NTA NEET MOCK GRAND TEST - 13

PHYSICS
1. We have three beakers A, B and C containing glycerin, water and kerosene respectively. They are
stirred vigorously and placed on a table. The liquid which comes to rest at the earlest is

1) glycerin 2) water 3) kerosene 4) all of them at the same time

2. A block rests on a fixed rough inclined plane and a horizontal force F is applied to it, as shown in the
figure. which of the following statements are correct?

1) Normal reaction on the block is F sin   mg cos 

2) The frictional force is zero when F cos   mg sin 

3) The value of limiting friction is   mg sin   Fcos  

4) The value of limiting friction is   mg sin   Fcos  

1) 1,2 2) 3,4 3) 2,4 4) 2,3

3. The coordinates of the centre of mass of the following quarter circular arc are

r r  2r 2r   2r 2r   4r 4r 
1)  ,  2)  ,  3)  ,  4)  , 
2 2  3 3       

4. A radioactive material has mean lives of 1620 years and 660 years for  and  emissions
th
1
respectively. The material decays by simultaneous  and  emission. The time in which of the
4
material remains intact is
1) 4675 years 2) 720 years 3) 650 years 4) 324 years
5. Two wires A and B of the same material, have radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the ratio
4:1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in A and B is

1) 16:1 2) 1:16 3) 1:4 4) 4:1

6. If K1 and K 2 are maximum kinetic energies of photo electrons emitted when lights of wavelength
1 and 2 respectively are incident on a metallic surface and 1  32 . Then

1) K1  K 2 / 3 2) K1  K 2 / 3 3) K1  3K 2 4) K 2  3K1

7. In Uranium  Z  92  , the K absorption edge is 0.107 A0 and the K line is 0.126 A0 . The
wavelength of the L absorption edge is

1) 0.7 A0 2) 1A0 3) 2A0 4) 3.2 A0

d
8. A camera objective has an aperture diameter d. If the aperture is reduced to diameter , the
2
exposure time under identical conditions of light should be made

1) 2 fold 2) 2 fold 3) 2 2 fold 4) 4 fold

9. When an object is at distance x and y from a lens, a real image and a virtual image are formed
respectively having the same magnification. The focal length of the lens is

x y
1) 2) x  y 3) xy 4) x  y
2

10. In the given circuit the average power developed is:

1) 50 2 watt 2) 200 watt 3) 150 2 watt 4) 200 2 watt

11. A current I  sin 100 t  A is passed in first coil, which induces a maximum EMF of 5 V in second
coil. The mutual inductance between the coils is

1) 5 mH 2) 10 mH 3) 15 mH 4) 20 Mh

12. What will be the magnetic field at point P in the figure below?

 0i 3  0i  2   0i  2  2  0i  2 
1) 2)   1 3)   1 4)   1
4R 4 4R    2R    2R   
13. The time period of vibrations of a dip needle in the vertical plane in the magnetic meridian is 3s.
When the same magnetic needle is made to vibrate in the horizontal plane, the time period is 3 2s .
Then the angle of dip will be

1) 90 0 2) 60 0 3) 450 4) 30 0

14. If only one hundredth part of total current flowing in the circuit is to be passed through a
galvanometer of resistance G, then the value of shunt resistance

G G G G
1) 2) 3) 4)
10 100 99 999

15. Separation between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5mm. This capacitor, having air as the
dielectric medium between the plates, is charged to a potential difference 25V using a battery. The
battery is then disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness 3 mm and dielectric constant K = 10 is
placed between the plates as shown. Potential difference between the plates after the dielectric slab
has been introduced is

1) 18.5 V 2) 13.5 V 3) 11.5 V 4) 6.5 V

16. A capacitor of capacitance 100  F is charged by connecting it to a battery of EMF 12V and internal
resistance 2 . The time taken before 99% of the maximum charge is stored on the capacitor

1) 0.92 ms 2) 0.4 ms 3) 0.8 ms 4) 0.1 ms

17. A positive charge q is given to each plate of a parallel plate air capacitor having plate area A and
plate separation d, then

1) since both the plates are identically charged, therefore, capacitance becomes equal to zero

q2
2) energy stored in the space between the capacitor plates is equal to
 0 A2

3) no charge appears on inner surface of the plates

2gd
4) potential difference between the plates is equal to
0 A
18. Which of the following statements is correct?

1) When a lens is dipped in water, magnitude of its focal length increases.

2) When a lens is dipped in water, magnitude of its focal length decreases.

3) When a spherical mirror is dipped in water, magnitude of its focal length increases.

4) None of these

19. A 25W, 220V bulb and 100W, 220 V bulb are joined in series and connected to the mains. Which
bulb glow brighter

1) 25 W bulb 2) 100 W bulb

3) First 25 W bulb and then 100 W bulb 4) Both will with same brightness

20. A solid, uncharged conducting sphere of radius 3a contains a concentric hollowed spherical cavity of
radius a.

A point charge +Q is placed at the centre of the spheres. Taking V = 0 at r   , the potential at
position r = 2a from the center is

KQ KQ KQ 2 KQ
1) 2) 3) 4)
a 2a 3a 3a

21. Two point charges placed at a distance ‘r’ in air exert a force F on each other. The distance at which
they experience force 4F when placed in a medium of dielectric constant K = 16 is

r r r
1) r 2) 3) 4)
8 4 2

22. The root mean square speed of oxygen molecules at a certain absolute temperature is v. If the
temperature is doubled and the oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen, the root mean square
speed would be

1) v 2) 2v 3) 2v 4) 2 2v

23. The pressure and volume of a given mass of gas at a given temperature are P and V respectively.
Keeping the temperature constant, the pressure is increased by 10% and the system is allowed to
achieve a steady – state, then the pressure is decreased by 10%. What can be said about the final
volume?

1) less than V 2) more than V 3) equal to V

4) less than V for diatomic and moer than V for monoatomic

24. Four spheres A, B, C and D of different metals but of the same radius are kept at the same
temperature. The ratio of their densities and specific heats are 2:3:5:1 and 3:6:2:4 respectively.
Which sphere will initially show the faster rate of cooling?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
25. A man is standing between a stationary source and cliff. When he starts moving along line joining
him and source, he hears 10 beats per second. The velocity of man is [frequency of source = 600Hz,
velocity of sound = 330 ms 1 ]

1) 5.5 m/s 2) 11 m/s 3) 16.5 m/s 4) 2.75 m/s

26. An earthquake generates both transverse (S) and longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth. The
speed of S waves is about 6 km s 1 and that of P waves is about 9 km s 1 . A selsmograph records P
and S waves from an earthquake. The first P wave arrives 5 minute before the first S wave. The
epicenter of the earthquake is located at a distance of about
1) 54 km 2) 540 km 3) 5400 km 4) 72 km
27. A pendulum has time period T for small oscillations. An obstacle P is situated below the point of
3t
suspension O at a distance . The pendulum is released from rest. Throughout the motion the
4
moving string makes small angles with vertical. Time after which the pendulum returns back to its
initial position is :

1) T 2) 3T / 4 3) 3T / 5 4) 4T / 5
th
3
28. A body is projected up with a velocity equal to of the escape velocity from the surface of the
4
earth. The height it reaches from the centre of the earth is

1) 10 R / 9 2) 16 R / 7 3) 9 R / 8 4) 10 R / 3

29. If the density of a planet is constant, then the curve between the value of g on its surface and its
radius ‘r’ will be
30. The electric field lines coming out of an equipotential surface are

1) perpendicular to the surface 2) parallel to the surface

3) in all directions 4) zero

31. Three thin uniform rods each of mass M and length L and placed along the three axes of a Cartesian
coordinate system with one end of each rod at the origin. The M.I. of the system about z – axis is

ML2 2 ML2 2 ML2

1) 2) 3) 4) ML2
3 3 6

32. A uniform circular disc placed on a rough horizontal surface is initially given a velocity v0 and
angular velocity 0 as shown in figure. the disc comes to rest after moving some distance in the
v0
direction of motion. Then is :
r0

1 1
1) 2) 2 3) 4) 3
2 3

33. A ball of mass ‘m’ approaches a wall of mass M (M>>m), with speed 2 ms 1 along the normal to the
wall. The speed of wall is 1ms 1 towards the ball. The sped of the ball after an elastic collision with
the wall is

1) 2 ms 1 away from the wall 2) 3ms 1 away from the wall

3) 4 ms 1 away from the wall 4) 5ms 1 away from the wall

34. Consider the nuclear reaction X 200  A110  B 80  10 n1 . If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A
and B are 7.4 MeV. 8.2 MeV and 8.1 MeV respectively, then the energy released in the reaction
1) 70 MeV 2) 200 MeV 3) 190 MeV 4) 10 MeV

35. The magnitude of force acting on a body varies with time as shown in the figure. the magnitude of
total impulse of the force on the body from t = 4  s to t  16  s is

1) 6  10 3 Ns 2) 5.8  10 3 Ns 3) 8.4  10 3 Ns 4) 7.6  103 Ns

36. Mass is non – uniformly distributed over the rod of length l . Its linear mass density varies linearly
with length as   kx 2 . The position of centre of mass (from lighter end) is given by

1) 2l / 5 2) 3 / l 3) 3l / 4 4) 2l / 3

37. A hydrogen atom moving at a speed v absorb a photon of wavelength 122 nm and stops. The value
of v is
1) 2.75 m/s 2) 3.25 m/s 3) 4.85 m/s 4) 5.65 m/s
38. In a common emitter amplifier, using output resistance of 5000 and input resistance of 2000 . If
the peak value of input signal voltage is 10 mV and   50 is given. Find peak value of output
voltage.

1) 5  10 6 V 2) 2.5  104 V 3) 1.25 V 4) 125 V

39. Identify the operation performed by the circuit given below

1) NOT 2) AND 3) OR 4) NAND

40. The electric field and electric potential at a point are E and V respectively, then :
1) If E = 0, V must be zero 2) If V = 0, E must be zero
3) If E  0 , V may be zero 4) If V  0 , E cannot to zero

41. Initially K1 is closed, now if K 2 is also closed find the heat dissipated in the resistances of
connecting wires

1 2 1 1
1) CV 2 2) CV 2 3) CV 2 4) CV 2
2 3 3 4

42. All the bulbs below are identical. Which bulb (s) shine (s) most brightly?

1) 1 only 2) 2 only 3) 3 and 4 4) 1 and 5

43. An electron moving with velocity v along the axis approaches a circular current carrying loop as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of magnetic force on electron at this instant is :

0 evtR 2 x evtR 2 x
1) 2) 0
4  x 2  R 2 3/2 x 2
 R2 
3/2

0 evtR 2 x
3) 4) None of these
4  x 2  R 2 3/2

44. A circular coil carrying current I is placed in a region of uniform magnetic field acting perpendicular
to the coil as shown in the figure. Mark the correct option.

1) coil expands 2) coil contracts 3) coil moves left 4) coil moves right

45. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have

1) high retentivity and low coercivity

2) low retentivity and low coercivity

3) high retentivity and high coercivity

4) low retentivity and high coercivity

 CHEMISTRY
46. A tetra – atomic molecule X on reaction with nitrogen oxide (Oxidation State = 1) produces two
substances Y and Z. y is a dehydrating agent while compound Z is a diatomic gas which shows
almost inert gas behavior. The substances X, Y and Z are

1) P4 , N 2O5 , O2 2) P4 , P4O10 , Ar 3) P4 , P2O3 , O2 4) P4 , P4O10 , N 2

47. Arrange the following structure according to their increasing order of acidic behavior in polar solvent
:

1) i<ii<v<ii<iii 2) i<v<iv<iii<ii 3) i<v<iv<ii<iii 4) ii<v<iv<iii<i

48. A 0.016M of an acid solution in benzene is dropped on a water surface, the benzene evaporates and
the acid forms a monomolecular film of solid type. What volume of the above solution would be
required to cover a 500 surface area of water with monomolecular layer of acid? Area covered by
single acid molecule is 0.2.

1) 24.94  10 3 ml 2) 25.94  10 3 ml 3) 3.67  103 ml 4) 20.78  106 ml

49. Marsh gas mainly contains

1) C2 H 2 2) CH 4 3) H 2 S 4) CO

BaSO4
50. In the following reaction, CH 3COCl 
Pd / H 2
X Identify X out of the following

1) Acetaldehyde 2) Propionaldehyde 3) Acetone 4) Acetic anhydride

51.  C6 H 6 , H  130 kJ mol 1 carried n a closed vessel, the

For the gaseous reaction, C2 H 4  H 2 


equilibrium concentration of the C2 H 6 can definitely be increased by

1) increasing temperature and decreasing pressure

2) decreasing temperature and increasing pressure

3) increasing temperature and pressure both

4) decreasing temperature and pressure both

52. Amoxicillin is semi – synthetic modification of

1) Penicillin 2) Streptomycin 3) Tetracycline 4) Chloramphenicol

53. In how many of the following molecules, all atoms are in same plane?

ClF3 H 2O PCl3 BF3

SF4 H 2S OCl2 SO3
XeF6 NH 3 C6 H 6 XeF2
XeF4 PCl5 I 2 Cl6 PH 3
1) 12 2) 0 3) 10 4) 11

54. The properties of the elements are the periodic function of their atomic number. The statement is
given by

1) N. Bohr 2) J. W. Dobereiner 3) D.I. Mendeleev 4) H.G.J.Mosley

55. In the estimation of sulphur organic compound on treating with conc. HNO3 is converted to

1) SO2 2) H 2 S 3) H 2 SO4 4) SO3

56. Calculate the number of atoms in each of the following

i) 52 moles of Ar ii) 52 u of he iii) 52 g of He {NA= 6.022  10 23 }

1) 3.130 1023 ,12, 6.8284  1020

2) 3.138  10 22 ,12, 6.7854 10 28

3) 3.1311025 ,13, 7.8286 1024

4) 3.135  10 28 ,15, 6.7288 1020

57. The major product formed when 3 – methyl – 2 – pentene reacts with chlorine water is
58. This major product from by the monobromination of phenyl benzoate is

59. By adding inert gas at a constant volume, which of the following equilibrium will not be affected?

1) H 2  g   I 2  g  
 2H l g 

 2) 3H 2  g   N 2  g  
 2 NH 3  g 



3) PCl5  g  
 PCl5  g   Cl2  g 

 4) All the above

60. For an exothermic reaction, following two steps are involved.

Step 1 . A+B  I (slow)

Step 2. I  AB (fast)

Which of the following graphs correctly represent this reaction?

61. The gas evolved on heating CH 3 MgBr in methanol is :

1) Methane 2) Ethane 3) Propane 4) Hbr

62. Acetonitrile on reduction gives

1) Proapnamine 2) methanamine 3) Ethanamine 4) Propane nitrile

63. For the closest packing of atoms A (radius, rA ), the maximum radius of atom B that can be fitted into
Octahdral void is

1) 0.155rA 2) 0.125rA 3) 0.414rA 4) 0.732rA

64. Arrange in the order stability of enol form of the compounds :

1) iii>ii>i 2) i>ii>iii 3) ii>i>iii 4) ii>iii>i

65. Among the following sets of bases, which set of bases is present both in DNA and RNA?

1) Adenine, uracil, thymine 2) Adenine, guanine, cytosine

3) Addenine, guanine, uracil 4) Adenien, guanine, thymine

66. Consider the reaction, Cr2O72  14 H   6e  2Cr 3  7 H 2O

What is the quantity of electricity in coulombs needed to reduce 1 mole of Cr2O72 ? (Given :
1F=96500C)

1) 5.79  105 2) 5.69  105 3) 5.59  105 4) 5.49  105

67. Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not show geometrical isomerism? (A and B
are monodentate ligands)

1)  MA4 B2  2)  MA5 B  3)  MA2 B4  4)  MA3 B3 

68. Identify the correct statements about borazene, B3 N 3 H 6 :

i) Borazene aromatic

ii) There are four isomers of bi substituted molecule of borazene molecules,  B3 N3 H 4 X 2  .

iii) Borazene is more reactive towards addition reactions than benzene

1) only (i) 2) (i) and (ii) 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
69. When CH 2  CH  COOH is reduced with LiAlH 4 , the compound obtained will be

1) CH 3  CH 2  COOH 2) CH 2  CH  CH 2OH

3) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2OH 4) CH 3  CH 2  CHO

70. The starting material used in Solvay’s process are

1) sodium sulphate 2) Birne solution 3) Carnallite 4) All of these

71. Compound (P) forms a precipitate with AgNO3 . The precipitate dissolves in excess reagent (P). (P)
cannot be

1) KOH 2) KCN 3) Na2 S 2 O3 4) NH 3

72. Addition of sodium hydroxide solution to a weak acid (HA) results in a buffer of pH 6. If ionization
constant of HA is 10 5 , the ratio of salt to acid concentration in the buffer solution will be :

1) 10:1 2) 4:5 3) 5:4 4) 1:10

73. The electron was shown experimentally to have wave properties by

1) de Broglie 2) Davisson and Germer 3) N. Bohr 4) Schrodinger

74. The ability of an ion to bring about coagulation of a given colloid depens upon

1) Its size

2) the magnitude of its charge only

3) the sign of its charge

4) both the magnitude and the sign of its charge

75. U is equal to

1) isobaric work 2) Adiabatic work 3) Isothermal work 4) Isochoric work

76. Sodium extract is heated with concentrated HNO3 before testing for halogens because :

1) Ag 2 S and AgCN are soluble in acidic medium

2) Silver halides are totally insoluble in nitric acid

3) S 2  and CN  , if present, are decomposed by conc. HNO3 and hence do not interfere in the test

4) Ag reacts faster with halides in acidic medium

77. What amount of bomine will be required to convert 2g of phenol into 2, 4, 6 – tribromophenol

1) 4.00 2) 6.00 3) 10.22 4) 20.44

78. For the decomposition of HI at 1000 K  2 HI  H 2  I 2  , the following data were obtained

Conc. Of HI(M) Rate of decomposition of HI(mole/unit sec)

0.1 2.75  10 8
0.2 11 108
0.3 24.75  10 8
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4) 1.5

79. Molecular weight of oxalic acid is 126. The weight of oxalic acid required to neturalise 100cc of
normal solution of NaOH is

1) 6.3 gm 2) 126 gm 3) 530 gm 4) 63 gm

80. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom -328 kJ mol 1 ; hence the energy of fourth
Bohr orbit would be

1) 41kJ mol 1 2) 1312 kJ mol 1 3) 164 kJ mol 1 4) 82 kJ mol 1

81. The resistance of 1N solution of acetic acid is 250 ohm, when measure in a cell having a cell
constant of 1.15 cm1 . The equivalent conduction (in   1 cm 2 eq 1  of 1N acetic acid is …..

1) 18.4 2) 9.2 3) 4.6 4) 2.3

82.  M 2  2 A

A salt MA2 ionizes as MA2 


It was found that a given solution of the salt had the same freezing point as solution of glucose of
twice the molality. The apparent degree of ionization of the salt is

1) 0.25 2) 0.33 3) 0.50 4) 0.67

83. The solubility product of AgCl is 1.8  1010 . Precepitation of AgCl will occur only when equal
volumes of which of the following solutions are mixed?

1) 104 M Ag  and 104 M Cl  2) 107 M Ag  and 107 M Cl 

3) 10 5 M Ag  and 105 M Cl  4) 10 10 M Ag  and 1010 M Cl 

84. The important step in the extraction of metal from carbonate ore is

1) Calcination 2) Roasting 3) Electro – reduction 4) Cupellation

85. Which substance would give a solution with a boiling point below that of pure water rather than
above?

1) Sodium chloride (solid) 2) Ethyl alcohol (liquid, b.p. 610 C )

3) Sulphuric acid (liquid, b.p. > 3000 C ) 4) Sucrose sugar (solid)

86. In van der Waals equation of state for a real gas, the term accounts for intermolecular forces is

a
1) Vm  b 2) P  3) RT 4) 1/RT
Vm2

87. Which of the following properties don’t help in differentiating, different hydrated isomers of
CrCl3 .6 H 2 O ?

1) Conductivity measurements 2) Precipitation by AgNO3

3) Dipole moment 4) Magnetic moment

88. If 200 mL of He at 0.66 atm and 400 mL of O2 at 0.52 atm pressure are raised in 400 mL vessel at
200 C then find the partial pressure of He and O2

1) 0.33 and 0.55 2) 0.33 and 0.52 3) 0.38 and 0.52 4) 0.25 and 0.45

89. A metallic carbide on reaction with water gives a colourless gas which burns readily in air and gives
a precipitate with ammonical silver nitrate solution. What is the gas evolved in reaction?

1) CH 4 2) C2 H 6 3) C2 H 4 4) C2 H 2

90. The natural rubber is the polymer of

1) 1, 3 – butadiene 2) Polyamide 3) Isoprene 4) None of these

BIOLOGY
91. Spindle fibres are made up of

1) Proteins 2) Cellulose 3) Lipids 4) Pectin

92. Which of the following types of the RNA molecule can be described as soluble, relatively small, and
having a folded compact shape?

1) rRNA 2) tRNA 3) mRNA 4) Nucleolar RNA

93. Plant Nomenclature means:

1) To give names of plants without any rules

2) Nomenclature of plants under the International rules
3) Nomenclature of plants in local language
4) Nomenclature of plants in English language

94. Which of the following is used for bolting in beet?

1) Kinetin 2) Xylene 3) Ethylene 4) Gibberellin

95. A polypeptide of five amino acids is synthesized during protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. Which
one of the following can be the correct polypeptide?

1) Glycine – valine – methionine – histidine – lysine

2) Methionine – glycine – histidine – lysine – valine

3) Valine – methionine – glycine – histidine – lysine

4) Histidine – lysine – methionine – valine - glycine

96. What is true for cyanobacteria?

1) Non-Oxygenic without nitrogenase

2) Non-oxygenic with nitrogenase

3) Oxygenic with nitrogenase

4) Oxygenic without nitrogenase

97. To determine whether F1 hybrid is homozygous or heterozygous for a particular trait_________

cross is performed.

1) Monohybrid 2) Test 3) Back 4) Reciprocal

98. How many pigment molecules constitute a single photosystem?

1) 2500 2) 250-400 3) 2000 4) 2

99. Anthihistamine pills are to nullify

1) Allergic reaction 2) Malaria 3) Typhoid 4) None of above

100. A cell swells up when kept in

1) Hypotonic solution 2) Hypertonic solution

3) Isotonic solution 4) All of the above

101. Sphenoid bone is found in:

1) Hind limb 2) Lower Jaw 3) Pelvic girdle 4) Skull

102. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is:

1) Beijernickia 2) Rhodospirillum 3) Rhizobium 4) Azotobacter

103. Which of the following material is not safe to prepare carry bags?

1) Cloth 2) Paper 3) Jute 4) Polythene

104. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in

1) Lysosomes 2) Nucleolus 3) Nucleoplasm 4) Ribosomes

105. In Kreb’s cycle, the conversion of oxalosuccinate into α- ketoglutarate involves_________reaction.

1) Oxidation 2) Reduction 3) Hydration 4) Decarboxylation

106. Some of the stages in the hydrarch are labeled as

I. Marsh meadow stage

II. Reed swamp stage

III. submerged plant stage

IV. Phytoplankton stage

V. Free-floating plant stage

Identify the choice that represents the correct sequence of these stages

1) IV, III, V, II and I 2) III, V, I,II and IV

3) II, IV, III, I and V 4) IV, V, III, II and I

107. Mule is an example of ________

1) Cross – breeding 2) Interspecific gybridization 3) Out- breeding 4) Out crossing

108. During rDNA technology, which one of the following enzymes is used for cleaving DNA molecule?

1) Exonuclease 2) Endonuclease 3) Restriction endonuclease 4) Helicase

109. The chemical method of contraception includes

1) Jellies only 2) Creams and foams only 3) Oral contraceptives only 4) All of the above

110. Consider the following statements regarding photosynthesis and state which is/are correct?

I. ATP formation during photosynthesis is termed as photophosphorylation.

II. Kranz anatomy pertains to leaf.

III. The reduction of NADP+ to NADPH occurs during the Calvin cycle.

IV. In a chlorophyll molecule, managanese is the metalion.

1) I and II correct 2) III and IV are correct

3) I and III are correct 4) I and IV correct

111. Pollen tube at the time of entering embryo sac has

1) Four gametes 2) Three male gametes

3) Two male gametes 4) One gametic nucleus

112. Knee and elbow joint is an example of

1) Hinge joint 2) Gliding joint 3) Ball and socket joint 4) Pivot joint
113. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

i. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several monocot plants, is able to deliver a piece of

DNA know as “T- DNA”.

ii. The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been modified into a cloning

vector, which is no more pathogenic to the plants.

1) Both I and ii are correct 2) I is correct, while ii is incorrect

3) I is incorrect, while ii is correct 4) Both I and ii are incorrect

114. The conversion of nitrate to nitrogen is called

1) Nitrification 2) Denitrification 3) Ammonification 4) Nitrogen fixation

115. In man, recessive characters like haemophilia are mainly transmitted through

1) Y- chromosome 2) Chromosome number 12

3) X-chromosome 4) Chromosome number 11

116. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone know as

1) GH 2) Prolactin 3) LH 4) FSH

117. The biogeographic region in india having maximum endemism for amphibians is

1) The Western Ghats 2) The indo-Burma region

3) The Himalayan range 4)The Gangetic plains

118 Biosphere reserve are different from national park as

1) Humans are not integral part of biosphere reserve

2) Plants and animals are protected in biosphere reserves

3) Humans are an integral part of the biosphere reserve

4) Only plants are protected in an In-situ environment

119. The chemotherapeutic substance derived from a living organism that has an inhibitory effect on the
parasitic organism is known as

1) Exotoxin 2) Bactericide 3) Antibody 4) Antibiotic

120. Phyllode is an adaptation to

1) Heterophtic environment 2) Halophytic environment

3) Mesophytic environment 3) Xerophytic environment

121. Analyze the floral formula given below.

The floral formula corresponds to which of the following?

1) Crotolaria and Astragalus 2) Lepidium and lbaeris

3) Allium and Asparagus 4) Vetiveria and Cymbopogon

122. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of

1) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

2) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

3) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

4) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

123. The hardest part of the animal body is

1) Bone 2) Hair 3) Dentine 4) Enamel

124. Why is insulin not orally administered to the patient?

1) Insulin is a steroid

2) it is bitter in taste.

3) its activity increases after digestion.

4) It will be digested in the stomach and will become non-functional.

125. Below diagram showing a technique for the culture of plants. This technique has been successfully
employed for the production of which of the following?

1) Tomato, Apple, Guava and Fig 2) Cucumber, Potato and Banyan

3) Cucumber, Lettuce and Tomato 4) Lettuce, Apple, Potato and Mango

126. Identify the given epithelium in the diagram with its correct location.

Epithelium Location
a) Ciliated columnar Nephron
b) Ciliated cuboidal Trachea
c) Ciliated columnar Fallopian tube
d) Compound Skin

1) Epithelium Location

Ciliated columnar Nephron

2) Epithelium Location

Ciliated cuboidal Trachea

3) Epithelium Location

Ciliated columnar fallopian tube

4) Epithelium Location

Compound Skin

127. In a standard ECG, which one of the following is the correct representation of the respective activity
of the human Heart?

1) S – start of systole 2) T – end of diastole

3) P – depolarization of the atria 4) R - repolarisation of ventricles

128. Consider the diagram below and choose the correct option regarding the structures (a-d).
 1)
Colleterial Vas deference Ejaculatoryduct Anal cercus
gland

2)
Phallicgland Vasdeference Ejaculatoryduct Analcercus

3)
Phallicgland Ejaculatoryduct Vasduct Caudalstyle

4)
Phallicgland Vasdeference Ejaculatoryduct Titilator

129. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in freshwater and whose larvae after metamorophosis return to the
ocean is

1) Rohu 2) Neomyxine 3) Petromyzon 4) Eptatretus

130. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

1)Effector organs to CNS 2) Receptors to CNS 3) CNS to receptors 4) CNS to muscles

131. Water potential is equal to

1) ψs + O.P. 2)ψs + T.P. 3) ψs + ψw 4) ψs + ψp

132. The organism shown in the given diagram is

1) Spirogyra 2) Ulothrix 3) Oscillatoria 4) Vovox

133. Which of the following STDs are not completely curable?

1) Genital herpes 2) Hepatitis –B 3) AIDS 4) All of these

134. The largest land dinosaur was

1) Stegosaurus 2) Tyrannosaurus 3) Brachiosaurus 4) Triceraptops

135. Synaptonemal complex is formed during

1) Pachytene 2) Zygotene 3) Leptotene 4) Diplotene

136. Why is carbon monoxide (CO) poisonous for man?

1) It affects the nerves of the lungs

2) It affects the diaphragm and intercostal muscles.

3) It reacts with the oxygen-reducing percentage of oxygen in the air

4) Haemoglobin combines with carbon monoxide instead of oxygen and the product cannot

dissociate.
137. Organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature are called
1) Stenothermal 2)Homeotherms 3) Poikilotherms 4) Eurythermal

138. A person suffering from cancer is treated with radiotherapy. Which of the following techniques is
used in the treatement?

1) All tumou cells and surrounding normal cells get killed

2) It is meant to cure damaged DNA
3) Radiations activated p53 gene of tumour cell
4) Tumour cells are irradiated lethally

139. An example of gene therapy is:

1) Production of injectabel hepatitis B vaccine

2) Production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which can be eaten

3) Introduction of the gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from Severe Combined

Immuno Deficiency (SCID)

4) Production of test – tube babies by artificial insemination and implation of fertilized eggs.

140. Which is incorrect regarding Hisardale?

1) It is developed through cross – breeding 2)it is a hybrid breed.

3) It is a milch breed. 4) It is a high wool-producing crossbreed.

141. Grave’s disease is characterized by the following, except

1) Deposition of fats in eye sockets 2) Enlargement of thyroid gland

3) Weight loss 4) Weight gain

142. Which one of following is complex V of the ETS of inner mitochondrial membrance?

1) NADH Dehydrogenase 2) Cytochrome oxidase

3) Ubiquinone 4) ATP synthase

143. Which combination fo gases is suitable for fruit ripening?

1) CO2 and C2 H6 2) CH4 and CO2 3) CO2 and O2 4) C2H4 and CO2
144. Which one of the following is a matching pair of certain organism(s) and the kind of association?

1) Sea anemone and clownfish – Commensalism

2) Red algae and fungi in liches – Mutualism

3) Orchids growing on trees – Parasitism

4) Cuscuta (dodder) growing on other flowering plants- Epiphysis

145. The correct sequence of reactions in Krebs cycle is:

1) Isocitric acid →α – ketoglutaric acid → oxalosuccinic acid

2) Isocitric acid →oxalosuccinic acid →α – ketoglutatric acid

3) Oxalosuccinic acid → citric acid →α – ketoglutatric acid

4) α – ketoglutaric acid →isocitric acid →oxalosuccinic acid

146. The process of spermiogenesis involves all of the following, except

1) Formation of mitochondrial sheath 2) Formation of proximal and distal centrioles

3) Formation of acrosomes 4) Shortening of sperm

147. What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixes?

1) Both are a sexual method of reproduction 2) Both produce progeny identical to the parent

3) Both are applicable to only dicot plants 4) Both bypass the flowering plant

148. Protists are:

1. Unicellular and prokaryote

2. Unicellular and enukaryote

3. Multicellular and eukaryote

4. Autotroph and heterotrophy

1) 1,2 and 3 2) 2.3. and 4 3) 3 and 4 4) 2 and 4

149. Which of the following are surface structures of a prokaryotic cell, but does not facilitate motility?

1) Pili 2) Flagella 3) Fimbriae 4) Both (A) and (C)

150. Which of the following types of bacteria were used in Griffith’s transformation experiment?

1) Diplococcus, R-III and S-II type 2) Penumococcus, T2 phage

3) Streptococcus, R-II and S-III type 4) Diplococcus, E. coli

151. Read the different components from (i) to (iv) in the list given below and tell the correct order of the
components with reference to their arrangement from the outer side to the inner side in a woody
dicot stem:
(i) Secondary cortex
(ii) Wood
(iii) Secondary phloem
(iv) Phellem
1) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) 2) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
3) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) 4) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

152. Which type of arrangement is shown by the vascular bundle in the given diagram?

1) Open vascular bundies 2) Closed vascular bundles

3) Conjoint vascular bundles 4) Radial vascular bundles

153. Select the correct statements with respect to poultry farm management.
1) The word poultry is often used to refer to the meat of only birds.
2) They typically include chicken and ducks, and sometimes turkey and geese.
3) Leghorn is an improved breed of chicken
4) All of these

154. Which one is the cofactor of carboxypeptidase?

1) Iron 2) Zinc 3) Copper 4) Magnesium
155. Which of the following forms the pioneer community in hydrarch succession?
1) Wolffia 2) Phytoplankton 3) Lichen 4) Submerged free-floating plants
156. The egrets always forage close to where the cattle are grazing. The interaction between them can be
called.
1) Brood Parasitism 2) Parasitism 3) Mutualism 4) Commensalism
157. Each of the following statements concerning the seminiferous epithelium is true except.
1) Before puberty, it contains spermatids
2) It consists of Sertoli cells and spermatogenic cells
3) It has a robust basement membrane

4) its basal compartment contains spermatogonia

158. Find the mismatched pair.

1) Physical barriers – Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the gastrointestinal tracts.

2) Physiological barriers – acid in the stomach

3) Cellular barriers – MPNL – neutrophils

4) Cytokine barriers – saliva in mouth

159. How many of the daughter cells obtained from a megaspore mother cell result in the formation of
monosporic embryo sac?

1) Four 2) Three 3) Two 4) One

160. Identify the type of transport labelled (i), (ii), and (iii) in the diagram given below.

1)

(i) (ii) (iii)

Passive Active Facilitated

2)

(i) (ii) (iii)

Symport Antiport Uniport

3)

(i) (ii) (iii)

Uniport Antiport Symport

4)

(i) (ii) (iii)

Uniport Symport Antiport

161. The mode of excretion in which animal excrete urea as major excretory waste is called

1) Ureotelism 2) uricotelism 3) Ammonotelism 4) Aminotelism

162. Industrial melanism is an example of

1) Protective resemblance with the surroundings

2) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations

3) Drug resistance

4) Artifical selection

163. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1) p BR322 – Enzyme 2) Ligase – Molecular glue

3) Agrobacterium – Production of lnsulin 4) EcoRI – Plasmid vector

164. The part of nephron involved in conditional reabsorption of sodium is

1) Distal convoluted tubule 2) Proximal convoluted tubule

3) Bowman’s capsule 4) Descending limb of Henle’s loop

165. The serial arrangement of taxon/taxonomic category is known as

1) Category 2) Classification 3) Hierarchy 4) Taxonomy

166. The pro-hormone insulin is processed to become a fully mature and functional insulin hormone by
removal of

1) C peptide 2) A peptide 3) B peptide 4) Both (A) and (B)

167. The green alga used by T.W Engelmann in his prism experiment is

1) Chlorella 2) Spirogyra 3) Cladophora 4) Ulothrix

168. Which of the following does not match?

1) Pancreas – Largest exocrine gland 2) Antigen – Antibody

3) Thyroid – Goitre 4) Enzyme – Substrate

169. In five kingdom classification, ascomycetes are included in

1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Animalia 4) Fungi

170. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to

1) Auxin 2) Gibberellins 3) Ethylene 4) ABA

171. Regeneration of a plant cell to give rise to new plant is called:

1) Reproduction 2) Budding 3) Totipotency 4) Pleuripotency

172. The end of juvenile phase mark the beginning of

1) Vegetative phase 2) Reproductive phase3) Senescence 4) Ageing

173. Each testicular lobule contains________convoluted seminiferous tubules.

1) 1 to 3 2) 5 to 7 3) 8 to 10 4) 11 to 14

174. Maximum bioconcentration of pesticide residues is usually found in birds that exclusively feed on

1) Fish 2) Seeds 3) Worms 4) Meat

175. Which one of the following groups of animals are correctly matched with their two characteristic
morphological features?

1) Columba, Equus, and Balaenoptera – Dorsal hollow nerve cord and poikilothermous
2) Pteropus, Pavo, Macropus, and Psittacula – 4 chambered heart and homeothermy
3) Ascaris, wuchereria and Pheretima – Pseudocoelomates and metamerism
4) Dentalium, Octopus, Apis, and Bombyx – Open circulatory system and dorsal nerve cord

176. Find the correct pair.

1) Arthritis – Decreased bone mass 2) Diabetes mellitus – Deficience of ADH

3) Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain 4) Emphysema – inflammation of bronchi

177. Antherozoids of both Funaria and Pteris were released together near the archegonia of Pteris. Only
its sperms enter the archegonia as

1) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms

2) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris sperms

3) Funaria sperms are less mbile

4) Pteris archegonia release chemical to attract its sperms

178. The gynoecium may have more than on e pistil. Such a condition is called

1) Monocarpellary 2) Apocarpous 3) Syncarpous 4) Multicarpellary

179. Select the incorrect statement.

1) Large holes in Swiss cheese are due to production of a large amount of CO2

2) Protease and pectinase is used to clarify the bottled juices

3) Penicillin was discovered by Florey

4) In mycorrhiza, the fungi help in the absorption of nutrients

180. Which one is polymer?

1) Sucrose 2) Glycogen 3) Fructose 4) Lactose