AILET Last 5 Year Question Papers Answer Key 2019 2023

AILET BA LLB
2023
AILET BA LLB
2022
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2022
Question Booklet Sl. No.

Date of Exam. : Center’s Name : ________________
Duration : 90 Minutes Roll No. : ________________
Max. Marks : 150 OMR Sheet No. : ________________
Date of Birth : ________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions
as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of one mark each to be
answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer
ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). For
every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
a) Kolkata b) Agra c) Bhopal d) Delhi
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Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet and Answer
Booklet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
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BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 14
Current Affairs and

B 30 51 – 80 15 – 18
General Knowledge
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 19 – 38
Total Marks 150
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SECTION – A : English
I. Read the excerpt from a ruling of the Court (Civil Action: American Library
Association v. U.S.A.) and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
Under strict scrutiny, a public library's use of filtering software is permissible only if it
is narrowly tailored to further a compelling government interest and no less restrictive
alternative would serve that interest. We acknowledge that use of filtering software
furthers public libraries' legitimate interests in preventing patrons from accessing
visual depictions of obscenity, or in the case of minors, material harmful to minors.
Moreover, use of filters also helps to prevent patrons from being unwillingly exposed
to patently offensive, content on the Internet.
1. Select which of the following assumptions is the ruling of the Court is based on.
a) Filtering software is the preferred alternative by the patrons of public libraries.
b) Filtering software is the most restrictive of all the alternatives used in public
libraries.
c) Filtering software is the only tool that can be scrutinised by the public libraries.
d) Filtering software safeguards the interests of the patrons of public libraries.
2. What, according to the passage, is the primary purpose of filtering software within a
public library ?
a) Permit the use of classified materials.
b) Check the use of all visual content of a library.
c) Record the number of searches made by patrons.
d) Prevent the access to inappropriate content.
3. Which of the following words is an antonym to the word “compelling” used in the text ?
a) singular b) strange c) weak d) popular
II. Read the following news post and answer the questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
INDIA'S MARINE EXPORTS REACH ALL TIME HIGH OF $ 7,740 MILLION
Vijayawada: Exports of marine products from India have reached an all-time high of
US $ 7,740 million in 2021-22 against the targeted US $ 7,809 million fixed by the
centre.
Marine Products Exports Development Authority joint director A. Jeyabal
in a statement here on Friday said India's exports of marine products grew
30 percent compared to 2020-21 in value terms. The compound annual growth rate
of seafood exports during the past decade has been 8.23 percent, he pointed out.
Jeyabal explained that India exported marine products to 121 countries during 2021-22,
the US being the top destination with exports worth US $ 3,315 million in 2021-22
against the target of $ 3,021 million.
China and Japan stood at number two and three positions respectively. All three top
destinations of Indian marine exports constitute 63 percent of India's exports in value
terms.
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4. The phrase “an all-time high” indicates that India’s marine

a) export rate has never been so high.
b) exports have grown less expensive.
c) export rate increases with each month.
d) exports have reached their highest limit.
5. Substitute the underlined phrase with the option closest in meaning.

“The compound annual growth rate of seafood exports during the past decade has
been 8.23 percent, he pointed out.”
a) calculated b) announced
c) specified d) shared
6. Which of the following statements are true for the given text ?
(i) 2022 is fast becoming the most successful year for Indian exports, in terms of
marine products.
(ii) The director of “Marine Products Exports Development Authority” is
Mr. A. Jeyabal.
(iii) Mr. A. Jeyabal is sure that India will grow as an exporter of marine products.
(iv) There is most demand for India’s marine products in the US.
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) d) (i) and (ii)
7. The most appropriate by-line for the article would be

a) Glowing Prospects b) A Legacy
c) A Befitting Tribute d) Profiting from Sustainability
8. It can be inferred from the text that

a) All of India’s marine exports to Japan and China are done from Vijayawada.
b) More than half of India’s marine exports go to the US, China and Japan, in value
terms.
c) India is the leading exporter of marine goods to 121 countries.
d) India reached the proposed sales target determined by the centre in the year
2021-22.
9. Select the sentence that is the most appropriate conclusion for the given text.
a) Several exports promotion schemes for Fisheries have been implemented by the
Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA), a statutory body set
up in 1972.
b) The twin Godavari districts contributed to 50 per cent exports of the Vannamei
shrimp.
c) Despite the heavy odds faced by the sector, India’s marine products exports reached
a record high.
d) With a budget of Rs. 20,050 crores, this is the biggest ever investment to bring
about a Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the
fisheries sector in India.
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III. Read the book descriptions for three different books up for sale online and answer
the questions by choosing the correct options.
The On Being a Veterinarian So, You Want to be a I Want to be a Veterinarian
Series gives pre-vet and Veterinarian is suggested is part of a new I
veterinary students a reading for aspiring Can Read series that
glimpse into what it's really veterinarians, their introduces young readers
like to be a small animal parents, and their to important community
veterinarian. Each book in mentors. It succinctly helpers. This Level One
the series provides insight describes colleges of I Can Read is perfect for
on a different aspect of small veterinary medicine children learning to sound
animal veterinary medicine and their admission out words and sentences.
to help future veterinary requirements, application Whether shared at home
doctors better prepare for procedures, curriculums, or in a classroom, the
the challenges of this career. faculties, and facilities, short sentences, familiar
Book puts the reader in the and provides information words, and simple
doctor's shoes for a day to that increases the odds of concepts of Level One
illustrate the importance of success in the admission books support success
emotional resilience. Tools process. It goes on to for children eager to start
for building resilience are describe the veterinary reading on their own.
provided, as are scientific profession and its For anyone looking for
explanations for how and multiple practice types, books about community
why they work. species and disciplinary helpers for kids, this book
specialties, and is a great choice as it is
employment opportunities bright and upbeat and
in industry, government, feature characters who are
academy, and the diverse in terms of gender,
military. race, age, and body type.
10. By using the phrase “gives a glimpse into”, the text suggests that On Being a Veterinarian
Series
a) imparts extensive knowledge about the personal and professional aspects of a
veterinarian’s life.
b) gives detailed descriptions about the veterinary profession and its multiple practice
types.
c) offers comprehensive health advice to small animal veterinary doctors.
d) provides salient features of small animal veterinary medicine to help prepare future
doctors for the difficulties of their profession.
11. A ‘small animal veterinarian’ involves dealing with

a) farm animals b) companion animals
c) zoo animals d) endangered animals
12. Which underlined phrase is similar in meaning to “increases the odds of success” ?
(So, You Want to be a Veterinarian)
a) The estimates for chances in achieving the goal are maximum when you plan
ahead.
b) The increases in bets to gain victory, are not just common in academic circles.
c) When a business studies the competition, it improves its chances of surging
ahead.
d) A lesser-known fact is that focussing on yourself ensures long-term gains.
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13. Select the option that correctly displays the meaning of ‘succinctly’ as used in the
given line, from the text about So, You Want to be a Veterinarian.
‘It succinctly describes colleges of veterinary medicine...’
a) polite, short and sweet, brief, relevant
b) compact, discursive, concise, polite
c) condensed, compact, brief, to the point
d) short and sweet, condensed, discursive, systematic
14. Which book/s of the three mentioned in the text is/are like to include the following
line ?
How long it takes to become a vet can vary, but if you really love animals and think
caring for them is up your alley, then becoming a veterinarian may be the right choice
for you.
a) Both, On Being a Veterinarian and So, You Want to be a Veterinarian
b) Only So, You Want to be a Veterinarian
c) All three-- I Want to be a Veterinarian, On Being a Veterinarian and So, You Want
to be a Veterinarian
d) Only On Being a Veterinarian
15. Which topic would be a part of ‘disciplinary specialities’ in So, You Want to be a
Veterinarian ?
a) Remount and Veterinary Corps
b) Internship allowance
c) International Institute of Veterinary Education & Research
d) Sports medicine and rehabilitation
16. Upon reading the passage, which of the following is likely to be inferred about the
main aim of I Want to be a Veterinarian ?
a) Learn about characteristics of veterinarians.
b) Learn about inclusion and diversity.
c) Learn about various community helpers.
d) Learn how to read by oneself.
17.
Select the option that matches the books to the most likely readerships, according to
the text. Choose three appropriate options from out of four options given.
Name of the book Type of readers
A. I Want to be a Veterinarian i) school students/ graduates
B. So, You Want to be a Veterinarian ii) children
C. On Being a Veterinarian Series iii) pre-vet and veterinary students
iv) academics and practicing veterinarians
a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv)
b) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)
c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i)
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IV.
Read the excerpt from a handicrafts’ manual titled ‘Woodwork Joints’ and answer
the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
THE SCARF JOINT
The method known as “scarfing” is used for the joining of timber in the direction of its
length, enabling the workman to produce a joint with a smooth or flush appearance
on all its faces. One of the simplest forms of scarfed joint is known as the half lap, in
which a portion is cut out at the end of each beam or joist, equal in depth to half the
full depth of the beam, and of equal length to the required scarf. The two pieces, before
they are placed together, form a joint with the projecting part fitting into the recessed
portion and the two pieces being secured in their respective positions by screws.
A tabled scarf joint is very easy to make and fit, and is not materially affected by
shrinkage. Rectangular wrought iron straps are knocked up over the joint after the
two pieces engage. A lapped scarf joint is secured with nuts and bolts and effectively
resists compressional stress in vertical posts.
THE PUZZLE JOINTS
These are not only interesting in themselves, but are often excellent studies in
craftsmanship. The majority of them, if to be satisfactory as puzzles, call for very
careful setting out and cutting, entailing the same degree of skill that is demanded for
high-class cabinet work. For this reason, several illustrations of examples may well
find a place in a volume dealing with woodwork joints. As a rule, these puzzles should
be made in hardwood, such as dark walnut or beech, as in whitewood the joints are
soon liable to wear.
18. Ensuring the ‘flush appearance on all its faces’ refers to the
a) finishing b) strength c) stability d) variation
19.
Which option includes the correct meaning of the underlined phrase in the given
sentence ?
Rectangular wrought iron straps are knocked up over the joint after the two pieces
engage.
a) carved b) assembled c) removed d) created
20. Select the reason why several illustrations of puzzle joint examples are often showcased
in a volume dealing with woodwork joints.
a) To contrast characteristics of puzzle joints with other types of joints.
b) To address the growing demand for wooden cabinets.
c) To cater to the popular and extensive usage among carpenters.
d) To foster a better understanding of the required precision and skill.
21. Choose the correct order of the following statements in the passage.
(i) The workman cuts out a portion at the end of each beam or joist.
(ii) The two pieces are placed together to form a joint.
(iii) The two pieces are secured in their respective positions by screws.
(iv) The workman measures out a portion in the beam that is equal in depth to half
the full depth of the beam, and of equal length to the required scarf.
a) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
c) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) d) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
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22. Which quality makes hardwood the choice for puzzle joints ?
a) high moisture content
b) colour and shine
c) sturdiness or density
d) shrinkage and swelling
V. Read the excerpt of a published interview by Lawrence Rubin where he speaks to

Jessica Stone on Play Therapy in the Digital Age. Answer the following questions
by choosing the most appropriate answer.
LAWRENCE RUBIN : Hi, Jessica. Thanks for joining me today. How did you become
interested in digital play therapy, which really is cutting-edge and somewhat controversial
with children ?
JESSICA STONE : I am a licensed psychologist with a specialty in play therapy.
Within it, digital play therapy has become one of those areas of interest over the last
20 years, stemming from experiences with my own kids, who had this whole portion of
their world that I didn’t really understand, know about, or enter into. It struck me as
a little bit ironic and maybe even hypocritical that here I spend my time at work and
my energy in learning and doing play therapy with children and entering their world,
while my own kids have this whole portion of theirs that I was putting no effort into
understanding. And so, I kind of had to smack myself upside the head and say, all
right, I need to learn more about this. Why is this important to them ? Why are they
interested in it ?
Long story short, I ended up entering an online game that my oldest two (of four
children) were both playing at the time. I am no digital native by any means, and I
was not very good at these games, but the point was that I was taking interest. I was
listening to them. I was asking them questions. We were having conversations about
what happened in the game, what quest they were working on; things that were
important to them that prior to my entering their world, I couldn’t participate in or
even understand. I began to see that because this co-play was so impactful with my
own children, I needed to incorporate it into my work, which really opened the door
to what I have been doing for all these years.
LAWRENCE RUBIN : So, you recognized that technology was so important and present
in your kids’ life that you would be almost doing a disservice to your young clients if
you didn’t cross that bridge into their digital world. Tell me, what exactly is digital play
therapy ?
JESSICA STONE: Digital play therapy is a modality that is based in speaking the
client’s language through what I call the four C’s, which are competency, culture,
comfort, and capability. These are basic elements of therapy in general, but digital
play therapy in particular is couched within the broader context of prescriptive play
therapy, which taps into what Charles Schaefer calls the therapeutic powers of play.
So, the point is that there is a foundation for it. It’s not just, oh, let’s just jump on
this bandwagon and start throwing these digital things into what we’re doing. We as
clinicians need to have a very firm and solid foundation in what it is we’re doing and
why we’re doing it regardless of our theoretical foundation, therapeutic modality, and
interventions, or whether the platform is virtual or face-to-face. And as in all therapies,
we must ground our interventions in solid case conceptualization and treatment
planning.
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23. What is the primary purpose of this passage ?

a) To highlight the necessity of “digital play therapy” in terms of its foundational
benefits and theoretical advantages.
b) To showcase the debate regarding the pros and cons of “digital play therapy” with
opinions of an expert.
c) To alert the readers to the inevitability of a shift from conventional therapeutic
methods to modern ones like “digital play therapy”.
d) To explore the mindset of an expert with regards to the fallibilities of the new
“digital play therapy”.
24. What is the tone conveyed by the speaker when she states – “… I kind of had to smack
myself upside the head…” ?
a) reflective b) discouraged c) confident d) hypocritical
25. In the line, “...you would be almost doing a disservice to your young clients...”, the word
‘disservice’ refers to being
a) prejudiced b) unfair and unhelpful
c) misled d) stubborn and inflexible
26. How was Jessica Stone impacted by an online game ?

a) She could finally understand her children’s behaviour.
b) She began to productively communicate with her children.
c) She noticed a degression in her professional life.
d) She grew to love online games herself.
27. What does the interviewee mean when she says “I am no digital native” ?
a) She wasn’t born into a family with digital skills.
b) She was averse to all technology, especially online games.
c) She was an amateur in using technology or playing digital games.
d) She lacked the technical training required to operate digital technology.
28. Which skill does the interviewee display with the usage of the phrase, “Long story
short” ?
a) rephrasing b) circumvention c) discussion d) brevity
29. Which of these options best describes the expression “jump on this bandwagon” ?
a) To get to the conclusion too hastily
b) To adopt an opinion because it is fashionable
c) To re-think previously made decisions
d) To jump into action before thinking it through
30. Which of the following is the least likely inference to be drawn from the given passage ?
a) “digital play therapy” shares the basic elements with any general type of
therapy.
b) “digital play therapy” became an point of interest for Jessica Stone because of her
experiences at home.
c) “digital play therapy” still lacks a proper foundation to make it worthwhile for
use.
d) “digital play therapy” allowed Jessica Stone to find a new way of conversing with
children.
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31. What does the phrase ‘speaking the client’s language’ refer to, in the text ?
(Digital play therapy is a modality that is based in speaking the client’s language...)
a) Highlighting the pros b) Providing lucrative offers
c) Making the services popular d) Addressing their needs
32. What is Jessica Stone’s opinion on “digital play therapy” as per the text ?
a) It has to be accepted as the new form of therapy as the world is growing increasingly
digitalised.
b) It has replaced “prescriptive play therapy” because it has more therapeutic powers.
c) It has to be regarded as an important part of “play therapy” because allows for
communication through its mode of co-play.
d) It can be practiced by everyone who wishes to engage in co-play with their children.
Direction for Questions from VI to IX Passages: Read the given passage and answer the
questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
VI. Down in rain-swept Wiltshire last week, I was able to enjoy a Christmas tree, Christmas
crackers, mistletoe, etc. I was able to sing carols and wish everyone I met a happy
Christmas. In America, it seems, I’d have been outlawed if I’d attempted any such
thing. According to Andrew Stephen in the New Statesman, Americans have become
so desperate not to offend religious minorities that Christmas in America is now most
definitely not politically correct and, in some cases, literally illegal.
In Kentucky, for example, school bus drivers were warned on no account to say
“Merry Christmas” to children getting on or off their buses. In Philadelphia, you are
breaking the law, says Stephen, “if you have a Christmas tree in your home – you may
be subject to a $300 fine”. A nursery school teacher in Washington, he goes on, has
temporarily removed the “t” from the letters of the alphabet that she has strung around
the classroom: “It looked a bit too much like a cross for comfort”. Oh, and schools in
Scarsdale, New York “have banned the American tradition of “candy canes”, striped
mint sweets in the shape of walking sticks; they could be construed as shepherds’
crooks, you see, and we all know what that means at the time of the year”.
My Christmas in Wiltshire may have been wet but at least it felt like a real Christmas
and not like this kind of anodyne travesty, disinfected of all reference to what the
holiday is about.
33. Which of the statements do you think does not support the author’s idea in the
passage ?
a) A nursery school teacher’s extreme attempt not to offend authorities during holiday
time.
b) The visible signs of festivities were not inconspicuous in America.
c) Prohibition of candy canes since they were obvious holiday shapes.
d) The conventional etiquette of the season was discouraged in public.
34. The last sentence in the passage conveys that the writer :
a) tacitly approves of the way Christmas is approached in America.
b) disagrees with the views and opinions of Andrew Stephen.
c) is content to have had his share of the season’s revelry in Wiltshire.
d) sympathizes with the religious minorities.
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35. Which of the following words from the passage, most closely resemble the meaning
“anodyne” and “construed” ?
a) pernicious, blatant
b) jilted, misinterpreted
c) unobjectionable, interpreted
d) menacing, unequivocal
36. What parts of speech do the words ‘religious’, ‘travesty’ and ‘temporarily’ belong to ?
a) adjective, noun, adverb
b) noun, adjective, adjective
c) adverb, verb, adverb
d) noun, noun, adjective
37. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage?
a) Abolishing Christmas
b) Christmas past and present
c) The everchanging tradition of Christmas
d) Transcending beliefs
VII. Economic historians have argued that the Industrial Revolution in Britain could not
have occurred without the capital that became available from the plunder of India.
The sudden acceleration of the revolution in Britain, R. P. Dutt points out, coincides
with the establishment of British rule in India. He writes, “In 1757 came the Battle of
Plassey and the wealth of India began to flood the country in an ever-growing stream…
in 1764 came the spinning jenny of Hargreaves; in 1765 came Watt’s steam engine,
patented in 1769; in 1769 came the water frame of Arkwright followed by his patents
in 1775 for carding, drawing and spinning machines; in 1779 the mule of Crompton
and 1785 the power loom of Cartwright; and in 1788 the steam engine was applied to
blast furnaces.” These inventions, Dutt argues, did not result from some “special and
unaccountable burst of inventive genius,” but from the accumulation of enough capital
to make possible the largescale outlay needed to turn the inventions into functional
fortunes.
Contemporary accounts attest to the devastation that followed in India. “This fine
country,” one of the East India’s own residents reported, “which flourished under the
most despotic and arbitrary government is verging towards ruin.” Francis Buchanan,
who surveyed the country in the early 1800s, wrote: “The natives allege that, although
they were often squeezed by the Mogul officers, and on all occasions were treated
with utmost contempt, they preferred suffering these evils to the mode that has been
adopted of selling their lands when they fall in arrears, which is a practice they cannot
endure. Besides, bribery went a great way on most occasions, and they allege that,
bribes included, they did not actually pay one half of what they do now.”
Both agricultural self-sufficiency and what by many accounts was a growing industrial
economy were broken down. For the peasant, insecurity, impoverishment, and
indebtedness followed. The shadow of famine stalked the next century. The new
system of land taxes introduced with the Permanent Settlement of 1793 turned the
zamindars, who were originally tax collectors, into landowners with new rights to evict
the peasants who cultivated the lands for not paying the revenues.
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38. According to the passage, which of the options accelerated the burst of inventive genius
in Britain?
a) The plethora of inventions in the spinning industry
b) The prevalent custom of bribery in the bureaucracy
c) The funds from its colony that fell into the coffers of the British Raj
d) Inventions that turned the country into functional fortunes.
39. Which could be the prime attributing factor responsible for the disintegration of the
Indian economy ?
a) The growing indebtedness among the farmer fraternity
b) Widespread penury among the masses
c) The plight of those who were still reeling under the Mogul atrocities
d) All of the above
40. The first paragraph is a fine example of

a) oral histories
b) review writing
c) chronological data
d) journal jottings
41. After the Permanent Settlement of 1793, the turn of events led to
a) Tax collectors monopolising the levy on peasants’ lands
b) Zamindars proclaiming themselves to be legal land owners
c) Mogul officers donning the garb of tax collectors and harassing farmers
d) Peasants were forced to become victims of the widespread famine in the country
42. The passage could probably be an excerpt from

a) an economic report
b) the national movement
c) a memoir
d) a scientific abstract
VIII. The news made me very happy indeed. I would be married. There would be music, I
would hear the women ululating. How exciting that would be! Yet I felt scared at the
same time. I cannot express the apprehensions that came to my mind. Meanwhile,
the various things necessary for the ceremony began to arrive. Relatives and guests
began pouring in. I was scared to death by all this. I did not talk to anyone but spent
most of the time weeping. Everybody did their best to reassure me. They embraced
me, but the unspoken agony in my mind did not lift.
Later on, I was cheered up by the ornaments, the red wedding sari and the wedding
music. I forgot my earlier worries and went about laughing and watching the elaborate
preparations. My happiness knew no bounds. When everything was over the next day, I
heard people asking my mother, “Are they leaving today ?” I thought they were referring
to the guests. Then the music started. There was an air of festivity. The guests must
be leaving now, I thought. It made me happy and I went about following my mother.
Presently everybody assembled in the house. Some looked happy, but others were
in tears. They made me really frightened. Then my brothers, aunts, uncles, and my
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mother all took me in their arms by turn as they burst into tears. Their tears made
me so sad that I began to cry too. I knew my mother was going to hand me to the
other family. I tightened my hold on her and pleaded, “Don’t give me over to them,
Mother!” that made everybody present even more upset. They broke down and tried
to say nice words to console me. My mother took me in her arms and said, “You are
a good girl, you understand everything, don’t you?” God is with us; you needn’t be
afraid. You are going to come back to us in a few days’ time. Every girl has to go to
her in-laws’ house. Nobody else cries like this. There is no reason to be upset. Please
calm down and talk to me.” But I was trembling with fear. I was quite unable to speak.
Somehow, I managed to say through my tears: “are you sure that God will go with me ?”
Mother promptly reassured me that he most certainly would. “He will be with you all
the time, so stop crying now.” But in spite of her soothing words my apprehensions
kept growing and I could not check my tears.
43. In the passage, the people ask the narrator’s mother, “Are they leaving today ?”
Who are ‘they’ according to the narrator and the passage ?
a) the narrator’s relatives … the groom’s people
b) the groom’s party … the bride, the groom, and his folks
c) the wedding guests … the groom’s family
d) the narrator and her people … wedding guests
44. The women ‘ululating’ in the passage refers to them

a) shedding tears of joy
b) wailing high and low
c) loud sounds expressing mirth
d) vocalising blessings for the couple
45. The tone and mood of the passage is

a) Depressing and emotional
b) Satirical and depressed
c) Introspective and empathetic
d) Vitriolic and reassuring
46. Give the appropriate antonyms for : elaborate, agony and apprehension.
a) basic, assuagement, solicitude
b) embellished, anguish, dismay
c) plain, solace, repose
d) baroque, distress, inapprehension
47. Identify the type of sentence: “You are a good girl, you understand everything, don’t
you ?”
a) Tag question
b) Interrogative statement
c) Imperative negative statement
d) Echo question
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IX. What colors can animals see ? Is the world more brightly colored or duller to animals
than it is to us ? To find out the answers to these questions scientists have used a
method of training the animals to come to different colors, which is similar in principle
to the method used in studying the sense of hearing in animals.
Let us take bees first of all, partly because more exact scientific research has been done
on the color-sense of bees than of almost any other animal. It is especially interesting to
know what colors bees see because these insects visit flowers to get sweet nectar from
them to make honey, and in doing so the bees incidentally carry pollen from flower to
flower. On the face of it, it would seem very likely that bees are attracted to flowers by
their bright colors. But possibly it is the scents that attract the bees, or perhaps it is
both color and scent. So, among other things, we want to know whether bees can really
see the colors of flowers, and if so, what colors they can see. Exactly how is this found
out ?
A table is put in a garden, and on the table a piece of blue cardboard is placed, on
which there is a watch-glass containing a drop of syrup. After a short while bees come
to the syrup and suck some of it. The bees then fly to their hive and give the syrup
to other bees in the hive to make honey. Then they return to the feeding place which
they have discovered. We let the bees go on doing this for a while, after which we
take away the blue cardboard with the syrup on it. Instead of this card we now put
on the table a blue card on the left side of the first feeding-place, and a red card to
the right of the first feeding-place. These new cards have no syrup on them but only
an empty watch-glass lying on each. Thus, the blue card is on the left, the red card
on the right, and there is nothing where the first blue feeding-card used to be. After
we have arranged these new cards, we have not long to wait. Very soon bees arrive
again, and it can be seen that they fly straight on to the blue card; none go to the red
card.
48. What two things can be indicated from the behaviour of the bees ?
a) Bees remember that blue means syrup and they fly to the blue.
b) Bees can distinguish blue from red.
c) Bees have a keen sense of scent and sight.
d) Both a) and b)
49. Which of the following statements is valid enough to make this experiment on bees’
incomplete ?
a) Perhaps the bees had really been trained to identify colors.
b) What if the bees, like human beings, suffer from colour-blindness ?
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
50. According to the passage, which of the following is not true in the case of the subjects
mentioned in the study ?
a) More exact scientific research has been done on the color-sense of bees than of
almost any other animal.
b) Bees are attracted to flowers by their bright colors.
c) Possibly it may be either color or scent that attract the bees.
d) None go to the red card.
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SECTION – B : current affairs and general knowledge
51. Why did the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) restrict Johnson &
Johnson’s COVID-19 Vaccine ?
a) Due to its inefficacy towards new variants
b) Due to its extremely high price
c) Due to a risk of rare but serious blood clots
52. The board of the Pulitzer Prizes has recently honored Ukrainian journalists for their
“courage, endurance and commitment to truthful reporting” on the war between Russia
and Ukraine. Which of the following is not true ?
a) The Pulitzer Prize is awarded in music
b) The Pulitzer Prize is not awarded in fiction
c) The Pulitzer will designated Washington as its seat of administration of prizes
d) All of the above
53. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of the United States ?
a) Sandra D. Connor b) Ketanji Jackson
c) Ruth Ginsberg d) Amy Barrett
54. What is the system of ‘six raised dots’ relevant for ?

a) Cryptocurrency b) Block-chain
c) Braille d) Baking
55. Why was UK-Iranian dual citizen Nazanin Zaghari-Radcliffe detained and jailed in
Iran from 2016 to 2022 ?
a) On charges of driving in western clothing
b) On charges of obscenity in public
c) On charges of inciting Iranian women to violence
d) On charges of espionage
56. Desmond Tutu is credited with establishing and heading the Truth and Reconciliation
processes in South Africa. Which of the following statements about him is not true ?
a) His activism was deeply rooted in Christian ethos of forgiveness.
b) He advocated for victims to forgive the perpetrators of apartheid.
c) He saw religious prayer and social action as being intrinsically linked.
d) He justified discrimination against homosexuals and sought to differentiate that
from apartheid.
57. May 10th marks the anniversary of the 1857 revolt against the British. Who among
the following did not play a role in the revolt ?
a) Maulavi Liyaqat Ali b) Veer Kunwar Singh
c) Nana Saheb d) Chiranjit Lal
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58. The ‘Buddha and His Dhamma’, originally titled ‘Buddha and his Gospel’ is a
manuscript written by
a) M. R. Masani b) Daisaku Ikeda
c) B. R. Ambedkar d) Pema Chodron
59. Nicknamed ‘Daughter of Palestine’, Shireen Abu Alekh was among the Arab world’s
first female field reporters and was allegedly shot dead by Israeli forces while reporting
for Al Jazeera from the occupied West Bank. Which of these countries partly owns Al
Jazeera ?
a) Sultanate of Oman
b) United Arab Emirates
c) Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
d) State of Qatar
60. India recently won the Thomas Cup in Badminton for the very first time. Which of these
nations have won the Thomas Cup for the maximum number of times ?
a) China b) Malaysia
c) Denmark d) Indonesia
61. Dressed in red and blue, ‘Spidey’ (‘Spider-man’) is a fixture at protests against the military
regime. In which country has ‘Spidey’ become a popular symbol of resistance ?
a) Bangladesh b) Sri Lanka
c) Sudan d) Chile
62. After 396 years, Barbados replaced the Queen of England as head of State. Which of
the following is true ?
a) Barbados became a republic but will remain part of the Commonwealth
b) Barbados became a republic and will no longer be part of the Commonwealth
c) Barbados became independent in 2021
63. Which of the following is not a member of the QUAD that met in the United States in
2021 just after the withdrawal of troops from Afghanistan ?
a) Japan b) Australia
c) India d) Canada
64. What is the name of the world’s first cryptocurrency cruise ship ?
a) Makoshi b) Satoshi
c) Bloomer d) Rikishi
65. Why did Canada recently decide to ban Huawei and ZTE from 5G network ?
a) Pressure from the Five Eyes network
b) Pressure from the Government of India
c) Pressure from Canadian University students
d) Pressure from the Government of the United States
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66. Timor-Leste recently celebrated 20 years of independence. On 20 May 2002, the United
Nations formally handed power to the new Timorese government. Who did they gain
independence from ?
a) Indonesian occupation
b) British occupation
c) Portuguese colonisation
d) Dutch colonisation
67. Savita Halappanavar was a dentist from Karnataka. In 2012, her death in Ireland
resulted in a huge furore. What did Amnesty International term her death to be a
consequence of ?
a) Stringent immigration detention conditions in Ireland
b) Stringent anti-abortion laws of Ireland
c) Prison violence in Ireland
d) Discriminatory hospital care for foreign nationals in Ireland
68. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is found at the intersection of which of the following States/
Union Territories ?
a) Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
b) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka
c) Kerala, Karnataka, Telangana
d) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
69. Which of the following is not a Satyajit Ray film ?

a) Devi b) The Music Room
c) Charulata d) Pyasa
70. In 2018, Chintamani Shivdikar wrote “Papletwali” which became viral on YouTube. The
song is adopted from a Koli folk tune. Who are the Koli people ?
a) They are said to be the first inhabitants of Bombay.
b) They are said to be the upper castes of particular regions of Bombay.
c) They are said to belong to the fishing communities of Sri Lanka.
d) They are said to belong to the carpenter community of Dharwad.
71. The Supreme Court of India declared the Act providing 10.5% internal reservations
to the Vanniyar community in Tamil Nadu to be ‘unconstitutional’ because
a) The State Government lacked competence to enact this statute.
b) Only the President can determine those who are most backward.
c) Reservations are against the basic structure of the Constitution of India.
d) The Vanniyars do not constitute a class apart from other OBC categories and
hence this goes against Articles 14, 15 and 16 of the Constitution of India.
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72. Which country won the Uber Cup Badminton International Championship held in
2022 ?
a) India b) Denmark
c) Indonesia d) South Korea
73. Who was the first Indian to win an Olympic gold in athletics ?
a) Abhinav Bindra b) Neeraj Chopra
c) Sindhu d) P. T. Usha
74. Which country got its name changed in the United Nations in June 2022 ?
a) Turkey b) Cuba
c) Morocco d) Benin
75. According to Germanwatch’s Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2022, what
is the rank of India ?
a) 7th b) 8th
th
c) 9 d) 10th
76. The National Commission for Backward Classes was accorded the constitutional status
by
a) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016
b) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018
c) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019
d) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2019
77. The Durand Line is the line demarcating the boundaries between
a) India and Afghanistan b) India and China
c) India and Pakistan d) None
78. The 2021 AI Readiness Index, published by Oxford Insights, ranks 160 countries as
to how prepared their governments are in the use of AI in public services. India is
ranked at
a) 36th b) 48th
c) 51st d) 67th
79. The first Artificial Intelligence ship to study marine pollution, avoid collisions and
detect marine animals is named as
a) Poseidon 400 b) Mayflower 400
c) AIS 400 d) Titanic 400
80. In which of the following States, the first Emergency Landing Facility on a National
Highway was inaugurated ?
a) Karnataka b) Gujarat
c) Goa d) Rajasthan
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SECTION – C : Logical Reasoning
81. All whales are mammals. All creatures breathe. Some whales are creatures.
Mickey Mouse is a whale.
Examine the following statements :
I. Mickey Mouse breathes.
II. Mickey Mouse does not breathe.
III. Mickey Mouse is a creature.
IV. Mickey Mouse is not a creature.
V. Mickey Mouse is a mammal.
VI. Mickey Mouse is not a mammal.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) Only II, IV and V follow b) Only V follows
c) I, III and V follow d) Only VI follows
Eiffel Tower is a mammal.
I. Eiffel Tower breathes.
II. Eiffel Tower does not breathe.
III. Eiffel Tower is a creature.
IV. Eiffel Tower is not a creature.
V. Eiffel Tower is a whale.
VI. Eiffel Tower is not a whale.
a) Only I and III follow b) Only II, IV and VI follow
c) Only V follows d) None of the above
Internet is a creature.
I. Internet breathes.
II. Internet does not breathe.
III. Internet is a whale.
IV. Internet is not a whale.
V. Internet is a mammal.
VI. Internet is not a mammal.
a) Only I follows b) Only I, II and V follow
c) Only I, IV and VI follow d) Only III follows
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84.
All whales are mammals. All creatures breathe. Some whales are creatures. Further,
anything that breathes is a mammal.
Mickey Mouse is a whale. Eiffel Tower is a mammal. Internet is a creature.
I. Only one out of Mickey Mouse and Internet breathes.
II. At least one out of Mickey Mouse, Internet and Eiffel Tower does not breathe.
III. It is possible that all of Mickey Mouse, Internet and Eiffel Tower breathe.
IV. All of Mickey Mouse, Internet and Eiffel Tower are mammals.
V. If it is true that Mickey Mouse breathes, then it is also true that Mickey Mouse is
a creature.
a) Only IV follows b) Only III and IV follow
c) Only I, II, and IV follow d) Only V follows
85.
Capitalism is a philosophy. All ideas are fictional objects. Only fictional objects are
philosophy.
I. Capitalism is an idea.
II. Capitalism is a fictional object.
III. Capitalism is not an idea.
a) Only I and II follow b) Only II and III follow
c) Only II follows d) None follows
86.
All khaps are fair institutions. No fair institutions are democratic. Only courts are
democratic.
I. Some courts are fair institutions.
II. No courts are fair institutions.
III. It is possible that all courts are fair institutions.
a) Only I follows b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows d) None follows
87.
All thieves are persons. Some persons are dishonest. All dishonest persons go to
jail.
‘X’ is a person.
I. X is a thief.
II. X may be dishonest.
III. X is necessarily dishonest.
IV. If X is a thief, he will go to jail.
a) I and IV follow b) Only IV follows
c) Only II follows d) Only III follows
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88.
All black money funds terrorist activities. All terrorist activities are financed solely by
corrupt politicians. If the Lokpal Bill is passed, all assets and financial sources of all
corrupt politicians will be frozen. If demonetisation is declared, all black money will
disappear.
If the above statements are true, which of the following follow(s) ?
I. If demonetisation is declared, funding of terrorist activities will completely stop.
II. If the Lokpal Bill is passed, funding of terrorist activities will completely stop.
III. If demonetisation is declared and the Lokpal Bill is passed, funding of terrorist
activities will completely stop.
c) Only III follows d) Both II and III follow
89.
All laptops are computers. Some computers are useful. Everything that is useful is
precious.
X is a computer.
Which of the following statements necessarily follows ?
a) All precious objects are useful.
b) If ‘X’ is useful, it must be a laptop.
c) X must be precious.
d) If ‘X’ is a useful laptop, it must be precious.
90.
All democratic governments are elected. Some elected governments are fair. No
dictatorships are elected.
‘X’ is a dictatorship.
Which of the following statements necessarily follows ?
a) X may be a democratic government.
b) X cannot be fair.
c) X cannot be a democratic government.
91. Some apples are fruits. All fruits are ducks. Some ducks are books.
Which of the following statements necessary follows ?
a) Some books are apples b) At least some books are ducks
c) No ducks are apples d) All ducks are fruits
92.
Some White are Blue. Some Blue are Green. Some Green are Red. Some Red are Yellow.
Some Red are Blue. Some Red are White. Some Yellow are White. Some Yellow are
Blue. All Green are White. All Blue are Red.
I. No Yellow is Green.
II. Of the Red which are White, some are also Yellow.
III. Of the Red that are Green, some are also Blue.
IV. Some White are Green.
a) Only II and III follow b) Only III and IV follow
c) Only I and IV follow d) All follow
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93.
Only Tigers are Fish. Only Rabbits are Fish. Only Rabbits are Tigers. Some Deer are
Tigers.
I. If A is a Rabbit, A is also a Deer.
II. If B is a Deer, B is also a Rabbit.
III. Some Deer are Fish.
IV. Some Deer are Rabbits.
a) Only IV b) Only II
c) Only I and II d) None follows
94.
Most persons are individuals. Some companies are State. Most State are
individuals.
I. Some persons are State.
II. Some State are companies.
III. Some companies are persons.
IV. Some companies are individuals.
a) Only II and III b) Only I and II
c) Only II d) None follows
95. Statement: “We are short on time so we better send these documents via speed post.”
Assumption made:
a) Sending documents via speed post will take less time than some other means of
sending documents.
b) Documents must always be sent via speed post.
c) Sending documents via speed post will take less time than all other means of
communication.
96. “The best telecom services in the world are to be found in South Korea and Japan,
and neither country allocates spectrum on the basis of auctions. Spectrum is assigned
on the basis of discretion, the focus being on ensuring the availability of cutting-edge
telecom services and the revenue the super-enabled industry would generate, rather
than on generating revenue from spectrum auctions. Neither the Japanese nor the
Koreans are squeamish about eating almost anything that creeps, crawls, swims, flies
or runs. But when it comes to geese that lay golden eggs, they apparently lay off.”
Which of the following assumptions is made in the above passage ?
a) Geese are not consumed as food in Japanese and South Korean cultures
b) Auctioning telecom spectrum would generate a great deal of revenue for the
Japanese and South Korean Governments
c) Governments that wish to provide good telecom service should not auction telecom
spectrum
d) Governments that wish to provide good telecom service should auction telecom
spectrum
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97. Even before the coronavirus, lack of sleep was a simmering public-health crisis
associated with a suite of maladies. Roughly 10 to 15 percent of people worldwide
were suffering from chronic insomnia, the struggle to fall or stay asleep at least three
nights a week for three months or longer. Crises such as natural disasters or terrorist
attacks are known to trigger short-term sleeplessness. But experts say the pandemic’s
unprecedented global impact and protracted nature threaten to expand the rate of
chronic insomnia, which is much harder to treat.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument ?
a) Increasing levels of obesity in the world population have exacerbated chronic
insomnia.
b) There has been an uptick in natural disasters and terrorist attacks in recent
times.
c) Heightened levels of stress contribute to short-term as well as long-term
sleeplessness.
d) The treatment of chronic insomnia is costly for public health systems across the
world.
98.
Scientists say they have completed the first full and seamless catalogue of genetic
instructions of humans. Until now, about 8% of the human genome code was missing
from the blueprint. The quest to decipher and complete a gapless DNA sequence has
taken decades. The resource helps explain how to create every human cell in the body,
which could shed light on how to treat, prevent and cure disease. Now, just 10 million
bases or letters of human DNA out of roughly 3 billion, are unknown.
The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed ?
a) Until the discovery it had been impossible to explain how any human cell in the
body is created.
b) It has been possible to complete the full seamless catalogue of human genetic
instructions using 2.99 billion letters of human DNA.
c) Scientists will be able to explain how to treat and prevent cellular diseases only
once the remaining 10 million letters of human DNA are known.
d) The 8% of missing human genome code has taken the longest time to be
deciphered.
99.
Read the Statement given below and decide which of the Assumptions listed thereafter
are implicit in the Statement.
Statement : India should generate solar energy to meet its unmet energy
requirements.
Assumptions :
I. Solar energy is cheaper than other forms of energy.
II. India is capable of generating solar energy.
III. India is unable to meet its energy requirements using non-solar sources of
energy.
a) Only I is implicit. b) Only II is implicit.
c) Only III is implicit. d) Both II and III are implicit.
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100.
Statement : To catch the rats running around in the house, you should use a rat trap.
Assumptions :
I. Rats are likely to step into rat traps.
II. Food will be kept inside the rat trap.
III. Rat traps are small in size.
a) Both I and II are implicit b) All are implicit
c) Only I is implicit d) Only II is implicit
101.
Carmakers are taking the middle path in their electrification journey in India, with
powerful hybrids flagging off the ‘green race’ for three leading Japanese car manufacturers.
Japanese carmakers believe introducing hybrids will eventually lead to higher localization
of parts for electric vehicles, making them more accessible to a larger customer base. These
manufacturers have no plans of launching an electric car in India before 2025 and are
currently working on localisation of hybrid vehicle parts.
The passage assumes which one of the following ?
a) Carmakers in Japan have been successful in scaling up production of electric
vehicles in the past.
b) Indian customers are unable to afford electric vehicles.
c) Manufacturing processes for electric and hybrid vehicles are similar to the extent
that production of the latter shall ease future production of the former.
d) There will be no electric car production in India until 2025.
102.
Statement : Employers must offer flexible working schedules or risk resignations by
talented employees.
Assumptions :
I. Employers should offer flexible working schedules.
II. Some employees want flexible working schedules.
III. Some employees value flexible working schedules so much that they would resign
if these are not offered.
a) Both II and III are implicit b) All are implicit
c) Only I is implicit d) Only II is implicit
103.
Even though switching to veganism may be costly and sometimes inconvenient, it is
a good change if one wishes to improve their chances of leading a healthy life, while
benefitting the environment.
Which of the following is an assumption necessarily taken for granted in the above
statement ?
a) The costs involved and inconvenience of making a change act as deterrents for
most people.
b) It is possible to undertake practices that may impact how healthy a life one lives.
c) Non-vegetarianism impacts the environment most adversely.
d) Costly and inconvenient choices must always be made to effect positive change.
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104. ‘X’ and ‘Y’, enter into a contract (i.e. X and Y are parties to the contract) for supply of
goods by X to Y in exchange for payment from Y to X. Consider the following Clause
in the contract :
(Sub-Clause 1) Neither party shall be held liable for failure to comply with its obligations
under this contract if such failure is due to any kind of natural disaster or human
event beyond its control.
(Sub-Clause 2) The successful invocation of this Clause by either party shall protect
that party from liability for non-fulfilment of its obligations under the contract only
until the natural disaster or human event in Sub-Clause 1 continues to affect that
party.”
The contract requires X to deliver goods from his house to Y’s house latest by
30th May. Both X and Y live in the same city. On the morning of 30th May, there is a
big earthquake near X’s house which causes all roads in the area to be blocked. The
blockage remains present until 31st May.
Can X claim that this situation falls under Sub-Clause 1 ?
a) Yes, because the earthquake is a natural disaster beyond X’s control.
b) Yes, because X’s failure to deliver the goods to Y by 30th May was due to the
earthquake.
c) No, because X could have delivered the goods to Y before 30th May and his failure to
deliver the goods to Y is due to his laziness and not only due to the earthquake.
d) Combination of options ‘a’ and ‘b’.
105. Consider the following principle :

In a dispute between X and Y, Y can sue X :
(i) In the city of X’s residence, OR
(ii) In the city where the dispute arose
X and Y enter into a contract which requires X to deliver goods from his house to Y’s
house latest by 30th May. X lives in Delhi and Y lives in Calcutta. X fails to deliver the
goods by 30th May due to an earthquake in Delhi. Y wants to sue X for breach of the
contract.
Y can sue X :
a) In Delhi only
b) In Calcutta only, assuming that the dispute arose in Calcutta
c) In either one of Delhi and Calcutta, assuming that the dispute arose in
Calcutta
106. Consider the following principle :

In a dispute between X and Y, Y can sue X :
(i) In the city of Y’s residence, OR
(ii) In the city of X’s residence, OR
(iii) In the city where the dispute arose
Y lives in Calcutta and is the owner of the restaurant ‘Y’s Yummilicious Restaurant’,
located in Calcutta. X lives in Delhi and starts a restaurant named ‘Yummilicious
Restaurant’ in Delhi. Y wants to sue X for infringement of the name ‘Yummilicious
Restaurant’.
Y can sue X :
a) In Delhi only
b) In Calcutta, but only if the dispute arose in Calcutta
c) In either one of Delhi and Calcutta, regardless of where the dispute arose
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107.
All contracts are agreements. Only agreements enforceable by law are contracts.
Y is a government official tasked with issuing driving licenses to applicants who meet
the criteria. X has applied for a driving license but does not meet the criteria. X and Y
enter into an oral agreement that X will pay Y Rs. 5000 to issue a driving license to X.
With reference to the facts given above, X says “I have entered into a contract with Y.”
a) X is wrong because the agreement is not in writing.
b) X is wrong because an agreement not enforceable by law is not a contract.
c) X is right.
d) There is insufficient information to reach the conclusions in Options a, b and c
108. Anyone who pleads on behalf of another in a Court is a pleader. All lawyers are pleaders.
X, a lawyer, pleads his own case in Court.
a) X is a pleader in this case.
b) X is not a pleader in this case as he is not pleading on behalf of another.
c) As long as he is a lawyer, X is a pleader in all cases.
109.
All offences are punishable. Not everything that is punishable is an offence. Only that
which is punishable is an offence.
X, a school student, does not submit her homework on time and is punished by being
given extra homework.
a) X has certainly committed an offence
b) X has certainly not committed an offence
c) We do not have sufficient information to determine whether X has committed an
offence
110.
Only registered trademarks can be infringed. Copying a registered trademark is
sufficient to constitute infringement.
X owns the trademark ‘Yummilicious Restaurant’. Y copies this trademark. X sues
Y for infringement.
a) If X’s trademark was registered, Y has necessarily infringed X’s trademark
b) Y has necessarily infringed X’s trademark only if X’s trademark was registered
and Y was aware of X’s trademark
c) Y has definitely not infringed X’s trademark
111. Limitation Principle : A suit for recovery of money can be filed only within
3 years from the date the money becomes due to be recovered. Suits filed after this period
are not maintainable. Suits filed within this period are necessarily maintainable.
Money became due from Y to X on March 17, 2017. X filed a suit for recovery of money
on March 1, 2022.
a) X’s suit is not maintainable
b) X’s suit is maintainable
c) There is insufficient information to determine if X’s suit is maintainable
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112. Issue : Is Lebron James the best professional basketball player of all time ?
Argument 1 : Yes. Lebron James has had the largest fan base among all professional
basketball players in the history of the sport.
Argument 2 : No. Lebron James has changed his team too many times.
Argument 3 : Yes. No other player has scored more points in their professional career
than Lebron James has.
a) Only Argument 1 is strong b) Only Argument 2 is strong
c) Only Argument 3 is strong d) Both Arguments 1 and 3 are strong
Person 1 : Children should not read novels that contain instances of racism.
113.
Person 2 in response to Person 1: Parents and teachers of children can use such
novels to educate children against racism.
Which of the following is correct ?
a) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that some novels contain instances of racism.
b) Person 2 supports racism.
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
114.
Cocoa is rich in plant chemicals called flavanols that may help to protect the heart.
Dark chocolate contains up to 2-3 times more flavanol-rich cocoa solids than milk
chocolate. Flavanols have been shown to support the production of Nitric Oxide (NO)
in the endolethium (the inner cell lining of blood vessels) that helps to relax the blood
vessels and improve blood flow, thereby lowering blood pressure. Flavanols in chocolate
can increase insulin sensitivity in short term studies; in the long run this could reduce
risk of diabetes.
Which of the following, if true, strengthens the explanation above ?
a) Communities with high levels of dietary intake of dark chocolate exhibit low rates
of death from hypertension (high blood pressure).
b) Individuals with low levels of nitric oxide in the endolethium exhibited relaxed
blood vessels and robust blood flow.
c) There is no peer-reviewed study which proves the link between intake of cocoa
flavanols and reduction in risk of diabetes.
115.
AI often elicits a sense of amazement, of wonder, of possibility for the future. But just
as AI offers advancements, there is also the potential for a bleak future – machines
are prone to bias and racism. These machines learn by running training data through
algorithms, each crafted by human handlers. Therefore, if the data inputted into the
system is biased, the result will be biased too. This is dangerous and the threat needs
to be addressed before biased AI systems become ubiquitous. Ultimately, AI systems
have the potential to deepen existing systemic inequalities, particularly in industries
like healthcare, employment, and criminal justice.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument ?
a) Existing data sets can incorporate the biases of human handlers which reflects
in AI output.
b) Large-scale deployment of AI systems has been hindered by the likelihood of biased
results.
c) Human handlers have tried to manipulate AI systems through the use of biased
data.
d) Industries like healthcare, employment, and criminal justice are in urgent need
of AI systems.
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116.
Fake news and sophisticated disinformation campaigns are especially problematic
in democratic systems, and there is growing debate on how to address these issues
without undermining the benefits of digital media. In order to maintain an open,
democratic system, it is important that government, business, and consumers work
together to solve these problems.
Which one of the following explanations, if valid, most helps to justify the above
reasoning ?
a) An effective means of countering fake news and disinformation campaigns is to
revert to print media for critical information.
b) Only governments have the power to counter fake news and sophisticated
disinformation campaigns.
c) Autocratic systems of government ensure that only verified and accurate
information is disseminated.
d) Democratic societies are underpinned by freedom of speech and expression.
117. Legislator: We recently evaluated the impact that an amendment to a particular

national legislation would have on the population, by undertaking a survey in the most
populous state of the country as well as a nation-wide survey. We were unable to get
any information from the national survey results. However, we found that the response
to the amendment was highly promising in the state-wide survey. We concluded that
the national population’s response would be promising as well.
The Legislator’s reasoning does which of the following ?
a) infers a statistical generalisation by deploying statistical tools to different data
sets.
b) bases the prediction about the impact of a phenomenon on the impact of the
phenomenon’s cause.
c) makes a prediction about future events on facts from multiple recent comparable
events.
d) uses evidence from a case where direct evidence is available to make a conclusion
about a dissimilar case where direct evidence is not available.
118. Statement : The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill, 2022 (“Bill”) seeks to authorise
the taking of measurements (such as finger-impressions) of convicts and other persons
for the purposes of identification and investigation in criminal matters.
Person 1 : The Bill should not become a law because it allows for collection of
measurements without any provisions for data protection.
Person 2 : I disagree. Data protection measures can be developed. But the Bill will
help law enforcement agencies to utilise the latest technology to identify criminals.
a) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that the Bill should not become a law under any
circumstances.
b) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that data protection is a valid concern with respect
to the Bill.
c) According to Person 2, concerns about data protection are sufficient to reject the
Bill.
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119. Issue : As of April 2022, a few cases of the COVID XE variant have been found in
India, which may be more transmissible than previous variants.
Person 1 : (in April 2022): The government should institute a national lockdown
pre-emptively to prevent a potential new wave of COVID XE. Although lockdowns cause
great difficulty for people, there is no other way to prevent a potential new wave.
Person 2 : (in April 2022): A national lockdown is a drastic measure that severely
harms businesses and people. The risk posed by the new COVID XE variant does not
justify a national lockdown, at least at this stage.
a) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that a lockdown will definitely be needed in future.
b) Person 2 thinks that a national lockdown is never justified.
c) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that a lockdown has negative consequences.
120. Children who enjoy reading books usually do so indoors. Children should spend time
playing outdoors.
Conclusions :
I. Children should not read books.
II. Children who enjoy reading books never play outdoors.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Both I and II follow
d) Neither I nor II follows
121. The quickest way to decarbonise in the near term is scaling up renewable energies to
replace coal and gas. This will be even more important as transport and home heating
become electrified. While electrification and the deployment of renewables can go a
long way, for some sectors this will not be enough. Cement and steel manufacture,
for instance, cannot be simply electrified and powered by renewables. Similarly, heavy
duty transport — such as air travel, shipping and long-haul trucking — presents a
challenge.
Which one of the following statements can be properly inferred from the passage ?
a) Transport and home heating cannot be powered using coal and gas.
b) Air travel and shipping can be decarbonised over the long-term using current
renewable energy technologies.
c) Existing modes of generating renewable energy are insufficient for decarbonising
cement manufacturing.
d) Long-haul trucking can only be powered using coal and gas.
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122. The cloud-burst caused extensive damage to roadways around the town, making them
unsuitable for heavy vehicles such as trucks and buses carrying more than 20 people.
As a result, the villagers are being extracted via air. The roadways cannot be mended
until everyone is extracted safely.
Based on the information above, which conclusion necessarily follows ?
a) Materials for mending the roadways will have to be transported via air.
b) No person or vehicle is entering the town via roadways.
c) The villagers would have used trucks to leave the town if the roads weren’t
damaged.
123. Ayurveda is a traditional branch of medical science in India. Ayurveda techniques

have great capabilities, and complex procedures including surgeries can be performed
effectively using the principles of Ayurveda.
I. Ayurveda is a better form of medicine than allopathy.
II. Ayurveda is a neglected science.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
124.
There are many ways to be successful in life. One way is to work hard and be good at
your job. Another way is to be street smart and develop a great emotional quotient.
Yet another way is to always follow the advice of your elders.
I. All three are equally easy ways of being successful in life.
II. It is possible to be successful without working hard.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
125.
The freedom of speech is not absolute. Certain categories of speech, such as hate
speech, sedition, defamation, etc., are not protected by the Constitution.
I. Obscene speech is protected by the Constitution.
II. Defamation is a criminal offence.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
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126.
It is statistically proven that those who play sports suffer from less stress than those
who do not play sports. In fact, regularly playing sports is associated with an overall
higher level of mental health. Further, outdoor sports are associated with better mental
health than indoor sports.
I. Sports are essential to maintain good mental health.
II. People who regularly play sports never face mental health issues.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
127.
Since their inception in the 1970s, video games have often been criticized by some for
violent content. Politicians, parents, and other activists have claimed that violence in
video games can be tied to violent behavior, particularly in children, and have sought
ways to regulate the sale of video games. However, numerous studies have failed to
find any connection between video games and violent behavior.
I. Video games have no relationship with violence.
II. Better studies need to be conducted to find a link between video games and
violence.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
128. In 2008, the Bar Council of India framed a rule stipulating that an advocate is
prohibited from advertising or soliciting his work either directly or indirectly, through
circulars, advertisements, interviews, touts, and personal communications. The idea
of the prohibition of advertising practices in the legal profession has been taken from
the law in the UK, where the legal profession is considered noble, and it is believed
that its commercialization will cause dishonor to the profession and will lead to unfair
practices.
I. The Bar Council of India has copied the law in the UK without applying its own
mind as to whether such a restriction on advertising would be conducive in the
Indian context.
II. Lawyers in India are not allowed to commend themselves to persons looking for
legal assistance.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
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129.
The Government of Kerala has reserved 75% seats in all public educational institutions
for persons having ‘domicile’ status in the State of Kerala. The reason cited by the
Government is that other States in the country have taken similar measures with
respect to their residents. The approach adopted by the State of Kerala is improper
because every State authority is required to independently apply its own mind before
arriving at a decision.
I. 75% seats in all public institutions are in fact occupied by persons holding ‘domicile’
status in the State of Kerala.
II. The reason behind the introduction of ‘domicile’ reservations by the State of Kerala
is not an assessment of backwardness of certain parts of the State.
c) Both I and II follow d) Neither I nor II follows
130. The April 1986 disaster at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant in Ukraine was a direct
consequence of Cold War isolation and the resulting lack of any safety culture. While
no-one in the West was under any illusion about the safety of early Soviet nuclear
reactor designs, some lessons learned have also been applicable to Western plants.
Since then, the safety of all Soviet-designed reactors has improved vastly. This is due
largely to the development of a culture of safety encouraged by collaboration between
East and West, and substantial investment in improving the reactors.
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage ?
a) Financial investment in nuclear reactor-safety was not a priority for governments
prior to the Chernobyl disaster.
b) In the period preceding the Chernobyl disaster, Western nuclear scientists believed
their nuclear reactors are superior than Soviet reactor designs.
c) The level of collaboration between Western and Eastern nations in the
pre-Chernobyl era/before 1986, in relation to safe nuclear reactor designs, was
lower compared to the post-Chernobyl era.
d) Both b) and c)
131.
Black people are about twice as likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease as White people,
but for years the pharmaceutical industry has mostly left them out of trials intended to
prove new drugs are safe and effective. Two trials organized by a leading pharmaceutical
company for its drug ‘X’, the first Alzheimer’s drug approved in almost two decades,
were among those with the lowest Black representation. Only 19 people, or 0.6%, of
3,285 participants in its two final-stage trials identified themselves as Black. There are
good reasons to study Alzheimer’s in broader populations: The disease is still poorly
understood, and the brain pathology and disease genetics may be different in groups
with different ancestry.
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage ?
a) Drug companies find it economical to enroll non-black participants in clinical trials.
b) Black people are reluctant to enroll in clinical trials.
c) The approval of Drug X will enable pharmaceutical companies to better understand
Alzheimer’s disease.
d) The approved Drug ‘X’ may not be as safe and efficacious among Black patients
as it would be among White patients.
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132.
Geeta is buying three ice-cream bars and must distribute them amongst five of her
friends - V, W, X, Y and Z - in accordance with the following conditions :
(i) If V gets an ice-cream bar, W and Y must also get an ice-cream bar.
(ii) If Z gets an ice-cream bar, X cannot get an ice-cream bar.
(iii) At least one of W or X must get an ice-cream bar.
(iv) Each ice-cream bar can only go to one person.
If X gets an ice-cream bar, the other two ice-cream bars can go to :
a) Only V and W
b) Only W and Y
c) Only W and Z
133.
A school principal must schedule classes for five subjects – English, Maths, Science, Social
Studies, and Music – in accordance with the following conditions :
(i) All subjects except Music must be scheduled at least once a day.
(ii) Science must be scheduled immediately after Maths on any day.
(iii) English cannot be the first or last subject scheduled on any day.
(iv) Social Studies cannot be immediately followed by Music. Music cannot be
immediately followed by Social Studies.
If English is the second subject scheduled on a given day, which of these is a possible
order of subjects for that day ?
a) Music, English, Maths, Social Studies
b) Science, English, Music, Social Studies
c) Social Studies, English, Maths, Science
d) Maths, English, Science, Social Studies
134.
An athlete who enjoys playing football, tennis, badminton, cricket and basketball must
somehow play all five of these sports during a given 7-day week (starting on Monday and
ending on Sunday) in accordance with the following conditions :
(i) Football cannot be played on Monday or Sunday.
(ii) Badminton cannot be played on the day immediately before or immediately after
the day on which tennis is played.
(iii) Basketball cannot be played on Thursday.
(iv) At least two of the five sports must be played twice during the week.
(v) Only one sport can be played each day.
(vi) No sport can be played for two consecutive days.
If Badminton is played on Monday and Basketball is played on Saturday, which of the
following is a possible order of sports for the week ?
a) Badminton (Monday), Tennis (Tuesday), Cricket (Wednesday), Football (Thursday),
Cricket (Friday), Basketball (Saturday), Badminton (Sunday)
b) Badminton (Monday), Football (Tuesday), Tennis (Wednesday), Football (Thursday),
Cricket (Friday), Basketball (Saturday), Basketball (Sunday)
c) Badminton (Monday), Football (Tuesday), Tennis (Wednesday), Football (Thursday),
Cricket (Friday), Basketball (Saturday), Cricket (Sunday)
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135.
Seven locations (Classroom, Hostel, Library, Auditorium, Dining Hall, Meeting Room,
and Common Room) within an unusual college campus are to be assigned floor
numbers from 1 (lowest) to 7 (highest). Each location can only have one floor number,
and each floor number can only be assigned to one location. The numbering is to be
done in accordance with the following conditions :
(i) The Classroom is on a lower floor than the Auditorium.
(ii) The Meeting Room is exactly one floor lower than the Hostel.
(iii) The Library is either on Floor 1 or on Floor 7.
(iv) The Common Room is on Floor 4.
Which of the following is a possible arrangement of the seven locations, going from
Floor 1 to Floor 7 ?
a) Classroom, Auditorium, Dining Hall, Common Room, Library, Meeting Room,
Hostel
b) Classroom, Dining Hall, Auditorium, Common Room, Meeting Room, Hostel,
Library
c) Classroom, Meeting Room, Dining Hall, Common Room, Hostel, Auditorium,
Library
d) Library, Dining Hall, Common Room, Meeting Room, Hostel, Classroom,
Auditorium
136. Some laptops are chocolates. All toffees are chocolates.

I. Some laptops are toffees.
II. No toffees are laptops.
III. All toffees are laptops.
IV. All laptops are toffees.
a) Either I or II follows.
b) Either III or IV follows.
c) Both I and III follow.
d) Both I and IV follow.
137. All boxes are plugs. All plugs are bottles.

I. All plugs are boxes.
II. All bottles are boxes.
III. No bottles are boxes.
a) Only Statement I is certainly false.
b) Both Statements II and III are certainly false.
c) Both Statements I and III are certainly false.
d) Only Statement III is certainly false.
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138. Only fruits are pasta. All noodles are pasta.

Examine the following statements:
I. No fruits are noodles.
II. All pasta are noodles.
III. All fruits are noodles.
a) Only Statement I is certainly false.
b) Both Statements II and III are certainly false.
c) Both Statements I and III are certainly false.
d) Only Statement III is certainly false.
139. People are always blaming circumstances for their difficulties. Most who succeed in
this world are people who get up and look for the circumstances they want, and if
they cannot find them, they make them.
Which of the following is an assumption necessarily taken for granted in the above
statement ?
a) Failure is always a consequence of not trying hard enough.
b) Those who do not complain about their circumstances are successful in life.
c) There is some correlation between desired circumstances and success.
d) Both b) and c)
140. Online retailers do not have to pay for overheads such as shop rent and sales staff
salaries, owing to which they can charge lower prices for products than brick-and-
mortar stores which have to incur such costs.
The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which of the following is assumed ?
a) Online retailers pay lesser salaries than brick-and-mortar stores.
b) Consumers prefer to pay less prices.
c) Shop rent and sales staff salaries add to the price consumers have to pay for
products.
d) Both b) and c)
141. The world sees tech companies as giants with trillion-dollar market values and global
networks. Cue renewed regulatory efforts to undermine their dominance. Shortly after
the EU agreed stringent legislation to regulate Big Tech, the UK this week set out
details of its plan. Such moves are a response to Big Tech’s competition-stifling scale.
Amazon will account for an estimated 39.5 per cent of the US e-commerce market
this year, according to research. Meta has 3.6bn users around the world and is the
world’s largest social media company. Google has 92 per cent of the search engine
market, according to data.
Which of the following is the most appropriate assumption required by the above
passage ?
a) Tech companies with small market shares will go bankrupt not survive in the
absence of regulatory intervention.
b) The regulatory efforts will help bolster the market shares of the competitors of
Amazon, Meta and Google.
c) Regulators have been struggling to rein in Big Tech.
d) Tech companies with large market shares merit regulatory intervention in order
to maintain competitive markets.
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142.
Ethanol can be blended into petrol to reduce the quantity of petrol required to run a
vehicle, thus reducing dependency on imported, costly and polluting petroleum. For
India to meet its target of 20% ethanol blended in petrol by the year 2025 (commonly
known as the E20 target), it will have to bring in more land under cultivation of
feedstock – agricultural products that can be converted into ethanol – area that can
be better utilised for the generation of renewable energy and for furthering the electric
vehicles adoption programme in the country, according to a new report. Besides,
the ethanol target will not reduce earth-warming emissions drastically, it may be
detrimental to India’s food security, and will only help us inch towards energy security,
experts say.
The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which of the following is assumed ?
a) India’s food security is already under threat.
b) Dearth of renewable energy is hindering the adoption of electric vehicles in the
country.
c) India is lagging behind in achieving its E20 target.
d) Land to be used for feedstock cultivation has conditions suited for renewable
energy generation.
143.
The Constitution of India is a vital document. It lays out our rights and duties and
places meaningful restrictions on our elected representatives. It is imperative on
our part to educate ourselves about the Constitution. Therefore, every person must
endeavour to place a copy of the Constitution in their home.
Which of the following is an assumption required by the above passage ?
a) Our elected representatives cannot be trusted.
b) People are more likely to read a text if it is placed inside their home.
c) The Constitution Framers were great visionaries.
144.
Rather than adopt conventional ways of water consumption, we should all start storing
our water in copper containers so that we can get the benefits of copper intake. It is
now well-proven that storing water in a container for 24-48 hours is very effective in
transmitting some copper content into the water.
a) It is safe to drink water out of a copper container.
b) We should drink adequate amounts of water every day.
c) Storing water in copper containers is one of the best ways to ensure that the
requisite copper content reaches your body.
145.
“Mental-health issues and stress or high anxiety often go together. Finding an emotional
release like painting allows a person’s mind to relax and let go of all the problems that
contribute to a high-stress level. When people create something beautiful through
painting, they stimulate the creative mind while relieving mental strain. A low-stress
level leads to a happier, healthier lifestyle and helps improve overall mental health.”
a) People can have a creative mind.
b) The act of painting involves expressing emotions.
c) Stress reduces the quality of life.
d) All of the above
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146. Principle : An advocate is bound to accept any brief in the Courts or Tribunals or before
any other authorities in or before which he proposes to practise at a fee consistent
with his standing at the Bar and the nature of the case.
Facts : You are an advocate practising in the Supreme Court of India and specialising
in criminal law. You are approached by a Pakistani national who has been convicted
of serious terrorism and murder charges by the Delhi High Court. He wants you to
represent him before the Supreme Court. He is willing to pay any fee you may quote.
However, you have a serious moral objection to taking up this case since it concerns
the security of the country.
a) You can refuse to represent the terrorist on account of your strong moral objection.
It is unfair to force a lawyer to argue a case against his moral beliefs.
b) You can refuse to represent the terrorist on account of your strong moral
objection. It would be unfair to the client if his lawyer does not believe in his case
strongly.
c) You are under an obligation to accept the case because the principle makes no
exceptions for advocates having moral objections.
147. Principle : No person accused of an offence involving commercial quantity of narcotic

drugs shall be released on bail or on his own bond unless the court is satisfied that
there are reasonable grounds for believing that he is not guilty of such offence and
that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.
Facts : Michael is accused of possessing commercial quantities of cocaine
(a narcotic drug), which is an offence. However, he has not yet been arrested by the
police. He moves the relevant court for anticipatory bail, praying that he should not be
arrested for the alleged offences. The Court finds a good case for grant of anticipatory
bail; however, the Court is not ready to state that “there are reasonable grounds for
believing that he is not guilty of such offence”.
a) The Court is not bound by the given principle, because the principle speaks of
“release” of a person on bail, thus implying that it does not apply to cases of
anticipatory bail.
b) The Court is still bound by the given principle because it would be absurd to
suggest that persons in custody and those not yet arrested are governed by different
rules.
c) The Court is not bound by the given principle because its language is only in the
form of a recommendation. The Court is free to grant bail based on its own sense
of fairness and justice.
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148. Principle : The appeal by a candidate or his agent or by any other person with the
consent of a candidate or his election agent to vote or refrain from voting for any person
on the ground of his religion, race, caste, community or language, shall be a “corrupt
practice”.
Facts : Ms. Tickoo, a candidate from the Krantikari Party, says to her voters: “Vote
for me because you are all Christians and your interests will be protected by me.”
a) Ms. Tickoo is guilty of a corrupt practice because she has appealed to religion.
b) Ms. Tickoo is not guilty of corrupt practice because she has appealed neither to
her own religion nor to another candidate’s.
c) Ms. Tickoo is not guilty of corrupt practice because the principle only applies to
male candidates.
d) None of the above.
149. There must be mandatory vaccination against communicable diseases.

Argument 1 : Yes, the collective wellbeing of the population must override individual
choice.
Argument 2 : No, individuals must have agency over what they inject into their
bodies.
Argument 3 : No, this would lead to profiteering by vaccine manufacturers.
a) Only arguments 1 and 2 are strong.
b) All arguments are strong.
c) Only arguments 2 and 3 are strong.
d) Only arguments 1 and 3 are strong.
150. Should there be a limit on the number of times an individual may be elected as a head
of a state ?
Argument 1 : Yes, it prevents concentration of power in a single individual for a
prolonged time and reduces the possibility of misuse of power.
Argument 2 : No, an incumbent individual will know how to best run the country,
given their experience.
Argument 3 : No, the population must be free to give the democratic mandate to the
person of their choosing, even if they win multiple times.
a) Only argument 1 is strong.
b) Only argument 1 and 3 are strong.
c) Only argument 3 is strong.
d) Only arguments 2 and 3 are strong.
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Space for rough work
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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST-2022
B.A.LL.B.(Hons.) ADMISSION TEST-2022
MASTER ANSWER KEY
Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans.
1 B 26 B 51 C 76 B 101 C 126 D
2 D 27 C 52 A 77 A 102 A 127 D
3 C 28 D 53 A 78 C 103 B 128 B
4 A 29 B 54 C 79 B 104 D 129 B
5 C 30 C 55 D 80 D 105 C 130 C
6 B 31 D 56 D 81 B 106 C 131 D
7 A 32 C 57 D 82 D 107 B 132 B
8 B 33 B 58 C 83 A 108 C 133 C
9 D 34 C 59 D 84 B 109 C 134 C
10 D 35 C 60 D 85 C 110 A 135 B
11 B 36 A 61 C 86 D 111 A 136 A
12 C 37 A 62 A 87 C 112 C 137 D
13 C 38 C 63 D 88 D 113 A 138 A
14 A 39 D 64 B 89 D 114 A 139 C
15 D 40 C 65 A 90 C 115 A 140 B
16 D 41 B 66 A 91 B 116 D 141 D
17 C 42 B 67 B 92 B 117 D 142 D
18 A 43 B 68 D 93 A 118 B 143 B
19 B 44 C 69 D 94 C 119 C 144 A
20 D 45 A 70 A 95 A 120 D 145 D
21 C 46 C 71 D 96 B 121 C 146 C
22 C 47 A 72 D 97 C 122 D 147 A
23 A 48 D 73 B 98 B 123 D 148 B
24 A 49 D 74 A 99 D 124 B 149 A
25 B 50 C 75 D 100 A 125 D 150 B
AILET BA LLB
2021
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2021
Question Booklet Sl. No.

Date of Exam. : Center's Name : ________________
Duration : 90 Minutes Roll No. : ________________
Max. Marks : 150 OMR Sheet No. : ________________
Date of Birth : ________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as
they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions. Answer all the questions.
3. Each question carries one mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There will be negative marking. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one of the four
responses provided, with Black/blue ball point pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?” the correct answer is (b).
M
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
6. Answering the question by any method other than the method indicated above shall
be considered wrong answer.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details
required and in the spaces provide for.
9. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the test booklet along with
candidate’s copy of the OMR, after handing over the original OMR to the invigilator.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her
candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have
to face criminal prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators etc. are strictly
not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the test.
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BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 35 1 – 35 3–8
General
B 35 36 – 70 9 – 13
Knowledge
C Legal Aptitude 35 71 – 105 14 – 28
D Reasoning 35 106 – 140 29 – 36
E Mathematics 10 141 – 150 37 – 38
Total Marks 150
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SECTION – A : English
Questions 1 – 5 : Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
“The night I arrived in Delhi on a visit in January 1996, the elevator at the Maurya Sheraton
took us up to the twelfth floor in a breath-taking six or seven seconds. “Remarkable,” I
commented admiringly to the friendly hotel employee in a maroon sari and business-like
pageboy haircut, who had draped a three-kilogram marigold garland around my neck as
I stepped across the threshold. “We couldn’t have ascended faster in the U. S. of A.”
She took my praise in stride, as well she should have. Jet-lagged after an eighteen-hour
journey from New York, I had failed to notice that this was not some superfast new elevator
technology that the Maurya had brought to Delhi, but rather some highly creative labelling.
When I finally woke up and looked out my window, I realized that what the elevator buttons
had called the twelfth floor was in fact the second. The gleaming Maurya elevator had
merely taken me for a ride – and a shorter ride I’d imagined.
I couldn’t help the accusatory tone out of my voice the next time I ran into the maroon
sari. “Twelfth floor, huh ?” I said pointedly. “I didn’t think liberalization meant being liberal
with the facts.”
She was surprised that I had taken offense. “Our foreign visitors much prefer to think of
themselves as being on eleventh and twelfth floors than the first or second,” she replied
with wide-eyed innocence. “And they don’t look out of the windows that much.”
Welcome, I thought, to the new India. An India I was discovering for the first time: an India
of five-star hotels, welcoming garlands, and smooth-talking hotel staff, where nothing is
quite what it seems (not even the elevator buttons), where windows are not meant to be
opened and appearances are the only reality. [Shashi Tharoor, India : From Midnight to
the Millennium and Beyond (Arcade Publishing, 1997) 275-276]
1. After reading the last line of the first paragraph, “We couldn’t have ascended faster
in the U. S. of A.”, which of the options do you think the author is most likely to agree
with ?
(a) India never fails to surprise
(b) Indians have been great innovators
(c) Foreigners are turning to India’s technical advancement
(d) It’s a fact that India hasn’t made significant progress
2. As used in the third paragraph, the underlined word “accusatory” most nearly means
all options, except
(a) denunciative (b) criminate
(c) eulogistic (d) censuring
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3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s impression

(a) transgresses from being proud to being even prouder
(b) plummets from a sense of pride to a sense of disillusionment
(c) trends from a level of disappointment to a level of condemnation
(d) remains steadfast on the thought of being an Indian
4. In the line, “…taken me for a ride – and a shorter ride I’d imagined”. means
(a) the elevator had taken them very swiftly
(b) the hotel was treating its guests like royalties
(c) technology had advanced in third world countries
(d) people were being hoodwinked
5. The tone of the passage could be summed up to be

(a) pensive and remorseful
(b) matter of fact and sombre
(c) humorous and reflective
(d) fiery and critical
Questions 6 – 11 : Choose an appropriate word to fill in each blank space.

________ (6) are increasingly awarding large _________ (7) to plaintiffs who have
experienced _________ (8) comments and harassment or been denied promotions and
________ (9) because of their family responsibilities. These _________ (10) are more
likely to prevail than other employment-related cases. _________ (11) suits on behalf of
caregivers are on the rise as well.
6. (a) Judge (b) Juries (c) Prosecutors (d) Defendants
7. (a) personal injuries (b) kickbacks (c) rewards (d) settlements
8. (a) derogatory (b) directive (c) abusive (d) adulatory
9. (a) perks (b) raises (c) rises (d) reimbursements
10. (a) suits (b) complains (c) accusations (d) remarks
11. (a) Torts (b) Act of Law (c) Class Action (d) Procedural Law
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For Questions 12 – 14 : Find the correct meaning of the highlighted word in each
of the sentences from the choices given below.
12. Ravi was an impecunious student noted for his academic excellence.
(a) brilliant and studious
(b) rude and arrogant
(c) shrewd and manipulative
(d) having little or no money
13. The lady looked rather lugubrious.

(a) sad and sorrowful
(b) eager and anxious
(c) happy and cheerful
(d) high and energetic
14. She displayed a recalcitrant attitude.

(a) enthusiastic
(b) resisting authority or discipline
(c) weak and frightened
(d) hollow and insincere
Questions 15 and 16 : Choose the most appropriate option that completes the
given sentences.
15. To be successful, managers must see themselves more as catalysts for problem
solving than as problem solvers _____________.
(a) per se (b) a priori (c) pro rata (d) faux pas
16. The art of speaking or writing effectively is _____________

(a) Rhetoric (b) Brevity
(c) Garrulousness (d) Verbosity
17. What do we call someone who tries to “put something across”, good or bad and
who does not want scrutiny or criticism, but a specific action ?
(a) Enthusiast
(b) Sloganeer
(c) Propagandist
(d) Zealot
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18. Choose the most appropriate option that best explains the figure of speech in this line :
In rivers the water that you touch is the last of what passed and the first of that which
comes: so, with time present. (Leonardo Da Vinci )
(a) Personification of the tangible and the intangible
(b) Simile that compares water and time
(c) Hyperbole that reveals elements of similarities
(d) Metaphysical analogy that divides time past from time future
19. Choose the most appropriate option that most nearly means the same as the
expression, ‘the kiss of Judas’ in the English language :
(a) A friend at court
(b) A snake in the grass
(c) A fair-weather friend
(d) A match made in heaven
20. Choose the most appropriate option that best expresses the statement :
Since I was planning on a Euro tour, I decided to _____________ my French.
(a) try my hand at
(b) make up for
(c) brush up on
(d) master the art of
21.
Choose the most appropriate option that could be the best analogy for the given pair
of words :
tree : leaf :: ?
(a) tiger : cubs (b) bows : arrows
(c) plants : sunlight (d) flower : petal
Questions 22 – 25 : Do as Directed :
22. Choose the most appropriate option that is grammatically incorrect :

(a) A growing bodies of evidence shows that simple rules match or beat more
complicated analysis across a wide range of decision.
(b) Rules may be developed using sophisticated statistical models or through
analysis, but they shouldn’t be difficult to grasp.
(c) Because they are easy to put into practice, simple rules can induce action
without unnecessarily limiting oppositions.
(d) All firms must balance two conflicting but equally important demands: efficiency
and flexibility.
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23. Choose the most appropriate option that has a grammatically incorrect interrogative
statement :
(a) What information and language should the problem statement include ?
(b) How we will ensure that a solution is being implementing from its inception ?
(c) Do we have the necessary support for soliciting and evaluating possible
solutions ?
(d) Are complex organisations far more difficult to manage than merely complicated
ones ?
24. Choose the most appropriate option that best connects the sentence :
Companies that correctly match their strategy-making processes to their competitive
circumstances perform ____________________________________.
(a) better than those that don’t
(b) well as those who aren’t
(c) as good as those that don’t
(d) best to the ones that doesn’t
25. Choose the most appropriate option that punctuates the sentence well :
(a) The professor demanded, “What makes you think that ‘discredited’ or ‘repudiated’
are synonymous with defeated ?”
(b) The professor demanded, “What makes you think that ‘discredited’ or ‘repudiated’
are synonymous with ‘defeated’ ?
(c) The professor demanded, “What makes you think that, ‘discredited’ or repudiated
are synonymous with ‘defeated’ ?”
(d) The professor demanded, “What makes you think that ‘discredited’ or ‘repudiated’
are synonymous with ‘defeated’ ?”
Questions 26 – 30 : In each sentence a word or phrase is underlined. Below each

sentence are four other words or phrases. Choose the one word or phrase which
would best keep the meaning of the original sentence if it were substituted for the
underlined word.
26. The old age of the equipment is a definite liability to the factory.
(a) cost
(b) disadvantage
(c) aid
(d) capacity
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27. Having lived in a ghetto most of her life, she despaired of ever living “the good life.”
(a) segregated slum
(b) visitor’s quarters
(c) public house
(d) high-rise apartment
28. The president considered the vote on his tax bill to be crucial.
(a) extremely important
(b) unimportant
(c) hard fought
(d) far off
29. The panorama from their porch encompassed a large part of the Rocky Mountains.
(a) cooking utensil
(b) unbroken view over a large area
(c) TV screen
(d) small patch of land
30. The candidate felt that his academic credentials were sufficient to win him the job.
(a) important
(b) educational
(c) costly
(d) experience
Questions 31 – 35 : Read the following sets of words and find the odd one out from
the group of four words.
31. (a) Tadpole (b) Fledgling (c) Cub (d) Kitten
32. (a) Skin (b) Nails (c) Eyes (d) Nose
33. (a) Progression (b) Headway (c) Forge ahead (d) Deviant
34. (a) Abatement (b) Declination (c) Elevation (d) Subsidence
35. (a) Mare (b) Gazelle (c) Antelope (d) Stag
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SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. Who was appointed as Election Commissioner to the Election Commission of India
during June 2021 ?
(a) Rajiv Kumar
(b) Anup Chandra Pandey
(c) Sushil Chandra
(d) Sunil Arora
37. India’s foreign exchange reserve in June 2021 touched

(a) US $ 900 billion (b) US $ 700 billion
(c) US $ 500 billion (d) US $ 600 billion
38. Who is the newly elected President of the United Nations General Assembly in 2021 ?
(a) Volkan Bozkir (b) Peter Thomson
(c) Abdulla Shahid (d) Matian Fernanda
39. The U. S. Vice President had to use the casting vote to get the Senate’s confirmation
for the appointment of
(a) Neera Tandon (b) Kiran Ahuja
(c) Aruna Khilanani (d) P. Rupa Ranga
40. Who is the most philanthropic person in the world in the past 100 years ?
(a) Bill and Melinda Gates
(b) Warren Buffett
(c) Jamsetji Tata
(d) Azim Premji
41. Who was top seeded in 53 kg category in wrestling for the Tokyo Olympics 2021 ?
(a) Venesh Phogat (b) Mayu Mukaida
(c) Qianyu Pang (d) Ravi Dahiya
42. Joe Biden is the _________ President of the United States of America.
(a) 45th (b) 46th (c) 47th (d) 44th
43. Which country sent 9 satellites into space from the first sea-based commercial
launches ?
(a) India (b) China (c) France (d) U. S. A.
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44. One among the major economies / country to phase out both coal based and atomic
energy based power generation is
(a) Germany (b) France
(c) U. S. A. (d) Canada
45. Which of the following recently released the ‘closest ever breath taking’ pictures of
the Sun ?
(a) ISRO
(b) SPACE-X
(c) NASA
(d) ROSCOSMOS
46. According to Public Affairs Index, 2020, which are the two best governed States in
India ?
(a) Kerala and Goa
(b) Kerala and T. N.
(c) Goa and Chhattisgarh
(d) Goa and Telangana
47. Which of the following is the fastest growing ‘Tech-Hub’ ?

(a) San Francisco (b) Bengaluru
(c) London (d) Mumbai
48. India was elected a Member of U.N. Commission on Status of Women during
September 2020 defeating
(a) Afghanistan (b) Sri Lanka
(c) China (d) Pakistan
49. India signed an agreement on 15-7-2020 to expand cooperation in cyber security with
(a) U. S. A. (b) Germany
(c) France (d) Israel
50. The quadilateral security dialogue also known as QUAD is and informal strategic
forum to check the economic and military power of China consists of
(a) U. S. A., France, Australia and India
(b) U. S. A., Japan, Australia and India
(c) France, Australia, Japan and India
(d) Australia, Japan, Germany and France
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51. Nobel prize for Economics, 2020 was awarded jointly to two Economists based in the
(a) University of Oxford (b) Harvard University
(c) Stanford University (d) Yale University
52. The present Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is

(a) Justice Dattu (b) Justice Verma
(c) Justice Bobde (d) Justice Arun Mishra
53. National Voters’ Day in India is observed on

(a) 26th January (b) 25th January
(c) 15th August (d) 16th August
54. Which of the following cannot cast their votes remotely through the postal ballot
system in India ?
(a) Members of the armed forces (Army, Air Force and Navy)
(b) Government employees posted outside India
(c) Government employees serving outside their state
(d) Voters under preventive detention
55. Which of the following recently became the first to successfully provide 100%
functional household tap connections in rural areas ?
(a) Sikkim (b) Ladakh
(c) Kerala (d) Goa
56. The Government of India decided to celebrate the birth anniversary of which freedom
fighter as ‘Parakram Diwas’/‘Day of Valour’ on January 23rd every year ?
(a) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Syama Prasad Mookherjee
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Bhagat Singh
57. Which of the following bodies is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body ?
(a) Law Commission of India
(b) Central Consumer Protection Authority
(c) National Anti-Profiteering Authority
(d) National Disaster Management Authority
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58. In September 2020, the Parliament of India passed three ‘Farm Bills’, i.e. the Farmers’
Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, 2020, the Farmers
(Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services
Act, 2020 and the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020. Which of these
subjects are NOT dealt with in any of the three legislations ?
(a) Selling of produce outside Agriculture Produce Market Committees
(b) Contract farming
(c) Removal of income tax exemption granted to agricultural income
(d) Restriction of situations in which supply of foodstuffs can be regulated
59. Which internet giant committed to investing $10 billion over the next 5-7 years
towards digitising the Indian economy, as part of its ‘India Digitisation Fund’ – which
will focus on enabling affordable access to the internet for Indians in their own
languages apart from building new products and services ?
(a) Facebook (b) Apple (c) PayTM (d) Google
60. The Government of India recently signed a pact for a $500 million project to build
safe and green national highway corridors in Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar
Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh, with which of these organisations ?
(a) Asian Development Bank (b) G20
(c) World Bank (d) International Monetary Fund
61. What is a diplomatic mission between two commonwealth nations called ?

(a) Embassy (b) Consulate
(c) High Commission (d) Permanent Mission
62. A joint-session of the Parliament is presided over by

(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) President of India
(c) Vice-President of India (d) Chief Justice of India
63. Cyclone Tauktae was recently in the news in May 2021. ‘Tauktae’ means gecko/
highly vocal lizard in its language of origin. From which of these languages was the
word taken ?
(a) Bahasa Melayu (b) Vietnamese
(c) Burmese (d) Khmer
64. On January 16, 2021, a team of ten climbers from Nepal made history by achieving
which of these feats ?
(a) Summiting Mount K2 in winter
(b) Being the largest team to climb Mount Everest
(c) Being the fastest team to climb Mount Everest
(d) Summiting Kanchenjunga in winter
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65. What is the name of the 2020 Tokyo Olympics mascot ?

(a) Hodori (b) Fuwa (c) Waldi (d) Miraitowa
66. On 29 July, 2020, the Ministry of Human Resource Development (since renamed
the Ministry of Education) unveiled the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020),
which recommends sweeping changes to the Education System in India. Which of
the following is not a feature of the NEP 2020 ?
(a) Change in academic structure from 10+2 to 5+3+3+4
(b) No hard separations between ‘arts’ and ‘sciences’
(c) Complete removal of B.Ed. (Bachelor of Education) degrees, and focus on
subject specialisation instead
(d) Multiple exit options during undergraduate degree programs
67. Where is the Headquarters of the International Solar Alliance with over 120 member
countries situated ?
(a) Paris (b) Baku
(c) Gurugram (d) Sochi
68. By scoring half centuries in each of the innings in her test debut against England at
Bristol in June 2021, which Indian cricketer became the youngest woman to achieve
this feat ?
(a) Smriti Mandhana (b) Mithali Raj
(c) Sneh Rana (d) Shafali Varma
69. In the history of tennis in the Open Era, who among the following has the highest
number of Grand Slam Singles’ titles ?
(a) Rafael Nadal (b) Steffi Graf
(c) Serena Williams (d) Roger Federer
70. What is the ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ ?

(a) An initiative in NCT of Delhi to reduce traffic congestion
(b) An initiative to increase Government spending on infrastructure in India
(c) A multi-country infrastructure project by the Chinese Government
(d) A multi-country infrastructure project by the Asian Development Bank
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SECTION – C : LEGAL APTITUDE
For questions 71 to 96, apply the given legal principles to the facts provided in each
of the questions and select the most appropriate answer.
71. Principle 1 : A misrepresentation arises when a person makes a false statement

of fact to another which induces the other party to enter into a contract, resulting in
loss to that other party.
Principle 2 : When consent to an agreement is caused by misrepresentation,
the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was
so caused.
Facts : It was Kritika’s mother’s 50th birthday on 9th February 2021. Kritika decided
to organise a lavish celebration to celebrate the event. Kritika’s mother used to play
the piano before her marriage. However, after Kritika was born, she was unable
to take out any time to pursue her interest in playing the instrument. Kritika learnt
about this from her maternal grandmother a few days before her mother’s birthday.
She decided to give her mother a piano on her 50th birthday.
She visited Himanshu’s piano store for this purpose. Himanshu showed Kritika all
the pianos available at his store and explained the features of each model. Kritika
had no prior knowledge of pianos and hence relied upon Himanshu’s opinion. She
saw a vintage piano and was immediately drawn to it. Being a shrewd businessman,
Himanshu saw an opportunity to sell the piano and said “They don’t make them like
this anymore. It’s got a fine tone and it’s really cheap at ` 50,000”.
Kritika purchased the piano and gifted the same to her mother. However, when
her mother started playing it, she immediately realized that the piano was of an
inferior quality and that the tone was not proper. Kritika and her mother approached
Himanshu and asked him to either replace the piano or refund the money. Himanshu
refused to do either. What would be the strongest argument that Himanshu could
make ?
(a) Himanshu is not liable to do either because it is only Kritika’s mother’s subjective
opinion that the piano was ‘inferior’ and that the tone was not ‘proper’.
(b) Himanshu is not liable to do either because there is nothing to suggest that
Kritika’s decision was based purely on Himanshu’s statement.
(c) Himanshu is not liable to do either the piano since Kritika should have done her
due diligence and should have been more careful in selecting the piano.
(d) Himanshu is not liable to do either because he only gave Kritika his opinion and
did not make any false statement of fact.
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Principle : No confession made to a Police Officer, shall be proved as against

72.
a person accused of any offence.
Facts : Ritu was accused of having murdered Akash over a property dispute.
After arrest, Ritu made a confession to the Inspector that she had in fact murdered
Akash. The confessional statement of Ritu was written on a paper and Ritu signed
the same. The police carried on further investigation but were not able to find any
other evidence to produce before the court. Can the confessional statement signed
by Ritu be proved in court ?
(a) No, such a confessional statement cannot be proved since the confession was
made to a Police Officer.
(b) Yes, such a confessional statement can be proved since it is not an oral
confession. It has been duly signed by Ritu and hence there is no doubt that
she made the confession herself.
(c) Yes, since there is no other evidence, it is necessary to rely on this statement
or else a serious offender will escape the clutches of criminal law.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
73. Principle : No tenant of immovable property shall, during the continuance of the
tenancy, be permitted to deny that the landlord of such tenant had, at the beginning
of the tenancy, a title to such immovable property.
Facts : Aishwarya rented a flat from Nidhi for 2 years. She signed a rent agreement
and regularly paid the monthly rent to Nidhi for 6 months. In the seventh month,
Ashish approached Aishwarya and told her that he is the real owner of the property
and that Nidhi is defrauding Aishwarya as well as Ashish. Ashish showed Aishwarya
the original property papers which showed him to be the real owner. Satisfied that
the papers were genuine and that Ashish is the actual owner, Aishwarya stopped
paying the rent to Nidhi and started paying the same to Ashish. Nidhi filed a suit
against Aishwarya for the recovery of rent arrears. Aishwarya took the defence that
Nidhi was never the real owner of the flat and that she will pay the rent to the real
owner i.e. Ashish. Decide.
(a) Aishwarya should pay the rent to Nidhi since she took the property on rent from
Nidhi and now she cannot deny Nidhi’s title over the property
(b) Aishwarya has checked the property papers herself and it is clear to her that
Ashish is the actual owner. Thus, she can deny Nidhi’s title and should pay the
rent to Ashish
(c) Aishwarya should deposit the money in court and let the court decide who to
give the money to
(d) A disputed property should never be given on rent until the dispute is
resolved
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74. Principle : A person who suffers an injury caused as a result of a risk to which
they consented, cannot complain of the consequent damage. The defendant must
have the capacity to give consent to risks involved, have complete knowledge of
the extent as well as nature of risks and agree to the risk voluntarily.
Facts: Q urged his older brother Z to allow him to ride Z’s motorbike. Q had
recently obtained a motorbike driving license and was eager to ride Z’s motorbike.
The motorbike had a complex operation mechanism, which Q did not understand.
Z did not bother to explain this to Q and let him ride the bike. Q met with an accident
and is suing Z for the injuries caused. Z contends that Q consented to the risk.
Decide.
(a) Q did not consent to the risk because he did not have capacity to consent to
the risk
(b) Q did not consent to the risk because his consent was not voluntary
(c) Q consented to the risk because he urged Z to let him ride the motorbike
(d) Q did not consent to the risk because he did not have knowledge of the extent
and nature of risk
75 and 76 HAVE SAME PRINCIPLES
75. Principle : An employer is liable for the acts of their employee if a tort is committed
by the employee in the course of employment.
To determine whether an act falls within the course of employment, one must look
at the functions/work that the employee was tasked with and then evaluate if there
was a close connection between the employee’s job function and the wrongful act
in question.
Facts : G was employed as a security guard by a restaurant. He was tasked with
maintaining security around the restaurant and escorting guests inside. One night
after G’s shift, a group of unruly passers-by initiated an altercation with G near the
restaurant. Greatly upset by the altercation, G went home and got into an inebriated
state. In this state, he negligently caused a fire in his home. G’s family members
wish to make the restaurant liable.
(a) The restaurant is liable for G’s actions because G would not have had the
altercation but for being present in that location due to his job
(b) The restaurant is liable for G’s actions because a security guard is likely to have
altercations with people in the course of employment
(c) The restaurant is not liable for G’s actions because his acts were outside the
course of employment
(d) None of the above
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76. Principle : Same as Q. 75

Facts : G was employed as a security guard by a restaurant. He was tasked
with maintaining security in and around the restaurant as well as escorting guests
inside. One night a group of unruly guests got into a verbal altercation with G in the
restaurant. G, being short-tempered, got irritated and ended up hitting one of the
guests. The guests wish to make the restaurant liable.
(a) The restaurant is liable for G’s actions because his acts were within the course
of employment
(b) The restaurant is not liable for G’s actions because the guests had started the
fight
(c) The restaurant is not liable for G’s actions because his acts were outside the
course of employment
Principle : Whoever, takes any movable property out of the possession of any
77.
person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking,
is said to commit theft.
Facts : W visits her friend B’s house for a party. She noticed that B possessed
a rare gold ornament. Fearing search and detection if she took the ornament, W
hid it in an air duct in the ceiling, where it was unlikely to be discovered by B. W
intended on returning to B’s house at a future date to take the ornament. Has W
committed theft ?
(a) No, because she did not take the ring with her
(b) Yes, W committed theft when she moved the ring
(c) No, because she did not take the ring out of the possession of B
Principle : Whoever, intending to dishonestly take any movable property out of

78.
the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property
in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
Facts : R owns an antique watch but is unsure of its value. She took it to a jeweller
Y for a free valuation that was offered by Y. Y took the watch home instead of valuing
it and does not provide any explanation. R enters Y’s home, pushes Y to one side,
and retrieves her watch by force. Has R committed theft ?
(a) Yes, because R took the watch out of Y’s possession
(b) Yes, because R unlawfully entered Y’s home
(c) Yes, because R assaulted Y
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Principle : Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with
79.
intent to commit an offence in relation to that property or to intimidate, insult or annoy
any person in possession of such property is said to commit criminal trespass.
Facts : H entered his friend L’s property because it was adjoining C’s home. From
L’s garden, H shouted insults and tried to intimidate C. C seeks to sue for criminal
trespass.
(a) H committed criminal trespass
(b) L committed criminal trespass
(c) H did not commit criminal trespass
Principle : Whoever gives a gratification to any person with the object of inducing
80.
him or any other person to exercise any electoral right or of rewarding any person
for having exercised any such right commits the offence of bribery.
Facts: Mr. T, a candidate for elections, decided to visit rural households as part
of an election campaign. He visited a household where an elderly man ‘A’ required
an immediate but extremely expensive life-saving medical procedure. Mr. T gave
money to the family for the operation. While leaving, he drew the family’s attention
towards his party’s symbol in light of the upcoming elections. Has Mr. T committed
the offence of bribery ?
(a) Yes, he has committed the offence of bribery
(b) No, he has not committed the offence of bribery. His intentions were noble
(c) No, as doing public good outweighs criminal intentions
Principle : Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing
81.
death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death,
or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the
offence of culpable homicide.
Facts : P was hunting in a small forested area which he knew to be inhabited
by villagers and frequented by other hunters in large numbers. His friends did not
know that other persons were likely to be present in the area. P wagered with his
friends that he could hunt without using his visual senses. P put on a blindfold and
on hearing some rustling leaves, shot multiple times, killing three people in the
process. Has P committed culpable homicide ?
(a) P has committed culpable homicide
(b) P has not committed culpable homicide
(c) P has committed battery
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82. Principle : Fraud includes the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by
one who does not believe it to be true or the active concealment of a fact by one
having knowledge or belief of the fact, with intent to deceive another party or her
agent to enter into the contract.
Facts : Wind-on Ltd. is a leading manufacturer of wind turbines to harness wind
energy to produce electricity. It is based out of Nagaland in India and has been
manufacturing wind turbines since the early 1990s with national and international
fame. Z Infrastructures Ltd. is a leading infrastructure firm with a proven track
record in building energy installations and highways across India. Z Infrastructures
wanted to expand its portfolio and operate a wind energy park to supply clean
electricity. Representatives from Wind-on and Z Infrastructures carried out extensive
negotiations, advised by leading law firms and commercial advisory firms on both sides,
for the latter to establish a wind park in Odisha. Z Infrastructure wanted Wind-on to
guarantee that the turbines will generate 54 lakhs Kwh of energy per turbine annually.
Wind-on’s stated position was that generation of energy is dependent on availability
of wind and they could not guarantee it. However, they provided an “estimate” in the
contract for supply of turbines that the turbines will be able to generate around 50
lakhs Kwh per turbine annually. The turbines were supplied by Wind-on and operated
by Z Infrastructure in Odisha for over 2 years. During this period, Z Infrastructure
found that the average energy generation of each turbine came to around 35 lakhs
Kwh annually. They were frustrated as the actual generation of each turbine was
significantly lower than the generation estimate provided by Wind-on. They reached
out to Lal & Co., a leading dispute resolution law firm to understand if they could
initiate action against Wind-on for fraudulently representing the generation estimate
of each turbine.
You are a lawyer at Lal & Co., and were asked if Wind-on had committed fraud by
providing an inflated energy generation estimate
(a) Yes, as Wind-on was an expert in the wind turbine business and Z infrastructure
relied on its expertise as a new entrant in the field
(b) No, as Wind-on clearly specified that the energy generation figure was merely
an estimate and it could not provide a guarantee
(c) Yes, as Wind-on should have predicted a figure that was closer to the actual
generation figure of 35 lakhs Kwh per turbine per annum
(d) Yes, as Wind-on should not have provided any estimate at all
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83. Principle 1 : A ‘bailment’ is the delivery of goods by one person to another for
some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished,
be returned. The person delivering the goods is called the ‘bailor’. The person to
whom they are delivered is called the ‘bailee’.
Principle 2 : In all cases of bailment the bailee is bound to take as much care of
the goods bailed to him/her as a person of ordinary prudence would, under similar
circumstances, take of his/her own goods of the same bulk, quantity and value as
the goods bailed.
Facts : Aparna entered into a contract with Gagan to keep her goods in his
warehouse until she was able to find a suitable buyer for them. Gagan kept his
own goods also at the same warehouse. One night, certain thieves entered the
warehouse and stole the goods of both Gagan and Aparna. It was discovered that
even though Gagan had locked the main door, he had carelessly left the windows
open and that the thieves had entered through the open windows. Aparna sued
Gagan for damages as Gagan had failed to take due care of her goods. Decide.
(a) Gagan is liable since he left the windows open which shows that he did not take
as much care as a person of ordinary prudence
(b) Gagan is not liable since he took as much care of Aparna’s goods as he took
of his own goods
(c) Gagan is not liable since he locked the door and a person of ordinary prudence
cannot be expected to check the windows as well
84. Principle 1 : There are four stages of commission of any offence- formation of
intention, preparation, attempt and commission of offence. The first two stages are
not punishable but the last two stages are punishable. The attempt to commit an
offence is an offence in itself.
Principle 2 : In order to be designated as an attempt to commit an offence, the
act or series of acts done must be sufficiently proximate to the accomplishment of
the intended offence.
Facts : Sachin bought a matchbox and lit a match near a haystack. He was about
to light the haystack on fire and commit the offence of arson. However, before he
could do the same, he realized that someone was secretly recording a video of
him. Fearing that he would be easily caught, he extinguished the match. Sachin is
prosecuted for the attempt to commit arson.
(a) Sachin is not guilty of having committed attempt to arson as his act of lighting
the match was not the penultimate act before the commission of the intended
offence
(b) Sachin is guilty of having committed attempt to arson as lighting the match was
the penultimate act before the commission of the intended offence
(c) Sachin is not guilty since the match was extinguished by him on his own
(d) Sachin is guilty of having committed attempt to arson since there is sufficient
proximity between the act of lighting the match and the intended offence of
arson
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85. Principle : Double jeopardy : No person shall be prosecuted and punished for
the same offence more than once.
Facts : Arun was a Government Employee working in the examination and
admissions department of Indian Institute of Science and Technology (IIST), the
best engineering college in India. Arun was accused of having leaked the entrance
examination paper to Kamlesh for a hefty bribe. Disciplinary proceedings were
initiated against Kamlesh by IIST wherein he was found guilty and as a penalty, he
was removed from employment. Thereafter, a criminal case was registered against
him for having committed the offence of cheating by leaking the entrance paper.
Arun takes the defence that the criminal prosecution is not permitted by the principle
of double jeopardy. Decide.
(a) The principle of double jeopardy will not apply as the disciplinary proceedings
by IIST cannot be termed as prosecution since they were mere departmental
proceedings and not criminal prosecution
(b) The principle of double jeopardy will apply as Arun has already been found
guilty and punished by IIST
(c) The principle of double jeopardy will not apply as Arun is accused of a serious
offence of cheating the public at large
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Principle : Nuisance shall be defined as use of land in a manner that causes

86.
unreasonable interference with another’s enjoyment of their land.
It is no defence to a claim of nuisance to say that the plaintiff(s) knew of the
interference that would be caused.
Facts : The village of Xandiapur has a centuries old cricket ground which is
owned by Xandiapur Cricket Club and hosts matches between local teams every
week. It is the only sports ground in the village and serves as a critical source of
recreation for the villagers. Mr. and Mrs. XYZ purchased a home right on the edge
of the cricket ground’s boundary. Balls from cricket matches frequently fall into their
residence’s garden and have caused severe damage to their windows. They have
unsuccessfully tried to request the Cricket Club to install nets around the part of
the boundary that is adjacent to their home. They seek to claim nuisance against
the Xandiapur Cricket Club.
(a) Mr. and Mrs. XYZ will be unsuccessful because it is their fault—they purchased
a home on the edge of a cricket ground. Further, the cricket ground is important
for recreation
(b) Mr. and Mrs. XYZ will be successful because use of the cricket ground is
causing unreasonable interference with their enjoyment of their home. Further,
the Cricket Club cannot claim that Mr. and Mrs. XYZ brought trouble on their
head
(c) Mr. and Mrs. XYZ will be unsuccessful because even though the ground is a
source of interference, it is not unreasonable interference
(d) Mr. and Mrs. XYZ will be successful because they are old and have a right to
live peacefully
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87. Principle : Any invasion of private property, howsoever minor, is a trespass

unless it is expressly authorised by the law.
Police personnel may enter and/or search private property only on express
authorisation from a Judicial Officer.
Facts : Ms. A, a vocal critic of certain policies of the Queen of Asgardia, was due
to lead a protest against prevailing government policies. Solely on the instructions
of the Queen, a Police Officer secretly entered Ms. A residence to search through
her computer and discover her plan for the protest. However, Ms. A’s laptop was
at the repair shop and the Police Officer was forced to exit Ms. A’s house after a
few seconds. Ms. A seeks to sue for trespass.
(a) Ms. A will be successful since the Queen was planning on quelling dissent
through illegal means.
(b) Ms. A will be unsuccessful since the search was authorised by the Queen.
(c) Ms. A will be successful since the entry of the Police Officer constituted an
invasion of personal property without authorisation from a Judicial Officer.
(d) Ms. A will be unsuccessful since the Police Officer was at her residence for only
a few seconds and was unable to access her computer. There was no invasion
of personal property.
88. Principle : The doctrine of privity mandates that only a party to a contract can
claim upon it.
Facts : P started the business of manufacturing table lamps which he sold to a
distributor (“Q”) who in turn sold the lamps to a store owner (“R”) in the city. P entered
into an agreement with Q which mandated that Q can only sell the lamps to store
owners at a minimum retail price of ` 50, failing which Q would have to pay P ` 5 for
each lamp sold below ` 50. Q entered into an identical contract with R, mandating
that R can only sell the lamps to customers for ` 50, failing which R would have to
pay Q ` 5 for each lamp sold below ` 50. R sold a lamp to a customer for ` 40 and
P seeks to claim against R.
(a) P will not be successful since there is no privity of contract between P and R
(b) P will not be successful since R is free to sell the product at the price of their
choosing
(c) P will not be successful since Q has not been made a party to the
proceedings
(d) P will not be successful since there is no privity of contract between P and Q
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89. Principle : Competence to contract is essential for an agreement to be considered

a contract.
‘Competence to contract’ : Any person who is of the age of majority according to
the applicable law and is of sound mind and is not disqualified from contracting by
any applicable law.
‘Age of majority’ : Every person shall attain the age of majority on their completing
18 years of age and not before.
Facts : Z sought to purchase a property belonging to K (a minor) two days before K
completed 18 years of age. K really liked Z’s offer and six months later they entered
into a contract for sale of the property to Z. Was K competent to contract ?
(a) K was not competent to contract because he was influenced by Z when K was
a minor
(b) K is competent to contract because he entered into the contract after completing
18 years of age
(c) K was not competent to contract because Z had approached him before he
completed 18 years of age
90. Principle : Acceptance must be communicated to the offeror to constitute a

binding contract. Mere intention to accept, without communication does not lead to
a contract.
Facts : J wanted to purchase her uncle T’s television. J wrote a letter to T indicating
that she wished to purchase his television for ` 5,000. T was pleased with J’s offer
and decided to call J to accept the offer. T called J twice, but J did not pick up her
phone. The next day, T found a buyer for the television for ` 6,000 and sold the
television to this buyer. J is alleging breach of contract.
(a) J will be unsuccessful because even though the contract was binding, T found
a buyer who offered a higher price for the television
(b) J will be successful because T’s action of calling J is equivalent to communication
of acceptance
(c) J will be successful because T was happy with J’s offer and had intended to
accept
(d) J will be unsuccessful since T’s acceptance had not been communicated to
constitute a binding contract
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91. Principle : In relation to the law of contracts, in instances where both parties to
an agreement are under a mistake about a matter of fact essential to the agreement,
the agreement is void.
Facts : L agrees to sell to M a consignment of food grains which was supposed
to be on a ship on its way from Africa to Mumbai. However, two days before the
agreement was reached, the ship carrying the grains met with an accident and all
the goods were lost. L’s agent had informed L about this on the day the accident
happened. Is the agreement void because of a mistake as to a matter of fact ?
(a) Yes, since both parties committed a mistake by entering into the contract
(b) No, since L had dishonest intentions
(c) No, since L was aware that the goods were lost
Principle : Both parties to a contract are discharged from their respective

92.
outstanding obligations in situations where a supervening event significantly changes
the nature of contractual rights and/or obligations from what the parties could have
reasonably contemplated at the time of executing the contract.
The supervening event must not be a result of default by either party, nor should
the contract make a provision for it.
Facts : In the city of Vortoria which is highly susceptible to public health crises, S
(a supplier of raw food products) entered into a contract with H (a restaurant owner)
for 2 years, whereby S would supply certain raw products to H at pre-determined
prices. Their agreement also provided that – “In case of interruption of operations
of H on account of epidemics, pandemics or any other public health crisis, the
contract will be suspended until the crisis is declared to be over by the government
and thereafter pending contractual obligations shall resume.”
Three months were left on the contract when there was a highly contagious virus
outbreak in the city, which caused restaurant owners (including H) to suspend
operations. Once the outbreak was declared to be over six months later, H refused
to purchase raw materials from S arguing that he was discharged from obligations
under the contract.
(a) H is discharged from his obligations because the virus outbreak was a supervening
event which changed the nature of contractual rights and obligations
(b) H is not discharged from his obligations because the contract contained a
provision dealing with outbreaks. Further the parties could have reasonably
contemplated the occurrence of an outbreak
(c) H is not discharged from his obligations because the contract had ended by the
time the virus was declared to be over
(d) H is discharged from his obligations because the outbreak is likely to have
affected his business badly
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93. Principle : When a defendant brings onto their land anything that is likely to do
mischief in case it escapes, they must do so at their own peril. If such a thing does
escape and causes foreseeable harm, then the defendant is liable for damage
caused provided that the land from which escape occurs had been changed such
that it would be considered a non-natural use of the land.
The defendant can avoid liability if they can show that the situation that caused
damage was a result of an unforeseeable act of a stranger, which could not be
controlled by the defendant.
Facts : M decided to keep a tiger as a pet and to that end, he brought a caged
tiger to his house. Jealous of M’s pet, M’s neighbour S (whom M had never met)
decided to break into M’s heavily guarded house while M was away and open
the tiger’s cage. The tiger escaped and mauled pedestrians near the house. The
pedestrians wish to sue M for damages.
(a) The pedestrians will be successful because it is illegal to keep a tiger as a
pet
(b) The pedestrians can claim against M because he brought a dangerous thing onto
his land (amounting to non-natural use) and it escaped, causing foreseeable
damage. The escape should have been foreseen by M
(c) M can escape liability because the escape was caused by the unforeseeable
act of a stranger, which could not have been controlled by M
94. Principle : Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being
made certain, are void.
Facts : Ila Nayak wants to buy a motorbike to reduce her waiting time for her daily
commute to work. She can pay up to ` 35,000 for a second hand motorbike. Dev
Patnaik agrees to sell his recently purchased Honda motorbike to Ila for ` 31,000
or ` 30,000.
(a) This is a valid agreement since Ila can pay up to thirty five thousand rupees for
Dev’s motorbike
(b) This agreement is void for uncertainty since there is nothing to show which of
the two prices was finally agreed
(c) This agreement is voidable at the option of Ila
(d) This agreement is valid as there is an offer from Dev and acceptance
from Ila
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95. Principle : Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being
made certain, are void.
Facts : Ila Nayak wants to buy a motorbike to reduce her waiting time for her
daily commute to work. She can pay up to ` 35,000 for a second hand motorbike.
Dev and Ila agree that Ila will initially pay a sum of ` 31,000 for the motorbike and
if the mileage given by the motorbike exceeds 60 km per litre on an average for five
months following the sale – then Ila will pay an additional sum of ` 3,000. Is this a
valid agreement ?
(a) This is an invalid agreement since Ila is not paying the entire price of the
motorbike at once
(b) This is a valid agreement as the price of the motorbike is capable of being made
certain
(c) This is a valid agreement as Ila has already paid thirty one thousand rupees
which was accepted by Dev
(d) This is an invalid agreement since Dev and Ila can disagree if the motorbike
was actually able to give a mileage of 60 km per litre for five months
96. Principle : Damages consequent to a breach of contract seek to compensate

the innocent party for the loss suffered by it so that the innocent party is put in the
same situation, with respect to damages so far as money can do it, as if the contract
had been performed.
Facts : A agrees to sell 30 kgs of strawberries to B knowing that B uses the
strawberries to run his juice center. B’s juice center is located off St. John’s College
of Delhi University, and is very popular with the students. A supplies sub-standard
quality of strawberries to B. However, B is able to use all the strawberries for his
juice centre. None of the customers of B are able to make out the difference or
complain about the juice or for that matter face any issues after drinking the juice.
Can B recover damages from A ?
(a) A is liable to compensate B for supplying sub-standard quality of strawberries
(b) A is not liable to compensate B since B suffers no monetary loss
(c) A is not liable to compensate B because the contract did not prevent A from
supplying sub-standard quality of strawberries
(d) A is not liable to compensate B since none of the customers of B have proceeded
against A for supplying bad quality strawberry juice
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97. Name the only erstwhile princely State in India that was allowed to have its own
separate Constitution on its accession to India.
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Baroda
(d) Gwalior
98. Which of the following statements accurately captures India’s position on torture ?
(a) India is a not a signatory to the UN Convention Against Torture.
(b) India has signed the UN Convention Against Torture but has not ratified it.
(c) The Supreme Court has asked the Union of India to introduce a domestic
legislation against torture.
(d) Torture is defined as a crime in the Indian Penal Code.
99. ‘Basmati’ rice is an example of what type of intellectual property ?

(a) Geographical indication
(b) Copyright
(c) Trade secret
(d) Domain name
100. In Part VIII of the Constitution of India, the Parliament is empowered to create
local legislature and council of ministers for certain Union Territories. Name the
Union Territory or Territories in India that have a legislative assembly and council
of ministers.
(a) NCT of Delhi only
(b) Chandigarh only
(c) NCT of Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir
(d) NCT of Delhi and Puducherry
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101. Who is the only Judge of the Supreme Court of India to also have been the Vice-President
of India ?
(a) Justice A. N. Ray
(b) Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah
(c) Justice Patanjali Sastri
(d) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
102. Who replaced Justice Ruth Bader Ginsburg on the Supreme Court of the United
States ?
(a) Neil Gorsuch
(b) Brett Kavanaugh
(c) Amy Coney Barrett
(d) Sonia Sotomayor
103. Which of the following positions is not provided for in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Attorney General for India
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission
104. In Kulbhushan Jadhav’s case between India and Pakistan before the International
Court of Justice, the 15-1 majority found Pakistan to be in violation of obligations
under which international law instrument ?
(a) Vienna Convention on Consular Relations
(b) International Convention on Civil and Political Rights
(c) United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners
(d) United Nations Convention Against Torture
105. Who among the following was not a judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
(a) Justice R. Banumathi
(b) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
(c) Justice Manjula Chellur
(d) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
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SECTION – D : REASONING
Read the following passage and answer questions 106 – 108 that follow :
A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament.
For this, 7 players are available : males A, B and C and females W, X, Y and Z. All players
have equal capability and at least 2 males will have to be there in the team. For a team of
four, all players must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot
play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
106. If Y is selected and B is rejected, then the team will consist of which one of the
following groups ?
(a) A, C, W and Y (b) A, C, X and Y
(c) A, C, Y and Z (d) A, W, Y and Z
107. If B is selected and Y is rejected, then the team will consist of which of the following
groups ?
(a) A, B, C and W (b) A, B, C and Y
(c) A, B, C and X (d) A, W, Y and Z
108. If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of four-member
teams are possible ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
In each of the following questions (109 to 115), a statement followed by some

assumptions are given. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.
You have to consider the statement and decide which of the assumptions is implicit
in the statement ?
Choose the most appropriate answer
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
(d) If both assumptions I and II are implicit.
109. Statement : Be humble even after gaining victory.

Assumptions :
1. Many people are humble after gaining victory
2. Generally, people are not humble.
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110. Statement : The target of a fiscal deficit of 5% of GDP could not be met, because
of a major shortfall in revenue collections.
Assumptions :
1. Shortfall in revenue collections lead to an increase in fiscal deficit.
2. Shortfall in revenue collections lead to a decrease in fiscal deficit.
111. Statement : The Government has decided to run all commercial vehicles only on
biofuels in order to save the depleting fossil fuel reserves.
Assumptions :
1. It is possible to switch over from fossil fuel to biofuels for vehicles.
2. Sufficient amount of biofuel can be produced in the country to run all commercial
vehicles.
112. Statement : COVID-19 is a pandemic issue now.

Assumptions :
1. Government should work towards complete eradication of diseases like COVID-19.
2. COVID-19 is not a serious disease and treatment is available.
113. Statement : Drastic increase in pollution is now a global phenomenon.

Assumptions :
1. All countries have realized it and are working towards control.
2. Growing population, industries, highways and constructions are beyond
control.
114. Statement : Minute traces of nitrate sometimes present in cattle fodder B may be
responsible for the poor health of the cattle. Therefore, use fodder G to ensure that
your cattle remain healthy.
Assumptions :
1. Cattle fodder G does not contain nitrate.
2. Nitrate is toxic to all living beings.
115. Statement : The impact of economic sanctions on an economy that is already so

weak could be devastating.
Assumptions :
1. Economic sanctions impact only a weak economy.
2. The impact of economic sanctions varies from economy to economy.
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116. Consider the following statements :

I. All machines consume energy.
II. Electricity provides energy.
III. Electric machines are cheap to maintain.
IV. Electric machines do not cause pollution.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?
(a) All machines are run by electric energy
(b) There is no form of energy other than electricity
(c) Most machines are operated on electric energy
(d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use
117. India’s neighbouring countries have seen a surge in their imports of the metal. This
gold is then being carried across into India by smugglers. Which of the following
inferences can best be drawn from the above statements ?
(a) There is a duty differential between India and its neighbouring countries.
(b) The tough restriction on the metal’s imports could be eased
(c) India has a high current account deficit
(d) There has been a sharp depreciation of the rupee
118. A new apparel store has been opened by a telecom company XYZ, from which
customers have very high expectations.
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above statement ?
(a) Apparel stores were previously operated in telecom industry only
(b) Expansion is the best strategy to have competitive edge in the market
(c) To be successful in an expansion, one needs to be a leader in telecom
industry
(d) XYZ has already established brand name in the market through its telecom
business
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In the following questions (119 to 123), a statement is given followed by some

arguments. Study the statement carefully and mark the correct alternative.
119. Statement : Should the government impose restrictions on access to sensitive

information to journalists to avoid media hype ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, the media creates hype and publishes distorted information at times.
II. No, journalists should have access to all the information as media is the best
source to expose the malfunctions in the society.
III. Yes, at times it leads to harassment of those who are affected and alleged to
be involved in the crisis.
(a) Arguments I and II are strong
(b) Arguments II and III are strong
(c) Arguments I, II and III are strong
120. Statement : Should the Government introduce a system of obtaining bonds from
students for working in India before sanctioning education loans for higher studies ?
Arguments :
I. No, this is not a workable solution and will obstruct the development of young
talent in the country.
II. Yes, this is the only way to ensure use of the talent of our country for the
development of the country and not only an individual.
III. No, this step will be too harsh.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Arguments I and II are strong
(d) None is strong
Statement : Should people with educational qualification higher than the optimum
121.
requirements be debarred from seeking jobs ?
Arguments :
I. No, it will further aggravate the problem of educated unemployment.
II. Yes, it creates insecurities among employees and affects the work adversely.
III. No, this goes against the basic rights of the individuals.
IV. Yes, this will increase productivity.
(a) Argument I is strong (b) Argument II is strong
(c) Argument III is strong (d) All arguments are strong
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122. Statement : Should all the youngsters below the age of 21 years be disallowed
from going to a pub ?
Arguments :
I. No, it is not correct to prevent matured youngsters above 18 years of age, who
can vote, from having fun.
II. Yes, the entry fee to such pubs should also be hiked.
III. No, there is no such curb in Western countries.
IV. Yes, this will help in preventing youngsters from imbibing unhealthy habits.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Arguments I and III are strong
(c) Arguments III and IV are strong
(d) Arguments I and IV are strong
123. Statement : Should all the school teachers be debarred from giving private tuitions ?
Arguments :
I. No, the needy students will be deprived of the expertise of these teachers.
II. Yes, this is an injustice to the unemployed educated people, who can earn their
living by giving tuitions.
III. Yes, only then the quality of teaching in schools will improve.
IV. Yes, now salary of these teachers is reasonable.
(a) Arguments I and III are strong (b) Arguments III and IV are strong
(c) Arguments I, II and III are strong (d) None of the above
Statement : In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200.
124.
Out of these 160 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusions :
I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either I or II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows
125. Statement : The old order changed yielding place to new.

Conclusions :
I. Change is the law of nature.
II. Discard old ideas because they are old.
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Statement : Prime age school-going children in urban India have now become avid
126.
as well as more regular viewers of television, even in households without a TV. As a
result, there has been an alarming decline in the extent of readership of newspapers.
Conclusions :
I. Method of increasing the readership of newspapers should be devised.
II. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the impact of TV
on the readership of newspapers.
Statement : The standard of education in private schools is much better than

127.
Municipal and Zilla Parishad-run schools.
Conclusions :
I. The Municipal and Zilla Parishad should make serious efforts to improve standard
of their schools.
II. All Municipal and Zilla Parishad schools should be closed immediately.
Statement : Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of
128.
indigenous crude oil.
Conclusions :
I. Crude oil must be imported.
II. Domestic demand should be reduced.
Directions to Solve Questions 129 – 131

Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question
on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.
129.
The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent
and linked by a common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational
members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their
efforts to the attainment of organisational objectives as means of achieving these
personal goals.
The passage best supports the statement that motivation :
(a) encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational
goals.
(b) is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation.
(c) is the product of an individual’s physical and mental energy.
(d) is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts.
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130. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast.
It has been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with
great impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made
by the enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these
losses the smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that :
(a) smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
(b) smuggling ought to be curbed.
(c) authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
(d) smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.
131. Exports and imports, a swelling favourable balance of trade, investments and
bank-balances, are not an index or a balance sheet of national prosperity. Till the
beginning of the Second World War, English exports were noticeably greater than
what they are today. And yet England has greater national prosperity today than it
ever had. Because the income of average Englishmen, working as field and factory
labourers, clerks, policemen, petty shopkeepers and shop assistants, domestic
workers and other low-paid workers, has gone up.
The passage best supports the statement that :
(a) a country’s balance of trade is the main criteria of determining its economic
prosperity.
(b) a country’s economic standard can be best adjudged by per capita income.
(c) a nation’s economy strengthens with the increase in exports.
(d) english trade has continually increased since the Second World War.
Q. 132 – 134 : Understand the relation between the set of words and choose the
correct options :
132. FISH : SCHOOL

(a) wolf : pack (b) cow : farm
(c) herd : peacock (d) elephant : jungle
133. PASTORAL : RURAL

(a) harvest : autumn (b) sleepy : nocturnal
(c) metropolitan : urban (d) agrarian : benevolent
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134. SOUND : CACOPHONY

(a) speech : oration
(b) touch : massage
(c) smell : stench
(d) taste : style
Q. 135 and 136 : Identify the missing letters in the sets of Letter Series given below :
135. QPO, NML, KJI, _____, EDC.

(a) HGF (b) CAB (c) JKM (d) GHD
136. ATNHG, DKCMB, CVPJI, GNFPE, EXRLK, JQISH, GZTNM, ______

(a) QMTH (b) TLVK
(c) RIJTU (d) HSKUJ
137. Ramesh travelled from a point and straight to Y at a distance of 90 m. He turned

right and walked 40 m, then again turned right and walked 70 m. Finally, he turned
right and walked 40 m. How far he is from the starting point ?
(a) 70 m (b) 10 m
(c) 20 m (d) 30 m
138. Ram and Sunil start from a fixed point. Ram moves 4 km to the South, then turns
left and moves 3 km. Sunil moves 3 km towards West, then turns right and moves
4 km further. How far apart are they now ?
(a) 7 km (b) 13 km
(c) 10 km (d) 14 km
139. Rashmi travels 10 km towards the north, turns left and travels 4 km and then again
turns right and covers another 5 km and then turns right and travels another 4 km.
How far is she from the starting point ?
(a) 5 km (b) 10 km
(c) 19 km (d) 15 km
140. Man : Biography : : Nation : ?

(a) Geography (b) History
(c) People (d) Leader
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SECTION – E : MATHEMATICS
141. 500 students are taking one or more courses out of Chemistry, Physics and
Mathematics. Registration records indicate course enrolment as follows :
Chemistry (329), Physics (186), Mathematics (295), Chemistry and Physics (83),
Chemistry and Mathematics (217) and Physics and Mathematics (63). How many
students are taking all 3 subjects ?
(a) 37 (b) 53 (c) 47 (d) 43
142. X bullocks and Y tractors take 8 days to plough a field. If we halve the number of
bullocks and double the number of tractors, it takes 5 days to plough the same
field. How many days will it take for X bullocks alone to plough the field ?
(a) 30 (b) 35
(c) 40 (d) 45
143. If the radius of a right circular cone is increased by 50%, its volume increases by
(a) 75% (b) 100%
(c) 125% (d) 237.5%
144. It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank by draining it at a constant rate. It

is decided to simultaneously pump water into the half-full tank while draining
it. What is the rate at which water has to be pumped in so that it gets filled in
10 minutes ?
(a) 4 times the draining rate
(b) 3 times the draining rate
(c) 2.5 times the draining rate
(d) 2 times the draining rate
145. In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to
Wednesday was 41° C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43°C If the temperature
on Thursday was 15% higher than that of Monday, then the temperature in °C
on Thursday was
(a) 40 (b) 43 (c) 46 (d) 49
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146. Taxi charges in a city consists of fixed charges and remaining depending upon the
distance travelled in kilometers. If a person travels 70 kms, he pays ` 1,130 and
for travelling 100 kms, he pays ` 1,550. Find the charges for travelling 140 kms.
(a) 2000 (b) 2260
(c) 2170 (d) 2110
147. Amit started a shop by investing ` 5,00,000. In the first year he incurred a loss
of 5%. However, during the second year he earned a profit of 10% which in the
third year rose to 12%. Calculate his % Profit.
(a) 12% (b) 17%
(c) 19% (d) 15%
148. A sum invested at compound interest amounts to ` 8,800 in 1 year and to

` 10,648 in 3 years. Calculate the rate percent and the sum.
(a) 10 and ` 8,000
(b) 12 and ` 5,000
(c) 10 and ` 6,000
(d) 12 and ` 8,000
149. If the price of sugar increased by 25%, by how much percent a housewife should
reduce the consumption so as not to increase the expenditure.
(a) 25% (b) 20%
(c) 22.5% (d) 27.5%
150. A, B and C can finish a piece of work in 12, 15 and 20 days respectively. If all
the three work at it together and they are paid ` 9,600 for the whole work, what
is B’s share ?
(a) 4,000 (b) 3,200
(c) 2,400 (d) 2,700
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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST-2021
B.A.LL.B.(Hons.) ADMISSION TEST-2021
MASTER ANSWER KEY
Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans.
1 A 26 B 51 C 76 A 101 B 126 D
2 C 27 A 52 D 77 B 102 C 127 A
3 B 28 A 53 B 78 D 103 B 128 C
4 D 29 B 54 C 79 C 104 A 129 A
5 C 30 B 55 D 80 A 105 C 130 D
6 B 31 B 56 C 81 A 106 B 131 B
7 D 32 B 57 A 82 B 107 C 132 A
8 A 33 D 58 C 83 A 108 B 133 C
9 B 34 C 59 D 84 D 109 C 134 C
10 A 35 A 60 C 85 A 110 A 135 A
11 C 36 B 61 C 86 B 111 D 136 #
12 D 37 D 62 A 87 C 112 C 137 C
13 A 38 C 63 C 88 A 113 B 138 C
14 B 39 B 64 A 89 B 114 A 139 D
15 A 40 C 65 D 90 D 115 B 140 B
16 A 41 A 66 C 91 C 116 D 141 B
17 C 42 B 67 C 92 B 117 A 142 A
18 D 43 B 68 D 93 C 118 D 143 C
19 B 44 A 69 C 94 B 119 C 144 A
20 C 45 C 70 C 95 B 120 A 145 C
21 D 46 A 71 D 96 B 121 C 146 D
22 A 47 B 72 A 97 B 122 A 147 B
23 B 48 C 73 A 98 B 123 D 148 A
24 A 49 D 74 D 99 A 124 D 149 B
25 D 50 B 75 C 100 C 125 A 150 B
# Question No. 136 is omitted. Accordingly, the evaluation for

B.A.LL.B.(Hons.) Programme shall be out of 149 marks instead of 150 marks.
AILET BA LLB
2020
SET – I (2020)
SECTION – A : ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 5): Each set of questions in this section is based on the passage. The
questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For
some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question.
However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and
completely answers the questions.
In order to understand the development of Gangetic Valley plains, scholars have

traditionally relied primarily on evidence from historical documents. However, such
documentary sources provide a fragmentary record at best. Reliable accounts are very scarce
for many parts of Northern India prior to the fifteenth century, and many of the relevant
documents from the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries focus selectively on matters relating to
cultural or commercial interests.
Studies of fossilized pollens preserved in peats and lake muds provide an additional
means of investigating vegetative landscape change. Details of changes in vegetation
resulting from both human activities and natural events are reflected in the kinds and
quantities of minute pollens that become trapped in sediments. Analysis of samples can
identify which kinds of plants produced the preserved pollens and when they were deposited,
and in many cases the findings can serve to supplement or correct the documentary record.
For example, analysis of samples from a bay in Jammu has revealed significant
patterns of cereal-grain pollens beginning by about fourth century. The substantial clay
content of the soil in this part of Jammu makes cultivation by primitive tools difficult.
Historians thought that such soils were not tilled to any significant extent until the
introduction of the wooden plough to India in the seventh century. Because cereal cultivation
would have required tiling of the soil, the pollens evidence indicates that these soils must
indeed have been successfully tilled before the introduction of the new plough.
Another example concerns flax cultivation in Jammu, one of the great linen-producing
areas of India during the sixteenth century. Some aspects of linen production in Jammu are
well documented, but the documentary record tells little about the cultivation of flax, the
plant from which linen is made, in that area. The record of sixteenth-century linen production
in Jammu, together with the knowledge that flax cultivation had been established in India
centuries before that time, led some historians to surmise that this plant was being cultivated
in Jammu before the sixteenth century. But pollens analyses indicate that this is not the case;
flax pollens were found only in deposits laid down since the sixteenth century.
It must be stressed, though, that there are limits to the ability of the pollen record to
reflect the vegetative history of the landscape. For example, pollen analysis cannot identify
the species, but only the genus or family, of some plants. Among these is turmeric, a
cultivated plant of medicinal importance in India. Turmeric belongs to a plant family that also
comprises various native weeds, including Brahma Thandu. If Turmeric pollen were present
in a deposit it would be indistinguishable from that of uncultivated native species.
1. The phrase “documentary record” (para 2 and 4) primarily refers to -

(A) articles, books, and other documents by current historians listing and
analyzing all the available evidence regarding a particular historical period.
1
(B) government and commercial records, maps, and similar documents produced
in the past that recoded conditions and events of that time.
(C) documented results of analyses of fossilized pollen.
(D) the kinds and qualities of fossilized pollen grains preserved in peats and lake
muds.
2. The passage indicates that pollen analyses have provided evidence against which one
of the following views?
(A) In certain parts of Jammu, cereal grains were not cultivated to any significant
extent before the seventh century.
(B) Cereal grain cultivation began in Jammu around fourth century.
(C) In certain parts of India, cereal grains have been cultivated continuously since
the introduction of the wooden plough.
(D) Cereal grain cultivation requires successful tilling of the soil.
3. The passage indicates that prior to the use of pollen analysis in the study of the history
of the Gangetic Valley plains, at least some historians believed which one of the
following?
(A) Turmeric was not used as a medicinal plant in India until after the sixteenth
century.
(B) Cereal grain was not cultivated anywhere in India until at least the seventh
century.
(C) The history of the Gangetic Valley plains during the fourteenth and fifteenth
centuries was well documented.
(D) The beginning of flax cultivation in Jammu may well have occurred before the
sixteenth century.
4. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between the second
paragraph and the final paragraph?
(A) The second paragraph describes a view against which the author intends to
argue, and the final paragraph states the author’s argument against that view.
(B) The second paragraph proposes a hypothesis for which the final paragraph
offers a supporting example.
(C) The final paragraph qualifies the claim made in the second paragraph.
(D) The final paragraph describes a problem that must be solved before the
method advocated in the second paragraph can be considered viable.
5. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) While pollen evidence can sometimes supplement other sources of historical
information, its applicability is severely limited, since it cannot be used to
identify plant species.
(B) Analysis of fossilized pollen is a useful means of supplementing and in some
cases correcting other sources of information regarding changes in the
Gangetic Valley plains.
(C) Analysis of fossilized pollen has provided new evidence that the cultivation of
such crops as cereal grains, flax, and turmeric had a significant impact on the
Gangetic Valley plains.
(D) Analysis of fossilized pollen has proven to be a valuable tool in the
identification of ancient plant species.
2
Directions (Q. 6 – Q. 8): In each of the following questions, a word is highlighted.
Choose the word which is a synonym of the highlighted word.
6. The systematic vilification of facts and expertise, the violent abnegation of diverse
thought, the constant blasts of paranoia-stoking crime reports and patriotic sound bites
on an inescapable news network—could this be more now?
(A) indulgence (B) denial
(C) acceptance (D) adoption
7. Her 2014 autobiography, A Fighting Chance, and recent stump speeches are
festooned in pep club spirit and folksy blandishments, cloying bits of business that
have attached themselves to her life story.
(A) cajolery (B) roughness

(C) criticism (D) bully
8. Were other international trade negotiations to be put back because of the virus — for
example those being conducted between London and Washington — Britain’s
government could start to look obdurate about the Brexit talks.
(A) sensitive (B) illusive

(C) flexible (D) callous
Directions (Q. 9 – Q. 11): Complete the following sentences with an appropriate irregular
verb and one of these phases.
(i) (ii)
I. Make a. From the jeweler
II. Choose b. on the label
III. Carry c. To the players
IV. Give d. To represent India
V. Print e. At today’s meeting
VI. Damage f. On the boulevard
VII. Take g. In the storm
9. The road repairs ……………………. might delay traffic.

(A) I–b (B) VII - c
(C) VI - g (D) III - f
10. All the bijouterie …………….. have now been recovered.

(A) VII – a (B) III - f
(C) VI - a (D) III - a
3
11. The admonition ……………………. about their behaviour on the pitch was ignored.
(A) I–a (B) VII - b

(C) VI - g (D) IV - c
Directions (Q. 12 – Q. 13): Following are the questions based on the same words used
as different parts of speech. Choose the correct matches.
12. Back
1. Noun a. The back portion of the

house is in dilapidated
condition.
2. Adverb b. In a coalition government a
number of parties back the
single largest party to form
the government.
3. Adjective c. There is a road at the back of
this theater.
4. Verb d. She has come back from
America.
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
13. Near
1. Adjective a. Draw near while I speak to

you.
2. Verb b. There is a mango tree near
our house.
3. Adverb c. Lajwanti is a near relative of
mine.
4. Preposition d. I am nearing the end of the
given work.
(A) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(C) 4-c, 1-b, 2-d, 3-a (D) 3-c, 2-b, 1-a, 4-d
Directions (Q. 14 – Q. 16): Observe the following sentences where some changes are made
in the sentence but keeping the sense of the sentence same. In the following questions, the
sentences have some element of similarity. You have to find out the similarity and choose the
option which is odd one out.
4
14. (A) His behaviour displeased his officers.
His officers were displeased at his behaviour.
(B) One must respect one’s elders.
One’s elders must be respected.
(C) I said, “Do not speak of the past.”
I advised him not to speak of the past.
(D) A crash radio message was handed over to me.
They handed over a crash radio message to me.
15. (A) I don’t expect to see him back here.

I don’t expect that I will see him back here.
(B) In spite of his poverty, he is satisfied.
He is poor but he is satisfied.
(C) He gave them not only food but some money also.
Besides food, he gave him some money also.
(D) Escaping arrest, he ran away.
He ran away in order to escape arrest.
16. (A) The teacher was strict but always loving.

Though the teacher was strict, she was always loving.
(B) He is very rich and can buy a car.
He is so rich that he can buy a car.
(C) He ran hard but missed the bus.
Although he ran, he missed the bus.
(D) You know what my errand is.
You know my errand.
Direction (Q. 17 – Q. 22): Choose the sentence which is correct grammatically.
17. (A) “Mr. Sharma has conveyed his heart-felt thanks to the Principal of the school
and its management for their support to the cause of children with special
needs.”
(B) “The government was adviced to take immediate steps”.
(C) This colt will make a good mare.
(D) Is your mother the executrix of this deed?
18. (A) You have fallen in bad company.

(B) Please run through the book.
(C) He set every thing to naught.
(D) He is calling you a bad name.
19. (A) All of the reptiles lay eggs.

(B) Waiting in the queue for half an hour, Jay suddenly realised that he had left his
wallet at home.
(C) ‘Do you think Meena will remember your birthday?’ ‘I suspect not.’
(D) The coffee in this coffee shop is the best one in town.
20. (A) He has a shave every morning, but you wouldn’t think he had.
(B) Supposing you don’t get the job – what will you do then?
(C) The strikes were mainly concerned about working conditions.
5
(D) She is quite younger than me.
21. (A) Because I’d lost my watch, so I was late for the meeting.
(B) She lives in 38 Middle Street.
(C) He’d left his papers all across the room.
(D) There have been many problems with the new bridge.
22 (A) I had to go into work even though I was feeling terrible.

(B) Competition entries must be received until 12.00 on 10 August.
(C) Why on earth were you waving that knife around? What were you thinking
about?
(D) Do you care if I smoke a cigar?
Direction (Q. 23 – Q. 26): Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
the idiom/ phrase in the question.
23. Purple Patch

(A) a dark period (B) a period of success
(C) safe way to royalty (D) mending old ties
24. French Leave

(A) an insulting defeat (B) a time of revelry
(C) leave without permission (D) a great deception
25. Hang out to dry

(A) to desert one in troubling situation (B) to ridicule
(C) a time of truce (D) be critical of
26. Down to the wire

(A) digging deep (B) no chance of error
(C) in great details (D) until the last moment
Directions (Q. 27 – Q. 29): Replace the underlined word/words with one of these two-
or three-word verbs in an appropriate form.
27. If I tell you the secret, you must promise not to tell anyone else.
(A) let in on (B) bring in
(C) put down to (D) shoot down
28. They’re going to suffer a lot of criticism for increasing bus fares by so much.
(A) put down to (B) gather up
(C) come in for (D) put up with
29. It’s best to attribute his bad mood to tiredness and just forget it.
(A) flick through (B) put down to
(C) take on (D) see through
Direction (Q. 30 – Q. 35): Choose the best word to fill in the blanks
6
30. Owing to the combination of its proximity and ………………. atmosphere, Mars is the
only planet in our solar system whose surface details can be discerned from the Earth.
(A) viscous (B) ossified
(C) rarefied (D) copious
31. Using the hardships of the Ganguli family as a model, Jhumpa Lahiri’s The Namesake
effectively demonstrated how one clan’s struggles epitomized the …………. experienced
by an entire community.
(A) reticence (B) quiescence
(C) verisimilitude (D) tribulation
32. The Pyramid of Giza is more than just ……………. edifice; this imposing structure was
built to create a chirping echo whenever people clap their hands on the staircase.
(A) a venerable (B) a specious
(C) a prosaic (D) a humble
33. Some wealthy city-dwellers become enchanted with the prospect of trading their hectic
schedules for a bucolic life in the countryside, and they buy property with a pleasant view
of farmland – only to find the stench of the livestock so ………….. that they move back
to the city.
(A) bovine (B) atavistic
(C) olfactory (D) noisome
34. When Sheena brought home the irascible puppy, her more quiescent dogs were rattled by
their new …………….. housemate.
(A) languid (B) bellicose
(C) diminutive (D) phlegmatic
35. Despite the vast amount of time Tarun dedicated to learning six different languages, he
was ……………… communicator; his mastery of vocabulary and grammar failed to
redress his inability to redress his inability to construct cogent prose.
(A) an astute (B) a prolific
(C) a maladroit (D) a florid
SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. Bru Settlement is regarding Bru refugee crisis and it was entered between:
(A) Central Government, Tripura, Mizoram and Reang Tribe
(B) Central Govt. and Indian Coffee Trade Association
(C) Tripura, Mizoram and Reang Tribe
(D) Central Government, Indian Coffee Trade Association and Reang Tribe
37. Which Movie won the Best Picture in 92nd Academy Awards 2020?
(A) Joker (B) Parasite
7
(C) Jojo Rabbit (D) Once Upon a Time in Hollywood
38. Which State in India tops the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) India Index 2019?
(A) Kerala (B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Himachal
39. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Blue Dot Network (BDN)?
(A) Blue Dot network is an initiative to grade the infrastructure projects in terms of
debt, environment safety, labour standards, etc.
(B) The Blue Dot Network project is being led by USA. Japan and Australia.
(C) BDN offer public funds or loans for the project.
(D) It is expected to serve as a globally recognised evaluation and certification system
with a focus on the Indo-Pacific region.
40. Who among the following is not a recipient of Padma Vibhushan Award 2020?
(A) Sushma Swaraj (B) George Fernandez
(C) Arun Jaitley (D) Teejan Bai
41. Which of the following from India is included in the SCO list of eight wonders of the
world?
(A) Soho House (B) Statue of Unity
(C) Signature Bridge (D) Ajanta Caves
42. Which of the following statements on Bond Yields is /are true?

I. Yield from Government Bond is always lower than yields from corporate bonds.
II. When the economy is in recession, the Bond Yields usually tends to decrease.
III. Government Bonds are known as Treasury Bills in India.
IV. When the Bond price increases then Bond Yield decreases.
(A) II, IV (B) I, III

(C) I, II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
43. Which of the following first-ever talked about the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’?
(A) Earth Summit 1992 (B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Paris Summit (D) Brundtland Report
44. In Global Democracy Index 2019, which of the following criteria is the main reason for
India’s sliding ranking?
(A) Electoral process and pluralism
(B) Civil liberties
(C) Functioning of government
(D) Political participation
45. From which of the following sites, the female skeleton 16614 is recovered whose DNA
sequencing has revealed that the people in the Indus Valley Civilization have an
independent origin?
(A) Ganveriwala (B) Mohenjo-Daro
8
(C) Dholavira (D) Rakhigarhi
46. Tishreen Revolution of 2019 is regarding:

I. Corruption
II. unemployment
III. inefficient public services
V. to stop Iranian intervention in Iraq
(A) I, II (B) II, III

(C) I, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
47. The term Cytokine Storm is related to which of the following?

(A) Earth’s Weather (B) Human body’s Immune system
(C) Atomic energy (D) Space Exploration
48. What is the main reason of people’s protest in Hong Kong in 2019-20?
(A) Unemployment (B) Economic slow down
(C) Extradition law (D) labour laws
49. Which of the following is/are not true about the Organization of Islamic Cooperation
(OIC)?
I. India is an observer to OIC.
II. Only Muslim majority states are members to the body.
III. It is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United
Nation.
IV. The recent summit of the OIC was held in Mecca, Saudi Arabia.
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, II, III

(C) I, II (D) III, IV
50. Who won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2019 for Journalism?
(A) Ravish Kumar (B) Dibang
(C) Sudhir Chaudhary (D) Rahul Kanwal
51. Who is the writer of the patriotic song Saare Jahan Se Accha ?
(A) Allama Mohd. Iqbal (B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (D) Kavi Pradeep
52. Apple has started a credit card named “Apple Card” in collaboration with which of the
following companies?
(A) MasterCard (B) CitiBank
(C) American Express (D) Goldman Sachs
53. India has signed the Singapore Convention on Mediation in 2019. It is regarding -
(A) Cross-border river disputes
(B) Cross-border commercial disputes
(C) Terrorism
(D) War crimes
54. Consider the following statements:
9
I. The Administer, appointed by the President, is the constitutional head of the
Union Territory.
II. The relationship of the Union Territories with the Central Government is a part of
the federal structure.
Which of the abovementioned statements is/are correct?
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) I, II (D) None
55. Where is the Nine Dash Line located?

(A) South China Sea (B) North Atlantic Ocean
(C) Arctic Ocean (D) East Philippine Sea
56. What is the duration of Solar Cycle?

(A) 100 years (B) 6 months
(C) 11 years (D) 12 months
57. Which city in the World is declared the Most Liveable City in 2019?
(A) Melbourne (B) Vienna
(C) Sydney (D) Osaka
58. The Central Board of Secondary Education has collaborated with which of the following
companies for developing Artificial Intelligence (AI) based tools for learning in schools?
(A) IBM (B) Google
(C) Intel (D) Wipro
59. Who has said “How dare you? You have stolen my dreams, my childhood with your
empty word.”?
(A) Malala Yousafzai (B) Greta Thunberg
(C) Jaden Anthony (D) Martinez
60. Sound cannot travel through

(A) Gas (B) Liquid
(C) Metal (D) Vacuum
61. The chemical component which is found in most of the virus is -

(A) Protein (B) Lipids
(C) DNA (D) RNA
62. Ajanta Caves depicts paintings and sculptures from which of the following?
(A) Panchtantra Tales (B) Animals
(C) Jataka Tales (D) dance forms
63. In which of the following countries, a law to criminalize fake news came into effect in
October 2019?
(A) Singapore (B) Finland
(C) China (D) India
64. ‘Singularity’ has been in the news in the context of the Black Hole image. It refers to
which of the following?
10
(A) Gravitational waves generated by the merger of Black Holes.
(B) The boundary around a Black Hole, beyond which no light or other radiation can
escape.
(C) It is a stage in the life-cycle of a star.
(D) It is the centre of the Black Hole, which contains a huge mass in an infinitely small
space, where density and gravity become infinite.
65. Who has been elected as the Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha?
(A) Rjiv Gauba (B) Om Birla
(C) Adhir Ranjan Chowdhary (D) Sumitra Mahajan
66. Who among the following became youngest ever elected Member of Parliament in India?
(A) Dushyant Chautala (B) Tejasvi Surya
(C) Chandrani Murmu (D) Raksha Khadse
67. Who has been appointed India’s first Lokpal?

(A) Justice (retd.)Pinaki Chandra Ghose (B) Shri. Suresh Mathur
(C) Justice (retd.) A. D. Koshal (D) Justice (retd.) A.K. Sikri
68. Who has been declared the winner of the Nobel Peace Prize, 2019?
(A) Abhijit Banerjee
(B) Abdel Fattah el-Sisi, President of Egypt
(C) Greta Thunberg, Climate Activist
(D) Abiy Ahmed Ali, the Prime Minister of Ethiopia
69. The Neelakurinji flower, which grows after a period of 12 years, grows in which of the
following areas?
(A) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands (B) Lakshadweep
(C) The Western Ghats (D) Arunachal Pradesh
70. Which of the following Statements correctly relates to ‘Pink Tax’?

(A) It is a tax legally imposed on women in some countries.
(B) It is a tax imposed legally, the proceeds of which go for the development of
women.
(C) It is the name of the phenomenon wherein women pay more for women
specific goods and services.
(D) It is a kind of tax relief given for women specific products.
SECTION – C : LEGAL APTITUDE
Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.

Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Directions (Q. 71 – Q. 74): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select
the most appropriate answer.
Legal Principles:
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1. Negligence is a legal wrong that is suffered by someone at the hands of another who
has a duty to take care but fails to take proper care to avoid what a reasonable person
would regard as a foreseeable risk.
2. The test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of
the defendant's conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just
and reasonable to impose liability.
3. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred 'but for' the negligence
of the defendant.
4. Duty of care is a legal obligation which is imposed on an individual requiring
adherence to a standard of reasonable care while performing any acts that could
foreseeably harm others.
5. Conversations between a doctor and patient are generally confidential but there are
few exceptions.
71. A company called KLM, manufacturers of electrical equipment, was the target of a
takeover by ABS Industries. KLM was not doing well. In March 2019, KLM had issued a
profit warning, which had halved its share price. In May 2019, KLM's directors made a
preliminary announcement in its annual profits for the year up to March. This confirmed
that the position was bad. The share price fell again. At this point, ABS had begun buying
up shares in large numbers. In June 2019, the annual accounts, which were done with the
help of the accountant Dinesh, were issued to the shareholders, which now included ABS.
ABS reached a shareholding of 29.9% of the company, at which point it made a general
offer for the remaining shares, as the City Code's rules on takeovers required. But once it
had control, ABS found that KLM's accounts were in an even worse state than had been
revealed by the directors or the auditors. It sued Dinesh for negligence in preparing the
accounts and sought to recover its losses. This was the difference in value between the
company as it had and what it would have had if the accounts had been accurate. Which
of the following answers in incorrect?
(A) No duty of care had arisen in relation to existing or potential shareholders. The
only duty of care the auditor`s owed was to the governance of the firm.
(B) Dinesh is not liable as it is a case of pure economic loss in the absence of
contractual agreements between parties.
(C) There are circumstances where an auditor will owe a duty of care in respect of
reports produced. These are conditional that at the time the report is prepared
it is known by the auditors that the results are for a specific class and for a
specific purpose.
)D( An ability to foresee indirect or economic loss to another person as the result
of a defendant’s conduct automatically impose on the defendant a duty to take
care to avoid that loss.
72. In 2005, the local council of Delhi approved building plans for the erection of a block
of apartments. The approved plans showed the base wall and concrete foundations of the
block to be three feet or deeper to the approval of local authority. The notice of approval
said that the bylaws of the council required that notice should be given to the council both
at the commencement of the work and when the foundations were ready to be covered by
the rest of the building work. The council had the power to inspect the foundations and
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require any corrections necessary to bring the work into conformity with the bylaws, but
was not under an obligation to do so.
The block of apartments was finished in 2006. The builder (who was also the owner)
granted 99-year leases for the apartments, the last conveyance taking place in 2010. In
2017 structural movements occurred resulting in failure of the building comprising cracks
in the wall, sloping of the floors and other defects. In 2019, the plaintiffs who were
lessees of the apartments filed cases for negligence against the builder and the council.
The plaintiffs claimed that the damage was a consequence of the block having been built
on inadequate foundations, there being a depth of two feet six inches only as against the
three feet or deeper shown on the plans and required under the bylaws. The plaintiffs
claimed damages in negligence against the council for approving the foundations and/or
in failing to inspect the foundations. Decide whether the council owed a duty of care to
the claimants in respect of the incorrect depth of the foundations laid by the third-party
builder?
(A) The Council is not liable for damages to the plaintiff as failing to inspect would not
render the council liable unless it was considered that it had failed to properly exercise
its discretion to inspect and that they had failed to ensure proper compliance with
building regulations.
(B) The Council is liable for negligence as they failed to inspect the foundation.
(C) There is no negligence in building the apartments as there is minor difference
between a foundation which is three feet deep and a foundation which is two feet six
inches deep.
(D) The tenets has a duty to inspect the property properly before entering into such a long
lease agreement.
73. Soman was the student of PRQ University. He met Pamela in a youth festival and fell in
love with her. However, Pamela was not interested in having any serious relationship
with Soman. Due to this, Soman went into emotional crisis and started consulting a
psychologist in the PRQ Memorial Hospital. In October 2018, Soman murdered Pamela.
Pamela’s parents contended that only a short time prior, Soman had expressed his
intention to murder their daughter to his therapist, Dr. Surana, a psychologist employed
by the University. They further alleged that Dr. Surana had warned campus police of
Soman’s intentions, and that the police had briefly detained him, but then released him.
Pamela’s parents filed a case of negligence against the Police Department and the
University officials on two grounds: the failure to confine Soman, in spite of his
expressed intentions to kill Pamela, and failure to warn Pamela or her parents. Defendants
maintained that they owed no duty of care to the victim, and were immune from suit.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) The police did not have the requisite proximity or special relationship with family of
Pamela, sufficient to impose a duty to warn her of Soman’s intention.
)B( The public policy favoring protection of the confidential character of patient
psychotherapist communications must yield to the extent to which disclosure is
essential to avert danger to others. The protective privilege ends where the public peril
begins.
)C( The therapists and Regents of University are liable for breach of duty to exercise
reasonable care.
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)D( Soman only once expressed the desire to kill Pamela. Such kinds of feelings are
normal in any mentally ill patient. Moreover, information received during a
counselling session is confidential in nature and so therapists cannot reveal it to the
parents of Pamela.
74. R, T and U were watchmen in Skypark Society. They were on night shift and began
vomiting after drinking tea. They went to the SEM Hospital and complained to the nurse
about it. The nurse thought they were vomiting because of alcohol they had been drinking
earlier in the evening. However, the nurse reported it to the medical officer who refused
to examine them and said that they needed to go home and contact their own doctors.
They returned to their workplace, where U’s condition deteriorated. U died of arsenic
poisoning five hours later on way to hospital.
U’s wife brought a claim of negligence against the Hospital administration. She argued
that the hospital was negligent in not identifying that U had been poisoned, and the doctor
should therefore have seen to him when they first approached the hospital. The hospital
denied they were negligent, and in any event said they did not cause his death. Decide.
(A) The hospital is not liable for negligence because even if the patient was examined five
hours earlier to the death he would have died anyways. The test of causation was not
satisfied. The Hospital did not cause U’s death – But for the defendant’s negligence,
U would have died anyways.
(B) It was highly possible that the doctor would have identified U’s condition as arsenical
poisoning, and therefore U would have received the treatment he needed to survive.
(C) Where there are a number of possible causes, the claimant must still prove the
defendant's breach of duty caused the harm or was a material contribution.
)D( Both (A) & (C)
75. Legal Principle: Generally, the owner of the property has a duty to maintain his property
so as to make it reasonably safe for use. However, the occupier also owes a duty to take
such care as is reasonable to see that the visitor is reasonably safe in using the premises
for the purposes for which he is invited or permitted by the occupier to be therein.
Facts: Sheila is a painter. She went to her friend Ruchi’s house for meeting her. Sheila
requested to use the bathroom and injured her right hand on a broken water faucet handle.
Sheila filed a personal injury action for hand injuries suffered alleging that Ruchi failed to
warn her that her bathroom fixtures were cracked and dangerous. Ruchi says she had
complained to the landlord about the broken handle so the landlord is liable. Decide
whether the Sheila’s injury the proximate cause of Ruchi's negligence?
(A) A licensee or social guest was obliged to take the premises as he or she found them,
and the possessor of the premises owed a duty only to refrain from wanton or wilful
injury.
(B) The landlord is liable as Ruchi had complained to the landlord about the broken
handle and it is the duty of the landlord to get the repair work done.
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(C) Ruchi is not liable as the use of toilet is not the purposes for which Sheila was invited
or permitted by the occupier to be therein.
(D) Ruchi owes a duty to warn of a dangerous condition so the guest can take special
precautions, like the host would, when they come in contact with it.
76. Legal Principle: Intimidation involves a threat to do something unlawful or

'illegitimate'; it must be intended to coerce the claimant to take or not take certain
action.
Facts: Hari, a skilled draughtsman and employee of the Overseas Airways

Corporation (OAC), resigned his membership of the Association of Engineering and
Shipbuilding Draughtsmen (AESD), a registered trade union. It was agreed between
OAC and AESD (among others) that no strike or lockout should take place and
disputes should be handled by arbitration. He resigned from his union, the Association
of Engineering and Shipbuilding Draftsman (AESD), after a disagreement. The
Corporation and AESD had a contract that stipulates that the employer will only hire
workers from a specific union and those workers can only remain with that employer
while they are a part of the union so AESD threatened a strike unless Hari resigned
also from his job or was fired. Corporation suspended Hari and, after some months,
dismissed him with one week's salary in lieu of notice. Hari brought an action for
damages alleging that he was the victim of a tortious intimidation. Decide.
(A)The union was guilty of the tort of intimidation. It was unlawful intimidation to
use a threat to break their contracts with their employer as a weapon to make him do
something which he was legally entitled to do but which they knew would cause loss
to Hari.
(B)The Union was not guilty of intimidation as no unlawful means were used to
induce Corporation to terminate his contract of service.
(C) There was a contract between Union and Corporation that stipulates that the
employer will only hire workers from a specific union and those workers can only
remain with that employer while they are a part of the union so the Union is not liable.
)D( Hari cannot claim damages as he was paid one week’s salary in lieu of notice.
77. Legal Principles:
1. A deceit occurs when a misrepresentation is made with the express intention of

defrauding a party, subsequently causing loss to that party.
2. “Misrepresentation” means and includes— the positive assertion, in a manner not
warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true,
though he believes it to be true; any breach of duty which, without an intent to
deceive, gains an advantage of the person committing it, or any one claiming
under him, by misleading another to his prejudice, or to the prejudice of any one
claiming under him; causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to
make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the
agreement.
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Fact: XY Company in its prospectus stated that the company was permitted to make
engines that were powered by electricity, rather than by fuel. In reality, the company did
not possess such a right as this had to be approved by the Government Board. Gaining the
approval for such a claim from the Board was considered a formality in such
circumstances and the claim was put forward in the prospectus with this information in
mind. However, the claim of the company for this right was later refused by the Board.
The individuals who had purchased a stake in the business, upon reliance on the
statement, brought a claim for deceit against the defendant’s business. Decide.
(A) The company is liable for false representation as their claims were eventually turned
out to be false.
(B) The company is liable as their false statements has resulted in causing loss to the
shareholders.
(C) The company is not liable as the statement in its prospectus was simply incorrect and
not fraudulent.
(D) The shareholders should have collected as much information regarding the company
as possible before purchasing a stake in it.
1. Private nuisance is a continuous, unlawful and indirect interference with the use or
enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it.
2. Generally, nuisances cannot be justified on the ground of necessity, pecuniary
interest, convenience, or economic advantage to a defendant.
3. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to injure
his neighbour.
4. In cases of nuisance, the court may grant an injunction restricting the nuisance from
occurring in the future when the loss could not adequately compensated.
Facts: Tina purchased a house in an estate which was adjacent to a functioning, in use,
cricket field. The members of Super Eleven Cricket Club used to play Cricket in that field
for over 70 years. After Tina moved into the property, cricket balls began to fly over the
field’s protective barrier and into the Tina’s property. Tina complained, which caused
Super Eleven Cricket Club to erect a chain link fence. This improved matters as less balls
were now flying onto the Tina’s property but it did not fully solve the issue as some still
got through. The club offered Tina to pay for any damage done or injuries received as a
result of the balls landing onto her land, including fixing any broken windows and
similar. Tina, however, refused all of the club’s offers and filed a case against the
members of the Club alleging nuisance and negligence and requested court to grant an
injunction to prevent the club from playing cricket on their ground. Tina argued that even
though the club offered to make good any damage and that there had been no injuries, she
was not able to use her garden when matches were being played for fear of being struck
by a cricket ball. Decide.
(A) The members of Club are not liable as Tina was aware about the activities of the
Cricket Club and had willingly purchased the property.
(B) The members of the Club are liable for nuisance and court should pass an order of
compensation as the injury is small and could be compensated in terms of money.
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Also, public interest considerations outweighed the private rights of the plaintiff and
therefore a remedy of damages was sufficient in the circumstances.
(C) The members of the Club are liable for nuisance and court should pass an order of
injunction. The plaintiff’s right to enjoyment of her property outweighs the right of
the members of the Club to play cricket.
(D) The Club is not liable as they have already taken sufficient measures to mitigate the
effects of their act and are ready and willing to do so in future too.
1. According to rule of strict liability, any person who for his own purposes brings on his
lands and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must
keep it in at his peril, and, if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the
damage, irrespective of fault, which is the natural consequence of its escape in respect
of the non-natural use of land.
2. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to injure
his neighbour.
Facts: PN was the owner of a gas pipe which passed under the surface of an old railway
between Ramnagar and Kotpur. XY was the local council which was responsible for a
water pipe which supplied water to a block of flats in the nearby Shining Apartment
Complex. A leak developed which was undetected for some time. The water collected at
an embankment which housed PN’s high pressure gas main. The water caused the
embankment to collapse and left the gas main exposed and unsupported. This was a
serious and immediate risk and PN took action to avoid the potential danger. They then
sought to recover the cost of the remedial works. PN argued that the XY Council was
liable for negligence under strict liability.
(A) The Council is liable under strict liability rule as the damage is not remote as it
was possible for the Council to reasonably foresee a leakage which would
eventually lead to collapse of the gas main.
)B( The escape of water as a result of leak is sufficient to make the Council liable.
)C( The Council is not liable as PN should have been careful in detecting the leak
earlier. They cannot shift the blame on the Council.
(D) The Council is not liable under rule of strict liability for the damage as the
Council’s use was neither a non- natural nor dangerous use of the land.

1. When the negligent act of two or more person results in the same damage, it is
called composite negligence. The liability in such a case is joint and several of the
tort-feasers.
2. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to
injure someone.
3. The foreseeability of the type of damage is a pre-requisite of liability.
4. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred 'but for' the
negligence of the defendant.
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Facts: Zara filed a civil suit against five drug manufacturing companies. Zara’s
mother took synthetic estrogen while pregnant with her. As a result of receiving the
drug in-utero, Zara developed cancer as an adult. The drug was manufactured by the
Defendants, five major drug companies and by about 195 other companies not named
in the suit. The Defendants together produced 90% of the drug. Zara is unable to
identify which company produced the actual drug her mother took. Decide whether
the Defendants only can be held liable for Zara’s cancer.
(A) No, as the industry responsible for the production of this drug is large, so
holding only the defendants responsible is not correct.
)B( Yes, as defendants joins a substantial share of the manufactures into the
lawsuit, the chances of the actual tort-feasor escaping liability is greatly
reduced.
)C( No, as defendants can be made liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts
would be likely to injure someone.
)D( No, Zara is not entitled to any damages as the drugs her mother was
administered were needed at that time and her mother had taken the medicines
voluntarily. Zara developed cancer after so many years and she must prove
that harm would not have occurred 'but for' the negligence of the defendants.

1. Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harms a
person's reputation; decreases the respect, regard, or confidence in which a
person is held; or induces disparaging, hostile, or disagreeable opinions or
feelings against a person.
2. The statement must tend to lower the claimant in the estimation of right-
thinking members of society.
3. A mere vulgar abuse is not defamation.
4. Defamation encompasses both written statements, known as libel, and spoken
statements, called slander.
5. A public official or public figure can recover damages for defamation on a
matter of public concern only if he proves that the speaker acted with actual
malice.
Facts: In 2018, a police officer, Suresh Singh, shot and killed Dayal. After the officer was
convicted of culpable homicide not amounting to murder, Dayal's family retained a lawyer,
Kaushal, to represent them in civil litigation against the officer. In a magazine called Indian
Opinion, the Anti-Communist Society accused Kaushal of being a “Naxalite” and a
“Communist-fronter” because he chose to represent clients who were suing a law
enforcement officer. Because the statements contained serious inaccuracies, Kaushal filed a
libel action against the editors of the magazine. Decide whether he will succeed.
(A) No, as it is mere vulgar abuse.
(B) The statement may be defamatory but the editors of the magazine are not liable unless
Kaushal is able to establish actual malice in making the statement.
(C) No, as the statement does not tend to lower Kaushal in the estimation of right-thinking
members of society and print media is known for such type of journalism.
(D) Yes, as statement is defamatory and Kaushal is not required to establish actual malice
to successfully bring a claim of defamation.
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82. Legal principle: A contract may, in some circumstances, be discharged by a breach
of contract. Where there exists a breach of condition this will enable the innocent
party the right to repudiate the contract (bring the contract to an end) in addition to
claiming damages.
Facts: In April, Sagar Tour &Travels agreed to employ Hiten as his courier for three
months from 1 June 2020, to go on a trip around the European continent. On 11 May,
Sagar Tour & Travels wrote to say that Hiten was no longer needed. On 22 May,
Hiten sued Sagar Tour & Travels for breach of contract. Sagar Tour & Travels
argued that Hiten was still under an obligation to stay ready and willing to perform till
the day when performance was due, and therefore could commence no action before
June 1, 2020.
(A) A breach of contract by renouncing the duty to perform the future obligation
does not render the party liable immediately to a suit of action for damages by
the injured party.
)B( The renunciation of a contract of future conduct by one party immediately

dissolves the obligation of the other party to perform the contract.
)C( Hiten has suffered no harm and the offer can be revoked anytime before June
1, 2020 so he cannot claim any damages.
)D( A contract for future conduct do not constitutes an implied promise that, in the
meantime, neither party will prejudice the performance of that promise.
83. Legal Principle: An agreement between two private parties that creates mutual legal
obligations. A contract can be either oral or written.
Facts: Mr. Ram and Mr. Rahim were work colleagues who had an arrangement
regarding shared lifts to work. Rahim would drive his motorbike and Ram would ride
pillion in return for a weekly sum of money. Unfortunately both were killed in a road
traffic accident and the wife of Mr. Ram made a claim for damages against the estate
of Mr. Rahim. However Rahim’s insurance policy did not cover pillion passengers
and as his estate had no assets or money to satisfy the judgment, Mrs. Ram pursued
the Motor Insurance Bureau (MIB).
The MIB have an agreement whereby accidents and consequential claims would be
satisfied by the Government in circumstances where the driver has no relevant policy
of insurance. However the rules covering this situation require Mr. Ram was carried
for “hire or reward”. Mrs. Ram argues that there was a contract in place between Ram
and Rahim for the lifts to work. Decide whether there was a contract so as to make
Mrs. Ram eligible for claim from MIB.
(A) Notwithstanding the regular payment of money in return for the lift, it was not
a legal obligation as to create a contract. There were no terms as to how long
this was to last, what would happen in default of payment or the availability of
transport, or anything written down so as to at least make their intention clear.
)B( Yes, there was clearly an offer of transport and this was accepted. In addition,
the consideration exchanged by the parties was the service of transport and the
money paid by Ram.
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)C( Yes, the practice of agreements between colleagues sharing a lift to work (or
“car-pooling”) is an accepted and wide spread practice. Parties will usually
agree that one will take their car and in return the others will make a
contribution towards the petrol costs.
)D( No, unless the wife of Ram can show that the accident happened due to rash
and negligent driving of Rahim.

1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from
doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and
the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to
whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be
accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the
agreement.
Facts: Mr. Kumar visited the Holiday Bliss Hotel. He had not made an in advance
booking and upon arrival requested a room for the night. He signed the register and
there was no mention at that stage of any other terms or conditions that might impact
upon his stay at the hotel. During the course of his stay Mr. Kumar discovered that
someone had broken into his room and stolen certain property including a coat.
Kumar filed a case of negligence on the Hotel administration. Nevertheless, the Hotel
sought to rely upon an exclusion clause that was placed in the bedroom the claimant
stayed in. This stated that the hotel would not accept liability for lost or stolen items
belonging to customers. Decide whether the exclusion clause that was displayed in the
bedroom constituted a valid term of the contract.
(A) The contract was made when Kumar signed the register at the reception and so
the acceptance of the offer mean acceptance of all the terms of the offer.
)B( There is a valid contract between Kumar and Hotel and the Hotel has taken
reasonable steps to bring exclusion clause to Kumar’s attention in the room.
)C( Terms must be brought to the attention of the customer, consumer or party
against whom they are trying to be enforced at the moment the contract was
entered into. Kumar was not given notice of this exclusion clause until he had
already entered into the contract and therefore it was unenforceable against
him.
(D) Though the terms must be brought to the attention of the customer, consumer
or party against whom they are trying to be enforced at the moment the
contract was entered into. But, such type of clauses are generally part of all
contracts and customers should be aware of such exclusion of liability clauses.
1. When one person signify to another person his willingness to do or not do

something (abstain) with a view to obtain the assent of such person to such an act
or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal or an offer.
2. The communication of the offer is complete when it comes to the knowledge of
the person to whom it is made.
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3. Communication of acceptance is complete when it is put in the course of
transmission to him as to be out of the power of the acceptor to withdraw the same
and when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
4. In case of the proposer, the communication of the acceptance is complete when he
puts such acceptance in the course of transmission.
5. The communication in case of the acceptor is complete when the proposer
acquires knowledge of such acceptance.
6. An offer may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance
is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.
Facts: G offered to sell the L fleeces of wool for a certain price. G requested that the
response be made by post. This letter was misdirected by G so that it was not received
for 3 days after it was sent. L decided to accept the offer and responded on the same
day. This was posted on the 5th July but not received until the 9th July. However, G
decided on the 8th July that as he had not received a response so decided to sell the
wool to someone else. But L argued that a contract had been created as he had
accepted their offer. Decide.
(A) No contract was formed as L accepted the offer even before he received the
offer by post. Contract will be entered upon when L had received the offer and
then written to him saying that the terms were agreed.
)B( The contract was entered on the 9th September when the acceptance was
received by G.
)C( G is free to withdraw his offer before 9th September.
)D( The contract was entered on the 5th September when the acceptance was
posted, not when it was received.
1. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be absolute and
unqualified.
2. Acceptance must be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner, unless the
proposal prescribes the manner in which it is to be accepted. If the proposal
prescribes a manner in which it is to be accepted, and the acceptance is not made
in such manner, the proposer may, within a reasonable time after the acceptance is
communicated to him, insist that his proposal shall be accepted in the prescribed
manner, and not otherwise; but, if he fails to do so, he accepts the acceptance.
Facts: TUV’s employee performing installation on Motorola’s premises was injured due
to the negligence of Motorola employees. TUV had executed a purchase order that
contained an indemnity form. First purchase order contained indemnity provision which
narrowly applied to damages caused by the negligence of TUV’s employees. It attached a
broader indemnity form page which would make TUV also responsible for the negligence
of Motorola employees in connection with the work. This page was marked VOID.
Amendment 2 to Purchase order contained same provision and attached same additional
indemnity form which this time was not marked VOID. But also contained the additional
language that “acceptance should be executed on acknowledgement copy which should
be returned to the buyer.” Employee was injured several months before the
acknowledgement copy of the second purchase order was executed, but was in the course
of performing work related to the second purchase order. Decide whether TUV liable
21
under the broader indemnity provision.
(A) TUV is liable as workers have sustained injury during the course of their employment
even though TUV has not accepted the amended purchase order as it did not execute the
acknowledgement.
(B) Motorola’s amendment gave a suggested mode of acceptance which did not preclude
TUV’s acceptance by another method. TUV accepted when TUV undertook performance
of the work called for by the amendment with the “consent and acquiescence” of
Motorola.
(C) TUV is not liable under the broader indemnity provision as it did not execute the
acknowledgement copy until several months after the employee sustained his injury.
(D) TUV is not liable as commencement of work was acceptance to the first purchase
order in which the broader indemnity provision was marked as void.
1. A contract can become void when: It is unfairly one-sided; it goes against public
policy; its subject matter is illegal; it is impossible to perform; it unfairly restricts one
side's actions (such as the right to work); one of the parties is not legally competent to
enter into a binding contract.
2. A contract is void as against public policy if: (1) it is a contract by the defendant to
pay the plaintiff for inducing a public official to act in a certain manner; (2) it is a
contract to do an illegal act; or (3) it is a contract that contemplates collusive bidding
on a public contract.
Facts: BR Industries, a company manufacturing drills, machine parts and components

thereof and a purchaser of subcontract work from other suppliers, won the bid from the
HLK Company to supply certain parts to it at a specified price. BR industries then
contracted with SU Co. to supply the parts under the contract for a much lower price. BR
Industries then intended to keep the difference between the amount it billed the HLK
Company and the amount SU Co. charged for the parts. BR Industries initiated an action
for breach of contract when SU Co. failed to complete the order. In its defense, SU Co.
asserts that the contract is void as against public policy because Defendant turned a profit
of 84.09% on anvils, 39.13% on holder primers and 68.33% on plunger supports. Did
plaintiff receive too much compensation deeming it unconscionable and against public
policy?
(A) The contract is void as against public policy as it is a contract that

contemplates collusive bidding on a public contract.
(B) The Contract is void as it unfairly one sided.
)C( Relative values of the consideration in a contract between business men at
“arms-length” without fraud will not affect the validity of the contract.
)D( Relative values of the consideration in a contract between business men will
affect the validity of the contract as it amounts to abuse of dominance and
unconscionable.
22
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from
doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and
the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to
whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be
accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the
agreement.
Facts: In Dec. 2019, a convicted murderer who was sentenced to death escaped from
the custody of Ramesh, a prison official. Ramesh later offered a reward of INR
50,000 to anyone who captured the fugitive and returned him to the authorities. In
Jan. 2020, without knowledge or notice of the reward, Sunil captured the fugitive and
took him to Ramesh's jail house. Ramesh refused Sunil's demands for the reward
money. Sunil filed a case against Ramesh to recover the reward. Ramesh alleges that
there is no contract between Ramesh and Sunil.
(A) A mere offer or promise to pay did not give rise to a contract. Rather, the
assent or meeting of two minds gave rise to a contract, and therefore it was not
complete until the offer was accepted. Having notice or knowledge of the
existence of the reward when he captured the fugitive is essential to his right
to recover the reward offered by Ramesh.
)B( The act of capturing the fugitive was acceptance of the offer of reward through
conduct and so a valid contract is entered upon.
)C( There was an offer by Ramesh and acceptance by Sunil and it is immaterial
whether Sunil had notice or knowledge of the existence of the reward when he
captured the fugitive.
)D( Such an offer, like the reward here, could be accepted by anyone who
performs the service called for, when the acceptor knows that it has been made
and acts in performance of it.
89. Which of the following States have passed a Bill providing for life imprisonment and fine
up to INR 5 Lakhs against accused in case of mob lynching leading to death of the
victim?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Haryana
90. The strength of Judges in Supreme Court of India has been increased from 31 to ………. .
(A) 34 (B) 38
(C) 33 (D) 35
91. In September 2019, High Court of …………. has held that the right to have access to the
internet is part of fundamental right to education and right to privacy under Article 21 of
the Constitution of India.
(A) Delhi (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Kerala (D) Mumbai
23
92. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Delimitation Commission?
I. It determines the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population
of all constituencies nearly equal.
II. The orders of Delimitation Commission have the force of law and can be
challenged in a court of law.
III. Constitution of India has put a freeze on fresh delimitation until 2025.
IV. The constitution has also capped the number of Lok Shaba & Rajya Sabha
seats to a maximum of 550 & 250 respectively

(C) II, III (D) I, IV
93. The Enemy Property Act applies to the property of which of the following?
(A) people who took citizenship of China & Pakistan
(B) people who took citizenship of Bangladesh, China & Pakistan
(C) people who took citizenship of Bangladesh & China
(D) people who took citizenship of China & Myanmar
94. Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 provides for which of the following powers to prevent the
spread of an epidemic disease?
I. Inspection of person
II. detention of persons
III. penalties for disobeying provisions of the Act under Section 188, 269 & 271
Indian Penal Code
IV. legal protection of implementing officers

(C) I, II, IV (D) I, III, IV
95. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of State Laws) Second Order 2020
under J&K Civil Services (Decentralization and Recruitment) Act provides for which of
the following:
I. Anyone who has lived in the Union Territory of J&K for at least 10 years is a
domicile.
II. Anyone who has studied there for at least seven years and appeared in Class X or
Class XII examinations in any school in the region is a domicile.
III. Anyone who is registered as a migrant by the Relief and Rehabilitation
Commissioner (Migrants) in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir is a
domicile.
IV. A domicile of the UT shall be eligible for appointment to any post with a pay
scale of not more than Level-4 under the UT or any local authority within the
territory.
(A) II, III (B) I, II, III

(C) I, IV (D) II, III, IV
24
96. Which of the following statements regarding Anti-defection Law is/are incorrect?
I. Grounds of disqualification on ground of defection are provided in the 10th

Schedule to the Constitution.
II. If 1/3rd of the members of the political party defect from it than it is not defection.
III. Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of a member under Anti-
Defection Law cannot be challenged in a court of law.
IV. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he disobeys the directives of the party
leadership on a vote.
(A) I, II, (B) I, II, IV

(C) II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
97. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Essential Commodities
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2020?
I. The Ordinance seeks to increase competition in the agriculture sector and
enhance farmers’ income.
II. The Ordinance requires that imposition of any stock limit on certain specified
items must be based on price rise.
III. The provisions of the Ordinance regarding the regulation of food items and the
imposition of stock limits will apply to any government order relating to the
Public Distribution System or the Targeted Public Distribution System.
IV. Recently, sanitizers, masks and oxygen cylinders are included under the Act
till June 30, 2020.
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II

(C) III, IV (D) only I
98. Recently, the Supreme Court of India has held that women officers are also entitled to
Permanent Commission in ……………… .
(A) Indian Navy (B) Indian Army
(C) Indian Air Force (D) all of these
99. In February 2020, the Supreme Court has held that reservations in promotion, in
government jobs, is not a fundamental right and refused to give directions to provide
reservations to the government of which of the following States?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Jharkhand
(C) Kerala (D) Delhi
100. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding SC and ST (Prevention of

Atrocities) Amendments Act?
(A) No arrest can be made without prior permission.
(B) No anticipatory bail can be granted to the accused under the Act.
(C) The Police must file an FIR and arrest the accused on receiving the complaint.
(D) The offences under the Act are cognizable.
25
101. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act 2019?
I. The Act does not apply to tribal areas of Tripura, Mizoram, Assam and
Meghalaya but apply to all other states and UTs in India.
II. The Act provides that that no order of cancellation of registration shall be
passed unless the Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder has been given a
reasonable opportunity of being heard.
III. The Act increases the period of naturalisation for such group of persons from
six years to eight years.
IV. The Act applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in
India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such
people from proceedings of illegal migration.
(A) I, IV (B) II, III, IV

(C) I, III, IV (D) II, IV
102. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding preventive detention?
I. National Security Act as well as Article 22, Constitution of India provide for
preventive detention in certain cases
II. Maximum duration in case of preventive detention can be till 12 months
III. In case of preventive detention, accused has the right to be informed about the
grounds of arrest at the time of arrest.
IV. In case of preventive detention, accused has no right to be represented by a
lawyer.
(A) I, II (B) III, IV

(C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, IV
103. Which of the following countries joined the International Criminal Court (ICC) in
2019?
(A) Turkey (B) Malaysia
(C) Myanmar (D) India
104. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act grants citizenship to the Hindus, Christians, Sikhs,
Buddhist, Jains and Parsis — from ……………………….who had arrived in India before
…………..
(A) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh; 31 December 2014
(B) Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh; 31 December 2014
(C) Myanmar, Pakistan and Tibet; 31 December 2011
(D) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Myanmar; 31 December 2011
105. Which of the following countries have abolished flogging as a form of punishment in
April 2020?
(A) Indonesia (B) Maldives
(C) Saudi Arabia (D) Singapore
26
SECTION- D : REASONING
Direction (Q. 106 – Q. 112): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Sonu has to deliver seven parcels containing different items– Medicine, Book, Stationery,
Grocery, Cosmetics, Clothe and Chocolate – to houses on different floors of a building, one
parcel each to a house. The seven floors of the building are numbered consecutively 1
through 7. Delivery of parcels to houses must meet the following conditions:
i. Medicine is delivered on a lower numbered floor than Grocery.

ii. Clothe is delivered at one level below the floor at which Book is delivered.
iii. Stationery is delivered at first floor or else seventh floor.
iv. Chocolate is delivered at fourth floor.
106. There can be at most how many floors between the floor at which Medicine is
delivered and the floor at which Grocery is delivered?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
107. If Clothe is delivered at floor 1, which of the following could be true?

(A) Book is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Grocery is
delivered.
(B) Book is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Cosmetics is
delivered.
(C) Medicine is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Stationery is
delivered.
(D) Cosmetics is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Book is
delivered.
108. Which one of the following is an acceptable assignment of parcels to the floors in the
building, in order from floor 1 through 7?
(A) Medicine, Clothe, Cosmetics, Chocolate, Book, Grocery, Stationery
(B) Stationery, Cosmetics, Chocolate, Clothe, Book, Medicine, Grocery
(C) Stationery, Clothe, Book, Chocolate, Grocery, Medicine, Cosmetics
(D) Medicine, Cosmetics, Grocery, Chocolate, Clothe, Book, Stationery
109. If Cosmetics is delivered at floor 2, which one of the following must be true?
(A) Medicine is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Chocolate.
(B) Chocolate is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Grocery.
(C) Grocery is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Stationery.
(D) Clothe is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Grocery.
27
110. If Cosmetics is delivered on floor 5, which one of the following is a pair of parcels
that could be delivered, not necessarily in the order given, at floors whose numbers
are consecutive to each other?
(A) Book, Grocery
(B) Clothe, Chocolate
(C) Stationery, Grocery
(D) Book, Stationery
111. If Book is delivered at one floor below the floor at which Medicine is delivered, then
which one of the following must be true?
(A) Cosmetics is delivered on fifth floor.
(B) Medicine is delivered on third floor.
(C) Stationery is delivered on first floor.
(D) Clothe is delivered on fifth floor.
112. It must be true that the lowest numbered floor on which

(A) Book can be delivered on third floor.
(B) Medicine can be delivered on second floor.
(C) Cosmetics can be delivered on third floor.
(D) Grocery can be delivered on second floor.
Directions (Q. 113 – Q. 116): Read the following information carefully to answer the
following questions.
I. ‘X + Y’ means that ‘X is the mother of Y’.
II. ‘X ̶ Y’ means that ‘X is the sister of Y’.
III. ‘X × Y’ means that ‘X is the father of Y’.
IV. ‘X ÷ Y’ means that ‘X is the brother of Y’.
113. If it is given ‘B + D × M ÷ N’, then how is M related to B?

(A) grand-daughter (B) son
(C) grand-son (D) daughter
114. Which of the following represent ‘J is the son of F’?

(A) J÷R̶T×F (B) J+R̶ T×F
(C) J÷R̶N×F (D) none of these
115. Which of the following represent ‘R is the niece of M’?

(A) M÷K×T̶ R (B) M ̶ J+R̶ N
(C) R̶ M×T÷W (D) M+T×K÷R
116. If it is given ‘B × D ̶ M’, then which of the following is true?

(A) B is the brother of M (B) B is the sister of M
(C) B is the uncle of M (D) B is the father of M
Direction (Q. 117 – Q. 121): Read the given information carefully and answer the
28
following questions.
Vidya, Umesh and Tanu are sitting around a circular table. Arun, Bina and
Chetan are sitting around the same table but two of them are not facing centre
(they are facing the direction opposite to centre). Vidya is second to the left of
Chetan. Umesh is second to the right of Arun. Bina is third to the left of Tanu.
Chetan is second to the right of Tanu. Arun and Chetan are not sitting together.
117. Which of the following is not facing centre?

(A) Bina & Arun (B) Chetan & Vidya
(C) Bina & Chetan (D) Arun & Umesh
118. Which of the following is the position of Tanu in respect of Bina?

(A) third to the right (B) second to the right
(C) third to the left (D) third to the left & right, both
119. What is the position of Vidya in respect of Chetan?

(A) second to the right (B) third to the left
(C) fourth to the right (D) fourth to the left
120. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Arun, Bina and Chetan are sitting together
(B) Vidya, Umesh and Tanu are sitting together
(C) Only two people are sitting between Vidya and Tanu
(D) Those who are not facing centre are sitting together
121. What is the position of Arun in respect of Umesh?

(A) second to the left (B) second to the right
(C) third to the right (D) none of these
Directions (Q. 122 – Q. 123): In each of the following questions is given a statement
followed by two conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true,
then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of these logically follows
beyond reasonable doubt from the given information.
Give answer
(A) if only Conclusion I follows
(B) if only Conclusion II follows
(C) if both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows
122. Statement – The use of non-conventional sources of energy will eliminate the energy
crisis in the world.
Conclusion I – Modern technology is gradually replacing the conventional source of

energy.
Conclusion II – The excessive exploitation of environment has led to the depletion of
conventional source of energy.
29
123. Statement – Computer advertisements now fill magazine pages but the real computer
revolution in India is taking place quietly and is a likely organisation of Government.
Conclusion I – Both the Central and State Government are computerizing rapidly.
Conclusion II –The Government does not fill the magazine pages with its computer
advertisements.
Direction (Q. 124 – Q. 125): Each of these questions consists of a pair of words bearing
a certian relationship. From among the options, find out the one that best illustrates a
similar relationship.
124. LOM : NMK : : PKI : ?

(A) RIG (B) RIH
(C) SHG (D) RHG
125. ABCD : OPQR : : WXYZ : ?

(A) EFGH (B) STUV
(C) KLMN (D) QRST
Direction (Q. 126 – Q. 127): Find the one that does not belong to the group.
126. (A) GMS (B) EKQ

(C) JOU (D) LRX
127. (A) RARCOT (B) NIATCRU

(C) BACGEBA (D) ILBJARN
128. If in a certain code language ‘TEMPERATURE’ is written as ‘BZQDYXVBNXZ’,

then how will ‘RAMP’ be written in that language?
(A) XVQD (B) XVDQ
(C) XQVD (D) XDVQ
129. In a certain coding system, ‘JUNE’ is written as ‘PQRS’ and ‘AUGUST’ is written as
‘WQFQMN’. How will ‘GUEST’ be written in that coding language?
(A) FQTMN (B) FPSMN
(C) FQSMN (D) FQSNM
130. A clock is set right at 5 am. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the
right time when the clock indicates 10 pm on the 3rd day?
(A) 11:15 pm (B) 11 pm
(C) 12 pm (D) 12:30 pm
131. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 65 minutes of the
correct time. How much does a clock gain or lose in a day?
10 10
(A) 10 143 minutes (gain) (B) 10 143 minutes (loss)
10 10
(C) 9 143 minutes (gain) (D) 9 143 minutes (loss)
30
132. If a day before yesterday was Tuesday, then what day of the week will it be on a day
after tomorrow?
(A) Monday (B) Wednesday
(C) Friday (D) Saturday
133. If 15th August, 2017 was Tuesday, then what day of the week was it on 17th
September, 2017?
(A) Sunday (B) Saturday
(C) Friday (D) Thursday
134. Tia and Renu both are walking away from point ‘X’. Tia walked 3 m and Renu
walked 4 m from it, then Tia walked 4 m North of X and Renu walked 5 m South of
Tia. What is the distance between them now?
(A) 9.5 m (B) 9m
(C) 16 m (D) 11.40 m
135. Tanaya travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and travelled 6 km
straight, then turned right and travelled 4 km straight. How far is he from the starting
point?
(A) 8 km (B) 10 km
(C) 12 km (D) 18 km
Directions (Q. 136 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best
answers to the questions that follow each passage.
136. Therapists have just completed an extensive study of recently delinquent juveniles in
order to determine which factors contributed most to the delinquency. The researchers
found that in a great majority of the cases of delinquency, the parents met, on average,
fewer than 4 times per week with their children. From this data, the therapists have
determined that a failure to spend time together with the children is a major factor
leading to delinquency.
Which one of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the researcher’s
hypothesis?
(A) Parents and children in the study who reported that they met each other more
than four times per week also indicated that they tended to perceive their
relationships as healthy.
(B) In many cases, people in unhappy family tend to express their displeasure by
avoiding contact with each other when possible.
(C) Most of the families in the study who were unable to meet often with each
other worked outside of the home.
(D) Many families who have a long and strong family bonding met each other
fewer than four times per week.
137. Several coaching centres have recently switched at least partially from study material
written by hand on printer paper from study material written on a computer and sent
electronically with no use of paper at all. Therefore, less printer paper will be used as
a result of these changes than would have been used if these coaching centres had
continued to use handwritten study materials.
31
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?
(A) The amount of printer paper needed to explain the electronic study material is
less than the amount that would have been used for handwritten material.
(B) Coaching centres that used more printer paper were more likely to switch to
electronic materials than centres that used less printer paper.
(C) Some of the Institutes that have switched at least partially to electronic study
material still primarily used printer paper for other operations.
(D) More printer paper was used to create manuals for the use of electronic study
materials than was used to write handwritten materials.
138. In visual media, it’s possible to induce viewers to project their feelings onto
characters on the screen. In one study, a camera shot of a girl’s face was preceded by
images of a still river. The audience thought the girl’s face registered contentment.
When the same girl’s face was preceded by images of a mighty and violent tsunami
wave, the audience thought the girl’s face registered fear. Media news teams must be
careful to avoid such manipulation of their viewers.
Which of the following is best supported by the information in the passage?

(A) The technique for manipulating audiences described in the passage would also
work in an audio program that played dramatic music.
(B) Audiences should strive to be less gullible.
(C) Images of a still river engendered feelings of happiness in the audiences.
(D) The expression on the woman’s face was, in actuality, blank.
139. Although measuring the productivity of outsourced workers is a complex endeavor.

Company X, which relies heavily on outsourced workers, must find ways to assess
the performance of these workers. The risks to a company that does not review the
productivity of its human resources are simply too great. Last year, Company Y was
forced into receivership after its productivity declined for three consecutive
quarters.
The clauses in the italics in the above paragraph, play which of the following roles in
the argument above?
(A) The first clause in italics express a position, and the second warns against the
adoption of that position.
(B) The first clause in italics represents the author’s conclusion, and the second
supports the conclusion with an analogy.
(C) The first clause in italics states the author’s premises, and the second states the
author’s conclusion.
(D) The first clause in italics provides background information, and the second
offers evidence to contradict that information.
140. A telephonic poll conducted in two states asked respondents whether they get
adequate water during summers. Ninety-nine percent of respondents said their houses
were having running water through-out the day. The pollsters published their findings,
concluding that ninety-nine percent of all homes in India have adequate water for use.
Which of the following most accurately describes a questionable technique employed

by the pollsters in drawing their conclusions?
32
(A) The pollsters conducted the poll by telephone, thereby relying on the veracity
of respondents.
(B) The pollsters never defined the term “adequate” in terms of a specific quantity
of water.
(C) The pollsters didn’t visit respondent’s houses in person, so no measure of
adequacy of water during summers in a subject’s house was actually made.
(D) The poll assumes conditions in the two states are representative of the entire
country.
SECTION – E : MATHEMATICS
141. If the third and the tenth term of an arithmetic progression are 14 and 56, respectively,
then the arithmetic mean of the first 15 terms of the arithmetic progression is
(A) 40 (B) 44
(C) 80 (D) 34
142. Ronnie has a bag containing 7 red and 9 green balls. From it, he draws out 6 balls
simultaneously at random. The probability that 4 of them are red and the rest are
green is
24 45
(A) (B)
143 286
155 302
(C) (D)
2001 1005
143. City A is connected to City B by four highways and City B is connected to City C by
three highways. Kesari wants to travel from City A to City C via City B. In how many
ways, Kesari can do it?
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 10 (D) 12
144. The number of integral values of x satisfying the inequation |x| < 4 is
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 10
145. If the price of each book goes up by ₹ 5, then Asha can buy 20 books less for ₹ 1200.
Find the original price and the number of books Asha could buy at the original price.
(A) ₹ 25, 50 (B) ₹ 20, 60
(C) ₹ 15, 80 (D) ₹ 10, 90
146. If 2x = 7y = 14z, then find the value of z in terms of x and y.

(A) x + y/ x - y (B) xy/ x + y
(C) x + y + xy (D) xy – (x + y)
147. Bhiku borrowed some money from Dhanraj to admit his daughter in a reputed Law
School. He agreed to pay the interest-free loan of ₹ 60, 000 in a monthly installments
which increased by a constant amount. After the 20th installment, he found that he has
paid ¾ of the loan. If the entire loan was cleared this way in 25 installments, find out
the value of the first installment.
(A) ₹ 1560 (B) ₹ 1067
(C) ₹ 1680 (D) ₹ 1987
33
148. A vessel contains an 80% alcohol solution. 20% of the solution was removed and
replaced with water. If this process is repeated, find the percentage of alcohol which
remains in the solution.
(A) 64% (B) 51.2%
(C) 50.6% (D) 45%
149. Arsh takes up a job, wherein each working day he is given a target. For each day, he
meets the target he is paid ₹ 105 and for each day he does not meet the target he is
paid ₹ 18 less. If by the end of a month, he is paid total of ₹ 2988, then how many
days does he meets the target?
(A) 21 (B) 12
(C) 10 (D) 14
150. A fruit vendor purchases two varieties of oranges at the rates of 12 oranges for ₹ 18
and 18 oranges for ₹ 12. He mixes the two varieties in the ratio of 2 : 3 and sells the
mixed stock at a price of ₹ 144 for 10 dozens. What percentage of profit or loss does
he make?
(A) 26 ¾% (B) 34¼%
(C) 20% (D) 28%
*****
34
B.A.LL.B.(HONS.) MASTER ANSWER KEY
Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer
1 B 36 A 71 D 106 C 141 B
2 A 37 B 72 A 107 B 142 B
3 D 38 A 73 D 108 D 143 D
4 C 39 C 74 B 109 A 144 A
5 B 40 D 75 D 110 C 145 C
6 B 41 B 76 A 111 B 146 B
7 A 42 A 77 C 112 D 147 C
8 D 43 D 78 B 113 C 148 B
9 D 44 B 79 D 114 D 149 A
10 A 45 D 80 B 115 B 150 C
11 D 46 D 81 D 116 D
12 C 47 B 82 B 117 C
13 A 48 C 83 A 118 D
14 C 49 C 84 C 119 C
15 A 50 A 85 D 120 D
16 D 51 A 86 B 121 A
17 D 52 D 87 C 122 D
18 B 53 B 88 A #123 #
19 C #54 # 89 B 124 A
20 B 55 A 90 A 125 C
21 D 56 C 91 C 126 C
22 A 57 B 92 D 127 B
23 B 58 A 93 A 128 A
24 C 59 B 94 C 129 C
25 A 60 D 95 A #130 #
26 D 61 A 96 C 131 A
27 A 62 C 97 B 132 D
28 C 63 A 98 B 133 A
29 B 64 D 99 A 134 b/c
30 C 65 B 100 A 135 B
31 D 66 C 101 D 136 B
32 A 67 A 102 D 137 A
33 D 68 D 103 B 138 C
34 B 69 C 104 A 139 B
35 C 70 C 105 C 140 D
# Question numbers : 54, 123, 130 Deleted
AILET BA LLB
2019
Provisional Answer Key B.A.LL.B.(Hons.) Programme
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1. B 26. D 51. A 76. B 101. D 126. D
2. D 27. B 52. C 77. A 102. A 127. C
3. C 28. C 53. A 78 C 103. D 128. B
4. A 29. B 54. C 79. D 104. A 129. D
5. C 30. D 55. A 80. A 105. D 130. B
6. D 31. C 56. C 81. C 106. D 131. A
7. C 32. B 57. D 82. A 107. C 132. C
8. B 33. A 58. B 83. D 108. A 133. D
9. A 34. C 59. D 84. D 109. B 134. C
10. C 35. B 60. A 85. B 110. D 135. B
11. D 36. A 61. C 86. C 111. C 136. C
12. B 37. D 62. B 87. B 112. A 137. B
13. D 38. C 63. A 88. D 113. C 138. A
14. C 39. B 64. D 89. C 114. D 139. D
15. D 40. A 65. A 90. D 115. B 140. C
16. B 41. B 66. B 91. C 116. A 141. D
17. C 42. D 67. C 92. B 117. C 142. A
18. D 43. B 68. A 93. A 118. B 143. B
19. B 44. C 69. D 94. D 119. C 144. D
20. B 45. B 70. B 95. A 120. D 145. C
21. C 46. A 71. B 96. B 121. C 146. A
22. A 47. C 72. C 97. B 122. B 147. B
23. B 48. D 73. D 98. A 123. B 148. C
24. A 49. D 74. B 99. C 124. A 149. D
25. A 50. D 75. B 100. C 125. B 150. B

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AILET BA LLB

Question Booklet Sl. No.

Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.

Current Affairs and

C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 19 – 38

Total Marks 150

4. The phrase “an all-time high” indicates that India’s marine

5. Substitute the underlined phrase with the option closest in meaning.

7. The most appropriate by-line for the article would be

8. It can be inferred from the text that

11. A ‘small animal veterinarian’ involves dealing with

V. Read the excerpt of a published interview by Lawrence Rubin where he speaks to

23. What is the primary purpose of this passage ?

26. How was Jessica Stone impacted by an online game ?

40. The first paragraph is a fine example of

42. The passage could probably be an excerpt from

44. The women ‘ululating’ in the passage refers to them

45. The tone and mood of the passage is

SECTION – B : current affairs and general knowledge

54. What is the system of ‘six raised dots’ relevant for ?

69. Which of the following is not a Satyajit Ray film ?

SECTION – C : Logical Reasoning

105. Consider the following principle :

106. Consider the following principle :

117. Legislator: We recently evaluated the impact that an amendment to a particular

123. Ayurveda is a traditional branch of medical science in India. Ayurveda techniques

136. Some laptops are chocolates. All toffees are chocolates.

137. All boxes are plugs. All plugs are bottles.

138. Only fruits are pasta. All noodles are pasta.

147. Principle : No person accused of an offence involving commercial quantity of narcotic

149. There must be mandatory vaccination against communicable diseases.

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

MASTER ANSWER KEY

Question Booklet Sl. No.

Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.

C Legal Aptitude 35 71 – 105 14 – 28

D Reasoning 35 106 – 140 29 – 36

E Mathematics 10 141 – 150 37 – 38

Total Marks 150

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s impression

5. The tone of the passage could be summed up to be

Questions 6 – 11 : Choose an appropriate word to fill in each blank space.

6. (a) Judge (b) Juries (c) Prosecutors (d) Defendants

7. (a) personal injuries (b) kickbacks (c) rewards (d) settlements

8. (a) derogatory (b) directive (c) abusive (d) adulatory

9. (a) perks (b) raises (c) rises (d) reimbursements

10. (a) suits (b) complains (c) accusations (d) remarks

13. The lady looked rather lugubrious.

14. She displayed a recalcitrant attitude.

16. The art of speaking or writing effectively is _____________

22. Choose the most appropriate option that is grammatically incorrect :

Questions 26 – 30 : In each sentence a word or phrase is underlined. Below each

31. (a) Tadpole (b) Fledgling (c) Cub (d) Kitten

32. (a) Skin (b) Nails (c) Eyes (d) Nose

34. (a) Abatement (b) Declination (c) Elevation (d) Subsidence

35. (a) Mare (b) Gazelle (c) Antelope (d) Stag

SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

37. India’s foreign exchange reserve in June 2021 touched

47. Which of the following is the fastest growing ‘Tech-Hub’ ?

52. The present Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is

53. National Voters’ Day in India is observed on

61. What is a diplomatic mission between two commonwealth nations called ?