my CBS Eguide.com Cop ade or CSE dons SET-1 Series BVM/3 con 57/3/1 waa. ir. wand ere a TAG FETE 1 arava fora | Candidates must write the Code on the title page of the answer-book. «© pun ate a a fe ea yeaa i afer ge 11 2 | oowea 4 afta wa ft ak feu mw ais ae ol om saCgfera H AGE fer | © Pea a a fe ea ye A Tog | «Baa Wea a Se fore aes wer SUE, ee aT HT aaa fore | °F wee aioe & few 15 fire on ae feo eT | Se 10.15 a3 fan ste | 10.15 ast 10.30 a3 ae OTF act Wea HET fe wa wale & doa 4 oa-gheran 1 ag oer wel fers | + Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages. * Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate. + Please check that this question paper contains 27 questions. + Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it. + 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 am. to 10.30 am., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period. vita fag (agree) BIOLOGY (Theory) Fretted wT : 3 ee HBT BK + 70 Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70 [5713/1 | 1 P.T.O.my CBS Eguide.com Complete ide for CBSE students rare Fide: () weaaa am aut F ger 27 eT Ree me BY) aett oe afta BY (ii) woe or F eq wen 1 & 5 ant ary-aerdia eB, weds eT 1 aie Te | (iii) wus aH ed Tea 6 & 12 cg-sa wer VOR 8, se eT aici we | (iv) Ue aH Wey HEM 1S F 24 YFP WET WR IL B, Wee METS aT Te | (vy) wre ea rer ae 25 a 27 toa wer & yee wer Soe are / (vi) aaa HF arma oe aie Freer TET 8, fe PA ater arch zh aeat HD stat art a weal #, 3 oat amet ae weal Ff athe 5 ated aed at al weal at atin? aad Freer feu me & | wet There aP 0e weal & eh fawout F & ale ve wer Ber eT e | (vii) orraRrRagA, Peat ar tar are goe ws weitere aT BT ATE | General Instructions: @ (ui) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) There are a total of 27 questions and four sections in the question paper. AUl questions are compulsory. Section A contains questions number 1 to 5, very short-answer type questions of I mark each. Section B contains questions number 6 to 12, short-answer type I questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains questions number 13 to 24, short-answer type H questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains questions number 25 to 27, long-answer type questions of 5 marks each. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in two questions of 1 mark, two questions of 2 marks, four questions of 3 marks and all the three questions of 5 marks. In these questions, an examinee is to attempt any one of the two given alternatives. Wherever necessary, the diagram drawn should be neat and properly labelled. (5773/1 | 22. tyCBSEguide.com Complete ge for CBSE sndends ws Ht SECTION A ae shat # fafeaa ofteatara at wet erdt 221 ero feafian | 1 Why are no variations seen in clones ? State two reasons. wa Sau, afeegs qa wm ae. afeedices H ae sit BE fifa | 1 Differentiate between a DNA and a RNA nucleotide. SO dis & aaa “areew’ waz ? 1 What is ‘Saltation’ according to de Vries ? 3a sha an aera ae ferftan fare 1 aed aed EU east Feil a viata ft aden als At | sere faa sta art fen ae Gam oT Hae Samy 7 1 amet arate Sar aaa hl eae & fer ee we fats ar aera aifare | 1 Write the scientific name of the organism Alexander Fleming worked on and discovered the first antibiotic, Was the organism he worked on a fungus or a bacterium ? OR Suggest a method to overcome excessive inbreeding depression. trerbfes da W ‘aitgie-fos’ & farm sacardt squep or ara farted | 1 avat aida SEsitaes & alate diese tat A gel arse | 1 Name the pollutant attributed to be the cause of ‘ozone-hole’ over the Antaretica region. OR List the greenhouse gases other than carbon dioxide. ['57/3/1 | 3 PTO.tyCBSEguide.com Complete ede for CBSE sadn wea SECTION B (a) Te oy & feed ci faire afaant A adi argu ot a ag TT Fl Uh ASS TeEM TATA Z | (bo) tar Serer 2 fe eH cee & fee ey wah ae GT daw’ a TRUTH Sl MICA aH SAT SoA aa @ | aT SG Bae Tena J 2 oT at & anda Foe aren dif | (a) List any two characteristic features of wheat flowers that make it a good example of wind pollination. (b) It is observed that plant breeders carrying out wheat hybridisation often take pollen grains from the ‘pollen banks’. Do you agree ? Give one reason in support of your answer. et fasia aan sisq fasin 4 stat eae Afar | Differentiate between Turner’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome. sian sateen a fapfaa an a stadt aa Aadtermsit nea daa it career eifara | Explain the relationship between B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in developing an immune response. ane Tar 4S... ae Gears A caren aa ht? Fig a arco fata | aaa wree-saien & valent 8 Sr a acres fem Afar | Why has the Indian Government set up the organisation named GEAC ? Give any two reasons. OR Give a schematic representation of the transformation of a pro-insulin into insulin. (5773/1 | 4tyCBSEguide.com Complete aide for CBSE dents 10. ‘Ori P12 ? dares FI acihin & gaa Here feafean | 2 azar Up faa Jaren oh aera o “Gang fame’ oh Aes cht cane ifs | What is ‘Ori’ ? State its importance during cloning of a vector. OR Explain the importance of ‘selectable marker’, with the help of a suitable example. ll. feet sree 4 up safe Ft Gter arma’ aa 2? Gea (aifafeem) ofy Aisa hl af aerelgel wai AAT aT @ ? 3 What is ‘carrying capacity’ of a species in a habitat ? Why is logistic growth model considered more realistic ? 12. “Sait a fits ata Gein (wet) HaeaT A eee cen ae aia ae ei ere 0” aa Ht a Ferg sifare | 2 Justify the statement, “Pyramid of energy is always upright, and can never be inverted.” Ns wea SECTION C 13.0 an wet a ofa aH ag ses At amen & aaa og fet die quran sara ft caren fifa | 3 ara salt sees & Ue ag dia afte fafau ai ama ade HK Gora sicd & | cafe SaNU chi ae aa & few aeate wa are fardi dia sori Al Gel sae | 3 Explain any three remedial measures to overcome the acute air pollution in our cities. OR Write any three ways by which noise pollution affects the human body adversely. List any three steps that should be followed in order to reduce noise pollution. ['57/3/1 | 5 PTO.tyCBSEguide.com Complete guide for CBSE students 14. (a) fat ofa At waite sereqat ar 2 aon sa fee eR ore aed 2? (>) fevfeftad arte ger eater @, sect aren Fife | wait. = oii. — am aerat (a) 3a yar & anne ar am feta fred arsed ata uta a cin 2 1 a far a arent Ht ach argu at omer Fi a si aaa | (ob) area waa & aor eifeee cen aster vise & fafa aor fafaz | (a) What is the primary productivity of an ecosystem and how is it expressed ? (b) _ Explain what does the equation given below show : NPP =GPP-R OR (a) Name the type of detritus that decomposes faster. List any two factors that enhance the rate of decomposition. (b) — Write the different steps taken in humification and mineralisation during the process of decomposition. 15. (a) fefafea & ahaarn Ft get Fife : @) — yaardt (attariet) aan agardi (xeataiet) stra Gi) Gaerantt (qieersa) aon agent (Keateeares) sia (b) Gra ater? & ofa ware atk fee wae eagle (eftericreys) a aa @ ? (a) Compare the characteristics of the following : (@ Eurythermal and Stenothermal organisms (ii) Euryhaline and Stenohaline organisms (b) How does our body get acclimatized to ‘altitude sickness’ ? (5773/1 | 616. 17. 18. 19. tyCBSEguide.com opt ge fr CBSE sds faary daa aft ones aac Foon fam At feel at Saerahaventies ate fafau | a a fadt ump & fagia At ren Fifa | 3 azar arfed aa & ffdiew stan & dtr separa Te act apr avis ifsc, | 3 Write any two biochemical/molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral infection. Explain the principle of any one of them. OR Describe the steps that are followed during secondary treatment of sewage. SR ana F Sel & fee grey sos va Al saa feed da fae (sea) at Bl ae ga aa Hr ? 3 How did the plant breeders produce suitable varieties of sugarcane for cultivation in North India ? Why did they do it? fot vada aa wr & chm, Bo sal A tell h cam ocqa Be eI 3 (a) feréi a test afeet fi qet ware | (b) feeréi ai erat & TH ferfeae (co) fare a wieterset (eeitest) Ft aah age While on an excursion to a hill station, some of the children developed allergic symptoms. (a) List any two allergic symptoms. (b) Name any two allergens. (©) List any two antiallergens. ‘oas 4 fabian & yaa are ari (net M1) area wes ar wngula orp has aor gra farcara at wa facsfafied sere @ 1” care aif 3 “Appearance of melanised moths post-industrialisation in England is a classic example of evolution by natural selection.” Explain. ['57/3/1 | 7 PTO.20. 21. tyCBSEguide.com Complete guide for CBSE students ama Sida wise & wed ara sida afi apis o: fesreand ferfau | Write any six salient features of the human genome as drawn from the human genome project. fara aa 2? gale a fem Pater cae Al earer sifae | aaa Bachna 4 Pasar eh arwa.c. (hnRNA) a Wd: Gai CH. snt.ea.e, (mRNA) & fran & seen Fi eave Fifa | wifes A ae veRA Hel BTA ia a? What is heterogamety ? Explain the mechanism of sex determination in Drosophila. oR Explain the process of making heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) into a fully functional mRNA in eukaryotes. Where does this process occur in the cell ? (a) ferét diva & otatttert aftat (ong.4.<1.) % aH fafaq cen sat feats ft crear Fifa | (b) “Gee? are aie ar afte & ea a sam ae amt At ae aT | (a) Name and explain the mode of action of any two types of IUDs. (b) List the advantages of using ‘Saheli’ as a contraceptive. (a) wa Stary ai se? aa aa are ? (b) Sasieifcht 4 qersicawr (aremisaee) car Sia aA? chi eT Ai aren Fifa | (a) Why should a bacterium be made ‘competent’ ? (b) Explain the role of ‘microinjection’ and ‘gene gun’ in biotechnology. (5773/1 | 8tyCBSEguide.com Complete guide for CBSE students 24. wh orga men & aahesa goraig Al aque I ave ware | gat fafa Ai fata act aa arrifeed Sifae cer sar are fear Draw a T.S. of a young anther of an angiosperm. Label the different layers of the wall and write their functions. 25. (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) [5713/1 wes SECTION D TE -eicat satin + after At ye At caren cAifsa | areas great 4 feria were & wee et Geass ofeeast aa a aifae it dee Fee aw semantic cic #1 agar fea Aoamia & dea wt cheers a age Fife fea oa (cetdier) ahr fara tat 2 | arin & aoq sam (adel) Ft yh Fi core Fife qa gar saad ns eo and ot fi i caren Sif | Explain the role of stigma in pollen-pistil interactions. Describe the post-pollination events leading to double fertilization in angiosperms, starting with a two-celled pollen grain. OR Mention the events that lead to the development of placenta during pregnancy in human females. Explain the role of placenta during pregnancy including its action as an endocrine organ. amy &a var amd fe sem wet ar fea men cat chen aaaant (erisigta) @ sear fara (eetoeTa) Pe aa At aera GF aR sot at seria ifs | 9 PRO:tyCBSEguide.com Complete guide for CBSE students (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) 27. (a) (b) (c) wa eo a FOU a Wea wie & Peed aa frrafafiad @ : @ o1:2:1 Gi) 3:1 webs Hara eT eater 8 2 sge ifr | aaat Sa yan 4 ea wa da a fata (feaitfaea) °°P ae Ss ar saan wai fear 2 caren fifa | SU TaN A re GRO & STI OT rea aT Paces fapret aie a? How would you find out whether a given tall garden pea plant is homozygous or heterozygous ? Substantiate your answer with the help of Punnett squares. Given below are the F,-phenotypic ratios ‘of two independently carried monohybrid crosses : @ dedi Gi) 3:1 Mention what does each ratio suggest. OR Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive °2P and *°S in their experiments ? Explain. Following the experiments conducted by them, write what conclusion did they arrive at and how. 3a cima ciovien on fafre arm ferfau ot masa afa afi te aT are @ 1 1 an am fear | aiber & dea am ft oa citeenat a acid fife i Arar witete 4 aera ari é | aa Seer ama Fl ora eeaienst ¥ sam ard 2, al a aT aftacs era 2 aren Aire | aes a ake oe gaa FAT NTA USAT B ? aaa ferdi dia aafaa saree Al aera a araaed aa Sasa & de aneticn daa Fi caren cifare, | (5773/1 | 10tyCBSEguide.com Complete guide for CBSE students (a) Write the specific name of the genus Plasmodium that causes one of the most serious types of diseases in humans. Name the disease. (b) Describe the events in the life cycle of Plasmodium which take place in the female Anopheles. (c) Explain what happens in the RBCs of the humans when Plasmodium gains entry into them. How does the human body get affected ? OR Explain the interrelationship between organic farming and biofertilizers, with the help of any three suitable examples. [5713/1 11@ myCBSEguide.com A Complete guide for CBSE Strictly Confidential: (For Internal and Restricted use only) Senior School Certificate Examination March 2049 Marking Scheme - BIOLOGY (SUBJECT CODE 044) (PAPER CODE — 57/3-1,2,3) General Instructions: - te You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully. Evaluation is a 10-12 days mission for all of us. Hence, it is necessary that you put in your best efforts in this process. . Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme: It should not be done according to one's own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and marks be awarded to them. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer book$ evaluated by each evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators, Ifa question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. Ifa question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left hand margin and encircled. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once. . A full scale of marks 0-70 has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e. 8 hours every day and evaluate 25 answer books per day. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in the past:- * Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book. Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it. Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page. Wrong question wise totaling on the title page. Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page. Wrong grand total. Marks in words and figures not tallying, Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list. Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.) * Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.Qe ry CBSE guide.com A Complete guide for CBSE students 11. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked as (X) and awarded zero (0) Marks. 12. Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personne! engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concemed, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously. 13. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the Guidelines for spot Evaluation before starting the actual evaluation. 14. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words. 15. The Board permits candidates to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request in an RTI application and also separately as a part of the re-evaluation process on payment of the processing charges.& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 1. Ans, . Staphylococci Question Paper Code 57/3/1 SECTION-A (Q. Nos. 1-5 are of one mark each) Why are no variations seen in clones ? State two reasons. + Clones are produced from one parent / produced by mitosis / product of asexual reproduction 4 + Nofusion of gametes /no syngamy/ no meiosis / no recombination = ¥& [1 Mark] Differentiate between a DNA and a RNA nucleotide. DNA NUCLEOTIDE, RNA NUCLEOTIDE, Deoxyribose sugar Ribose sugar Pyrimidine -Thymine Pyrimidine - Uracil (Note - corresponding 2 differences) =Mt [1 Mark] What is 'Saltation' according to de Vries ? Single step large mutation / random and directionless mutation / mutation related to speciation =1 [1 Mark] ‘Write the scientific name of the organism Alexander Fleming worked on and discovered the first antibiotic. Was the organism he worked on a fungus or a bacterium ? Ye Bacteria=“% [1 Mark] OR Suggest a method to overcome excessive inbreeding depression. . Out cross // mating with unrelated superior animal of the same breed [1 Mark] M019 - SML33 4& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 5. Name the pollutant attributed to be the cause of 'ozone-hole' over the Antarctica region. Ans, CFC/Chloroflourecarbon (1 Mark] OR List the greenhouse gases other than carbon dioxide, Ans. CH, ,CFC , N,O/ oxides of N, (All three gases = 1 Mark) 6. (a) (b) Ans. (a) (b) (One Two gases = 2 Mark) [1 Mark} SECTIONB (Q. Nos. 6-12 are of two marks each) List any two characteristic features of wheat flowers that make ita good example of ‘wind pollination. It is observed that plant breeders carrying out wheat hybridisation often take pollen grains from the ‘pollen banks'. Do you agree ? Give one reason in support of your answer. Light pollen grains /pollen grains more in number /exposed stamen / feathery stigma/single ovule / numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence (Any two) = 134" . Yes=2 : Viability of wheat pollen grain is only 30 minutes and so it can be stored in pollen bank foralong period oftime = [1+1=2 Marks] 7. Differentiate between Turner's syndrome and Down's syndrome, s0i9- STM12.3 5& myCBSEguide.com A Complete guide for CBSE students Ans, |TURNER’S SYNDROME DOWN’S SYNDROME (i) Absence of one X chromosome /44+X0 (i) Trisomy of 21 chromosome /Extra XO condition /monosomy of sex chromosome copy of 21st Chromosome =] % Ans. lin females/ 45 withXO (ii) Only females are affected (ii) Both Male and female are affected (ii) fernales sterile / ovary rudimentary / (ii) short stature with small round head/ lack of secondary sexual character/ short stature furrowed tongue and partially open mouth/palm is broad with characteristic] palm crease Any one corresponding difference either from (ii) or from (iii) = 1 [2 Marks} Explain the relationship between B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in developing an immune response. B-lymphocytes- produce antibodies to fight pathogen =1 T-lymphocytes - do not produce antibodies but help B cells to produce them / can also destroy pathgen directly =1 [2 Marks} Why has the Indian Government set up the organisation named GEAC ? Give any two reasons. To check the Validity of GM cfops , safety of introduction of GM organism for public services =141 [2 Marks] OR M19 - SM 6& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 10. Ans. i. Give a schematic representation of the transformation of a pro-insulin into insulin. Proinsulin F Arey je» Insulin Free C peptide [2 Marks} What is 'Ori' ? State its importance during cloning of a vector, + Specific sequences of DNA where replication starts = 1 * Helps in the replication of alien DNA when attached to Ori =" + controls copy number=% [2 Marks} OR Explain the importance of ‘selectable marker’, with the help of a suitable example. Ithelps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants , selectively permit ing the growth of transformant: ath Genes coding for antibiotic resistance such as ampicillin /tetracycline/kenamycin/chloramphenicol or (any other antibiotic) are used as selectable marker (Any two) = 2+ ¥ [2 Marks} ‘What is ‘carrying capacity’ of a species in a habitat ? Why is logistic growth model considered more realistic ? “Maximum number of individuals a habitat can support (at given time)= Since resources are limited / finite and sooner or later they become limiting (so logistic growth model is more realistic) =1 [2 Marks} smi9 - S1M12.3 7& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 12. Ans, 13. 14. Justify the statement, "Pyramid of energy is always upright, and can never be inverted." Energy flow is always in one direction / Energy is always more at the producer level / Energy is lost at each successive trophic level in the form of heat (Any two correct points) = 1 +1 [2 Marks] SECTION-C (Q. Nos. 13-24 are of three marks each) Explain any three remedial measures to overcome the acute air pollution in our cities. Electrostatic precipitators to remove paritculate matter present in the exhaust from thermal power plant/ Scrubber to remove SO, from the exhaust of thermal power plant / Alternative sources of energy in place of petrol / Lead free petrol or diesel / Catalytic convertors- to reduce lead pollution / Use of CNG J Use of low sulphur petrol and diesel / Phasing out of old vehicles /Stringent enforcement of pollution level norms (Any three) =1x3 [3 Marks} OR Write any three ways by which noise pollution affects the human body adversely. List any three steps that should be followed in order to reduce noise pollution. Sleeplessness/ Increased heart beat /Altered breathing pattern /Damage hearing ability / Damage ear drum (Any three) = Y% 3 Three steps to be followed to reduce noise pollution Following of stringent laws laid down in relation to noise level / Delimitation of horn free zones around hospitals and schools /To adopt permissible sound level of crackers and loudspeakers / Adhereing to time limit for loudspeakers beyond which it cannot be played / Use of sound absorbent material in industries / muffling of noise (Any three) = 2x3 [3 Marks] (a) Whatis the primary productivity of an ecosystem and how is it expressed ? (b) Explain what does the equation given below show : NPP = GPP —R @ - Primary Productivity is defined as Rate of biomass production = | . Expressed as @?yr'/(keal m2)yr! =" (bh) Gross primary productivity minus respiratory loss is the net primary productivity = 1 . Which is available to the next trophic level =" [12+ 1% =3 Marks] 010 - STM123 8& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 15. 16. (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) OR ‘Name the type of detritus that decomposes faster. List any two factors that enhance the rate of decomposition. Write the different steps taken in humification and mineralisation during the process of decomposition, : Detritus rich in N3, water soluble substance like sugar = 2+ 12 . Factors - Warm temperature / moist environment /availability of oxygen (Any two)= ¥2+¥ Humification - Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous substance called humus which is resistant to micorbial action and undergoes decomposition ata very slow rate =" Mineralisation - humus is further degraded by microbes releasing inorganic nutrients = [241 =3 Marks] Compare the characteristics of the following = () —_Eurythermal and Stenothermal organisms (i) Euryhalineand Stenohaline organisms How does our body get acclimatized to ‘altitude sickness’ ? @ Organism that tolerate wide range of temperature , Organism that are restricted to narrow range of temperature = 2+ Gi) Organism that tolerate wide range of salinity, Organism restricted to narrow range of salinity="24%4 Increase of RBC production / decrease binding affinity of Hb to oxygen/ increase of breathing rate (Any two) = 24% [2+1= 3 Marks] Write any two biochemical/molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral infection. Explain the principle of any one of them. ELISA, PCR=141 ELISA — antigen antibody interaction/ PCR — amplification of nucleic acid for its identification (Anyone) =1 [3 Marks} sm19- S1M12.3 9& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 17. 18. 1% OR Describe the steps that are followed during secondary treatment of sewage. InAcration tank effluent agitated mechanically , air pumped allows the growth of flocs , consumes organic matter , reduces BOD, Effluent pumped to settling tank to allow sedimentation of bacterial flocs called activated sludge ,a small part of which is used as inoculum and the restis pumped into anaerobic sludge digester for complete digestion of anaerobic bacteria and effluent is released into the natural water body (steps should be in correct sequence) = 2 x 6 [3 Marks} How did the plant breeders produce suitable varieties of sugarcane for cultivation in North India ? Why did they doit? + Saccharum barberi indigenous to North India with low sugar content and yield , crossed with South Indian Saccharum officinarum having thick stem and high sugar content= 1 + 1 + Toimprove the yield= 1 [3 Marks] While on an excursion to a hill station, some of the children developed allergic symptoms. (a) Listany twoallergic symptoms. (b) Name any two allergens. (©) Listany two antiallergens. (@) Sneezing/ watery eyes / running nose/ difficulty in breathing (Any two) =¥2+'4 (b) Dust/pollen/ animal dander / mites (Any two) =42+4 (c) Anti-histamine/ adrenalin / steroids (Any two)=\2+'% [ 14141=3 Marks] “Appearance of melanised moths post-industrialisation in England isa classic example of evolution by natural selection." Explain, Before industrialisation more white winged moth than dark winged moth existed in England, post industrialisation tree trunks became dark as smoke and soot deposited , lichens could not grow due to pollution , due tohigher predation of white winged moth on a darker background , dark winged moth survived , nature selected the fittest organism =" x6 (correct sequence) [3 Marks} ais. s72V123 10Be nyCBSEguide.com 1 Complete for CBSE tudes 20. Write any six salient features of the human genome as drawn from the human genome project. Ans. (i) ii) (iii) (iv) (vy) wid (vii) (viii) (ox (x) ‘The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases. ‘The average gene consists of 3000 bases but sizes vary greatly with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at2.4 million bases ‘The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000 - much lower than previous estimates Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people ‘The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of discovered genes Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome Repetitve sequences are thought to have no direct coding function but they shed light on chromosome strucutre dynamics and evolution Chromosome | has most genes (2968) and the Y has the fewest (231) Scientists have identified about | 4 million locations where single base DNA difference (SNPS - single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as “snips*)occurs in humans and this information promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease - associated sequencces and tracing human history Any six features (12x 6 ) [3 Marks] 21. What isheterogamety ? Explain the mechanism of sex determination in Drosophila. Ans, Heterogamety is production of two different types of gametes (either in male/female) = | Sex determination in Drosophila XX. (female)/ X¥ (male) type =" Female (XX) produces only onétype of gamete with X chromosome but the male produces two different types of gametes with either X or Y chromosome=" ‘When amale gamete with X fuses with the female gamete it produces a female progeny (XX) Me When a male gamete with ¥ fuses with the female gamete it produces male progeny (XY)="2 “ 2019. ST/VL23& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Q Parents | x ir Gametes &) & Offsprings XX female Diagram / Explanation [3 Marks} OR Explain the process of making heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) into a fully functional mRNA in eukaryotes. Where does this process occur in the cell ? Ans. * hnRNA undergoes capping at 5’ end (methyl guanosine triphosphate) and tailing at 3° end (with poly A tail) = 1 + Further Splicing is carried out ,;where the non- coding sequences called introns are removed , and coding sequences called exons are joined together in a defined manner ="x3 (either explanation or diagram ) I 2019. ST/VL23 12@ my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Capping Polyadenylation = Poly A tail poe’ a i al 5 Se ‘Messenger RNA (m RNA) Site of processing of hnRNA * This process occurs inthe Nucleus = Ya [3 Marks] 22. (a) Name and explain the mode of action of any two types of TU (b) List the advantages of using “Saheli' as a contraceptive. Ans. (a) * Non- medicated (¢.g. lippes loop) , phagocytosis of sperms =" +2 . Copper releasing TUDs (CuT , Cu7, Multiload 375), suppress sperm motility /reduces fertilizing capacity of sperm= 2+ % . Hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert , LNG - 20) , makes uterus unsuitable for implantation / cervix hostile to sperms = ¥3+¥4 (Any two) 2019. ST/V123 13& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Advantages of Saheli (b)Non-steroidal /once a week / high contraceptive value /less side effects (Any two) = 144% [2+1=3 Marks] 23. (a) Why shoulda bacterium be made 'competent' ? (b) Explain the role of ‘microinjection’ and 'gene gun’ in biotechnology. Ans. (a) The bacterial cell must be made competent in order to receive the hydrophilic DNA / plasmid , which cannot otherwise pass through the cell membrane = 2+! (b) Microinjection - rDNA is directly injected into the animal cell nucleus = 1 Biolisties (gene gun) - Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity micropaiticles of gold/ tungsten coated with rDNA =1 [1 +2=3 Marks] 24, Drawa T'S. ofa young anther of an angiosperm. Label the different layers of the wall and write their functions. ¥ =% (Correct diagram with labelling of four walll layers) Function Epidermis , Endothecium, Middle layers — protection and dehiscence = ¥2 ‘Tapetum — nourishment of developing pollen grains =" [3 Marks] aos. s7avia3 14& myCBSEguide.com A Complete gue Jor CSE adn, SECTION-D (QNos. 25-27 are of five marks each) 25. (a) Explain the role of stigma in pollen-pistil interactions. (b) Describe the post-pollination events leading to double fertilization in angiosperms, starting with a two-celled pollen grain. ‘Ans. (a) Role of Stigma (b) (a) (b) Ans. (a) Landing platform forthe pollen grain ,enables continuous chei 1 dialogue between pollen and pistil , rejects incompatiable pollen grain , promotes the growth of pollen tube of the compatible pollen grain leading to fertilization = Ya x4 Post Pollination Changes : Vegetative cell of pollen grain helps in the growth of pollen tube=" . Nucleus of generative cell divides into two male gametes =" : One male gamete fuses with the egg cell resulting ima zygote and the process is called syngamy =1 : other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei to form primary endosperm nucleus and the process is called triple fusion = 1 [243 =5 Marks] OR ‘Mention the events that, lead to the development of placenta during pregnancy in human females. Explain the role of placenta during pregnancy including its action as an endocrine organ. After implantation, finger like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi, which are surrounded by the uterine tissue and matemal blood , chorionic villi interdigitate with uterine tissue to form the structural and functional unit between developing embryo and maternal body called placenta="4x4 Role of Placenta Supply oxygen and nutrients = 1 Removes carbon-di-oxide and excretory products = | Secretes hormones - estrogen/ progesterone /hCG/ hPL (Any fwa)=1 [2+3 = 5 Marks] 2019. ST/VL23 182 myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 26. (a) (b) Ans. (a) How would you find out whether a given tall garden pea plant is homozygous or heterozygous ? Substantiate your answer with the help of Punnett squares. Given below are the F2-phenotypic ratios of two independently carried monohybrid crosses : @ t:2e1 i) 3:1 Mention what does each ratio suggest. By Test Cross/ crossing the plant with unknown genotype with the recessive parent= 1 tt | Homozygous Homozygous tt Dwarf recessive recessive Deut Unkown Genotype QO © om 7 0 PO ain or q— Tall —» Te Dominant Phenotype © Li # wack | dwarf All Plants are tall [100% tall] Result] Half of the Plants ae tall and [1:1] ‘Unknown Plants arehomozygous = $2 (b) fa) Half of the Plants are dwart ‘Cnlnown Plants are beterozygous ('2) (1) Incompletedominance = (uw) Dominance =1 [342= 5 Marks] OR Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive “P and “‘S in their experiments ? Explain. 2019. ST/VL23 16Be nyCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students (b) Following the experiments conducted by them, write what conclusion did they arrive atand how. Ans. (a) * Since bacteriophage contains only DNA and Protein the scientists wanted to identify whether itis DNA or the Protein from the Virus that entered the bacterium during infection =I - therefore they labelled DNA with “P and Protein coat with “S= 1 ‘Conclusion (b) Conclusion - DNA is the genetic material Experiment Bacteria which were infected with viruses having radioactive DNA [*P] were found to be radioactive , indicating that DNA was the material that passed from thé virus to bacterium. ="tk Bacteria which were infected with viruses having radioacti ye protein [°°S] were not found to be radioactive , indicating that protein did notenter bacterium from the virus ="+" i (diagram in lieu of experiment) 2019. ST/VL23 17myCBSEguide.com 1 Complete for CBSE tudes =% : aie Bacteriophage phosphorus labeled sulfir labeled PRA ore protein capsule =% 1. Infection 3.Centrifugation " No sulfur detected in cells Phosphorus detected in cells + + SX Sulfur detected in No phosphorus SE = supernatant detected in supematant | | | | I CZSD 2. Blending | | | | | | 1 The Hershey-Chase Experiment 27. (a) (b) (e) Ans. (a) [2+3=5 Marks] Write the specific name of the genus Plasmodium that causes one of the most serious types of diseases in humans. Name the disease. Describe the events in the life cycle of Plasmodium which take place in the female Anopheles. Explain what happens in the RBCs of the humans when Plasmodium gains entry into them. How does the human body get affected ? Plasmodium falciparum., malignant malaria= "2+" 2019. ST/VL23 18@ my CBSEguide.com A Complete guide for CBSE students (b) + Gametocytes / Male and Female gametes - enter female Anopheles mosquito = ' : fertilisatioin and development in the female mosquito gut/ stomach = 14 : sporozoites are transported to salivary glands="2 a When the mosquito ‘bites another human, sporovortes are Mature infective stages ingested with bite: (sporozoites) escape from intestine and migrate to the mosquito = 4/2 salivary glands takes up gametocytes with blood meal ©: Parasite multiplies asexually in RBC =" . RBC rupture ="% : release toxichaemozoin =" : chill and feverrecurting every 3-4days = . parasites enter fresh RBC and repeat the cycle = [1+ 14+ 2%=5 Marks] 2019. ST/VL23 19& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students OR Explain the interrelationship between organic farming and biofertilizers, with the help of any three suitable examples. Ans, Organic farmers use organisms /biofertiliser instead of chemical fertilizer, to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil andincreasetheyield = =141 Examples Rhizobium in the root nodules of leguminous plants (symbiotic) will fix atmospheric N, and enrich the soil / Azotobacter /Azospirillium (free living) fix atmospheric N, in the soil / Mycorthiza is symbiotic association between fungus of genus Glomus and roots of higher plants , which absorb phosphorous from soil /they also make the plant resistant to root borne pathogens / Cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen / increases organic matter in the soil (Anabaena I Nostoc | Oscillatoria) (Any three examples) =\ x 3 [2+3=5 Marks] 2019. ST/VL23 30& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 1. Question Paper Code 57/3/2 SECTION-A (Q. Nos. 1-5 are of one mark each) Why are cucurbit plants said to be monoecious? Cucurbits have both male and female flowers on the same plant =1 [1 Marks} Name the pollutant attributed to be the cause of ‘ozone-hole' over the Antarctica region. CFC / Chloroflourocarbon [1 Mark] OR List the greenhouse gases other than carbon dioxide. CH, ,CFC , N,O/ oxides of N, (All three gases = 1Mark) (One / Two gases =% Mark) [1 Mark] Write the scientific name of the organism Alexander Fleming worked on and discovered the first antibiotic. Was the organism he worked on a fungus or a bacterium ? Staphylococci = Ya Bacteria="% [1 Mark] OR ‘Suggest a method to overcome excessive inbreeding depression. Out cross // mating with unrelated superior animal of the same breed [1 Mark] ‘What is'Saltation' according to de Vries ? Single step large mutation / random and directionless mutation / mutation related to speciation =1 [1 Mark] 2019. §710123 24& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students s. Ans, 6. Ans, Ts Ans. Differentiate between a DNA and a RNA nucleotide. (A NUCLEOTIDE RNA NUCLEOTIDE Deoxyribose sugar Ribose sugar Pyrimidine-Thymine Pyrimidine- Uracil (Note - corresponding 2 differences) =nbh (1. Mark] SECTIO! (Q. Nos. 6-12 are of two marks each) Where exactly is the filiform apparatus present in the embryo-sac of an angiosperm ? State its function. Insynergids, it guides the entry of pollen tube into the synergid = 1 #1 [2 Marks} Explain the role of histones in forminga nucleosome, + Histones are positively charged proteins = ¥4 * + they form aunit of eight molecules- Histone Octamer= ¥2 + negatively charged DNA, is wrapped around the octomer= Y2+'2 [2 Marks] What is 'Ori' ? State its importance during cloning of a vector. + Specific sequences of DNA where replication starts = 1 + Helpsin the replication of alien DNA when attached to Ori ="4 + controls copy number =" [2 Marks} OR Explain the importance of ‘selectable marker", with the help of a suitable example. Ans. Ithelps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants , selectively permitting the growth of transformants = 4 + ¥ Genes coding for antibiotic resistance such as ampicillin / tetracycline/kenamycin/chloramphenicol or (any other antibiotic) are used as selectable marker (Any two) = 3.4% [2 Marks} 2019. ST/VL23 32& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 9. 10. i. 12. What is ‘carrying capacity" of a species in a habitat ? Why is logistic growth model considered more realistic ? Maximum number of individuals a habitat can support (at given time) Since resources are limited / finite and sooner or later they become limiting (so logistic growth model is more realistic) = 1 [2 Marks] ‘Why has the Indian Government set up the organisation named GEAC ? Give any two reasons. s. To check the Validity of GM crops , safety of introduction of GM organism for public services =i41 [2 Marks} OR Give a schematic representation of the transformation of a pro-insulin into insulin. Proinstulin Boa veptice 3 = Insulin } B peptide Free C peptide [2 Marks] Explain the relationship between B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in developing an immune response. B-lymphocytes- produce antibodies to fight pathogen= 1 ‘T-lymphocytes - do not produce antibodies but help B cells to produce them / can also destroy pathgen directly = | [2 Marks} “The pyramid of biomass is not always upright.” Explain the statement. 2019. ST/VL23 33& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Ans. 13. Ans, 14. Ans. Pyramid of biomass is usually upright in terrestrial Ecosystem as the biomass keeps.on decreasing from first Trophic level (producers) to the last trophic level (Top Carnivores) Whereas in aquatic ecosystem. itis inverted as the Biomass of the Phytoplanktons (Producers) is very little (because they are short lived) in comparison to that of fishes (consumers) = 1 [2 Marks} SECTION-C (Q. Nos. 13-24 are of three marks each) Draw a T'S. ofa young anther of an angiosperm. Label the different layers of the wall and write their functions. (Correct diagram with labelling of four walll layers) Function Epidermis , Endothecium, Middle layers — protection and dehiscence = ¥2 Tapetum — nourishment of developing pollen grains =" [3 Marks] (a) Why shoulda bacterium be made 'competent" ? (b) Explain the role of ‘microinjection’ and 'gene gun’ in biotechnology. (a) The bacterial cell must be made competent in order to receive the hydrophilic DNA / 2019. ST/VL23 34& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 16. Ans, 17. Ans. plasmid , which cannot otherwise pass through the cell membrane = Ys+¥% (b) Microinjection - rDNA is directly injected into the animal cell nucleus = 1 Biolisties (gene gun) - Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold/ tungsten coated with rDNA =1 [1 +2=3 Marks] How do desert lizards cope with the variations in thelr environment ? Explain. . - They cope up with high temperature of desert by behavioural changes (manage to keep body temperature fairly constant) = | - they bask insun and absorb heat when body temperature drops below the comfort zone / move to shade when ambience temperature rises / Some species burrowinto the soil (Any two points) =1+1 [3 Marks] a) Name and explain the mode of action of any two types of IUDs. (b) List the advantages of using *Saheli’ as a contraceptive. (a) * Non -medicated (e.g. lippes loop) , phagocytosis of sperms = 24% : Copper releasing IUDs (CuT , Cu7, Multiload 375), suppress sperm motility / reduces fertilizing capacity of sperm = Ya + ¥2 : Hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert , LNG - 20) , makes uterus unsuitable for implantation /cervix hostile to sperms = a+ (Any two ) Advantages of Saheli (b) _Non-steroidal /once a week / high contraceptive value / less side effects (Any two) = 12+" [241 = 3 Marks] (a) Write the scientific name of the source plant and the part from which opioids are extracted. What is it commonly and chemically called ? (b) Wherein the human body are its specific receptors located ? How do opioids affect the human body ? (@)_ Papaver somniferumlatex (from the fruit) = /2+% 2019. ST/VL23 38& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 18. Ans, 19, Ans, (b) (a) b) . (a) (b) Common name: Heroin /smack Chemical name diacetylmorphine =" CNS / GI tract = % Depressant/ slows down body function= "% [241 =3 Marks} How does the human body respond when vaccine is introduced into it ? It is said that vaccinations are a must for a healthy society. Justify. B-cells assisted by T-cells produce antibodies against weakened antigens (Vaccine) and neutralise the pathogens (during actual infection) , also generate memory B and T cells =141 ‘These B & T memory cells recognise the pathogen (in case of actual infection/pathogen) , and produce antibodies (to kill the pathogen) thus the population will remain healthy = 4x2 [2 +1 =3 Marks} What is heterogamety ? Explain the mechanism of sew determination in Drosophila. Heterogamety is produétion of two different types of gametes (eitherin male/female) = 1 Sex determination in Drosophila XX / XY type ="2 Sex determination in Drosophila XX: (female)/ XY (male) type =! Female (XX) produces only one type of gamete with X chromosome but the male produces two different types of gametes with either X or ¥ chromosome="s ‘When amale gamete with X fuses with the female gamete it produces a female progeny (XX) =4 ‘When a male gamete with ¥ fuses with the female gamete it produces male progeny (X¥)=4 a 2019. ST/VL23 36& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Q “0 & Parents. r x fo, oma Offsprings XX female Diagram / explanation = 2 [3 Marks} OR Explain the process of making heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) into a fully functional mRNA in eukaryotes. Where does this process occur in the cell ? Ans. + hnRNA undergoes capping ats’ end (methyl guanosine triphosphate) and tailing at 3° end (with poly A tail) =1 + Further Splicing is carried out , where the non-coding sequences called introns are removed , and coding sequences called exons are joined together in a defined manner ="%x3 (either explanation or diagram ) I 2019. ST/VL 23.27& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 5° Gove ‘Messenger RNA (m RNA) Site of processing of hnRNA + This process occurs inthe Nucleus [3 Marks} 20. Write any six salient features of the human genome as drawn from the human genome Project. Ans. (i) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases. Gi) The average gene consists of 3000 bases but sizes vary greatly with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at2.4 million bases (i) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000 - much lower than previous estimates (Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people (v) The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of discovered genes (vi) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins 2019. ST/VL23 38& myCBSEguide.com 4 Compl efor CESE sents 21. 22. (vii) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome (viii). Repetitve sequences are thought to have no direct coding function but they shed light on chromosome strucutre dynamics and evolution (x) Chromosome | has most genes (2968) and the Y has the fewest (231) (x) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA difference (SNPs-single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occurs in humans and this, information promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease - associated sequences and tracing human history Any six features (sx 6) [3 Marks} "Appearance of melanised moths post-industrialisation in England is a classic example of evolution by natural selection." Explain, Before industrialisation more white winged moth than dark winged mothexisted in England , post industrialisation tree trunks became dark as smoke and soot deposited , lichens could not grow due to pollution , due tohigher predation of white winged moth on.a darker background , dark winged moth survived , nature selected the fittest organism =x 6 (Correct sequence) [3 Marks] Explain any three remedial measures to overcome the acute air pollution in our cities. Electrostatic precipitators to remove paritculate matter present in the exhaust from thermal power plant / Scrubber to remove SO, from the exhaust of thermal power plant/ Altemative sources of energy in place of petrol /Lead free petrol or diesel / Catalytic convertors - to reduce lead pollution / Use of CNG / Use of low sulphur'petrol and diesel / Phasing out of old vehicles /Stringent enforcement of pollution level norms (Any three) [3 Marks} OR Write any three ways by which noise pollution affects the human body adversely. List any three steps that should be followed in order to reduce noise pollution. Sleeplessness/ Increased heart beat / Altered breathing pattern /Damage hearing ability / Damage ear drum (Any three}= ¥2« 3 ‘Three steps to be followed to reduce noise pollution Following of stringent laws laid down in relation to noise level / Delimitation of horn free zones around hospitals and schools /To adopt permissible sound level of crackers and loudspeakers / 2019. ST/V123 39& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 23. Adhereing to time limit for loudspeakers beyond which it cannot be played/ Use of sound absorbent material in industries / muffling of noise (Any three) = Vex 3 (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) [3 Marks} ‘What is the primary productivity of an ecosystem and how is it expressed ? Explain what does the equation given below show : NPP = GPP —R. . Primary Productivity is defined as Rate of biomass production = 1 : Expressed as g*yr'/ (kcal m=)yr! : Gross primary productivity minus respiratory loss is the net primary productivity = 1 : Which is available to the next trophic level =" [144 1% =3 Marks] OR ‘Name the type of detritus that decomposes faster. List any two factors that enhance the rate of decomposition. ‘Write the different steps taken in humification and mineralisation during the process of decomposition, : Detritus rich in Nj , water soluble substance like sugar = % + * Factors - Warm temperature / moist environment / availability of oxygen (Any two) = 2+ ‘Humification - Accumulation ofdark coloured amorphous substance called humus which is resistant to micorbial action and undergoes decomposition ata very slow rate = ‘Mineralisation - humus is further degraded by microbes releasing inorganic nutrients = ¥ [2+1 =3 Marks] Write any two biochemical/molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral infection. Explain the principle of any one of them. ELISA, PCR =1+1 ELISA ~ antigen antibody interaction / PCR - amplification of nucleic acid for its identification (Any one) [3 Marks} OR 2019. ST/VL23 30& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Describe the steps that are followed during secondary treatment of sewage. Ans, InAeration tank effluent agitated mechanically , air pumped allows the growth of flocs , consumes 25. organic matter reduces BOD , Effluent pumped to settling tank toallow sedimentation of bacterial flocs called activated sludge ,a small part of which is used as inoculum and the restis pumped into anaerobic sludge digester for complete digestion of anaerobic bacteria and effluent is released into the natural water body (steps should be in correct sequence) == 6 [3 Marks} SECTION-D (Q Nos. 25-27 are of five marks each) Explain the changes that occur in the ovary and uterus during menstrual cycle in human females. Mention the influence of pituitary and ovarian hormones in bringing these changes. Ovary Uterus Follicular/ Proliferative Luteal / Secretory Corpus luteum regenerates and folliculardevelopment begins="% Primary follicle grow and mature into Graafian follicle and rupture during middle phase of the cycle releasing ovum, secondary oocyte = 2 Follicularcells of the ruptured Graafian follicle transform into corpus luteum which secretes progesterone ="% Inabsence of fertilisation menstrual flow occurs due to breakdown of endometrial lining of uterus="% Endometrium regenerates through proliferation =" Endometrium is matained (by progesterone) to receive the fertilised egg forimplantation=" Pituitary hormones- ‘Ovarian hormones- FSH and LH induces follicular LH induces ovulation (mid cycle) (i) Estrogen (from the growing follicle) repairs and induces proliferation of endometrium = 2 (ii) Progesterone (released from corpus luteum) maintains endometrium to enable implantation = OR [5 Marks} Compare the characteristic features of insect pollinated and wind pollinated flowers. 2019. §7/123 4& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students @ i ii) Explain how the respective features assist in pollination. place to lay eggs (for the pollinator) =" feathery stigma="% Insect Pollination ‘Wind Pollination Feature Role Feature Role Flowers are large/ Toattract pollinating | Flowers are small/ The pollinating agent colourful/ragrant agents = inconspicous/ is abiotic so noextra H fowl odour = with nofragance =" | adpation =" Sticky pollen =" Tobecarried by —_| Pollenlightinon-sticky/ | To be easily carried, by the pollinator="J large in number="2 | bywind=" Flowers provide asrewardsto the — | Well exposed stamens/ | Pollen can be nectar/pollen/safe pollinator= "= easily dispersed into wind current can easily trap air bome pollen =" (Five characteristics with relevent explanation of roles) [5 Marks} (a) Write the specific name of the genus Plasmodium that causes one of the most serious types of diseases in humans. Name the disease. (b) Describe the events in the life cycle of Plasmodium which take place in the female Anopheles. (©) Explain what happens in the RBCs of the humans when Plasmodium gains entry into them. How does the human body get affected ? (a) Plasmodium falciparunt, malignant malaria = 2+ (b) + Gametogytes / Male and Female gametes -enter female Anopheles mosquito. = "4 : Fertilisatioin and developmentin the female mosquito gut/stomach=" : Sporozoites are transported to salivary glands =" I 2019. ST/VI23 2@ my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Mature infective stages (sporozoites) escape from intestine and migrate to the mosquito = 4/5 salivary glands Sexual stages (gametocyte) devclop in red blood eclls ©: Parasite multiplies asexually in RB . RBCrupture =" . release toxic haemozoin ="%4 : chill and fever recurring every 3-4days =Y% . parasites enter fresh RBC and repeat the cycle = [1 +14 + 2255 Marks] OR Explain the interrelationship between organic farming and biofertilizers, with the help of any three suitable examples. 2019. ST/VL23 33& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Ans, Organic farmers use organisms /biofertiliser instead of chemical fertilizer, to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil and increase the yield =1 +1 27. (a) (b) Ans. (a) Examples Rh jbium in the root nodules of leguminous plants (symbiotic) will fix atmospheric N, and enrich the soil / Azotobacter /Azospirillium (free living) fix atmospheric N, in the soil / Mycorrhiza is symbiotic association between fungus of genus Glomus and roots of higher plants , which absorb phosphorous from soil /they also make the plant resistant to rot ome pathogens / Cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen / increases organic matter inthe soil (Anabaena I Nostoc | Oscillatoria) (Any three examples) =| x 3 [2 +3 =5 Marks] How would you find out whether a given tall garden pea plant is homozygous or heterozygous ? Substantiate your answer with the help of Punnett squares. Given below are the F2-phenotypic ratios of two independently carried monohybrid crosses : @ te i) 3:1 Mention what does each ratio suggest. By Test Cross/ crossing the plant withunknown genotype with the recessive parent =I tt | Homozygous Homozygous tt recessive recessive Dest t te Unkown Genotype it 1 On 1) | Q_ © 7 0) ° ® C Tm | Te ‘tat | Tall Tan | Tall arq— Tall te in | a Dominant « t Aa eehenotpe HO] Lae Lace ‘All Plants are tall. [100% tall] ‘Wakmown Plants archomozygous = 3 Half of the Plants are tall and [1:1] Half ofthe Plants are dwarf ‘Unknown Plants are heterozygous (5) 2019. ST/VI23 4& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students (b) (Incomplete dominance =1 (1) Dominance =1 [ 3+2= 5 Marks] OR (a) Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive 32P and 35S in their experiments ? Explain. (b) Following the experiments conducted by them, write what conclusion did they arrive at and how. Ans. (a) * Since bacteriophage contains only DNA and Protein the scientists wanted to identify whether it is DNA or the Protein from the Virus that entered the bacterium during infection =1 6 therefore they labelled DNA with “P and Protein coat with *S= | Conclusion (b) Conclusion - DNA is the genetic material = | Experiment Bacteria which were infected with viruses haying radioactive DNA [“P] were found to be radioactive , indicating that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to bacterium =4iK% ‘Bacteria which were infected with viruses having radioactive protein ['°S] were not found to be radioactive , indicating that protein did not enter bacterium from the virus =i I (diagram in lieu of experiment) 2019. ST/VL23 382 myCBSEguide.com A Complete guide for CBSE students =% : aie Bacteriophage phosphorus labeled sulfur labeled DINA core protein capsule =% 1. Infection 3.Centrifugation No sulfur detected in cells Phosphorus detected in cells . + SX Sulfur detected in Np aaa SE % supernatant detected in supematant | | | | I CZSD 2. Blending | | | | | | 1 The Hershey-Chase Experiment [2+3=5 Marks] 2019. ST/VL23 36& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 1. Ans. Ans, Ans. 4. Ans, Question Paper Code 57/3/3 SECTION-A (Q. Nos. 1-5 are of one mark each) Why are papaya plants said to be dioecious ? Male and female plants are separate / bearmale and female flowers on two separate plants U0 Mark] Name the pollutant attributed to be the cause of 'ozone-hole’ over the Antarctica region. CFC/ Chloroflourocarbon {1 Mark] OR List the greenhouse gases other than carbon dioxide. CH, CFC , N,O/ oxides of N, (All three gases = 1 Mark) (One / Two gases = 4 Mark) [1 Mark] Write the scientific name of the organism Alexander Fleming worked on and discovered the first antibiotic. Was the organism he worked on a fungus or a bacterium ? Staphylococci = Ye Bacteria="% [1 Mark] OR Suggest a method to overcome excessive inbreeding depression. Outeross// mating with unrelated superior animal of the same breed [1 Mark] ‘What is'Saltation' according to de Vries ? Single step large mutation / random and directionless mutation / mutation related to speciation [1 Mark] 2019. ST/VL23 39& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students s. Ans, Differentiate between a DNA and a RNA nucleotide. DNA NUCLEOTIDE RNA NUCLEOTIDE Deoxyribose sugar Ribose sugar Pyrimidine -Thymine Pyrimidine - Uracil (Note - corresponding 2 differences) =2+'% [1 Mark] SECTION-B (Q. Nos. 6 - 12 are of two marks each) State the importance of emasculation and bagging in carrying out artifical hybridization, Emasculation is needed to prevent self pollination and to promote cross pollination in bisexual flowers = | Bagging to prevent contamination of stigma from undesirable pollen = 1 [2 Marks] ‘Mention the causes of chromosomal disorders in humans. How do these disorders occur ? * Absence or excess or abnormal arrangementof one or more chromosomes = | + Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division/Aneuploidy / Nondisjunction = 1 [2 Marks} What is ‘carrying capacity’ of a species in a habitat ? Why is logistic growth model considered more realistic ? Maximum number of individuals a habitat can support (at given time) = 1 Since resources are limited /inite and sooner or later they become limiting (so logistic growth model is more realistic) = 1 [2 Marks] What is 'Ori! 2? State its importance during cloning of a vector. + Specific sequences of DNA where replication starts = | + Helps in the replication of alien DNA when attached to Ori = + controls copy number =" [ 2 Marks] OR 2019. ST/VL23 38& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 10. Ans. i. Ans, Explain the importance of 'selectable marker" , with the help of a suitable example. Ithelps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants , selectively permitting the growth of transformants = 4+ Genes coding for antibiotic resistance such as ampicillin /tetracycline/kenamyein/chloramphenicol or (any other antibiotic) are used as selectable marker (Any two) = "4+ ¥2 [2 Marks} Why has the Indian Government set up the organisation named GEAC ? Give any two reasons. To check the Validity of GM crops , safety of introduction of GM organism for publieServices =141 [2 Marks} OR Give a schematic representation of the transformation of a pro-insulin into insulin. Proinsulin y A peptide ee oh en = a Jnsulin B peptide Free C peptide [2 Marks} Explain the relationship between B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in developing an immune response. B-lymphocytes- produce antibodies to fight pathogen = 1 T-lymphocytes - do not produce antibodies but help B cells to produce them / can also destroy pathgen directly = | [2 Marks} 2019. ST/VL23 39& myCBSEguide.com A Complete guide for CBSE students 12. Whyis the pyramid of biomass upright in most of the ecosystems ? Compare it with the pyramid of biomas in sea. Ans. Biomass of producersis more than that of the herbivores and the biomass of herbivores is more than that of carnivores (hence the pyramid of biomass is erect in most ecosystems) = 1 Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes (consumers) far exceeds that of phytoplanktons (producers) = 1 [2 Marks] SECTION-C (Q. Nos. 13-24 are of three marks each) 13. "Appearance of melanised moths post-industrialisation in England is a classic example of evolution by natural selection." Explain. Ans. Before industrialisation more white winged moth than dark winged moth existed in England , post industrialisation tree trunks became dark as smoke and soot deposited , lichens could not grow due to pollution , due to higher predation of white winged moth ona darker background , dark winged moth survived , nature selected the fittest organism =" x 6 (Correct sequence) [3 Marks] 14. Write any six salient features of the human genome as drawn from the human genome project. Ans. @) The human genome contains 3 164.7 million nucleotide bases (i) The average gene consists of 3000 bases but sizes vary greatly with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at2.4 million bases (ii) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000 - much lower than previous estimates (iv) Almostall (99.9 percent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people (v) The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of discovered genes (vi) Lessthan 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins (vii) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome (viii), Repetitve sequences are thought to have no direct coding function but they shed light on chromosome strucutre dynamics and evolution (&) Chromosome | has most genes (2968) and the Y has the fewest (231) (x) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA difference (SNPs- single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occurs in humans and this, information promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease - associated sequencces and tracing human history Any six features (42 x 6 ) suid MArKS]Be nyCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 15. Explain with the help of an example each, any two ways by which the animals cope with the stressful conditions lasting for a short period in their habitat. Migrate =% Example - Migratiory birds from from Siberia come to Keolado Nationa Park (Bharatpur) in Rajasthan to avoid extreme cold climate in the northern regions = 1 (any othercorrect example) Suspend = % Example Bacteria fungi and lower plants form various kinds of thick walled spores to survive the unfavourable condition and germinate on availability of suitable environment/ \ Higher plants form seeds and some other vegetative reproductive structures to tide over stfessful period by reducing their metabolic activity and going into state of dormancy /In some animals the ‘organism avoid stress by escaping in time - bear goes into hibemation during winter/ Snails and fish go into aestivation toavoid summer related problem - heat and dessication / Zooplankton species enter diapuase a state of suspended development under unfavourable conditions (Any one example) = 1 [3 Marks] 16. What is heterogamety ? Explain the mechanism of sex determination in Drosophila. Ans, Heterogamety is production of two different types of gametes (eitherin male/female) Sex determination in Drosophila XX (female) X ¥ (male) type =" Female (XX) produces only one type of gamete with X chromosome but the male produces two different types of gametes with either X or Y chromosome="2 ‘When amale gamete withX fuses with the female gamete it produces a female progeny (XX) Ms When a male gamete with Y fuses with the female gamete it produces male progeny (XY)="2 Ah 2019. ST1M1.23 41& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Q “0 & Parents. r x fo, oma SK female Offsprings Es Diagram / explanation =2 [3 Marks] OR Explain the process of making heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) into a fully functional mRNA in eukaryotes. Where does this process occur in the cell ? Ans. + hnRNA undergoes capping at 5’ end (methyl guanosine triphosphate) and tailing at 3° end (with poly A tail) =1 + Further Splicing is carried, out , where the non- coding sequences called introns are removed ,and coding sequences called exons are joined together in adefined manner = 2x3 (either explanation or diagram ) 2019. ST/VL23 422 myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 17. (a) (b) Ans. (a) (b) Messenger RNA (m RNA) Site of processing of hnRNA ‘This process occurs in the Nucleus= 2 [3 Marks} What is inbreeding? Inbreeding of cattle is carried with a purpose, but is not continued for many generations. Do you agree ? Give reasons in support of you answer. Inbreeding is mating of more closely related individuals with the same breed for4-6 generation to produce pure line / increase Homozygosity = | : Yes='% . Resultsin inbreeding depression = Ya : Reduces fertility , and productivity =¥2+% [1+2=3 Marks] 2019. ST/VL23 43& myCBSEguide.com A Complete guide for CBSE students 18. (a) Differentiate between humoral and cell mediated immune response. (b) Why is patient who has undergone organ transplant put on immunosuppressants ? Explain. Ans. (a) Humoral Immune response Elicited / Carried out by B-lymphocytes , which produce antibodies in the blood in response toa pathogen = 424% Cell mediated immune response Elicited / Carried out by T-lymphocytes , which help the B-cells to produce antibodies/or destroy pathogen by themselves ="4 +2 (b) To prevent T-cells from recognising foreign tissue / graft as ‘non self” and prevent rejection = [2+1=3 Marks] 19. (a) Name and explain the mode of action of any two types of TUDs. (b) List the advantages of using Sahel’ as a contraceptive. Ans. (a) + Non -medicated (e.g. lippes loop) , phagocytosis of sperms =" +14 : Copper releasing IUDs (CuT , Cu7, Multiload 375), suppress sperm motility /reduces fertilizing capacity of sperm= Ya + Ye . Hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert , LNG - 20) , makes uterus unsuitable for implantation / cervix hostile to sperms = 2+" (Any two ) Advantages of Saheli (b) Non-steroidal /once a week /high contraceptive value /less side effects (Any two) = 14444 [2+1 =3 Marks] 20. (a) Why shoulda bacterium be made 'competent' ? (b) Explain the role of microinjection’ and 'gene gun’ in biotechnology. Ans, (a) The bacterial cell must be made competent in order to receive the hydrophilic rDNA / plasmid , which cannot otherwise pass through the cell membrane = +14 (b) Microinjection - rDNA is directly injected into the animal cell nucleus 2019. ST/VL23 44& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Biolistics (gene gun) - Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold / tungsten coated with DNA =1 [+2 3 Marks} 21. Drawa T'S. ofa young anther of an angiosperm. Label the different layers of the wall and write their functions. (Correct diagram with labelling of four wall layers) Funetion Epidermis , Endothecium, Middle layers~protection and dehiscence = ¥ ‘Tapetum — nourishment of developing pollen grains =" [3 Marks} 22. Write any two biochemical/molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral infection. Explain the principle of any one of them. Ans, ELISA, PCR =14 1 ELISA —antigen antibody interaction / PCR — amplification of nucleic acid for its identification (Anyone) =1 [3 Marks} OR Describe the steps that are followed during secondary treatment of sewage. 2019. ST/VL23 48& myCBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Ans. InAcration tank effluent agitated mechanically , air pumped allows the growth of flocs , consumes g organic matter reduces BOD, Effluent pumpedto settling tank to allow sedimentation of bacterial flocs called activated sludge ,a small part of which is used as inoculum and the restis pumped into anaerobic sludge digester for complete digestion of anaerobic bacteria and effluent is released into the natural water body (Steps should be in correct sequence) =x 6 (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) fa) (b) [3 Marks] Whats the primary productivity of an ecosystem and how is it expressed ? Explain what does the equation given below show : NPP = GPP —R. : Primary Productivity is defined as Rate of biomass production = | : Expressed as g2yr!/(keal m)yr! =" . Gross primary productivity minus respiratory loss is the net primary productivity = 1 . Whichis available to the next trophic level =" [12+ 14 =3 Marks] OR ‘Name the type of detritus that decomposes faster. List any two factors that enhance the rate of decomposition. Write the different steps taken in humification and mineralisation during the process of decomposition. . Detritus rich in N, , water soluble substance like sugar= 144% : Factors - ‘Warm temperatuire /moist environment/ availability of oxygen (Any two) = 42 +4 ‘Humification - Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous substance called humus which is resistant to micorbial action and undergoes decomposition at a very slow rate = ‘Mineralisation - humus is further degraded by microbes releasing inorganic nutrients = Y [241 = 3 Marks] Explain any three remedial measures to overcome the acute air pollution in our cities. Electrostatic precipitators to remove paritculate matter present in the exhaust from thermal power plant/ Scrubber to remove SO, from the exhaust of thermal power plant / Alternative sources of 2019. ST/VL23 46& my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students 25. Ans. energy in place of petrol / Lead free petrol or diesel / Catalytic convertors - to reduce lead pollution / Use of CNG/ Use of low sulphur petrol and diesel / Phasing out of old vehicles /Stringent enforcement of pollution level norms (Amy three) [3 Marks] OR Write any three ways by which noise pollution affects the human body adversely. List any three steps that should be followed in order to reduce noise pollution. Sleeplessness / Increased heart beat / Altered breathing pattern /Damage hearing ability (Damage ear drum (Any three} = 2x 3 Three steps to be followed to reduce noise pollution Following of stringent laws laid down in relation to noise level / Delimitation of horn free zones around hospitals and schools / To adopt permissible sound level of crackers and loudspeakers / Adhereing to time limit for loudspeakers beyond which it cannot be played / Use of sound absorbent material in industries / muffling of noise (Any three) = 2x3 [3 Marks} SECTION -D (Q Nos. 25-27 are of five marks each) (a) Where ismicrosporangium located in an angiosperm ? State the functions of tapetum and the other three layers of microsporangium? (b) Describe the structure of the male gametophyte produced as a result of microsporogenesis. (©) _ State the functions of each part of the male gametophy (@) Microsporangium located in the anther lobe = Y2 ‘Tapetum -nourishes the developing pollen grain = Epidermis , Endothecium . middle layers - protection and dehiscence (of microsporangium)="4 (6) Structure of Pollen grain/ male gemetophyte @ — Outerwall layer-Exine i) Inner wall layer - Intine= 2 (i) Vegetative cell =' (iv) Generative cell =¥2 ‘/ 2019. ST/MI23 4& myCBSEguide.com 1 Complete for CBSE tudes (c) = text @ ——_Exine and Intine - Protection = 2 Gi) Vegetative cell - reserve food material / formation of pollen tube = 12 (ii) Generative cell - formation of two male gametes =" [14 4 3%= 5 Marks] OR When and how do the following get to form in human females ? State their functions. (a) (b) Ans. (a) (b) 26. (a) (b) () Corpusluteum Placenta Corpusluteum - . Inthe luteal phase / immediately after ovulation / secretory / phase = : Follicular cells of the ruptured Graafin follicle form the corpus luteum = I . Releases progestrone to maintaine the endometrium = 1 Placenta : Formed afterimplantation of the embryo (Uterine wall) =" . Chorionic villi (ofthe blastocyst /embryo) and uterine tissue interdigitate together to form the placenta= I . Itsupplies oxygen and nutrient and removes carbon dioxide and excretory material , also acts as an endocrine tissue (produces several horomones) - hCG , APL etc =42+'2 [2442425 Marks] ‘Write the specific name of the genus Plasmodium that causes one of the most serious types of diseases in humans. Name the disease. Describe the events in the life cycle of Plasmodium which take place in the female Anopheles. Explain what happens in the RBCs of the humans when Plasmodium gains entry into them. How does the human body get affected ? 2019. ST/VL23 48@ my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students Ans. (a) Plasmodium falciparum, malignant malaria= +" () + Gametocytes / Male and Female gametes - enter female Anopheles mosquito. = "4 . fertilisatioin and development in the female mosquito gut/ stomach = . sporozoites are transported to salivary glands=" w When the mosquito bites another human, sporovoites are ‘Sexmal stages (gametocyte) develop in red blood cells ©. Parasite multiplies asexually in RBC : RBCrupture =% : release toxic haemozoin = 2019. ST/VL23 49& myCBSEguide.com A Complete ide or CBSE students . chill and fever recurring every 3-4 days =¥% : parasites enter fresh RBC and repeat the cycle = 2 [1 +144 22=5 Marks] OR Explain the interrelationship between organic farming and biofertilizers, with the help of any three suitable examples. Ans. Organic farmers use organisms /biofertiliser instead of chemical fertilizer, toenrich the nutrient quality of the soil and increase the yield. =1+1 27. (a) (b) Ans. (a) Examples Rhizobium in the root nodules of leguminous plants (symbiotic) will fix atmospheric N, and enrich the soil / Azotobacter /Azospirillium (free living) fix atmospheric N, in the soil / Mycorrhiza is symbiotic association between fungus of genus Glomus and roots of higher plants , which absorb phosphorous from soil /they also make the plant resistant to root borne pathogens / Cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen / increases organic matter in the soil (Anabaena f Nostoc | Oscillatoria) (Any three examples) =| x 3 [2+3=5 Marks] How would you find out whether a given tall garden pea plant is homozygous or heterozygous ? Substantiate your answer with the help of Punnett squares. Given below are the F2-phenotypic ratios of two independently carried monohybrid crosses : i) L:2:1 ‘Mention what does each ratio suggest. By Test Cross / crossing the plant with unknown genotype with the recessive parent = 1 2019 ST/VL23 50@ my CBSEguide.com ‘A Complete guide for CBSE students tt | Homozygous Homozygous tt Dent recessive recessive Pesif + 1 Unkown Genotype t t Os ) | ©) ro ae Tr ¢— Tall —» 7 AUlPlants are tall [100% tall] hye! Dominant Phenotype © " " dwacf | doiarf Half of the Plants are tall and [1 : 1] Half of the Plants are dwacf Unknown Plants are homozygous = 2 [kaon Plans are hescrenyyee 14) (6) @ Incomplete dominance= 1 (1) Dominance=1 [3 + 2=5 Marks] OR (a) Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive 32P and 35S in their experiments ? Explain. (b) Following the experiments conducted by them, write what conclusion did they arrive atand how. Ans. (@) + — Singe bacteriophage contains only DNA and Protein the scientists wanted to identify whether it is DNA or the Protein from the Virus that entered the bacterium during infection =I + therefore they labelled DNA with "P and Protein coat with "$= I ‘Conclusion (b) Conelusion- DNA is the genetic material = 1 2019. ST/VL23 54@ my CBSEguide.com A Complete guide for CBSE students Experiment Bacteria which were infected with viruses having radioactive DNA [""P] were found to be radioactive , indicating that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to bacterium ="t Bacteria which were infected with viruses having radioactive protein ['S] were not found to be radioactive , indicating that protein did not enter bacterium from the virus ='2 414 I (diagram in lieu of experiment) =% ; =% Bacteriophage phosphorus labeled sulfur labeled DNA core protein capsule =% 1. Infection sens 2. Blending —. 3.Centrifugation Ee SD Phosphorus detected in cells * No phosphorus SE % detected in supematant The Hershey-Chase Experiment [243 =5 Marks] 2019. ST/VL23 82