NTA NEET (UG)

BIOLOGY
(Line by line Chapterwise and
Topicwise based on NCERT
Textbook)

Author

Rakshita Singh
2 Chapter Biological Classification
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
1. Fungi has cell wall composed of– (a) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(a) Cellulose (b) Unicellular & multicellular
(b) Non – cellulosic + amino acid (c) Photosynthetic & non – photosynthetic
(c) Chitin (d) All of these
(d) Absence of cell wall
8. ow many ingdom according to five ingdom
2. How many kingdom from R.H. Whittaker system classification and Linnaeus system of classification
does have exclusive autotrophic mode of nutrition is/are dedicated for prokaryotes exclusively
(a) Zero (b) One (a) 1, 0 (b) 1, 1
(c) Two (d) Three (c) 2, 0 (d) 3, 1
3. Unicellular eukaryotic are categorised in- 9. Moneran cell wall is composed by-
(a) Monera (b) Protista (a) Polysaccharide (Non cellulose) only
(c) Plantae (d) Animalia (b) Polysaccharide (cellulose)
4. How many of the following does belong to (c) Polysaccharide (chitin)
(d) Amino acid and Non cellulosic polysaccha-
Protista Amoeba, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas,
ride
Chlorella, Paramecium
(a) 5 (b) 4 10. Chemosynthetic mode of nutrition is found is –
(c) 3 (d) 2 (a) Monera (b) Protist
(c) Plantae (d) Fungi
5. In five ingdom classification multicellularity
began from – 11. R. Whitta er classification is are based upon
(a) Animalia (b) Plantae (a) Cell structure & body organisation
(c) Protista (d) Fungi (b) Mode of nutrition & reproduction
(c) Phylogentic relationship
6. Choose the correct with respect to earliest for
(d) All of these
scientific basis of classification
(a) It was proposed by Aristotle 12. ive ingdom classification was proposed in
(b) Plants were divided as trees, shrubs & herbs (a) 1969 (b) 1996
on the basis of their morphological charac- (c) 1699 (d) None of these
ters
(c) Animals were classified into two groups that 13. Choose the correct about 3 – domain system
are those which have red blood and those (a) Two domain are dedicated for prokaryotic
that did not while one domain is dedicated for eukary-
(d) All of these otic
(b) One domain is dedicated for prokaryotic
7. Linnaeus system of classification did not deal while two domains are for eukaryotic
with – (c) It has seven kingdom which are categorised
in 3 – domain
12 Botany
(d) It has six kingdom of which one kingdom is 19. Identify shape of bacteria
in first and third domain while ingdom
is second domain.

14. arlier classification system included bacteria,

BGA (blue green algae) fungi, mosses, ferns
under ‘Plants’ on basis of-
(a) Mode of nutrition
(b) Body organisation & nuclear structure (a) a = cocci, b = rod – shaped, c = bacilli,
(c) Presence of cell wall d = comma – shaped
(d) Nature of cell wall. (b) a = spherical coccus, B = Bacilli,
c = spirilla, d = vibrio
15. How many of following are prokaryotes: (c) a = cocci, b = spirilla, c = vibrio,
Bacteria, Mosses, ferns, fungi, d = Bacilli
pteridophyta, blue green algae, (d) a = vibrio, b = spirilla, c = bacilli,
gymnosperms angiosperm d = coccus
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) More than 4 20. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Bacteria are sole members of kingdom
monera.
Topic (b) Bacteria are abundant macro – organism
Kingdom Monera
1 (c) Bacteria occurrence is limited to some area.
(d) Bacteria can’t live in extreme habitat like
desert
16. On the basis of shape; bacteria are grouped
under_____ categories Topic
(a) Four (b) Five 2 Archaebacteria
(c) Three (d) None of these

17. Choose the correctly stated statement 21. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
(a) Bacterial structure and behaviour are com- having –
plex. (a) efinite nuclear structure
(b) Bacterial structure and behaviour are (b) Cell wall structure
simple (c) Adaptability cytoplasmic oncentration
(c) Bacterial structure is complex while behav- (d) Some membranous cell organelles
iour is simple
(d) Bacterial structure is simple while behav- 22. Survival of archaebacteria in extreme condition
iour is complex is achieved by –
(a) Cell wall structure
18. Synthesis of own food from inorganic substrate (b) Some membranous cell organelles
is occur in – (c) Adaptability & cytoplasm
(a) Autotrophic nutrition (d) All of these
(b) Chemosynthetic autotroph
23. Which of following statement is/are false
(c) Photosynthetic autotroph
(a) Methanogens are present in alimentary
(d) All of these
canal of several ruminant animals like cow
& buffaloes
(b) Methanogens are responsible for produc-
tion of biogas from dung of ruminant
animals
Biological Classification 13
(c) Methanogens are present in gut of several (d) fixing in Anabaena
non – ruminant like cow & buffaloes
(d) A & B 28. Choose the incorrect option about bacterial
reproduction –
24. Match Column-A against Column-B and choose (a) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
the correct option from the codes given below. (b) Under unfavourable condition they produce
spores
Column -A Column -B (c) They also reproduce by sexual reproduction
Organisms Method of organ- (d) They show a sort of sexual reproduction
isms
29. Here are few statement given below, Identify
a Halophiles 1 Marshy area
organism on basis of statement
b Thermo- 2 Salty area
i. Lack cell wall
acidophiles
ii. Smallest living cell known
c Methanogens 3 Hot springs iii. Can survive without oxygen
iv. Pathogenic in animal & plants.
(a) i) – c, ii) – b, iii – a (a) Nostoc (b) Anabaena
(b) i) – c, ii) – a, iii – b (c) Mycoplasma (d) Chlorella
(c) i) – b, ii) – c, iii – a
(d) i) – b, ii) – a, iii – c 30. Label A , B and identify organism (c)

Topic
3 Eubacteria

25. Choose the wrong statement for chemosynthetic

autotroph bacteria
(a) They oxidise various inorganic substrate-
such as nitrates, nitrites & ammonia and
use the released energy for their ATP pro-
duction
(b) They play great role in recycling nutrient
like nitrogen phosphorous, iron & sulphur
(c) For their energy production they utilize
solar energy
(d) They can prepare their food from inorganic
substrate.
26. Citrus canker is –
(a) Plant disease cause by bacteria
(b) Human disease cause by bacteria
(c) Pet disease cause by bacteria
(d) None of these
27. Which of following is not economic importance
of heterotrophic bacteria
(a) Making curd from milk
(b) Antibiotic production
(c) fixing in legumes root
(a) A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenous sheath C
= Nostoc, an archaebacteria
(b) A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenous sheath C
= Nostoc
(c) A = Mucilagenous, B = Heterocyst, C =
Nostoc
(d) A = heterocyst, B = Mucilagenoussheath, C
ostoc, a filamentous algae
31. Choose the correct about blue green algae
i. Also known as cyanobacteria
ii. Presence of chlorophyll a, b similar to
green plants
iii. Photosynthetic autotroph
iv) May be unicellular, colonial or filamentous
v. Occur in aquatic as well as terrestrial
(a) i), iii), iv), v) (b) i), ii), iii), iv), v)
(c) i), ii), iv), v) (d) None of these
32. itrogen fixation is done by
(a) Specialised vegetative cell i.e. Heterocyst
of Nostoc & Anabaena
14 Botany

(b) Specialised reproductive cell i.e. Heterocyst
of Nostac & Anabaena
(c) Specialised vegetative as well as repro-
ductive cell i.e. Heterocyst of Nostoc &
Anabaena
(d) None
animal-like protists (protozoa); and absorp-
tive, fungus like protists
(b) Chrysophytes, inoflagellates and ugle-
noids only
(c) Slime moulds and fungi only
(d) Flagellated protozoans and sporozoans only

40. Which of the following are placed under

Topic rotista-?
4 Kingdom Protista
(a) Chryosophytes and inoflagellates
(b) Euglenoids
33. Protista form a link with – (c) Slime moulds and protozoans
(a) Plants only (d) All
(b) Animals only 41. Locomotory structures in protists are –
(c) Fungi only (a) Flagella (b) Cilia
(d) Plants, animals and fungi (c) Pseudopodia (d) All

34. Protista includes - Topic

(a) Unicellular prokaryotes Chrysophytes
(b) Bacteriophages 5
(c) Unicellular eukaryotes
(d) B.G.A
42. The diatoms do not easily decay like most of
35. Which of the following kingdoms has no well the other algae because -
defined boundaries? (a) They have highly siliceous wall
(a) Monera (b) They have water proof cells
(b) Protista (c) Their cell wall are mucilaginous
(c) Fungi (d) Cell wall is virus-resistant
(d) Metaphyta and Metazoa
43. Diatomaceous earth is used for all except
36. Members of Protista are primarily (a) Polishing
(a) Parasites (b) Terrestrial (b) Filtration of oils and syrups
(c) Aquatic (d) Photosynthetic (c) Sound and fire proof room
(d) Biogas
37. Nearly all protists are –
(a) Aerobic 44. Chrysophytes are -
(b) Anaerobic (a) Planktons (b) Nektons
(c) Aerobic or anaerobic (c) Benthonic (d) Active swimmers
(d) Photosynthetic
45. Chief producers in ocean are -
38. Nutritionally, protists are- (a) inoflagellates (b) iatoms
(a) Photoautotrophs (c) Euglenoids (d) Green algae
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) Saprotrophs 46. Photosynthetic protists are -
(d) Photoautotrophs, heterotrophs or autotrophs (a) uglenoids, iatomsand inoflagellates
(b) Euglenoids and slime moulds
39. Based upon the modes of nutrition, protists are (c) iatoms and ooflagellates
grouped into – (d) Desmids +Ciliates
(a) Plant-like protists (algae) and ingestive,
Biological Classification 15
54. inoflagellates are mostly-
47. Chrysophytes include – (a) Marine (b) Fresh water
(a) Diatoms and desmids (golden algae) (c) terrestrial (d) Saprophytes
(b) Euglenoids
(c) inoflagellates 55. Red tides in warm coastal water develop due
(d) Slime moulds to super abundance of-
48. Which of the following modes of reproduction (a) inoflagellates
(b) Euglenoid forms
can be found in at least some protists?
(c) Diatoms and desmids
(a) Binary fission
(d) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Spore formation 56. Red tide is caused by – )
(d) All (a) Ceretium (b) Noctiluca
(c) Gonyaulax (d) All of these
49. Select the following statement that does not
apply to diatoms –
(a) Diatom cell wall may be impregnated with Topic
silicon 7 Euglena
(b) Cell wall is made up of half-shells fit
tightly together 57. Euglenoids e.g. Euglena are found –
(c) Diatom is a chrysophyte (a) In fresh running water
(d) iatom is multiflagellate (b) In fresh stagnant water
(c) In marine environment
50. Silica gel (Keieselghur)/Diatomite/Diatomaceous (d) In both fresh and marine water
earth is obtained by –
(a) iatoms (b) inoflagellates 58. Which of the following statements about Euglena
(c) Euglenoids (d) Brown algae is true? ( g. , )
(a) uglenoids are flagellates
Topic (b) Euglena placed in continuous darkness
6 Dinoglagellates loses their photosynthetic activity and die
(c) The pigments of Euglena are quite different
from those of green plants
51. inoflagellates have
(d) Euglena is a marine protist
(a) A single flagellum in the transverse groove
between the cell plates 59. Which of the following statement is true about
(b) A single flagellum in the longitudinal uglena?
groove between the cell plates (a) They show flagellar locomotion
(c) Two flagella one lies longitudinally and the (b) They have a rigid cell wall
other transversely in a furrow between the (c) They have no chloroplast
wall plates (d) They are obligate autotroph
(d) o flagella 60. i. Instead of a cell wall they have a protein
52. In which of the following the cell wall has stiff rich pellicle ma ing their body flexible.
ii. They have flagella, a short and a long
cellulose plate on the outer surface –
one.
(a) inoflagellates (b) esmids
iii. They have mixotrophic nutrition
(c) Diatoms (d) Euglenoids
iv. In light they are photosynthetic, but act as
53. Which of the following releases toxins that may heterotroph (predating other smaller organ-
even kill other marine animals like fishes ism) when they are in dark.
(a) Gonyaulax (b) Paramecium v. They are connecting link between plants
(c) Euglenoids (d) Sporozoans and animals.
16 Botany

The above statements are assigned to – (c) They cause sleeping sickness
(a) inoflagellates (d) All
(b) Slime mould
(c) Desmids and Diatoms 65. Paramecium-
(d) Euglena (a) Is a ciliated protozoan
(b) Shows water current movement by cilia
which helps the food to be steered into gul-
Topic let
8 Slime Moulds
(c) Has a cavity (gullet) that opens to the out-
side of the cell surface
61. Slime moulds – (d) All
(a) Are parasite
(b) Do not produce fruiting bodies 66. Plasmodium (malarial parasite)
(c) Do not produce spores (a) Is a ciliated protozoan
(d) Saprophytic protists (b) Shows water current movement by cilia
which helps the food to be steered into gul-
62. The slimy mass of protoplasm with nuclei forms let
the body of slime moulds is called – (c) Causes malaria
(a) Plasmodium (d) All
(b) Myxamoeba
67. Which of the following always produce an
(c) Sporocytes
(d) Periplasmodium infectious spore li e stage in their life cycles?
(a) Ciliated protozoans
63. Which of the following is correct about the (b) Flagellated protozoans
slime mould? (c) Sporozoans
I. Its thalloid body, plasmodium, has pseudo- (d) None
podia for locomotion and engulfing organic
68. Protozoans are not included in kingdom Animalia
matter
because –
II. During unfavourable conditions plasmo-
(a) Mostly asymmetrical
dium differentiates and produces fruiting
(b) Unicellular eukaryotes
bodies, sporangium
(c) Heterotrophic nature
III. Spores possess no true cell wall.
(d) Multicellular prokaryotes
IV. They are dispersed by air current.
V. Being extremely resistant, spores survive 69. All protozoans are –
for many years (a) Saprophytes only
VI. Plasmodium can grow upto several feet. (b) Parasites only
(a) I, II, IV, V, VI (c) Predators only
(b) I, II , III (d) Heterotrophs (parasites or predator) only
(c) I, II , III, VI
(d) II, III , VI 70. Which of the following is considered to be
primitive relatives of animals -?
Topic (a) inoflagellates (b) Slime moulds
Protozoans (c) Protozoa (d) Protochordata
9
71. ow many ma or groups proto oan have?
64. Which one is correct about Trypanosoma? (a) 3 (b) 4
(a) They are flagellated proto oan (c) 2 (d) 8
(b) They are parasite
Biological Classification 17

72. Which of the following are proto oans? (c) Sea water
(a) iatoms, flagellates, ciliates (d) Warm and humid places
(b) esmids, flagellates, ciliates 80. Fungi occur-
(c) Amoeboid, flagellates, ciliates, sporo oans (a) In air and soil
(d) Amoeba, aramecium, dinoflagellates, (b) In water
Plasmodium (c) On plants and animals
73. Which of the following statements is wrong (d) All
about the amoeboid proto oans? 81. Fungi show a great diversity in –
(a) They live in freshwater, sea water or moist (a) Morphology
soil (b) Habitat
(b) Amoeba has pseudopodia for locomotion (c) Both a and b
and capture prey (d) Nutrition
(c) Entamoeba show holozoic nutrition 82. Mode of nutrition in fungi is not –
(d) Marine forms are shelled with silica (a) Parasitic (b) Saprophytic
74. Flagellated protozoans are – (c) Autotrophic (d) Heterotrophic
(a) Free living 83. All of the following are fungi except –
(b) Parasites (a) Yeast (b) Penicillium
(c) Either free living or parasites (c) Plasmodium (d) Puccinia
(d) Pseudopodia
84. Which of the following is odd?
Topic (a) Toad stool (b) Puccinia
Kingdom Fungi (c) Alternaria (d) Mushroom
10
85. Cell walls of all fungi consist of the
75. Which one is unicellular fungus? polysaccharide –
(a) Puccinia (b) Toad stool (a) Chitin (b) Cellulose
(c) Penicillium (d) Yeast (c) Silica (d) Pectin
86. The body of multicellular fungus is called a –
76. Coenocytic hypha is –
(a) Monokaryon (b) Hyphae
(a) Uninucleate hypha
(c) Rhizoids (d) Dikaryon
(b) Multicellular hypha
(c) Multinucleate hypha without septae 87. The cells of the body of a multicellular fungus
(d) Hypha in coelom are organised into rapidly growing individual
77. Many fungi are in ____ association with filaments called
photosynthetic organisms to form mycorrhizae (a) Mycelium (b) Rhizoids
(c) Hyphae (d) Dikaryon
or lichens –
(a) Parasitic (b) Symbiotic 88. Reproduction in fungi can take place by all of
(c) Photosynthetic (d) Saprobic the following vegetative methods except-
78. Fungi can be parasites on – (a) Gemmae (b) Fragmentation
(a) Animals (b) Human being (c) Fission (d) Budding
(c) Plants (d) All 89. Fungi show asexual reproduction by all of the
79. Fungi prefer to grow in – following spores except-
(a) Cold and dry places (a) Conidia (b) Oospore
(b) Hot and dry places (c) Sporangiospore (d) Zoospores
18 Botany

90. Sexual reproduction in fungi is by all of the 96. Coenocytic, multinucleate and branched mycelial
following except- habit is found in-
(a) Oospores (b) Ascopores (a) Basidiomycetes
(c) Zoospores (d) Basidiospores (b) Phycomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes
91. Select the correct statements below that correctly (d) Deuteromycetes
apply to the Kingdom Fungi- 97. Match the following Columns
(a) Some fungi form beneficial interrelation- Column A Column B
ships with plants A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
(b) Certain fungi are natural sources of antibi- B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
otics C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
(c) The fungal life cycle typically includes a D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
spore stage The correct matching is -
(d) All (a) A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III
(b) A- II, B - IV, C - I, D – III
92. The below diagram shows a generalized life
(c) A- IV, B - I, C - II, D – III
cycle of a fungus. The appropriate terms for A
(d) A- IV, B - III, C - II, D – I
to E are-

Topic
11 Phycomycetes

98. Members of phycomycetes are found-

(a) Spores are absent in air I. In aquatic habitat
(b) Spores are present in the bread II. On decaying wood
(c) Spores are in the air III. On moist and damp places
(d) The bread gets decomposed· IV. As obligate parasite on plants
(a) None of the above
93. Which of the following is the correct sequence (b) I and IV
of 3 steps in the sexual cycle of fungi- (c) II and III
(a) Mitosis Meiosis  Fertilization (d) All of the above
(b) Plasmogamy Karyogamy Meiosis
(c) Meiosis Plasmogamy Karyogamy 99. In phycomycetes asexual reproduction occurs
(d) KaryogamyPlasmogamy Meiosis by-
(a) Zoospores (motile)
94. ungi are classified on the basis of (b) Aplanospores (non-motile)
(a) Morphology of mycelium (c) Both
(b) Development of fruiting bodies (d) Aplanogamete
(c) Mode of spore formation
(d) All 100. Which of the following spores are produced
endogenously?
95. Dikaryophase I Dikaryon formation is a specific
(a) Zoospores and Conidia
characteristic of- (b) Conidia and aplanospores
(a) All fungi (c) Aplanospores and zoospores
(b) Phycomycetes and ascomycetes (d) Aplanospore, zoospores and conidia
(c) Only basidiomycetes
(d) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes 101. In Phycomycetes sexual reproduction
occurs by
Biological Classification 19

(a) Isogamy and anisogamy (a) Morels + Mushroom

(b) lsogamy, oogamy (b) Truffles Toadstool
(c) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy (c) Morels Truffles
(d) Oogamy and anisogamy (d) Puffball + Mushroom

102. All the following belong to phycomycetes 107. Which one is used extensively in biochemical
except – and genetical work?
(a) Penicillium (a) Agaricus (b) Alternaria
(b) Rhizopus (bread mould) (c) Neurospora (d) Mucor
(c) Mucor
(d) Albugo 108. Which of the following ascomycetes is thesource
of antibiotic?
103. Which of the following is parasite on mustard? (a) Neurospora (b) Penicillium
(a) Albugo (b) Puccinia (c) Claviceps (d) None
(c) Yeast (d) Ustilago
Topic
Topic 13 Basidiomycetes
12 Ascomycetes
109. Basidiomycetes include -
104. Which of the following is not true about (a) Mushroom, Toadstool, Puffball and bracket
ascomycetes? fungi
(a) Mode of nutrition saprophytic, (b) Smut fungi and rust fungi
decomposer,coprophilous (growing on (c) Both a and b
dung) and parasitic (d) Bread mould, sac fungi and algal fungi
(b) Includes unicellular (e.g. yeast) and multi-
cellular forms 110. Which of the following are common parasite
(c) Mycelium is coenocytic basidiomycetes
(d) Aspergillus, Claviceps, Neurospora are (a) Puccinia (rust) and Ustilago (smut)
important members of Ascomycetes (b) Sac fungi
(c) Puffballs
105. (d) Agaricus (mushroom)
I. It includes unicellular as well as multicel-
lular fungi 111. Where does meiosis occur in mushroom?
II. In multicellular forms hyphae are branched (a) Basidiospore
and septate (b) Basidium
III. Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) (c) Basidiocarp
exogenously in chain (d) Ascus mother cell
IV. Sexual spores are ascopores produced 112.
endogenously in Ascus I. Mycelium is branched and septate
V. Fruiting body is called ascocarp II. No asexual spores are generally formed
III. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is
Which of the above characters are show by-? common
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Sac fungi IV. Sex organs are absent but sexual reproduc-
(c) Club fungi (d) Fungi imperfecti tion takes place by nsomatogamy
V. Karyogamy and meiosis occur in basidium
106. Which of the following are edible ascomycete’s to form haploid exogenous 4 basidiospores
delicacies? VI. Basidia are arranged in basidiocarp.
20 Botany
The above characters are assigned to – (b) Basidiomycetes
(a) Sac fungi (c) Ascomycetes
(b) Club fungi (d) Both band c
(c) Algal fungi
(d) Fungi imperfect
Topic
113. Plasmogamy in fungi is the fusion of- 15 Diagram Based Questions
(a) Two haploid gamete cells and their nuclei at
once 119. Identify the diagram.
(b) Two haploid nuclei
(c) Two haploid gamete cells
(d) Two diploid vegetative cells with nuclei

114. Karyogamy is -
(a) Fusion of two protoplasts
(b) Fusion of two nuclei (a) (i) Mucor (ii) Aspergillus (iii) Agaricus
(c) Fusion of two plasma membranes (b) (i) Aspergillus (ii) Mucor (iii) Agaricus
(d) All of these (c) (i) Agaricus (ii)Aspergillus (iii) Mucor
(d) (i) Agaricus (ii) Mucor (iii) Aspergillus
Topic
Deuteromycetes 120. Identify the diagram.
14
115. Which of the following is false about
deuteromycetes?
(a) They reproduce only by asexual spores
(conidia)
(b) Mycelium is branched and septate
(c) They have only parasitic forms
(d) They have no sexual stage (perfect stage) (a) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena
(b) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Paramoceium
116. Which of the following is correct aboutclass (c) (i) Euglena (ii) Dinoflagellates
euteromycetes? (d) (i) Slime mould (ii) Paramecium
(a) Some members are saprophytes or parasites
(b) A large number of members are decompos- 121. Kingdom plantae includes-
ers of litter and help in mineral cycling i. All eukaryotic chlorophyllous organisms
(c) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoder- ii. Some prokaryotic chlorophyllous organ-
ma are deuteromycetes isms
(d) All iii. Few eukaryotic partial heterotrophic plant
iv. Few prokaryotic partial heterotrophic plant
117. Sexual reproduction is found in all except – (a) i, iii (b) ii, iv
(a) Deuteromycetes (c) i, ii, iii (d) i, iii, iv
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Phycomycetes 122. Plantae does not includes how many of
(d) Basidiomycetes following:

118. If sexual stage is discovered in a member of Algae, Fungi, Bryophyte, Bladderwort,

deuteromycetes, it is moved to- Pteridophyta, Gymnosperm, Angiosperm
(a) Phycomycetes (a) Zero (b) One
Biological Classification 21
(c) Two (d) Three 128. bacteriophage is –
123. Life cycle of angiosperms plant have (a) bacteria that infect virus
(a) Diploid sprophyte and diploid gametophyte (b) virus that infect bacteria
(b) Diploid gametophyte & haploid sporophyte (c) bacteria that infect cellular organism
(c) Diploid sporophyte & haploid gametophyte (d) virus that infect other than bacteria
(d) Haploid sporophyte & haploid gametophyte
129. The protein coat called ___(A)___ made of
124. How many of following enlisted are correct small subunit called ____(B)____ that protect
about plantae ____(C)____ of virus
I. Cells have eukaryotic structure (a) A = capsomere, B = capsid, C= genetic
II. Prominent chloroplast material
III. Cellulosic cell wall (b) A = capsid, B = capsomere, C = genetic
IV. Life cycle has three distinct phase material
V. Show alteration of generation (c) A = capsid, B = capsomere, C = enzyme
(a) One (b) Two and mineral
(c) Three (d) Four (d) A = capsomere, B = capsid, C = enzyme
and mineral
Topic 130. Head of bacteriophage is –
16 Kingdom Animalia (a) Helical (b) Polyhedral
(c) Icosahedral (d) A & B
125. Kingdom Animalia are characterized by-
(a) Heterotrophic eukaryotic unicellular & 131.
multicellular organism that lack cell wall
(b) Holozoic ,digest food in an internal cavity
and store food as complex carbohydrates or
fat
(c) Higher as well as lower forms show elabo-
rate sensory mechanisms
(d) All of the above
(a) A head B sheath, C tail fibers,
126. How many of following term is correct Collar
about Animalia- Heterotroph, eukaryotic, (b) A = head B = collar C = sheath, D = tail
prokaryotic, unicellular, multicellular, store fibers
(c) A collar B head C tail fibers
food as glycogen, presence of elaborated
sheath
neuromotor mechanism without any exception,
(d) A tail fibers B sheath C head col-
embryological development lar
(a) 6 (b) More than 6
(c) 5 (d) Less than 3 132. Viroid was discovered by –
(a) T.O. Diener (1971)
Topic (b) W.M. Stanley (1935)
17 Viruses, viroids, prions, &
(c) T.O diener (1935)
lichens (d) W.M. Stanley (1971)

127. Genetic material of bacteriophage is – 133. Choose the correct on basis of size :
(a) ds DNA (b) ss RNA (a) Bacteria < virus < viroid
(c) ds RNA (d) ss DNA (b) Viroid < virus < bacteria
22 Botany
(c) Viroid > bacteria < virus 140. Mycobiont and phycobiout belongs to ___
(d) Bacteria > viroid > virus and___respectively
(a) Autotrophic & heterotrophic
134. Choose the correct statements given below. (i-vi) (b) Autotrophic & autotrophic
Correct set (i-vi) is (c) Heterotrophic & autotrophic
i. Viroid = virus-capsid (d) Heterotrophic & heterotrophic
ii. Potato spindle disease cause by prions
iii. Viroid have free DNA 141. The function of fungal part of a lichen is/are
iv. Viroid have free RNA (a) Absorption of water
v. DNA of viroid was of low molecular (b) Absorption of mineral
weight (c) Provide shelter
iv. RNA of viroid was of light molecular (d) All of these
weight
(a) i,iv only (b) i, vi, iii 142. Lichen cannot grow in –
(c) i, iv, vi (d) i, iii, v (a) Polluted area
(b) Area where there is no pollution
135. Prion cause- (c) Association between fungi and algae is
(a) BSE in cattle and CJD in human unpolluted region
(b) BSE in human and CJD in cattle (d) All of these
(c) BSE and CJD cause in cattle
(d) BSE and CJD cause in human 143. In R.H Whittaker system, viroids, prions &
lichens are grouped into-
136. Prions are- (a) Monera (b) Protista
(a) Smaller than virus (c) Protista and fungi (d) None of these
(b) Larger than virus
(c) Smaller than viroid 144. Viruses did not place in classification due
(d) Similar in size to viruses to-
(a) Lack in study of viruses
137. Choose the incorrect about BSE (b) They are not considered truly ‘living’
(a) It expanded as Bovine spongiform enceph- (c) Lack of genetic material
alophathy (d) All of these
(b) Caused by prion
(c) Its analogous variant is CJD 145. Viruses are not-
(d) Its homologous variant is CJD (a) Non-cellular organism
(b) Inert crystalline structure outside the living
138. Lichen are – cell
(a) Saprotroph only (c) Active crystalline structure outside the liv-
(b) Symbiotic ing cell
(c) Parasitic only (d) Once they infect a cell they take over the
(d) A & C machinery of host cell to replicate them-
selves, killing the host
139. Lichen are mutual association of-
(a) Mycobiont (fungal) and phycobiont (algae) 146. The name viruses-
(b) Gymnosperm root & fungi (a) which means venom was given by Dmitri
(c) Algae & gymnosperm root Ivanowsky
(d) All of these (b) which means venom was given by M.W.
Beijerinek
Biological Classification 23
(c) which means venom was given by Stanley (a) W.M. Stanley(1935)
(d) which means venom was given by Pasteur (b) M.W.Beijerinek (1898)
(c) Dmitri lvanowsky (1892)
147. (d) M.W. Stanley (1898)

151. Which one of following is a major constituent

in crystallined virus structure –
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
(c) Fat (d) Nucleic acid
Identify a, b & organism (c) 152. Viruses belong to
(a) a=DNA, b=capsid, c=TMV (a) Autotroph
(b) a=RNA, b=capsid, c=TMV (b) Obligate parasite
(c) a=capsid, b=DNA, c=bacteriophage (c) Saprotroph
(d) a=capsid, b=RNA, c=bacteriophage (d) Holozoic
148. Choose the correct statement – 153. Genetic material of viruses are/is –
(a) Genetic material of mosaic disease of (a) DNA
tobacco causing organism is DNA (b) RNA
(b) Viruses were found to be smaller than bac- (c) DNA and RNA both in an individual virus
teria but they can passed through bacteria (d) DNA or RNA in an individual virus
proof filters
(c) M.W Beijerinek (1898) demonstrated that 154. The infection material of viruses is/are
he extract of infected plant of tobacco could (a) Protein coat
(b) Genetic material
cause infection in healthy plants
(c) Nucleoprotein
(d) Viruses were found to be smaller than bac-
(d) All of these
teria and they can passed through bacteria
proof filters. 155. In general viruses that infect plants have-
(a) ds RNA (b) ss RNA
149. Contagium vivum fluidum was stated by – (c) ds DNA (d) ss DNA
(a) Dmitri lavanowsky (1898)
(b) M.W. Beijerinek (1892) 156. Animal infection viruses are not generally
(c) W.M. Stanley (1935) (a) ss RNA (b) ds RNA
(d) None of these (c) ds DNA (d) ss DNA

150. Who showed that viruses could be crystallized

and crystals outside host-
24 Botany

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (c)
101. (c) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (a)
121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (d)
131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (c) 137. (d) 138. (d) 139.(a) 140. (a)
141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (c) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (d) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (d) 154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (d)
3 Chapter Plant Kingdom

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

. hylogenetic classification based on Topic

(a) evolutionary relationship 1 Algae
(b) organism belonging to some taxa haven’t a
. udorina show
common ancestor
(a) usion of flagellate similar si e gamete
(c) giving equal weightage to vegetative &
(b) usion of non flagellate similar si e
sexual character but not on evolutionary
gamete
relationship
(c) ogamous
(d) A and B both
(d) Anisogamous
. Artificial classification system is
. ow many of following is an example of
(a) based on mainly on vegetative character
isogamous lothrix, Spirogyra, olvox, fucus,
and on the androecium structure
Polysiphonia
(b) based on ultrastructure, anatomical,
(a) (b)
embryological characters
(c) (d)
(c) based on external and internal features
(d) based on chromosome number. . Identify organism and label A, B, C,
. Which one of the system is given by George
Bentham and oseph alton oo er?
(a) Artificial classification system
(b) hylogenetic classification
(c) atural classification system
(a) Laminaria A leaf B air bladder C stripe
(d) A and B respectively
holdfast
. Which one is incorrectly placed? (b) ucus A frond B air bladder C stripe
(a) umerical taxonomy umber and code old fast
are assigned to all the character and the data (c) ucus A air bladder B frond, C midrib
are then processed holdfast
(b) Cytotaxonomy Based on cytological (d) Laminaria A leaf C midrib petiole
information
. Algae are useful to man in
(c) Chemotaxonomy Based on phytochemistry
(a) ixation of almost half of total C on earth
(d) atural classification Linnaeus
(b) rimary producer
(c) Increase level of oxygen
(d) All of these
26 Botany
. ydrocolloids are produced by (a) Isogamous, Spirogyra
(a) Brown algae (algin), carrageen(red algae), (b) ogamous, olvox
Agar(brown algae) (c) Anisogamous, ucus
(b) Brown algae (algin), Red algae (carrageen) (d) ogamous, lothrix
(c) Brown algae (algin, agar), Red algae
(carrageen) Topic
(d) one of these 2 Chlorophycease
. Choose correct statement
. Chara is
(a) Chlorella, a multicellular alga rich in protein
(a) Common stonewort
(b) Chlorella Spirulina are astronaut food
(b) Marine green algae
because of their high carbohydrate, vitamin
(c) nisexual algae
mineral but less protein
(d) one of these
(c) The product obtained by Gracilaria are used
to grow microbes . lagellation in green algae is
(d) Laminaria, Sargassum a member of (a) , equal, apical
Rhodophyceae are among species of (b) , unequal, lateral
marine algae used as food (c) , unequal, lateral
(d) Absent
. Blue green algae placed in which ingdom
according to R. . Whitta er . Chlorophyceae are commonly called as-
(a) Monera (b) rotista (a) Green algae
(c) ungi (d) lantae (b) Blue green algae
(c) Brown algae
. Choose the correct statement algae:
(d) Red algae
(a) Algae are chlorophyllous, autotrophic
member of lantae . Ma or pigment of Chlamydomonas
(b) Some algae occur in association with fungi (a) Chlorophyll a, b
and on sloth bear (b) Chlorophyll a, c
(c) The plant body of algae lac root, stem, leaf (c) Chlorophyll a, d
(d) All of these (d) ucoxanthin, phycoerythrin
. Colonial form alga is . Choose incorrect statement about green alga-
(a) lothrix (b) olvox (a) The chlorophyll localised in definite
(c) elp (d) Spirogyra chloroplast
(b) Spirogyra have spiral chloroplast
. oospore is
(c) Most member have one or more storage
(a) Sexual spore in algae
bodies i.e. pyrenoid localised in chloroplast
(b) Asexual spore in algae
(d) The cell wall is made of outer layer that is
(c) evelop in oosporangium in number of
of cellulose and inner layer of pectose
four
(d) on flagellated spore . Reproduction in green algae is are
(a) Isogamous (b) Anisogamous
. usion between one large static female gametes
(c) ogamous (d) All of these
and smaller motile male gamete is termed as
as seen is
Plant Kingdom 27

Topic (b) Chlorophyll a, d

3 Phaeophyceae (c) Chlorophyll a, b
(d) ucoxanthin and phycoerythrin
. The color of brown algae depend upon
Topic
(a) Amount of xanthophyll Rhodophyceae
(b) ucoxanthin present in them
4
(c) hycoerythrin and fucoxanthin ratio . orphyra show
(d) (a) (b) both (a) Isogamous (b) Anisogamous
. Choose the correct about cell of brown algae (c) ogamous (d) All of these
(a) Cellulosic cell wall cover outside by align . Rhodopyceae is called red algae because of
(b) Cellulosic cell wall with pectin and (a) redominance of red pigment
polysulphate esters (b) Abundance if d phycoerythrin
(c) They have two flagella, equal si ed and (c) (a) (b) both
laterally inserted (d) one of these
(d) A and C both
. The stored food in olysiphonia is A
. ictyota is member of which is very similar to B and
(a) Same member of ctocarpus, Gelidium, C in structure
fucus (a) A floridean starch B amylopectin C
(b) Same member those having Caminaria or glycogen
mannitol as stored food (b) A floridean starch B chitin C glycogen
(c) Same member of Laminaria, orphyra, (c) A mannitol B floridean starch C
fucus amylopectin
(d) Same member those having phycoerythrin (d) one of these
as accessory pigment
. Member of Rhodophyceae reproduce by
. Gametes of Sargassum are- ( g , ) (a) on motile asexual spore and motile
(a) yriform (b) Cup shaped sexual gametes
(c) Ribbon shaped (d) iscoid (b) motile asexual spore and motile sexual
. haeophyceae is commonly named as gametes
(a) Green alga (b) Brown alga (c) on motile asexual spore and non motile
(c) Red algae (d) one sexual gametes
(d) motile asexual spore and non motile
. Choose the correct statement from following
sexual gametes
(a) ctocarpus is filamentous forms while elps
is profusely branched from
Topic
(b) elps may reach a height of average cm Bryophyta
(c) The plant body of brown algae is attached 5
to substratum by stripe . irst organism to coloni e roc are
(d) Leaf li e photosynthetic organ of brown (a) Mosses (b) Lichen
algae is stripe (c) Liverwort (d) (a) (b) both
. Ma or pigment found in ucus is are
(a) Chlorophyll a, c
28 Botany
. or trans shipment of living material which of (d) Water is required for travelling of egg from
following is more suitable to use archegonium to antheridium
(a) Marchantia (b) unaria . In bryophyta, meiosis occur
(c) Sphagnum (d) Riccia (a) uring development of gametes
. Which of the following is obtained from (b) Immediately after ygote formation
Sphagnum as coal: (c) After sometime of ygote formation
(a) Bituminous (b) eat (d) In gameophytic stage
(c) Lignite (d) Anthracite . Identify the given diagram and label
. Bryophyta include (a) Sphagnum, a liverwort A archegonia
(a) ornwort (b) Liverwort branch B antheridial branch
(c) Mosses (d) All of these (b) Sphagnum, a moss A archegonia branch
. Identify given plant diagram and label its parts: B antheridial branch
(a) unaria, A gametophyte B sporophyte (c) unaria, a moss A antheridial branch B
(b) Sphagnum, A gametophyte B sporophyte archegonia branch
(c) unaria, A sporophyte B gametophyte (d) Sphagnum, a liverwort A antheridial
(d) Sphagnum, A sporophyte B gametophyte branch B archegonia branch

. Bryophytes are . Choose the correct statement with regard to

(a) Amphibians of plant ingdom
(b) Reptilians of plant ingdom
(c) irst vascular bundles containing plant
(d) (a) (c) both
. The body organi ation of bryophytes have
(a) nicellular or multicellular rhi oid
(b) Less differentiation than algae
(c) They have true root stem and leaves
(d) (a) (c) both
. The main plant body of bryophyte is A (d) Gametophyte is free living but attached
that produce B to photosynthetic sporophyte and derives
(a) A diploid B gametes
(b) A haploid B gametes
(c) A haploid B spores
(d) A diploid B spores
. Choose the correct statement
(a) Sex organs in bryophytes are unicellular
and ac eted
(b) Male sex organ is antheridium that produce
flagellate (four flagella) anthero oids
(c) emale sex organ is archegonium i.e. flas
shaped and produce single egg
bryophyta
(a) Sporophyte is free living but attached
to photosynthetic gametophyte derives
nourishment from it
(b) Sporophyte is not free living but attached
to photosynthetic gametophyte and derives
nourishment from it
(c) Gametophyte is not free living but
attached to photosynthetic sporophyte and
derives nourishment from it
nourishment from it
Topic
6 Liverwort
45. In Marchantia
(a) Male and emale sex organs are produced
on same thalli
(b) Male and female sex organs are produced
on different thalli
(c) Gametophytes is differentiated into foot
seta and capsule
Plant Kingdom
(d) Spores geminates to form free living
sporophyte
. Choose the correct statement :
(a) The thalloid plant body of liverwort
is dorsiventrally appressed closely to
substrate
(b) The leafy members have tiny true leaf in
two rows on the stem li e structure
(c) The leafy membrane have tiny leaf li e
appendage in four rows on the stem li e
structure
(d) The thalloid plant body of liverwort is
isobilaterally appressed closely to substrate
. Asexual reproduction in bryophytes is not ta e
place by
(a) ragmentation
(b) Gemmae
(c) Budding in secondary protonema
(d) ogamous
. Gemmae are
(a) Green, unicellular, asexual bud, develop in
small receptacles i.e. gemma cup
(b) Green, multicellular, asexual bud develop
in small receptacles i.e. gemma cup
(c) on green unicellular, asexual bud,
develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma cup
(d) Green, multicellular, sexual bud develop in
small receptacles i.e. gemma cup n
Topic
7 Mosses
. The predominant stage of life cycle of a moss
is-
(a) Gametophytes (b) Sporophytes
(c) rotonema stage (d) rothallus stage
. The gametophyte of moss is divided into-
(a) Two stage, first protonema stage which
develops directly from gamete.
(b) Two stage, second leafy stage which
develop from secondary protonema as a
lateral bud.
29
(c) Two stage, first leafy stage and second
protonema stage
(d) Two stage, first protenema stage which
develops directly from spore and second
leafy stage which develop from spore
germination as terminal bud.
. rotonema stage is
(a) Creeping, green unbranched and frequently
filamentous stage
(b) rostate, green, branched and frequently
filamentous stage
(c) Creeping, green, branched and frequently
filamentous stage
(d) rostate, non green, unbranched and
frequently stage
. Choose the correct statement about leafy stage
of mosses
(a) They consist, upright, slender axes bearing
spirally arranged leaves.
(b) They are attached to soil through
multicellular and branched rhi oid
(c) This stage bear sex organ
(d) All of these
. In sexual reproduction which of following is not
seen in mosses
(a) Sex organ are produced at apex of leafy
stage
(b) After fertili ation ygote develop into
sporophyte
(c) evelopment of embryo
(d) All of these
. The sporophyte of mosses
I) Is more elaborate than that is liverwort
II) Consisting of foot, seta and capsule
III) Spores present in capsule
I ) Spore produce after meiosis
) laborate mechanism of spore dispersal
I) resence of peristomic teeth.
(a) All are correct
(b) I), II), III) only
30 Botany
(c) I , , I only (A) a iv, b ii, c iii, d i
(d) I, III, only (B) a iii, b ii, c iv, d i
. Choose incorrect matched (C) a ii, b iii, c i, d iv
( ) a i, b iv, c ii, d iii
Column A Column B
(a) ornwort i) Marchantia . Identify following pteridophytes
(b) Bryopsida ii) olytrichum (a) A Salvinia, B horsetail, C fern,
(c) Liverwort iii) Marchantia Selaginella
(d) Mosses iv) Sphagnum (b) A Selaginella, B Salvinia, C fern,
horsetail
(c) A quisteum, B fern, C Selaginella,
Topic
Pteridophytes horsetail
8
(d) A Selaginella, B Salvia, C ryopteris,
. eterosporous pteridophytes is are- quisteum
(a) Selaginella (b) Salvinia . Label A, B, C, , in following diagram:
(c) silotum (d) (a) (b) both (a) A strobilus, B rhi ome,
. teridophytes with all similar ind of spores is (b) A cone, C ode, internode
in (c) A strobilus, B rhi ome, C node,
(a) Terror of ashmir internode, branch
(b) silotum (d) one of these
(c) Selaginella . teridophytes includes
(d) (a) (b) both (a) orsetail (b) erns
. Seed habit reported for first time is (c) olytrichum (d) (a) (b) both
(a) Blue green algae . irst terrestrial vascular plant is
(b) teridophyte (a) Algae
(c) Angiosperm (b) Bryophyta (liverwort hornwort)
(d) Bryophyta (c) teridophyta
. teridophyte classification into (d) Bryophyta (Mosses)
(a) classes (b) orders . Choose the correct statement from following
(c) families (d) All of these (a) The plant body is differentiated into
. Adiantum is member with true root, only true prostrate stem as in
(a) teris (b) quisetum Selaginella and true leaf
(c) Lycopodium (d) Selaginella (b) The leaves of pteridophytes are small as in
Selaginella or macrophyll in ferns.
. Match the following:
(c) teridophytes possess xylem, phloem
Column I Column II
(d) All of these
i) Sphenopsida (a) ryopteris
ii) Lycopsida (b) Selaginella . In pteridophyta
iii) silopsida (c) silotum (a) The main plant body is a sporophyte
iv) teropsida (d) quisetum (b) The main plant body is a gametophyte
(c) The main plant body is a gametophyte
on which sporophytic phase is partially
dependent
Plant Kingdom 31
(d) (a) and (b) . Read the following statements and choose
. Choose the correct with regard to reproduction the incorrect response with respect to
in pteridophyte gymnospermous reproduction
(a) Sporophyte bear sporangia that are (a) ollen grains are carried by air currents
subtended by sporophyll (b) ollen tube carries the male gametes to
(b) Gametophyte bear sporangia that are archegonia
subtended by sporophyll (c) ollowing fertili ation, ygote develop but
(c) Sporophyll compact to form strobili as in embryo stage is lac ing
fern (d) vule develops into seed
(d) The sporangia produce spores by mitosis . All the given structure of inus and Cycas are
in spore mother cell haploid, except
. Gametophyte of pteridophyte is (a) ollen grain (b) gg
(a) Small but multicellular, free living, mostly (c) ucellus (d) ndosperm
photosynthetic, differentiated into root, . Gymnosperm is example of
stemand leaf (a) ascular, embryophyte with ovule enclosed
(b) Small inconspicuous but multicellular is ovary
dependent mostly photosynthetic thalloid (b) ascular, non-embryophyte
body (c) on-vascular, non-embryophyte
(c) Small but multicellular, free living mostly (d) ascular, embryophyte
photosynthetic thalloid structure . ascular archegoniates with diplontic lifecycle
(d) Small inconspicuous but multicellular free are
living mostly non photosynthetic thalloid (a) Bryophytes (b) Gymnosperm
body (c) teridophytes (d) (b) (c)
. Water needed for fertili ation in . Gymnosperms are plants in which
(a) ucalyptus (b) Bryophytes (a) vules are enclosed by any ovary wall both
(c) teridophyptes (d) (b) (c) both before and after fertili ation
. Sex organ bear on (b) vules are not enclosed by any ovary wall
(a) Sporophytes both before and after fertili ation
(b) Gametophyte (c) vules are enclosed by any ovary wall
(c) n both gametophytes sporophyte before fertili ation but not after fertili ation
(d) one (d) vules are not enclosed by any ovary wall
before fertili ation but after fertili ation
Topic
9 Gymnosperm . Tallest tree species belongs to
(a) Angiosperm (b) Gymnosperm
. The endosperm of gymnosperm represent (c) teridophyte (d) Algae
(a) emale gametophyte
. ungi show symbiotic association with
(b) Triploid structure
gymnosperm in form of
(c) iploid structure
(a) Mycorrhi a in inus
(d) (a) (c)
(b) Mycorrhi a in cycas
(c) Coralloid rest in inus
(d) Coralloid rest in cycas
32 Botany
. The stem of (a) Both stated statement are correct
(a) Cycas is unbranched (b) Both stated statement are incorrect
(b) inus is branched (c) Statement-I is correct while statement- II
(c) Cedrus is branched is incorrect
(d) All of these (d) Statement-I is incorrect while statement-II
. eedle-li e leaves, thic cuticle, suc en stomata is correct
are character of . Identify given plant diagram and choose correct
(a) Cycas (b) inus response
(c) Gnetum (d) Gin go (a) Gin go, a living fossil
. Gymnosperms are (b) Cycas, a living fossil
(a) eterosporous, haploid microspores and (c) Taxus
haploid megaspore (d) Gnetum
(b) omosporous, both spores are haploid . What is difference between bryophytic and
(c) eterosporous, both spores(microspores gymnospermous gametophytes
megaspores) are diploid (a) Bryophytic gametophytes is independent
(d) one of these free-living structure while gametophytes
. Choose the correct statement of gymnosperm is dependent
(a) The male and female cones borne on same (b) Gametophyte of gymnosperm remain within
plant as in Cycas the sporangia retained on sporophytes
(b) The male and female cones borne on (c) Both (a) (b)
different plant as in Cycas (d) one of these
(c) The male and female cones borne on same . Choose the correct set about given figure:
plant as in Pinus i) Pinnate leaves
(d) Both (a) (c) ii) almate leaf
. Choose the correct about female cone of iii) Branched stem
gymnosperm: iv) Branching is same as in Cedrus
(a) The nucleus is protected by bitegmic v) nbranched
structure vi) Bear male cone and female cone on same
(b) The megaspore mother call divides plant
mitotically to form four megaspores vii) Bear male cone female cone on different
(c) ne of four megaspores, enclosed within plant
the megasporangium which develop into a viii) It is living fossil along with Gin go
multicellular female gametophyte that bear (a) i, iii, vi, viii (b) i, v, vii, viii
one archegonia (c) ii, v, vi (d) i, iv, vii, viii
(d) vule is unitegmic . Anthoceros thallus and coralloid root of Cycas
. Statement-I : The cones bearing megasporophyll are
with ovules are female cone (a) Similar in morphological structure
(b) erforming -fixing
Statement-II : The strobili bearing microsporangia (c) resence of vascular bundle
are called male cone (d) (b) (c)
Plant Kingdom 33
. Gametophytes is parasitic over sporophytes is (c) on-reproductive organ of flower
(a) Cycadales (b) Coniferales (d) ivided into two part that are anther and
(c) Monocot (d) All of these filament.
Topic . elp, olysiphonia, ctocarpus, ucus, Wolffian,
10 Angiosperm olvox ow many of following are show
haplontic, haplodiplontic and diplontic life cycle
. ygote is result of-
respectively
(a) Syngamy (b) ouble fertili ation
(a) , , (b) , ,
(c) Triple fusion (d) Both (a) (c)
(c) , , (d) , ,
. usion of nd male gamete with diploid
. Mitosis is observed in-
secondary nucleus result in formation of-
(a) aploid plant cell
(a) (b) mbryo
(b) iploid plant cell
(c) Both (a) (b) (d) Sporophyte
(c) Both (a) (b)
. ouble fertili ation is- (d) nly vegetative cell
(a) usion of two nuclei of polar nuclei
. Choose correct statement about haplontic life
(b) usion of male gamete with egg
cycle-
(c) usion of male gamete with secondary
i) Sporophytic generation is represented by
nuclei
single cell ygote
(d) Both (b) (c)
ii) ree-living sporophyte
. provide- iii) Sporophyte is parasite on gametophyte
(a) rotection of embryo iv) Gametophyte arise from gametes after
(b) ourishment to embryo mitotical division
(c) Anchorage to embryo v) xample are Spirogyra and some species of
(d) one of these Chlamydomonas
. Which of following structure degenerate after vi) Gametophyte arise from meiosis occur in
fertili ation- spore-
(a) Synergid (b) Antipodal cell (a) i, ii, v, vi (b) i, iii, v, vi
(c) (a) (b) (d) mbryo (c) iii, iv, v (d) i, iii, iv
. Angiosperm differ with gymnosperm- . ucalyptus show-
(a) In presence of true root, stem leaf (a) iploid dominant sporophyte that is
(b) Seed enclosed in fruit photosynthetic and independent phase
(c) vary enclosed in ovule (b) Gametophyte is represent by few diploid cell
(d) Both (b) (c) (c) ominant phase is gametophyte
(d) All of these
. vule develop into and ovaries develop
into of angiosperm . Gymnosperms are-
(a) Seed, fruit (b) ruit, seed (a) aplontic (b) iplontic
(c) ruit, fruit (d) Seed, seed (c) aplo-diplontic (d) iplo-haplontic
. istil is- . Bryophytes and teridophyte exhibit-
(a) emale sex organ of flower (a) Multicellualr sporophyte
(b) Male sex organ of flower
34 Botany
(b) Multicellular gametophyte . Bryophyte attached to substratum by
(c) nicellular sporophyte (a) oldfast (b) Rhi oid
(d) (a) (b) both (c) Root (d) (a) (c)
. Bryophytes and pteridophytes differ in their . Brown algae focus attached to substratum by
(a) Stage of meiosis (a) oldfast (b) Stipe
(b) ominant phases (c) rond (d) Rhi oid
(c) Stage of syngamy . The plant body of liverwort is A whereas
(d) Stage of gametogenesis mosses have B bearing C
. In bryophytes arranged leaves
(a) Sporophyte totally or partially dependent (a) A dorsiventral, B upright, slender axes,
on the gametophyte for its anchorage and C alternally
nutrition (b) A isobilateral, B upright, slender axes,
(b) Gametophyte totally or partially dependent C spirally
on the sporophyte for its anchorage and (c) A dorsiventral, B isobilateral axes, C
nutrition alternately
(c) A dominant, independent, photosynthetic, (d) A dorsiventral, B upright, slender axes,
thalloid haploid Sporophyte alternate with C spirally
gametophyte . mbryophytes doesn’t includes
(d) (a) (c) both (a) Algae, Bryophytes
. Choose the correct response with respectto (b) Bryophyte, teridophytes
pteridophyte lifecycle (c) Gymnosperm, angiosperm
(a) iploid gametophyte alternate with (d) Algae only
sporophyte . ouble fertili ation does not occur in
(b) S p o r o p h y t e a n d g a m e t o p h y t e a r e (a) teridophyte, some gymnosperm,
independent (b) Monocot, dicot
(c) Sporophyte show saprophytic (c) icot, some gymnosperm
(d) Meiosis occur in gametophyte (d) B r y o p h y t e s , p t e r i d o p h y t e , s o m e
. The sporophyll of gymnosperms arranged gymnosperm monocot
on axis to from cones . Identify following life cycle pattern and that
(a) Spirally (b) Alternately pattern shown in
(c) ecussate (d) Superposed (a) aplontic life cycle eg: olvox
. Identify life cycle pattern (b) aplodiplontic lifecycle eg: ctocarpus,
(a) A haplontic, B haplo diplontic, C silotum
diplontic (c) aplodiplontic lifecycle eg: ucus,
(b) A haplontic, B diplontic, C haplo Marchantia
diplontic (d) iplontic lifecycle eg: Bryophytes,
(c) A haplo diplontic, B haplontic, C teridophytes
diplontic . Tallest and smallest plant species belonging to
(d) A as in olvox and angiosperm, B as angiosperm is
in ctocarpus, C as in gymnosperm (a) Sequoia and Wolffia
Plant Kingdom 35
(b) ucalyptus and Wolffia . Secondary nuclei result from fusion is
(c) Sequoia and duc -weed (a) olar nuclei and st male gamete
(d) one of these (b) olar nuclei and nd male gamete
. icotyledons and monocotyledons are two (c) Both nuclei of polar nuclei
of angiosperm (d) gg apparatus and polar nuclei
(a) amily (b) Class . Choose the correct sequence
(c) rder (d) ivision (a) Gamete formation pollination
. ow many of following is correct about fertili ation embryo new plant
dicotyledons and monocotyledons respectively (b) Gamete formation transfer of gamete
Seed with two cotyledons, trimerous, fertili ation pollination embryo
pentamerous, parallel veination Seed with one new plant
cotyledons, tetramerous, reticulate veination (c) ollination gametogenesis fertili ation
(a) , (b) , embryo new plant
(c) , (d) , (d) one of these

. A group of plant flower with having three . Microspore of angiosperm represent-

members in each whorl is placed is- (a) Sporophytic phase
(a) Monocot (b) icot (b) Gametophytic phase
(c) Tetramerous (d) Both (b) (c) (c) Both (a) (b)
(d) emale gamete
. Choose the correct statement
(a) mbryo sac develop from one functional . ollen tube in angiosperm discharge-
megaspore(diploid) which result from (a) ne male gamete is embryo sac
mitosis and degeneration of megaspore (b) Two male gamete is embryo sac
mother cell (c) Three male gamete is embryo sac
(b) mbryo sac of consist of one egg apparatus, (d) More than one option is correct
three antipodal cell and two polar nuclei . Syngamy is-
(c) olar nuclei, antipodal cells, egg are diploid (a) usion of egg and st male gamete
structure of embryo sac of angiosperm (b) usion of egg and nd male gamete
(d) Secondary nuclei is haploid (c) usion of polar nuclei st male gamete
(d) Both (b) (c)
36 Botany

ANSWER KEY
. (d) . (a) . (c) . (d) . (d) . (b) . (b) . (d) . (b) . (d)
.(a) . (d) .(b) . (b) . (b) .(a) .(a) . (a) .(a) . (d)
. (d) . (d) .(d) .(b) .(a) .(b) . (a) . (a) . (c) . (a)
. (a) .(c) .(d) .(c) . (b) .(d) .(c) .(a) . (a) .(b)
. (c) .(c) .(b) .(b) . (b) .(a) .(d) .(b) . (a) . (b)
. (c) .(d) .(c) . (a) .(a) . (d) .(d) . (b) .(a) . (a)
. (a) .(b) .(d) .(d) . (c) . (d) . (a) .(a) .(c) . (d)
. (b) .(d) .(c) . (c) . (d) . (b) . (b) . (b) .(a) . (d)
. (b) .(a) .(b) .(d) . (a) . (a) . (c) .(b) .(b) .(d)
.(a) . (a) .(d) .(b) . (c) .(b) . (a) .(a) .(a) .(c)
.(b) .(a) .(b) .(d) .(b) .(a) .(b) .(a) .(c) .(b)
.(a) (d) .(a) .(a) .(b) .(b) .(b) .(a) .(a) .(b)
.(c) .(a) .(b) .(b) .(a)
2 Chapter Structural Organisation
in Animals
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Topic Epithelial Tissues c Gap (3) Establish a barrier to

junctions prevent leakage of fluid
1 across epithelial cells
d Synaptic (4) Cytoplasmic channels to
1. Select the incorrect statement. junctions facilitate communications
(a) Multicellular glandular epithelium is formed between adjacent cells
of clusters of cells.
(b) Compound epithelium is actively involved Select the most appropriate option.
in secretion and absorption of substances. a b c d
(c) Pancreatic and salivary ducts are internally (a) 4 3 1 2
lined by compound of epithelium. (b) 2 4 1 3
(d) None of these (c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
2. Cell junctions
(a) Are formed in epithelial tissues 4. The function of the gap junction is to
(b) Provide structural and functional link between (a) stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
adjacent cells of tissues (b) perform cementing to keep neighbouring
(c) Are alternatively called gap junctions cells together.
(c) facilitate communication between adjoining
Select the most appropriate option. cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid
(a) a, b, c are correct transfer of ions, small molecules and some
(b) Only a is correct large molecules.
(c) b and c are correct (d) separate two cells from each other.
(d) a and b are correct
5. Assertion: Squamous epithelium helps in the
3. Match the following cell structure with its diffusion of gases in lungs.
characteristic feature: Reason: Squamous epithelium bears microvilli.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion
Column-I Column-II
is incorrect explanation of assertion
a Tight (1) Cement neighbouring
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, reason
junctions cells together to form
is not the correct explanation of assertion
sheet
(c) Assertion is true, reason is false
b Adhering (2) Transmit information
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
junctions through chemical to
another cells
Structural Organisation in Animals 19
6. Assertion: Compound epithelium is composed Select the correct option
of two or more layers of cells. a b c
Reason: Compound epithelium has protective (a) 3 1 2
functions. (b) 1 2 3
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion (c) 2 3 1
is incorrect explanation of assertion (d) 3 2 1
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, reason
11. The inner walls of large blood vessels are formed
is not the correct explanation of assertion
by
(c) Assertion is true, reason is false
(a) pseudostratified epithelium
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
(b) squamous epithelium
7. Consider the following statements: (c) ciliated epithelium
(a) A tissue is composed of similar cells which (d) columnar epithelium
perform specific functions.
12. What is the similarity between cuboidal
(b) Epithelial tissues are characterized by a
epithelium and columnar epithelium?
free surface toward body fluid or outside
(a) They are composed of two layers of cells.
environment.
(b) They are composed of phagocytic cells.
Select the correct option.
(c) They perform the functions of secretion and
(a) a is true, b is false
absorption.
(b) Both a and b are true
(d) All of these
(c) a is false, b is true
(d) Both a and b are false 13. Identify the tissues A and B shown in the
following diagram:
8. Simple epithelium consists of
(a) large intercellular spaces
(b) single layer of cells
(c) flat cells without nucleus
(d) all of these

9. Human skin is composed of [Pg-101,E]

(a) compound epithelium Select the correct option
(b) squamous epithelium
Column-I Column-II
(c) columnar epithelium
(d) ciliated epithelium (a) Squamous epithelium Columnar epithelium
(b) Cuboidal epithelium Squamous epithelium
10. Match the following columns.
(c) Columnar epithelium Cuboidal epithelium
Column-I Column-II (d) Compound epithelium Pseudostratified
a Squamous (1) Stomach and intestine 14. Efficient gaseous exchange in the air sacs of
epithelium the lungs occur due to the presence of
b Cuboidal (2) Lungs and blood vessels (a) numerous microvilli
epithelium (b) ciliated epithelium
c Columnar (3) Tubular parts of nephrons (c) flat cells
epithelium (d) columnar epithelium
20 Botany
15. The inner surface of hollow organs are lined by (d) hollow and jelly-like
(a) columnar epithelium
20. Select the incorrect statement:
(b) compound epithelium
(a) Most of cartilage in vertebrate embryo gets
(c) squamous epithelium
replaced by bones in adults.
(d) ciliated epithelium
(b) Chondrocytes are cartilage cells which are
16. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move found in between collagen fibres.
particles or mucus in a specific direction. In (c) Cartilage form the human nose except its
humans, these cells are mainly present in tips.
(a) fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct (d) Bones of vertebral column are composed
(b) Eustachian tube and salivary duct of cartilage.
(c) bronchioles and fallopian tubes
21. Bones are hard and non-pliable due to the
(d) bile duct and bronchioles
presence of
17. Match the following columns. (a) calcium salts (b) elastin fibres
(c) chondrocytes (d) all of these
Column-I Column-II
a Goblet cells (1) Multicellular glandular 22. The spaces in which osteocytes are present are
epithelium called
(a) osteoclast (b) sinuses
b Salivary (2) Unicellular glandular
(c) lacunae (d) canaliculi
glands epithelium
c Buccal (3) Compound epithelium 23. The fluid connective tissue contains all of the
cavity following cells, except
d PCT (4) Cuboidal epithelium (a) platelets (b) fibroblasts
(c) WBCs (d) RBCs
Select the most appropriate option.
a b c d 24. Match the following columns:
(a) 2 1 3 4
Column-I Column-II
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 3 1 2 a Adipose tissue (1) Blood
(d) 1 4 2 3 b Hyaline cartilage (2) Macrophages
and mast cells
18. All the listed glands pour their secretions into c Fluid connective tissue (3) Fat storage
ducts except
d Areolar tissue (4) None
(a) salivary gland
(b) digestive glands Select the correct option
(c) pineal gland a b c d
(d) mammary glands (a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
Topic Connective Tissues (c) 1 2 3 4
2 (d) 3 4 1 2

25. Select the incorrect statement regarding

19. The intracellular material of cartilage is
connective tissues:
(a) solid and pliable
(a) It helps to connect and support other tissues
(b) solid and non-pliable
of the body.
(c) hollow and soft
(b) Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
Structural Organisation in Animals 21
(c) It is composed of structural protein fibres,
viz, collagen or elastin.
(d) Their ground substance is composed of
polypeptides and its derivatives.

26. Areolar tissue is a type of

(a) loose connective tissue
(b) compound epithelium
(c) dense connective tissue
(d) specialized connective tissue A B C D
27. Areolar tissues contain (a) Adipocyte Collagen Microfilame Mast
(a) Tlymphocytes tissue and B lymphocytes fibres nt cells
(b) fibroblast, macrophages, mast cells (b) Macrophage Collagen Microfilame Mast
fibres nt cells
(c) fibroblast cells only
(d) fibroblasts and fat globules (c) Macrophage Collagen Microtubule RBC
fibres
28. Fat-storing adipose tissue is (d) Macrophage Fibrobla Collagen Mast
(a) loose connective tissue fibres cells
st
(b) dense regular connective tissue
(c) dense irregular connective tissue 31. Ligaments contain
(d) specialized connective tissue (a) loose bundles of fibres
(b) large fat storage areas
29. Consider the following statements:
(c) parallely arranged collagen fibres
(a) In dense connective tissues, fibroblasts are
(d) irregularly placed elastin fibres
compactly packed.
(b) In dense regular connective tissues, collagen 32. Match the following columns:
fibers are arranged in parallel rows.
Column-I Column-II
Select the correct option a Skin (1) Loose connective tissue
(a) a is true, b is false
b Tendon (2) Specialized connective tissue
(b) a is false, b is true
c Adipose (3) Dense regular connective
(c) Both a and b are false
tissue Tissue
(d) Both a and b are true
d Cartilage (4) Dense irregular connective
30. In the below diagram of areolar connective tissue
tissue, the different cells and parts have been
indicated by alphabets. Choose the answer in Select the correct option
which these alphabets correctly match with the a b c d
parts and cells they indicate – (a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 2 4 3
22 Botany
Select the correct option
Topic Muscle Tissue and Neural (a) (a) is true, (b) is false
3 Tissue (b) Both a) and (b) are true
(c) (a) is False, (b) is true
33. Myofibrils are (d) Both (a) and (b) are false
(a) contracted muscle fibres
38. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its
(b) structural components of all muscle fibres
locations?
(c) striated muscle fibres
(d) skeletal muscle fibres Tissue Location
(a) Areolar tissue Tendons
34. Skeletal muscles are
(b) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
(a) striated in appearance
(b) smooth in appearance (c) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
(c) involuntary muscles (d) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
(d) both A and C 39. The muscular layer lining the stomach and
35. Go through the following figures. intestine is
(a) striated in appearance
(b) smooth in appearance
(c) multinucleated
(d) characterized by intercalated discs

40. Heart cells have the ability to contract as a unit

to the presence of
Identify these muscles (A, B and C). (a) multinucleate condition
(b) fusiform shape
A B C
(c) intercalated discs
(a) Smooth Striated Cardiac (d) striations
muscles muscles muscles
(b) Cardiac Smooth Striated 41. The structural and functional unit of nervous
muscles muscles muscles system is
(c) Striated Smooth Cardiac (a) neuron (b) neuroglia
muscles muscles muscles (c) oligodendrocyte (d) ganglia
(d) Involuntary Voluntary Heart muscle 42. The neurons in the neural system are protected
muscles muscle by
36. Involuntary muscle fibers in human body are (a) dendrites (b) neuroglial cells
found in (c) axons (d) Nissl’s granules
(a) heart (b) blood vessels 43. Assertion: Both skeletal muscles and cardiac
(c) intestine (d) all of these muscles are striated appearance.
37. Consider the following statements: Reason: Cardiac muscles are involuntary in
(a) All involuntary muscles are smooth in nature.
appearance. (a) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion
(b) All striated muscles are voluntary muscles. is incorrect explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion
Structural Organisation in Animals 23
(c) Assertion is true, reason is false Select the correct option
(d) Both assertion and reason are false (a) a is true, b is false
(b) Both a and b are false
44. Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.
(c) a is false, b is true
Reason: Neurons are found abundantly
(d) Both a and b are true
throughout the body.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion 48. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is
is incorrect explanation of assertion formed by the polymerization of
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, reason (a) lipoglycans
is not the correct explanation of assertion (b) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(c) Assertion is true, reason is false (c) D – glucosamine
(d) Both assertion and reason are false (d) N – acetyl glucosamine

Topic Cockroach 49. Hardened plates of exoskeleton in cockroaches

are known as
4
(a) capsids (b) spicules
(c) sclerites (d) metamere
45. Identify A to E.
50. Dorsal and ventral sclerites in cockroach are
(a) tergites and sternites, respectively
(b) sternites and pleurites, respectively
(c) pleurites and tergites, respectively
(d) pleurites and sternites, respectively

51. The triangular head of cockroach

(1) bear compound eyes
(2) is formed by the fusion of two segments
(3) bear chewing and lapping mouthparts

Select the correct option

A B C D E (a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
(a) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Pleura (b) Only 1 is correct
(b) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Sterna (c) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Analcerci
(d) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Anal style 52. The mouth parts of cockroach contain
(a) two mandibles, two maxillae, labrum, labium
46. The body of cockroach can be morphologically
and hypopharynx
distincted as
(b) two mandibles and maxillae each, two
(a) head and abdomen
labrum and labium each
(b) head, thorax and abdomen
(c) one mandible and maxilla each, labarum
(c) head, abdomen and tail
and hypopharynx
(d) head and trunk
(d) one mandible, labarum, labium and
47. Consider the following statements: hypopharynx
(a) Body of cockroach is covered by hard
53. Select the incorrect statement regarding
exoskeleton made up of chitin.
cockroach:
(b) In male cockroach, the wings extend beyond
(a) Hypopharynx acts as a tongue.
the abdomen.
24 Botany
(b) Head is mobile in all directions due to (a) forewings help in flight
flexible neck. (b) abdomen consists of 8 segments
(c) Antennae possess sensory receptors to (c) seventh sternum is boat shaped
monitor the environment. (d) all of these
(d) Thorax is greatly reduced and nondivisible.
59. Which of the following sterna form the brood
54. Paired walking legs in cockroaches are found pouch in female cockroach?
on (a) 8th, 9th (b) 7th, 8th, 9th
(a) each thoracic segments (c) 6th, 7th, 8th (d) 8th, 9th, 10th
(b) mesothorax and metathorax
60. Which of the following features is used to
(c) prothorax and metathorax
identify a male cockroach from a female
(d) metathorax only
cockroach?
55. Forewings and hindwings in cockroaches arises (a) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
from 9th abdominal segment
(a) mesothorax and metathorax (b) Presence of caudal styles
(b) prothorax (c) Forewings with darker tegmina
(c) metathorax (d) Presence of anal cerci
(d) prothorax and metathorax
61. Select the incorrect statement:
56. Match the following columns. (a) Genital pouch in male cockroach is dorsally
Column-I Column-II bounded by 9th and 10th terga.
a Scleride (1) Forewings (b) Male genital pouch contains genital pore
only.
b Tegmina (2) Simple eye
(c) 10th segment in male and female cockroach
c Ocellus (3) Exoskeleton plate
possess anal cerci.
Select the correct option (d) Female genital pouch contains collateral
a b c glands.
(a) 3 2 1 62. Which among the following structures are found
(b) 2 1 3 in male cockroaches only?
(c) 3 1 2 (a) Collateral glands and anal cerci
(d) 2 3 1 (b) Anal cerci and spermathecal pores
57. How the forewings of cockroaches are (c) Spermathecal pores and collateral glands
distinguished from the hindwings? (d) Gonapophysis and anal styles
(a) Forewings are leathery while hindwings are 63. Match the following columns:
membranous.
Column-I Column-II
(b) Forewings are much longer while hindwings
are vestigial. a Anal cerci (1) 7th in females
(c) Forewings are much reduced and hindwings b Boat-shaped (2) 9th segment in males
are highly evolved. sternum
(d) Forewings are transparent while hindwings c Anal styles (3) 10th segment
are opaque. d Genital pouch (4) Bounded by 9th and
58. In female cockroach Select the correct option
Structural Organisation in Animals 25
a b c d name and characteristic of labelled structures?
(a) 4 2 1 3 (a) A – Gizzard – Food grinding structure
(b) 2 3 4 1 (b) C – Hepatic ceca – Secretary digestive juices
(c) 1 4 3 2 (c) D – Ileum – Food absorption
(d) 3 1 2 4 (d) E – Malpighian tubules – 6–8 blind tubules

64. What is the correct arrangement of structures 68. Select the correct sequence of organs in the
in Cockroach’s alimentary canal? alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
(a) Oesophagus, Gizzard, Crop mouth.
(b) Gizzard, Oesophagus, Crop (a) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop
(c) Crop, Oesophagus, Gizzard → Ileum → Rectum
(d) Oesophagus, Crop, Gizzard (b) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Gizzard →
Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
65. Match the following.
(c) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop
Column-I Column-II → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
a Proventriculus (1) Food storage (d) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard
b Crop (2) Grinding food → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
particles
69. During anatomical studies of cockroach, how
c Hepatic Caeca (3) Secretion of digestive
would you differentiate malpighian tubules (A)
juices
from gastric caeca (B)?
d Malpighian (4) Removal of excretory
(a) A – 6–8 in number, B – 200–300 in number
tubules products
(b) A – Present at the junction of midgut and
Select the correct option hindgut B – Present at the junction of foregut
a b c d and midgut
(a) 4 3 2 1 (c) A – Blind, black-coloured tubules B –
(b) 2 1 3 4 Hollow, yellow-coloured tubules
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) All of these
D) 3 2 4 1 70. Select the incorrect statement regarding
66. How many chitinous teeth are present in the cockroach:
gizzard of cockroach? (a) Cockroaches possess open circulating
(a) Two (b) Six system.
(c) Ten (d) Fourteen (b) Blood vessels are highly developed and
open into heart.
67. Refer to the given diagram of cockroach’s (c) Visceral organs found in hemocoel are
alimentary canal: bathed in hemolymph.
(d) Alary muscles associated with heart are
contractile muscles.
71. The heart of cockroach possess
(a) 10 chambers (b) 8 chambers
(c) 13 chambers (d) 12 chambers

72. Match the following columns.

Which of the following options represent correct

26 Botany

Column-I Column-II (a) Cockroaches remain alive for several hours

(Structures in even after its head is cut off.
(Number)
cockroach) (b) Nervous system of cockroach is dorsally
placed along the whole body.
a Spiracles (1) 6–8
b Heart chambers (2) 100–150 Select the correct option
c Hepatic ceca (3) 13 (a) a is true, b is false
(b) Both a and b are true
d Malpighian tubule (4) 10
(c) a is false, b is true
Select the correct option (d) Both a and b are false
a b c d
(a) 2 4 3 1 78. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(b) 3 2 4 1 (a) Female cockroach possesses sixteen
(c) 1 4 2 3 ovarioles in the ovaries.
(d) 4 3 1 2 (b) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less
sensitivity and more resolution.
73. Select the incorrect statement regarding (c) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the
cockroach 6th-7th abdominal of male cockroach.
(a) Exchange of gases occurs by diffusion at (d) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th
the tracheoles. segment of female cockroach.
(b) Malpighian tubules remain lined by
glandular and ciliated cells. 79. Match the following columns
(c) Uricose glands are principal reproductive Column-I Column-II
glands in female cockroach a Testes (1) 2nd –6th segment
(d) Fat bodies and nephrocytes help in excretion b Ovaries (2) 4th –6th segment
of nitrogenous waste
c Spermatheca (3) 6th segment
74. The principal nitrogenous waste in cockroach d Mushroom glands (4) 6th–7th segment
is
(a) ammonia (b) vasa Select the correct option
(c) guanine (d) uric acid a b c d
(a) 3 2 4 1
75. The body cells in cockroach discharge their (b) 2 1 3 4
nitrogenous waste in the hemolymph mainly in (c) 4 3 1 2
the form of (d) 1 4 2 3
(a) calcium carbonate
(b) ammonia 80. The bundles of sperms are called
(c) potassium urate (a) phallomere (b) gonapophysis
(d) urea (c) spermathecal (d) spermatophores

76. How many ganglia are found in the thorax and 81. Phallomere in cockroaches
abdomen of male cockroach? (a) helps to store spermatophores
(a) 3 and 6 (b) 6 and 4 (b) is chitinous external genitalia
(c) 5 and 5 (d) 6 and 3 (c) is accessory reproductive gland
(d) represents ejaculatory duct
77. Consider the following statements:
Structural Organisation in Animals 27
82. Ovarioles are
(a) bundles of ova
(b) ovarian tubules
(c) immature ovaries
(d) capsule containing fertilized ova

83. Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II A B C D E F
a Ovarioles (1) Opening of ejaculatory (a) Compound Ocellus Maxilla Mandible Labrum Labium
duct eye

b Gonopore (2) Chain of developing ova (b) Ocellus Compound Mandible Maxilla Labrum Labium
eye
c Phallomere (3) Bundles of sperms (c) Ocellus Compound Mandible Maxilla Labium Labrum
d Spermatophore (4) External genitalia eye
(d) Ocellus Compound Maxilla Mandible Labium Labrum
eye
Select the correct option
a b c d
87. Match the following columns.
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 3 2 1 Column-I Column-II
(c) 1 4 3 2 a Collateral gland (1) Stimulatory organ in male
(d) 2 1 4 3 b Titillator (2) Anal appendage which helps
in oviposition
84. Which of the following structure encase the c Gonapophysis (3) Helps in the formation of egg
fertilized eggs of cockroaches? cases
(a) Spermatheca (b) Ovariole
(c) Cocoon (d) Ootheca Select the correct option
a b c
85. Select the incorrect statement. (a) 2 3 1
(a) Female cockroaches produce one ootheca (b) 1 2 3
at a time. (c) 3 1 2
(b) The nymphs of cockroach resemble adults. (d) 2 1 3
(c) The nymphs of cockroach moults about 13
times to reach adult form. 88.
(d) Only adult cockroaches have wings.

86. The following figure is related to head region

of cockroach. Identify A to F.

The above figure is related with mouth parts of

cockroach. Identify A to E -
28 Botany

A B C D E A B C
(a) Maxilla Hypop harynx Labium Mandible Labrum (a) Posterior aorta Alary muscles Chambers of hear
(b) Mandible Labium Maxilla Labrum Hypopharynx (b) Anterior aorta Ciliary muscles Chambers of hear
(c) Labrum Mandible Hypopharynx Maxilla Labium (c) Anterior aorta Alary muscles Chambers of hear
(d) Labium Hypopharynx Labrum Maxilla Mandible (d) Anterior aorta Ciliary muscles Chambers of hear

89. 91.

Identify A to F in above diagram –

A B C D
A Testis Testis Testis Testis
B Collateral Collateral Phallic gland Phallic gland
Identify structures A to D – gland gland

A B C D C Ejaculatory Ejaculatory Ejaculatory duct Ejaculatory duct

duct duct
(a) Gizzard Crop Hepatic caecae Malpighian tubules
D Anal cercus Terga Anal cerci Caudal style
(b) Crop Gizzard Hepatic caecae Labrum
E Caudal style Caudal style Caudal style Caudal style
Malpighian tubules
F Pseudopenis Pseudopenis Pseudopenis Pseudopenis
(c) Crop Gizzard Malpighian tubules Hepatic caecae
(d) Gizzard Crop Malpighian tubules Hepatic caecae
92. Figure refers to reproductive system of female
cockroach. The correct labellings indicated by
90.
alphabets are respectively-

The above figure shows open circulatory system

of cockroach. Identify A, B and C.
Structural Organisation in Animals 29

A B C
(a) Spermatheca Collateral Gonapophyses
glands
(b) Phallic gland Collateral Gonapophyses
glands
(c) Spermatheca Seminal Gonapophyses
vesicles
(d) Spermatheca Collateral Tegmina
glands

Topic Earchwork and Frog

5

93. A B C
(a) Excretory pore Female Male genital
genital pore pore
(b) Male genital pore Female Genital
genital pore papilla
(c) Female genital pore Genital
papilla Male
genital pore
(d) Female genital pore Male genital Genital
pore papilla

95.

Go through the above figure. Identify A to F.

A B C D
A Peristomium Prostomium Prostomium Prostomium
B Prostomium Peristomium Peristomium Peristomium
C Clitellum Clitellum Endosteum Endosteum
D Anus Anus Anus Cloaca
E Metameres Metameres Metameres Metameres
F Ring of setae Ring of setae Ring of setae Ring of setae

94.
Choose the correct option of labeling from the
options given-
A B C D
A Pharynx Gizzard Pharynx Pharynx
B Stomach Pharynx Gizzard Gizzard
C Gizzard Stomach Stomach Stomach
30 Botany

D Caecae Caecae Caecae Liver Identify the structures labeled A to E in the

E Lymph gland Lymph gland Lymph gland Villi diagram given above from the list I to V -
F Typhlos ole Typhlosole Typhlosole Typhlosole A B C D E
(a) II I III IV V
96. Go through the blood vascular system of (b) II V IV III I
earthworm given in the following diagram - (c) II IV V I III
(d) II III IV I V

98. Identify A to D in the figure –

A B C D
A Dorsal vessel Ventral vessel Dorsal vessel Ventral
vessel
B Lateral hearts Lateral hearts Lateral hearts Lateral hearts
C Lateraloeso- Lateraloesopha- Anterior loop Anterior loop
pharyngeal ryngeal heart
heart
D Ventral vessel Dorsal vessel Ventral vessel Dorsal vessel
E Anterior loop Anterior loop Lateraloeso- Lateraloeso-
pharyngeal pharyngeal A B C D
heart heart A) Testis Seminal vesicle Accessory Prostate
gland gland
97. B) Seminal vesicle Testis Accessory Prostate
gland gland
C) Testis Seminal vesicle Prostate gland Accessory
gland
D) Seminal vesicle Testis Prostate gland Accessory
gland

99. Refer to the diagram of nephridial system in

earthworm.

I. Septal nephridia
II. Pharynx
III. Forest of integumentary nephridia
IV. lntegumentary nephridia
V. Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia
Structural Organisation in Animals 31
Select the option representing correct B. Bidder’s canal Adrenal gland Urinogenital Cloaca
characteristic of the labelled structure: duct
(a) C – Septal nephridia – Open into intestine C. Vasa efferentia Adrenal gland Urinogenital Cloaca
(b) A – Pharyngeal nephridia – Open to outside duct
(c) B – Integumentary nephridia – Densely
D. Vasa efferentia Thyroid gland Urinogenital Cloaca
found on first two segments duct
(d) All of these

100. The above figure is associated with diagrammatic 102. The above figure is related with female
representation of internal organs of frog. Identify reproductive system of frog. Identify A to D.
A to E.

A B C D
A Gall bladder Gall bladder Gall bladder Gall bladder A B C D
B Lung Lung Lung Lung A) Ovary Ureter Oviduct Ovisac
C Ovary Fat bodies Testis Fat bodies B) Ovary Urinogenital Bidder’s canal Ovisac
D Testis Testis Kidney Kidney duc
E Rectum Rectum Rectum Rectum C) Ovary Urinogenital Ovisac Oviduct Fat bodies
duc
101.
D) Ovary Urinogenital Bidder’s canal Oviduct
duc

103. Identify A, B and C respectively –

Go through the following figure indicating the

male reproductive system of frog. Identify A to
D
A B C D (a) Trunk, Tympanum, Web
(b) Neck, Brown eye spot, Web
A. Bidder’s canal Adrenal gland Urinogenital Rectum
(c) Trunk, Tympanum, Hind limb
duct
(d) Neck, Tympanum, Hind limb
32 Botany

ANSWER KEY

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (c) 103. (a)
4 Chapter
Digestion and Absorption
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Human Physiology iv) Communities
(a) Only two (b) Only three
1. What increases the use of physico – chemical
(c) Only one (d) all of them
concepts and techniques:-
Digestion and Absorption Introduction
(a) Forward approach
(b) Reductionist approach 6. Which of the following components of our food
(c) Both are taken in small quantities?
(d) None of these (a) Carbohydrate and proteins
(b) Proteins and minerals
2. Majority of physico – chemical studies employed
(c) Proteins and lipids
by employing:-
(d) Minerals and vitamins
(a) Tissue model
(b) Cell free system 7. Which of the following molecules can be used
(c) Both by us as a source of energy?
(d) None of these (a) Carbohydrates only
(b) Fats only
3. Now a days it is realized that _________ would
(c) Carbohydrates or fats
reveal the truth about biological processes or
(d) Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins
living phenomenon :-
(a) Purely organismic level 8. Digestion is –
(b) Purely reductionistic molecular approach (a) Absorption of diffusible food
(c) Both (b) Absorption of water
(d) None (c) Throwing out of non-diffusible food
substances
4. All living phenomenon are emergent properties
(d) Conversion of non-diffusible complex food
due to ________.
substances into simple absorbable forms
(a) Interaction among components of the system.
(b) Defoliation of organs. Topic Digestive System- (Alimentary
(c) Exchange of gases only.
1 Canal)
(d) All of these

5. How many of the following creates emergent 9. Dental formula of adult person is-
properties of living organism:- (a) 2122/2122 (b) 2114/2114
i) Regulatory network of molecules (c) 2123/2123 (d) 2123/2124
ii) Supra – molecular assemblies of cells; tissue;
10. Our teeth are –
organs
(a) Acrodont and homodont
iii) Population
Digestion and Absorption 49
(b) Homodont and polyphyodont 19. Cardiac sphincter is –
(c) Thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont (a) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(d) Acrodont, homodont and polyphyodont (b) Pyloric sphincter
(c) Gastro-duodenal sphincter
11. Frenulum is –
(d) None
(a) Adenoid present on pharyngeal wall
(b) Tonsils located on lateral wall of soft palate 20. The stomach is located in the upper ____ portion
(c) Fold attaching tongue to the floor of oral of the ____ cavity-
cavity (a) Right, thoracic
(d) V-shaped sulcus for terminalis on tongue (b) Left abdominal
(c) Right, abdominal
12. The hard chewing surface of teeth helping in
(d) Left, thoracic
mastication of food is called –
(a) Dentine (b) Frenulum 21. The narrow distal part of stomach leading to
(c) Root (d) Enamel the intestine is called –
(a) Cardiac (b) Pyloric
13. The upper surface of the tongue has small
(c) Fundus (d) None
projections, some of which bear taste buds.
These projections are called- 4 Digestion and 22. The proximal part of stomach in which
absorption oesophagus opens is called -
(a) Papillae (b) Taste pore (a) Cardiac (b) Pyloric
(c) Frenulum (d) Sulcus terminalis (c) Fundus (d) None

14. The common passage for food and air is– 23. Which of the following is not the part of
(a) Gullet (b) Glottis stomach?
(c) Larynx (d) Pharynx (a) Caecum (b) Pyloric
(c) Fundus (d) Cardiac
15. The oesophagus and trachea (wind pipe) open
into- 24. Small intestine is distinguishable into 3 parts, a
(a) Gullet (b) Glottis ‘C’ shaped _____ , a long coiled middle portion
(c) Larynx (d) Pharynx ____ and a highly coiled ____.
(a) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
16. A thin long tube extending posteriorly and
(b) jejunum, Duodenum, ileum
passing through neck, thorax and a diaphragm
(c) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
and leading to stomach is called-
(d) Caecum, duodenum, ileum
(a) Pharynx (b) Trachea
(c) Oesophagus (d) Larynx 25. The opening of stomach into duodenum is
guarded by-
17. Our stomach is -
(a) Cardiac sphincter
(a) U-shaped (b) J-shaped
(b) Sphincter of Boyden
(c) C-shaped (d) Rod-shaped
(c) Sphincter of Oddi
18. A muscular sphincter regulating opening of (d) Pyloric sphincter
oesophagus into the stomach is called
26. Ileum is –
(a) Pyloric sphincter
(a) First part of small intestine
(b) Cardiac Sphincter
(b) Last part of small intestine
(c) Sphincter of Oddi
(c) Middle part of small intestine
(d) Boyden sphincter
(d) First part of large intestine
50 Botany
27. Which of the following parts of small intestine 34. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus
opens into large intestine? to rectum posses four layers. The sequence of
(a) Duodenum (b) Ileum these layers is –
(c) Jejunum (d) Colon (a) Serosa-Mucosa-Submucosa- Muscularis
(b) Muscularis-Serosa-Mucosa- Submucosa
28. All of the following is the part of large intestine
(c) Serosa-Muscularis-Mucosa- Submucosa
except -
(d) Serosa-Muscularis-Submucosa- Mucosa
(a) Ileum (b) Caecum
(c) Colon (d) Rectum 35. The below diagram represents the TS of Gut.
Identify A, G, D and E –
29. Caecum is small blind sac which hosts some
symbiotic micro-organisms. From it a small
finger like vestigial organ arises. This organ is
called -
(a) Parotid gland
(b) Vermis
(c) Vermiform appendix
(d) Lacteals

30. Caecum opens into -

(a) Rectum (b) Duodenum (a) A- Serosa; G - Muscularis; D - Submucosa;
(c) Colon (d) Jejunum E – Mucosa
(b) A- Muscularis; G - Serosa; D - Submucosa;
31. Which of the following organs has 3 parts E – Mucosa
(ascending, transverse and descending parts) - (c) A- Serosa; G - Muscularis; D - Mucosa;
(a) Colon (b) Caecum E – Submucosa
(c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine (d) A- Serosa; G - Submucosa; D - Muscularis;
32. Which of the following sequence is correct? E – Mucosa
(a) Descending part of colon → Rectum→Anus 36. Epiglottis is a cartilaginous flap which prevents
(b) tomach→ e unum→ Duodenum the entry of food into –
(c) Ileum→ Colon→ Caecum (a) Glottis (b) Gullet
(d) Colon→ Anus→ Rectum (c) Oesophagus (d) None of the above
33. 37. Duodenal glands/Brunner’s glands are present
in -
(a) Submucosa (b) Mucosa
(c) Muscularis (d) Serosa

38. Mucosa forms irregular folds (rugae) in the-

(a) Ileum (b) Stomach
(c) Jejunum (d) Colon
Anatomical regions of stomach are-
(a) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Body, EPyloric 39. Mucosa forms many small finger like villi in
(b) B- Cardiac, C- Fundus, D- Body, EPyloric the -
(c) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Pyloric, EBody (a) Stomach (b) Colon
(d) B- Fundus, C- Body, D- Cardiac, EPyloric (c) Caecum (d) Small intestine
Digestion and Absorption 51
40. The many projections on the wall of small (a) A- Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Capillaries, D –
intestine function to – Crypts
(a) Secrete digestion enzymes (b) A- Lacteal, B - Villi, C - Capillaries, D -
(b) Increase the surface area Crypts
(c) Hold products of digestion so they do not (c) A- Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Crypts, D –
enter the large intestine Capillaries
(d) Hold mucus, so ulcers do not form (d) A- Crypts, B - Lacteal, C – Capillaries,
D – Villi
41. Which layer of the gut is responsible for
peristalsis? Topic Digestive System- (Digestive
(a) Smooth muscles (b) Mucosa
2 Glands)
(c) Submucosa (d) Serosa

42. Which of the following statement is false? 46. Number of salivary glands present in human
(a) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which being is –
secrete mucus for lubrication (a) 5 pairs (b) 3 pairs
(b) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the stomach (c) 4 pairs (d) 2 pairs
and crypts in between the bases of villi in
47. Parotid glands are located below –
intestine
(a) Eye (b) Tongue
(c) Cells lining the villi have brush border or
(c) Floor of mouth (d) In cheek near ear
microvilli
(d) All the four basic layer in the wall of gut 48. Which of the following salivary gland is absent
never show modification in different parts in human beings?
of the alimentary canal (a) Zygomatic
(b) Parotids
43. Lacteals, lymph capillaries are found in-
(c) The sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular (lower
(a) Spleen (b) Intestinal villi
jaw)
(c) Salivary gland (d) Mammary gland
(d) The sub-linguals (below the tongue)
44. Intestinal villi are supplied with –
49. Saliva is secreted by -
(a) Only blood capillaries
(a) Liver
(b) Only lacteals
(b) Gastric gland
(c) Lacteals and valves
(c) Duodenal gland
(d) Blood capillaries and lacteals
(d) None
45. The below diagram represents a section of small
50. Which one is the largest gland?
intestinal mucosa showing villi. Identify A, B,
(a) Liver (b) Pancreas
C and D –
(c) Salivary gland (d) Gastric gland

51. Liver secretes?

(a) No digestive enzymes
(b) Many digestive enzymes
(c) Hormones
(d) Succus entericus
52 Botany
52. Liver of man is- 60. Cystic duct arises from -
(a) Bilobed (b) 3-lobed (a) Liver (b) Kidney
(c) 4-lobed (d) 5-lobed (c) Pancreas (d) Gall bladder

53. Digestive juice lacking enzyme but aiding 61. Function of gall bladder is –
digestion is - (a) Storage of bile
(a) Chyle (b) Chyme (b) Secretion of bile
(c) Bile (d) Succus entericus (c) Formation of digestive enzyme
(d) Formation of bile salts
54. In adult human liver weighs -
(a) 2 kg (b) 2-3 kg 62. Common bile duct is formed when
(c) 500 g (d) 1.2 to 1.5 kg (a) Right and left hepatic ducts are fused
(b) Bile duct is fused with pancreatic duct
55. Liver is situated in -
(c) Cystic duct is fused with right hepatic duct.
(a) Thoracic cavity
(d) Cystic duct (duct of gall bladder) is fused
(b) Above the thoracic cavity
with a common hepatic duct
(c) In abdominal cavity below diaphragm
(d) In abdominal cavity above diaphragm 63. In human beings which of the following opens
into the duodenum -
56. Which of the following is the structural and
(a) Hepatic duct and pancreatic duct separately
functional unit of liver?
(b) Hepato-pancreatic duct
(a) Hepatic cells (b) Hepatic cord
(c) 1st hepatic duct, then pancreatic duct
(c) Hepatic lobule (d) Hepatic lobe
(d) 1st pancreatic duct then hepatic duct
57. Find out the correct match –
64. Which of the following is incorrect about
Column I Column II pancreas?
A Hepatic lobule I Base of Villi (a) It is compound gland as it has both exocrine
B Crypts of leiberkuhn II Glisson’s capsule and endocrine part
C Sphincter of Oddi III Gall bladder (b) Exocrine part secretes alkaline pancreatic
D Cystic duct IV Hepato- pancreatic juice having enzymes
duct (c) Endocrine part secretes hormones like insulin
and glucagon
(a) A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III
(d) It is surrounded by Glisson’s capsule
(b) A-I, B-II, C- IV, D-III
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D- IV 65. The below diagram is a duct system of liver,
(d) A - IV, B-III, C-II, D-I gall bladder and pancreas. Write the names of
ducts from A to D –
58. Hepatocytes secrete -
(a) Lipase
(b) Bile, no digestive enzymes
(c) Bile with digestive enzymes
(d) Amylopsin

59. Bile is produced by -

(a) Gall bladder (b) Liver
(c) Hepatic duct (d) Blood
Digestion and Absorption 53
(a) Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Pancreatic (a) Gastro – oseophageal sphincter
duct, D - Hepatopancreatic duct (b) Pyloric sphincter
(b) A- Bile duct, B - Cystic duct, C - Pancreatic (c) Mucus in saliva
duct, D - Hepatopancreatic duct (d) All of the above
(c) A- Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Hepato-
72. The salvia secreted into the oral cavity contains:-
pancreatic duct, D - Pancreatic duct.
® Water; Amylase; Ptyalin;
(d) A- Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct, C - Bile
Lysozymes; Na+; K+; Cl-; HCO-3
duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct
How many of the above are composition of
Topic Digestion of Food saliva:-
3 (a) Only 6 (b) Only 7
(c) Only 8 (d) Only 5
66. The process of digestion is accomplished by:-
73. Which enzyme is responsible for initiation of
(a) Mechanical process
digestion in the oral cavity:-
(b) Chemical process
(a) Water splitting complex
(c) Both
(b) Mucus splitting enzyme
(d) Chemical & Electrical
(c) Carbohydrate splitting enzyme
67. Mastication of food & facilitation of swallowing (d) Protein splitting enzyme
is the two major function of:-
74. What percentage of starch is hydrolysed in oral
(a) Teeth (b) Buccal Cavity
cavity:-
(c) Mouth (d) Trachea
(a) 20% (b) 30%
68. _____(i)_____ in saliva helps in ______(ii)_____ (c) 40% (d) 50%
& _____(iii)______ the masticated food:-
75. In oral cavity starch is pyrolysed into ____
(a) (i) Mucus (ii) Lubricating (iii) Adhering
(i)____ ____(ii)___
(b) (i) Adhering (ii) Cohesion (iii) Surface
(a) A monosaccharide; Maltose
tension
(b) A disaccharide; Maltose
(c) (i) Surface tension (ii) Cohesion (iii)
(c) A disaccharide; Galactose
Adhesion
(d) None of the above
(d) (i) Lubrication (ii) Mucus (iii) Adhering
76. Optimum pH required for the activation of
69. The bolus is conveyed into the pharynx and
carbohydrate – splitting enzyme is :-
then into the ____(i)____ by _____(ii)
(a) 5.8 (b) 6.8
(a) (i) Swallowing (ii) Deglutition
(c) 7.8 (d) 4.8
(b) (i) Deglutition (ii) Swallowing
(c) (i) Oesophagus (ii) Deglutition 77. Antibacterial agent present in saliva; that protects
(d) (i) Oesophagus (ii) Mastication from bacterial infection is:-
(a) Ptyalin (b) Amlylase
70. The muscular contraction in oesophagus is
(b) Lysozymes (d) Both
known as:-
(a) Swallowing (b) Peristalsis 78. What major types of cells does the gastric gland
(c) Churning (d) Both (b) & (c) contains:-
(a) Mucus neck cells
71. What controls the passage of food into the
(b) Peptic of chief cells
stomach:-
(c) Parietal oxyntic cells
(d) All of the above
54 Botany
79. Factor essential for digestion of vitamin B12 (a) Pepsin (b) Lectin
is secreted by _____(i)_____ & the factor is (c) Rennin (d) None of these
_____(ii)_____
86. Lipases are also secreted by gastric glands in:-
(a) (i) peptic cell (ii) Lysozyme
(a) Small amount (b) Moderate amount
(b) (i) Intrinsic (ii) Peptic cell
(c) Large amount (d) None of the above
(c) (i) Oxyntic (ii) Intrinsic
(d) (i) Parietal cell (ii) HCl 87. ___________ of movements are generated by
the muscularis layer of the small intestine.
80. How many of the following statements are
(a) A certain type
correct:-
(b) Various type
(i) Proenzyme (Pepsinogen) is secreted by chief
(c) Churning type
cells
(d) None of the above
(ii) Stomach stores food for 4 – 5 hours
(iii) Food thoroughly mixed up with acidic gastric 88. How many of the following is released into the
juice is known as chyme. small instestine:-
(a) Only one (b) Only two (i) Bile juice
(c) All of them (d) None of them (ii) Gastric juice
(iii) Pancreatic juice
81. Pepsinogen on the exposure of ____(i)____
(iv) Intestinal juice
converted into the active enzyme _____(ii)____
(a) Only One (b) Only Two
(a) (i) Proenzyme (ii) Lysozyme
(c) Only Three (d) Only Four
(b) (i) HCl (ii) Pepsin
(c) (i) Lysozyme (ii) HCl 89. Which of the following guards the release of
(d) (i) Churning (ii) Pepsin Pancreatic and Bile juice into duodenum:-
(a) Plyloric sphincter
82. Pepsin converts _____(i)____ into ______
(b) Hepato – Pancreatic duct
(ii)_____ & ____(iii)_____
(c) Sphincter of oddi
(a) Proteins; Proteoses; Peptones
(d) Dust of Santorini
(b) Proteoses; Peptones; Proteins
(c) Peptones; Proteins; Proteoses 90. The contents of Pancreatic juice are:-
(d) Peptones; Proteoses; Proteins ® Trypsinogen; Chymotrypsinogen;
Pepsinogen; Pro – carboxypeptidase;
83. What prevent the gastric epithelium from
amylases; Lipases; nucleases
excoriation:-
(a) All seven of the above
(a) Mucus & Bicarbonates
(b) Only five of the above
(b) Bicarbonates only
(c) Only six of the above
(c) Mucus only
(d) Only four of the above
(d) HCl
91. What are inactive enzymes of Pancreatic juice:-
84. The acidity in stomach for activation of
Trypsinogen; Chymotrypsinogen;
pepsinogen required is
Pepsinogen; Pro – carboxypeptidase;
(a) 1.8 (b) 3.8
amylases; Lipases; nucleases
(c) 6.8 (d) 7.8
(a) All seven of the above
85. The proteolytic enzyme found in the milk for (b) Only five of the above
infants are:- (c) Only three of the above
(d) Only four of the above
Digestion and Absorption 55
92. What activates the enzymes of pancreas:- 101. Which provides alkaline medium for enzymatic
(a) Enterokinase & Pepsin activities:-
(b) Enterokinase & Trypsin (a) Mucus (b) Bicarbonates
(c) Enterokinase & HCl (c) Both (d) None
(d) Chymotrypsin & Enterokinase
102. Brunner’s glands helps in :-
93. Bile released into duodenum contains the :- (a) Secretion of HCl
(a) Bile salt (b) Bile pigment (b) Providing an Neutral medium
(c) Both (d) Goblet cells (c) Providing an alkaline medium
(d) Secretion of proteoses
94. Intestinal mucosa secretes enzyme:-
(a) Lysozyme (b) Enterokinase 103. Which of the following is partially hydrolysed
(c) Mucus (d) Both (b) & (c) protein:-
(a) Proteoses (b) Peptones
95. The composition of bile salt is:-
(c) Chyme (d) All
(a) Bilirubin & Biliverdin
(b) Bicarbonates & Cholesterol 104. Which of the following statement is incorrect:-
(c) Phospholipids (a) Carbohydrates in chyme is hydrolysed by
(d) None of the them salivary amylase.
(b) Fats are broken down by lipases.
96. The breaking down of fats into very small
(c) Bile helps in the break down process of fats
micelles is known as:-
(d) None of the above
(a) Digestion (b) Pyrolysis
(c) Emulsification (d) Absorption 105. Which of the following is correct:-
(a) Final steps of digestion occur very close to
97. The goblet cells of intestinal mucosal epithelium
the mucosal epithelium of the intestine
secretes:-
(b) Nucleic acids in pancreatic juice acts on
(a) Enterokinase (b) Mucus
nucleases to form nucleotides & Nucleosides
(c) Lipase (d) All of the above
(c) Succus entericus acts on the start products
98. Succus entericus contains:- of chyme
(i) Disaccharide & Lipase (d) All
(ii) Dipeptidase & Nucleosidase
106. Which of the following reaction in duodenal
(iii) Mucus
region:-
(a) Only (i) & (ii) (b) All
(a) Lactose Glucose + Galactose
(c) Only (ii) & (iii) (d) None
(b) Nucleic acids Nucleotides
99. What is the pH of intestinal juice:-
(c) Starch Disaccharids
(a) 7.0 (b) 7.8
(d) All
(c) 6.0 (d) 6.8
107. The undigested and unabsorbed substances are
100. Succus entericus is the combination of secretion
passed on to:-
of :-
(a) Jejunum (b) Ileum
(a) Mucus cells
(c) Caecum (d) Duodenum
(b) Brush bordered cells
(c) Both 108. Which of the following statements is incorrect:-
(d) None (a) No digestion occurs in the large intestine
56 Botany
(b) In large intestine absorption of water; 115. Which of the following is correct match :-
minerals & certain drugs occurs. Substrate GCV PCV
(c) Mucus helps in adhesion of undigested A) Carbohydrate 4.0 4.21
particles
B) Protein 4.0 5.65
(d) None of the above
C) Fat 9.45 9.0
109. The undigested, unabsorbed substances are D) All
called:-
Þ All the values are in k cal / gm
(a) Chyme (b) Faeces
Þ PCV ® Physiological calorific value
(c) Bolus (d) Gullet
Þ GCV ® Gross calorific value
110. The entry of food into the caecum from Ileum
is prevented by:-
Topic Absorption Digested Products
(a) Pyloric sphincter 4
(b) Sphincter of oddi
(c) Ileo – caecal valve 116. Absorption occurs through:-
(d) None (a) Passive transport
(b) Active transport
111. Which is the temporary storage region for
(c) Facilitated method
faeces:-
(d) All
(a) Ileum (b) Caecum
(c) Colon (d) Rectum 117. Absorption of glucose, amino acids & some
electrolytes like chloride ions occurs through
112. Which of the following statements is incorrect:-
simple diffusion in _______
(a) The activity of GIT are under neural and
(a) Small amount
hormonal control for proper coordination of
(b) Moderate amount
different part.
(c) Large amount
(b) The sight, smell and presence of food in
(d) None
oral cavity can stimulate secretion of saliva.
(c) Gastric and intestinal secretions are 118. Which of the following is true:-
stimulated by neural signals. (a) Passage of substances into blood stream
(d) None of the above depends upon the concentration gradient.
(b) Glucose and amino acids are absorbed
113. Muscular activity of different part of the
facilitatively
alimentary canal can be moderated by:-
(c) Transport of water depends upon osmotic
(a) Local mechanism (b) CNS
gradient
(c) Both A and B (d) PNS
(d) All of the above
114. Hormonal control of secretion of digestive juices
119. Which of the following is true:-
is carried out by local hormones produced by
(a) Fat droplets → Micelle → Chylomicron
(a) Gastric mucosa
(b) Fat droplet ( umen) → Micelle (Mucosa)
(b) Intestinal mucosa
→ Chylomicron ( acteal)
(c) Intestinal submucosa
(c) Fat droplet (Mucosa) → Micelle ( ub
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Mucosa) → Chylomicron ( acteal)
(d) None of them
Digestion and Absorption 57
120. Principle organ for absorption of nutrients is:- (c) Constipation (d) Indigestion
(a) Mouth (b) Stomach
124. Dietary deficiency of proteins and total food
(c) Small Intestine (d) Large Intestine
calories are wide spread in
121. The absorbed substances finally reach the tissues (a) North & North – east Asia
which utilised them for their activities its known (b) South America & Central Africa
as:- (c) East & south – east Asia
(a) Assimilation (b) Absorption (d) North America & central Africa
(c) Deglutition (d) Defecation
125. Marasmus occurs in:-
Topic Disorders of Digestive system (a) Children more than a year in age
(b) Infant more than a year in age
5
(c) Foetus
(d) Infant less than a year in age
122. Which is the ejection of intestinal content
through the mouth:- 126. Kwashiorkar occurs in
(a) Jaundice (b) Diarrhoea (a) Children more than a year in age
(c) vomiting (d) None (b) Infant more than a year in age
(c) Foetus
123. Irregular bowel movement causes:-
(d) Infant less than a year in age
(a) Jaundice (b) Vomiting

ANSWER KEY

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (c)
101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (c) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (a)
Human Reproduction 157
100. Assertion: The lack of mensuration may be
indicative of pregnancy.

Reason: Mensuration only occurs if the released

ovum is not fertilised.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
96. The gradual increase of which hormone (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
stimulates the secretion of hormone C
(a) A (b) B 101. Assertion: During secretory phase the levels of
(c) D (d) Both (a) and (b) LH and FSH gradually increase.

97. The rapid increase of which hormone will Reason: The increased levels of FSH and LH
induce rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby induce Graafian follicles to secrete progesterone.
the release of ovum? (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(a) A (b) C is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) B (d) D (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
98. Choose the incorrect statement from the is not the correct explanation of assertion.
following. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(I) High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
surge.
102. Assertion: During pregnancy, all events of the
(II) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give
menstrual cycle stop.
rise to functional ova in regular cycles from
puberty onwards. Reason: In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus
(III) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules luteum degenerates.
are poorly motile/non-motile. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(IV) Progesterone level is high during the post is the correct explanation of assertion.
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(a) I and III (b) II and IV is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) I and IV (d) I and II (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
99. Consider the following features.
(i) Transformation of Graafian follicle into
Topic Fertilization and Implantation
corpus luteum.
(ii) Secretion of large amount of progesterone 5
from corpus luteum.
(iii) Maintenance of endometrial lining of the 103. The sperms released during copulation, finally
uterus. reach to which part of the Fallopian tube?
Select the correct phase of menstrual cycle that (a) Infundibulum (b) Isthmus
possesses all the above characteristics. (c) Ampulla (d) Ampullary-isthmic
(a) Follicular phase (b) Secretory phase 104. All copulations not lead to the fertilisation and
(c) Proliferative phase (d) Ovulatory phase pregnancy. Choose the correct reason for the
same from the following options.