Cl. The pKb of the base is 5. The
pH is :
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 7 (D) 4
CHEMISTRY 3
TM
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Ionic Equilibrium) ENTHUSE COURSE

1. The number of OH– ions in 1 ml of solution having pH = 4 is :
(A) 10–4 (B) 10–10 (C) 6.02 × 1010 (D) 6.02 × 1013
2. For preparing a buffer solution of pH 6 by mixing sodium acetate and acetic acid, the ratio of the concentration
of salt and acid should be (Ka= 10–5)
(A) 1 : 10 (B) 10 : 1 (C) 100 : 1 (D) 1 : 100
3. Three sparingly soluble salts A2X, AX and AX3 have the same solubility product. Their solubilities will be in the
order :
(A) AX 3 > AX > A 2 X (B) AX 3 > A 2 X > AX (C) AX > AX 3 > A 2 X (D) AX > A 2 X > AX3
4. What is the correct relationship between the pH of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH 1), sodium sulphide
(pH2), sodium selenide (pH3) and sodium telluride (pH4)
(A) pH1 > pH 2 > pH3 > pH 4 (B) pH1 > pH 2 = pH 3 > pH 4
(C) pH1 < pH 2 < pH 3 < pH 4 (D) pH1 < pH 2 < pH 3 = pH 4

5. 0.15 mole of pyridinium chloride has been added to 500 cm3 of 0.2 M pyridine solution (Kb for pyridine is 1.5 ×
10–9 M). pH is :
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 11 (D) 7
6. M(OH)x has Ksp = 4 × 10 –12
and solubility 10 M. x is :
–4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

7. To a mixture of NH4Cl and NH3 in water, a further amount of NH4Cl is added. The pH of the mixture is:
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) remain same (D) be unpredictable
8. What is the approximate OH ion concentration of a 0.150M NH3 solution : (Ka = 1.75 × 10–5)
–
(A) 2.62 × 10–6 (B) 4.6 × 10–6 (C) 1.62 × 10–3 (D) 3.6× 10–3
9. What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of 1.0 M ammonium formate assuming completely dissociation (pK a
for formic acid = 3.8 and pKb for ammonia = 4.8)
(A) 3.8 (B) 4.8 (C) 6.5 (D) 8.5
10. For a weak acid, percentage dissocation can be calculated by applying :
100 Ka
(A) (B) 100 (C) Both (D) None
1 + 10(pK a -pH) C
11. pH of 0.02 M solution of pyridinium hydrochloride (a salt of strong acid and weak base) is 3.44. The ionization
constant of pyridine is (given antilog 0.18 = 1.51)
(A) 1.51 × 10–7 (B) 1.51 × 10–8 (C) 1.51 × 10–9 (D) 1.51 × 10–10
12. 40 ml of 0.1 M ammonia solution is mixed with 20 ml of 0.1 M HCl. What is the pH of the mixture ? (pKb of
ammonia solution is 4.74)
(A) 4.74 (B) 2.26 (C) 9.26 (D) 5.00
13. In an equimolar mixture of NH4Cl and NH4OH, the ratio of concentration of salt to the base is increased ten
fold, then pOH of the solution
(A) increases ten fold (B) decreases ten fold (C) decreases by one (D) increases by one
CHEMISTRY 1
14. To an Ag2CrO4 solution CrO42– ions are added. This results in

(A) increase in Ag+ concentration (B) decrease in Ag+ concentration
(C) increase in the solubility product (D) decrease in the solubility product
15. 1.1 mol of A is mixed with 2.2 mol of B and the mixture is kept in a one-litre flask till the equilibrium,
A + 2B 2C + D is reached. At equilibrium 0.2 mol of C is formed. The equilibrium constant of the above
reaction is:
(A) 0.002 (B) 0.004 (C) 0.001 (D) 0.03
16. –39
The solubility product of iron (III) hydroxide is 1.6 × 10 . If X is the solubility of iron (III) hydroxide, then
which one of the following expressions can be used to calculate X :
(A) K sp = X
4
(B) K sp = 9X 4 (C) K sp = 27X 3 (D) K sp = 27X 4
17. pH of a buffer solution decreases by 0.02 units when 0.12 g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of a buffer solution
of acetic acid and potassium acetate at 27ºC. The buffer capacity of the solution is :
(A) 0.1 (B) 10 (C) 1 (D) 0.4
18. At 25ºC, the molar conductances at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl and BaCl2 are 248
× 10–4, 126 × 10–4 and 280 × 10–4 S m2 . mol–1 respectively. lom Ba(OH) 2 in Sm2 mol–1 is :
(A) 52.4 × 10–4 (B) 524 × 10–4 (C) 402 × 10–4 (D) 262 × 10–4
19. 20 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed with 50 mL of potassium acetate. Ka of acetic acid = 1.8 × 10–5 at 27ºC.
Calculate concentration of potassium acetate if pH of the mixture is 4.8
(A) 0.1 M (B) 0.04 M (C) 0.4 M (D) 0.02 M
20. Fear or excitement, generally cause on to breathe rapidly and it results in the decrease of CO 2 concentration in
blood. In what way will it change the pH of blood ?
(A) pH will increase (B) pH will decrease (C) No change (D) pH will adjust to 8
21. The pH at the equivalence point of a titration may differ from 7.0 because of
(A) the self ionisation of water (B) hydrolysis of the salt formed
(C) the indicator used (D) the concentration of the standard solution
22. In aqueous solution the ionisation constants for carbonic acid are K 1 = 4.2 × 10 –7 and
K2 = 4.8 × 10–11. Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solution of carbonic acid
(A) The concentration of H+ is double that of CO32–
(B) The concentration of CO32– is 0.034 M
(C) The concentration of CO32– is greater than that of HCO3–
(D) The concentrations of H+ and HCO3– are approximately equal
23. The hydrogen ion concentration of 0.06 M benzoic acid solution will be (K a = 6 × 10–3)
(A) 0.6 × 10–4 (B) 6 × 10–4 (C) 3.6 × 10–4 (D) 6 × 10–5
24. A beaker contains 1 litre of 0.1 M acetic acid solution. To neutralize the acid partially, 1g of NaOH (Mol. wt. =
40) has been added. If the pKa of acetic acid is 4.75, then the pH of the partially neutralized acetic acid solution
will be :
(A) 5.22 (B) 4.75 (C) 4.28 (D) 3.05
25. Mass of H2C2O4 required to reduce 100 mL of 0.008 M KMnO4 in acidic medium is x g and to neutralize 100
mL of 0.01 M Mg(OH)2 is yg, then the relation between x and y is
(A) x = y (B) x = 2y (C) 2x = y (D) x = 3y
26. The pH of 0.1 M solution of following increases in the order
(A) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl (B) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(C) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl (D) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
CHEMISTRY 2
27. What is [H+] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH ? Ka for
CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10–5
(A) 3.5 × 10–4 (B) 1.1 × 10–5 (C) 1.8 × 10–5 (D) 9.0 × 10–6
28. In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B– and HB, the Kb for B– is 10–10. The pH of buffer
solution is
(A) 10 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 4
29. Equal volumes of two solutions of NaOH, one having ph = 11 and the other having pH = 12 are mixed together.
pH of the resultant solution will be
(A) 11.5 (B) 11.26 (C) 11.74 (D) 10
30. If the pH of a Ba(OH)2 solution is 11. The concentration of Ba(OH)2 solution is
(A) 10-11 M (B) 0.001 M (C) 0.0005 M (D) 0.002 M
CHEMISTRY 3
TM
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN) (Coordination Compound) ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 07 (TIME : 70 min.) INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following dues not have optical Isomer
(A) éë Co(en) ( NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ùû Cl (B) [ Co(en)2 Cl2 ] Cl
(C) [ Co(NH 3 ) 2 - Cl3 ] (D) [ Co(en)3 ] Cl3
1
2. 100 ml M solution of CrCl3.6H2O, on treatment with excess of AgNO3 solution, yields 2.87 g AgCl. The
10
complex is
(A) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3] 3H2 O (B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] Cl2H2 O
(C) [Cr(H2O)5 Cl] Cl2H2 O (D) [Cr(H2 O)6]Cl3
3. Coordination number and oxidation state of Fe in Ferrocene are respectively
(A) 2, +2 (B) 6, +2 (C) 2, 0 (D) 6, 0
4. Which of the following give maximum number of isomers?
(A) [Co(NH3)4Cl2 ] (B) [Ni(en)(NH3 )4 ]2+ (C) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2 ] (D) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]+
5. Which of the following is incorrect for [Ni(CN)4]2–
(A) dsp2 hybridised - Ni (B) Tetrahedral shape (C) Low spin complex (D) All of these
6. Cr(H2O)xCl3 is an octahedral complex with Vant Hoff’s factor 3. The IUPAC name of the complex is
(A) Pentaaquachlorochromium (II) chloride (B) Tetraaquadichlorochromium (III) chloride
(C) Pentaaquachlorochromium (III) chloride (D) Triaquatrichlorochromium (III)
7. The number of ions formed on dissolving one molecule of FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O are :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
8. The correct name of compound [Cu(NH3)4](NO3)2 according to system is :
(A) tetraamminecopper (II) dinitrile (B) tetraamminecopper (II) nitrite
(C) cuprammonium nitrate (D) tetramminecopper(II) nitrate
9. The two complex given below are –
(A) geometrical isomers (B) position isomers (C) optical isomers (D) identical
10. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by –
A
B B A en
B
A
M M en M
(A) (B) B (C) (D) None of these
B B B
A en
A
CHEMISTRY 1
11. Oxidation number of Cr in the following complex is –

+
O2 3
(H2O)6Cr Cr(H2O)6
O–O
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 5

12. The correct IUPAC name for the complex ion [CoCl (ONO) (en)2] is : +
(A) bis (ethylenediamine) chloronitrito-O-cabalt (III) ion

(B) bis (ethylenediamine) chloronitrito-O-cobaltate (III) ion
(C) chlorodiethyldiamine nitrite -O-cobalt (III) ion
(D) chlorodiethyl diamine nitrocobalt (III) ion
13. Which one of the following is true ?
(A) The charge on the complex ion in K2 [PtCl4] is +2
(B) The coordination number of Hg in [Hg(en)2]2+ is 4 (here en is ethylenediamine)
(C) The oxidation number of iron in [Fe(CN)6]4– is +6.
(D) In transition metal complexes, ligands act as lewis acid
14. In the silver plating of copper, K[Ag(CN)2] is used instead of AgNO3. The reason is :
(A) less availability of Ag+ ions, as Cu cannot displace Ag from [Ag(CN)2] ion
(B) more voltage is required
(C) a thin layer of Ag is formed on Cu
(D) Ag+ ions are completely removed from solution
15. The ligand shown here is :
N N
(A) Tridendate (B) 1, 10-phenanthroline
(C) 1, 10-phenanthrine (D) 2, 2-dipyridyl
16. Tetrahedral complexes of the types of [Ma 4] and [Ma3b] (here M = Metal, a, b = Achiral ligands) are not able
to show optical isomerism because
(A) these molecules/ions have non super imposable mirror images
(B) these molecules possess a centre of symmetry
(C) these molecules/ions possess a plane of symmetry andhence are achiral
(D) these molecules/ions possess Cn axis of symmetry
17. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) in K3 [Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferric ion
(B) in K3 [Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied only the secondary valency of ferric ion
(C) in K4 [Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferrous ion
(D) in [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 the ligand has satisfied only the secondary valency of copper
18. Which of the following will have three stereoisomeric forms ?
(1) [Cr (NO3)3 (NH3)3 ] (2) K3 [Co(C 2O403 ]
(3) K3 [Co(C2O4)2 Cl2 ] (4) [Co(en)2ClBr]
(Here, en = ethylene diamine)
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
CHEMISTRY 2
19. Which of the following will exhibit geometrical isomerism ? (M stands for a metal, and a and b are achiral
ligands,
(1) Ma 2 b2 (2) Ma 4 b2 (3) Ma5 b (4) Ma 6
20. Consider the following spatial arrangements of the octahedral complex ion [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding these structures ?

(A) 2 and 3 are cis and trans isomers respectively
(B)1 and 3 are enantiomers
(C) 3 and 4 have identical structures
(D) 2 and 4 are trans and cis isomers respectively
21. The correct order of magnetic moment (spin only values in BM) among the following is
- - - - - -
(A) [MnCl 4 ]2 > [CoCl4 ]2 > Fe[CN 6 ] 4 (B) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 > [MnCl 4 ]2 > [CoCl 4 ] 2
- - - - - -
(C) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 > [CoCl 4 ]2 > [MnCl 4 ] 2 (D) [MnCl 4 ]2 > [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 > [CoCl 4 ] 2
(Atomic number of Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)

22. Arrange the following in order of decreasing number of unpaired electrons :
- - +
(1) [Fe(H2O) 6 ]2+ (2) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3 (3) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 (4) [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ]3
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 4, 2, 1, 3 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4

23. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in B.M.) among the following is
(Atomic number of Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
- - - - - -
(A) [MnCl4 ]2 > [CoCl 4 ]2 > [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 (B) [MnCl4 ]2 > [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 > [CoCl 4 ]2
- - - - - -
(C) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 > [MnCl 4 ]2 > [CoCl 4 ]2 (D) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 > [CoCl 4 ]2 > [MnCl 4 ]2
24. Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital complex ?
+ - + -
(A) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3 (B) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 (C) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2 (D) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4
25. The ‘spin-only’ magnetic moment [in units of Bohr magneton (mB) of Ni2+ in aqueous solution would be (Atomic
number of Ni = 28)
(A) 2.84 (B) 4.90 (C) 0 (D) 1.73
CHEMISTRY 3
26. Which one of the following has a square planar geometry ?

(A) [FeCl4]2– (B) [NiCl4]2– (C) [PtCl4 ]2– (D) [CoCl4]2–
27. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element ‘E’ in the complex [E(en)2 (C2O4)]NO2 (Here
(en) is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,
28. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (Atomic number 27), will the magnitude of D0 be the
highest?
(A) [Co(CN)6]3– (B) [Co(C 2O 4)3 ]3– (C) [Co(H2O)6 ]3+ (D) [Co(NH3)6 ]3+
29. Which of the following complex species does not involve inner orbital hybridisation ?
(A) [CoF6]3– (B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (C) [Fe(CN)6 ]3– (D) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+
30. For the given complex [CoCl2(en)(NH3)2]+, the number of geometrical isomers, the number of optical isomers
and total number of isomers of all type possible respectively are
(A) 2, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 2 and 3 (C) 2, 0 and 2 (D) 0, 2 and 2
31. For square planar complex of platinum (II), [Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)Py]2+, how many isomeric forms are possible?
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Six
32. Aluminium reacts with NaOH and forms compound ‘X’. If the coordination number of aluminium in ‘X’ is 6,
the correct formula of X is
(A) [Al(H 2O) 4 (OH) 2 ]+ (B) [Al(H 2O)3 (OH)3 ]
(C) [Al(H 2O) 2 (OH) 4 ]- (D) [Al(H 2O) 6 ](OH)3
CHEMISTRY 4
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
ENTHUSE COURSE
# 08
Topic : Isomerism, GOC & Aromatic Compound ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1.
CH3 OCH3 CF3

(I) (II) (III) (IV)
The correct arrangement for decreasing order of electrophilic substitution reactions is
(A) III > I > II > IV (B) I > IV > II > III (C) IV > III > II > I (D) II > IV > III > I
2. Stability of the free radicals allyl, benzyl, 30 , 20 ,10 and CH3 is in the order..
(A) benzyl > allyl > 30 > 20 > 10 > CH3 (B) allyl > 30 > benzyl > 20 > 10 > CH 3
(C) 30 > 20 > 10 > CH 3 > allyl > benzyl (D) 30 > 20 > 10 > CH 3 > allyl = benzyl
3. The most stable carbocation is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. Most stable free radical is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. Consider the molecules

CH3 CH3 H CH3 CH3
C = CH2 C=C C=C CH3 – CH2CH = CH2
CH3 H CH3 H H
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
Their relative stabilities can be compared by comparing their enthalpy of combustion. What is the order of
their magnitude of enthalpy of combustion ?
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I (C) IV > I > III > II (D) I > III > IV > II
H
6. What is the order of ease of homolytic cleavage of the following C–H bonds CH2 CH C C H?
4
H H CH2 H
1 2 3
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (B) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (C) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4 (D) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4
CHEMISTRY 1
7. Most stable carbanion is

Q Q Q Q
(A) HCº C (B) CH3–Cº C (C) R2C= C H (D) (CH3)3 C
8. Which one of the following compounds is most acidic ?

OH
(A) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – OH (B)
OH OH
(C) (D)
NO2 CH3
9. Which nitrogen atom in LSD is most basic ?
O
(A) 1 1 3
H N C - N (et)2
(B) 3
2
(C) 2 N
(D) all are equally basic
CH3
10. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3, CH3NH2, and (CH3)2NH is
(A) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH (B) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2
(C) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH (D) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3
11. Which of the following is the strongest base ?
(A) NH2 (B) NHCH 3 (C) NH 2 (D) CH 2 -NH 2
CH3
12. Amongst the following the most basic compound is

(A) benzylamine (B) aniline (C) acetanilide (D) p-nitroaniline
13. Which one of the following compound is nonbenzenoid?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14. Which of these compouds are aromatic in character?
(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these
15. The product(Z) in the following reaction sequenec is :
(A) o-chloroethylbenzene (B) m-chloroethylbenzene

(C) p-chloroethylbenzene (D) mixture of o and o-chloroethylbenzene
CHEMISTRY 2
16. Which one of the following aromatic compounds fails to undergo Friedel-Crafts reactions?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17. The reaction least likely to occur is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. Which of the following substituted benzenes would furnish three isomeric compounds when one more substituent
is introduced?
1. 2. 3. 4.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2, and 3 (B) only 1 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
19. Consider the following compounds :
The relative reactivity towards nitronium ion is such that:

(A) III > I > II (B) II > I > III (C) II > III > I (D) I > II > III
20. In which compounds aromatic electrophilic substitution takes place at ortho and/or para position?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

21. Which one of the following undergoes nitrotion most radily?
(A) Benzene (B) Acetanilide (C) Acetophenone (D) Chlorobenzene
22. Which of the following compounds will not give Friedel-Crafts reaction?

23. In the given reation, electrophlic substitution will take place most readily at the carbon
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

24. Tautomerism is exhibited by
O
(A) CH CH OH (B)
O
(C) O (D) all of the above.
O
CHEMISTRY 3
25. The possible number of alkynes with the formula C5H8 is -

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
26. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohols -
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
27. Number of isomeric forms of C7H9N having benzene ring will be -
(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
28. Which one of the following compounds is likely to be optically active ?
CH3 CH3
(A) CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3 (B) CH3 CH2 C CH3
H H
CH3
H O
(C) (D)
CHO
29. In the following structures, which two forms are staggered conformations of ethane ?
H H
H H
H H H
H
H H
H H
H H
H H H H H H
H H H H
(2) (3) (4)
(1)

30. Which of the following molecules is expected to rotate the plane of plane-polarised light:
COOH CHO H2N NH2

HO H
(A) H2N H (B) (C) (D) H H
CH2OH
SH Ph
H Ph
CHEMISTRY 4
TM
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(s-Block Elements) ENTHUSE COURSE

1. Which of the following carbonate does not dissociate on heating.
(A) Li2 CO3 (B) K2 CO 3 (C) MgCO3 (D) CaCO3
2. Li + C (carbon) ¾¾
D
® A ¾¾¾
H O
® B(gas) ¾¾¾¾
2 K / liqNH
®D
3
The compound ‘D’ is

(A) Lithium carbide (B) Ethyne
(C) Ethene (D) Lithium acetylene (LiC2H)
3. Li and Na on reaction with NH3 forms respectively
(A) LiNH2, NaH2 with evolution of H2 (B) Li2NH, Na2NH with evolution of H2
(C) LiNH2, Na2NH with evolution of H2 (D) Li2NH, NaNH2 with evolution of H2
4. Which of the following bicarbonates are obtained in solid state?
(A) NaHCO3 (B) LiHCO3 (C) Ca(HCO3) 2 (D) All of these
5. The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The thermal stability of
these hybrides decreases in which of the following order ?
(A) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH (B)LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
(C) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH (D) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
6. Which sequence of reactions shows correct chemical relation between sodium and its compounds ?
D
(A) Na + O 2 ® Na 2O ¾¾¾®
HCl(aq)
NaCl ¾¾¾
CO2
® Na 2CO 3 ¾¾ ® Na
D
(B) Na ¾¾
O2
® Na 2O ¾¾¾
H 2O
® NaOH ¾¾¾
CO 2
® Na 2CO3 ¾¾ ® Na
D
(C) Na + H 2O ® NaOH ¾¾®
HCl
NaCl ¾¾¾
CO 2
® Na 2CO3 ¾¾ ® Na
(D) Na + H 2 O ® NaOH ¾¾¾

CO2
® Na 2CO3 ¾¾®
HCl
NaCl ¾¾¾¾
Electrolysis
® Na
(Molten)
7. Assertion (A) : K, Rb and Cs form superoxides.

Reason (R) : The stability of the superoxides increases from K to Cs due to decrease in lattice energy.
The correct answer is :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is not true
(D) (A) is not true but (R) is true
8. Na 2 CO 3 can be manufactured by Solvey’s process but K 2 CO3 cannot be prepared because
(A) K 2CO3 is more soluble (B) K 2CO3 is less soluble
(C) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3 (D) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3
CHEMISTRY 1
9. K, Ca and Li metals may be arranged in the decreasing order of their standard electrode potentials as-
(A) K, Ca, Li (B) Li, K, Ca (C) Li, Ca, K (D) Ca, Li, K
10. Sodium peroxide which is a yellow solid, when exposed to air becomes white due to the formation of -
(A) H 2 O 2 (B) Na 2 O (C) Na2O and O3 (D) NaOH and Na2CO3
11. Which of the following alkali metals has the biggest tendency for the half reaction, M(g) ® M + (aq) + e - ?
(A) Lithium (B) Sodium (C) Cesium (D) Potassium
12. In the graph below,the one which represents an alkali metal with the higher atomic number is -
(A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) M

13. Which one of the following on heating will not give CO2 ?
(A) CaCO 3 (B) Na 2 CO3 (C) PbCO 3 (D) Li2 CO3
14. A metal M reacts with N 2 to give a compound ‘A’ (M 3 N ) . ‘A’ on heating at high temperature gives back ‘M’
and ‘A’ on reacting with H 2O gives a gas ‘B’. ‘B’ turns CuSO4 solution blue on passing through it. A and B can
be
(A) Al and NH 3 (B) Li and NH 3 (C) Na and NH 3 (D) Mg and NH 3
15. A metal is burnt in air and the ash on moistening smells of NH3. The metal is -
(A) Na (B) Fe (C) Mg (D) Al
16. The correct order of the increasing ionic character is
(A) BeCl 2 < MgCl 2 < CaCl 2 < BaCl 2 (B) BeCl 2 < MgCl 2 < BaCl 2 < CaCl 2
(C) BeCl 2 < BaCl 2 < MgCl 2 < CaCl 2 (D) BaCl 2 < CaCl 2 < MgCl 2 < BeCl 2
17. Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields a basic as well as acidic oxide ?
(A) NaNO 3 (B) KClO3 (C) CaCO3 (D) NH 4 NO 3
18. The highest lattice energy corresponds to -
(A) MgO (B) CaO (C) SrO (D) BaO
19. Which pair of the following chlorides do not impart colour to the flame ?
(A) BeCl2 and SrCl2 (B) BeCl2 and MgCl2 (C) CaCl2 and BaCl2 (D) BaCl2 and SrCl2
20. The salts of which alkaline earth meal are used in the form of manure -
(A) Mg (B) Ca (C) Ba (D) Sr
21. A sodium salt on treatment with MgCl2 gives white precipitate only on heating. The anion of the sodium salt is
(A) HCO 3 – (B) CO 3 2– (C) NO 3 – (D) SO42–
CHEMISTRY 2
22. Alkali metals displace hydrogen from water forming bases due to the reason that -
(A) They are far above the hydrogen in electrochemical series based on oxidation potential
(B) They are far below the hydrogen in electrochemical series based on oxidation potential
(C) Their ionization potential is less than that of other elements
(D) They contain only one electron in their outermost shell.
23. Which of the following metals is kept wrapped in paraffin wax ?
(A) Li (B) Na (C) Mg (D) K.
24. Ba, Sr, Ca and Mg may be arranged in order of decreasing first ionisation enthalpy (IE 1) as :
(A) Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba (B) Ca, Sr, Ba, Mg (C) Sr, Ba, Mg, Ca (D) Ba, Mg, Ca, Sr.
25. Which is the correct order of increasing basic strength?
(A) MgO < BeO < CaO < BaO (B) BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
(C) BaO < CaO < MgO < BeO (D) CaO < BaO < BeO < MgO.
26. The correct order of increasing thermal stabilities of the compounds is K2CO3(I), MgCO3(II), CaCO3 (III) and
BeCO3 (IV) is:
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) IV < II < III < I (C) IV < II < I < III (D) II < IV < III < I
27. Which of the following compounds of cement sets at the slowest rate ?
(A) Dicalcium silicate (B) Tricalcium silicate
(C) Tricalcium aluminate (D)Tetracalcium aluminoferrite.
28. In Hall’s process, the main reagent is mixed with -
(A) NaF (B) Na3AlF (C) AlF3 (D) None of these
29. The pair of compounds which cannot exist together in aqueous solution is
1. NaH2PO4 & Na2HCO3 2. Na2CO3 & NaHCO3
3. NaOH & NaH2PO4 4. NaHCO3 & NaOH
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 3, 4 (C) 1, 4 (D) 2, 3
30. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid state as well as in solution of non-polar solvents such as
benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives -
(A) Al3+ + 3Cl– (B) Al2O3 + 6HCl (C) [Al(OH)6]3– + 3HCl (D) [A](H2O6)]3– + 3Cl.
CHEMISTRY 3
TM TM
REVISION SHEET TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2022
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Thermodynamics &
Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN) ENTHUSE COURSE

Thermochemistry )
REVISION SHEET #10 (TIME : 70 min.) M. Marks : 120 PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following relation is correct for the combustion of Toluene.
(A) DH = DE (B) DH > DE (C) DH < DE (D) none of these
2. If HCOOH+NaOH ® HCOONa+H2O DH= -13.1 kcal then enthalpy of dissociation of HCOOH is
(A) 600 cal (B) 60 cal (C) – 600 cal (D) cannot be calculated
dH
3. For which of the following cases dS=
T
(A) a process for which DCp = 0 but DCv ¹ 0
(B) an isothermal process in which reversible phase transition takes place
(C) an isobaric process
(D) an adiabatic process.
4. The latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 10 kcal /mol . What will be change in
internal energy of 3 mole of liquid at same tempereture?
(A) 13 Kcal (B) –13 Kcal (C) 27 Kcal (D) –27 Kcal
5. When a diatomic gas undergoes an adiabatic process it’s temperature and volume are related by the eqvation TVn =
constant. What will be the value of n.
(A) 1 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.2
6. For which of the following conditions a reaction is nonspontaneous at any temperature ?
(A) DH > 0 < DS (B) DH > 0 > DS (C) DH < 0 < DS (D) DH = 0 = DS
7. During combustion of CH4 in a bomb calorimeter and finally cooling the mixture to 27°C.
(A) DU = - ve , P D V = '- ve ' (B) D U = - ve, D (PV) = '- ve'
(C) D U = - ve, P D V = 0 (D) Both (B) and (C) are correct

8. When liquid HCl and water are mixed then
DHmix DVmix DSmix DGmix
(A) 0 0 0 0
(B) + + + +
(C) – – + –
(D) – – – +
9. The bond enthalpies of H 2 , X 2 and HX are in the ratio of 2:1:2 of Enthalpy of formation of HX is –50KJ\mole,
The bond enthalpy of X2 is
(A) 100 KJmol–1 (B) 200 KJmol–1 (C) 300 KJmol–1 (D). 400 KJmol–1
10. The difference between the heat change at constant pressure and that at constant volume for the combustion of
46 g of ethanol at 27o C is
(A) – 4.59 kJ (B) + 4.59 kJ (C) + 2.49 kJ (D) – 2.49 kJ
CHEMISTRY 1
11. For a reaction at 25ºC, enthalpy change DH and entropy change DS are –11.7 x 103 and 105 Joule per mole K–1,
respectively, the which of the following statements is true?
(A) Spontaneous reaction (B) Nonspontaneous reaction
(C) Can be 1 as well as 2 (D) At equilibrium
12. Enthalpy of carbon, hydrogen and ethyl alcohol on combusion at 25ºC are –94.0, –68.4 and –327.0 kcal per
mole, then the formation enthalpy of ethyl alcohol will be
(A) –66.2 kcal/mol (B) 58.2 kcal (C) 60.2 kcal/mol (D) 60.4 kcal/mole
13. The work of expansion for a system is 500 cal. The heat given to the system is 80 cal. The change in internal
energy in the process will be -
(A) 80 cal. (B) 500 cal. (C) –420 cal. (D) 420 cal.
14. From the following thermochemical equations, find out the heat of ionisation Z for a weak acid HA–
HA ® A– + H+, DH = Z
H+ + OH– ® H2O, DH = X
HA + OH– ® A– + H2O, DH = Y
(A) X + Y (B) –(X + Y) (C) X – Y (D) (Y – X)
15. What is true for the reaction : PCl5(g) ® PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(A) DH = DE (B) DH > DE (C) DH < DE (D) None of these
16. The gaseous endothermic reaction P + Q ® 2R + 3S at 27ºC takes place spontaneously, because -
(A) DH < 0; DS < 0 (B) DH > 0; DS > 0 (C) DH < 0; DS > 0 (D) DH > 0; DS < 0
17. N2(g) + 2O2 ® 2NO2(g) + X kJ
2NO(g) + O2(g) ® 2NO2(g) + Y kJ
What is the heat of formation (DHf ) of NO –
1 1
(A) (2X – 2Y) (B) X – Y (C) (Y – X) (D) (X – Y)
2 2
18. For the vaporisation of water : H2O (l) H2O(g) [1 atm. pressure]
Given : DS = 120 JK–1 and DH = + 45.0 kJ.
Evaluate the temperature at which liquid water and water vapours are in equilibrium at 1 atm. pressure –
(A) 273 K (B) 370 K (C) 373 K (D) 375 K
19. The heat capacity of a bomb calorimeter is 500 J/ºC. In an experiment, in the combusition of 0.1 gm. methane,
the temperature rise was by 2.0ºC. What is the value of DE per mole?
(A) 1 kJ (B) +160 kJ (C) –160 kJ (D) –1 kJ
20. For a certain reaction the change in enthalpy and change in entropy are 40.63 kJ mol–1 and 100 JK–1. What is
the value of DG at 27ºC and indicate whether the reaction is possible or not?
(A) +10630 J mol–1; possible (B) +10630 J mol–1 not possible
(C) – 7990 J mol–1; possible (D) +7990 J mol–1; possible
21. The bond dissociation energies of methane and ethane are 360 kcal mol–1 and 620 kcal mol–1 respectively. The
C–C bond energy in kcal mol–1 is –
(A) 130 (B) 260 (C) 180 (D) 80
CHEMISTRY 2
22. For the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) ® 2HCl(g) DH 298K = –44.12 kcal
At 298 K, the enthalpy of formation of HCl is -
(A) –44.12 (B) –22.06 (C) 44.12 (D) 22.06
23. Consider the following data H2O(s) ® H2O(l), DH = 6.05 kJ
H2O(l) ® H2O(g), DH = 43.7 kJ
At 273 K, the sublimation energy of H2O(s) ® H2O(g) is –
(A) 43. 7 kJ (B) 6.05 kJ (C) 49.75 kJ (D) 37.3 kJ
24. The heat of formation of ICl DH(ICl) = 4.2 kcal mol–1, DH(Cl) = 29.0 kcal mol–1, DH(I) = 25.5 kcal mol–1. What
will be the bond energy of ICl?
(A) 58.7 kcal (B) 50.3 kcal (C) 29.7 kcal (D) 33.2 kcal
25. For a spontaneous process the values of free energy and entropy change are respectively –
(A) Postiove and negative (B) Negative and positive
(C) Positive and positive (D) Negative and neative
26. Which one of the following has the maximum entropy of vaporization ?
(A) Water (l) (B) toluene (l) (C) diethyl ether (l) (D) acetone (l)
27. Consider the reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3 carried out a constant temperature and pressure. If DH and DU
are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the following expression is true:
(A) DH = 0 (B) DH = DU (C) DH < DU (D) DH > DU
28. The free energy change (DGº) is negative when :
(A) the surroundings do no electrical work on the system
(B) the surroundings do electrical work on the system
(C) the system does electrical work on the surroundings
(D) the system does no electrical work on the surroundings.
29. Bond energy of N–H, H–H and N º N bonds are Q1, Q2 and Q3; DH of N2 + 3H2 ® 2NH3 is :
(A) Q3 + 3Q 2 - 2Q1 (B) 2Q1 - Q3 - 2Q 2 (C) Q3 + 3Q 2 - 6Q1 (D) none of these
30. The absolute enthalpy of neutralization of the reaction :
MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq) ® MgCl 2 (aq) + H 2O( l) will be :
(A) –57.33 kJ/mol (B) > –57.33 kJ/mol (C) < – 57.33 kJ/mol (D) 57.33 kJ/mol
CHEMISTRY 3
TM TM
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Solid State)


1. The number of equidistance oppositely charged ions in a NaCl crystal is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
2. Which of the following statement is correct regarding F-Centre is
(A) F-Centre produces colour to the crystals (B) Electron are held in the void of crystal
(C) Conductivity increases. (D) All of the above.
3. If the distance between Na and Cl ions in NaCl crystal is x pm the length of the edge of the unit cell is
+ –
(A) x 2 pm (B) x 4 pm (C) 2x pm (D) 4x pm
4. Schotky defect generally appears in

(A) KCl (B) NaCl (C) CSCl (D) All of these
5. Anion A2- forms cubic close packing and cation B2+ occupies 25% octahedral holes, while cation B3+ occupies
equal number of tetrahedral and octahedral holes. If number of octahedral holes occupied by B2+ and B3+ are
equal, then formula of molecule is
(A) B3 A 4 (B) A3 B 4 (C) AB 2 (D) AB 3
6. CsCl has bcc structure with Cs+ at the centre and Cl- ion at each corner. If rcs+ = 1.69 A0 and rcl- = 1.81A0
What is the edge length of cube
(A) 3.5A0 (B) 3.8 A0 (C) 4.04 A0 (D) 4.5 A0
7. An ionic solid M2X3 has a cubic unit cell. Which of the following arrangement of the ions is consistent with the
stoichiometry of the compound
(A) M+3 ions occupy the corners and X-2 ions centre of the faces
(B) X-2 ions occupy the corners and M+3 ions centre of the faces
(C) X-2 ions occupy the corners and M+3 ions the body centres
(D) M+3 ions occupy the corners and the body centres and ions the centres of faces
8. AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance between two
oppositely charged ions in the lattice is
(A) 335pm (B) 250 pm (C) 200 pm (D) 300 pm.
9. Fraction of total volume occupied by atoms in a simple cube is -
p 3p 2p p
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 6 6
10. In a crystal both ions are missing from normal sites in equal number. This is an example of -
(A) F-centres (B) Interstitial defect (C) Frenkel defect (D) Schottky defect
11. Xenon crystallizes in face centre cubic lattice and the edge of the unit cell is 620 PM, then the radius of
Xenon atom is -
(A) 219.20 PM (B) 438.5 PM (C) 265.5 PM (D) 536.94 PM
12. The edge length of cube is 400 PM. Its body diagonal would be -
(A) 500 PM (B) 693 PM (C) 600 PM (D) 566 PM
CHEMISTRY 1
13. What is the simplest formula of a solid whose cubic unit cell has the atom A at each corner, the atom B
at each face centre and C atom at the body centre ?
(A) AB2C (B) A2BC (C) AB3C (D) ABC3
14. A compound alloy of glod and copper crystallizes in a cube lattice in which the gold atoms occupy the
lattice points at the coruers of cube and copper atoms occupy the centres of each of the cube faces. The
formula of this compound is -
(A) AuCu (B) AuCu2 (C) AuCu3 (D) None
15. Lithium borohydride (LiBH4), crystallises in a orthorhombic system with 4 molecules per unit cell. The
unit cell dimensions are : a = 6.81 Å, b = 4.43 Å, c = 717Å. If the molar mass of LiBH4 is 21.76 g mol–
1. The density of the crystal is -
(A) .668 g cm–3 (B) .585 g cm2 (C) 1.23 g cm–3 (D) None
16. In a cubic packed structure of mixed oxides, the lattice is made up of oxide, one fifth of tetrahedral voids
are occupied by divalent ions (A2+) while one half of the octahedral voids are occupied by trivalent ions
(B3+), then the formula of the oxide is :
(A) A 2 BO 4 (B) A 4 B 5 O 10 (C) AB 2 O 4 (D) A 5 B 4 O 10
17. The number of atoms in 100 g of a fcc crystal with density d = 10 g/cm 3 and cell edge as 200 pm is equal
to
(A) 3 × 1025 (B) 5 × 1024 (C) 1 × 1025 (D) 2 × 1025
18. The compound ZnFeSO4 is :
(A) a normal spinel compound (B) an inverse spinel compound
(C) interstitial compound (D) covalent compound
19. Which is not the correct statement for ionic solids in which positive and negative ions are held by strong
electrostatic attractive forces :
+ -
(A) The radius ratio r / r increases as coordination number increases
(B) As the difference in size of ions increases coordination number increases.
(C) When coordination number is eight, the r + / r - ratio lies between 0.225 to 0.414
(D) In ionic solid of the type AX (ZnS, Wurtzite) the coordination number of Zn2+ and S2– respectively
are 4 and 4.
20. The cubic unit cell of a metal (molar mass = 63.55 g mol–1) has an edge length of 362 pm. Its density is
8.92 g cm–3. The type of unit cell is :
(A) Primitive (B) Face centred (C) Body centred (D) End centred
21. TiO2 is a well known example of
(A) triclinic system (B) tetragonal system (C) monoclinic system (D) none of these.
22. Which one is correct about ferrites?
(A) These possess formula AB2O4 (where A is divalent and B is trivalent cation).
(B) These possess spinel structure.
(C) MgAl2O4 is a ferrite.
(D) All of the above.
CHEMISTRY 2
23. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Molecular crystals are very hard and incompressible.
(B) Ionic crystals have very low volatility.
(C) Metallic bond is directional and rigid.
(D) Boron nitride has an ionic crystal structure.
24. Wax is an example of
(A) ionic crystal (B) covalent crystal (C) molecular crystal (D) metallic crystal.
25. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that
graphite
(A) is a non-crystaffme substance
(B) is an allotropic form of diamond
(C) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers
(D) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strong bound carbon atoms with weak’interplate
bonds.
26. An element (atomic mass = 100 g/mol) having bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. Then density of the
element is
(A) 10.376 g/cm3 (B) 5.188 g/cm3 (C) 7.289 g/cm3 (D) 2.144 g/cm3
27. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to
(A) Frenkel defect (B) Interstitial position (C) F-centres (D) Schottky defect.
28. Which of the following compounds have an antifluorite structure?
(A) K 2 O (B) BaF 2 (C) CuBr (D) Til
29. In a solid AB having the NaCl structure, A atoms occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If all the face
centred atoms along one of the axes are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the solid is
(A) AB 2 (B) A 2 B (C) A4 B 3 (D) A3 B4 .

30. The yellow colour of ZnO and conducting nature produced upon heating is due to
(A) metal excess defects due to interstitial cation (B) extra positive ions present in an interstitial site
(C) trapped electrons (D) all of these.
CHEMISTRY 3
TM
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
# 12 ENTHUSE COURSE
TOPIC: HYDROCARBON & HALO ALKANES ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
2+ +
1. A ¬¾¾¾¾
(i )BH3 ,THF
(ii )H 2 O2 ,OH -
¾ CH 3 - C º CH ¾¾¾¾
Hg ,H
® B identify A and B
(A) CH3CHO , CH3–CO–CH3
(B) CH3CH2CHO , CH3–CO–CH3
(C) CH3CH2CHO , CH3–COCH2CH3
(D) HCHO , CH3COCH3
2. Which of the following is true reactivity order towards electrophilic addition of alkene?
(A) CH 2 = CH 2 < CH3CH = CH 2 < CH 3 - C = CH 2 (B) CH 2 = CH 2 > CH3CH = CH 2 > CH3 - C = CH 2
| |
CH3 CH3
(C) CH 2 = CH 2 < CH3 - C = CH 2 < CH3CH = CH 2 (D) CH 2CH = CH 2 < CH 2 = CH 2 < CH3 - C = CH 2
| |
CH3 CH3
C H3
N(CH 3)2
D
3. ¾¾¾¾®
CF3 COOOH
¾¾ ® Product is
D
H
C H3 C H3 CH3
C H3
O OH
+
N (CH3)2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D
D
H H H
H
CH = CH
40%H 2SO 4
4. | | Kolbe's electrolysis
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® A ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
1% HgSO 4 80°C
®B
COONa COONa
B will be
(A) CH3–CHO (B) CH2=CH2 (C) HC º CH (D)
5. 2,3-Dibromobutane, when heated with zinc dust, yields -

(A) 2-Butene (B) 2-Butyne (C) 1-Butene (D) Butane.
6. An aqueous solution of potassium salt of fumaric acid is electrolyzed. The hydrocarbon produced at anode
is
(A) Ethane (B) Ethene (C) Methane (D) Ethyne
7. 2-Pentyne can be converted into trans-pent-2-ene by reaction with -
(A) H2/Ni (B) H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
(C) Na/Liq : NH3 (D) Zn/HCl.
CHEMISTRY 1
8. Which of the following reactions will yield 2, 2-dibromopropane :

(A) CH 3 - CH = CH 3 + HBr ® (B) CH 3 - C º CH + 2HBr ®
(C) CH 3CH = CHBr + HBr ® (D) CH = CH + 2HBr ®

9. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound ‘B’
CH 3CH = CH 3 ¾¾
O3
® A ¾¾¾
H 2O
Zn
®B
The compound B is :
(A) CH 3CHO (B) CH 3CH 2CHO (C) CH 3COCH 3 (D) CH 3CH 2COCH 3
10. Identify the alkyne in the following sequence of reaction
Alkyne ¾¾¾¾¾ H2
Lindlar's catalyst
® A ¾¾¾¾
Ozonolysis
® B ¬¾¾¾
Wacker
Process
CH 2 = CH 2
only
(A) H 3C - C º C - CH 3 (B) H 3C - CH 2 - C º CH
(C) H 2C = CH - CH º CH (D) HC º C - CH 2 - C º CH
11. An unknown compound A has the formula C4H6. When A is treated with excess of Br2 a new compound B
with formula C4H6Br4 is formed. A also gives a white precipitate with Tollen’s reagent. The compound A may
be :
(A) But-1-yne (B) But-2-yne (C) But-1-ene (D) But-2-ene
12. The end product in the reaction :
® (A) ¾¾¾¾ ® (B); is :

Mg / ether
+ Br2 ¾¾
hv
(ii) D O2
D D
(A) (B) D (C) (D)
D
13. Anti-Markovnikov’s addition of HBr is not observed in
(A) propene (B) but-1-ene (C) but-2-ene (D) pent-3-ene
CH3 HBr
14. In the reaction sequence (A) will be : Anhy. AlCl3 [A]
(A) 1-bromo-2-ethyl cyclopentane (B) 1-bromo-1-methyl cyclopentane

(C) 1-bromo-5-methyl cyclopentane (D) 5-bromo-1-methyl cyclopentane
15. 1,2-Dibromopropane on treatment with X moles of NaNH2 followed by treatment with ethyl bromide gave
pentyne. The value of X is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
CHEMISTRY 2
16. Which of the following is correct order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction?
CH2Cl
Cl
|
(A) CH3CH2CH2Cl<CH3 C HCH3 <CH2=CH-CH2Cl<
CH2Cl
(B) <CH2=CH-CH2Cl<(CH3)2CHCl<CH3CH2CH2Cl
CH2Cl
(C) CH3CH2CH2Cl<(CH3)2CHCl< <CH2=CH2CH2-Cl
CH2Cl
(D) (CH3)2 CHCl<CH3CH2CH2Cl<CH2=CH-CH2Cl<
17. ¾¾¾¾¾®
Ba (OH) 2 (exess )
H2 O
A A is
Cl Cl
OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
HO Cl O OH OH
Alco. KOH Br2 KCN

18. Identify Z in the following series C 2 H 5 I ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾® X ¾¾¾® Y ¾¾ ¾® Z
CH 2 CN
(A) CH 3 CH 2 CN (B) (C) BrCH 2 - CH 2 CN (D) BrCH = CHCN
CH 2 CN
19. Identify the set of reagents/reaction conditions (X) and (Y) in the following set of transformations:
(X)
CH3 – CH2 – CH2Br ¾¾¾
® Product ¾¾¾
(Y)
® CH 3 - CH - CH 3
|
Br
(A) (X) = Dilute aqueous NaOH, 20°C, (Y) = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C
(B) (X) = Concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80°C, (Y) = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C
(C) (X) = Dilute aqueous NaOH, 20°C, (Y) = Br2/CHCl3, 0°C
(D) (X) = Concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80°C, (Y) = Br2/CHCl3, 0°C
CHEMISTRY 3
20. Which of the following halides will be most reactive in SN2 reaction and SN1 reaction, respectively:
Br Me
Br
(I) Me (II) Me Me (III) Me
Br
(A) (I), (II) (B) (II), (I) (C) (I), (III) (D) (III), (I)
21.
Which of the following statement is correct regarding product-1 and product-2?

(A) Product-1 is obtained by the elimination reaction
(B) Product-2 is obtained by the substitution reaction
(C) The molecular formula of product 1 is C2H4, while the molecular formula of Product-2 is C2H6O
(D) Product-1 is the isomer of dimethylether, while Product-2 is the dehydrated compound of Product-1
22. The halide, which undergoes nucleophilic substitution (by SNAr mechanism) most readily is
(A) p-MeC6H4CI (B) p-MeOC6H4CI (C) p-O2NC6H4Cl (D) p-CiC6H4Ci
23. ¾¾¾
NaOH
® Product
Major product of reaction is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
24. Ozonolysis of mesitylene gives
(A) Glyoxal (B) Formaldehyde (C) 2-oxo propanal (D) Ethanal
25. Which among the following compounds will undergo ArSN2 reaction?
26. Which among the following compounds will undergo ArSN2 reaction?
CHEMISTRY 4
27. Which of the following diazonium salts is most stable?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
28. In the given reaction
; [X] is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
HO - C = O CH3
| |
29. The IUPAC name of compound CH3 - C = C - C - H is
| |
NH2 Cl
(A) 2-amino-3-chloro-2-methyl-2-pentenoic acid (B) 3-amino-4-chloro-2-methyl-2-pentenoic acid

(C) 4-amino-3-chloro-2-methyl-2-pentenoic acid (D) none of these
30. Given the IUPAC name of the following compound :
(A) 3-4-Dichloro-6-[4-chloro-2-(hydroxymethyl)-5-oxohexyl] cyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid

(B) 4-5-Dichloro-2-[4-acetyl-4-chloro-2-(hydroxymethyl) buty] cyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
(C) 4-5-Dichloro-2-[4-chloro-2-(hydroxymethyl)-5-oxohexyl] cyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
(D) none of these
CHEMISTRY 5
TM TM
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Electrochemistry)


1. In Salt bridge KCl solution is used because
(A)It is the salt of strong base KOH and strong acid HCl
(B) It is very economical
(C) Ionic mobility of K+and Cl- is almost equal
(D) It is a strong electrolyte
2. The electrolysis of dil. H2SO4 using platinum electrodes.
(A) O2 is produced (B) Cl2 is obtained at cathode.
(C) H2 is evolved at cathode (D) NH2 is produced at cathode.
3. The number of Faraday sneeded to reduce (D) gms equivalents of Cu(B)+ to Cu metal will be
(A) 1 (B) (B) (C) (D) (D) 8
4. Given that
o
Cu2++ 2e- Cu E = 0.34V
o
Ag Ag++e- E = –0.80V
o
Mg Mg2++2e– E = 2.37V
o
Al3++3e– A1 E = –1.66V
in which of the following cells the work is obtained to be maximum :

(A) Mg|Mg2+ (1M) || Cu2+|Cu (1M) (B) Mg|Mg2+ (1M) ||Ag+|Ag (1M)
(C) Ag|Ag+ (1M) ||Al3+|Al (1M) (D) Cu|Cu2+ (1M) ||Ag+|Ag (1M)
5. In passing 3 faraday of electricity through the three electrolytic cells connected in series containing Ag+, Ca+2 &
Al+3, ion respectively. What is the molar ratio in which the three metal ions are leberated at the electrodes
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 2 : 1 (D) 6 : 3 :2
6. Spectator ion in the following reaction will be
Zn + 2H + + 2Cl- ¾¾
® Zn 2+ + 2Cl - + H 2
(A) H + (B) Cl– (C) Zn2+ (D) Both (A) and (C)
7. In an acidic solution (pH = 2), a -aminoacids, can move towards [consider it is not the isoelectric point]
(A) Cathode (B) Anode (C)Either of these two (D) Do not move at all
8. Which of the following is correct about lead storage cell ?
(A) Electrolyte is H2SO4
(B) Specific gravity of H2SO4 increases during charging
(C) Anodic reaction : PbSO4 + 2H+ + 2e– ¾¾
® Pb + H2SO4
(D) All of these
9. Total volume of gases evolved at STP when aq. solution of K2SO4 is electrolysed by passing 4F of electricity
and the final PH of the solution is
(1) 44.8 lit; pH < 7 (B) 44.8 lit; pH = 7 (C) 67.2 lit; pH = 7 (D) 67.2 lit; pH > 7
CHEMISTRY 1
10. The charge required for the oxidation of one mole to Mn 3 O 4 to MnO-42 in alkaline medium is (assume 100%
current efficiency)
(A) 10/3 F (B) 6F (C) 10 F (D) 4 F
11. The correct order of equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of LiCl, NaCl, KCl is
(A) LiCl > NaCl > KCl (B). KCl > NaCl > LiCl
(C). NaCl > KCl > LiCl (D). LiCl > KCl > NaCl
+ -
12. Electrode potential of the half cell Hg( l ) Hg 2 ,Cl 2(s) Cl(aq ) can be increased by
(A) increasing éë Cl- ùû (B). decreasing éë Cl- ùû (C). increasing Hg 2 Cl2(s) (D). decreasing Hg ( l)
13. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K.
Zn | Zn2+ (0.1 M) || Ag+ (0.01 M) | Ag
Given : E°Zn2+/Zn = – 0.76 C
E° Ag+/Ag = + 0.80 V
(A) 1.471 V. (B) 0.471 V (C) 7.71 V. (D) none of these
14. In electrolysis of NaCl, when Pt electrode is taken then H2 is liberated at cathode, while with Hg cathode it
forms sodium amalgam because
(A) Hg is more inert than Pt
(B) more voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg than at Pt
(C) Na is dissolved in Hg while it does not dissolve in Pt
(D) concentration of H+ ions is larger when Pt electrode is taken
15. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt bridge’ because
(A) velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3-
(B) velocity of NO3- is greater than that of K+
(C) velocities of both K+ and NO3- are nearly the same

(D) KNO3 is highly soluble in water
16. When Benzoic acid is titrated with NaOH, variation of conductance (Y-axis) with addition of NaOH (X-axis)
can be shown by
Y Y Y Y
(A) (B) (C) (D)

X X X X
17. The standard reduction potentials of Ag, Cu, Co and Zn are 0.799, 0.(C)(C)7, – 0.(B)77 and –0.76(B) V
respectively. Which of the following cellswill have maximum cell emf ?
(A) Zn | Zn(B)+ (1M) || Cu(B)+(1M) | Cu (B) Zn | Zn(B)+ (1M) || Ag+ (1M) | Ag
(C) Cu | Cu(B)+ (1M) || Ag+(1M) | Ag (D) Zn | Zn(B)+ (1M) || Co(B)+ (1M) | Co
4 2
18. On the basis of the information available from the reaction, Al + O2 ¾¾
® Al2 O3 , DG = – 827 kJ mol–1 of
3 3
O2 .
The minimum emf,requiredto carry out an electrolysis of Al2O3 IS (F = 96500 C mol–1)
(A) 6.42 V (B) 8.56 V (C) 2.14 V (D) 4.28 V
CHEMISTRY 2
19. Ag | Ag + (1M) || Ag + (2M) | Ag

1L solution 1 L solution
0.5 F of electricity in the LHS (anode) the 1F electricity in the RHS (cathode) is first passed making them
independent electro cells at 298 K. The emf of the cell after electrolysis will
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) not change (D) time is also required
20. In acidic medium MnO4– is an oxidising agent
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e– ¾¾ ® Mn2+ + 4H2O. If H+ ion concentration is doubled, electrode potential of the half cell
MnO4– , Mn2+/Pt will
(A) increase by 28.46 mV (B) decrease by 28.46 mV
(C) increase by 14.23 mV (D) decrease by 142.30 mV
21. Which of the following reaction is possible at anode ?
(A) F2 + 2e– ¾¾
® 2F– (B) 2H+ + 1/2O2 + 2e– ¾¾
® H2O
(C) 2Cr23+ + 7H2O ¾¾ ® Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e– (D) Fe2+ ¾¾ ® Fe3+ + e–

22. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000°C to furnish aluminium metal (atomic mass = 27 amu; 1 faraday
= 965000 coulombs). The cathode reaction is Al3+ + 3e– ¾¾
® Al°
To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium metal by this method would require
(A) 5.49 × 107 C of electricity (B) 1.83 × 107 C of electricity
(C) 5.49 × 104 C of electricity (D) 5.49 × 1010 C of electricity
23. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of an electrolyte of concentration 0.1 M is 100W . The
conductivity of this solution is 1.(B)9 S m–1. Resistance of the same cellwhen filled with 0.(B) M of the same
solution is 520W . The molar conductivity of 0.0(B) M solution of the electrolyte will be:
(A) 124 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (B) 1240 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
(C) 1.44 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (D) 12.4 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
24. The equivalent conductances of two strong electrolytes at infinite dilution in H2O (where ions move freely
through a solution) at 25°C are given below :
L° (CH3COONa) = 91.0 S cm2/equiv..
L° (HCl) = 426.2 S cm2/equiv..

What additional information/quantity one needs to calculate L° ofan aqueous solution of acetic acid ?
(A) L° of CH3COOK (B) The limiting equivalent conductance of H+ (l°)
(D) L of NaCl
°
(C) L° of chloroacetic acid (ClCH2COOH)
25. 2+ 2+
The cell Zn | Zn (1 M) || Cu (1 M) + Cu E°cell = 1.10 V), was allowed to be completely discharged at 298
K. The relative concentration of Zn2+ and Cu2+ ([Zn2+]/[Cu2+]) is :
(A) 37.3 (B) 1037.3 (C) 9.65 × 104 (D) antilog (24.08)
26. Given E° Cr3+ / Cr = – 0.72 V, E°Fe2+ /Fe = – 0.42 V. The potential for the cell
Cr | Cr3+ (0.1M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe is :
(A) 0.26 V (B) 0.399 V (C) – 0.339 V (D) – 0.26 V
CHEMISTRY 3
27. Given that E° (Zn2+/Zn) = – 0.763 V and E° (Cd2+/Cd) = – 0.443 V, the emf of the following cell
Zn | Zn2+ (a = 0.04) || Cd2+ (a = 0.2) | Cd is given by
(A) E = + 0.36 + [0.059/2] [log (0.2/0.004)] (B) E = – 0.36 + [0.059/2] [log (0.2 / 0.004)]
(C) E = + 0.36 + [0.059/2] [log (0.004/0.2)] (D) E = – 0.36 + [0.059/2] [log (0.004/0.2)]
28. How much will the reduction potential of a hydrogen electrode change when its solution initially at pH = 0 is
neutralised to pH = 7 ?
(A) Increase by 0.059 V (B) Decrease by 0.059V
(C) Increase by 0.41 V (D) Decrease by 0.41 V
29. Givent he limiting molar conductivity as
L -m (HCl) = 425.9W-1cm 2 mol -1
L -m NaCl = 126.4W -1cm2 mol -1
L -m (CH3COONa) = 91W -1cm 2mol -1
The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of acetic acid (in W –1 cm2 mol–1) will be :
(A) 481.5 (B) 390.5 (C) 299.5 (D) 516.9
30. For the following cell reaction
Ag | Ag + | AgCl | Cly | Cl2 ,Pt
DG 0f (AgCl) = -109 kJ / mol
DG 0f (Cly ) = -129kJ / mol
DG 0f (Ag + ) = 78kJ / mol

Eº of the cell is :
(A) –0.60 V (B) 0.60 V (C) 6.0 V (D) None of these
CHEMISTRY 4
TM
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
# 14 ENTHUSE COURSE
TOPIC : ALCOHOL, ETHER & PHENOL, ALDEHYDES & KETONES ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following is correct?

(A) C2H5O- is stronger base than C6H5O- but C2H5O- is weaker nucleophile than C6H5O-.
(B) C2H5O- is weaker base than C6H5O- but C2H5O- is stronger nucleophile than C6H5O-
(C) C2H5O- is stronger base and stronger nucleophile than C6H5O-
(D) C2H5O- is weaker base and weaker nucleophile than C6H5O-
2. Cleavage of the ether, O CH3 using one mole of HI follows mainly ................ path and the products
are
I O–H
(A) SN2; + CH3 – OH (B) SN1; + CH3 – I
I O–H
(C) SN1; + CH3 – OH (D) SN2; + CH3 – I
3. Which one of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate on warming with a solution of iodine and
aqueous alkali?
(A) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (B) (CH3)3COH
(C) CH3CH2 CH CH3 (D) CH3CH2CH2OH
OH
4. p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give a compound ‘A’ which on reacting with hydrogen
cyanide gives, compound ‘B’. The latter on acidic hydrolysis, gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of
the carboxylic acid is :
CH3 CH3
CH(OH)COOH CH2COOH
(A) (B)
OH OH
CH3
(C) (D) none of these

CH(OH)COOH
OH
5. The electrophile involved in the given reaction is –
- +
OH O Na
+ CHCl3 + NaOH ¾¾
®
CHO
Å
(A) dichloromethyl cation (C HCl2 ) (B) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)
y Å
(C) trichloromethyl anion (CCl3 ) (D) formyl cation (CHO)
CHEMISTRY 1
OH
6. The product X is : ¾¾¾¾

1.K 2CO3
®
2.CH3I
CH2OH
OH OCH3 CH3
OCH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)

CH2OCH3 CH2OH CH2OH CH2OCH3
7. An organic compound A reacts with sodium metal and forms B. On heating with conc. H2SO4, A gives diethyl
ether. So A and B are
(A) C3H7OH and CH3ONa (B) CH3OH and CH3ONa
(C) C4H9OH and C4H9ONa (D) C2H5OH and C2H5ONa
8. HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
(A) CH3CHO and CH3Br (B) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH
(C) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3 (D) CH3 – CHBr – OCH3
9. In the given sequence of reactions, what is the final product ?
-
CH 3CH 2 CH 2OH ¾¾¾
SO 2Cl2
® X ¾¾¾¾
C 2 H5 O
C 2 H5OH
® Y ¾¾¾
H2O
H+
®Z
(A) CH3CH2OCH3 (B) CH3CH = CH2 (C) CH 3 — CH — CH 3 (D) CH3CH2CH2OH
|
OH
10. An organic aromatic compound having molecular formula C7H8O does not give characteristic colour with
neutural FeCl3 but bubbles of hydrogen gas are formed when it is treated with metallic sodium. The compound
is
CH2OH
OCH3 OH
OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)

CH3
CH3
11. The major product in the given reaction
O
+ excess HI ¾¾
® is :
(A) HO – (CH2)4 – I (B) C4H10 (C) I – (CH2)4 – I(D) HO – (CH2)4 – OH

12. In the reaction :
CH3 — C = CH — CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾
Cold
KMnO4 / H2O
® X ¾¾¾¾
CrO3
CH3COOH
®Y ; (X) and (Y) are
|
CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

| | | |
(A) CH3 — C — CH — CH3, CH3 — C — C — CH3 (B) CH3 — C — CH2 — CH3 , CH3 — C — C — CH3
| | | || | | ||
OH OH H O OH OH O
CHEMISTRY 2
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

| | | |
(C) CH3 — C — CH — CH3, CH3 — C — C — CH3 (D) CH3 — C — CH — CH3, CH3 — CH — C — CH3
| | | || | | ||
OH OH OH O H OH O
13. Coupling of diazonium salt to p-cresol occurs at the position
CH3
a a
b b
OH
(A) one of the a-positions (B) one of the b-positions
(C) at both the a-positions (D) no coupling reaction takes place
14. A compound is soluble in conc. H2SO4. It does not decolourise bromine in carbon tetrachloride but is
oxidised by chromic anhydride in aqueous sulphuric acid within two seconds, turning orange solution to blue,
gree and then opaque. The original compound is:
(A) a primary alcohol (B) a tertiary alcohol
(C) an alkane (D) an ether
O
O ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
(i) 2CH3 MgBr
15. What is the product of the following reaction (ii) H 3O +
HO OH
(A) (B)
OH OH
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
16. What is the product of the following sequence of reaction
(CH 3 ) 2 C = CH.CH 2CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾

(i) BH3 / THF
(ii) H2 O2 ,OH
® A ¾¾¾®
PCC
CH 2 Cl2
¾¾¾¾ 3
(ii ) H O +
¾
®B
(i) CH MgBr
3
(A) 2, 4-dimethyl-3-pentanol (B) 2, 3-dimethyl-3-pentanol

(C) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-pentanol (D) 2, 2,-dimethyl-3-pentanol
O
||
17. Mg / H2O H 2SO4
CH3 - C - CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® A ¾¾¾¾ ® B ; A and B are
OH
|
(A) CH3 - CH CH3 and CH3CH = CH2 respectively
CH3 O
| ||
(B) CH3 - CH
|
- CH - CH 3 and CH 3 - C - C - CH 3 respectively
| |
OH OH CH3
CHEMISTRY 3
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 O
| | | ||
CH 3 CH CH3 and CH 3 - CH - O - CH - CH 3
(C) CH 3 - C - C - CH 3 and CH 3 - C - C - CH 3
| | | (D) |
OH
|
CH3
|
CH3
OH OH CH3
18. Which of the following pair cannot be distinguished by iodoform test?

(A) CH3COCH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2COCH2CH3 (B) CH3CH2OH and CH3OH
COCH2CH3 CH2COCH3
(C) CH3CH2OH and CH3CHCH3 (D) and

|
OH
O
19. || H+
CH3 - C - CH 3 ¾¾¾ ® A ¾¾ ®B
(i)Mg
(ii)H 2 O D
compound B is
OH O OH OH O CH 3 O
| || | | || | ||
(A) CH 3- C - CH2 - C - CH 3 (B) CH3 - C - C - CH3 (C) CH3 - C = CH - C - CH3 (D) CH3 - C - C - CH3
| | | | |
CH 3 CH3 CH3 CH 3 CH3
20. Order of reactivity of HCN towards following carbonyl compounds is

O O O O
C H C H C H C H
O2N CH3
(I) (II) NO2 (IV)
(III)
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > I > III > II (C) II > III > I > IV (D) IV > III > II > I
O
NH3 Br2/KOH
21. (CH3)3C C OH A B
D
Which of the following statements is true regarding B?
(A) It is a 3° amine and does not give isocyanide test (B) It is a 3° amine and gives isocyanide test
(C)It is a 1° amine and gives isocyanide test (D) The reaction A ¾¾
® B does not occur at all
22. An aromatic compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C9 H10O gives the following chemical tests :
(i) Forms 2,4-DNP derivative
(ii) Reduces Tollen’s reagent
(iii) Undergoes Cannizaro reaction and
(iv) On vigorous oxidation 1,2-benezenedicarboxylic acid is obtained.
CHEMISTRY 4
X is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23. The most reactive compound towards formation of cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN followed by
acidification is :
(A) p-nitrobenzaldehyde (B) p-hydroxybenzaldehyde
(C) benzaldehyde (D) phenylacetaldehyde
24. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives
(A) benzyl alcohol and sodium formate (B) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
(C) sodium benzoate and sodium formate (D) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
25. In the Cannizzaro reaction given below,
-
2Ph - CHO ¾¾¾
OH
® Ph - CH 2 OH + PhCO 2- ,
the slowest step is :

(A) the attack of –OH at the carbonyl group (B) the transfer of hydride ion to the carbonyl group
(C) the abstration of proton from the carboxylic acid (D) the deprotonation of Ph–CH 2OH
26. The final product on acid hydrolysis of decarboxylation of :
HOH2C COOC2H5
HOH2C COOC2H5
COOH
(A) O COOH (B) O
COOH
HOH2C
(C) O (D) COOH
HOH2C
27. Consider the following statements ; Acetophenone can be prepared by :
I. oxidation of 1-phenylethanol
II. reaction of benzaldehyde with methyl magnesium bromide
III. Friedel Crafts reaction of benzene with acetyl chloride
IV. Distillation of calcium benzoate
Which of the above statements are correct :
(A) I and III (B) III and IV (C) II and III (D) I and IV
CHEMISTRY 5
28. The enol form of acetone, after treatment wtih D2O, gives
OD O OH OD
| || | |
(A) CH 3 - C = CH 2 (B) CD3 - C - CD 3 (C) CH 2 = C - CH 2 D (D) CD 2 = C - CH 2 D
29. An aldehyde, C11H 8O (X) which does not undergo self aldol condensation gives benzaldehyde and two
moles of (Y) on ozonolysis. Compound (Y), on oxidation with silver ions gives oxalic acid. The structure of
(X) is given as :
CH CH CHO CH CH C C CHO
(A) (B)
C C CHO CH CH CH CH2
(C) (D)
30. Which of the following on heating with aqueous KOH produces acetaldehyde ?
(A) CH3COCl (B) CH3CH2Cl (C) CH2ClCH2Cl (D) CH3CHCl2
CHEMISTRY 6
TM TM
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Chemical Kinetcs)


1. The rate constant of a zero order reaction is 0.2 mol dm–3 hr–1 of the concenrn of the reactant after 30 minute
is 0.05 mol dm–3 then its initial concern would be
(A) 0.01 mol dm–3 (B) 0.15 mol dm–3 (C) 0.25 mol dm–3 (D) 4.00 mol dm–3
2. Collision theory is applicable to
(A) first order reaction (B) zero order reaction
(C) bimolecular reaction (D) intramolecular reaction.
3. The half life of a second order reaction is
0.693 K [A 0 ] 1
(A) t 1/ 2 = (B) t 1/ 2 = [ A ] (C) t 1 = (D) t 1 2 = K A
K 0 2 K [ 0]
4. M ® N, K1=10 21
e-4000/T
P ® Q, K2= 10 20
e-3000/T
At what temperature their initial rate will be equal if the two reactions have all the reactants at unit molarity
each?
1000
(A) 3000K K (B) (C) 4000K (D) 1000K
2.303
5. 16.0 g of a radioactive substance is reduced to 0.50 g after 2 hours. Then the half life of the radioactive
substance is
(A) 12 minutes (B) 24 minutes (C) 20 minutes (D) 15 minutes
6. The decomposition of N2O into N2 & O follows second order kinetics with
K= ( 5 ´1011 L mol-1 s-1) e-29000K/T then the energy of activation of this reaction is
(A) 241 KJ/ mol (B) 290 KJ/mol (C) 200 KJ/mol (D) 392 KJ/mol
1
7. On doubling the concentration of reactant, half life of the reaction becomes times of original value. Hence the
8
unit of rate constant for the reaction is
(A) Lit3 mol–3 sec–1 (B) mol3 Lit–3 sec–1 (C) (mol/lit)2 sec–1 (D) (mol/lit)–2 sec–1
8. For A + B ® C + D; DH = 20 kJ mol–1 ; the activation energy of the forward reaction is 85 kJ/mol. The activation
energy of the reverse reaction is :
(A)– 65 kJ mol–1 (B) 55 kJ mol–1 (C) 65 kJ mol–1 (D) – 75 kJ mol–1
1
9. N2O5 decomposes according to equation, N2O5 ® 2NO2 + O . What is the units of rate of this reaction ?
2 2
(A) mol litre–1 time–2. (B) mol litre–2 time–1. (C) mol litre–1 time–1. (D) mol–1 litre–1 time–1.
10. In a reaction, 2A ® Products, the concentration of A decreases from 0.5 mol litre–1 to 0.4 mol litre–1 in 10
minute. The rate during this interval is :
(A) 0.005 mol litre–1 sec–1 (B) 0.005 mol litre–1 minute–1
(C) 0.05 mol litre–1 minute–1 (D) 0.5 mol litre–1 minute–1
11. For a reaction 3A ® Products, it is found that the rate of reaction doubles if concentration of A is increased of
A is increased four times, calculate order of reaction.
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
CHEMISTRY 1
12. In a reaction, the decreases in reactant’s concentration is 20% in 20 minute and 40% in 40 minute. Calculate
order of reaction and rate constant.
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 1/2
13. Calculate the order of reaction for which rate becomes half if volume of container having same amount of
reactant is doubled. (Assume gaseous phase reaction)
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 1/2
14. In the decomposition of N2O5, the plot between the reciprocal of concentration of the reactant and the time was
found to be linear as shown in figure. Determine the order of reaction.
(A) 1
1
(B) 0 Conc.
(C) 2
(D) 1/2 Time
15. A first order reaction takes 69.3 minute for 50% completion. How much time will be needed for 80%
completion ?
(A) 150.5 min (B) 160.97 min (C) 260.97 min (D) 165.97 min
16. For the non-equilibrium process, A + B ® Products, the rate is first order with respect to A and second order
with respect to B. If 1.0 mol each of A and B are introduced into a 1 litre vessel, and the initial rate were
1.0 × 10–2 mol/litre-sec, calculate the rate when half of the reactants have been used.
(A) 1.2 × 10–3 mol/litre-sec (B) 1.2 × 10–2 mol/litre-sec
(C) 0.2 × 10–3 mol/litre-sec (D) none of these
17. The accompanying figure depicts the change in concentration of species A and B for the reaction A ® B, as a
function of time the point of inter section of the two curves represents.
[B]
(A) t1/2
(B) t3/4
conc.
(C) t2/3
[A]
(D) data insufficient to predict Time
18. The first order decomposition reaction of N2O5 are written as :
2N2O5(g) ® 4NO2(g) + O2(g) ; rate = k[N2O5]
N2O5(g) ® 2NO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) ; rate = k’ [N2O5]
Which of the following fact is true ?
(A) k = k’ (B) k > k’ (C) k > 2k’ (D) 2k = k’
19. The half life period t1/2 is independent of initial concentration of reactant when the order of reaction is
(A) Negative (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) Fractional
20. The chemical reaction, 2O3 ® 3O2 proceeds as follows :
O3 O2 + O .... (Fast)
O + O3 ® 2O2 .... (Slow)
The rate law expression should be
(A) r = K[O3]2 (B) r = K[O3]2 [O2]–1 (C) r = K[O3][O2] (D) Unpredictable
CHEMISTRY 2
21. Which of the following is correct graph for the reaction ?
H2
Ni
log a
log a
log a
(A) (B) a (C) (D)
log t0.5 log t0.5 t0.5 log t0.5
k1 k2 d[B]
22. For a reaction A ¾¾® B ¾¾® C. If the reactions are of 1st order then is equal to
dt
(A) – k2[B] (B) +k [A] (C) k1[A] – k2[B] (D) k1[A] + k2[B]
23. Following is the graph between log T 1/2 and log a(a–initial concentration) for a given reaction at 27ºC. Hence
order is
(A) 9
log T1/2
45º
(B) 1
(C) 2
log a
(D) 3
24. Which curve represents zero order reaction ?
(A) (A) (B) (A) (C) (A) (D) (A)
t t t t
25. Find the activation energy [kJ/mol] for the reaction, A(g) + B(g) ® C(g) + D(g).
From the plot given below :
100
C+D
80
(A) 20
60
(B) 60 +B
40 A
(C) 40 20
(D) 80 0
Reaction course
26. A graph plotted between log t50% vs. log concentration is a straight line. What conclusion can you draw
from the given graph?
1
(A) n = 1, t1/2 = (B) n = 2, t1/2 = 1/a
K.a
0.693 log a
(C) n = 1, t1/2 = (D) None of the above
K
27. Inversion of a sugar follows first order rate equation which can be followed by noting the change in
rotation of the plane of polarization of light in the polarimeter. If r¥ , rt and r0 are the rotations at t = ¥ ,
t = t and t = 0, then, first order reaction can be written as :
1 rt - r¥ 1 r0 - r¥ 1 r¥ - rt 1 r¥ - rt
(A) K = t ln r - r (B) K = t ln r - r (C) K = t ln r - r (D) K = t ln r - r
0 ¥ t ¥ 0 t ¥ 0
CHEMISTRY 3
28. When ethyl acetate was hydrolysed in presence of 0.1 N HCl, the rate constant was found to be
5.40 × 10–5 sec–1. But when 0.1 N H2SO4 was used for hydrolysis, the rate constant was found to be
6.25 × 10–5 sec–1. Thus, it may be concluded that :
(A) H2SO4 is stronger than HCl
(B) H2SO4 is weaker than HCl
(C) H2SO4 and HCl both have the same strength
(D) the data are not sufficient to compare the strength of H2SO4 and HCl
29. The rate constant for a second order reaction is 8 × 10–5 M–1 min–1. How long will it take a 1M solution
to be reduced to 0.5 M?
(A) 8.665 × 103 minute (B) 8 × 10–5 minute (C) 1.25 × 104 minute (D) 4 × 10–5 minute
30. A substance undergoes first order decomposition. The decomposition follows two parallel first order
reactions as :
The percentage distribution of B and C are :

(A) 80% B and 20% C (B) 76.83% B and 23.17% C
(C) 90% B and 10% C (D) 60% B and 40% C
CHEMISTRY 4
TM
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN) (Salt Analysis) ENTHUSE COURSE
REVISION SHEET # 16 (TIME : 70 min.) INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. The green layer formed on Cu in atmosphere is due to formation of

(A) Cu2 O (B) CuO (C) Cu(OH)2 (D) Cu(OH)2. CuCO3
2. In Lassaigne’s test, if Fe3+ ions are in excess, the blue colour of Ferrieferrocyanide appears
(A) Blue (B) Red (C) Yellow (D) Green
3. Which of the following gas is coloured :
(A) Cl2 (B) HCl (C) NH3 (D) SO2
4. When CO2 is passed into lime water it turns milky. When excess of CO2 is passed, milkyness disappears
because
(A) Reaction is reversed
(B) Water soluble Ca(HCO3 ) 2 is formed
(C) Vaporisable calcium derivative is formed
(D) None of these
5. Black ppt. (A) dissolve in HNO3 giving (B) which gives white ppt. (C) with NH4OH. (C) on reaction with HCl
gives solution (D) gives white turbidity on addition of water. What is (D) ?
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Bi(OH)3 (C) BiOCl (D) Bi(NO3 )3
6. If nickel gives a coloured bead during the borax bead test, then it is due to the formation of
(A) Ni(BO2 )2 (B) Ni3(BO3) 2 (C) Ni2 B4O 7 (D) NiO
7. A white precipitate is obtained on hydrolysis of :
(A) PCl5 (B) NCl3 (C) BiCl3 (D) AsCl3
8. Which of the following combines with Fe (II) ions to form a brown complex ?
(A) N 2 O (B) NO (C) N 2 O 3 (D) N 2 O5
9. Sodium nitroprusside, when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions, produces purple colour ion due to the
formation of
(A) Na[Fe (H 2 O)5 NOS] (B) Na 2 [Fe (H 2 O )5 NOS] (C) Na 3 [Fe (CN )5 NOS] (D) Na 4 [Fe (CN )5 NOS]
10. Which of the following gives black precipitate when H 2 S gas is passed through its solution ?
(A) Acidic AgNO 3 (B) Mg(NO 3 ) 2 (C) Ammonical BaCl 2 (D) Copper nitrate
11. A salt gives violet vapours when treated with conc. H 2 SO 4 . It contains ?
(A) Cl - (B) I – (C) Br - (D) NO3-
12. Which compound is soluble in NH 4 OH ?
(A) PbCl 2 (B) PbSO 4 (C) AgCl (D) CaCO 3
13. A substance on treatment with dil H 2 SO4 liberates a colourless gas which produces (i) turbidity with baryta
water and (ii) turns acidified dichromate solution green. The reaction indicates the presence of
(A) CO32- (B) S 2- (C) SO32- (D) NO 2-
CHEMISTRY 1
14. Ozone when reacts with potassium iodide solution liberates certain product, which turns starch paper blue. The
liberated substance is…….
(A) Oxygen (B) Iodine (C) Hydrogen iodide (D) Potassium hydroxide
15. When KBr is treated with conc. H 2 SO 4 a reddish-brown gas is evolved. The evolved gas is–
(A) Bromine (B) Mixture of bromine and HBr
(C) HBr (D) NO 2
16. A solution of a salt in dilute sulphuric acid imparts deep blue colour with starch iodine solution it confirms the
presence of which of the following ?
(A) NO2- (B) I - (C) NO3- (D) CH 3 COO -
17. By passing H 2 S gas in acidified KMnO4 solution, we get–
(A) K 2 S (B) S (C) K 2 SO 3 (D) MnO2

18. Reagent used in the qualitative analysis of IVth group is–
(A) HCl (B) H 2 S (alkaline) (C) ( NH 4 ) 2 S (D) None of these
19. Addition of solution of oxalate to an aqueous solution of mixture of Ba + + , Sr + + and Ca + + will precipitate–
(A) Ca ++ (B) Ca ++ and Sr ++ (C) Ba ++ and Sr ++ (D) All the three
20. Which one among the following pairs of ions cannot be separated by in dilute hydrochloric acid ?
(A) Bi 3+ , Sn4 + (B) Al 3+ , Hg 2+ (C) Zn 2+ ,Cu 2+ (D) Ni 2+ , Cu 2+
21. Distinguishing reagent between silver and lead salts is–
(A) H 2 S gas (B) Hot dilute HCl solution
(C) NH 4 Cl (solid) + NH 4 OH solution (D) NH 4 Cl (solid) + ( NH 4 )2 CO3 solution
22. The ion that cannot be precipitated by both HCl and H 2 S is–
(A) Pb 2+ (B) Cu + (C) Ag + (D) Sn 2+
23. When H2S is passed through Hg2S we get –

(A) HgS (B) HgS + Hg2S (C) Hg2S + Hg (D) Hg 2 S
24. How do we differentiate between Fe3+and Cr3+ in group III ?
(A) By taking excess of NH4OH solution (B) By increasing NH4+ ion concentration
(C) By decreasing OH - ion concentration (D) Both (B) and (C)
25. [X] + H2SO4 ® [Y] a colourless gas with irritating smell–

`[Y] + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 green solution [X] and [Y] is
(A) SO3 2- , SO2 (B) CI - , HCI (C) S 2 - , H 2 S (D) CO3 2- , CO2
CHEMISTRY 2
26. In fifth group, ( NH 4 )2 CO3 is added to precipitate out the carbonates. We do not add Na 2 CO3 because
(A) CaCO 3 is soluble in Na 2CO3
(B) Na 2 CO3 increases the solubility of fifth group carbonates
(C) MgCO 3 will be precipitated out in fifth group
(D) None of these

27. In the precipitation of the iron group in qualitative analysis, ammonium chloride is added before adding ammo-
nium hydroxide to
(A) Decrease concentration of OH - ions (B) Prevent interference by phosphate ions
(C) Increase concentration of Cl - ions (D) Increase concentration of NH 4+ ions
28. Ferric ion forms a prussian blue coloured ppt. due to –
(A) K 4 Fe(CN) 6 (B) Fe 4 [Fe(CN ) 6 ]3 (C) KMnO4 (D) Fe(OH ) 3
29. A 0.3 M HCl solution contains the following ions Hg + + , Cd + + , Sr + + , Fe ++ , Cu + + The addition of H 2 S to
above solution will precipitate –
(A) Cd, Cu and Hg (B) Cd, Fe and Sr (C) Hg, Cu and Fe (D) Cu, Sr and Fe
30. A black sulphide is formed by the action of H 2 S on –
(A) Cupric chloride (B) Cadmium chloride (C) Zinc chloride (D) Sodium chloride
31. Which compound does not dissolve in hot dilute HNO3 ?
(A) HgS (B) PbS (C) CuS (D) CdS
CHEMISTRY 3
TM
TM
REVISION SHEET
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
# 17 ENTHUSE COURSE
TOPIC: ACID,NITROGEN,BIOMOLECULES & POLYMERS ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. In the set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a product C.
® A ¾¾¾ ® B ¾¾¾¾ ® C. The product C would be

C6 H 6 C2 H5MgBr
CH3COOH + PCl5 ¾¾
Anhy.AlCl3 ether
(A) CH3CH(OH)C2 H5 (B) CH3COC 6H5
C 2H5
(C) CH3CH(OH)C6 H5 (D) CH3 C(OH) C 6H5
2. What are A, B,C in the following reaction ?
® A (II) CH3CO2 H ¾¾¾ ®B

D HI
(I) (CH3CO2 ) 2 Ca ¾¾ Red P
(III) 2CH3CO2 H ¾¾¾

P4 O10
®C
A B C
(A) C6H 6 CH 3COCH 3 (CH 3CO) 2 O
(B) (CH 3CO) 2 O C6 H 6 CH 3COCH 3
(C) CH 3COCH 3 C6 H 6 (CH 3CO) 2 O
(D) CH 3COCH 3 (CH 3CO) 2 O C6 H 6

3. Which of the following is major product for the end of following reaction ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(HCOO)2Ca + (CH3COO)2Ca ¾¾¾

® A+ B + C Heat
4.
In this reaction
(A) A = B= C = HCHO
(B) A = B= C=CH3CHO
(C) A = HCHO, B = CH3CHO, C =
(D) A = B = CH3CHO, C =
CHEMISTRY 1
5. Which of the following will decarboxylate on heating ?

(A) Ph CO COOH (B) Ph CO CH2COOH
(C) (D)
6. Identify A in the following sequence of reaction ?
¾¾¾
(A)
H3 O +
® (B) ¾¾¾¾
(1) LiAlH 4
(2) H3O+
® + CH3CH2OH
(A) (B) (C) (D) HCN
7. Duma’s method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form of
(A) NH 3 (B) N 2 (C) NaCN (D) (NH4 )So4
8. Given the following sequence of reaction :
-
CH 3CH 2 I ¾¾¾
NaCN
® A ¾¾¾¾¾® OH
Partial hydrolysis
B ¾¾¾¾
Br2 / NaOH
®C
The major product ‘C’ is :
(A) CH 3CH 2 NH 2 (B) CH 3 .CH 2 C - NHBr

||
O
(C) CH 3 .CH 2 - COONH 4 (D) CH 3 .CH 2 C - NBr2

||
O
9. Which one of the following is not the correct reaction of aryl diazonium salts :
(A) C6 H5 N2+ Cl- + Cu 2Cl 2 ® C6 H5Cl (B) C6 H5 N2+ Cl - + HBF4 ¾¾¾

Heat
® C6 H5F
(C) C6 H5 N 2+ Cl - + H 3PO 2 ® C6 H5 PO4 (D) C6 H5 N 2+ Cl- + SnCl 2 / HCl ® C6 H 5 NHNH 2

10. Which of the following reactants on reaction with conc. NaOH followed by acidification gives the following
lactone as the only product ?
O
C
O
CH2
COOCH3 COOH CHO COOH
(A) (B) (C) (D)

COOH CHO CHO COOH
CHEMISTRY 2
11. Compound ‘A’ (molecular formula C3 H 8 O) is treated with acidified potassium dichromate to form a
product ‘B’ (molecular formula C 3 H 6 O). ‘B’ forms a shining silver mirror on warming with ammoniacal
silver nitrate. ‘B’ when treated with an aqueous solution of H 2 NCONHNH 2 .HCl and sodium acetate
gives a product ‘C’. Identify the structure of ‘C’
(A) CH 3CH 2CH = NNHCONH 2 (B) CH 3 - CH = NNHCONH 2

|
CH 3
(C) CH 3CH = NCONHNH 2 (D) CH 3CH 2CH - NCONHNH 2

|
CH 3
12. Acetamide is treated separately with the following reagents. Which would give methyl amine
(A) PCl 5 (B) NaOH + Br2 (C) Sodalime (D) Hot conc. H 2SO4
13. RNH2 reacts with C6 H 5 SO 2 Cl in aqueous KOH to give a clear solution. On acidification a precipitate
is obtained which is due to the formation of
H
|
+
(A) R - N - SO2C6 H 5OH - (B) R - N - SO2C6 H 5 K +
|
H
(C) R - NHSO2 C6 H 5 (D) C6 H 5 SO2 NH 2

14. In this reaction
C6 H 5 NH 2 + HCl + NaNO 2 ® X . Product X is
(A) Aniline hydrochloride (B) Nitro aniline
(C) Benzenediazonium chloride (D) None of these
15. Identify the product Z in the series
Na + C H OH HNO K Cr O
CH 3CN ¾¾ ¾2¾5¾
¾® X ¾¾ ¾
¾2
® Y ¾¾2 ¾2 ¾
¾
7
®Z
H 2 SO4
(A) CH 3CHO (B) CH 3CONH 2 (C) CH 3COOH (D) CH 3CH 2 NHOH
16. The final product C, obtained in this reaction
NH2
Ac 2O Br2 H 2O
¾¾ ¾® A ¾¾¾® B ¾¾ ¾® C would be
+
CH 3COOH H
CH3
NHCOCH3 NH2 COCH3 NH2

Br COCH3 Br Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

CHEMISTRY 3
17. Which of the nitrogen of histidine is first protonated ?
(A) a (B) b (C) both (D) None.

18. (+)–Glucose and (–)–fructose can be differentiated by
(A) Tollen’s reagent (B) Fehling solution (C) Bromine water (D) None of the three.
19. Which of the following cannot form osazone ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. Amylose is a polymer of

(A) a–D glucopyranose (B) fructose (C) b–fructose (D) b–D glucose
21. A furanose ring consists of a skeleton of
(A) 5-carbon atoms (B) 7-C atoms
(C) 9-C atoms and one O atom (D) 4-C and one O atom.
22. Which of the following represents a peptide chain ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
23. Methyl – a – D – glucoside and methyl – b – D – glucoside are

(A) Epimers (B) Anomers (C) Enantiomers (D) C onformational
diastereomers
24. Buna-s rubber is which of the following of 1-3-butadiene and styrene
(A) Polymers (B) Copolymer (C) Addition (D) Condensation polymer
25. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(A) Nylon-6 (B) Decron (C) Bakelite (D) PVC
O
+
¾¾¾®
NH 2 OH
B ¾¾H
® D ¾¾¾High
®X
26. D temp. (polymer)
(A) Taflone (B) Dacron (C) Nylon 6,6 (D) Nylon 6
CHEMISTRY 4
27. Which of the following is teflon

é H H ù é H CH 3 ù é F F ù é H F ù
ê ú ê ú ê ú ê ú
ê | | ú ê | | ú ê | | ú ê | | ú
ê - C - C -ú ê - C - C -ú ê - C - C -ú ê - C - C -ú
(A) ê ú (B) ê ú (C) ê ú (D) ê ú
ê | | ú ê | | ú ê | | ú ê | | ú
ê H H ú ê H H ú ê F F ú ê F Cl ú
ë ûn ë ûn ë ûn ë ûn
28. The manufacture of nylon-66 involves condensation of
(A) phenol and formaldehyde (B) urea and formaldehyde
(C) adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine (D) ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
29. Dacron is obtained by the condensation polymerisation of
(A) Phenol and phthalic acid (B) Phenol and formaldehyde
(C) Dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol (D) Terephthalic acid and formaldehyde
30. Which of the following is not an example of additional polymer
(A) Terylene (B) Polypropylene (C) Polyethylene (D) Polystyrene
CHEMISTRY 5
TM TM
REVISION SHEET
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(Surface Chemistry)


1. Most of the reactions are slow in nature due to
(A) Energy barrier (B) Orientation barrier
(C) Low atmospheric temperature (D) Both (A) and (B)
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) Micelles are formed below a temperature, known as kraft temperature
(B) Gelatin is lyophilic sols
(C) Bredig’s arc method is a dispersion method to prepare colloidal solution
(D) Tyndall effect is observed due to scattering of light
3. The brownian motion in colloid is due to
(A) Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
(B) Attraction & repulsion between charges of the colloidal particles
(C) Impact of the molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles.
(D) Conventional currents.
4. Adsorption of gases on solid surface is generally exothermic because
(A) enthalpy is positive (B) entropy decrease (C) entropy increase (D) Free energy increases
5. A dilute solution of litmus becomes colourless on shaking with charcoal. This is due to :
(A) Absorption (B)Adsorption (C) Chemical reaction (D) Both (A) and (B)
6. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm x/m = kp1/n, the value of ‘n’ at low pressure is :
(A) more than one (B) less than one (C) equal to one (D) from zero to one
7. Colloid of which of the following can be prepared by electrical dispersion as well as reduction method ?
(A) Sulphur (B) As2S 3 (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) Gold
8. Colloidal solution of cellulose nitrate in alcohol is called
(A) Purple of cassius(B) Collodion (C) Argyrol (D) Aqua dag.
9. Cow milk is an example of natural emulsion stabilized by
(A) Fat (B) Water (C) Casein (D) Mg2+ ions
10. Tails of comets are visible due to :
(A) Tyndall effect (B) Reflection (C) Brownian motion (D) None
11. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log x/m Vs log P is linear with slope equal to (n being whole
number)
(A) k (B) log k (C) n (D) 1/n
12. Critical temperatures of N2, CO and CH4 are 126, 134 and 190 K respectively. The increasing orderof adsorption
on the surface of activated charcoal is :
(A) N2 < CH4 < CO (B) N2 < CO < CH4 (C) CH4 < CO < N2 (D) CO < N2 < CH4
13. Which of the following is wrong ?
(A) Sulphur sol is an example of macro molecular colloid
(B) Bleeding due to a cut can be stopped by applying FeCl3 because of coagulation of negatively charged blood
particles by Fe+3 ions
(C) AgI is used for producing artificial rain by seeding because AgI has crystal structural similar to ice.
(D) Alums purify muddy water by coagulation.
14. For a positively charged Fe(OH)3, the coagulation value of four different electrolytes A, B, C and D are 0.132,
0.210, 0.238,0.096. Which is least effective in causing coagulation ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
15. 3+
In “lake test” of Al ion, there is formation of coloured floating lake. It is due to :
(A) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3 (B) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH) -4
(C) Adsorption of litmus by water (D) Colloidal formation
CHEMISTRY 1
16. Which is not correctly matched ?

Column A Column B
(A) Argyrol Colloidal sol of silver
(B) Purpleof cassius Colloidal sl of platinum
(C) Aqua dag Colloidal sl of graphite in water
(D) Collodion Colloidal sol of cellulose nitrate in ethanol
x
17. A graph between log and log p is a straight line at angle of 45° with the intercept on the y-axis equal to
m
0.3010. Under a pressureof 0.3 atmosphere, the amount of the gas adsorbed per gram of adsorbent is
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.8 (C) 1.2 (D) 0.6
18. The coagulation of 200 mL of a positive colloid took place when 0.73 g HCl was added to it without changing the
volume much. The flocculation value of HCl for the colloid is
(A) 0.365 (B) 35.5 (C) 100 (D) 150
19. Which is correct regarding Tyndall effect ?
I. The refractive index of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium must differ considerably
II. The diameter of the particles of the dispersed phase must not be much smaller the wavelength of light used.
III. In lyophilic solts, Tyndall effet is weak because the particles are highly solvated and so the difference in
refractive index is very small.
IV. True solutions do not show Tyndall effect due to very small size of the particles.
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III (C) II, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
20. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide and colloidal gold is positively and negatively charged,
respectively. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?
(A) magnesium chloride solution coagulates, the gold sol more readily than the iron (III) hydroxide sol
(B) sodium sulphate solution causes coagulation in both sols
(C) mixing of the sols has no effect
(D) coagulation in both sols can be brought about by electrophoresis.
21. 1g of charcoal adsorbs 100 mL of 0.5M CH3COOH to form a monolayer and thereby the molarity of CH3COOH
reduces to 0.49.If surface area of charcoal is 3.01 × 102 m2/g then what would be the surface area of charcoal
adsorbed by each molecule ?
(A) 5 × 10–19 m2 (B) 3.01 × 102 m2 (C) 6.022 × 1023 m2 (D) can not be calculated
22. Which of the following is true in respect of adsorption ?
(A) DG < 0; DS > 0; DH < 0 (B) DG < 0; DS < 0; DH < 0
(C) DG > 0; DS > 0; DH < 0 (D) DG < 0; DS < 0; DH > 0
23. If x/m is the mass of adsorbate adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent, p is the pressure of the adsorbate gas and
a and b are constants, which of the following represents “Langmuir adsorption isotherm” ?
æxö æaö 1 x b 1 x 1 + bp 1 a p
(A) log ç ÷ = log ç ÷ + log p (B) = + (C) = (D) x = +
èmø èbø a m a ap m ap b a
m
24. If liquid is dispersed in solid medium, then this is called :
(A) sol (B) emulsion (C) liquid aerosol (D) gel
25. Freundlich equation for adsorption of gases (in amount of X g) on a solid (in amount of m g) at constant
temperature can be expressed as :
X 1 X 1
(A) log = log p + log k (B) log = log k + log p
m n m n
X X 1
(C) µ pn (D) = log p + log k
m m n
CHEMISTRY 2

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TM

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN )

Single Option Correct (+4, – 1)

(A) n1 = 2, n 2 = 3 (B) n1 = 2, n 2 = 4 (C) n1 = 2,n 2 = ¥ (D) n1 = 2, n 2 = 0

2. Which of the following is incorrect set of quantum no. ?

(C) n = 100 l = 3 m = -2 s = + 1 2 (D) n = 100 l = 1 m = 0 s = 0

3. Velocity of an electron in nth state is given by :

(C) v n = 2.165 ´10 -6 Z.n m / sec. (D) none of these.

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) n against Z (B) n against Z (C) n against Z (D) None of these

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Single Option Correct (+4, – 1)

The correct answer is

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

22. Match the following

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(C) B < Be < O < N (D) B < O < Be < N

Single Option Correct (+4, – 1)

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(A) equal to the atmospheric pressure

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

(C) Curve for V2 has a greater slope than that for V1

(D) Curve for V1 has a greater slope than that for V2

(A) Avogadro number = 6.02 ´ 10

452 182 182 452

Single Option Correct (+4, – 1)

(A) + & + (B) & (C) & (D) &

2. Which of the molecule is not 5p2 hybridized ?

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

13. The order of increasing polarity in HCl, CO 2 , H2O and HF molecules is :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1, 2 (B) 1, 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All of these

(A) I in ICl -4 (B) S in SO3 (C) N in NO3- (D) S in SO 24-

24. Which one is planar molecule :

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

25. The correct order of dipole moment is :

27. In which of the following pp-dp bonding is observed :

(A) NO3- (B) SO32- (C) BO33- (D) CO32-

(I) SF6 (II) PF6- (III) SiF62- (IV) XeF6

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(Ionic Equilibrium) ENTHUSE COURSE

Single Option Correct (+4, – 1)

(A) [Ba 2 + ] = 1.6M;[NO3- ] = 1.2M (B) [Ag+] 1.2M ; [Cl–] = 1.2M

(C) [Ba 2+ ] = 1.0M;[NO3- ] = 3.0M (D) None of these

(Ka of anilinium ion is 10–9)

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Single Option Correct (+4, – 1)

(C) pH1 < pH 2 < pH 3 < pH 4 (D) pH1 < pH 2 < pH 3 = pH 4

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

14. To an Ag2CrO4 solution CrO42– ions are added. This results in

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE

1. Which of the following dues not have optical Isomer

(A) éë Co(en) ( NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ùû Cl (B) [ Co(en)2 Cl2 ] Cl

(C) [ Co(NH 3 ) 2 - Cl3 ] (D) [ Co(en)3 ] Cl3

Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN ) REVISION SHEET ENTHUSIAST COURSE