CODE - C4-

FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

(Held On Tuesday 6th JUNE, 2023)

BIOLOGY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

Section - A (Biology : Botany) 104. Match List-I with List-II.

101. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II

List-I List-II (A) Chlorophyll a (I) Yellow to yellow

orange
(A) Protein (I) C=C double bonds
(B) Chlorophyll b (II) Yellow green
(B) Unsaturated fatty (II) Phosphodiester bond

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(C) Xanthophyll (III) Blue green
acid
(D) Carotenoid (IV) Yellow
(C) Nucleic acid (III) Glycosidic bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(D) Polysaccharide (IV) Peptide bonds
below :
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
below :
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) Ans. (1)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) 105. Nitrates and phosphates flowing from agricultural
Ans. (3) farms into water bodies are a significant cause of :
102. Match List-I with List-II. (1) Eutrophication (2) Humification
(3) Mineralisation (4) Stratification
List-I List-II Ans. (1)
(A) Hydrarch succession (I) Gradual change in 106. Match List-I with List-II.
the species List-I List-II
composition
(Type of cross) (Phenotypic ratio)
(B) Xerarch succession (II) Faster and climax
(A) Monohybrid Cross (I) 1 : 1
reached quickly
(B) Dihybrid Cross (II) 1 : 2 : 1
(C) Ecological succession (III) Lichens to mesic
(C) Incomplete (III) 3 : 1
conditions
dominance
(D) Secondary succession (IV) Phytoplankton to
(D) Test Cross (IV) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
mesic conditions
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
below :
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)
103. In Calotropis, aestivation is :
107. How many times decarboxylation occurs during
(1) Valvate
each TCA cycle ?
(2) Vexillary
(3) Imbricate (1) Thrice (2) Many
(4) Twisted (3) Once (4) Twice
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)

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Final NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR) EXAM/06-06-2023
108. The dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs 113. In a pea flower, five petals are arranged in a
during : specialized manner with one posterior, two lateral
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene and two anterior. These are named as _______,
(3) Diakinesis (4) Leptotene _______ and ________ respectively.
Ans. (2) (1) Keel, Wings and Standard
109. Identify the correct statements regarding Mass flow (2) Vexillum, Keel and Standard
hypothesis. (3) Keel, Standard and Carina
(A) Mass flow is faster than diffusion. (4) Standard, Wings and Keel
(B) Mass flow is the result of pressure difference Ans. (4)
between the end points. 114. In which of the following sets of families, the pollen
(C) Different substances involved in mass flow move grains are viable for months ?

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at different paces. (1) Solanaceae, Poaceae and Liliaceae
(D) Mass flow can result through either a positive or (2) Brassicaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient. (3) Rosaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Leguminosae, Solanaceae and Rosaceae
below : Ans. (4)
(1) (A), (C), (D) only (2) (B), (C), (D) only
115. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of
(3) (A), (B), (C) only (4) (A), (B), (D) only
another flower of same plant is known as :
Ans. (4)
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy
110. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be
(3) Autogamy (4) Cleistogamy
achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon
Ans. (1)
after :
116. The phenomenon which is influenced by auxin and
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
also played a major role in its discovery :
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
(1) Phototropism (2) Root initiation
Ans. (4)
(3) Gravitropism (4) Apical Dominance
111. Given below are two statements :
Ans. (1)
Statement I :
117. The transverse section of a plant part showed
RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world.
polyarch, radial and exarch xylem, with endodermis
Statement II :
and pericycle. The plant part is identified as :
Photorespiration does not occur in C4 plants.
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot root
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem
most appropriate answer from the options given
Ans. (1)
below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 118. What will happen if fresh water lake gets

incorrect contaminated by addition of polluted water with

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is high BOD ?
(1) Amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake will
correct
decrease
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) The lake will remain unaffected
correct
(3) Number of submerged aquatic plants in the lake
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
will increase
incorrect
(4) Number of aquatic animals in the lake will
Ans. (3)
increase
112. In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich compared
Ans. (1)
the rivets in an airplane to :
119. The last chromosome sequenced in Human
(1) species within a genus
(2) genetic diversity Genome Project was :
(3) ecosystem (1) Chromosome 6 (2) Chromosome 1
(4) genera within a family (3) Chromosome 22 (4) Chromosome 14
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)

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 CODE - C4-
120. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, 126. Name the component that binds to the operator
potassium and calcium present in the soil at any region of an operon and prevents RNA polymerase
given time is referred to as : from transcribing the operon.
(1) Standing state (2) Standing crop (1) Promotor (2) Regulator protein
(3) Repressor protein (4) Inducer
(3) Humus (4) Detritus
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
127. A heterozygous pea plant with violet flowers was
121. Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of pollen
crossed with homozygous pea plant with white
and nectar and the animals facilitate the pollination
flower. Violet is dominant over white. Which one of
process. This is an example of :
the following represents the expected combinations
(1) Amensalism (2) Competition

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among 40 progenies formed ?
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism (1) 30 produced violet and 10 produced white
Ans. (4) flowers
122. The species of plants that plays a vital role in (2) 20 produced violet and 20 produced white
controlling the relative abundance of other species flowers
in a community is called _____ . (3) All 40 produced violet flowers
(4) All 40 produced white flowers
(1) alien species (2) endemic species
Ans. (2)
(3) exotic species (4) keystone species
128. Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory
Ans. (4)
pathway through :
123. Match List-I List-II.
(1) Acetyl CoA
List-I List-II
(2) a-Ketoglutaric acid
(A) Pteropsida (I) Psilotum
(3) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(B) Lycopsida (II) Equisetum
(4) Pyruvic acid
(C) Psilopsida (III) Adiantum
Ans. (1)
(D) Sphenopsida (IV) Selaginella
129. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following
Choose the correct answer from the options given site will result in loss of tetracyclin resistance of
below : pBR322 :
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (1) Pst I (2) Pvu I (3) EcoR I (4) BamH I
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) Ans. (4)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) 130. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
List-I List-II
Ans. (4)
124. Inulin is a polymer of : (A) Auxin (I) Promotes female flower
formation in cucumber
(1) Fructose
(B) Gibberellin (II) Overcoming apical
(2) Galactose dominance
(3) Amino acids
(C) Cytokinin (III) Increase in the length of
(4) Glucose grape stalks
Ans. (1)
(D) Ethylene (IV)
Promotes flowering in
125. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was pineapple
isolated from : Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Thermus aquaticus below :
(2) Escherichia coli (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Ans. (1) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (2)
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Final NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR) EXAM/06-06-2023
131. During symport two different molecules move Section - B (Biology : Botany)
across the membrane : 136. Which of the following mineral ion is not
(1) in same direction with the help of different remobilized in plants ?
carriers located at a common site (1) Potassium (2) Calcium
(3) Nitrogen (4) Phosphorus
(2) in same direction with the help of different
Ans. (2)
carriers located at different sites in the same cell
137. Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
(3) in same direction with the help of same carrier
(1) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
(4) in opposite direction with the help of same
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
carrier and PS II
Ans. (3) (3) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesised

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132. Which classes of algae possess pigment fucoxanthin during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
and pigment phycoerythrin, respectively ? (4) Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NADP reductase
Ans. (2)
(1) Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae
138. Match Column-I with Column-II.
(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
Column-I Column-II
(3) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(A) Nitrococcus (I) Denitrification
(4) Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(B) Rhizobium (II) Conversion of
Ans. (2) ammonia to
133. In which disorder change of single base pair in the nitrite
gene for beta globin chain results in change of (C) Thiobacillus (III) Conversion of
glutamic acid to valine ? nitrite to
nitrate
(1) Thalassemia
(D) Nitrobacter (IV) Conversion of
(2) Sickle cell anemia
atmospheric
(3) Haemophilia
nitrogen to
(4) Phenylketonuria ammonia
Ans. (2) (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
134. For chemical defence against herbivores, Calotropis (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
has : (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(1) cardiac glycosides (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(2) strychnine Ans. (3)
(3) toxic ricin 139. In angiosperms the correct sequence of events in
(4) distasteful quinine formation of female gametophyte in the ovule is :
Ans. (1) (A) 3 successive free nuclear divisions functional
135. Consider the following tissues in the stelar region of megaspore.
a stem showing secondary growth. (B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores.
(C) Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell.
(A) Primary xylem
(D) Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole.
(B) Secondary xylem
(E) Formation of wall resulting in seven celled
(C) Primary phloem
embryosac.
(D) Secondary phloem
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Arrange these in the correct sequence of their
below :
position from pith towards corts.
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(2) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
(2) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(4) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
(4) (B), (A), (D), (C)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)

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140. Which of the following statements is true ?
(1) All pteridophytes exhibit haplo-diplontic pattern.
(2) Seed bearing plants follow haplontic pattern
(3) Most algal genera are diplontic
(4) Most bryophytes do not have haplo-diplontic life
cycle.
Ans. (1)
141. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
Agrobacterium tumifaciens ?
(1) It is used to deliver gene of interest in both
CODE - C4-
144. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
The process of copying genetic information from
one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription.
Statement II :
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by
the three regions in the DNA i.e., a promotor, the
structural gene and a terminator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the

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prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic host cells.
(2) 'Ti' plasmid from Agrobacterium tumifaciens correct answer from the options given below :
used for gene transfer is not pathogenic to plant (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
cell. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) It transforms normal plant cells into tumor cells. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) It delivers 'T-DNA' into plant cell.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)
142. Consider the following plant tissues :
145. Which scientist conducted an experiment with
32
P
(A) Axillary buds
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(B) Fascicular vascular cambium and S labelled phages for demonstrating that DNA
(C) Interfascicular cambium is the genetic material ?
(D) Cork cambium (1) james D. Watson and F.H. C. Crick
(E) Intercalary meristem (2) A. D Hershey and M.J. Chase
Identify the lateral meristems among the above. (3) F. Griffith
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) O.T. Avery, C.M. MacLeod and M. McCarty
(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only Ans. (2)
(4) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only 146. A certain plant homozygous for yellow seeds and
Ans. (2)
red flowers was crossed with a plant homozygous
143. Match List-I with List-II.
for green seeds and white flowers. The F1 plants had
List-I List-II
yellow seeds and pink flowers. The F1 plants were
(A) Kanamycin (I) Delivers genes
selfed to get F2 progeny. Assuming independent
into animal
assortment of the two characters, how many
cells
phenotypic categories are expected for these
(B) ClaI (II) Selectable
characters in the F2 generation ?
marker
(C) Disarmed (III) Restriction site (1) 9 (2) 16 (3) 4 (4) 6
retroviruses Ans. (4)
R
(D) Kanamycin gene (IV) Antibiotic 147. During which stages of mitosis and meiosis,
resistance respectively does the centromere of each
Choose the correct answer from the options given chromosome split ?
below : (1) Mataphase, Metaphase II
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (2) Prophase, Telophase I
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) Telophase, Anaphase I
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(4) Anaphase, Anaphase II
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)

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Final NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR) EXAM/06-06-2023
148. Which os the following statements is not correct ? 152. Match List - I with List - II.
(1) Phase of cell elongation of plant cells is List-I List-II
characterized by increased vacuolation.
(A) Typhoid (I) Protozoan
(2) Cells in the meristematic phase of growth
exhibit abundant plasmodesmatal connections. (B) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella
(3) Plant growth is generally determinate.
(C) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes
(4) Plant growth is measurable.
Ans. (3) (D) Malaria (IV) Microsporum

149. Match the following : Choose the correct answer from the options given
Type of flower Example below :

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(A) Zygomorphic (I) Mustard (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(B) Hypogynous (II) Plum
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(C) Perigynous (III) Cassia
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(D) Epigynous (IV) Cucumber
Ans. (3)
Select the correct option :
153. Which of the following is not a secondary
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
metabolite?
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(1) Curcumin
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(2) Morphine
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(3) Anthocyanin
Ans. (4)
(4) Lecithin
150. Given below are two statements :
Ans. (4)
Statement I :
154. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for
The process of translocation through phloem is
their role during gametogenesis.
unidirectional but through xylem, it is bidirectional.
(A) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and
Statement II :
secretion of Androgen
The most readily mobilized elements are
(B) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from
phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and potassium.
hypothalamus
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
most appropriate answer from the options given
(D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of
below :
spermiogenesis
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland.
incorrect.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
below :
correct. (1) (E), (A), (D), (B), (C)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)
incorrect. (4) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
Section - A (Biology : Zoology) 155. House fly belongs to _____ family.
151. Which of the following sexually transmitted (1) Cyprinidae
infections are completely curable ? (2) Hominidae
(1) HIV infection and Trichomoniasis (3) Calliphoridae
(2) Syphilis and trichomoniasis (4) Muscidae
(3) Hepatitis – B and Genital herpes Ans. (4)
(4) Genital herpes and Genital warts
Ans. (2)
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 CODE - C4-
156. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical 160. The Cockroach is :
structure of insulin. (1) Ammonotelic only
(1) Mature insulin molecule consists of three (2) Uricotelic only
polypeptide chains-A, B and C. (3) Ureotelic only
(2) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which (4) Ureotelic and Uricotelic
contains extra stretch of C-peptide.
Ans. (2)
(3) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin
161. Which of the following statements are correct with
molecule.
(4) Polypeptide chains A and B are linked by respect to the hormone and its function ?
disulphide bridges. (A) Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood
Ans. (1) calcium level.

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157. Which one of the following is the quiescent stage of (B) In males, FSH and androgens regulate
cell cycle ? spermatogenesis.
(1) M (2) G2 (3) G1 (4) G0 (C) Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre.
Ans. (4) (D) Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla.
158. Given below are two statements : (E) Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulating
Statement I : levels of sodium ions.
RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Statement II : options given below :
RNA can directly code for synthesis of proteins (1) (C) and (E) only (2) (A) and (B) only
hence can easily express the characters. (3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (D) only
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Ans. (2)
correct answer from the options given below :
162. Select the sequence of steps in Respiration.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false (A) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is membrane.
true (B) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true tissues.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (C) Transport of gases by the blood
Ans. (3) (D) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air
159. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason out.
(R) (E) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
Assertion (A) : reactions are resultant release of CO2
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to Choose the correct answer from the options given
water and allows transport of electrolytes actively or below :
passively. (1) (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)
Reason (R) : (2) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
Dilution of filtrate takes place due to efflux of (3) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)
electrolytes in the medullary fluid. (4) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
In the light of the above statements, choose the Ans. (1)
correct answer from the options given below :
163. Which of the following is/are cause(s) of biodiversity
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
losses ?
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) Over-exploitation, habitat loss and
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
fragmentation.
explanation of (A)
(2) Climate change only
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
(3) Over-Exploitation only
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation only
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
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Final NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR) EXAM/06-06-2023
164. Match List-I with List-II. 168. Select the correct statements about sickle cell
List-I List-II anaemia.
(A) Contractile vacuole (I) Asterias (A) There is a change in gene for beta globin.
(B) In the beta globin, there is valine in the place of
(B) Water vascular system (II) Amoeba
Lysine.
(C) Canal system (III) Spongilla
(C) It is an example of point mutation.
(D) Flame cells (IV) Taenia
(D) In the normal gene U is replaced by A.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : below :
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (1) (B), (C) and (D) only
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (2) (B) and (D) only

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(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A) and (C) only
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
165. Match List-I with List-II. 169. Given below are two statements :
List-I List-II Statement I :-
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is another
(A) Palm bones (I) Phalanges
specialised procedure of in-vivo fertilisation.
(B) Wrist bones (II) Metacarpals
Statement II :-
(C) Ankle bones (III) Carpals
Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner
(D) Digit bones (IV) Tarsals
to inseminate female can be corrected by artificial
Choose the correct answer from the options given insemination (AI).
below : In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) correct answer from the options given below:
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) false
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Ans. (4) true
166. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
List-I List-II (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375 Ans. (2)
(B) Copper releasing (II) Rubber barrier 170. Match List-I with List-II.
IUDs List-I List-II
(C) Hormone releasing (III) Lippes loop (ECG) (Electrical activity
IUDs of heart)
(D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20 (A) P-wave (I) Depolarisation of
ventricles
Choose the correct answer from the options given (B) QRS complex (II) End of systole
below : (C) T wave (III) Depolarisation of
(1) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II) atria
(2) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(I) (D) End of T wave (IV) Repolarisation of
(3) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II) ventricles
(4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(II), D-(I) Choose the correct answer from the options given
Ans. (3) below :
167. Which of the following can act as molecular (1) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(III), D-(II)
scissors? (2) A-(I), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(II)
(1) Restriction enzymes (2) DNA ligase (3) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA polymerase (4) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)

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 CODE - C4-
171. Match List-I with List-II. 174. If there are 250 snails in a pond, and within a year
List-I List-II their number increases to 2500 by reproduction.
(A) Eosinophils (I) 6 – 8% What should be their birth rate per snail per year ?
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 25 (4) 15
(B) Lymphocytes (II) 2 – 3%
Ans. (2)
(C) Neutrophils (III) 20 – 25%
175. Given below are two statements :
(D) Monocytes (IV) 60 – 65 %
Statement I :-
Choose the correct answer from the options given The nose contains mucus – coated receptors which
below : are specialised for receiving the sense of smell and
(1) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III) are called olfactory receptors.
(2) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(III), D-(II) Statement II :-

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Wall of the eye ball has three layers. The external
(3) A-(II), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(I)
layer is called choroid (dense connective tissue),
(4) A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV)
middle layer is sclera (thin pigmented layer) and
Ans. (3) internal layer is retina (ganglion cells, bipolar cells
172. Given below are two statements : and photoreceptor cells).
Statement I :- In the light of the above statements, choose the
Goblet cells are unicellular glands. correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Statement II :-
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
correct answer from the options given below:
Ans. (1)
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
176. Which one of the following acts as an inducer for
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true lac operon ?
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) Sucrose (2) Lactose
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) Glucose (4) Galactose
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
177. Match List-I with List-II.
173. Given below are two statements regarding
oogenesis: List-I List-II
(A) Deforestation (I) Responsible for
Statement I :-
heating of Earth's
The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers surface and
of granulosa cells, a theca and shows fluid filled atmosphere
cavity antrum. Now it is called secondary follicle. (B) Reforestation (II) Conversion of
forested areas to
Statement II :- non-forested areas
Graffian follicle ruptures to release the secondary (C) Green-house (III) Natural ageing of
oocyte from the ovary by the process called effect lake by nutrient
enrichment of its
ovulation.
water
In the light of the above statements, choose the (D) Eutrophication (IV) Process of restoring
correct answer from the options given below: a forest that once
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is existed but was
removed
false.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
below :
true (1) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(II), D-(I)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) A-(III), B-(I), C-(II), D-(IV)
Ans. (2) (4) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III)
Ans. (4)

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Final NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR) EXAM/06-06-2023
178. Diacetyl morphine is also called as : 182. Given below are two statements:
(1) Amphetamine (2) Barbiturate Statement I :-
(3) Crack (4) Smack
In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by the
Ans. (4)
extensions of plasma membrane.
179. 'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial
Statement II :-
nomenclature. This naming system was proposed by
'Z' : The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA
(1) X-Generic name, Y-Specific epithet, Z-Carolus replication and cell wall formation.
Linnaeus In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) X-Specific epithet, Y-Generic name, Z-R.H. most appropriate answer from the options given

®
Whittaker
below:
(3) X-Specific epithet, Y-Generic name, Z-Carolus
Linnaeus (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) X-Generic name, Y-Specific epithet, Z-R.H. incorrect.
Whittaker (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Ans. (1)
correct.
180. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(A) Reproductive health refers to total well-being in
correct.
all aspects of reproduction.
(B) Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
determination in India. incorrect.
(C) "Saheli" – a new oral contraceptive for females Ans. (3)
was developed in collaboration with ICMR (New
183. Select correct sequence of substages of Prophase-I
Delhi).
(D) Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic of Meiotic division :
disorders and survivability of foetus. (A) Zygotene
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (B) Pachytene
options given below : (C) Diakinesis
(1) (B) and (C) only (D) Leptotene
(2) (D) and (C) only
(E) Diplotene
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) (A) and (C) only
Ans. (3) below :

181. Match List-I with List-II. (1) (D), (B), (A), (E), (C)
List-I List-II (2) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
(A) Terpenoides (I) Codeine (3) (D), (A), (B), (E), (C)
(B) Lectins (II) Diterpenes (4) (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)
(C) Alkaloids (III) Ricin Ans. (3)
(D) Toxins (IV) Concanavalin A
184. Brainstem of human brain consists of :
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
below :
(2) Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
(1) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(I)
(3) Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora
(2) A-(II), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(III)
(3) A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV) quadrigemina
(4) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III) (4) Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus Callosum
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)

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 CODE - C4-
185. Identify the fossil of man who showed the following 188. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
characteristics. Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc (R).
(B) Used hides to protect their body Assertion (A) :
(C) Buried their dead bodies
A person goes to high altitude and experiences
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
"Altitude Sickness" with symptoms like breathing
answer from the options given below :
difficulty and heart palpitations.
(1) Homo erectus
Reason (R) :
(2) Neanderthal man
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude,
(3) Homo habilits
the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
(4) Australopithecus

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In the light of the above statements, choose the
Ans. (2)
correct answer from the options given below :
Section - B (Biology : Zoology)
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
186. With reference to Hershey and Chase experiments.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
Select the correct statements.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(A) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
explanation of (A).
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA.
(B) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
radioactive proteins. correct explanation of (A).
(C) Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus Ans. (3)
contained radioactive protein. 189. The salient features of genetic code are :
(D) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained (A) The code is palindromic
radioactive DNA. (B) UGA act as initiator codon
(E) Viruses grown on radioactive protein contained
(C) The code is unambiguous and specific
radioactive DNA.
(D) The code is nearly universal
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
options given below :
(1) (D) and (E) only
(1) (A) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (B) only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (B) only
(4) (B) and (D) only
(4) (C) and (D) only
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
187. Select the correct sequential steps regarding
190. Arrange the events of Renin - Angiotensin
absorption of fatty acids and glycerol, in intestine.
(A) Micelles are reformed into small protein coated mechanism in correct sequence.
fat globules called chylomicrons. (A) Activation of JG cells and release of renin.
(B) Micelles move into intestinal mucosa. (B) Angiotensin II activates release of aldosterone.
(C) Fatty acids and glycerol are incorporated into (C) Fall in glomerular blood pressure.
small droplets called micelles. (D) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal
(D) Lacteals release the absorbed substances into convoluted tubule.
blood stream. (E) Angiotensinogen is converted to Angiotensin I
(E) Chylomicrons are transported into lacteals. and then to Angiotensin II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : below :
(1) (A), (E), (B), (D), (C) (1) (C), (A), (E), (B), (D)
(2) (D), (E), (B), (C), (A) (2) (A), (D), (E), (C), (B)
(3) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D) (3) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
(4) (B), (C), (E), (A), (D) (4) (B), (A), (E), (D), (C)
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)

11
Final NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR) EXAM/06-06-2023
191. Select the correct statements regarding dissolved (E) In sponges, fertilization is external and
Oxygen and Biochemical Oxygen Demand. development is direct.
(A) BOD is inversely related to dissolved oxygen. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(B) Low dissolved oxygen and high BOD lead to below :
loss of aquatic life. (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
(C) High BOD leads to high dissolved oxygen. (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(D) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are indicator of
(3) (A) and (E) only
health of a water body.
(4) (B) and (D) only
(E) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are affected by
Ans. (2)
amount of organic matter in the water body.

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194. Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
List-I List-II
options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (E) only (A) Gene therapy (I) Separation of DNA

(2) (A), (B), (D), (E) only fragments

(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) only (B) RNA interference (II) Diagnostic test for
(4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only AIDS
Ans. (2) (C) ELISA (III) Cellular defence
192. Given below are two statements : (D) Gel Electrophoresis (IV) Allows correction of a
Statement I : gene defect.
Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates Choose the correct answer from the options given
the process of bone resorption. below :
Statement II : (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
plays a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism. (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
correct answer from the options given below : Ans. (3)
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 195. Which of the following statements are correct with
false respect of Golgi apparatus ?
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (A) It is the important site of formation of
true glycoprotein and glycolipids.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (B) It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (C) It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes
Ans. (1) on ER.
193. Select the correct statements : (D) It facilitates the transport of ions.
(A) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic (E) It provides mechanical support.
pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical Choose the most appropriate answer from the
organisms.
options given below :
(B) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and
(1) (B) and (C) only
fertilization is external.
(2) (A) and (C) only
(C) In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes
(3) (A) and (D) only
are not separate.
(4) (D) and (E) only
(D) Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic
Ans. (2)
and bioluminescent organisms.

12
 CODE - C4-
196. Select the incorrect statement with respect to 199. Match List-I with List-II.
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET)
List-I List-II
Technology.
(1) Fertilised eggs at 4 to 6 cells - stages are (A) Cytokine barriers (I) Mucus coating of
recovered non-surgically from super-ovulating respiratory tract
cow and transferred to surrogate mother.
(B) Cellular barriers (II) Interferons
(2) It is used to increase herd size in a short time
(3) Cow is administered with hormones to induce (C) Physiological barriers (III) Neutrophils and
super-ovulation.
Macrophages
(4) Super-ovulating cow is either mated with elite

®
bull or is artificially inseminated. (D) Physical barriers (IV) Tears and Saliva

Ans. (1) Choose the correct answer from the options given
197. Given below are two statements :
below :
Statement I :
In cockroach, the forewings are transparent and (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

prothoracic in origin. (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Statement II :
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
In cockroach, the hind wings are opaque, leathery
and mesothoracic in origin. (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

In the light of the above statements, choose the Ans. (1)

correct answer from the options given below :
200. Select the correct statement/s with respect to
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false mechanism of sex determination in Grasshopper.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (A) It is an example of female heterogamety.
true
(B) Male produces two different types of gametes
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false either with or without X chromosome.

Ans. (4) (C) Total number of chromosomes (autosomes and

198. Match List-I with List-II.
sex chromosomes) is same in both males and
List-I List-II
females.
(A) Columnar epithelium (I) Ducts of glands
(B) Ciliated epithelium (II) Inner lining of (D) All eggs bear an additional X chromosome
stomach and besides the autosomes.
intestine
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(C) Squamous epithelium (III) Inner lining of
bronchioles below :
(D) Cuboidal epithelium (IV) Endothelium
(1) (B) and (D) only
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (3) (A) only
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) (A) and (C) only
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)

13