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PRE-ENTRANCE TEST AND SCIENCE COACHING ANSARI MUHALLA LARKANA

EXCELLENT COACHING BY EXPERIENCED TEACHERS

CLASS: PRE-ENTRANCE 2023.24 GRAND TEST DATE: 13/8/2023

“Biology”
1. As a result of------------corpus luteum is formed
A) Menstruation B) fertilization C) ovulation D) implantation E) follicular formation
2. Antibiotics treatment is not effective against which STD?
A) Gonorrhea B) syphilis C) genital herpes D) AIDS
3, In below diagram, the fetus normally develops within which structure?

A) Structure A B) structure B C) structure C D) structure D

4. Mature Graffian follicle is generally present in the ovary of healthy human female around
------- Of menstrual cycle
A) 1---5 day B) 6----12 day C) 13------15 day D) 16--------28 day
5. Identify the Cowper’s gland in given below diagram of male reproductive system?

A) Labeled A B) Labeled B C) Labeled C D) Labeled D

6. The diagram shows the stages of menstrual cycle, during which stage menstruation occurs?

A) A option B) B option C) C option D) None of them

7. The release of sperms from seminiferous tubules is known as---------------
A) Ejaculation B) copulation C) spermiation D) none of them
8. Which of the following duct stores sperms?
A) Vas deference B) rete testis C) epididymis D) urethra
9. In the given below diagram of female menstrual cycle, what does “A” represents?

A) LH B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) menses

10. Main function performed by bulbourethral gland in human is/are
A) Sperm maturation B) neutralization of urethra
C) Sperm production D) semen formation
11. Maximum chances of fertilization in human females exist usually during ------of reproductive
cycle
A) 16th to 28th day B) immediately after menstruation
C) 13th to 15th day D) 7th to12th day
12. Secretion of FSH is inhibited by
A) testosterone B) estrogen C) progesterone D) LH
13. What will be the effect on the duration of menstrual cycle if one of the ovaries is removed?
A) duration will be more then 28 days B) menstrual cycle stops completely
C) duration will be less then 28 days D) menstrual cycle remains unaffected
14. Urethra (in male) opens to the outside through external urethral orifice and conveys
A) urine B) sperm C) both of them D) none of them
15. In many mammals testes remains outside body cavity in scrotal sacs,because
A) it helps ejeculaion of semen B) sperms produced in it are more active
C) it helps in movement D) spermatogenesis occurs at a temperature lower than that body
16. Life originated in-------------------
A) air B) water C) land D) all of these
17. Basic idea of evolution is----------------
A) cosmic evolution B) special creation
C) spontaneous generation D) descent with modification
18. Organs which have the same fundamental structure but different in functions are called
A) vestigial organs B) analogous organs
C) homologous organs D) homoplastic organs
19. The most direct evidence of organic evolution is
A) fossils B) embryos C) morphology D) vestigial organs
20. The theory of use and disuse of organs was given by
A) Lamarck B) Darwin C) Weissmann D) Hugo de vries
21. Darwin travelled in which ship?
A) H.N.S. Eagle B) Titanic C) H.M.S. Beagle D) D)Metrica
22. The main point of Darwin’s theory is
A) variation B) mutation C) enormous fertility D) natural selection
23. Survival of the fittest is possible due to
A) overproduction B) favourable variation
C) environmental changes D) inheritance of acquired characters
24. Most modern breeds of domestic dog have been evolved through
A) isolation B) sexual selection C) artificial selection D) natural selection
25. The raw material for organic evolution is
A) asexual reproduction B) mutation C) effective hormones D) nutritive substances
26. Darwin’s finches are found in--------------------
A) Tundra B) Tahiti C) H.M.S beagle D) Galapagos island
27. Sweet potato and potato are examples of-------------------
A) homologous structures B) analogous structures C) both D) none of these
28. Earliest life forms on the earth was
A) autotrophs B) cyanobacteria C) photoautotroph D) chemoheterotroph
29. Which of the following are homologous organs?
A) wings of insects and bat B) fins of fishes and flippers of blue whale
C) fins of fishes and forearms of humans D) forearms of humans,wings of bat and whale flipper
30. Earth was formed-------------------billion years back
A) 4.5 B) 5.5 C) 3.5 D) 1.5
31. The main reason for the success of Mendel was
A) study of all the characters at the same time B) counting of plants
C) study of one character at one time D) study of all the plants at the same time
32. In a monohybrid cross, 120 plants are obtained .The ration of homozygous and heterozygous
will Be----------------
A) 40:80 B) 60:60 C) 20:100 D) 10:110
33. The incorrect statement with regard to heamophilia is
A) it is sex linked disease B) it is recessive disease
C) it is a dominant disease D) A protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
34. Drosophila melanogaster has four pairs of chromosomes, how many linkage groups does it
have?
A) Eight B) four
C) One less than the pairs of chromosomes D) one more than the pairs of chromosomes
35. Male is homogametic in----------------
A) Drosophila B) Human C) Fowl D) all of these
36. In peas, the allele for tall plants, T is dominant to the allele for dwarf plants, t Which alleles
would be present in the male nucleus of a pollen grain produced by a dwarf plant?
A) T B) t C) TT D) tt
37. In fruit flies, the allele for long wings A is dominated and allele for short wings, a is recessive
20 heterozygous long winged flies were mated with 20 short winged flies,210 of the offspring
Had long wings…how many short winged offspring are likely to have been produced?
A) 70 B) 105 C) 210 D) 420
38. The diagram shown the inheritance of red-green colour blindness in a family. This condition is
caused by a sex linked recessive allelE)

What is the probability that individual R will be a colour-blind boy.

A) 0 B) 75% C) 25% D) 50% E) 100%
39. It is well known that Queen Victoria of England was a carrier for haemophilia . Since this is
An X-linked disease, it can be predicted that
A) all of her sons would have had disease
B) all her daughters have been carriers
C) her father must must definitely have had haemophilia
D) haemophilia would have occurred in more of her male than her female descendents
40. Which of the following crosses would produce a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 in F2?
A) ABxAB B) Abxab C) AbxAb D) abxab
41. How many different phenotypes can be found in the offspring of the cross BbCc x BbCc?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 9 D) 16
42. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining
160 To aA) Based on this data, the frequency of alleles A in the population is
A) 0.4 B) 0.5 C) 0.6 D) 0.7
43. If one parent has blood group A and the other parent has blood group B, the offspring have
Which blood group?
A) AB B) O C) BO D) A,B,AB,O
44. A person with antigens “B” in RBC and antibodies “A” in plasma belongs to the blood group
A) A B) B C) AB D) O
45. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
A) dominance of genes B) linkage between genes
C) segregation of alleles D) recombination of linked alleles
46. In below diagram of spinal cord, which labelled structure shows the dorsal root ganglia?
A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E

47. Neuron can---------------

A) detect stimuli B) receive stimuli C) transmit stimuli D) all of these
48. Any damage to medulla oblongata may lead to death because of----------
A) respiratory arrest B) cardiac arrest C) excretory arrest D) both a and b
49. The major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling is------------
A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) medulla oblongata D) pons
50. Resting membrane potential is maintained by-----------
A) hormones B) neurotransmitters C)ions pumps D) none of these
51. Which of the following not involved in knee jerk reflex?
A) muscles B) motor neuron C) spinal cord D) brain E)sensory neuron
52. The part of the brain which controls facial expression,breathing and sleeping etc is------------
A) option A B) option B C) option C D) option D
53. In a cross between a homozygous white eyed female Drosophila and a red male
DrosophilA) What Percentage of the female offspring would be expected to be white eyed?
A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
54. The part of neuron that receives information is--------------
A) axon B) dendrites C) node of reniver D) myelin sheath
55. Depolarization occurs due to----------------
A) influx of Na+ B) efflux of Na+ C) influx of K+ D) efflux of K+
56. Which element ion helps in releasing Ach at syneptic cleft?
A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca++ D) PO4
57. In an action potential, the stage that immediately follows depolarization is----------
A) resting membrane potential B) repolarization C) polarization D) threshold potential
58. Identify the correct sequence in following image of synapse

A) Receptors—calcium ions----neurotransmmiters—presynaptic membrane

B) Post synaptic membrane—neurotransmittoers—presynaptic membrane—vesicle
C) Receptors---neurotransmitters ---vesicles---pre-synaptic membrane
D) post synaptic membrane---calcium ions----vesicle------pre syneptic membrane
59. Receptors present abundantly in hairless areas are-------------
A) Pacinian corpuscles B) Meissner’s corpuscles
C) free nerve endings D) ruffini’s corpuscles
60. Phallengeal formula of hand is---------------
A)1:2:2:2:2 B) 2:1:1:1:1 C) 2:3:3:3:3 D) 2:3:3:2:2
61. When the head of humerus bone is fits into glenoid cavity, the joint is
A) ball and socket joint B) hinge joint C) pivot joint D) gliding joint
62. The functional unit of the contractile system in the striped muscle is---------
A) Z-band B) A-band C) myofibril D) sarcomere
63. The bone which is present on ventral midline of thorax is
A) vertebral column B) ribs C) scapula D) sternum
64. Ribs attached to sternum are
A) first seven pairs B) all twelve pairs C) first ten pairs D) first five pairs
65. According to the sliding filament theory
A) actin moves over myosin B) myosin moves over actin
C) both moves on each other D) none of above
66. From the above diagram of muscle, which is fascicle?
A) label 5 B) label 6 C) label 2 D) label 3 E) label 7
67. Which of the following in conjunction with somatotrophin bring about growth and act directly
On brain cells=============
A) T3 B) T4 C) calcitonin D) b0th a and b
68. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function

HORMONE SOURCE FUNCTION

a…..vasopressin Posterior pituitary Increase loss of water through
urine
B) norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increase heart beat, rate of
respiration and alertness
C) glucagon Beta-cells of islets of langerhen Stimulates glycogenolysis
d prolactin Posterior pituitary Regulates growth of mammary
glands and milk formation
 “Chemistry”
69. 10 dm3 of N2 gas, 10 dm3 of gas „X‟ at a Similar Temperature have the Same Molecule
Number. Thus, the Gas X is
A) CO B) H2 C) CO2 D) NO
70. Under STP,the Ratio of the Volumes of nitrogen and oxygen will be ___________
A) 7 : 8 B) 9 : 2 C) 5 : 6 D) 3 : 5
23
71. The Mass of 2.044 × 10 Carbon Atoms is
A) 15 g B) 38 g C) 4 g D) 48 g
72. How many moles of CH4 are required to produce 36 g of water?
CH4 +2O2 CO2 +2H2O
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
73. The decrease in volume under pressure is called
A) Contraction B) Compressibility C) expansibility D) liquefaction
74. The order of the rate of diffusion of gases NH3, SO2, Cl2 and CO2 is:
A) NH3 > SO2 > Cl2 > CO2 B) NH3 > CO2 > SO2 > Cl2
C) Cl2> SO2 > CO2 > NH3 D) Cl2 > NH3 > SO2 > CO2
75. The deviation of a gas from ideal behaviour is maximum at,
A) – 10 oC and 5.0 atm B) – 10 oC and 2.0 atm C) 100 oC and 2.0 atm D) 0 oC and 2.0 atm
76. Most ideal gas at room temperature is:
A) CO2 B) NH3 C) SO2 D) N2
77. The rate of diffusion of methane is twice than X , the molecular mass of X will be
A) 40 B) 80 C) 32 D) 64
78. Rate of effusion of a gas is
A) Directly proportional to its density B) Directly proportional to its molar mass
C) Directly proportional to the square root of its mass
D) Inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass.
79. The pressure of 2 moles of an ideal gas at 273°C occupying a volume of 44.8 L is
A) 2 atm B) 1 atm C) 3 atm D) 4 atm
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80. What is the molar mass of gas whose density is 1.5 g L at 27°C and 1 atm pressure
A) 360 B) 720 C) 36 D) 18
81. According to Aufbau principle a new electron enters the orbitals when:
A) (n + l) is minimum B) (n + l) is maximum C) (n + m) is minimum D) (n + m) is maximum
82. Which of the following were theorized by Bohr in his description of the atom except
A) Angular momentum of electrons is multiples of h/2?
B) Electrons revolve in discrete circular orbits
C) Energy of each electron is directly proportional to n2
D) Electrons radiate energy continuously in orbit.
83. How many orbitals can have the following set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0 ?
A) 3 B) 1 C) 4 D) 2
84. Which property is not related with NO?
A) it is diamagnetic B) it is a neutral oxide
C) it reacts with oxygen to form NO2 D) its bond order is 2.5
3
85. Which species contains an sp -hybridized atom?
A) H3C+ B) H2C=O+H C) H3O+ D) H2C=CH2+
86. The Dipole-Induced Dipole Interactions are Present in
A) H2O and alcohol B) Cl2 and CCl4 C) HCl and He D) SiF4 and He atoms
87. Which of the Following Ones is Paramagnetic?
A) CO B) CN– C) NO+ D) O2–
88. The order of polarity of NH3, NF3 and BF3 is
A) NH3 < NF3 < BF3 B) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 C) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 D) NF3 < BF3 < NH3
89. The incorrect statement:
A) Epsom salt is an ore containing Sodium B) Bauxite is an ore of Aluminum
C) Carnallite is ore containing Magnesium D) Dolomite is ore of magnesium
90. The unit of the rate of the reaction In second order reaction is
A) s-1 B) mol L-1s-1 C) mol-1L s-1 D) mol-2 L2 s-1
91. According to chemical kinetic theory, a reaction can occur
A) If the reactants collide with the proper orientation
B) If the reactants possess sufficient energy of collision
C) If the reactants are able to form a correct transition state
D) All of the above
92. Which of the following does not affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
A) Enthalpy of the reaction B) concentration of reactants C) temperature D) surface area
93. Which of the following is false about molecularity of a reaction?
A) it is always a whole number B) it cannot have zero value
C) it is varies with chemical reaction D) it is experimentally found
94. The electrochemical cell stops working after sometime due to
A) Increase in temperature
B) Difference of cell potentials of both electrodes become zero.
C) Reversing the direction of reaction taking place in the cell.
D) Change in concentration
95. What is used for the measurement of accurate potential of electrochemical cell?
A) Galvanometer B) Ammeter C) Voltmeter D) Potentiometer
96. Which is correct order of strength as reducing agent. The values of standard reduction
potential of X, Y and Z metals are 0.34 V, 0.80 V and -0.45 V.
A) Z > Y > X B) Z > X > Y C) X > Y > Z D) Y > Z > X
97. The Standard electrode potentials for the half cell reactions are as follows
Zn , Zn2+ + 2e– [E° = 0.41 V] , Fe , Fe2+ + 2e– [E° = 0.76 V]
A) -0.35 V B) 0.35 V C) + 1.17 V D) -1.17 V
–
98. The conjugate acid of NH2 is
A) NH3 B) NH4OH C) NH4+ D) NH–
99. The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0×10 mol dm . The maximum concentration of Ag+ ions
-10 2. -6

is the solution is
A) 2.0×10-10 mol2.dm-6 B) 1.41×10-5 mol.dm-3 C) 4.0×10-10 mol2.dm-3 D) 1.0×10-10 mol2.dm-6
100. Which of the following undergo substitution reaction
A) CH3-C≡C-CH3 B) CH3-CH=CH2 C) CH≡CH D) none of these
101. Which of the following is not hetrocyclic compound?
A) Naphthalene B) furan C) pyridine D) pyrrole
102. Glycols and Glycerols can be differentiated on the basis of _____________
A) Number of carbon atoms B) number of hydroxyl group
C) Position of hydroxyl group D) All
103. In Carboxylic acid group the hybridization of oxygen in hydroxyl group is _____________
A) Sp B) Sp2 C) Sp3 D) dsp3 E) none of these
104. By which process wine convent into vinegar
A) Reduction B) Oxidation C) Polymerization D) Elimination E) Substitution
105. The resonance energy of benzene is
A) -119.5 kj/ mol B) -358.5 kj/ mol C) 36 k cal D) 45 k cal
106. The methyl redical is attached with benzene ring it make the ring
A) Good electrophile B) Good nucleophile C) Resonance hybrid D) deactivate of director
107. Most reactive halide towards SN1 reaction
A) n- butyl chloride B) Secondary butyl chloride C) Tertiary butyl chloride D) Allyl chloride
108. What are the common names of tricholoro methane and 1,2 dibromo propane
A) Methyl trichloride and propyl 1, 2 dibromo
B) Chloroform and propylene di bromide
C) Carbon tetrachloride and bromo propane
D) Methyl tetrachloro and propylene bromide
109. The reaction in which excess alcohol yields water and other product will be ____________
2C2H5 OH conc: H2504 ? + H20
140oc
A) Ether B) Ester C) Carboxylic acid D) Aldehyde
110. Carbolic acid is sparingly soluble in water forming _______ coloured solution at room tenp.
A) Blue B) Red C) White D) Pink
111. Oxonium ion is formed when
A) Ethanol reacts with Na metal B) Phenol reacts with NaOH solution
C) Ether is treated with HI D) Ethanol is treated with aq: NaOH and iodine
112. The name of this structure will be
OH

SO3H
A) Benzene sulphonic acid B) 4- sulphonic acid 1- hydroxy benzene
C) 4-hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid D) Benzene 4- sulphonic acid
E) None of these
113. When phenol reacted with concentrated nitric acid to produce
A) O- nitrophenol B) P- nitrophenol C) both a and b D) Picric acid E) TNT
114. Tertiary alcohol is not oxidized by alkaline KMn04 but the mixture of k2 Cr207 and H2So4
convert __________in the presence of an acid
A) Ketone B) Aldehyde C) Alkene D) Alkyne E) Not possible
115. Acid anhydrides are hydrolyzed under acidic on basic conditions to from.
A) Amines B) Ester C) Aldehyde D) Ketones E) Carboxylic acid
116. Ethanal reacts with HCN to form cyanohydrin, it is example of ______
A) Nucleophilic addition B) Electrophilic substitution
C) Electrophilic addition D) Nucleophilic substitution
117. Nucleoprotein is example of
A) Simple protein B) Conjugated protein C) Derived protein D) All
118. How many carbonyl group are present is a molecule of Acetophenone
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0
119. Adipic acid also known as
A) Butandioic acid B) Valeric acid C) Malonic acid D) Haxandioic acid
120. The correct order boiling point of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol.
A) Primary alcohol > Secondary alcohol > Tertiary alcohol
B) Tertiary alcohol > Secondary alcohol > Primary alcohol
C) Secondary alcohol > Primary alcohol > Tertiary alcohol
D) Primary alcohol > Tertiary alcohol > Secondary alcohol
121. Which of the following Aliphatic tricarboxylic acid
A) Tartaric acid B) Lactic acid C) Citric acid D) Caproic acid
122. Which phenol is tri hydric?
A) Catechol B) hydroquinone C) Hydroxy hydroquinone
D) Picric acid E) All of these
 “Physics”
123. In the hydrogen spectrum, the series of spectral lines that lie in the ultraviolet region is
known as:
A) Balmer series B) Paschen series C) Brackett series D) Lyman series
124. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Lyman series?
A) The lines in the Lyman series appear in the visible region.
B) The Lyman series lines are more closely spaced than the Balmer series lines.
C) The Lyman series corresponds to transitions to the second energy level (n = 2).
D) The Lyman series lines are only observed in the presence of a magnetic field.
125. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom is lowest when it is in the:
A) Ground state B) Excited state C) Second excited state D) Third excited state
126. Which of the following statements is correct about the Lyman series transitions?
A) Electrons absorb energy and move to higher energy levels.
B) Electrons emit energy and move to lower energy levels.
C) Electrons gain energy and jump to the same energy level.
D) Electrons lose energy and return to the ground state.
127. In the hydrogen spectrum, the series of spectral lines that lie in the visible region is known as:
A) Balmer series B) Paschen series C) Brackett series D) Lyman series
128. In the hydrogen spectrum, the series of spectral lines that lie in the infrared region is
known as:
A) Paschen series B) Balmer series C) Brackett series D) Lyman series
129. The Paschen series in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to transitions of electrons from
higher energy levels to which energy level?
A) n = 1 B) n = 2 C) n = 3 D) n = 4
130. The decay of a radioactive substance follows:
A) Linear decay B) Exponential decay C) No pattern D) uniform decay
131. The Brackett series in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to transitions of electrons from
higher energy levels to which energy level?
A) n = 1 B) n = 2 C) n = 3 D) n = 4
132. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Pfund series?
A) The lines in the Pfund series appear in the ultraviolet region.
B) The Pfund series lines are more closely spaced than the Brackett series lines.
C) The Pfund series corresponds to transitions to the fifth energy level (n = 5).
D) The Pfund series lines are only observed in the presence of a magnetic field.
133. Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of:
A) Sound B) Heat C) Particles D) Electricity
134. The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time taken for:
A) Half of the atoms to decay B) All of the atoms to decay
C) One-third of the atoms to decay D) One-fourth of the atoms to decay
135. Which type of radiation can be stopped by a sheet of paper or a few centimeters of air?
A) Alpha radiation B) Beta radiation C) Gamma radiation D) Neutron radiation
136. The unit used to measure the activity of a radioactive substance is:
A) Joule (J) B) Watt (W) C) Becquerel (Bq) D) Ohm (Ω)
137. Which radioactive decay involves the emission of high-energy electromagnetic waves?
A) Alpha decay B) Beta decay C) Gamma decay D) Neutron decay
138. Radioactive decay is a random process that depends on:
A) External factors like temperature and pressure B) The age of the radioactive substance
C) The initial amount of the radioactive substance D) None of the above
139. The decay of a radioactive substance is governed by:
A) Newton's laws of motion B) Coulomb's law
C) Einstein's theory of relativity D) Probability laws
140. The photoelectric effect provided evidence for the _______ nature of light.
A) Particle B) Wave C) Both particle and wave D) Neither particle nor wave
141. The minimum energy required to liberate an electron from a material is known as the:
A) Threshold frequency B) Work function C) Kinetic energy D) Rest mass energy
142. According to the photoelectric effect, increasing the intensity of incident light while keeping the
frequency constant will affect the _______.
A) Kinetic energy of emitted electrons B) Number of emitted electrons
C) Wavelength of incident light D) Work function of the material
143. If the frequency of incident light is below the threshold frequency, the photoelectric effect:
A) Cannot occur B) Produces electrons with higher kinetic energy
C) Produces electrons with lower kinetic energy D) Produces photons instead of electrons
144. The PIV (peak inverse voltage) of diodes in center tapped rectifier is ______ of the maximum
value of supplied input
A) Half B) double C) same D) Not
145. The Compton wavelength shift is proportional to the _______ of the incident photon.
A) Wavelength B) Amplitude C) Frequency D) Speed
146. The Compton effect is used to experimentally verify the concept of _______.
A) Wave-particle duality B) Superposition
C) Special relativity D) Quantum mechanics
147. The PIV (peak inverse voltage) of diode in half wave rectifier is ________ of the maximum
value of supplied input
A) Half B) double C) same D) Not
148. Pair production is a process that occurs when a high-energy _______ interacts with the
electromagnetic field near the nucleus of an atom.
A) Electron B) Proton C) Photon D) Neutron
149. The most common pair produced during pair production consists of a:
A) Proton and a neutron B) Electron and a positron
C) Photon and a neutrino D) Neutron and an antineutron
150. Pair production plays a significant role in understanding the behavior of matter and energy
In _______.
A) Particle accelerators B) Stars C) Atoms D) Superconductors
151. The stopping potential in the photoelectric effect is directly proportional to the _______
Of the incident light.
A) Wavelength B) Intensity C) Frequency D) Speed
152. If 15/16 th of the radioactive atoms of polonium decay in 12.2 minute find the percentage of
the element left.
A) 6.25 % B) 12.5% C) 25 % D) 50% E) NOT
153. The PIV (peak inverse voltage) rating of the diodes in bridge rectifier is ________ than center
tapped full wave rectifier
A) Half B) double C) same D) Not
154. Annihilation of matter is commonly associated with:
A) Particle decay B) Particle acceleration
C) Particle creation D) Particle-antiparticle interactions
155. The energy released during matter-antimatter annihilation is determined by:
A) The mass of the particles involved B) The charge of the particles involved
C) The speed of the particles involved D) The temperature of the environment
156. The output waveform of a half-wave rectifier is characterized by:
A) A continuous sine wave B) A continuous square wave
C) A pulsating DC wave D) A constant DC voltage
157. In a half-wave rectifier circuit, the diode allows current flow in which direction?
A) From anode to cathode B) From cathode to anode
C) Bidirectional D) The direction changes depending on the load
158. The efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is typically _______ compared to full-wave rectifiers.
A) Higher B) Lower C) Same D) Unrelated
159. Which component in the half-wave rectifier circuit is used to smooth out the pulsating DC
output?
A) Resistor B) Capacitor C) Transformer D) Inductor
160. The voltage output of a half-wave rectifier is dependent on the:
A) Input frequency B) Input voltage amplitude
C) Input load resistance D) Diode temperature
161. The ripple factor in a half-wave rectifier is _______ compared to full-wave rectifiers.
A) Higher B) Lower C) Same D) Unrelated
162. In a full-wave rectifier, the diodes conduct current during which part of the input cycle?
A) Positive half-cycle B) Negative half-cycle
C) Both positive and negative half-cycles D) None of the above
163. In a full-wave rectifier bridge circuit, how many diodes are used for rectification?
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
164. How many diodes conduct current at a time in a full-wave rectifier bridge circuit?
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
165. 16 gram of radioactive iodine is present. How much iodine would remain after 5 half lives?
A) 0.25 gram B) 0.5 gram C) 1gram D) 2gram E) NOT
166. How much energy is emitted by hydrogen atom, when on electron shifts from the fourth orbit
to the 3rd orbit?
A) 0.65 ev B) 0.85 ev C) 10.2 ev D) 12.1 ev E) none of these
167. What are principal quantum for the shortest wave length photon emitted in the Balmer series?
A) nf = 1, ni = 2 B) nf =2 , ni = 3 C) nf = 1, ni = infinity D) nf = 2, ni = infinity
168. What are principal quantum for longest wave length photon emitted in paschen series?
A) nf=1, ni = 2 B) nf=2, ni=3 C) nf=3, ni=4 D) nf=4, ni=5 E) NOT
169. An electron moves
(i) from n=3 ton n=1 and (ii) from n=4 to n=2 level in hydrogen atom. In both transition.
Photons are emitted which photon has higher frequency
A) Only (i) are correct B) only (ii) are correct
C) Both (i) and (ii) have same frequency D) none of these
170. Copper has thershold frequency of 1.1x10 HZ light of frequency 2.5x1015 HZ falls on
15

copper plete what is maximum K.E of photo electron emitted.

A) 9.27x10-19 joules B) 9.27x10-17joules C) 9.27x10-16 joules
D) 9.27x10-15 joules E) None of these
171. In the full-wave rectifier bridge circuit, the output frequency is _______ the input frequency.
A) Half B) Equal to C) Double D) Dependent on the load resistance
172. The full-wave rectifier bridge circuit is commonly used in applications where ____ is essential.
A) Output voltage stability B) Input voltage stability
C) Output current stability D) Efficiency
173. What is potential energy of electron for the Bohrs hydrogen atom is ground state
A) -27.2 ev B) -29.2 ev C) -30.2 ev D) None of these
174. What is kinetic energy of electron for the Bohrs hydrogen atom is ground state
A) 13.6 ev B) -13.6 ev C) -27.2 ev D) 27.2 ev E) None of these
th
175. If 7/8 of the radioactive atoms of radium decay in 12 minute find the half-life of element.
A) 4 min B) 6 min C) 9 min D) Not
176. If the half-life of radium is 1600 years, what fraction of a sample radium will have decayed
after 3200 years?
A) 0.25 B) 0.5 C) 0.75 D) 1 E) None of these
 “English”
177. Choose the properly worded sentence:
A) The breathtaking sceneries of mountains, lakes, and forests was captivating during the sunset.
B) The breathtaking sceneries of mountains, lakes, and forests were captivating during the sunset.
C) The breathtaking scenery of mountains, lakes, and forests was captivating during the sunset.
D) The breathtaking scenery of mountains, lakes, and forests were captivating during the sunset.
178. Identify the error in the sentence.
The addicted require treatment and support to overcome their dependence on substances. No error
A) The B) require C) to overcome D) dependence on E) No error
179. Identify the error in the sentence.
Ali hasn't been able to work since he broke his leg. No error
A) hasn't B) able to C) since D) broke E) No error
180. Identify the sentence with correct punctuation:
A) While I was running my phone died so I had to stop.
B) While I was running, my phone died, so I had to stop.
C) While I was running my phone died, so I had to stop.
D) While I was running my phone died; so I had to stop.
181. Identify the sentence with correct punctuation:
A) She said, “How Beautiful!”. B) She said, “How Beautiful!’’
C) “How Beautiful!”, she said. D) “How Beautiful!’’ she said.
182. Health is preferable __________wealth.
A) Over B) about C) on D) to
183. I thought it rude _______ her to interrupt me.
A) Of B) about C) to D) for E) Not
184. Kainat likes to engage_______political debates.
A) To B) with C) for D) in E) Not
185. The glass fell ____ the table and shattered on the floor.
A) Off B) on C) out of D) form E) Not
186. If it snows, ________ still drive to the coast?
A) do you B) will you C) would you D) would you have
187. He would have gone with you if you had asked him.
A) Would have B) Gone C) If D) Had asked E) No error
188. She never minds the children to play in the garden. No error
A) Minds B) to play C) the garden D) No error
189. Choose the word that is spelled correctly?
A) Pronunciation B) Pronounciation C) Pronnounciation D) Pronunnciation
190. If I had helped him, he ____________drowned.
A) will not be B) would not be C) will not have D) would not have
191. Raza is good at golf but he _____ very often.
A) Aren’t play B) Isn’t playing C) Doesn’t play D) Didn’t play
192. The population of the world ______________ very fast.
A) Increase B) Increases C) Is increasing D) Has increasing
193. There is ____ pan, ____ same pan I saw in the market.
A) A, An B) A, The C) A, A D) An, The
194. The train left before we reached the station.
A) The train had left after B) The train had left before
C) The train was leaving before D) Not needed
195. The mission provides able service to all the needy people in this area during last few years. No error
A) provides B) service to all C) during D) No error
 Many people believe that it is beneficial to learn a second language. Knowing two languages
makes it easier to travel to foreign countries, communicate with people from other cultures,
and conduct international business. Even if you do not learn to speak another language fluently,
studying a language is a useful academic exercise because it requires concentration and logical
thinking. Some people choose to learn Latin, which is a dead language. Latin has not been spoken
for over a thousand years. Nevertheless, schools in many different countries offer courses in Latin.
Some argue that Latin can help English speakers build their vocabulary, since many English
words are derived from Latin. Latin is also the basis for all of the modern Romance languages.
If you already know Latin, languages like Italian and Spanish will be easier to learn.
Nonetheless, if you choose to study a language that no one speaks anymore, many of the
practical advantages of learning a second language are erased. This means you should think
carefully about which language you choose to learn.
196 The author apparently believes that Latin is
A) Completely useless as a second language
B) Less useful than spoken languages
C) Useful for English speakers but no one else
D) More useful than other dead languages, such as ancient Greek
197. Based on information in paragraph 1, it can be understood that the word beneficial belongs to
which of the following word groups?
A) Healthy, wholesome, nutritional
B) Wise, smart, intelligent
C) Advantageous, helpful, valuable
D) Common, usual, customary
198 Based on information in the passage, it can be understood that a "dead language" is a language
that is
A) Over a thousand years old
B) Not spoken anymore
C) Useful for learning modern vocabulary
D) The basis for other languages
199. According to the author, Latin can be helpful for English speakers because it is
A) The basis for all of the modern Romance languages
B) A way to conduct international business
C) Taught in schools in many different countries
D) A way to help build their vocabulary
200. The main purpose of this passage is to
A) Educate the reader about the advantages and disadvantages of learning a second language
B) Explain that although learning Latin has advantages it is a less useful choice
C) Highlight the reasons why some people think learning Latin is a good idea
D) Argue against the continuation of teaching Latin in schools around the world

Pre- Entrance Grand Test

Sum Academy Larkana
 Pre-Entrance Test and Science Coaching Ansari Muhalla Larkana
Excellent Coaching By Experienced Teachers

ANSWERS KEY GRAND TEST

PRE-ENTRANCE 2023-24
DATE: 13/08/2023

Q# ANS Q# ANS Q # ANS Q# ANS Q # ANS Q# ANS Q # ANS Q # ANS

1 C 26 D 51 D 76 D 101 A 126 B 151 C 176 C
2 D 27 B 52 C 77 D 102 D 127 A 152 A 177 C
3 C 28 D 53 A 78 D 103 C 128 A 153 A 178 E
4 B 29 D 54 B 79 A 104 B 129 C 154 D 179 E
5 D 30 B 55 A 80 C 105 C 130 B 155 A 180 B
6 B 31 C 56 C 81 A 106 B 131 D 156 C 181 B/D
7 C 32 B 57 B 82 D 107 C 132 C 157 A 182 D
8 C 33 C 58 C 83 B 108 B 133 C 158 B 183 A
9 A 34 B 59 B 84 A 109 A 134 A 159 B 184 D
10 B 35 C 60 C 85 C 110 D 135 A 160 B 185 A
11 C 36 B 61 A 86 C 111 C 136 C 161 A 186 B
12 B 37 C 62 D 87 D 112 C 137 C 162 C 187 E
13 D 38 C 63 D 88 B 113 D 138 D 163 D 188 B
14 C 39 D 64 A 89 A 114 C 139 D 164 B 189 A
15 D 40 C 65 A 90 C 115 E 140 A 165 B 190 D
16 B 41 B 66 E 91 D 116 A 141 B 166 A 191 C
17 D 42 C 67 D 92 A 117 B 142 B 167 D 192 C
18 C 43 D 68 B 93 D 118 A 143 A 168 C 193 B
19 A 44 B 69 A 94 B 119 D 144 B 169 A 194 B
20 A 45 D 70 A 95 D 120 A 145 A 170 A 195 A
21 C 46 A 71 C 96 B 121 C 146 A 171 C 196 B
22 D 47 D 72 A 97 B 122 C 147 C 172 A 197 C
23 B 48 D 73 B 98 A 123 D 148 C 173 A 198 B
24 C 49 A 74 B 99 B 124 B 149 B 174 A 199 D
25 B 50 C 75 C 100 C 125 A 150 A 175 A 200 B

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